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MAH Pune SSC Result 2015 Declared ! mahresult.nic.in

2015-06-08T22:13:00.002-07:00

Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education, Pune has released MAH SSC Result 2015 declared on 8th June 2015 at 1:00 PM. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education conducted the SSC examination on March 2015 .Maharashtra board hsc 10th Class result 2015 is now available on Maharashtra Board offical website mahresult.nic.in
students of Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education can check their result directly from here

MAH Pune SSC Result 2015 CLICK HERE

Uttarakhand Group C Samuh G- 5 Document Verification IIIPhase (Declared)

2013-12-06T21:12:00.003-08:00

Uttarakhand Board of Technical Education Roorkee (UBTER) has declared Uttarakhand samuh Ga (Group C) Group G- 5 Document Verification IIIPhase (Declared)..Selected candidates list is attached on Offical website..you can directly download Uttarakhand samuh Ga (Group C) Group G- 5 Document Verification IIIPhase..

DOWnLOAD Uttarakhand samuh Ga (Group C) Group G- 5 Document Verification IIIPhase HERE

Uttarakhand Group C Samuh G-11 Final Selection List (Declared)

2013-12-06T21:07:00.000-08:00

Uttarakhand Board of Technical Education Roorkee (UBTER) has declared Uttarakhand Group C samuh G -11 final selection list. Download the final selection list as link is mentioned below....

Uttarakhand Samuh ga G-11 Final Selection List (Declared)

FOR MORE INFORMATION

Download Uttarakhand Group C Samuh G- 29 Result, Documents Form

2013-12-06T20:56:00.004-08:00

Uttarakhand Board of Technical Education Roorkee (UBTER) has declared Uttarakhand samuh G (Group C)
samuh G -29 Documents form as written exams marks has declared earlier..selected candidates are advised to download G 29 Documents form and submit this..

Download Uttarakhand samuh G (Group C) samuh G -29 Documents form

Uttarakhand samuh G (Group C) samuh G -29 Result

FOR MORE INFORMATION

$$$$$BEST OF LUCK$$$$$$

Download Uttarakhand Samuh G All Groups Results | Uttarakhand Group C Result Declared

2013-12-06T20:31:00.002-08:00

Uttarakhand Board of Technical Education Roorkee (UBTER) has declared Uttarakhand samuh G (Group C) all groups results including Group G-1/G-2/G-3/G-4/G-5/G-6/G-7/G-8/G-9/G-10/G-11/G-12/G-13/G-14/G-15/G-16/G-17/G-18/G-19/G-20/G-21/G-22/G-23/G-24/G-25/G-26/G-27/G-28/G-29/G-30/G-31.You can check all groups results through Uttarakhand Samuh G official website , link is mentioned below.
..

Check Uttarakhand Samuh G (Group C) all Groups Result Here

GROUP-C-RECRUITMENT-EXAM-2011WRITTEN MARKS
Note : To view your written marks, Enter your Roll Number below.

ENTER ROLL NUMBER :

SUBMIT

Check Online Uttarkhand Samuh G 29 Written Exam Result

2013-12-05T00:48:00.004-08:00

UTTARAKHAND BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION has recenttaly declared samuh g G-29 Written exam result. All Candidate who were appeared for samuh G-29 group can check their
Result from here...

Uttarkhand Samuh G 29 Written Exam Result Click here

$$$$$$$BEST OF LUCK$$$$$$$$

Download UTET 2013 I & II Answer Keys | Uttarakhand Teacher Eligibility Test Result 2013

2013-12-05T00:38:00.000-08:00

Uttarakhand Board of Secondary Education also known as UBSE has announced Uttarakhand Teacher Eligibility Test (UTET) - 2013 - I & UTET - II Answer keys on official website.. UBSE has conducted UTET 2013 written exam on 12th November 2013...Match your answer with officially declared Answer Keys...

Download UTET 2013 I & II Answer Keys..

Click here for UTET 2013 Answe keys I

Click Here for UTET 2013 Answer Keys II

RMSA Pithoragarh Office Assistance Written Test Result Declared

2013-12-05T00:09:00.002-08:00

Here is a news about RMSA Office assistance Test ,As RMSA has declared written Test Result of Office assistance for Pithoragarh (Uttarakhand) location.. RMSA has conducted Office Assistance test on 27 November 2013...Check RMSA Pithoragah Office Assistance Written test Result now here..Selected Candidate are called for Interview & Typing Test....

RMSA OFFICE ASSISTANCE WRITTEN TEST RESULT::::

NOTE::: For Further Information contact to

M/s Creative College of Education

G. I. C Road, Opp. RRB H.O., Pithoragrh- 262501.

Tel: +91-5964-225011

Email: info@creativeeducation.co.in/ adm@creativeeducation.co.in

SOURCE

kumaun University Nainital B.SC 3rd Final Year Result 2013

2013-07-11T04:57:00.000-07:00

kumaun university Nainital has announced B.SC final year result today..kumaun university B.SC 3rd year result is now available on kumaun university official website ..you can check B.SC final year result directly through the given link....

kumaun university B.SC 3rd Final Year result CLICK HERE

Uttarakhand samuh Ga G28 Exam Date & Admit Card Info

2012-10-25T03:06:00.000-07:00

Now Uttarakhand Board of technical Education (UBTER) has announced G28 Samuh G( also known as Uttarakhand Group C) exam date. Uttarakhand samuh Ga G28 exam will conduct on Upcoming 28 October 2012.. All candidates who have applied for Uttarakhand Samuh G phase 2 recruitment can download their admit card for group 28 through mentioned link ::::

DOWNLoAD UttAraKHanD Samuh G Group 28 AdMIt CArd

Uttarakhand Gram Vikas Adhikari (VDO) Sample Guess Paper

2012-10-16T03:57:00.000-07:00

HI Guys ::: I am back after a long Time on my Blogspot Account reason is Upcoming Uttarakhand Gram Vikas Adhikari aslo known Village development Office (VDO) exam. which is going to held on 21-Oct-2012. I was Searching For this but didnt get any needful material so I thought why Not the first one to collect all Study material for Uttarakhand Gram Vikas Adhikari.

Guys as I advised with top coaching center they told me about exam syllabus on their previous Experiance but not sure , You should be Prepare from the GK of Uttarakhand,10 th level mathematics & General Science,some current affairs and little basic knowledge of computer and internet. Here I am Going to publish a Guess paper of Uttarakhand Gram Vikas Adhikari (VDO) :::

1. The first leader of the country who owned the responsibility of poverty and backwardness of Uttaranchal was—
(A) Atal Behari Bajpai
(B) Lal Krishan Adwani
(C) Mrs. Indra Gandhi
(D) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (C)
2. Which of the following temples is situated at Kedar Nath?
(A) Vishnu
(B) Shiva
(C) Brahma
(D) Kali
Ans : (B)
3. Among the High Courts of the country, the Uttaranchal High Court ranks—
(A) 18th
(B) 19th
(C) 20th
(D) 21st
Ans : (C)
4. On which day is ‘Green-day’ celebrated in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 3rd July
(B) 5th July
(C) 8th July
(D) 15th July
Ans : (B)
5. Where is the China peak situated?
(A) Chamoli
(B) Almora
(C) Uttar Kashi
(D) Nainital
Ans : (D)

6. After reorganisation of states in November 2000, Uttaranchal stands—
(A) 25th
(B) 26th
(C) 27th
(D) 28th
Ans : (C)

7. Where is the I.M.A. (Indian Military Academy) situated?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Pithoragarh
(C) Udham Singh Nagar
(D) Almora
Ans : (A)
8. Where is Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy situated?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Mussoorie
(C) Nainital
(D) Almora
Ans : (B)
9. In which district of Uttaranchal is the state forest services college situated?
(A) Nainital
(B) Sri Nagar
(C) Dehradun
(D) Pauri
Ans : (C)
10. Chipko Movement is related with—
(A) Forest conservation
(B) Wild life conservation
(C) Air conservation
(D) Water conservation
Ans : (A)
11. In which of the following districts are the maximum no. of scheduled tribes people found?
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Tehri Garhwal
(D) Pithoragarh
Ans : (A)
12. What is the percentage of forested area in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 60%
(B) 61%
(C) 63%
(D) 49%
Ans : (C)
13. The specific identity of Uttaranchal is—
(A) Hilly culture
(B) Natural beauty
(C) Population
(D) Over all development
Ans : (B)
14. When was the U.P. reorganisation Bill passed in Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1st August, 2000
(B) 5th August, 2000
(C) 28th August, 2000
(D) 30th August, 2000
Ans : (A)
15. Papers were thrown in U.P. Assembly for the formation of Uttaranchal on—
(A) 19th August, 1994
(B) 19th August, 1995
(C) 19th August, 1996
(D) 19th August, 1997
Ans : (A)
16. Among the past glories of the state Chandan Singh Garhwali was—
(A) A man of literature
(B) A politician
(C) A freedom fighter
(D) A doctor
Ans : (C)
17. Total no. of seats in Lok Sabha for Uttaranchal is—
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
18. The proposed no. of Uttaranchal Vidhan Sabha members is—
(A) 60
(B) 70
(C) 75
(D) 80
Ans : (B)
19. The 1991-2001 decadal increase in the population of Uttaranchal is—
(A) 20%
(B) 21%
(C) 20.41%
(D) 18.2%
Ans : (C)
20. Main source of income of Uttaranchal is—
(A) Energy
(B) Forest resources and tourism
(C) Industry
(D) Agriculture
Ans : (B)
21. Kaushik Samiti recommended the appropriate place for Uttaranchal capital—
(A) Dehradun
(B) Gairsain
(C) Haridwar
(D) Haldwani
Ans : (B)

22. Who said “Ranikhet is one of the beautiful hill stations of Uttaranchal” ?
(A) Justice William C. Douglas
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sumitra Nandan Pant
Ans : (A)

23. Who is known as ‘Garh Keshari’ of state?
(A) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(B) Hemwati Nandan Bhauguna
(C) Ansuiya Prasad Bahuguna
(D) Vijay Bahuguna
Ans : (C)
24. Who is known as the Kumaon Keshari of the state?
(A) Badri Prasad Pandey
(B) Hemwati Nandan Bhauguna
(C) Murli Manohar Joshi
(D) Kashi Singh Airie
Ans : (A)
25. 133. Where is the Jawahar Lal Nehru Mountaineering Institute ‘?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Uttar Kashi
(C) Chamoli
(D) Bageshwar
Ans : (B)

26:The idea of Lokpal is taken from
1 America
2 Britain
3 France
4 Scandinavian countries
Ans: 4

Who amongst the following is the author of the book "We The People"?
1 Arun Gandhi
2 Nani Palkhiwala
3 Khushwant Singh
4 Janardan Thakur
Ans: 2

28. 'Satyameva Jayate', engraved on the Indian emblem is taken from
1 Rig Veda
2 Bhagavad Gita
3 Mundakopanished
4 Matsyapurana
Ans: 3

29. Which country is following One Party System?
1 Mongolia
2 China
3 Chili
4 Spain
Ans: 2
30 The mountains which are not a part of the Himalayan chain:
1 Kunlun
2 Hindukush
3 Aravalli
4 Karakoram
Ans: 2
31. The famous ruler of ancient India who, towards the end of his life, is said to have converted to Jainism, was
1 Chandragupta
2 Bindusara
3 Ashoka
4 Samundragupta
Ans: 1
32 What is the other name for Vit. B2?
1 Haemoglobin
2 Dextrose
3 Thiamine
4 Riboflavin
Ans: 4
33. Cockroach cannot survive in the water because it's respiratory organ is
1 Gill
2 Book lung
3 Trachea
4 Pulmonary Sac
Ans: 3
34. Chromosomes consist of
1 DNA and lipids
2 RNA and amino acids
3 RNA and sugar
4 DNA and proteins
Ans: 4

35.The Constitution of India mandates that the elections of the Panchayati Raj should be held regularly after a gap of
1 3 years
2 4 years
3 2 years
4 5 years
Ans: 4

36. Who among the following cricketers has been declared the "Cricketer of the Twentieth Century" by the ICC?
1 Shane Warne
2 Kapil Dev
3 Sunil Gavaskar
4 Brian Lara
Ans: 1
37. Mudumalai Sanctuary is famous for
1 Bisons
2 Birds
3 Elephants
4 Tigers
Ans: 3
38. The four "Mathas" (Shrines) at Sringeri, Badrinath, Dwarka and Puri were founded by
1 Ashoka
2 Ramanuja
3 Madhava Vidyaranya
4 Adi Shankaracharya
Ans: 4
39. Moving electric charge produces:
1 light rays
2 heat waves
3 magnetic field
4 sound waves
Ans: 3
40. The disease that is caused by virus is:
1 Typhoid
2 Malaria
3 Common cold
4 Cholera
Ans: 3
41. Energy in reflected light
1 does not depends on the angle of incidence
2 decreases with the increase in angle of incidence
3 increases with the increase in angle of incidence
4 becomes maximum for angle of incidence equal to 45 degree
Ans: 1
42. In plants water is absorbed by the root hairs by a process called:
1 Transpiration
2 Perspiration
3 Respiration
4 Osmosis
Ans: 4

The first Law Officer of the Government of India is the
1 Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
2 Advocate-General
3 Law Minister
4 Attorney-General
Ans: 4

44. Which of the following gods are worshipped in the sanctum of Badrinath and Kedarnath temples respectively?
1 Vishnu and Shiva
2 Shiva and Vishnu
3 Shiva and Parvati
4 Vishnu and Brahma
Ans: 1
45. Alcoholic (-OH) group can be identified by:
1 Tollen's Readent Test
2 FeCl3 Test
3 Ozonolysis Reaction
4 Esterification Test
Ans: 2
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.

46. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?

A. 35 B. 38
C. 39 D. 40

Answer: Option A

47, 10, 101,?

A. 10101 B. 10201
C. 10202 D. 11012

Answer: Option C

48. WFB, TGD, QHG, ?

A. NIJ B. NIK
C. NJK D. OIK
E. PJK

Answer: Option B

49. H, I, K, N, ?

A. O B. Q
C. R D. S

Answer: Option C

51. The brain of any computer system is

A. ALU
B. Memory
C. CPU
D. Control unit
E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

52. What difference does the 5th generation computer have from other generation computers?

A. Technological advancement
B. Scientific code
C. Object Oriented Programming
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

53. The tracks on a disk which can be accessed without repositioning the R/W heads is

A. Surface
B. Cylinder
C. Cluster
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

54. The computer device primarily used to provide hard copy is the
(a) CRT (b) Line Printer (c) Computer Console (d) Card Reader
Ans (b)

55. The unit of hardware, which an operator uses to monitor computer processing, is the
(a) Card Reader (b) CPU (c) Line Printer (d) Console
Ans (d)

56. Computers can be classified in which of the following hierarchical orders?
(a) PC, Large, Super Micro, Super Computer
(b) Super Micro, PC, Large, Super Computer
(c) PC, Super Micro, Large, Super Computer
(d) Large, Super Micro, Super Computer, PC
Ans (c)

57. Which one of the following is a stored program machine?
(a) Micro-processor (b) Calculator
(c) Analog-computer (d) Micro-computer
Ans (d)

58. First generation computer systems used
(a) Transistors (b) Vacuum tubes
(c) Magnetic cores (d) Silicon chips
Ans (b)

59. Transistors are associated with which computer system?
(a) First generation (b) Fifth generation
(c) Second generation (d) None of these
Ans (c)

60. Charles Babbage invented
(a) ENIAC (b) Difference engine (c) Electronic computer (d) Punched card
Ans (b)

61. Who wrote the book ‘Computer Liberation and Dream Machine’, the first book on personal computers?
(a) John McCarthy (b) Ted Nelson (c) Niklaus Wirth (d) Karl Capek
Ans (b)

62.Magnetic disk a medium known as
(a) Serial access (b) Direct access (c) Sequential access (d) Sequential and rotational access
Ans (b)

63. The most widely used commercial programming computer language is
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) FORTRAN (d) PASCAL
Ans (b) Cobol is abbreviated term for Common Business Oriented Language. It is high level programme language designed to assist the task of programs by enabling them to write programme in more simple manner

64.The brain of a computer is
(a) CPU (b) CD (c) Floppy disc (d) Megabyte
Ans (A) CPU is abbreviated term for Central Processing Unit. It is the principal operating part of a computer

65. An octal number 237 is equal to the binary number
(a) 010 011 111 (b) 010 111 011
(c) 011 101 101 (d) 011 000 001
Ans (c)

66.In computer language, one kilobyte equals
(a) 1000 bytes (b) 1024 bytes (c) 100 bytes (d) 8 bytes
Ans (b) The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes

67. Which one of the following is not a programming language of a computer?
(a) BASIC (b) FORTRAN (c) LASER (d) PASCAL
Ans (c)

68.Which of the following packages is used for composition in printing press?
(a) Lotus (b) dBase (c) Page Maker (d) Word Perfect
Ans (c)

69. Which one of the following is not a computer language?
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) LOTUS (d) FORTRAN
Ans (d)

70. The individual within the operations group who ordinarily uses a variety of keyboard devices, is the
(a) Data Clerk (b) Keypunch Operator
(c) Data Entry Clerk (d) Computer Operator
Ans (c)

71. An advantage of a distributed word processing network is
(a) increased number of reports handled
(b) less delay in inter-office communications
(c) greater corporate control over outputs
(d) All of these
Ans (b)

72.Suresh is taller than Prabhu but shorter than Ram, Prabhu is as tall as Neeraj but taller than Nilesh. Which of the following statements is definitely true for Neeraj?
(a) Neeraj is shorter than Nilesh
(b) Neeraj is the tallest
(c) Neeraj is the shortest
(d) Neeraj is taller than Nilesh
(e) None of these
Ans: ( d ) Neeraj is taller than Nilesh

73. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STAINLESS each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) None of these
Ans: ( e ) None of these

74. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence? ARRANGEMENTS, RRANGEMENT, RANGEMEN, ?, NGEM
(a) RANGEME
(b) ANGEME
(c) ANGEMENT
(d) NGEMEN
(e) None of these
Ans: ( b ) ANGEME

75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Baking
(b) Steaming
(c) Cooking
(d) Frying
(e) Boiling
Ans: ( c ) Cooking

76.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain percent in the deal is
(a) 5% (b) 6Â¼ % (c) 7Â½ % (d) 10%
Ans:- B

77.A pressure cooker is sold for Rs 120. Sales tax accounts for one-fifth and profit one-third of the remainder of the selling price. The coast price of the cooker is
(a) Rs 75 (b) Rs 64 (c) Rs 80 (d) Rs 72
Ans:- B

78.A sold a fan for Rs 540 losing 10%. At what price should he have sold it to gain 10%?
(a) Rs 594 (b) Rs 648 (c) Rs 650 (d) Rs 660
Ans:- D

79.The cost of 100 shirts is Rs 9000 and transportation charges are Rs 300. For a 20% profit the selling price of a shirt is
(a) Rs 115.10 (b) Rs 113.50 (c) Rs 111.60 (d) Rs 109.40
Ans:- C

80.By selling an umbrella for Rs 30, a shop keeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% off the marked price. Find his gain percent during the sale season
(a) 7 (b) 7 Â½ (c) 8 (d) 9
Ans:- C

GUYS this is only a Guess paper... Best OF LUCK For EXAM

Markting Mangement BBA 2nd Sem Last Year HNB University Paper

2012-06-04T06:45:00.004-07:00

MARKETING MANAGEMENT (2009)

Time : Three Hours ] [Maximum Marks:70
Note: All question have to be attempted.

1. Think an example of a product that you own and that does
not satisfy your needs. How would you modify the product
to secure your needs ? Try to come up with suggestions
that would not increase the cost (hence;price) of the
product.

2. Write short notes on any four of the following
(upto 50 words) :

(a) Strategic market planning
(b) Marketing environment
(c) New product development
(d) Product life cycle
(e) Service marketing mix
(f) Rural marketing
(g) Physical distribution
(h) Word of mouth communication(WOM)

3. Segmenting the market is epicentre of targeting and
positioning strategies of any organisation.Comment.
Or
Compare buying behaviour in consumer and organisational
buying (purchasing) and also explain. why the pursuit
of customer loyalty is an important strategy for many
organisation ?

4. There are variety of media available to advertiser. It
is essential that the most appropriate is chosen. List
the various types of media's with their relative
importance.
Or
Marketing mix strategies differ in every stage of product
life cycle. Comment.

5. When you purchase a product/service; do you consider all
the available brands ? How do you choose which brand to
consider ?
Or
Why would it be important to research the prices charged
by your competitor before setting prices for your own
product and why competition is beneficial for the customers?

HNB Garwal University BBA 2nd SEm Production Paper

2012-06-04T06:43:00.002-07:00

PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT (2009)

Time : Three Hours ] [Maximum Marks:70
Note: All question have to be attempted.

Section-A

1. A product has to undergo with three different operations to
be performed at three machines, named M1,M2,M3 in a
manufacturing company.The standard operating time per
machine with respective operator's efficiency is as follow :
Standard hours per

Operator's
Machine component/product efficiency
________________________________________________________
M1 0.16 80%
M2 0.23 100%
M3 0.09 90%

information given :

(i) Manufacturing unit of a company operates on six days in
a week.
(ii) manufacturing unit operates two shift of 8 hours every
day.
(iii) machines are available for both the shift on six working
days in a week.
(iv) There is no sequence of operations.
Calculate how many of the machines of M1,M2 and M3
shall be required to produce 4800 components or products
per week ?

Section-B

2. Write short notes on any four of the following
(upto 50 words) :

(a) Preventive vs Breakdown maintenance
(b) Technical obsolescence
(c) Productivity
(d) R and D Deptt.
(e) Value engineering
(f) L. I. F. O.
(g) Product diversification
(h) Opportunity

3. What do you understand by the term 'Production' ? Discuss
the responsibilities of a production manager.
Or
What is the importance of Economic Order Quantity
(E. O. Q.) ? Show its calculation and applications in
production planning and control.

4. What is product mix determination ? What are the major
factors effecting product mix decision in a large manuf-
acturing concern ?
Or
"No inventory is the best inventory." Illucidate the
statement.

5. Define different attributes determining quality of a
product. Explain SQC as a technique of quality control.
Or
What are the distinct stages of product development ?
Highlight key areas to be taken into consideration during
product development.

Download Uttarkhand Samuh G 06, 11, 14, 18 Admit Card, Call Letter

2012-05-15T09:01:00.000-07:00

UBTER ha connected Uttarakhand Samuh G many groups Exam. Now its time to another Group Exam As G- 06, 11, 14, 18, 22, 24, 25, 27, Guys here is a bad News, there is no officially information about these group exam date ( As i am looking News Paper & UBTER official site). Recenttaly UBTER conducted G-19 Exam , after that there is no information about Uttarakhand Samuh G exam Date

Guys stay connected with http://exampapershub.blogspot.in/ , I will Update Group 06, 11, 14, 18, 22, 24, 25, 27 exam dates As UBTER will Declare it:::::::::::

Uttarakhand Samuh G Group 22,24,25,27 Exam Date, Admit Card

2012-05-15T08:31:00.000-07:00

Uttarakhand Group C also Known as Uttarakhand Samuh G many groups Exam have been conducted by UBTER. Now there are some other groups are rest, And there is no officially information about another group As G- 06, 11, 14, 18, 22, 24, 25, 27 exam date ( As i am looking News Paper & UBTER official site). Recenttaly UBTER conducted G-19 Exam , after that there is no information about Uttarakhand Samuh G exam Date

Guys stay connected with http://exampapershub.blogspot.in/ , I will Update Group 06, 11, 14, 18, 22, 24, 25, 27 exam dates As UBTER will Declare it:::::::::::

Download SSC DEO Previous Year Solved Exam Paper

2012-05-15T08:23:00.000-07:00

Download SSC DEO Previous Year Solved Exam Paper :

Guys here I am adding Last year SSC DEO (DAta Entry Operator) Solved Exam paper. This will very helpfull for upcoming SSC DEO Exam paper..............

1. The banks use ……………. device to minimize conversion process.

(a) Keyboard

(b) MICR

(c) OCR

(d) Scanner

2. ……………… can’t be used for source of data automation.

(a) POS terminal

(b) OCR

(c) Keyboard

(d) UPC

3. Under which case will intranet be an effective networking tool?

(a) In a distributed decision-making environment

(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved

(c) In a centralised organization

(d) In a decentralised organization

4. When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________

(a) Transferred to the service provider

(b) With the client/organization that outsource services

(c) Shared by both parties

(d) Not transferred

5. A modem performs_________

(a) Modulation

(b) Demodulation

(c) Data compression

(d) All of these

6. Which of the following is NOT done by modem?

(a) Transmission Speed

(b) Data Accuracy

(b) Error detection and Correction

(d) Data Compression

7. A program coded in programming language is____________.

(a) Target code

(b) Source code

(c) Block

(d) None of these

8. “Platform” in computer world means___________.

(a) Computer hardware used

(b) Operating Systems used

(c) Both of these

(d) None of these

9. Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?

(a) Key stroke dynamics

(b) Iris Retinal scans

(c) Speech recognition

(d)Fingerprint scanning

10. What is incorrect about software?

(a) It can manipulate computer

(b) It has programs, instructions

(c) It can be touched

(d) It can be touched

11. Disadvantage of distributed database is.

(a) Unreliability

(b) Easy implementation

(c) Insecurity

(d) High communication cost

12. Which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatively send and receive data?

(a) Simplex

(b) Half duplex

(c) Full duplex

(d) Multiplexing

13. What is NOT a feature of networking?

(a) Reliability

(b) Greater storage space

(c) Connectivity

(d) All are features of networking

14. Taking back-up of a file against crash is a

(a) Preventive measure

(b) Curative measure

(c) Decisive measure

(d) None of these

15. A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________

(a) Associative memory

(b) Content addressable storage

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

16. Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :

(a) Ready access to online terminals

(b) Online processing of data

(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk

(d) All of these

17. A camera is an

(a) Input device

(b) Can be either input or output

(c) Processing machine

(b) Output device

18. Using anti-virus software is

(a) Preventive measure

(b) Detective measure

(c) Corrective measure

(d) All the above

19. An online transaction is

(a) One that is done in real time

(b) Transaction done via internet

(c) One that is done via telephone

(d) None of these

20. A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.

(a) Use of individual passwords

(b) Use of an Accounts Receivable Section password

(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data

(d) Can’t say

21. To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should

(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator

(b) Have a good passwords policy

(c) Have a sound encryption policy

(d) All of the above

22. Which cannot assure data accuracy in an application?

(a) Limit and reasonableness test

(b) Echo checking

(c) Control total

(d) None of these

23. Maximum storage space is available on

(a) CDs

(b) ROM

(c) Hard disks

(d) Floppies

24. Jon Von Neumann developed:

(a) First electronic chip flip flop

(b) Stored-program concept

(c) The first electronic computer

(d) None of these

25. Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?

(a) Minicomputer

(b) Workstation

(c) Macintosh

(d) None of these

Answers

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)

11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)

21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)

Previous / Last Year SBI Clerk Numerical Ability Question paper Paper

2012-05-15T07:59:00.000-07:00

SBI Clerical Exam ( Numerical Ability ) Question paper :

SBI Bank is going to conduct a common written exam for Recruitment of Clerical Staff on 27-May-2012 & 03-June-2012 . Here I am adding last year SBI Numerical Ability Solved Question Paper. So guys just solve this paper I have also applied for SBI Clerk Exam and my exam is on 03-June-2012 Guys this Paper will give you an idea about upcoming SBI Clerk Exam.........

1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:

a. 199999

b. 201110

c. 211110

d. 1099999

e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :

a. 6700

b. 70000

c. 76500

d. 77200

e. None of these

3. 1399*1399

a. 1687401

b. 1901541

c. 1943211

d. 1957201

e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5â€™s. The smallest such no. is

a. 41625

b. 42135

c. 42515

d. 42735

e. None of these

5. If n is â€“ve no. then which of the following is least.

a. 0

b. â€“n

c. 2n

d. n2

e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

a. 0

b. -3

c. -4

d. -5

e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.â€™s b/w 60 and 75 is:

a. 199

b. 201

c. 211

d. 272

e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.â€™s is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. None

e. None of these

10. How many Noâ€™s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.

a. 40

b. 100

c. 110

d. 120

e. None of these

11. The digit in unitâ€™s place of product 81*82â€¦â€¦..*89 is:

a. 0

b. 2

c. 6

d. 8

e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural noâ€™s is :

a. 1035

b. 1280

c. 2070

d. 2140

e. None of these

13. The unitâ€™s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11

a. 235641

b. 245642

c. 315624

d. 415624

e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural noâ€™s is:

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 120

e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

a. 3

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

a. 10

b. 20

c. 35

d. 80

e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:

a. 98928

b. 99479

c. 99615

d. 100166

e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is

a. 6

b. 12

c. 14

d. 18

e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

a. 99909

b. 99981

c. 99990

d. 99999

e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be

a. 1

b. 2

c. 7

d. 21

e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 noâ€™s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :

a. 240

b. 270

c. 295

d. 360

e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :

a. 4236

b. 4306

c. 4336

d. 5336

e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :

a. 9947

b. 9987

c. 9989

d. 9996

e. None of these

Answers:
1) a

2) 1120000/16 = b

3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d

4) 555555/13 = d

5)c
6)c
7)c
8)d
9)b
10)c
11)a
12)a
13)c
14)d
15)c
16)d
17)a
18)c
19)c
20)c
21)c
22)d
23)b
24)d
25)b

Best Of Luck Guys For SBI Clerk Exam ::::::

Best Math Tricks & Shortcuts for Competitive Exams

2011-12-18T04:37:00.000-08:00

To find out if a number is divisible by seven:
Take the last digit, double it, and subtract it from the rest of the
number.
If the answer is more than a 2 digit number perform the above
again.
If the result is 0 or is divisible by 7 the original number is also
divisible by 7.

Example 1 ) 259
9*2= 18.
25-18 = 7 which is divisible by 7 so 259 is also divisible by 7.
Example 2 ) 2793
3*2= 6
279-6= 273
now 3*2=6
27-6= 21 which is divisible by 7 so 2793 is also divisible by 7 .
Now find out if following are divisible by 7
1) 2841
2) 3873
3) 1393
4) 2877

TO FIND SQUARE OF A NUMBER BETWEEN 40 to 50
Sq (44) .
1) Subtract the number from 50 getting result A.
2) Square A getting result X.
3) Subtract A from 25 getting result Y
4) Answer is xy
EXAMPLE 1 : 44
50-44=6
Sq of 6 =36
25-6 = 19
So answer 1936
EXAMPLE 2 : 47
50-47=3
Sq 0f 3 = 09
25-3= 22
So answer = 2209
NOW TRY To Find Sq of 48 ,26 and 49

TO FIND SQUARE OF A 3 DIGIT NUMBER :
LET THE NUMBER BE XYZ
SQ (XYZ) is calculated like this
STEP 1. Last digit = last digit of SQ(Z)
STEP 2. Second Last Digit = 2*Y*Z + any carryover from STEP 1.
STEP 3. Third Last Digit 2*X*Z+ Sq(Y) + any carryover from STEP
2.
STEP 4. Fourth last digit is 2*X*Y + any carryover from STEP 3.
STEP 5 . In the beginning of result will be Sq(X) + any carryover
from Step 4.
EXAMPLE :
SQ (431)
STEP 1. Last digit = last digit of SQ(1) =1
STEP 2. Second Last Digit = 2*3*1 + any carryover from STEP
1.= 6
STEP 3. Third Last Digit 2*4*1+ Sq(3) + any carryover from STEP
2.= 2*4*1 +9= 17. so 7 and 1 carryover
STEP 4. Fourth last digit is 2*4*3 + any carryover (which is 1) . =
24+1=25. So 5 and carry over 2.
STEP 5 . In the beginning of result will be Sq(4) + any carryover
from Step 4. So 16+2 =18.
So the result will be 185761.
If the option provided to you are such that the last two digits are
different, then you need to carry out first two steps only , thus
saving time. You may save up to 30 seconds on each
calculations and if there are 4 such questions you save 2
minutes which may really affect UR Percentile score.

PYTHAGORAS THEROEM :
In any given exam there are about 2 to 3 questions based on pythagoras theorem. Wouldn’t it be nice that you remember some of the pythagoras triplets thus saving up to 30 seconds in each question. This saved time may be used to attempt other questions. Remember one more right question may make a lot of difference in UR PERCENTILE score.
The unique set of pythagoras triplets with the Hypotenuse less than 100 or one of the side less than 20 are as follows :
(3,4,5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), (7, 24, 25), (20, 21, 29), (12, 35, 37), (9, 40, 41), (28, 45, 53), (11, 60, 61), (33, 56, 65), (16, 63, 65), (48, 55, 73), (36, 77, 85), (13, 84, 85), (39, 80, 89), and (65, 72, 97).
(15,112,113), (17,144,145), (19,180,181), (20,99,101)
If you multiply the digits of the above mentioned sets by any constant you will again get a pythagoras triplet .
Example : Take the set (3,4,5).
Multiply it by 2 you get (6,8,10) which is also a pythagoras triplet.
Multiply it by 3 you get ( 9,12,15) which is also a pythagoras triplet.
Multiply it by 4 you get (12,16,20) which is also a pythagoras triplet.
You may multiply by any constant you will get a pythagoras triplet
Take another example (5,12,13)
Multiply it by 5,6 and 7 and check if you get a pythagoras triplet.
TIPS FOR SMART GUESSING :
You will notice that in any case, whether it is a unique triplet or it is a derived triplet (derived by multiplying a constant to a unique triplet), all the three numbers cannot be odd.
In case of unique triplet , the hypotenuse is always odd and one of the remaining side is odd the other one is even.
Below are the first few unique triplets with first number as Odd.
3 4 5
5 12 13
7 24 25
9 40 41
11 60 61
You will notice following trend for unique triplets with first side as odd.
Hypotenuse = (Sq(first side) +1) / 2
Other side = Hypotenuse -1
Example : First side = 3 ,
so hypotenuse = (3*3+1)/2= 5 and other side = 5-1=4
Example 2: First side = 11
so hypotenuse = (9*9+1)/2= 41 and other side = 41-1=40
Please note that the above is not true for a derived triplet for example 9,12 and 15, which has been obtained from multiplying 3 to the triplet of 3,4,5. You may check for other derived triplets.
Below are the first few unique triplets with first number as Even .
4 3 5
8 15 17
12 35 37
16 63 65
20 99 101
You will notice following trend for unique triplets with first side as Even.
Hypotenuse = Sq( first side/ 2)+1
Other side = Hypotenuse-2
Example 1. First side =8
So hypotenuse = sq(8/2) +1= 17
Other side = 17-2=15
Example 2. First side = 16
So hypotenuse = Sq(16/2) +1 =65
Other side = 65-2= 63

PROFIT AND LOSS : In every exam there are from one to three
questions on profit and loss, stating that the cost was first
increased by certain % and then decreased by certain %. How
nice it would be if there was an easy way to calculate the final
change in % of the cost with just one formula. It would really help
you in saving time and improving UR Percentile. Here is the
formula for the same :
Suppose the price is first increase by X% and then decreased
by Y% , the final change % in the price is given by the following
formula
Final Difference % = X- Y – XY/100.
EXAMPLE 1. : The price of T.V set is increased by 40 % of the
cost price and then decreased by 25% of the new price . On
selling, the profit for the dealer was Rs.1,000 . At what price was
the T.V sold.
From the above mentioned formula you get :
Final difference % = 40-25-(40*25/100)= 5 %.
So if 5 % = 1,000
then 100 % = 20,000.
C.P = 20,000
S.P = 20,000+ 1000= 21,000.
EXAMPLE 2 : The price of T.V set is increased by 25 % of cost
price and then decreased by 40% of the new price . On selling,
the loss for the dealer was Rs.5,000 . At what price was the T.V
sold.
From the above mentioned formula you get :
Final difference % = 25-40-(25*45/100)= -25 %.
So if 25 % = 5,000
then 100 % = 20,000.
C.P = 20,000
S.P = 20,000 – 5,000= 15,000.
Now find out the difference in % of a product which was :
First increased by 20 % and then decreased by 10 %.
First Increased by 25 % and then decrease by 20 %.
First Increased by 20 % and then decrease by 25 %.
First Increased by 10 % and then decrease by 10 %.
First Increased by 20 % and then decrease by 15 %.

TIPS TO IMPROVE UR PERCENTILE :
HOW ABOUT SOLVING THE FOLLOWING QUESTION IN JUST
10 SECONDS
Ajay can finish work in 21 days and Blake in 42 days. If Ajay,
Blake and Chandana work together they finish the work in 12
days. In how many days Blake and Chandana can finish the
work together ?
(21*12 )/(24-12) = (21*12)/9= 7*4= 28 days.
NOW CAREFULLY READ THE FOLLOWING TO SOLVE THE
TIME AND WORK PROBLEMS IN FEW SECONDS.
TIME AND WORK :
1. If A can finish work in X time and B can finish work in Y time
then both together can finish work in (X*Y)/ (X+Y) time.
2. If A can finish work in X time and A and B together can finish
work in S time then B can finish work in (XS)/(X-S) time.
3. If A can finish work in X time and B in Y time and C in Z time
then they all working together will finish the work in
(XYZ)/ (XY +YZ +XZ) time
4. If A can finish work in X time and B in Y time and A,B and C
together in S time then :
C can finish work alone in (XYS)/ (XY-SX-SY)
B+C can finish in (SX)/(X-S)
and A+ C can finish in (SY)/(Y-S)

Here is another shortcut
TYPE 1 : Price of a commodity is increased by 60 %. By how
much % should the consumption be reduced so that the
expense remain the same.
TYPE 2 : Price of a commodity is decreased by 60 %. By how
much % can the consumption be increased so that the expense
remain the same.
Solution :
TYPE1 : (100* 60 ) / (100+60) = 37.5 %
TYPE 2 : (100* 60 ) / (100-60) = 150 %

Last Year IRDA Solved Exam Question Paper

2011-12-18T04:10:00.000-08:00

Download IRDA Solved Exam Question Paper

1) Insurance works on the principle of

a Trust
b Sharing
c Randomness
d All of the above

2 Insurance is legitimate

a when an adverse happening is likely
b When an adverse happening is unlikely
c When an adverse happening is certain
d In all the above three situations

3 Insurance benefits replace

a All physical losses, in full
b All physical losses, partly
c All monetary losses, in full
d The monetary losses, but only to some extent

4 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a People hesitate to buy life insurance because they are not aware of their needs
b People hesitate to buy life insurance because they prefer to enjoy the present
c Both the statements are correct
d Both the statements are wrong

5 Which is the right time for taking life insurance?

a When you are about to get married
b Soon after you have got married
c Just when you are joined a new job
d All the three ‘times’ are right

6 Retention of risk may be done conveniently by

a Large corporations
b Small companies
c Single individuals
d None of the three

7 A valuation is done by a life insurer because

a It is a statutory requirement
b It is necessary to be able to declare dividends to shareholders
c It tells the insurer how well it is managing the business
d All of the above

8 The reason for charging level premiums is

a Risk increases as age increases
b It is convenient to the policyholder
c It is convenient to the insurer
d All the above reasons

9 What does a premium depend upon?

a The place of worship visited by the person to be insured
b The state of health of the policyholder
c The decision of the underwriter
d The report of the agent

10 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a In group insurance, a single policy is issued covering many persons
b A master policy covers servants of a master
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

11 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the SA
b In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the term
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

12 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

13 Which of the following could be the basis of the cover in a group policy?

a Height of the life insured
b Age of the life insured
c Size of the insured’s family
d All the three above

14 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

15 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Every plan of insurance is a combination of two basic plans
b The name given to a plan indicates the benefits available under the plan
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statement s above are wrong

16 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Underwriting is done only when there is a medical examination
b Medical examination is necessary before a policy can be issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

17 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The underwriter determines the premium to be charged
b The underwriter is an employee of the insurer
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

18 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he will accept at OR
b If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he may impose a lien
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

19 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The schedule of a policy is not altered after the policy is issued
b Changes in the terms of the policy are made through endorsements
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

20 The date of issue of the FPR indicates

a The date when the risk effectively begins
b The date when the next premium falls due
c The date when the policy will commence
d None of the above

21 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In the case of SSS policies, renewal premium receipts are issued
b In the case of SSS policies, FPRs are issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

22 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Assignee is free from the assignor’s obligations under the policy
b A nomination is automatically cancelled when a loan is taken under the policy
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

23 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

24 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure can be done only with the consent of the policyholder
b Foreclosure can be done only after informing the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

25 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Revivals are not done unless the entire outstanding premium is paid
b Revivals are not done unless the underwriter agrees
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

26 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure action cannot be taken till a notice is served on the policyholder
b When a foreclosure action is taken, nothing is payable to the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

27 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

28 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A presumption of death is not the same as proof of death
b Presumption of death allows inheritance of property
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

29 When does a claim arise under an insurance policy?

a Whenever the policyholder feels the need for money
b When the insured events happen
c When a premium is not paid
d Whenever any of the three things mentioned above happen

30 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Maturity claim cheques are paid to the trustees in a MWP Act case
b Maturity claim cheques are paid to the beneficiaries in a MWP Act case
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

31 If a claim is made in January 2007 under a policy, which commenced in May 2002, stating that the life insured had died in April 2004,

a Section 45 of the Act will not apply
b The claim can be treated as an early claim
c Foul play must be suspected
d All the three statements above are correct

32 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A policy reported to be lost, may actually have been assigned
b A policy has no value after the payment of survival benefits
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

33 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The foreign exchange regulations apply if the life insured is a non-resident
b The foreign exchange regulations apply if the claimant is a non-resident
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

34 State which of the following statements is correct

a ULIPs provide for flexibility
b ULIPs are better than traditional policies
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

35 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs, the offer bid spread is the difference between the two prices
b In ULIPs, the offer bid spread, will in some cases be zero
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

36 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs the insurance cover must be a minimum multiple of the premium
b ULIPs can be surrendered after two years
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

37 State which one of the following statements is correct

a Life insurance is the best savings scheme for all persons
b Life insurance is the best investment scheme for young persons
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

38 Which of the following statements is correct?

a An insurance agent has fixed working hours
b An insurance agent has to mark his attendance in office every day
c An insurance agent works according to his schedule
d An insurance agent cannot do any other work

39 State which one of the following statements is correct

a When vital information is not disclosed, the policyholder is benefited
b When a claim is repudiated, the agent’s trustworthiness is affected
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

40 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The social sector is not only in the urban areas
b The social sector includes the unorganized sector
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

41 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The Ombudsman’s authority is limited to claims matters only
b The Ombudsman is not a judicial authority
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

42 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The tax provisions are the same for all kinds of savings
b The tax provisions are included in the Constitution
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

43 A proposal for SA of Rs. 10 lakhs with DAB for monthly mode under SSS.
Proposer had a previous policy of Rs. 5 lakhs with DAB. Proposal was
accepted with health extra of Rs. 2.75 per thousand SA premium for DAB Re 1 per
thousand. 5% extra for monthly mode. large SA rebate of Rs 2/- per thousand for
1 lakh and above. Tabular premium Rs. 48.20 maximum total SA on which DAB is allowed is Rs. 10/- lakhs.
Find monthly (SSS) premium, rounded off to the next higher rupee
a 4102
b 4121
c 4183
d 4195

44 Find out surrender value on the basis of following data (the answer to
be rounded off to the next lower rupee). SA Rs.30, 000 DOC- 15.6.1992,
Endowment with profit – 30 years
Due date of last premium paid 15-06-2007 mode half yearly
Accrued bonus Rs.750/- per thousand SA. SV factor 23%
a 3670
b 3765
c 8740
d None of these

45 A money back policy for SA. of Rs.50,000/- Matured after 25 years.
Survival benefits of 15% each had been paid at the end of 5th, 10th, 15th,
and 20th years. Bonus had accrued at Rs.965/- per Rs.1000/- SA. Interim bonus
@ Rs.25/- per thousand SA is payable. What is the maturity claim amount?
a 68250
b 69500
c 98250
d 99500

Correct Answers

1 d 16 d 31 d
2 a 17 c 32 a
3 d 18 b 33 c
4 c 19 c 34 a
5 d 20 a 35 c
6 a 21 b 36 a
7 d 22 d 37 d
8 d 23 d 38 c
9 c 24 b 39 b
10 a 25 d 40 c
11 c 26 a 41 b
12 c 27 d 42 d
13 b 28 c 43 b
14 c 29 b 44 c
15 a 30 a 45 b

Last year Haryana S.S.C. Sub-Inspectors Solved Exam paper

2011-12-18T04:01:00.000-08:00

Haryana S.S.C. Sub-Inspectors (Health Deptt.) General Awareness Solved Exam paper Paper (Held on 2-3-2008)

1. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kota — Chambal
(B) Bhubaneshwar — Mahanadi
(C) Jabalpur — Narmada
(D) Surat — Tapti
Ans : (B)

2. Which is the India’s largest lake ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Sambhar
(C) Sishram
(D) Chilka
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following States has rich forest of sandalwood ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (B)

4. Which of the following is the smallest ocean of the world ?
(A) Pacific
(B) Indian
(C) Atlantic
(D) Arctic
Ans : (D)

5. The Hirakud Project is on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Damodar
(D) Kosi
Ans : (B)

6. The name of the galaxy, in which the earth is a planet, is—
(A) Andromeda
(B) Ursa Major
(C) Ursa Minor
(D) Milky Way
Ans : (D)

7. Which national park is known for the Great Indian one-horned Rhinoceros ?
(A) Dudhwa
(B) Kanha
(C) Kaziranga
(D) Gir
Ans : (C)

8. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the—
(A) Yamuna Canal
(B) Sirhind Canal
(C) Indira Gandhi Canal
(D) Upper Bari Doab Canal
Ans : (C)

9. Where does Chambal river originate from ?
(A) Bhind
(B) Ratlam
(C) Mhow
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following river is known as ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ ?
(A) Damodar
(B) Gandak
(C) Kosi
(D) Sone
Ans : (A)

11. The largest public sector bank in India is—
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Indian Overseas Bank
Ans : (C)

12. Who gives recognition to political parties in India ?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Election Commission
Ans : (D)

13. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Amendment Procedure ?
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 367
(D) All these
Ans : (A)

14. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to resign, he should submit his resignation to the—
(A) Judges of the High Court
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (B)

15. When the offices of both the President and Vice President of India are vacant, who will discharge their functions ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) The Speaker
Ans : (C)

16. Sharda Act deals with—
(A) Widow Remarriage
(B) Child Marriage
(C) Inter-caste Marriage
(D) Polygamy
Ans : (B)

17. ‘Hemophilia’ is the disease of—
(A) Liver
(B) Blood
(C) Brain
(D) Bones
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following is present in Tobacco ?
(A) Nicotine
(B) Heroin
(C) Marijuana
(D) Cocaine
Ans : (A)

19. These days yellow lamps are frequently used as street-light. Which one of the following is used in these lamps ?
(A) Sodium
(B) Neon
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Nitrogen
Ans : (A)

20. Raja Harishchandra, an early Indian film, was produced by—
(A) D. G. Phalke
(B) Ashok Kumar
(C) Ardeshir Irani
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

21. Who composed the song ‘Jara Yaad Karo Kurbani’ ?
(A) Javed Akhtar
(B) Pradeep
(C) Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan
(D) Raghupati Sahay ‘Firaq’
Ans : (B)

22. Which of the following is a folk dance of Rajasthan ?
(A) Garba
(B) Dandiya
(C) Ghoomar
(D) Kathak
Ans : (C)

23. Kuchipudi is a dance drama of which of the following States ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

24. ‘The Colonel’ is the name of which Indian test cricketer ?
(A) Colonel C.K. Naidu
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Mohinder Amarnath
(D) Dilip Vengsarkar
Ans : (D)

25. Deodhar Trophy is related to which sport ?
(A) Volleyball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Tennis
Ans : (C)

26. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which of the following games ?
(A) Swimming
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Shooting
(D) Archery
Ans : (C)

27. ‘The Dronacharya Award’ is associated with—
(A) Eminent Surgeons
(B) Famous Artists
(C) Sport Coaches
(D) Expert Engineers
Ans : (C)

28. The author of ‘Gitagovinda’ was—
(A) Halayudha
(B) Jayadeva
(C) Kalhana
(D) Jona-Raja
Ans : (B)

29. Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’ ?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(D) Abdul Gaffar Khan
Ans : (A)

30. Baba Amte is famous as a ………
(A) Painter
(B) Singer
(C) Politician
(D) Social Worker
Ans : (D)

31. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State ?
(A) Sushila Nayar
(B) Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Sulochan Modi
Ans : (C)

32. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna ?
(A) Martin Luther King
(B) Zubin Mehta
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Ans : (D)

33. Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharathanatyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ravi Shankar–Sitarist
(B) M.F. Hussain–Tabla
(C) R.K. Narayan–Novelist
(D) Kaifi Azmi–Poet
Ans : (B)

35. Who said, “You give me blood, I will give you freedom” ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bhagat Singh
Ans : (C)

36. Nobel Prizes are not given for which of the following fields ?
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Peace
(D) Music
Ans : (D)

37. When is the ‘International Women’s Day’ observed ?
(A) March 8
(B) February 14
(C) May 10
(D) October 2
Ans : (A)

38. Indra Nooyi is the Chief Executive Officer of which company ?
(A) Pepsi
(B) Coca Cola
(C) LG
(D) Samsung
Ans : (A)

39. The 2008 Olympics will be held in—
(A) London
(B) Sydney
(C) Beijing
(D) Seoul
Ans : (C)

40. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history of India because this date is associated with ……
(A) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Quit India Movement
(C) Partition of Bengal
(D) Partition of India
Ans : (A)

41. The concept of ‘Din-e-Elahi’ was founded by which king ?
(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Akbar
(C) Shershah Suri
(D) Shahjahan
Ans : (B)

42. The central point in Ashoka’s Dharma was—
(A) Loyalty to kings
(B) Peace and non-violence
(C) Respect to elders
(D) Religious toleration
Ans : (D)

43. Mahatma Gandhi for the first time practised his Satyagraha in India at—
(A) Chauri-Chaura
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Champaran
(D) Nauokhali
Ans : (C)

44. ‘Do or Die’ was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Gandhiji
(B) J.L. Nehru
(C) Balgangadhar Tilak
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans : (A)

45. Who among the following formed a party named as ‘Forward Block’ ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(C) Chandrashekhar Azad
(D) J.L. Nehru
Ans : (A)

46. Where are the Dilwara Temple’s located ?
(A) Shravana Belgola
(B) Parasnath Hills
(C) Indore
(D) Mt. Abu
Ans : (D)

47. Who was the first Indian lady to preside over the Congress ?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Vijaylakshmi Pandit
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (B)

48. In India, there are three crop seasons. Two of them are Kharif and Rabi, name the third one ?
(A) Barsati
(B) Grama
(C) Zaid
(D) Khari
Ans : (C)

49. In India agriculture of jute is maximum on which Delta area ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godavari
Ans : (A)

50. The most discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Haryana
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (D)

High Court Of Uttarakhand Clerical Cadre Service Solved Exam Paper

2011-12-18T03:56:00.000-08:00

Uttarakhand High Court Subordinate Civil Court Clerical Cadre Service Solved Exam Paper 2011
(Held on 28-8-2011)

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Govind National Park
(b) Sonanadi Wild Life Sanctuary
(c) Tiger fall
(d) Gorakhnath Ki Dhuni
List-II
1. Dehradun
2. Champawat
3. Pauri Garhwal
4. Uttarkashi
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

2. Which National Highway does not pass through Distt. Udham Singh Nagar ?
(A) NH-125
(B) NH-74
(C) NH-87
(D) NH-123
Ans : (B)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Kotgarhi Devi
(b) Pataal Rudreshwar
(c) Raichand Devta
(d) Dunagiri
List-II
1. Pithoragarh
2. Champawat
3. Bageshwar
4. Almora
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (C)

4. ‘Indian Institute of Management’ IIM in Uttarakhand is situated—
(A) Srinagar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Kashipur (U.S. Nagar)
Ans : (B)

5. Match List-I and II—
List-I (Hill)
(a) Nanda Devi
(b) Panchachuli
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Trishul
List-II (Place)
1. Uttarkashi
2. Chamoli
3. Pithoragarh
4. Almora
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

6. Where is Industrial Taxological Research Centre situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Roorkee
(C) Nainital
(D) Ranikhet
Ans : (A)

7. An electric bulb has a filament made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Lead
(D) Tungsten
Ans : (D)

8. The Nainital Lake was discovered by (in 1841)—
(A) Shankaracharya
(B) Pradhumna Shah
(C) P. Bairan
(D) Frank Smith
Ans : (A)

9. Stainless steel contains—
(A) Chromium, Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(B) Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(C) Chromium, Iron and Carbon
(D) Iron and Carbon only
Ans : (A)

10. Where is the BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited) situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) U. S. Nagar
(D) Pauri
Ans : (B)

11. Where is National Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy of Administration situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (C)

12. Mussoorie wild life sanctuary is established in—
(A) 1983
(B) 1993
(C) 1971
(D) 2001
Ans : (B)

13. Kedarnath wild life sanctuary is situated at—
(A) Almora
(B) Nainital
(C) Uttarkashi
(D) Chamoli
Ans : (D)

14. Where is Udaishankar Dance Academy situated ?
(A) Almora
(B) Dehradun
(C) Srinagar
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (A)

15. Most of the weather phenomenon takes place in the—
(A) Photosphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (D)

16. Chemically, dry ice is—
(A) Solid Carbondioxide
(B) Solid Sulphurdioxide
(C) Ice formed from distilled water
(D) Ice kept at Sub-zero temperature
Ans : (A)

17. Who is the first Chairman of Public Service Commission of Uttarakhand ?
(A) N.P. Nawani
(B) K. Arya
(C) Ajay Vikram Singh
(D) Ashok Kant Saran
Ans : (A)

18. Where is the Tiffin top situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mumbai
(D) Roorkee
Ans : (B)

19. The planet nearest to sun is—
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Mercury
(D) Saturn
Ans : (C)

20. Excessive Consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to—
(A) Lungs
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Heart
Ans : (B)

21. How many colour are there in white light ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

22. Corbett National Park aims mainly on protection of which animal ?
(A) Elephant
(B) Rhinoceros
(C) Panther
(D) Tiger
Ans : (D)

23. How many districts touch the international boundary in Uttarakhand ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
Ans : (C)

24. Which is the oldest Veda ?
(A) Yajurveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Samveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (B)

25. Average blood-pressure of human is—
(A) 60/100
(B) 20/80
(C) 60/140
(D) 120/80
Ans : (D)

26. The number of chromosomes in human beings is—
(A) 36
(B) 46
(C) 56
(D) 26
Ans : (B)

27. The branch of Science that deals with tumors is known as—
(A) Serology
(B) Oncology
(C) Chromology
(D) Urology
Ans : (B)

28. What line connects the point on a map that receive equal amount of rainfall ?
(A) Isobar
(B) Isohel
(C) Isotherm
(D) Isohyet
Ans : (D)

29. Which Indian born physicist invented the ‘Optical Fibre’ ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Satyendra Nath Bose
(C) Homi J. Bhabha
(D) Narinder Singh Kapany
Ans : (D)

30. ‘Ace’, ‘Double fault’, ‘Smash’, ‘Second Service’ and‘Gamepoint’ terms are related with which sport ?
(A) Tennis
(B) Squash
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Badminton
Ans : (A)

31. Who authored ancient Sanskrit plays ‘Malti Madhava’, ‘Mahavir-Charita’ and Uttar Ramcharita ?
(A) Kalidas
(B) Bhavabhuti
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Vishakhadatta
Ans : (B)

32. Which Indian lady writer authored Onasis award winning play ‘Harvest’, highlighting the controversial issue of Organ trading in poverty stricken areas ?
(A) Kiran Desai
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Manjula Padmanabhan
(D) Arundhati Roy
Ans : (C)

33. Who was the first person to calculate the height of the Mount Everest ?
(A) Andrew Waugh
(B) George Everest
(C) Nain Singh Rawat
(D) Radhanath Sikdar
Ans : (D)

34. The transfer of Capital of British Indian from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)

35. The scheme which identify creative children within the age group of 5 to 16 years in creative art creative performance, creative scientific innovations and creative writing ?
(A) Bal Shree Scheme
(B) Bal Bodh
(C) Bal Sadan
(D) Bal Shiksha
Ans : (A)

36. The right to Education provides free and compulsory education of all chidren in the age-group of 6 to 14 years. This right is inserted to which article of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-21
(B) Article-24
(C) Article-19
(D) Article-14
Ans : (A)

37. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is the Research and developing wing of which Ministry under Government of India ?
(A) Ministry of Home affairs
(B) Ministry of defence
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Ministry of Environment
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?
(A) Central Potato Research Institute — Shimla
(B) Archaelogical Survey of India — Kolkata
(C) Indian Institute of Petroleum — Dehradun
(D) National Dairy Research Institute — Panipat
Ans : (D)

39. Laprosy is caused by—
(A) Pasteurella pestis
(B) Mycobacterium
(C) Clostridium
(D) Vibrio
Ans : (A)

40. Bacteria were first discovered by—
(A) Robert Koch
(B) L. Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) A. Von Leuwenhoek
Ans : (D)

41. Which is known as evening star ?
(A) Cirrus
(B) Saturn
(C) Uranus
(D) Venus
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Horse Latitude’ related to—
(A) Thermal Belt
(B) Sea Route
(C) Pressure Belt
(D) Eco Belt
Ans : (B)

43. Which one of the following layers have maximum density ?
(A) Exosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (B)

44. The name of the founder of the Red Cross is—
(A) Henry Dunant
(B) Baden Powell
(C) Frederick Passey
(D) U-Thant
Ans : (B)

45. The city of Rome is situated on the bank of river—
(A) Vistula
(B) Avon
(C) Rhine
(D) Tiber
Ans : (D)

46. Vinegar is produced from—
(A) Ethanoic Acid
(B) Valeric Acid
(C) Methanoic Acid
(D) Butanoic Acid
Ans : (C)

47. The famous temple of ‘Neelkhanth Mahadev’ is situated in which district ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) Pauri Garhwal
(D) Rudraprayag
Ans : (B)

48. Who is known as ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’ ?
(A) Late Indramani Badoni
(B) Sridev Suman
(C) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(D) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
Ans : (A)

49. Who is named as ‘Jhansi Ki Rani’ in the history of Garhwal ?
(A) Teelu Rauteli
(B) Maharani Gularia
(C) Jiarani
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

50. Who is the first Indian whose name is entered in ‘Guinese Book of World Records’ on making world record in shorthand ?
(A) Shri Kishan Chandra Joshi
(B) Dr. Gopal Das Bisht
(C) Shri Badri Dutt Pandey
(D) Dr. Harshavanti Bisht
Ans : (B)

51. When was the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi established ?
(A) 14 November, 1951
(B) 14 November, 1965
(C) 9 November, 2000
(D) 9 November, 1991
Ans : (B)

52. The confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi river is—
(A) Devprayag
(B) Rudraprayag
(C) Nandprayag
(D) Karnaprayag
Ans : (A)

53. L.P.G. mainly contains—
(A) Methane
(B) Methane and Ethane
(C) Hydrogen, Methane and Ethane
(D) Butane and Propane
Ans : (D)

54. ‘Fire Temple’ is the worship place of which religion ?
(A) Christianity
(B) Yahudi
(C) Muslim
(D) Parsi
Ans : (B)

55. Where in 1943, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose announced the temporary Government for the freedom of India ?
(A) Colombo
(B) Manila
(C) Singapore
(D) Rangoon
Ans : (C)

56. Which one is not one of the four Vedas ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Atharvaveda
(D) Ayurveda
Ans : (D)

57. Name of Shivaji’s mother—
(A) Ahilya Bai
(B) Jodhabai
(C) Jeeja Bai
(D) Panna Bai
Ans : (C)

58. Which city is called ‘City of Lakes’ ?
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jabalpur
(C) Jammu
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)

59. Which out of the following rivers terminates in the Arabian Sea ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Indus
(C) Yamuna
(D) Gomti
Ans : (B)

60. Who wrote ‘Geetanjali’ ?
(A) Sharat Chandra
(B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
Ans : (C)

61. ‘Uber Cup’ is related to which game ?
(A) Baseball
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Basket Ball
Ans : (B)

62. Veer Chandra Singh Garhwali is related to—
(A) Kakori-Case
(B) Meerut-Armed Revolt
(C) Chauri-Chaura Case
(D) Peshwar Military Revolt
Ans : (D)

63. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ?
(A) ADR
(B) GDR
(C) SDR
(D) Both ADR and SDR
Ans : (C)

64. In India, the interest rate on saving accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by—
(A) Union Ministry of Finance
(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

65. What does S and P 500 relate to ?
(A) Super Computer
(B) A new technique in e-business
(C) A new technique in bridge building
(D) A index of stock of large companies
Ans : (D)

66. Gilt-edged market means—
(A) Bullion market
(B) Market of Government Securities
(C) Markets of Guns
(D) Market of Pure metals
Ans : (B)

67. Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest tonnage of import cargo ?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Kandla
(C) Mumbai
(D) Visakhapatnam
Ans : (C)

68. ‘Chapchar Kut’ festival is celebrated in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Mizoram
(D) Sikkim
Ans : (C)

69. First Indian actress to be awarded ‘Padamshri’—
(A) Smita Patil
(B) Nargis Dutt
(C) Meena Kumari
(D) Madhubala
Ans : (B)

70. ‘Charak Sanhita’ is related to which of the following ?
(A) Art
(B) Law
(C) Adminstration of State
(D) Medicine
Ans : (D)

71. During which five year plan was the Emergency clamped, new election took place and Janta Party was elected ?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
Ans : (C)

72. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within—
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year
Ans : (C)

73. Who was the speaker of the first Lok Sabha ?
(A) Hukum Singh
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) U.N. Dhebar
Ans : (B)

74. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Either House of Parliament
(C) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(D) Rajya Sabha Alone
Ans : (D)

75. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the—
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) Contingency Fund of the State
Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the constitution ?
(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)

77. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the scheduled tribes in Lok Sabha is—
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

78. Which one among the following has the highest energy ?
(A) Blue light
(B) Green light
(C) Red light
(D) Yellow light
Ans : (A)

79. The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an—
(A) Amphibian
(B) Bony fish
(C) Shark
(D) Mammal
Ans : (D)

80. In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used ?
(A) Leaf
(B) Petal
(C) Sepal
(D) Stigma
Ans : (D)

81. The full name of EONR is—
(A) East Organisation for North Region
(B) European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(C) English Organisation for Nuclear Research
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

82. In the context of alternative sources of energy, Ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from—
(A) Potato
(B) Rice
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Wheat
Ans : (C)

83. In the following matching which one of them does not match ?
(A) Baki Etihas—Badal Sarkar
(B) Sita Swayamber—Vishnu Das Bhave
(C) Yayati—Girish Karnad
(D) Gidha—Jabar Patel
Ans : (D)

84. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) Extent of executive power of State
(D) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Ans : (B)

85. Reserve Bank of India was Established in—
(A) 1929
(B) 1942
(C) 1935
(D) 1947
Ans : (C)

86. Hereditary information in animals and plants is stored in—
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Ribosomes
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

87. Point out the wrong match—
(A) Plague — Rat
(B) Rabies — Dog
(C) Polio — Monkey
(D) Tapeworm — Pig
Ans : (C)

88. Diabetes is caused due to lack of—
(A) Sugar
(B) Insulin
(C) Calcium
(D) Iron
Ans : (B)

89. The satellite launching center in India is located at—
(A) Thumba
(B) Bangalore
(C) Sri Harikota
(D) Trombay
Ans : (C)

90. The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is located in—
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Haridwar
(D) Delhi
Ans : (B)

91. Central Building Reserach Institute is located at—
(A) Lucknow
(B) Varanasi
(C) Roorkee
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

92. Optical fiber are used in—
(A) CAT Scans
(B) X-ray photos
(C) Ultrasonic Scans
(D) Endoscopy
Ans : (A)

93. The concept of carbon credit is originated from which one of the following ?
(A) Earth Summit, Rio-de Janerio
(B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Montreal Protocol
(D) G-8, Summit Helligendamm
Ans : (B)

94. Who is known as ‘Missile Man of India’ ?
(A) Arjun Singh
(B) Dr. C. V. Raman
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) H.J. Bhabha
Ans : (C)

95. The largest gland of body is—
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pituitary
(D) Adrenal
Ans : (A)

96. Cryogenic Engine is used in—
(A) Sub-marine
(B) Glider
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans : (D)

97. On which of the following rivers Hirakund Dam is built ?
(A) Godawari
(B) Ganga
(C) Narmada
(D) Mahanadi
Ans : (D)

98. Kaziranga Sanctuary is for the protection of—
(A) Birds
(B) Tiger
(C) Rhinoceros
(D) Elephant
Ans : (C)

99. Pt. Ravishankar is an exponent of—
(A) Sitar
(B) Sarod
(C) Tabla
(D) Flute
Ans : (A)

100. The Eiffel Tower is situated at—
(A) London
(B) Berlin
(C) Paris
(D) Washington
Ans : (C)

101. The second largest delta is on the river of—
(A) Narmada
(B) Krishna
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godawari
Ans : (B)

102. Volume of blood in normal body is—
(A) 3-4 litre
(B) 10-12 litre
(C) 8-10 litre
(D) 5-6 litre
Ans : (D)

103. ‘Lord Buddha’ was born at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Lumbini
(C) Kapilvastu
(D) Patliputra
Ans : (B)

104. Who is known as ‘Father of Computer’ ?
(A) Blaze Pascal
(B) Charles Bavage
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans : (B)

105. Who is known as ‘Lady with the lamp’ ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Jone of Arc
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Florence Nightingale
Ans : (D)

106. ‘Garba Dance’ is associated with which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)

107. ‘Alfred Noble’ is known for—
(A) Microphone
(B) Type-writer
(C) Dynamite
(D) Gramophone
Ans : (C)

108. ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on which date ?
(A) 5th June
(B) 2nd October
(C) 10th November
(D) 19th November
Ans : (A)

109. Jim Corebett National Park was established in the year—
(A) 1936
(B) 1947
(C) 1982
(D) 1957
Ans : (A)

110. ‘Project Tiger’ was started in the year—
(A) 1972
(B) 1973
(C) 1982
(D) 1990
Ans : (B)

111. Normal blood sugar level in human is—
(A) 80-100 mg/100 ml of blood
(B) 50-80 mg/100 ml of blood
(C) 110-170 mg/100 ml of blood
(D) 115-140 mg/100 ml of blood
Ans : (A)

112. The United Nations Organisation came into existence in—
(A) 1946
(B) 1945
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
Ans : (B)

113. The headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in—
(A) Geneva
(B) The Hague
(C) New York
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)

114. ‘Dar-es-Salaam’ is capital of—
(A) Kenya
(B) Tanzania
(C) Japan
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)

115. ‘Kyat’ is the currency of—
(A) Myanmar
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)

116. Who is called the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(A) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Dadabhai Nauroji
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (C)

117. Mark the incorrect pair—
(A) Frontier Gandhi—Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Deshbandhu—Chitranjan Dass
(C) Deenbandhu—C.F. Andrews
(D) Lok Nayak—Jai Prakash
Ans : (A)

118. Article-370 of the Indian Constitution is related to—
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Punjab
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

119. The minimum age required for an Indian citizen to become a member of the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)

120. What is the principle by which is cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works ?
(A) Conduction only
(B) Convection only
(C) Radiation only
(D) Both conduction and radiation
Ans : (D)

121. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technology ?
(A) EDGE
(B) DSI
(C) LTE
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

122. Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus ?
(A) Radio wave
(B) Microwave
(C) IR wave
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

123. Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
(A) Phosphorous Trichloride
(B) Mercuric Oxide
(C) Graphite
(D) Nitroglycerine
Ans : (D)

124. Consider the following—
1. Camphor
2. Chicory
3. Vanilla
Which of the above is/are plant product(s)?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

125. In the context of Indian wildlife, the flying fox is a—
(A) Bat
(B) Kite
(C) Stork
(D) Vulture
Ans : (A)

126. The main chemical substance present in the bones and teeth of animal is—
(A) Sodium Chloride
(B) Sugar
(C) Calcium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Sulphate
Ans : (C)

127. What is the colour of ‘Black Box’ of an aeroplane ?
(A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Violet
(D) Orange
Ans : (D)

128. ‘Foot and Mouth Disease’ is found in—
(A) Cattles and sheep
(B) Cattles and pigs
(C) Sheep and goats
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

129. In Computer terminology CD means—
(A) Compact disc
(B) Compressed disc
(C) Computerised data
(D) Compressed data
Ans : (A)

130. ‘Alzeheimer Disease’ effects which organ of the body ?
(A) Ear
(B) Brain
(C) Eye
(D) Abdomen
Ans : (B)

131. Main Constituent of honey is—
(A) Glucose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Maltose
(D) Fructose
Ans : (D)

132. Which of the following is the richest source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Guava
(C) Mango
(D) Orange
Ans : (B)

133. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven. The potato heat up the paper plate does not. This is because—
(A) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(B) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contains water
(C) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

134. ‘Swaraj is my Birth-Right’ who gave this slogan ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (B)

135. In India ‘Silicon Valley’ is situated in—
(A) Madras (Chennai)
(B) Mumbai
(C) Bangalore (Bengaluru)
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

136. ‘Chilli Saltpetre’ is associated with—
(A) Sodium Nitrate
(B) Cupric Chloride
(C) Potassium Nitrate
(D) Sodium Chloride
Ans : (A)

137. The drug ‘Quinine’ is obtained from which plant ?
(A) Cannabis Plant
(B) Cinchona Plant
(C) Tulsi Plant
(D) Sunflower plant
Ans : (B)

138. Who invented ‘Television’ ?
(A) Edison
(B) Galelio
(C) Baired
(D) Franklin
Ans : (C)

139. Which of the following instrument is used to measure intensity of sun-rays ?
(A) Astrometer
(B) Crescograph
(C) Acteometer
(D) Barometer
Ans : (A)

140. Which of the following is the highest mountain peak of Uttarakhand ?
(A) Nandadevi
(B) Chaukhambha
(C) Kamet
(D) Mount Everest
Ans : (A)

IBPS Bank Management Trainees & PO Solved Exam Paper

2011-12-18T03:50:00.000-08:00

Institute of Banking Personal Selection (IBPS) Bank Probationary Officers (PO), Management Trainees, 2011 CWE English Language: Solved Paper Exam. Paper

(Held on 18-09-2011)

Directions—(1-5) : In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women's rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world's nations a few decades ago, ......... These range from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women's rights are only an issue in countries where religion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation's Women's Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women's rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.
(A) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(B) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(C) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade age.
(D) Women's activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(E) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.\
Ans : (A)

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun's rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without takling greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as withnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.
(A) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(B) This phenomenoun thus is part of the climate change problem.
(C) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(D) At first, it sounds like and ironic saviour to climate change problems
(E) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here
Ans : (C)

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world's people and nations. Why is this ? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight ? What about their governments ? Hove they pursued policies that actually harm successful development ? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.
(A) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(B) What is the government doing about it?
(C) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(D) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(E) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing
Ans : (A)

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and dement from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a millionplus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It's simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down..........
(A) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(B) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(C) Thereby making them more expensive.
(D) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(E) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.
Ans : (C)

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world....... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and upgradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to face successfully competition in the job market.
(A) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(B) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(C) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(D) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(E) In the next decade it will become the most populous.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(B) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the prespecified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(C) In most of these books the authors classify a measurement strategy as either normreferenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(D) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(E) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(F) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the tought or learned material.
(G) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of "test characteristics" and "logistical dimensions."

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man's world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.
(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe
(A) (4) and (5)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (1) and (6)
(D) (2) and (5)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

12. Drugs worth Rs. 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.
(1) manufactured
(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought
(6) compard
(A) (1) and (4)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (5) and (6)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

13. An organisation .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.
(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off
(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated
(A) (3) and (6)
(B) (1) and (5)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (4) and (6)
(E) (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner's Task Force.
(1) possessing
(2) examining
(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating
(A) (2) and (3)
(B) (3) and (6)
(C) (1) and (5)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (4) and (5)
Ans : (C)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.
(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted
(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2) and (6)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(16-20) : Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct altemative from (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) which represents all those synonyms.

16. MASK
(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

17. REGULAR
(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Both (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

18. LABOUR
(1) Expedite
(2) To mave faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (A)

19. MEAN
(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice
(A) Only (3)
(B) Both (1) and (4)
(C) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

20. ALONE
(1) exclusively
(2) Morose
(3) Solitary
(4) Human being
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(21-35) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

As the country embarks on planning (21) the 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question mark (22) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements.

Growh is energy hungry, and the aspirations of growing at 9-10% will (23) huge demands on the energy resources of the country. In this energy Jigsaw, renewable energy will (24) like never before in the 12th Plan and (25)

By the rule of the thumb, India will (26) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of copacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (27) by some parts of the government the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the ternpered demand numbers are (28) to be below 80Gw. As against this need the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (29) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be (30) in the foresseable future. Between imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent cab be (31) to be added in the five-year time block.

(32) (33) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (34) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (35) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

21. (A) On
(B) Against
(C) For
(D) Onwards
(E) At
Ans : (C)

22. (A) Where
(B) That
(C) Inside
(D) Always
(E) Who
Ans : (D)

23. (A) Replace
(B) Forward
(C) Subject
(D) Place
(E) Demand
Ans : (D)

24. (A) Light
(B) Pass
(C) Publish
(D) Feature
(E) Find
Ans : (D)

25. (A) Earlier
(B) Likewise
(C) Publicity
(D) Next
(E) After
Ans : (E)

26. (A) Consumed
(B) Waste
(C) Require
(D) Highlight
(E) Generate
Ans : (C)

27. (A) Developmental
(B) Structures
(C) Efforts
(D) Projections
(E) Practices
Ans : (C)

28. (A) Likely
(B) Sure
(C) Unsure
(D) Unexpected
(E) Unlikely
Ans : (E)

29. (A) Expected
(B) Nominal
(C) Excelied
(D) Higher
(E) Lower
Ans : (D)

30. (A) Marginal
(B) Failure
(C) Success
(D) Dangerous
(E) Maxiimum
Ans : (A)

31. (A) Sure
(B) Certain
(C) Linked
(D) remarked
(E) Expected
Ans : (E)

32. (A) As
(B) When
(C) But
(D) However
(E) If
Ans : (A)

33. (A) Against
(B) For
(C) With
(D) Is
(E) Ever
Ans : (A)

34. (A) Capacity
(B) Through
(C) Project
(D) Versus
(E) Against
Ans : (B)

35. (A) Generating
(B) Lightening
(C) Making
(D) Touching
(E) Saving
Ans : (D)

Directions—(36-43) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policymakers and economists have become optimists while bosses do the worrying. The country's Central Bank has predicted that the country's economy is likely to grow at a double digit rate during the next 20-30 years. India has the capability with its vast labour and lauded entrepreneurial spirit. But the private sector which is supposed to do the heavy lifting that turns India from the world's tenth largest economy to its third largest by 2030 has become fed up. Business people often carp about India's problems but their irritation this time has a nervous edge. In the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at an annual rate of 7,8 percent; in 2005-07 it managed 9-10 percent. The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest rates and public spending that got India through the global crisis are belatedly withdrawn. At the same time the surge in inflation caused by exorbitant food prices has spread more widely, casting doubt over wheher India can grow at 8-10 percent in the medium term without overheating.

In India, as in many fast growing nations, the confidence to invest depends on the conviction that the long term trajectory is intact and it is that which is in doubt. Big Indian firms too sometimes seem happier to invest abroad that at home, in deals thatare often hailed as symbois of the country's growing clout but sometimes speak to its weaknesses - purchases of natural resources that India has in abundance but struggles to get out of the ground. In fact a further dip in investment could be selffulfilling: if fewer roads, ports and factories are built, this will hurt both short term growth figures and reduce the economy's long term capacity.

There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured the government need not try very hard. The liberalisation reforms that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to vibrant competition, at the same time what economists call factor markets, those for basic inputs like land, power, labour etc remain unreformed and largely under state control, which creates difficulties. Clearngces today can take three to four years and many employers are keen to replace workers with machines despite an abundance of labour force. This can be attributed to labour laws which are inimical to employee creation and an education system that means finding quality manpower a major problem. In fact the Planning Commission, concluded that even achieving 9 percent growth will need marked policy action in unreformed sectors. Twenty years age it was said that yardstick against which India should be measured was its potential and it is clear that there remains much to do.

36. Which of the following can be said about the Indian economy at present?
(A) It can comfortably achieve double digit growth rare at present.
(B) High food prices have led to overheating of the economy.
(C) citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation.
(D) Private sector confidence in India's growth potential is high.
(E) Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth.
Ans : (A)

37. Why are employers reluctant to hire Indian balour force?
(1) India's labour force is overqualified for the employment opportunities available.
(2) High attrition rate among employees stemming from their entrepreneurial spirit.
(3) Labour laws are not conducive to generating emploment.
(A) Only (3)
(B) All (1), (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. What is the state of India's basic input sectors at present?
(A) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast potential.
(B) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually awarded to foreign companies.
(C) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
(D) These sectors are well regulated as these are governed by the State.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?
(A) Showcasing the potential of India's growth potential to entice foreign investors .
(B) Exhorting India to implement measures to live up to its potential.
(C) Recommending India's model of development to other developing countries
(D) Berating the private sector for not bidding for infrastructure development projects.
(E) Criticising the measures taken by India during the global economic crisis.
Ans : (B)

40. What impact has the GDP growth of 7.8 percent had?
(1) Indian Industry is anxious about India's economic growth.
(2) India has achieved status as the world's third largest economy at present.
(3) Foreign investment in India has drastically increased.
(A) Only (1)
(B) All (1), (B) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word CLOUT given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Strike
(B) Standing
(C) Force
(D) Launch
(E) Achieve
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word MARKED given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Decreased
(B) Lgnored
(C) Clear
(D) Assessed
(E) Imperceptible
Ans : (E)

43. What measures do experts suggest be taken to ensure targeted economic growth?
(A) Loweing of interest rates to help industries hit by recession.
(B) Prolonged financial support for basic input industries.
(C) Incentives to Indian companies to invest in infrastucture.
(D) Formulation of policies and their implementation in factor markets
(E) Stringent implementation of licensing system.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(44-50) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In many countries, a combustible mixture of authoritarianism, unemployment and youth has given rise to disaffection with strongmen rulers which has in turn spilld over into uprising. Young people in these countries are far better educated than their parents were. In 1990 the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by 2010 the figure had risen to 7.1 years. Could it be that education, by making people less willing to put up with restrictions on freedom and more willing to question authority, promotes democratization. Ideas about the links between education, Income and democracy are at the heart of what social scientists have long studied. Since then plenty of economists and political scientists have looked for statistical evidence of a causal link between education and democratization. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that exists between levels of education and measures like the pluralism of party politics and the existence of civil liberties. The patterns are similar when income and democracy are considered. There are outliers, of course - until recently, many Arab countries managed to combine energy-based wealth and decent education with undemocratic political systems. But some deduce from the overall picture that as China and other authoritarian states get more educated and richer, their people will agitate for greater political freedom, culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of government.

This apparently reasonable intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics of the hypothesis point out that correlation is hardly causation. The general trend over the past half century may have been towards rising living standards, a wider spread of basic education and more democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being by another variable. Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would be difficult to know which way causation ran. Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary school whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies has shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the woment in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, raiway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.

44. Which of the following most aptly describes the central theme of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are richer and have a better track record of educating their citizens.
(B) Education does not necessarily lead to greater enthusiasm for a democratic form of government
(C) Educated societies with autocratic form of government enjoy a better quality of life than democracies.
(D) Citizens can fulfill their personal aspirations only under a democratic form of government.
(E) Democracy makes citizens more intolerant as it does not restrict personal freedoms.
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word PROMOTES given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Upgrades
(B) Prefers
(C) Recommends
(D) Advocates
(E) Publicises
Ans : (D)

46. What conclusion can be drawn from the statistics cited about Egypt's education system?
(A) Job prospects have been on the rise in Egypt in recent times.
(B) Authoritarian leaders have played a vital role in reforming Egypt's education system.
(C) Egypt has one of the youngest and best educated demographies in the world.
(D) Egypt is likely to be successful vibrant democracy.
(E) There has been a rise in education levels in Egypt in recant times.
Ans : (E)

47. In the context of the passage which of the following characterise (s) democracies?
(1) Active participation of majority of educated citizens in electoral process.
(2) Fast paced economic growth and accountability of those in power.
(3) Better standards of living and access to higher education.
(A) All (1), (2) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. What according to the author has led to uprisings in authoritarian countries?
(A) Lack of access to education.
(B) Vast numbers of uneducated and unemployable youth.
(C) Frustration with the existing system of governance.
(D) Unavailability of natural energy resources like coal and oil.
(E) Government's overambitious plans for development.
Ans : (C)

49. Which of the following is/are true about China in the context of the passage?
(1) China's citizens are in favour of a more representative form of government.
(2) China has made huge strides in infrastructure developments.
(3) China is in the midst of a political revolution.
(A) None (B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

50. What does the phrase "messiness of democracy" convey in the context of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are chaotic on account of individual freedoms.
(B) Most democratic countries frequently have violent revolts among their citizens.
(C) The divide between the poor and educated is growing wider in democracies.
(D) High levels of pollution on account of frentic pace of infrastructurd development.
(E) Resigned acceptance of intrinsic corruption in the education system.
Ans : (C)

IBPS CWE PO (Computer Knowledge) 2011 Solved Exam Paper

2011-12-18T03:32:00.000-08:00

Institute of Banking Personal Selection (IBPS) Probationary Officers (PO) Common Written Exam. Paper 2011

Computer Knowledge: (Held on 18-9-2011) Solved Paper

1. Computer uses the……….number system to store data and perform calculations.
(A) binary
(B) octal
(C) decimal
(D) hexadecimal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is–
(A) Memory-only
(B) Write-only
(C) Once-only
(D) Run-only
(E) Read-only
Ans : (E)

3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document ?
(A) CTRL+A
(B) ALT+F5
(C) SHIFT+A
(D) CTRL+K
(E) CTRL+H
Ans : (A)

4. ……….are 'attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
(A) Phishing
(B) Computer viruses
(C) Spyware scams
(D) Viruses
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of–
(A) control
(B) output
(C) processing
(D) feedback
(E) input
Ans : (E)

6. A Web site's main page is called its–
(A) Home Page
(B) Browser Page
(C) Search Page
(D) Bookmark
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is–
(A) multiprogramming
(B) multitasking
(C) time-sharing
(D) multiprocessing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as–
(A) an ASCII code
(B) a magnetic tape
(C) an OCR scanner
(D) a bar code
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the button and then point to AutoFit Contents.
(A) Fit to Form
(B) Format
(C) Autosize
(D) Contents
(E) AutoFit
Ans : (E)

10. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends ?
(A) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(B) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(C) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(D) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(E) It is not unethical-anyone can access a computer
Ans : (C)

11. Reusable optical storage will typica1ly have the acronym–
(A) CO
(B) DVD
(C) ROM
(D) RW
(E) ROS
Ans : (D)

12. The most common type of storage devices are–
(A) persistent
(B) optical
(C) magnetic
(D) flash
(E) steel
Ans : (D)

13. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be–
(A) distributed
(B) free
(C) centralized
(D) open source
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a–
(A) hacker
(B) analyst
(C) instant messenger
(D) programmer
(E) spammer
Ans : (A)

15. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is–
(A) dragging
(B) dropping
(C) right-clicking
(D) shift-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click–
(A) UPPERCASE
(B) UPPER ALL
(C) CAPS LOCK
(D) Lock Upper
(E) Large Size
Ans : (A)

17. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a–
(A) tab
(B) cell
(C) box
(D) range
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

18. You can keep your personal files / folders in–
(A) My folder
(B) My Documents
(C) My Files
(D) My Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. In Word you can force a page break–
(A) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(B) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter
(C) By using the Insert/Section Break
(D) By changing the font size of your document
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. A DVD is an example of a(n) –
(A) hard disk
(B) optical disc
(C) output device
(D) solid-state storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. The default view in Excel is……….view.
(A) Work
(B) Auto
(C) Normal
(D) Roman
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called–
(A) downloading
(B) uploading
(C) FTP
(D) JPEC
(E) downsizing
Ans : (A)

23. ……….is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(A) End
(B) Staft
(C) Turnoff
(D) Restart
(E) Reboot
Ans : (B)

25. The contents of……….are lost when the computer turns off.
(A) storage
(B) input
(C) output
(D) memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off–
(A) RAM
(B) Motherboard
(C) Secondary storage device
(D) Primary storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other computers is a(n) –
(A) supercomputer
(B) minicomputer
(C) laptop
(D) server
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. The……….folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
(A) Drafts
(B) Outbox
(C) Address Book
(D) Sent Items
(E) Inbox
Ans : (B)

29. Grouping and processing all of a firm's transactions at one time is called–
(A) a database management system
(B) batch processing
(C) a real-time system
(D) an on-line system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. The……….enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.
(A) tab box
(B) pop-up helper
(C) tab row
(D) address bar
(E) Esc key
Ans : (C)

31. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards ?
(A) BUS
(B) CPU
(C) USB
(D) MIDI
(E) MINI
Ans : (C)

32. You can……….a search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results.
(A) refine
(B) expand
(C) load
(D) query
(E) slowdown
Ans : (A)

33. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(A) RAM
(B) Floppy
(C) CPU
(D) CO-ROM
(E) ROM
Ans : (E)

34. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel ?
(A) Name box
(B) Row Headings
(C) Formula bar
(D) Task pane
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel over telephone lines is called a–
(A) red wire
(B) blue cord
(C) tower
(D) modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Video processors consist of……….and………., which store and process images.
(A) CPU and VGA
(B) CPU and memory
(C) VGA and memory
(D) VGI and DVI
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. If you want to connect to your own computer through the Internet from another location, you can use–
(A) e-mail
(B) FTP
(C) instant message
(D) Telnet
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. To reload a Web page, press the……….button.
(A) Redo
(B) Reload
(C) Restore
(D) Ctrl
(E) Refresh
Ans : (E)

39. This first step in the transaction processing cycle captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website–
(A) Document and report generation
(B) Database maintenance
(C) Transaction processing startup
(D) Data Entry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. A(n) ……….is a special visual and audio effect applied in Power-point to text or content.
(A) animation
(B) flash
(C) wipe
(D) dissolve
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. When the pointer is positioned on a……….it is shaped like a hand.
(A) grammar error
(B) Formatting error
(C) Screen Tip
(D) Spelling error
(E) hyperlink
Ans : (E)

42. Personal computers can be connected together to form a–
(A) server
(B) supercomputer
(C) network
(D) enterprise
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

43. A……….is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
(A) blog
(B) hit
(C) link
(D) view
(E) success
Ans : (E)

44. ……….are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control words
(B) Control structures
(C) Reserved words
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

45. Mobile Commerce is best described as–
(A) The use of Kiosks in marketing
(B) Transporting products
(C) Buying and selling goods/services through wireless handheld devices
(D) Using notebook PC's in marketing
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

46. Which of, the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information–
(A) floppy diskette
(B) hard disk
(C) permanent disk
(D) optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

47. The computer abbreviation KB usually means–
(A) Key Block
(B) Kernel Boot
(C) Key Byte
(D) Kit Bit
(E) Kilo Byte
Ans : (E)

48. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called?
(A) Configuration
(B) Download
(C) Storage
(D) Upload
(E) Installation
Ans : (D)

49. In Excel……….allows users to bring together copies of work-books that other users have worked on independently.
(A) Copying
(B) Merging
(C) Pasting
(D) Compiling
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
(A) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large, amount of data and information
(B) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
(C) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(D) An of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Uttarakhand Samuh Ga Group 9 Exam Question Paper With Answer

2011-12-17T01:13:00.000-08:00

Download Uttarakhand Samuh G Group 9 Exam was conducted On 09 October 2011& Here you can download Uttarakhand Samuh G – Group 9 Solved Exam question Paper

Download Uttarakhand Samuh G Group 9 Exam Paper

Uttarakhand Samuh G (Group C) G 12 Solved Exam Question Paper

2011-12-17T01:06:00.000-08:00

Download Uttarakhand Samuh G Group 12 Exam was conducted 25 SEPTEMBER 2011 & Here you can download Uttarakhand Samuh G – Group 12 Solved Exam question Paper