APPSC MATERIAL

Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan

2013-06-19T22:45:00.001+05:30

The Government of India has accorded a high priority to the Sanitation Sector.
In the 12th Plan an outlay of Rs. 34,377 crores has been provided for rural sanitation as compared to Rs. 6540 crores in the 11th Plan, which is a significantly higher allocation (425% higher than the 11th Plan).
The goal is to achieve 100% access to sanitation for all rural households in the Country by 2022 under the NBA.
Also as per 12th plan objectives of NBA, 50% of all the Gram Panchayats are to become Nirmal Grams by 2017.
Government of India started the Central Rural Sanitation Programme (CRSP) in 1986 to provide sanitation facilities in rural areas.

It was simply a supply driven, highly subsidy and infrastructure oriented programme.
As a result of deficiencies and low financial allocations, the CRSP had very little impact on the gargantuan problem.
The experience of community -driven, awareness-generating campaign based programme in some states and the results of evaluation of CRSP, led to theformulation of Total Sanitation Campaign ( TSC) approach in 1999.
The TSC was started as a demand driven, community-led programme with major IEC inputs to make sanitation a felt need of the people.
As per the Twelfth Plan Working Group recommendation, the APL-BPL distinction and the very low incentive under the TSC have played havoc with the programme.
Many slip-backs in the NGP villages have been attributed to non-availability of water, clearly indicating need to synergize the drinking water and sanitation programme.
Owing to above and to accelerate the progress of sanitation in rural areas, The Government of India has revamped the Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC) as theNirmal Bharat Abhiyan (NBA) in the XIIth Five Year Plan.
NBA is currently being implemented in 607 rural districts across the country.
NBA envisages covering the entire community for saturated outcomes with a view to create Nirmal Gram Panchayats.
Under NBA, following steps have been taken:
- A shift from motivating individual household toilet construction to covering whole communities in a Gram Panchayat saturation mode for holistic sanitation outcomes.
- The scope of providing incentives for individual household latrine units has been widened to cover all APL households who belong to SCs, STs, small and marginal farmers, landless labourers with homesteads, physically challenged and women headed households along-with all BPL households.
- Financial incentive for construction of toilets has been raised for all eligible beneficiaries to Rs. 4600/- from the earlier amount of Rs 3200/-.under NBA.
- In addition upto Rs. 4500/- can be spent under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme for construction of the toilet.
- Along-with beneficiary contribution of Rs. 900/-, the total amount of Rs. 10000/- is now available for construction of toilets, which in the case of hilly and difficult areas is Rs. 10500/-.
- More emphasis on Information Education Communication (IEC) by earmarking 15% of the total outlay of district projects for IEC activities.
- With a view to give thrust to a new approach towards IEC, the Ministry has launched a Communication and Advocacy Strategy (2012-2017).
- Conjoint approach with National Rural Drinking Water Programme(NRDWP) to ensure water availability for sanitation in Gram Panchayats.
- Focused convergence of rural sanitation with associated Ministries including Health, School Education, Women and Child Development with NBA.

Programme Aajeevika Of National Rural Livelihoods Mission

2013-06-19T22:42:00.003+05:30

The 2nd anniversary of India’s National Rural Livelihoods Mission(NRLM) was celebrated on 2 June.
NRLM is the largest women empowerment programme in the world and it will cover two-third of the country’s population in next 5 years.
Aajeevika is a flagship programme of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) under the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
Aajeevika was launched in June 2011.

Aided in part through investment support by the World Bank, the Mission aims at creating efficient and effective institutional platforms of the rural poor enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood enhancements and improved access to financial services.
It intends to over 7 Crore rural households, across 623 districts, 6,000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats, and 6 lakh villages in the country.
State Governments has established State Rural Livelihoods Mission (SRLM) to house dedicated structure at state, district and block level to implement multiple program components.
The core belief of National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is that the poor have innate capabilities and a strong desire to come out of poverty.

Latest About Infant Mortality Rate in India

2013-06-19T22:40:00.003+05:30

At present, Infant Mortality Rate is 44 per 1000 live births in the country as per Sample Registration System 2011 report of Registrar General of India.

The Millennium Development Goal 4 is to reduce child mortality by two third.
At present India’s IMR stands at 44 per 1000 live births (SRS 2011) againstMDG trarget of 28 per 1000 live births.
However, 14 States/UTs namely Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Delhi, Lakshadweep, Puducherry, Manipur, Maharashtra, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura have already achieved MDG 4 of IMR.

The following interventions under Reproductive and child health programme of NRHM are being implemented to meet the MDGs on time:

Prevention and treatment of Anaemia by supplementation with Iron and Folic Acid tablets during pregnancy and lactation.
Name Based Tracking of Pregnant Women to ensure complete antenatal,intranatal and postnatal care
Operationalizing Community Health Centers as First Referral Units (FRUs) and Primary Health Centers (24X7) for round the clock maternal care services. )
Promotion of Institutional Delivery through Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK): Promoting Institutional delivery to ensure skilled birth attendance for reducing both maternal and neo-natal mortality.
Strengthening Facility based newborn care: Newborn care corners (NBCC) are being set up at all delivery points. Special Newborn Care Units (SNCUs) and Newborn Stabilization Units (NBSUs) are also being set up at district hospitals and CHCs respectively for the care of sick newborn including preterm babies.
Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC): Home based newborn care through ASHAs has been initiated to improve new born practices at the community level and early detection and referral of sick newborn babies
Capacity building of health care providers: Various trainings are being conducted under National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) to build and upgrade the skills of health care providers in basic and comprehensive obstetric care of mother during pregnancy, delivery and essential newborn care.
Adolescent Reproductive Sexual Health Programme (ARSH) – for adolescents to have better access to family planning, prevention of sexually transmitted Infections, counselling and peer education.
A new initiative Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) has been launched on 6th February, 2013 for Child health screening and early intervention services to provide comprehensive care to all the children in the community. The purpose of these services is to improve the overall quality of life of children through early detection of birth defects, diseases, deficiencies, development delays including disability.

World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought

2013-06-17T23:22:00.005+05:30

The World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is a United Nations observance each June 17.

Its purpose is to highlight ways to prevent desertification and recover from drought. Each annual celebration has a different theme.

This year’s slogan, "Don’t let our future dry up" calls for everyone to take action to promote preparedness and resilience to water scarcity, desertification and drought.

The slogan embodies the message that we are all responsible for water and land conservation and sustainable use, and that there are solutions to these serious natural resource challenges.

Land degradation does not have to threaten our future.

The World Day to Combat Desertification has been observed since 1995 to promote public awareness relating to international cooperation to combat desertification and the effects of drought.

The goal of the 2013 World Day to Combat Desertification is to create awareness about the risks of drought and water scarcity in the drylands and beyond, calling attention to the importance of sustaining healthy soils as part of post Rio+20 agenda, as well as the post-2015 sustainable development agenda.

In 1994, the United Nations General Assembly declared June 17 the World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought to promote public awareness of the issue, and the implementation of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in those countries experiencing serious drought and/or desertification, particularly in Africa.

38 countries beat UN targets to reduce hunger

2013-06-17T23:22:00.002+05:30

Thirty-eight countries have beaten a UN-imposed deadline of 2015 to cut in half the proportion of hungry people.

The UN Food and Agriculture Organisation on Saturday recognised the 38 countries and urged those still working to

meet the UN target to redouble efforts. The UN General Assembly in 2000 established a set of "Millennium Development Goals" for countries.

The No. 1 target was to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger, including halving the proportion of hungry people by 2015.

The 38 countries include: Algeria, Angola, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Bangladesh, Benin, Brazil, Cambodia, Cameroon, Chile, Cuba, Djibouti, Dominican Republic, Fiji, Georgia, Ghana, Guyana, Honduras, Indonesia, Jordan, Kuwait, Kyrgyzstan, Malawi, Maldives, Nicaragua, Niger, Nigeria, Panama, Peru, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Samoa, Sao Tome and Principe, Thailand, Togo, Turkmenistan, Uruguay, Venezuela and Vietnam.

CDSCO to strengthen whistle blower scheme

2013-06-17T21:07:00.002+05:30

The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is planning to strengthen its whistle blower scheme to "motivate the public and provide information to the regulators on movement of spurious drugs”.

Apart from this, the organization is working on plans to set up 20 mini drug testing labs at port offices of CDSCO to monitor quality of imported and exported drugs and is also looking at purchasing 20 mobile drug testing vans to monitor quality of drugs moving in the market.

With Indian drug firms under increasing scrutiny, CDSCO also has plans to set up 'India Country Offices' in five countries to inspect foreign manufacturing facilities and address other regulatory issues. Over the next seven years, the organization also plans to correspondingly beef up its manpower by creating 1,195 new posts within its ranks, including 64 experts and additional 4,300 personnel for new laboratories, mobile drug testing labs and setting up a training academy.

On the problems currently faced by drug firms in the US, CDSCO is planning to monitor case documents of companies that are already under the USFDA scanner such as: On May 13, Ranbaxy had pleaded guilty to charges related to drug safety and falsifying data for adulterated drugs produced at two of its facilities in Dewas and Paonta Sahib and agreed to pay $500 million, the biggest ever settlement by a generic drug maker. Shortly thereafter, the USFDA had banned import of generic drugs from Wockhardt's Aurangabad facility.

Glenmark Generics, a subsidiary of Glenmark Pharmaceuticals, too announced on May 23 that it was recalling multiple lots of three of its drugs from the US market due to an "odd smell", according to USFDA notification. Around the time Wockhardt got its import alert, a similar USFDA warning was issued to a Gujarat unit of Sterling Biotech. Sterling Biotech had received an earlier alert in end-November 2012 when the USFDA collected and analyzed samples of pharmaceutical use gelatin and "found them to be contaminated with spore forming bacteria".

Due to these incidents CDSCO will increase the vigil so that the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act are adhered to. An e-governance system will also be set up that would increase transparency along with credibility. Under this framework, all offices and laboratories of CDSCO and offices of state drugs controllers will be interlinked. Eight new Central Drugs Testing Laboratories with a capacity to test around 8,000 samples a year by each laboratory and an upgradation of existing six laboratories is also in the pipeline.

Under the Drug and Cosmetics Act, the regulation of manufacture, sale and distribution of drugs is primarily the concern of the states, while the Central authorities are responsible for approval of new drugs, clinical trials, laying down the standards for drugs, control over the quality of imported drugs and coordination of the activities of state drug control organizations.

APPSC Assistant Engineers, Assistant Motor Vehicles Inspectors, Observers (Non - Engineering) Exam G.S. Solved Paper (Exam Held On: 16-06-2013)

2013-06-16T15:25:00.001+05:30

APPSC Research Assistant (Engineering) Exam Paper (Exam Held On: 09-06-2013)

2013-06-10T14:20:00.000+05:30

Filling of vacant posts through Direct Recruitment

2013-06-03T23:32:00.001+05:30

Great Nicobar now 9th Indian reserve in Unesco world network

2013-06-01T16:12:00.001+05:30

The Great Nicobar Biosphere island reserve, whose tropical wet evergreen forest hosts a wealth of animal species and medicinal plants, joins a global list of places named by UNESCO for promoting sustainable development based on local community efforts and science.

The International Coordinating Council of Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB-ICC) under the United Nations Organisation for Education, Science and Culture designated the 103,870 hectares Great Nicobar reserve as protected, in its meeting in Paris, this week, according to a statement released by the body.

The reserve which encompasses a large part of the island ofGreat Nicobar is home to to indigenous Shompen people, semi-nomadic hunters living inland, and the Nicobarese, who are coastal dwellers dependent on fishing and horticulture.

The 6,381 inhabitants of the region derive a wide variety of biological resources from their environment such as medicinal plants and other non-timber forest products.

The bioreserve is home to 1,800 animal species, including 200 species of meiofauna in the coastal zone. Biosphere Reserves are sites chosen by the MAB program to experiment with different approaches to the management of terrestrial, marine and coastal resources as well as fresh water.

They also serve as in situ laboratories for sustainable development. The designation is not binding under any law but is aimed at building and promoting a network of places where people are attempting to mesh human activity with biological and scenic assets.

Great Nicobar joins the reserves at Simplipal (Orissa), Nokrek (Meghalaya), Pachmarhi (Madhya Pradesh), Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu), the Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu), Sunderban (West Bengal) Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand) and Achanakmar-Amarkantak (Madhyapradesh and Chhatisgarh) which are already on UNESCO's list.

Among the other 11 global sites included in the new batch of UNESCO bioreserve is the reserve in Alakol Kazakhstan, which includes wetlands of world significance.

It is an important Indian bird migration route, a water bird habitat and aggregation site.

The other sites are Gochang (Republic of Korea) Macizo de Cajas (Ecuador), Marais Audomarois (France), Marinas Corunesas e Terras do Mandeo (Spain), Mont-Viso (France), Monteviso Area della Biosfera del Monviso (Italy), Real Sitio de San Ildefonso-El Espinar (Spain), Snake Island, Laotie Mountain, (China), Terres de l' Ebre, Catalonia (Spain), Ziarat Juniper Forest (Pakistan) and Ordesa-Vinamala (Spain).

Poverty Eradication Programmes

2013-06-01T16:11:00.002+05:30

Below Poverty Line (BPL) : According to the "Task Force on projection of minimum needs and effective consumption demand" appointed by the Planning Commission, a person is BPL if his daily consumption of calories is less than 2400 in Rural Areas and 2100 calories in Urban areas.

About 22% of total population is BPL in 2004-05 as per NSSOs survey.
10th plan target of reduction in poverty ratio to 19.3% by 2007 and 11th plan target is 15% by 2012.
Poverty eradication is the explicit objective of 5th plan. Dandekar & Rath are the 1st to use energy requirements i.e., calorie intakes as a measure of poverty line. 8th Plan took Rs. 11,000 p.a. as poverty line for 5 member family in rural; for urban, Rs 12,000 p.a.

Poverty Eradication Programmes :

Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) (1st Jan 1986) : Construction of houses for the poor free of cost. Now part of Bharat Nirman.
Swarna Jayanthi Gram Swarojgar Yojana (April 99) : IRDP, MWS, TRYSEM , GKY, DWAKRA, SITRA. These 6 programmes were merged to become this scheme.
Sampoorna Grameena Rojgar Yojana : Emplt Assurance Scheme and Jawahar Gram Samviddhi Yojana were merged to become this scheme.

Aims : Providing wage - emplt in rural areas, food security.

"National Food for Work Programme" (Nov 2004) : This is for wage-emplt and food security to rural poor.
National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme : NREP and the above 2 programmes i.e., (Sampoorna Grameena Rojgar Yojana and National Food for Work Programme" were merged to become this programme.

100 Day's guaranteed work in an year.
Rs 100/- wage per day per person.
Unskilled manual work in rural areas was launched on 2nd Feb. 2006 at Badlapalli, Ananthapur Dist (Andhra Pradesh) by the P.M. Extended to whole of India from 01-04-08. Budget allotment for 09-10 is Rs 39,100 Cr.

Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yojana (Dec 1997) : Nehru Rojgar Youjana, Urban Basic Services Programme and PM's integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme were merged to become this programme.

This is for self-emplt for Urban Unemployed.

DPAP : Drought Prone Area Programme was launched in 1973-74.
Desert Devt. Programme : Launched in 1977-78.
Integrated Wasteland Programme : Launched in 1989-90.
Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Youjana (Dec 2001) : Construction of dwelling Units for the slum dwellers and community Toilets.

It is merged in Integrated Housing & Slum Development Programme on 3rd Dec 2005.

Antyodaya Anna Yojana (25th December 2000) : For the "Poorest of the Poor."

30 Kg of Rice / Wheat per month per family from Jan 2006.
25% of BPL house holds i.e., 2.5 Cr households are covered. Rice @ Rs. 3 per kg and wheat Rs. 2 per Kg.
Under this, the Govt provides guarantee by law to provide 25 kg of rice / wheat @ Rs. 3 per kg to 6.52 Cr. BPL households.
The current poverty estimate is 27.5% of population.

PM Gram Sadak Yojana : Launched in 25-12-2000.

100% Centrally Sponsored.
To provide all-weather road connectivity to all habitations by 10th plan end.
2009-10 allocation : Rs 12,000 Cr.

Annapurna Anna Yojana (2nd October 2000) : For Seniur citizens of more than 65 years, not covered by National old-age pension scheme.

Food grains 10 kg per month free of cost.
100 % centrally sponsored.

PM's Adarsha Gram Yojana (2009-10) : Rs. 100 Cr for 1000 villiages (SC Population more than 50%).

Some More Important Points :

"Rajiv Awaas Yojana" is launched to provide affordable houses to slum dwellers and the Urban poor.
"Indira Awaas Yojana" is launched to provide housing to Rural Poor.
The concept of "P-Index was coindec by Amarthya Sen.
India's per capita food consumption fell to 155 Kg/Year.
As per planning commission estimate BPL for 2007 : 19.34%
World Bank's Poverty Line : $ 1.25 per person per day; Asian Devt. Bank's new measure of Poverty : $ 1.35.
Flagship Schemes of UPA Govt :

Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
Midday Meals Scheme
NREGS
JNNURM
National Rural Health Mission.

Government of India appointed Task Forces under Nandan Nilekani (Chairman, UIIDAI) to work out mechanism to provide direct subsidies on keroscene, LPG and Fertiliser for the Poor.

APPSC CDPO EXAM GENERAL STUDIES KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 05-05-2013)

2013-05-27T21:36:00.000+05:30

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-II KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

2013-05-27T21:28:00.000+05:30

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

2013-05-27T10:09:00.001+05:30

1.   What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)   The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)   The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)   The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)   The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.   Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)   In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)   The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)   No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)   In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
   Answer (C)

3.   Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
   Geographical Feature       Region
(a)   Abyssinian Plateau:           Arabia
(b)   Atlas Mountains:           North Western Africa
(c)   Guiana Highlands:       :   South Western Africa
(d)   Okavango Basin:           Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.   With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.   The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.   The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.   At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

5.   Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.   across different species of plants
2.   from animals to plants
3.   from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

6.   The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.   The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
2.   As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.   The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only-
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.   Consider the following:
1.   Star tortoise
2.   Monitor lizard
3.   Pygmy hog
4.   Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)   1, 2 and 3 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.   Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.   Arsenic
2.   Sorbitol
3.   Fluoride
4.   Formaldehyde
5.   Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 3 only
(b)   2, 4 and 5 only
(c)   1, 3 and 5 only
(d)   1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.   With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)   directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)   nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)   elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)   selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.   Consider the following animals:
1.   Sea cow
2.   Sea-horse
3.   Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 3 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.   Consider the following statements:
1.   An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.   If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and 2
(d)   Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.   Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.   take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.   be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.   speak in the Lok Sabha
4.   vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 4
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.   With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.   Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.   Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.   Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.   Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)   the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)   the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)   latitudinal position of the place
(d)   revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.   The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.   It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.   It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.   The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3
(c)   1 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (A)

16.   On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)   is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)   is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)   exists as groundwater
(d)   exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.   Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve   : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake   Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :   Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (A)

18.   Consider the following:
1.   Electromagnetic radiation
2.   Geothermal energy
3.   Gravitational force
4.   Plate movements
5.   Rotation of the earth
6.   Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)   1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)   1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)   2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)   1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.   Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.   National Development Council
2.   Planning Commission
3.   Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.   The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)   the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)   the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)   the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)   writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)

21.   The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)   with   the   consent   of all   the States
(b)   with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)   with the consent of the States concerned
(d)   without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.   In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)   insects and fungi
(b)   limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)   water limits and fire
(d)   None of the above
Answer (C)

23.   Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)   Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)   Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)   Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)   Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)

24. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)   Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)   low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)   Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)   None to the above
Answer (A)

25.   The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)   To provide self- governance
(b)   To recognize traditional rights
(c)   To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)

26.   Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)   State Forest Department
(b)   District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)   Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)   Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.   Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)   bacteria
(b)   protozoa
(c)   moulds
(d)   viruses
Answer (C)

28.   'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)   the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)   the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)   the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)   None of the above
Answer (B)

29.   Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.   Beryllium
2.   Cadmium
3.   Chromium
4.   Heptachlor
5.   Mercury
6.   Lead
7.   Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)   1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)   2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)   1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.   Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)   carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)   carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)   ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)   nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.   With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.   A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.   Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.   A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
   National Park   River flowing through the Park
1.   Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.   Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.   Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)   1 and 2
(b)   3 only
(c)   1 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (D)

33.   Consider the following organisms:
1.   Agaricus
2.   Nostoc
3.   Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)   1 and 2
(b)   2 only
(c)   2 and 3
(d)   3 only
Answer (C)

34.   Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.   Excretion of urea by animals
2.   Burning of coal by man
3.   Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

35.   In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.       Tamil Nadu
2.        Kerala
3.   Karnataka
4.   Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3 only
(b)   1 only
(c)   1, 3 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.   Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)   Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)   Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)   Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)   There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.   Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)   The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)   The complete annihilation of self
(c)   A state of bliss and rest
(d)   A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)

38.   According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)   Fundamental Rights
(b)   Fundamental Duties
(c)   Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)   Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.   The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)   Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)   Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)   there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)   the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.   Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)   Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)   Cripps Proposals
(c)   Simon Commission Report
(d)   Wavell Plan
Answer (B)

41.   The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)   all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)   goods exported from a country during a year
(c)   economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)   capital movements from one country to another
Answer (C)

42.   The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.   liquidity of assets
2.   branch expansion
3.   merger of banks
4.   winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 4 only
(b)   2, 3 and 4 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.   An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)   market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)   Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)   Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)   Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.   In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)   economic development
(b)   redemption of public debt
(c)   adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.   Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.   They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.   They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.   They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (A)

46.   Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.   Chikungunya
2.   Hepatitis B
3.   HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)     1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.   The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.   Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.   Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.   Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (C)

49.   Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)   NO2, O3 and   peroxyaceryl nitrate in the   presence of sunlight
(b)   CO, O2 and   peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the   presence    of
(c)   CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)   high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.   Consider the following minerals:
1.   Calcium
2.   Iron
3.   Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

51.   Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.   consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.   scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.   examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.   Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.   Dadu Dayal
2.   Guru Nanak
3.   Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)   1 and 3
(b)   2 only
(c)   2 and 3
(d)   1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.   With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.   Virus
2.   Fungi
3.   Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.   The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)   warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)   rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)   warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)   continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.   Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.   Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.   Coexistence of a large number of species
3.   Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.   Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.   Foreign Loans
2.   Foreign Direct Investment
3.   Private Remittances
4.   Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3
(b)   1, 2 and 4
(c)   2, 3 and 4
(d)   1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.   Consider the following historical places:
1.   Ajanta Caves
2.   Lepakshi Temple
3.   Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (B)

58.   With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the   following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.   Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.   Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and 2
(d)   Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

59.   In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.   Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.   Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.   Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   3 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.   The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.   Thermal difference between land and water
2.   Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.   Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.   Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.   High ash content
2.   Low sulphur content
3.   Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

62.   Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.   They are generally red in colour.
2.   They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.   They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.   Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3
(b)   2, 3 and 4
(c)   1 and 4
(d)   2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.   Consider the following statements:
1.   Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.   Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.   Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 and 2
(b)   2 only
(c)   2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (B)

64.   Consider the following crops:
1.   Cotton
2.   Groundnut
3.   Rice
4.   Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)   1 and 4
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.   "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
   The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
   (a)   African Savannah
   (b)   Central Asian Steppe
   (c)   North American Prairie
   (d)   Siberian Tundra
   Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
   1.   Inflation benefits the debtors.
   2.   Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a)   1 only
   (b)   2 only
   (c)   Both 1 and 2
   (d)   Neither 1 nor 2
   Answer (A)

67.   Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)   large number of people remain unemployed
(b)   alternative employment is not available
(c)   marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)   productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.   Consider the following statements:
1.   The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.   The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.   The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.   National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.   The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.   The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.   Consider the following statements:
1.   The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.   While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and 2
(d)   Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.   With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.   Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.   It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   Both 1 and
(d)   Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.   meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.   lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.   violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3
(c)   1 and 3
(d)   None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (C)

73.   Consider the following pairs:
   Tribe       State
   1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
   2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
   3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
   4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
   Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)   1 and 3 only
(b)   2 and 4 only
(c)   1, 3 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.   Demand deposits with the banks
2.   Time deposits with the banks
3.   Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)   1-4-3-2
(b)   4-3-2-1
(c)   2-3-1-4
(d)   4-1-3-2
Answer (D)

75.   In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)   borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)   lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)   purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

76.   Priority Sector Lending by banks in
   India constitutes the lending to
(a)   agriculture
(b)   micro and small enterprises
(c)   weaker sections
(d)   All of the above
Answer (D)

77.   Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)   Engineering
(b)   Paper and pulp
(c)   Textiles
(d)   Thermal power
Answer (B)

78.   To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)   Promoting skill development
(b)   Introducing more social security schemes
(c)   Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)   Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.   In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)   One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)   Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)   Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)   A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.   Annie Besant was
1.   responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.   the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.   once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

81.   The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)   imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)   imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)   removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)   removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.   A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.   an increase in the money supply
2.   a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.   an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   1 and 2 only
(c)   2 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.   Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)   Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)   Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)   Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)   Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.   Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)   Repayment of public debt
(b)   Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)   Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)   Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.   Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)   a fall in the level of prices
(b)   an increase in the rate of interest
(c)   a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)   an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.   Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)   exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)   concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)   rate of respiration is decreased
(d)   there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.   Consider the following fauna of India:
1.   Gharial
2.   Leatherback turth
3.   Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   3 only
(c)   1, 2 and 3
(d)   None
Answer (C)

89.   Consider the following phenomena:
1.   Size of the sun at dusk
2.   Colour of the sun at dawn
3.   Moon being visible at dawn
4.   Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.   Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)   1, 2 and 3
(b)   3, 4 and 5
(c)   1, 2 and 4
(d)   2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.   Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.   Dispersion
2.   Refraction
3.   Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)   the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)   most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)   most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)   leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.   Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)   there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)   there is population growth in X
(c)   there is capital formation in X
(d)   the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.   Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.   Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.   Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.   Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.   Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.   Hard and waxy leaves
2.   Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.   Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.   The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)   Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)   Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)   Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)   Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.   The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.   It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.   It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.   It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.   Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.   resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.   tolerate extremes of pH
3.   resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.   Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.   The Prime Minister
2.   The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.   Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.   Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1, 2 and 3 only
(b)   1, 3 and 4 only
(c)   2 and 4 only
(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)   total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)   sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)   sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)   money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.   Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.   Regional Rural Banks
2.   National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.   Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)   1 and 2 only
(b)   2 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2013 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-1 SOLVED PAPER

2013-05-26T18:05:00.000+05:30

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C (Pre.) Exam Solved Paper

2013-05-26T17:49:00.002+05:30

General Studies (Paper-I) Solved Paper

(Exam Held on 24-2-2013)

1. Nagarjun Sagar Dam is situated in which State of India ?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka (D) Orissa
Ans : (B)

2. The Himalayan Mountain Ranges are not a part of which of the following States ?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Sikkim (D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)

3. Which of the following is the general direction of flow of summer monsoon in India ?
(A) From South to North
(B) From South-West to South-East
(C) From South-East to South-West
(D) From South-West to North-East
Ans : (D)

4. What is the sex ratio of India as per the provisional data of census of India 2011 from the following ?
(A) 935 (B) 940
(C) 945 (D) 950
Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following is the first National Park of India ?
(A) Kanha National Park (B) Dudhwa National Park
(C) Rajaji National Park (D) Corbett National Park
Ans : (D)

6. Alaska is a part of which State from the following ?
(A) Greenland (B) United States of America
(C) Canada (D) Russia
Ans : (B)

7. In which of the following continents the Andes Mountain Range is located ?
(A) Australia (B) Europe
(C) South America (D) North America
Ans : (C)

8. The Equator does not pass through which of the following countries ?
(A) Kenya (B) Mexico
(C) Indonesia (D) Brazil
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following cities is known as the 'City of Canals' ?
(A) Amsterdam (B) Rome
(C) Venice (D) Athens
Ans : (C)

10. Which one of the following Indian States does not share border with Bhutan ?
(A) Sikkim (B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

11. Which one among the following is incorrect statement about the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) It worked with the help of a large number of committees, the most important among them being the Drafting Committee
(B) Minority communities like Christians, Anglo-Indians and Parsis were adequately represented in the Assembly
(C) It was elected on the basis of universal adult franchise
(D) Its electoral process was based on the sixth schedule of the Act of 1935 which allowed for a restricted franchise based on tax, property and educational qualification
Ans : (C)

12. The party system is the part of which larger system among the following ?
(A) social system (B) Economic system
(C) Political system (D) International system
Ans : (C)

13. Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes against which of the following ?
(A) Gold (B) Foreign security
(C) Government of India security (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

14. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by which of the following ?
(A) President of India (B) Ministry of Railways
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (D) Ministry of Transport
Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following is the period of 12th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 2007-2012 (B) 2012-2017
(C) 2010-2015 (D) 2006-2011
Ans : (B)

16. In India, National Income is computed by which of the following ?
(A) Planning Commission (B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Central Statistical Organisation (D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (C)

17. Who among the following is associated with 'White Revolution ?
(A) P. J. Kurien (B) Verghese Kurien
(C) M. S. Swaminathan (D) M. S. Raghunathan
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following Banks is the Central Bank of India ?
(A) State Bank of India (B) Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (D)

19. Who among the following was the Speaker of first Lok Sabha ?
(A) G. V. Mavalankar (B) K. M. Munshi
(C) G. B. Pant (D) Acharya Kriplani
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking/enterprise ?
(A) N.T.P.C. (B) S.A.I.L.
(C) B.H.E.L. (D) T.I.S.C.O.
Ans : (D)

21. Where among the following is the biggest indoor stadium situated in M.P. ?
(A) Gwalior (B) Indore
(C) Bhopal (D) Jabalpur
Ans : (C)

22. Subrato Cup is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Football (B) Cricket
(C) Chess (D) Badminton
Ans : (A)

23. Which Olympic Swimmer amongst the following has won 18 Gold medals in his career ?
(A) Michel Phelps (U.S.A.) (B) Florent Manaudov (France)
(C) Cullen Jones (U.S.A.) (D) Ian Thorpe (Australia)
Ans : (A)

24. Mary Kom is a recipient of–
(A) Bronze medal in 2012 Olympic (B) Arjun Award
(C) Padma Shree (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

25. Who among the following is the Chairman of Madhya Pradesh Sports Council at present ?
(A) Kailash Vijay Vargiya (B) Shivraj Singh Chauhan
(C) Tukoji Rao Pawar (D) Vikram Varma
Ans : (C)

26. How many players play on the ground from one team in Kho-kho, Kabaddi, Volleyball and Basketball respectively ?
(A) 7, 9, 5, 6 (B) 5, 6, 7, 9
(C) 9, 7, 6, 5 (D) 7, 5, 6, 9
Ans : (C)

27. Which of the following awards is given by the Madhya Pradesh government to a coach for his dedication in sports ?
(A) Dronacharya award (B) Parashuram award
(C) Vishwamitra award (D) sandipani award
Ans : (C)

28. What is the name of the goal-keeper of Indian Hockey team/teams which won gold medals in1956 and 1964 Olympic games ?
(A) Dhyanchand (B) Ajitpal Singh
(C) Roop Singh (D) Shankar Laxman
Ans : (D)

29. Which cricket-player among the following has been honoured by Board of Control for Cricket in India giving him C. K. Naidu Lifetime Achievement Award ?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Anil Kumble
(C) Sachin Tendulkar (D) Saurav Ganguli
Ans : (A)

30. Who among the following won the World Billiard Championship, 2012 ?
(A) Mike Russel (B) Rupesh Shah
(C) Dhruva sitwala (D) Pankaj Advani
Ans : (D)

31. Who among the following was awarded the prestigious 'Kalidas samman' of Madhya Pradesh Government in November 2012 ?
(A) Lata Mangeshkar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Anupam Kher (D) Pandit Ravishankar
Ans : (C)

32. Maximum Soybean is produced in which area of Madhya Pradesh among the following ?
(A) Malwa (B) Bundelkhand
(C) Baghelkhand (D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

33. The boundary of which district of M. P. among the following does not touch Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Bhind (B) Satana
(C) Shivpuri (D) Sheopur
Ans : (D)

34. Which one of the following is the smallest district of M. P. (in population) ?
(A) Sheopur (B) Raisen
(C) Datia (D) Harda
Ans : (D)

35. Who among the following was the first Chief Minister of M.P. ?
(A) Ravishankar Shukla (B) Kailashnath Katju
(C) Pattabhi Sitarammaiya (D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

36. What is the number of Jyotirlings in M.P. out of twelve Jyotirlingas of India ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Ans : (B)

37. With whom among the following 'Mandu' is associated ?
(A) Jiwaji Rao (B) Rani Rupmati
(C) Allauddin Khan (D) Jhalkari Bai
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following tribes of M.P. is the biggest in population ?
(A) Saharia (B) Bheel
(C) Cole (D) Bharia
Ans : (B)

39. Where among the following famous place for sculpture 'Phadake Studio' is situated ?
(A) Gwalior (B) Rewa
(C) Dhar (D) Bhopal
Ans : (C)

40. Where is the All India Classical Dance Festival organised every year in M.P. ?
(A) Pachmarhi (B) Khajuraho
(C) Gwalior (D) Orachha
Ans : (B)

41. Sometimes back, Parliament of which country has given extension of six months to Constitutional Assembly to frame new Constitution ?
(A) Bhutan (B) Nepal
(C) China (D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

42. By the end of which year, America has given a call to withdraw 33,000 soldiers from Afghanistan ?
(A) 2012 (B) 2013
(C) 2014 (D) 2015
Ans : (A)

43. In November 2011, the Pakistan and China held a joint military exercise along which of the following rivers ?
(A) Indus (B) Chenab
(C) Jhelum (D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

44. Which of the following countries boycotted the International Conference on Syria ?
(A) China (B) Russia
(C) U.S.A. (D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

45. First lady, other than the queen of Britain who had addressed both houses of British Parliament is-
(A) Indira Gandhi (B) Benazir Bhutto
(C) Sonia Gandhi (D) Aung San Suukyi
Ans : (D)

46. Sir Creek Dispute is in between which of the following two countries ?
(A) India-Pakistan (B) Afghanistan-Pakistan
(C) China-India (D) India-Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

47. Anna Hazare got what place in the list of 36 demonstrators released by TIME now ?
(A) First (B) Fifth
(C) Tenth (D) Fifteenth
Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following is the 'National Voters Day' ?
(A) June 5 (B) November 1
(C) January 25 (D) March 8
Ans : (C)

49. Where was the Asian Shooting Championship, 2012 organised ?
(A) Kuala Lumpur (B) Colombo
(C) Azerbaijan (D) Doha
Ans : (D)

50. In which country is Malala being treated ?
(A) Pakistan (B) Britain
(C) America (D) Germany
Ans : (B)

51. In which district of M.P. is the Industry of Traction Alternators for diesel engines proposed in the rail budget of 2012-13 ?
(A) Satna (B) Gwalior
(C) Vidisha (D) Bhopal
Ans : (C)

52. In which district of M.P. Mandideep Industrial Cluster is situated ?
(A) Vidisha (B) Bhopal
(C) Sehore (D) Raisen
Ans : (D)

53. In which district of M.P. is railway sleeper manufacturing factory situated ?
(A) Sehore (B) Bhopal
(C) Hoshangabad (D) Betul
Ans : (A)

54. Who was the first woman Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Vimla Sharma (B) Vijaya Raje Scindia
(C) Nirmala Yadav (D) Uma Bharti
Ans : (D)

55. Jaldeep Yojana was initially started by M.P. Government from which reservoir ?
(A) Indira Sagar (B) Gandhi Sagar
(C) Baan Sagar (D) Yeshwant Sagar
Ans : (A)

56. At present, who is the Speaker of Madhya Pradesh Assembly ?
(A) Ishwardas Rohani (B) Mukuhd Nevalkar
(C) Shreenivas Tewari (D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

57. Who was the Chief Minister of M.P. on 1-11-2000 at the time of division of State ?
(A) Arjun Singh (B) Digvijay Singh
(C) sundarlal Patwa (D) Virendra Kumarsaklecha
Ans : (B)

58. From where the Reliance Industries got the coal bed Methane reserve in M.P. ?
(A) Suhagpur (B) Guna
(C) Balaghat (D) Rewa
Ans : (A)

59. Where is Dushyant Kumar Manuscript Museum situated ?
(A) Bhopal (B) Jabalpur
(C) Ujjain (D) Balaghat
Ans : (A)

60. Who constructed the Sanchi Stupa ?
(A) Chandragupta (B) Gautarn Buddha
(C) Mahavira (D) Ashoka
Ans : (D)

61. Which of the following protocol may be used for accessing world wide web ?
(A) HTTP (B) SMTP
(C) SLIP (D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

62. Which of the following is a valid domain name extension ?
(A) .com (B) .gov
(C) .net (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

63. URL stands for-
(A) Unique Resource Locator (B) Universal Resource Locator
(C) Uniform Resource Locator (D) United Resource Locator
Ans : (C)

64. e-Mail stands for-
(A) Electrical Mail (B) Electronic Mail
(C) Elastic Mail (D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

65. Which of the following is free e-mail service provider ?
(A) Hotmail (B) Rediffmail
(C) Yahoo (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

66. HTML stands for-
(A) Hybrid Text Markup Language
(B) Hypertext Markup Language
(C) Higher Text Markup Language
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

67. A computer virus is-
(A) A computer program that can replicate itself
(B) A virus that affects health of human being
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

68. A computer hacker is-
(A) a person who maintains computer security
(B) a person who violates computer security with malicious intention for personal gain
(C) a person responsible for safe computer operation
(D) a person who repairs computer
Ans : (B)

69. Video conferencing is-
(A) Conduct of video calls using telecom technology
(B) Conduct of telephone calls
(C) Conduct of video conference using a set of telescopic technology
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

70. Cyber crime is-
(A) Hacking (B) Stalking
(C) Denial of service attacks (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

71. Which of the following musicians was selected in 2012 for "Life-time Achievement Grammy Award" ?
(A) Pandit Girijashankar (B) Jakir Hussen
(C) A. R. Rehman (D) Pandit Ravishankar
Ans : (D)

72. M. P. Accountant General's Office is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Bhopal (B) Gwalior
(C) Jabalpur (D) Rewa
Ans : (B)

73. In which city is R.C.V.P. Noronha Administrative Academy situated ?
(A) Jabalpur (B) Mussoorie
(C) Mumbai (D) Bhopal
Ans : (D)

74. All offences punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are-
(A) Cognizable and non-bailable
(B) Cognizable and Try summarily
(C) Non-cognizable and bailable
(D) Non-cognizable and compoundable
Ans : (B)

75. An offence arising out of 'untouchability' would not made out where-
(A) the act of accused with regard to the enjoyment of benefit under a charitable trust created for the benefit of any section of the general public
(B) the act of accused is with regard to the use of finery
(C) as accused is not being competent to commit an offence
(D) the accused and complainant victim belong to the same social group
Ans : (B)

76. The Protection of Civil Rights Act extends to-
(A) the whole of India
(B) the whole of India except the scheduled areas
(C) the whole of India except the State of Jammu & Kashmir
(D) the whole of India except the union territories of Goa, Daman and Diu
Ans : (A)

77. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into force on-
(A) July 1, 1989 (B) January 30, 1990
(C) July 30, 1989 (D) January 1, 1990
Ans : (B)

78. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is a special provision for the advancement of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes which is based on which one of the following doctrines ?
(A) Doctrine of Severability
(B) Doctrine of Preferred Position
(C) Doctrine of Protective discrimination
(D) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
Ans : (C)

79. Which of the following powers is not provided to specified Special Court under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act ?
(A) Forfeiture of property of a convict of an offence
(B) To authorize a person for extra investigation other than police
(C) To remove a person from the area on whom there is a doubt of committing a crime
(D) Take measurement and photograph of a person on whom there is a doubt of committing a crime
Ans : (B)

80. A Court of Session specified as Special Court to try the offences under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act for the purpose of providing-
(A) Speedy trial (B) Time-bound trial
(C) Special protection to Victims (D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

81. Scientists of N.D.R.I., Karnal (Haryana) developed second clone of which one of the following animals ?
(A) Sheep (B) Buffalo
(C) Cow (D) Goat
Ans : (B)

82. Which snake of the following is non-poisonous ?
(A) Cobra (B) Viper
(C) Coral-Snake (D) Python
Ans : (D)

83. In which year was the 'Project Tiger' launched to save Indian Tigers ?
(A) 1971 (B) 1973
(C) 1977 (D) 1991
Ans : (B)

84. Which of the following is measured by 'Anemometer' ?
(A) Velocity of water-flow (B) Depth of water
(C) Force of the wind (D) Intensity of light
Ans : (C)

85. Dengue is a fever caused and transmitted to other human by-
(A) Virus and female Aedes mosquito
(B) Bacteria and female Culex mosquito
(C) Fungus and female Aedes mosquito
(D) Protozoan and female Anopheles mosquito
Ans : (A)

86. Carbon monoxide poisoning affects mainly which one of the following ?
(A) Digestive activity (B) Liver functioning
(C) Kidney functioning (D) Oxygen carrying capacity of blood
Ans : (D)

87. 'Statics' is related to which one of the following ?
(A) State of motion (B) State of rest
(C) State of mind (D) Study of data
Ans : (B)

88. According to a new definition adopted by 'International Astronomical Union' in 2006, which of the following is not a 'planet' ?
(A) Uranus (B) Neptune
(C) Pluto (D) Jupiter
Ans : (C)

89. 'World AIDS Day' is celebrated on which date ?
(A) January 12 (B) April 1
(C) May 1 (D) December 1
Ans : (D)

90. Which of the following is related with the field of electricity generation ?
(A) M.M.T.C. (B) M.T.N.L.
(C) N.C.L. (D) N.H.P.C.
Ans : (D)

91. Ajanta caves are connected with which of the following ?
(A) Ramayana (B) Mahabharata
(C) Jataka Stories (D) Panchtantra Stories
Ans : (C)

92. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements-
1. During this period cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
2. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

93. 'Tripitaka' is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Jains (B) Buddhists
(C) Sikhs (D) Hindus
Ans : (B)

94. 'Rajatarangini' written by Kalhan is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Chandragupta's reign (B) Anthology of lyrics
(C) History of Kashmir (D) Reign of Krishna Deva Raya
Ans : (C)

95. Who among the following was the advocate at the famous 'I.N.A. trials' ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose (B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Asaf Ali (D) Bhulabhai Desai
Ans : (D)

96. Who amongst the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Vallabhbhai Patel (B) Madan Mohan Malviya
(C) B. R. Ambedkar (D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

97. Who among the following organised the society of revolutionaries, 'Abhinav Bharat' ?
(A) Jatindra Nath Mukherjee (B) Madan Lal Dhingra
(C) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (D) Lala Hardayal
Ans : (C)

98. Who among the following has been first person who delivered his speech in Hindi in U.N.O. ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Atal Bihari Bajpayee (D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

99. 'Amir Khusro' was associated with whose reign among the following ?
(A) Allauddin Khilzi (B) Muhammad-bin Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Lodi (D) Firoz Shah
Ans : (A)

l00. Mohenjo Daro is situated which of the following ?
(A) Gujarat State of India (B) Punjab State of India
(C) Sindh Province in Pakis (D) Afghanistan
Ans : (C)

Uttarakhand's Rajaji National Park gets Tiger reserve status

2013-05-26T17:08:00.000+05:30

The central government cleared a proposal to grant the famous Rajaji National Park in Uttarakhand the status of a tiger reserve.

The Principal Conservator of Forest (Wildlife), S S Sharma, said "The proposal for elevating the status of Rajaji National Park as a tiger reserve sent to the Ministry of Environment and Forest about a fortnight ago has been approved. The tiger reserve at the Rajaji National Park will cover an area of 1150 square km including Shyampur of Haridwar forest division besides Kotdwar and Laldhang ranges of Lansdowne forestdivision."

The status was given, as there is presence of tigers in the Chilla and Dhaulkhand ranges of the Rajaji National Park which encompasses the Shivaliks near the foothills of the Himalayas.

Considering the tiger population at the Rajaji national Park, the demand for granting itthe status of a tiger reserve was being raised by various quarters in recent months. For Uttarakhand this is the second tiger reserve after the Corbett National Park.

Fact File:

In India there are 42 tiger reserves at present. All these reserves are maintained under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

The Largest tiger reserve in India is Nagarjun Sagar - Srisailam Tiger reserve inAndhra Pradesh.

Rajaji National Park is spread over 820 square km and three districts of Uttarakhand including Haridwar, Dehradun and Pauri Garhwal.

The Park is at the northwestern limit of distribution for both elephants and tigersin the country and has the largest population of elephants in Uttarakhand.

Annual Conference of Relief Commissioners/Secretaries, Department of Disaster Management of States/UTs Held

2013-05-26T16:44:00.001+05:30

A. K. Mangotra, Secretary, Border Management in the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) inaugurated today the Annual Conference of Relief Commissioners/ Secretaries, Department of disaster Management of States/ UTs in New Delhi to review the status of preparedness of South-West Monsoon, 2013. On this Occasion, Mangotra said the capacities of Early Warning Systems have been strengthened. He emphasized the need to augment multi-sectoral approach in dealing with disasters. He also informed that an inventory of relief materials will be set up at the Centre level. Secretary, Border Management further informed that the Government has started National School Safety Programme in 8600 schools of 43 districts in 22 States in the country.

Joint Secretary, Disaster Management in the MHA, Shri GVV Sarma made a presentation on the issues related to Disaster Management in the county.

Other agencies i.e. India Meteorological Department, National Institute of Disaster Management, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, National Disaster Management Authority, Central Water Commission, Geological Survey of India, National Disaster Response Force and Ministry of Defence also made presentations relating to the role of their organization for preparedness and further enhancement of the capacity to deal with disasters. Secretary, National Disaster Management Authority Dr. Shyam S. Agrawal, Relief Commissioners from States/UTs and senior officers of MHA and NDMA attended the meeting.

UPS REPORT

2013-05-23T20:55:00.001+05:30

Prime Minister to Inaugerate National Platform of Disaster Risk Reduction

2013-05-10T17:10:00.004+05:30

Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh will inaugurate the First Session of National Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) in New Delhi at the Vigyan Bhawan on 13th May 2013. Union Home Minister Shri Sushilkumar Shinde will also be present on the occasion. The whole range of stakeholders from Government, Parliamentarians, Media, International Orgnaisations, NGOs, local community representatives, scientific and academic institutions and corporate businesses etc., will participate in this two day conference. The theme of the Conference is “Mainstreaming DRR in Development: From Risk to Resilience”. The Conference will help in sharing of experiences, views and ideas, present findings of research and action and explore opportunities for mutual cooperation in the field of Disaster Risk Reduction.

The First Session of the National Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction will enable the decision makers, partners, experts and practitioners of DRR to come together to deliberate initiatives, share information, promote campaigns and provide useful suggestions relating to Disaster Risk Reduction.

Tribal Forest Dwellers Empowerment Scheme launched

2013-05-10T17:10:00.002+05:30

The Government enacted a Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. Under this act, the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional forest Dwellers have been given the right to hold the forest land for habitation or for self-cultivation or for carrying out any other traditional activity for their livelihood. Most of the Scheduled Tribes are poor and need financial support for productive utilization of land for their livelihood.

In order to provide concessional finance to the Forest Dwelling STs, the NSTFDC has formulated the new Tribal Forest Dwellers Empowerment Scheme. NSTFDC would generate awareness, provide training and assist in market linkage apart from providing financial assistance at concessional rate of interest of 6% p.a. to the beneficiaries. This assistance would be made available through 33 State Channelizing Agencies of NSTFDC and certain PSU Banks/ Regional Rural Banks having refinance agreements with NSTFDC.

The Radio Partnership MoU between NSTFDC and AIR will cover events organized by NSTFDC for socio economic empowerment of STs. The broadcast can be in 23 languages and 146dialects throughout the country. The coverage will be in the form of Radio Report with in-house/news reel programmes. As AIR is having foot print over the entire country and is covering more than 99% of population, this partnership will facilitate creation of larger awareness about programmes of NSTFDC throughout the country.

World Bank Assisted ISSNIP launched

2013-05-10T17:09:00.004+05:30

The National Family Health Survey (NFHS-3) data had indicated about 43 percent children under 5 years of age and 40 percent under three children are underweight. Thus the World Bank assisted ICDS Systems Strengthening and Nutrition Improvement Project (ISSNIP) has been launched by Smt. Krishna Tirath, Minister for Women & Child Development

The four major components under the project are: (i) Institutional and systems strengthening in ICDS (ii) Community mobilization and behaviour change communication (iii) piloting multi-sectoral nutrition actions, and (iv) Project Management, Technical Assistance and Monitoring & Evaluation. The programme aims at improving child development and nutritional outcomes for children in selected districts having higher proportional of child under nutrition.

The estimated cost of phase 1 of the project is about US$ 151.50 million (Rs. 682 crore) of which US$ 106 million is the International Development Association (IDA) share (70 percent). The World Bank is supporting this project initially with a concessionary loan of US$ 106 million payable over 25 years. This is likely to be followed by a second phase of support of US$ 344 million subject to assessment of phase 1.

The first phase of the project will support the government’s efforts to strengthen policy measures and institutional capacity needed to improve nutrition in the targeted groups of mothers and children and will also finance innovative pilots and programmers in 162 high malnutrition-burden districts across eight States. In additional the project will support urban/sub-urban pilots in NCR of Delhi and convergent nutrition action pilots in Odisha and Uttarakhand.

There are significant regional disparities in nutritional indicators with 60 percent of the burden of malnutrition found in the low-income states (Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh) and an additional 8-10 percent of the burden concentrated in specific geographical areas in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Cabinet approved creation of the National Skill Development Agency (NSDA)

2013-05-10T17:09:00.001+05:30

The Union Cabinet has approved for constituting an autonomous body called the National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) by subsuming the Prime Minister’s National Council on Skill Development (PMNCSD), the National Skill Development Coordination Board (NSDCB) and the Office of the Adviser to the PM on Skill Development. It will be located in the Ministry of Finance.

The new skill body will coordinate and harmonise the skill development efforts of the government and the private sector to achieve the targets of the 12th Plan and beyond. It will also anchor and operationalise the National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) and be the nodal agency for sector skills councils and endeavour to bridge the social, regional, gender and economic divides in skilling.

Further, it will also be empowered to raise extra budgetary resources. The central ministries and NSDC will continue to implement schemes in their remit, the statement said.

The NSDA is expected to provide the much-needed single point focus to ensure that skilling quality and standards meet sector-specific requirements benchmarked to international standards. The initiative will boost employability of youth in India.

The proposal to set up NSDA was first considered by the Cabinet in its meeting held in January this year and it was referred to a Group of Ministers (GoM) to review all aspects.

Initiatally, there were some objections from ministries such as HRD and Labour and Employment which argued that the new body would lead to duplication of efforts. However, the differences were sorted out subsequently

National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) approved by the Cabinet

2013-05-06T17:44:00.001+05:30

The Union Cabinet gave its approval to launch a National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) as a new sub-mission under the over-arching National Health Mission (NHM). Under the Scheme the following proposals have been approved:

a) One Urban Primary Health Centre (U-PHC) for every fifty to sixty thousand population.
b) One Urban Community Health Centre (U-CHC) for five to six U-PHCs in big cities.
c) One Auxiliary Nursing Midwives (ANM) for 10,000 population.
d) One Accredited Social Health Activist ASHA (community link worker) for 200 to 500 households.

The estimated cost of NUHM for 5 years period is Rs.22,507 crore with the Central Government share of Rs.16,955 crore. Centre-State funding pattern will be 75:25 except for North Eastern states and other special category states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand for whom the funding pattern will be 90:10.

The scheme will focus on primary health care needs of the urban poor. This Mission will be implemented in 779 cities and towns with more than 50,000 population and cover about 7.75 crore people.

The interventions under the sub-mission will result in

I. Reduction in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
II. Reduction in Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR)
III. Universal access to reproductive health care
IV. Convergence of all health related interventions.

The existing institutional mechanism and management systems created and functioning under NRHM will be strengthened to meet the needs of NUHM. Citywise implementation plans will be prepared based on baseline survey and felt need. Urban local bodies will be fully involved in implementation of the scheme.

NUHM aims to improve the health status of the urban population in general, particularly the poor and other disadvantaged sections by facilitating equitable access to quality health care, through a revamped primary public health care system, targeted outreach services and involvement of the community and urban local bodies.

Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) revised

2013-05-06T17:43:00.002+05:30

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the proposal of the Ministry of Human Resource Development for the revision of norms related to Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA). This will facilitate the States / UTs to execute the civil works for construction of new schools as well as expanding capacity in existing schools.

About RMSA:

This scheme was launched in March, 2009 with the objective to enhance access to secondary education and to improve its quality. It is envisaged to achieve an enrolment rate of 75% from 52.26% in 2005-06 at secondary stage within 5 years of implementation of the scheme by providing a secondary school within a reasonable distance of any habitation. The other objectives include improving quality of education imparted at secondary level through making all secondary schools conform to prescribed norms, removing gender, socio-economic and disability barriers, providing universal access to secondary level education by 2017, i.e., by the end of 12th Five Year Plan and achieving universal retention by 2020.

The revised norms are as follows:

a) State/UT governments will be permitted to use State Schedule of Rates (SSoR) or Central Public Works Department (CPWD) Rate, (whichever is lower) for construction,
b) enhancing the funds of Management, Monitoring Evaluation and Research (MMER) from 2.2 percent to 4 percent of the total outlay,
c) subsuming other centrally sponsored schemes of secondary education- Information and Communication Technology (ICT) at school, girls hostel, Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) and Vocational Education (VE) in their existing form under the umbrella of RMSA. The pattern of assistance as well as coverage of schools as per their existing norms of all subsumed schemes will continue for the 12th Five Year Plan,
d) extending all the benefits of RMSA to aided secondary schools excluding infrastructure support / core areas, this will help in providing support to interventions that will improve the quality of education in these schools.
e) continuation of existing fund sharing pattern of 75:25 for the last four years of the 12th Plan to non – North Eastern Region (NER) states and 90:10 for NER States (including Sikkim), and
f) authorizing the RMSA Project Approval Board (PAD) of Ministry of Human Resource Development to consider for approval of the integrated plan of the umbrella scheme of RMSA, including the subsumed four centrally sponsored schemes of secondary education and release of funds to the RMSA state implementation society directly.
g) Out of enhanced MMER of 4 percent, fund up to 3.5 percent of the annual budget allocated for RMSA will be earmarked to the states/UTs for activities undertaken under MMER. In those states and UTs where the proposed percentages of MMER do not meet the requirement, MMER can be enhanced upto 5 percent of the budget allocation of the concerned states/UTs.