CCNA V4.0

CCNA 2 Final Patern 2

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 11:02:00 +0000

1. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
packet switching
path selection

2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
ans:
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0

4. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
ans:
172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
ans:
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
ans:
split horizon

8. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
ans:
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

11. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
ans:
The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

12. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
ans:
limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

13. Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
ans:
B, D

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
ans:
The packet will be dropped.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
ans:
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

16. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
ans:
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
ans:
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
ans:
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
ans:
Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

20. What are two switching functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router encapsulates the packet in the appropriate data link frame type for the outgoing data link.
The router determines the exit interface after data encapsulation.

21. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

22. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
ans:
The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.

23. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
ans:
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

24. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
ans:
Only the enable password is encrypted.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
ans:
Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

26. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.

27. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
ans:
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies

28. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

29. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
ans:
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

30. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
ans:
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.

31. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are child routes? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0
10.1.2.0

32. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
ans:
route to 10.1.0.0/23

33. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
ans:
It is the metric, which is cost.

34. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
ans:
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

35. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
ans:
S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

36. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
ans:
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

37. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

38. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

39. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
ans:
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

40. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
ans:
Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.

41. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
ans:
OSPF interval timers mismatch
interface network type mismatch

42. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/13

43. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
ans:
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ans:
It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC

45. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
ans:
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

46. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
ans:
Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
ans";
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

48. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

49.
Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
ans:
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

50. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

51.
What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
ans:
tests Layer 2 connectivity
enabled by default on each interface
provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

52. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
ans:
The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

53. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
ans:
network address
wildcard mask
area ID

54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
ans:
198.18.48.0/21

55. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
ans:
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

56. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
ans:
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.

58. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
ans:
DCE
CSU/DSU
modem

59. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
ans:
2

CCNA 2 Final Patern 1

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 11:01:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
ans:
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
ans:
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.

Which path will be used to transmit the data packets from PC1 to PC2?
ans:
The packets will travel via R2-R1.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
ans:
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.

7. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
ans:
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

8. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
ans:
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
ans:
Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?
ans:
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.

Which ping will fail?
ans:
from R1 to 192.168.3.1

14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
ans:
The default route is configured incorrectly.

15. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
ans:
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

16. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
ans:
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

19. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

20. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
ans:
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.

21. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
ans:
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
ans:
192.168.1.64/26

23. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Configure the routers in the same area.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

24. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?
ans:
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

26. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
ans:
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

27. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.

28. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

29. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ans:
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

30. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
ans:
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

32. What two routing protocols will produce a shortest path first tree? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
ans:
It will forward the packet to R1.

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
ans:
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.

36. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface

37. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
ans:
Cisco789

38. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
ans:
EIGRP

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
ans:
192.168.0.0/22

40. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
ans:
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

41. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
ans:
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

42. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

43. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

44. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
ans:
split horizon

45. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
ans:
5

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
ans:
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

47. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
the path learned via EIGRP

48. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
ans:
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.

49. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
ans:
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
ans:
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

51. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
ans:
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

52. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
ans:
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.

53. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
ans:
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.

54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
ans:
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

55. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

56. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. What are two static routes that can be configured on R1, either of which would enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2

57. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
ans:
Router4

58. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
ans:
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.

59. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
ans:
a DTE device
a V.35 cable

CCNA2 Chapter 10

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 11:00:00 +0000

1. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
ans:
Dijkstra

2. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
ans:
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
ans:
SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
ans:
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
ans:
cost of the link

6. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
ans:
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

7. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
all routers in the area have link state databases
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
ans:
updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
ans:
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
Each router independently determines the route to each network.
After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
ans:
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

12. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
ans:
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
ans:
link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
ans:
when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
ans:
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
ans:
OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
ans:
floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
ans:
B and C

CCNA2 Chapter 8

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:58:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ans:
ip classless

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
ans:
7

3. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:

R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1

What type of route is this?
ans:
a level 1 ultimate network route

4. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
ans:
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

5. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
ans:
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

6. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
ans:
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
ans:
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
ans:
use the default route

9. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
ans:
RIPv2

10. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
ans:
255.255.255.0

11. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance

12. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
ans:
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
ans:
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

14. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
ans:
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

15. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
ans:
There is at least one parent and one child route

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
ans:
All of the routes listed are network routes.

18. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
ans:
The command ip classless is enabled on the router.

CCNA2 Chapter 7

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:57:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
ans:
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
ans:
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

3. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
ans:
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
ans:
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
Why does the router respond with an error?
ans:
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

6. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
ans:
15 hops

7. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
ans:
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
ans:
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
ans:
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

10. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
ans:
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

11. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
ans:
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

12. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
ans:
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

13. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
ans:
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
ans:
Router2(config-router)# version 2

15. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
ans:
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

18. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
ans:
subnet mask

19. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

CCNA2 Chapter 6

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:56:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
ans:
255.255.255.252

2. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
192.1.1.224/28

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:
192.168.0.0/21

4. What is a supernet?
ans:
a summarization of serveral IP classful networks into one IP address range

5. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
ans:
84

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
ans:
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
ans:
CIDR

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
ans:
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

9. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
ans:
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
ans:
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

11. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
32-bit address
subnet mask

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
/27

13. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
ans:
29

14. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
ans:
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

15. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
ans:
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

16. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
ans:
192.168.2.130/25

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
ans:
192.168.4.15/29

18. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied by router B when it receives a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0?
ans:
24

19. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
ans:
the shortage of IP addresses

20. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
ans:
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

CCNA2 Chapter 5

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:55:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
ans:
155 seconds

2. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
ans:
10.0.0.0/8

3. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
ans:
only the gateway router

5. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
ans:
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers B and D also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
ans:
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

7. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
ans:
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

8. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
ans:
3

9. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
ans:
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

10. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
ans:
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
ans:
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

13. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
ans:
debug ip rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
ans:
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
ans:
30

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?
ans:
There are two equal cost paths to network 172.16.100.128.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?
ans:
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
ans:
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

19. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
ans:
RouterB(config)# no router rip

CCNA2 Chapter 4

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:52:00 +0000

1. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
ans:
16

3. What is a routing loop?
ans:
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
ans:
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
ans:
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

6. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
ans:
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

7. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
ans:
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

8. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
ans:
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
ans:
3

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
ans:
route poisoning

11. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
ans:
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

12. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

13. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
ans:
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

14. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
ans:
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

15. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
ans:
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

16. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

17. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

18. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
ans:
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

19. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
ans:
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

20. Which event will cause a triggered update?
ans:
a route is installed in the routing table

CCNA2 Chapter 3

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:50:00 +0000

1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

3) Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
ans:
show ip route

4) Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
ans:
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

5) An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
ans:
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

6) Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
ans:
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

7) Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
ans:
3

8) What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
ans:
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

9) Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
ans:
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

10)Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
ans:
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

11) Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
ans:
shortest-path first calculations

12) The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
ans:
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

13) Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
ans:
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

14) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
ans:
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

15) Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

16) Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

17) What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
ans:
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

18) Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
ans:
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

19) A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
ans:
OSPF can be used between the routers.

20) A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
ans:
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

21) The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
ans:
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

22) When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?
ans:
lowest administrative distance

CCNA2 Chapter 2

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:49:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate

2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
ans:
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

4. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
ans:
No clock rate has been set

5. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
ans:
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

6. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table.

7. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table

8. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
ans:
192.1.1.0/25

9.Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
ans:
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route

10. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
ans:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
ans: a modem
a CSU/DSU device

13.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
ans:
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
ans:
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

16. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route

18. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
ans:
platform
holdtime
local interface

19. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
ans:
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

22. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?
ans:
172.16.0.0/21

23. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
ans:
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

CCNA2 Chapter 1

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 14 Dec 2009 10:39:00 +0000

1. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
ans:
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

2. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
ans:
1
4

3. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
ans:
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

4. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
ans:
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

5. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
ans:
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

6. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
ans:
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

7. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
ans:
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
ans:
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

10. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
ans:
TFTP server
Flash memory

11. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

13. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
ans:
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

14. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ans:
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
ans:
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

16. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
ans:
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

17. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
ans:
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

18. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
ans:
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

19. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
ans:
the Layer 2 source and destination address

20. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
ans:
cross-over

21. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

Final Exam CCNA1

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 09 Nov 2009 09:37:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
• PC
• switch
• router interface fa0/0
• router interface fa0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
• The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
• Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
• Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
• Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
• The interface is configured as a DCE device.
• The interface timers are cleared.
• The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
• The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.0.1
• 196.1.105.6
• 132.11.9.99
• 10.0.0.1
• 172.16.9.10
• 46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
• TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
• TCP acknowledges received data.
• UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
• TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
• UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multi-access

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
• The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
• The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
• The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
• It uses error control mechanisms.
• It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
• It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
• It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
• 10.0.0.254
• 192.168.0.249
• 192.168.0.250
• 10.0.1.254

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1
• Segment 2
• Segment 3
• Segment 4
• Segment 5
• Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
• Three networks are needed.
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• A single broadcast domain is present.
• Three collision domains are present.
• Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
• The assigned address is a private address.
• The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
• The network can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /26.
• The IP address is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address is a multicast address. 17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
• enable
• enable secret
• console
• VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
• It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
• It provides out-of-band console access.
• It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
• It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router. 19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
• access switch
• DHCP server
• hub
• router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
• Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
• Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
• Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
• Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
• The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
• The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
• Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
• Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
• No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
• console
• Ethernet
• auxiliary
• serial 23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
• application layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer 24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
• It segments and reorders the data.
• It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
• It controls how data is placed onto the media.
• It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
• It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media. 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
• D,E,F,G
• A,H,B,C
• A,D,E,F
• A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
• The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
• The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
• The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
• The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
• The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
• The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
• The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
• The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.63
• 10.1.1.37
• 10.1.1.39
• 10.1.1.32
• 10.1.1.60
• 10.1.1.2 30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
• Use the ipconfig command at the host.
• Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
• Use the tracert command at the host.
• Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
• IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
• IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.99
• 192.168.2.100
• 10.10.10.32
• 192.168.1.5
• the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
• application layer
• network layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
• 0 to 255
• 49152 to 65535
• 1024 to 49151
• 0 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password arj15

Router(config-line)# login
• This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
• Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
• This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
• This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
• The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
• 10 BASE-T
• 1000 BASE-TX
• 10 BASE-2
• 1000 BASE LX
• 1000 BASE-SX 40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
• the host portion of the IP address
• the network portion of the IP address
• host default gateway address
• the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
• The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
• The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
• MAC address of the server and port number of the service
• IP address of the host and port number of the service
• MAC address of the host and port number of the service
• IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
• Router>
• Router(config-if)#
• Router#
• Router(config)# 44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
• telnet 192.168.1.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ftp 192.168.1.1
• tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
• timing and synchronization bits
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses
• destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
• The contents of ROM will change.
• The contents of RAM will change.
• The contents of NVRAM will change.
• The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.12.79/28
• 10.1.12.113/28
• 10.1.12.32/28
• 10.1.11.5/27
• 10.1.11.97/27
• 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.191
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
• It uniquely identifies each host.
• It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
• It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
• It is not a configurable address.
• It is a physical address.
• It identifies the host from the first part of the address.

CCNA1 Chapter 11

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 09 Nov 2009 09:31:00 +0000

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4

RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login

4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana

6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH

9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH

10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode

12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check

13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
Console Port
16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

CCNA1 Chapter 10

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 09 Nov 2009 09:23:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5

15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point

18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

CCNA1 Chapter 9

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 09 Nov 2009 09:18:00 +0000

1
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
**Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2
Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer
Transport layer
**Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
**Data-link layer

3
Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

**the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
**the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4
What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

**addressing
**error detection
**frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5
When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

**The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <--- The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6
What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.) recognizes streams of bits
**identifies the network layer protocol
**makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
**insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7
What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies? MAC sublayer Physical layer **Logical Link Control sublayer Network layer

8
Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
**A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes? header field - preamble and stop frame
**data field - network layer packet data field - physical addressing trailer field - FCS and SoF

10
Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway. A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
**Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host. A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
**A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11
Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
**Collisions can decrease network performance. It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols. Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance. CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12
Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application physical transport internet data link
**network access

13
What is the primary purpose of ARP? translate URLs to IP addresses
**resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
**No collisions will occur on this link. Only one of the devices can transmit at a time. The switch will have priority for transmitting data. The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
**A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
**A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16
Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
**copied into RAM during system startup layer 3 address
**contains a 3 byte OUI
**6 bytes long 32 bits long

17
Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.) reduction in cross-talk
**minimizing of collisions support for UTP cabling division into broadcast domains
**increase in the throughput of communications

18
What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.) coaxial thicknet
**copper UTP coaxial thinnet
**optical fiber shielded twisted pair

19
Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below. 85 90
**BA A1 B3 1C

20
After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data? the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
**any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first those that began transmitting at the same time

CCNA1 Chapter 8

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 09 Nov 2009 09:18:00 +0000

1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

**backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical

6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

coax
Cat4 UTP
**Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

**goodput
frequency
amplitude
**throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth

10

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
**generally uses lasers as the light source

16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA1 Chapter 7

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Mon, 09 Nov 2009 09:14:00 +0000

1 Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

**non-deterministic
**less overhead
one station transmits at a time
**collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
**facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3

Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

1
2
4
**8
16

4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
**Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
**00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

**They are 48 binary bits in length.
**They are considered physical addresses.
**They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
**source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
**source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

network layer addressing
**media sharing
application processes
**logical topology
intermediary device function

9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

**Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
**Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
**Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
**Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

LLC
**MAC
HDLC
NIC

13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

**Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
**defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
**Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
**The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
**The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
**The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16 What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
**provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the Layer 3 protocol selected
**the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
**the physical layer implementation
**the number of hosts to be interconnected

18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

define the logical topology
provide media access control
**support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

logical topology
**physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
**Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

CCNA1 Chapter 6

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Fri, 06 Nov 2009 04:41:00 +0000

1) A user types http://www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does http://www.cisco.com represent?
* the IP address of a web server
a physical network address
the closest router interface to the source
the source IP address in the data transmission

2) What type of server would use IMAP?
DNS
DHCP
* e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

3) Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
DNS
* DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

4) Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
* TCP
SMTP
UDP
SNMP

5) Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
UDP
* FTP
IP
* SMTP
TCP

6) Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
* Application
Physical
* Internet
* Network Access
Presentation

7) You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
* UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

8) Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
Uniform Resource Locator
Network redirector server
SNMP server
* DNS server

9) Which application is most likely used to translate http://www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
DHCP
* DNS
FTP
HTTP
POP
SMTP

10)

Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
IM
FTP
* HTTP
SNMP
VoIP

11) Which port number is used by SMTP?
20
21
* 25
26
110

12) Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
* SMTP
POP
SNMP

13) What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
blog
e-mail
web mail
* instant messaging

14) An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
* The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

15) What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
protocol hierarchy
protocol modeling
* protocol stack
protocol layering

16) hat three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
source IP address
* source MAC address
destination IP address
* destination MAC address
* error-checking information

17) What information is contained in an IP header?
* source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
only destination IP and MAC addresses
both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

18) Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
4
2
* 1
3

19) A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
removes the IP header
removes the TCP header
passes data to the application layer
* removes the Ethernet header and trailer

20) A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits

* 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

21) What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
* It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

22) What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
* physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

CCNA1 Chapter 5

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Fri, 06 Nov 2009 04:38:00 +0000

1 In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum

5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address

6

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1

7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

dynamic
interior
**static
standard

10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
**The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
**The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

gateways
**purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership

12 What is a component of a routing table entry?

the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address

13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge

14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
limited management responsibility
**host identification
protocol compatibility

15

Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

3
**4
5
7
8
11

16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
**If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19

Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
**consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA1 Chapter 4

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Fri, 06 Nov 2009 04:27:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
**The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728

3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
**acknowledgments
source and destination

4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7. Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
**1850
3431
3475

8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS

12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
**flow control
**low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments

14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port

15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
**identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
**encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network

19. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
**UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

CCNA1 Chapter4

1

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
**Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728

3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
**source and destination

4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6

Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7

Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
**3431
3475

8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS

12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
**low overhead
**connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments

14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port

15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
**identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
**flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network

19

Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

21

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
**Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1

CCNA1 chapter 3

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Fri, 06 Nov 2009 04:22:00 +0000

1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names

2. What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax

3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP

4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server

5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application

6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software

7. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network

8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA

10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers

12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption

13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80

16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB

18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce

19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to th

CCNA 1 - Chapter 3

1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names

2. What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax

3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP

4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server

5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application

6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software

7. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network

8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA

10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers

12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption

13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80

16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB

18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce

19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between conne service

CCNA1 Chapter 2

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Fri, 06 Nov 2009 04:02:00 +0000

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link**
network
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
**encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
**a layer specific encapsulation

13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
**an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
**E, F, H, I, J

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
**A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
**The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
**A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
**detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
**retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
**define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors

CCNA1 Chapter 1

noreply@blogger.com (Frengki) — Fri, 06 Nov 2009 02:08:00 +0000

1. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?
RAM
* CPU
video card
sound card
operating system

2. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two..
* usually a lower cost
exact components may be specified
extended waiting period for assembly
* adequate for performing most general applications
suited for customers with special needs

3. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?
* RAM
NIC
video card
sound card
storage device

4. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?
modem card
controller card
video card
sound card
* network interface card

5. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
tape drive
* hard drive
optical drive (DVD)
floppy disk drive

6. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?
CPU
* surge suppressor
motherboard
hard drive

7. What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
* printer
* speakers
flash drive
external DVD
external modem

8. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
protects the computer from voltage surges
* provides backup power from an internal battery
protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
gives the user time to phone the electrical company
* gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

9. What is a word processor?
It is a physical computer component.
* It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
It is a program that controls the computer resources.
It is a functional part of an operating system.

10. What is the purpose of the ASCII code?
translates bits into bytes
interprets graphics digitally
translates digital computer language into binary language
* represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

11. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?
Servers require more power and thus require more components.
* Servers should be accessible at all times.
Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

12. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)
Mobility is increased.
* An external monitor can be used.
* Alternate connectivity options may be available.
The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
More wireless security options are available.

13. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)
* CAD
presentation
spreadsheet
word processing
* medical practice management
contacts/scheduling management

14. Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)
operating system
network
* laptop
* desktop
Windows
* mainframe

15. How is a server different from a workstation computer?
The server works as a standalone computer.
* The server provides services to clients.
The workstation has fewer applications installed.
The workstation has more users who attach to it.

16. How many values are possible using a single binary digit?
1
* 2
4
8
9
16

17. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?
bits
pixels
* hertz
bytes

18. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
dry and non humid conditions
carpeted floor
* grounding strap
uncluttered work space

19. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
* Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
* Verify that all cables are connected properly.
Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
* Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
Reload the computer operating system.

20. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)
* Download and install the most current driver.
Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
* Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

21. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?
manually assigned by the operating system
manually assigned by the administrator
statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
* dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system