Cardiovascular Question 16-20

Answer 20

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 06:35:00 +0000

20. Choice A is the correct answer. This patient has the typical ST depression in the septal leads V1 and V2. This patient is also has ST elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, and aVf) suggestive of an inferior wall MI. There is no ST depression in the lateral leads (I, avL, V5 and V6)

Question 20

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 06:30:00 +0000

20. Your patient is a 72 year old male with chest pain and shortness of breath. His EKG is below. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis?

A. Posterior Wall and Inferior Wall MI
B. Septal Ischemia
C. Inferior Wall MI
D. Lateral Wall ischemia

Answer 19

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 06:24:00 +0000

19. Choice D is the correct answer. Dihydropyridines dilate arterioles only (Nifedipine, Amlodipine, and Felodipine) and Non Dihydropyridines slow calcium channels in the heart and dilates arterioles (verapamil and diltazem).

Question 19

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 06:21:00 +0000

19. What is the difference between dihydropyridines and nondihydropyridines?

A. Dihydropyridines slow down calcium channels in the heart and nondihydropyridines do not

B. Dihydropyridines constrict arterioles

C. Both dihydropyridines dilate arterioles and nondihydropyridines constrict arterioles

D. Nondihydropyridines slow calcium channels in the heart and dilate arterioles

Answer 18

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 06:12:00 +0000

18. Choice B is the correct answer. Patients with ACE inhibitor induced angioedema are typically deficient in C1 Esterase. Treatment involves Fresh Frozen Plasma. Corticosteroids and antihistamines should be administered also. Patients with airway issues should be intubated until this can be treated. Prostaglandins and bradykinnin are increased in patients taking ACE inhibitors. TNF has nothing to do with this disease process.

Question 18

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 06:08:00 +0000

18. Your patient is a 45 year old male that presents with the swelling below. He has been taking lisinopril for hypertension. Which of the following enzymes deficiency is likely responsible for the swelling?

A. Prostaglandins
B. C1 Esterase
C. Bradykinnin
D. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

Answer 17

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 06:01:00 +0000

17. Choice D is the correct answer. Cyanide poisoning is not a cause of a cause of secondary hypertension. Lead poisoning is. Pheochromocytoma, porphyria, and hyperthyroidism/hypothyroidism are all causes of secondary hypertension.

Question 17

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 05:57:00 +0000

17. Which of the following is not a cause of secondary hypertension?

A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Porphyria
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Cyanide Poisoning

Answer 16

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 01:06:00 +0000

16. Choice D is the correct answer. A new onset left bundle branch block with chest pain is a STEMI until proven otherwise. Defibrillation is only appropriate for ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and unstable narrow complex tachycardia. Pacer is appropriate for sick sinus syndrome and third degree AV block. This is not an RSR' pattern seen with pulmonary embolus.

Question 16

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 01 Dec 2013 01:00:00 +0000

16. Your patient is a 62 year old female that presents with chest pain and diaphoresis. Her EKG is below? Which of the following is the best management option?

A. Immediate defibrillation
B. Order a CT scan of the Chest with IV contrast for PE
C. Arrange for immediate pacer
D. Consult cardiology and recommend immediate cardiac catheterization