CCNA & CCNP MCQs

2016-11-23T14:54:00.001+05:00

IMPORTANT

Topic : CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide (Exam 640-802)

Type : MCQs

Please note all the Bold Options are correct.

101 - 200 of 300 MCQs

I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine"
Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing.
You may start:

200 - 300 of 300 MCQs

201. When is Auto-Secure run on a router?

a. Manually from Privilege EXEC mode

b. Manually from physical Configuration mode

c. When the router boots up automatically without configuration

d. When the router boots up without a configuration automatically or manually.

202. Which command will copy a router configuration stored on a TFTP host to the router’s NVRAM?

a. transfer IOS to 192.168.10.1

b. copy running – config|startup – config flash

c. copy tftp startup

d. copy running – config startup - config

203. Wich is the router Global Configuration mode command that allows using the first address in the first

subnet of a subnetted C class network?

a. ping 192.168.1.1.

b. ip subnet-zero

c. multipoint

d. show ip interface brief

204. Which of the following is the correct command to create a host table on a Cisco router?

bob ip host 172.16.10.1

host 172.16.10.1 bob

ip host bob 172.16.10.1 172.16.10.2

host bob 172.16.10.1

205. On what configuration is done when configuring a router-on-a-stick?

a. Logical interfaces

b. Major interfaces

c. Subinterfaces

d. All above are correct.

206. For the VLAN interface which router-on-a-stick command defines?

a. vlan

b. encapsulation

c. poison reverse

d. split horizo

207. Which of the following two router commands perform an overwrite process?

a. copy running-config startup-config

b. copy nvram startup-config

c. copy running-config nvram

d. copy running-config tftp

208. By which routing command we can delete the configuration file in NVRAM?

a. Erase startup-config

b. Delet startup-config

c. Show config startup

d. None of these is correct

209. Which two of the given below answers are correct about these two things while we have executed the

show startup-config command and saw the following message: “%%Non-volatile

configuration memory is not present”.

a. This command displays the properties of NVRAM.

b. This command displays the saved configuration in NVRAM.

c. This command displays the saved passwords.

d. The message indicates that NVRAM needs to be reformatted.

e. This message indicates that NVRAM needs to be erased.

f. This message indicates that there is nothing stored in this memory location.

210. Which of the three of given below will copy flash tftp command prompt when we backing up the IOS

image from flash?

a. TFTP server IP address

b. Configuration verification

c. Source filename

d. Destination filename

211. Which IOS command displays the version of device that is running the software

a. Show flash

b. Dir and show version

c. show version

d. show startup-config

213. What refers for the term SSH?

a. Secure Shell

b. Super Shell

c. Supreme Shell

d. All above are correct

214. Which of the following IOS command which creates RSA public and private keys to encrypt and decrypt?

a. crypto key generate rsa

b. Ctrl + shift + X, 6

c. Show-config startup

d. None of above all

215. Which of the given is true of CDP?

a. multipoint.

b. The cdp run command disables CDP on an interface.

c. CDP sends out broadcasts every 10 seconds.

d. CDP can be used to validate layer 2 connectivity.

216. To test only layer 3 connectivity, which router command would be used?

a. telnet

b. show cdp entry

c. show cdp traffic

d. traceroute

217. Which of the following command can suspend a telnet session?

a. CTRL-ALT-Delete

b. CTRL-SHIFT-6, X

c. Esc-F1

d. CTRL-V

218. Which of the following two communication protocols are used between user’s desktop running SDM and

router?

a. HTTP

b. SSL

c. SSH

d. ISA

219. Which of the given below SDM files does not have to be in flash in order to access SDM from your

desktop?

a. home.tar

b. common tar

c. home.shtml

d. sdmconfig-xxxx.cfg

e. None of the above

220. Which is the router command to enable a web server on it?

a. Ip http server

b. https

c. SSL

d. TFTP

221. To pull in the router’s current running configuration into SDM, Which button we need to click?

a. Lab button

b. Navigator

c. Refresh

d. Save

e. Power

222. A router has an IP address of 10.10.10.1. to access SDM on it what URL we have to enter?

a. https://10.10.10.1

b. http://10.10.10.1.0

c. http://10.10.10.2

d. https://255.255.255

223. What SDM wizard would we have to run to find any security misconfiguration issues on our router?

a. WebVPN

b. IOS

c. Security Audit

d. IPS

224. Which button would we have to push on from a Configuration screen to send changes we’ve made in

SDM to our router?

a. Power

b. Deliver

c. Refresh

d. Apply Changes

225. Which of the following two information that provides the DHCP server?

a. DNS

b. TCP

c. CRC

d. Subnet Mask

226. To detect address conflicts for DHCP, which two methods/tools can a router use?

a. Ping

b. Firewall and ACL

c. Gratuitous ARP

d. NAT

227. Which SDM button would be clicked to view the interface statistics and the firewall logs?

a. Stop

b. Save Changes

c. Status

d. Monitor

228. Which will be the command to set up a static route to 192.168.1.0/24, where the next hop address is

192.168.2.2: ?

a. ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

b. ip route 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1 192.168.2.1

c. ip route 192.168.2.2 255.255.255.2 192.168.2.2

d. None of above is correct

229. To setup a default route, which subnet mask would be used?

a. 0.0.0.0

b. 255.255.255.255

c. Depends on the numbers of workstations

d. None of these answers

230. When the next hop specified is the IP address of a neighboring router, what will be the default

administrative distance of a static route?

a. 2

b. 1

c. 20

d. 200

231. There is a distance vector protocol such as RIP. we’ve entered the RIP process by executing: router rip.

On one of our router’s interfaces, we have the following IP address: 192.168.1.65 255.255.255.192.

Which will be the command to include this interface in the RIP routing process?

a. network 168.192.1.0.

b. network 192.168.1.2.

c. network 192.168.1.0.

d. All above are correct

232. After every how many seconds RIP generates routing updates?

a. 5

b. 30

c. 50

d. 120

233. How many seconds the RIP has hold-down period?

a. 30

b. 150

c. 180

d. 280

234. Maximum how many hop count has RIP?

a. 20

b. 15

c. 25

d. 150

235. Up to how many equal/unequal costs RIP supports load balancing?

a. Five, unequal-cost

b. Eight, unequal-cost

c. Two, equal-cost

d. Six, equal-cost

236. Regarding RIPv2, which of the following is true?

a. It uses triggered updates.

b. It uses updates.

c. It is classified.

d. It doesn’t support route summarization.

237. Which is the router command used to view which routing protocols are active on router, as well as their

characteristics and configuration?

a. show ip console.

b. show ip protocols.

c. show ip address.

d. show ip configuration.

238. Which of the given option is false regarding OSPF?

a. It provides a loop-free topology.

b. It don’t requair extra CPU processing to run the SPF algorithm

c. It requires more memory and processing cycles than distance vector protocols.

d. It is complex to configure and difficult to troubleshoot.

e. it requires careful design to break up the network into an appropriate hierarchical design by separating routers into different areas, for large network

239. What uses OSPF as metric?

a. updates

b. firewall

c. cost

d. hop count

240. Which of the following is an IP link state protocol?

a. TTL

b. EIGRP

c. OSPF

d. RIP

241. An OSPF router ID bases on what?

a. The lowest IP address on its loopback, configured with lowest active interface

b. the highest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the highest IP address on its active interfaces

c. the highest IP address on its inactive interfaces, configured, highest IP address on its interfaces

d. the lowest IP address on its active interfaces, if configured, or the lowest IP address on its loopback interfaces

242. After how many seconds OSPF hellos are sent on multi-access medium?

a. 15

b. 10

c. 25

d. 35

243. Regarding OSPF, which of the given below option is true?

a. Setting an interface priority to 10 causes a router to become a DR on the interface.

b. If the dead interval timer doesn’t match between two OSPF routers, they will not become neighbors.

c. DRs are elected on updates, multi-access, and point-to-point broadcasting.

d. None of above is correct

244. What is the OSPF process ID?

a. Physically significant and is the router ID

b. Logically significant and must match on every router

c. locally significant

d. all above are wrong

245. What is the OSPF command to include all of its interfaces in area 0?

a. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0.

b. network 255.0.255.0 255.0.255.0 area 0.

c. network 255.255.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.

d. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

246. Which code used to represent OSPF routes while examining routes in the routing table?

a. O.

b. A

c. V

d. S

247. By using the command “show ip ospf interface” which of the following we can’t see?

a. The router IDs of the other routers off an interface, but not their process IDs, which are locally significant.

b. Dead interval timers and Helloes

c. Properties of the router

d. Cost of the router

248. Which of the following would not cause this problem, if two OSPF routers can’t build neighbor

relationship?

a. Hello and dead intervals don’t send.

b. MTU sizes don’t match.

c. updates are not sent

d. Router IDs don’t match.

249. For What EIGRP will route?

a. Updates

b. Physical Configuration

c. Router’s properties

d. IP, IPX, and AppleTalk

250. Which Algorithm uses the EIGRP to update the local routing table?

a. Tables in RAM

b. AS numbers

c. DUAL

d. Integrated

251. After every how many seconds EIGRP generates hellos?

a. 5

b. 20

c. 10

d. 25

252. Which of the following route is the best path to reach a destination within the EIGRP topology and

routing tables?

a. Successor

b. Non-feasible successor

c. Advertised distance

d. Feasible network

253. What is sent to all other neighbors advertising the same route to determine whether they have a valid

path to the destination network, if a successor route is no longer available and no feasible successor

route exists in the topology table?

a. Maximum transmission unit

b. Multiple routed protocols

c. Fast convergence

d. Multicast query message

254. Which is the EIGREP Command to include the interfaces with 192.168.1.1/26, 192.168.1.65/26, and

192.168.1.129/26 in the routing process?

a. network 168.192.1.0

b. network 192.168.1.0

c. network 192.168.1.2

d. network 192.168.2.1

255. Which of the following EIGRP command to advertise specific subnets, instead of advertising

summarized classful routes, across a class boundary?

a. no auto-summary

b. summary auto-no

c. no summary-auto

d. auto-summary-no

256. An EIGRP route will be shown as what letter while examining the IP routing table?

a. E

b. R

c. U

d. D

257. Which of the given below EIGRP command is to only view the successor routes?

a. show ip properties.

b. show ip route.

c. Show config

d. Show network

258. Which EIGRP command can we use to view both the successor and feasible successor routes?

a. show ip igrp topology.

b. show ip irp network.

c. show ip eigrp topology.

d. show ip eigrp flow.

259. Which of the given below is not ACL’s feature?

a. Triggering dialup phone calls

b. Restricting telnet access to a router.

c. Filtering traffic from the router

d. Prioritizing WAN traffic

260. About ACLs, which of the following option is true?

a. The order of the statements is automatic.

b. Triggering dialup lines

c. Packet is stored, if no match is found.

d. You can delete a specific statement in a named list.

261. On router’s interface which command activates an IP ACL?

a. Link Down

b. ip access-group

c. access-group

d. access-class

262. which wildcard mask value is correct to match on every bit position?

a. 0.0.0.0

b. 0.1.0.1

c. 0.0.0.1

d. 1.0.0.0

263. What type of ACL will be the wildcard mask value for the subnet mast of 255.255.248.0?

a. 1.1.755.1

b. 0.1.755.0

c. 1.1.755

d. 1.1.755.755

264. Which of the following can match on a standard IP ACL?

a. IP protocol information

b. IP protocol

c. Destination address

d. None of the above

265. Which is standard IP ACL command to permit traffic from 192.168.1.0/24, using a list number of 10?

a. access-list 10 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255.

b. access-list 10 permit 168.168.1.0 1.0.0.255.

c. access-list 10 permit 168192.0.1 0.1.0.255.

d. None of above all

266. Which is the extended IP ACL command to permit all ICMP traffic from 172.16.0.0/16 to

17.23.17.0.0/17, while using a list number of 101?

a. access-list 101 permit icmp 172.16.0.1 0.1.255.255 172.17.0.1 0.1.127.255

b. access-list 101 permit icmp 172.16.1.0 1.0.255.255 172.17.1.0 1.0.127.255

c. access-list 101 permit icmp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.17.0.0 0.0.127.255

d. access-list 101 permit icmp 17.23.17.0.0/17 1.1.255.255 172.17.1.1 1.1.127.255

267. Enter the router command to activate an ACL with a name of test inbound on an interface:__________.

a. ip access-group

b. ip access-group autosec_firewall_acl in

c. ip access-group ACL_# in|out.

d. ip access-group test in.

268. Extended IP ACLs should be placed as close to the which device as possible?

a. Source

b. Destination

269. Which of the given below is a private address?

a. 192.169.1.0

b. 255.255.255.255

c. 168.192.256.0

d. 172.16.255.89

270. For which of the following reasons may needed to use address translation

a. ISP didn’t assign enough private addresses, we have to use public addressing.

b. ISP is changed and new won’t support private addresses while private address is being used.

c. You need to access the Internet for help.

d. You are merging two companies that use the same address space.

271. Which of the following translates one (and only one) IP address to another?

a. NAT

b. PAT and PAR

c. PAT and NAT

d. All above are correct

272. Which of the given below is a public IP address associated with an inside device?

a. inside global IP address

b. outside local server

c. outside global subnet mask

d. outside local IP address

273. To define local addresses that statically translated to global addresses, which command should we use?

a. ip nat inside source static

b. subnet nat inside

c. ip access group test in

d. None of above is correct

274. Which parameter must be specified to perform PAT while configuring the ip nat inside source command?

a. NAT

b. overload

c. PAT

d. port

275. Which of the following occurs first while doing a local-to-global translation?

a. Policy routing

b. outside-to-inside NAT rules

c. Inbound ACL

d. outbound rate limiting policies

276. How many bits large are the IPv6 addresses?

a. 64 bits

b. 8 bits

c. 16 bits

d. 128 bits

277. Which two of the following are valid IPv6 unicast addresses?

a. 200::576::78::

b. 2000::57

c. 2000:FFEE:7878:1111:1:2:7:E

d. 2001::EEFF:1:2:7

278. Which of the given below is best describes an anycast address?

a. many-to-one

b. one-to-many

c. dual interface

d. one-to-nearest

279. Which of the given list is a global address?

a. 1918: 10.0.0.0/8,

b. 10.0.0.0/8

c. All above are correct

d. None of the above

280. By which of the following a router is allowed to forward a DHCP request to a remote DHCP server?

a. overload

b. stateless autoconfiguration

c. show ip eigrp topology

d. IP Helper

281. Which is the true regarding RIPng from the given below list?

a. Uses port 520

b. Uses a multicast address of FF02::9

c. Uses 4 to 6 share routing information with neighboring routers

d. Uses TCP as a transport

282. Which IPv6 command must be entered first on a Cisco router?

a. router ipv6-routing

b. ipv6 support-disable

c. ipv6 unicast-routing

d. ipv6 support enable

283. Which of the following router command that globally enables RIPng, where the RIPng process?

a. Ip name-server

b. ipv6 router rip RP1.

c. ipv6 host

d. show ipv6 route rip

284. On an interface, which router command enables RIPng??

a. ipv6 rip tag enable

b. server

c. ipv6 router rip RPI

d. ripng disable tag

285. Which of the following device provides clocking and synchronization on a synchronous serial interface on a router connected to a DTE cable?

a. The server

b. LAN Card

c. CSU/DSU

d. Hub/switch

286. WAN typically operates at what layer/layers within the OSI Reference model?

a. Logical only

b. Destination

c. Physical and data link

d. All above are correct

287. Which frame field is different than Cisco’s HDLC and ISO HDLC?

a. database

b. server

c. Flag

d. Type

288. What is the default encapsulation on a synchronous serial interface?

a. HDLC

b. PPP

c. LCP

d. NCP

289. Which of following cant not perform the PPP?

a. authentication

b. compression

c. quality of service

d. All answers are correct

290. What negotiates the data link and network layer protocols that traverse a PPP connection?

a. PPP

b. NCP

c. HDLC

d. PAT

291. What state indicates the successful negotiation of a network layer protocol when we have configures

PPP on an interface and use to show interface command?

a. LMI

b. AES

c. NCP

d. OPEN

292. Regarding CHAP, Which of the given statement is false?

a. It sends an encrypted password.

b. It is more secure than PAP.

c. It uses a three-way handshake.

d. It sends a challenge.

293. VPN technology implements confidentiality, which is the following?

a. CSD/DSU

b. AES

c. HDLC

d. OSPF

294. Which are the two of following components of Easy VPN?

a. Server

b. Router

c. Hub

d. Remote

295. You have a total of five routers. How many dedicated circuits are required to fully mesh the network, where every router needs how many interfaces?

a. 10, 10

b. 5, 10

c. 10, 5

d. 10, 4

296. What defines how the Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other.

a. DHCP

b. NVRAM

c. LMI

d. Router

297. What the address of a Frame Relay VC is called?

a. data link layer identifier

b. data layer connection index

c. link connection index

d. data link connection identifier

298. When a carrier experiences congestion, which bit it marks in the header of the Relay frame?

a. DLCI

b. ATM

c. BECN

d. FECN

299. After every how many seconds Cisco routers generate LMI enquiries and a full status update?

a. 10, 60

b. 15, 25

c. 20 60

d. 15, 60

300. Which is the router command to have the serial interface use a frame encapsulation type compatible with a non-Cisco router?

a. Show configuration

b. encapsulation frame-relay ietf

c. copy running-config. tftp

d. show startup config.

301. Which of the following topologies in NBMA environments don’t have problems with split horizon?

a. Partially meshed

b. Fully meshed

c. LMI type

d. DTE

2016-11-23T14:38:00.000+05:00

IMPORTANT

Topic : CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide (Exam 640-802)

Type : MCQs

Please note all the Bold Options are correct.

101 - 200 of 300 MCQs

I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine"
Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing.
You may start:

101 - 200 of 300 MCQs

101. In both TCP and UDP, which of the given below is not a common field?

a. Checksum

b. Code Bits

c. Length

d. Source Port

102. Which is the correct order for a three-way handshake?

a. SYN, ACK, SYN/ACK

b. ACK, SYN/SYN, ACK

c. ACK/SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

d. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

103. Which two of the following TCP/IP applications send traffic in clear text?

a. telnet

b. SSH

c. VTY

d. FTP

104. Which of the given below has an incorrect application-to-well-known-port mapping?

a. telnet: 23

b. SMTP: 25

c. TFTP: 21

d. SNMP: 161

105. Which application and port number does use a DNS query?

a. 65, TCP

b. 152, UDP

c. 1023, UDP

d. 53, UDP

106. The source sends 10 segments but segments 5,6 and 7 are lost while an application is using TCP an

window size of 10, which number does the destination acknowledge with?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 7

d. 6

e. 9

107. What does the server use to determine that these sessions are different from each other, when a PC

opens up two telnet connections to a server?

a. Source IP address

b. Destination port number

c. Source port number

d. Hub’s brand name

108. On basing of which of the following Hubs make switching decisions?

a. Frames

b. Datagrams

c. Segments

d. None of the above

109. Which is the true statement of given below?

a. MAC addresses must be same for devices connected to the same network

b. MAC devices must be unique in the world.

c. MAC devices must be unique within a protocol.

d. MAC addresses must be unique in a broadcast domain.

110. Which of the following are the components of IP address?

a. Network

b. Host

c. Addresses

d. Broadcast

111. Which of the following IP protocol maps a layer 2 to a layer 3 address?

e. Unlink Hub

f. Network Interface Cards

g. ICMP

h. None of the above

112. PC-B having IP 10.0.3.2/24 and MAC 0000.3333.BBBB, pings the DNS server having IP 10.02.3/24 and

MAC 0000.2222.CCCC, and a Router having IP 10.0.2.2/24 and MAC 0000.2222.BBBB, What source

MAC address does DNS server’s NIC see?

a. 0000.2222.BBBB

b. 0000.2222.CCCC

c. 0000.2222.AAAA

d. 0000.3333.BBBB

113. What is the length of IP address?

a. 8 bits

b. 32 bits

c. 24 bits

d. 16 bits

114. How many components have the IP addresses?

a. Two

b. Four

c. Three

d. One

115. What does the term OSPF refers to?

a. Open Shortest Path First

b. Only Shortest Path Finder

c. Open Shortest Protocol First

d. Only Shortest Protocol First

116. By using which command (from the command prompt) we can see the local connection on a PC?

a. Tenet PC-B

b. Netsate

c. Ping

d. All above are correct

117. For what the term CIDR is referred?

a. Classless Internal Domain Routing

b. Classless In Domain Routing

c. Classless Inter Domain Routing.

d. None of above is correct.

118. Where is the IOS loaded by default, when a router is first booted?

a. Boot ROM

b. NVRAM

c. Flash

d. Router

119. Which of the following two ways by we can enter setup mode on a router?

a. By typing the Disable command

b. By typing the erase start command and rebooting the router

c. By typing the command setup

b. By typing the command setup mode

120. If you are in privileged mode and want to return to user mode, what command would you use?

a. Exit

b. Quit

c. Disable

d. Control+Z

121. Which command shows the IOS version currently running on router?

a. Show mem

b. Show flash file

c. verify

d. Sh ver

122. Which of the following command will show the contents of the EEPROM in router?

a. Show flash

b. Ipconfig

c. Show ip flash

d. Sh ver

123. Which are the three commonly used protocols to transport the information between hosts?

a. Dynamic Host Control Protocol

b. Domain Name Service

c. Access Point

d. Address Resolution Protocol

124. Which of the following cable is used to connect to the console port of IOS device?

a. Connecting Cable

b. Rollover Cable

c. Serial Cable

d. Bad Cable

125. What will happen if we use the Command Ctrl + U?

Single word will be deleted

Cursor will move to End of line

A Line will be Erased

Cursor will move in start of line

126. To get context-sensitive help which of the following command allows us to get it?

a. help

b. show

c. ?

d. verify

127. Which control sequence takes to the beginning of the CLI?

a. CTRL-N

b. CTRL-A

c. ESC-B

d. CTRL-U

128. By using which IOS command a device name can be changed?

a. Show controller

b. Login Local

c. hostname prettier

d. Banner motd

129. Which command will have to use if we want to move the cursor one word forward?

a. Ctrl + F

b. Ctrl + Z

c. Esc + F

d. Ctrl + W

130. What will the router’s prompt be, if we execute the line consol 0 command from configuration mode?

a. Router(config-interface)

b. Router(config-line)#

c. Router(config-interface)#

d. Router#(config-if)#

131. What is the IOS command that will encrypt un-encrypted password?

a. service password-encryption

b. show controller

c. show running-config

d. None of these is correct

132. By which IOS command would be displayed a message of “This is Router5” after login in?

a. banner motd

b. cmd.exe

c. banner exec

d. ipconfig/all

133. What will be the indication if one examines his interfaces and the Ethernet 0 interface status says

Ethernet 0 is up, line protocol is down?

a. A Logical layer problem

b. A data link layer problem

c. A network connectivity problem

d. There is no problem.

134. IOS command what saves the active configuration to NVRAM?

a. Service password-encryption

b. Banner-exec

c. copy running-config nvram

d. copy running-config startup-config

135. If a DTE or DCE cable is plugged into serial 0, which command will show?

a. Sh int s0

b. Show commands cl

c. Sho controllers s 0

d. % incomplete command

136. Which of the following command stops console messages from writing over the command are being tried

to type in?

a. No logging

b. tracert

c. arp -a

d. Logging synchronous

137. Which command allows users to telnet into a router and not be prompted with a user-mode password?

a. banner motd

b. No login

c. No command is needed because you can telnet by default

d. Show controller

138. If we want to set our console to time out after only one second, which command will have to be used?

a. Timeout only 1 0

b. Timeout 0 1

c. Exect-timeout 1 only

d. Exec-timeout 0 1

139. How does the password set for the auxiliary port?

a. Line aux 0 1

b. Line aux 0

c. Line aux 0 4

d. Line aux port

140. What are the two different management setup configurations, when using setup mode?

a. Basic

b. Extra Advanced

c. Extended

d. Un-Expanded

141. By which command we can delete the contents of NVRAM on a router?

a. Delete NVRAM

b. Del mem

c. Erase NVRAM

d. Erase start

142. Which of the LED will indicate if the switch has experienced a malfunction.

a. green

b. white

c. amber

d. red

143. What would not indicate a problem if two PCs are connected to a switch configures in same subnet, but

both are unable to ping each other while 100Base TX is used for connectivity?

a. The SYSTEM LED is off.

b. The PORT LED is amber on one of the two PCs’ switch port connections.

c. The PORT LED is off on one of the two PCs’ switch port connections.

d. The MIC connectors on the Ethernet cables are not seated correctly in the switch ports.

144. Which of the given option is not asked for during the System Configuration Dialog script?

a. Enabling interfaces

b. Enable secret password

c. VLAN interface to use for management functions

d. Default gateway address

145. In which configuration mode default gateway address configured for a switch?

a. Interface

b. Line aux 04

c. Global

d. Port

146. The term MAC stands for what?

a. Media Access Control

b. Media Allocated Control

c. Media Access Count

d. Media All Count

147. Which of the following switch command allows us see the contents of the port address table?

a. show mac-address-table

b. Delete NVRAM

c. Erase NVRAM

d. None of these is correct

148. What will happen if a switch sees a frame with a destination MAC address of 0000.1111.DDDD,

(examine the given MAC address table on switch ). Switch> show mac address-table

Vlan Mac Address Type Ports

---- ----------- ---- -----

1 0000.1111.AAAA DYNAMIC FA0/1

1 0000.1111.CCCC DYNAMIC FA0/2

1 0000.1111.BBBB DYNAMIC FA0/3

a. Flood it

b. Drop it

c. Forward it out FA0/1

d. Violation mode shutdown

149. Which of the given below switch feature is used to prevent unauthorized access to a LAN?

a. Port security

b. Port security and 802.1Q

c. VTY passwords

d. Enable password

150. Which of the following is not a default configuration for port security?

a. 1 MAC address per interface

b. Violation mode shutdown

c. Sticky learning

d. Disabled by default

151. To associate the server with a switch port when port security is enable, what learning mode should used?

a. Interface

b. Automatic

c. Sticky

d. Static

152. Which command will delete the automatically entered MAC addresses in the MAC filter table?

a. (config)#delete nvram

b. No logging

c. (config)#clear mac-address-table dynamic

d. #clear mac-address-table dynamic

153. Concerning VLANs which of the fallowing option is not true?

a. A VLAN is logical group of users.

b. A VLAN is broadcast domain.

c. A VLAN is location-dependent.

d. A VLAN is subnet.

154. There are two groups of users are connected to a switch (1) Sales, (2) Marketing. We are concerned

about No.2 that’s marketing, while sales people from group1 Sales can see each others’ traffic. What

solutions would be used to prevent this issue?

a. VLANs

b. Enable Secret Password

c. MAC address filtering

d. Router with ACLs

155. What is a trunked link?

a. A link that is referred to as the native VLAN of the port

b. A link that can carry multiple VLANs

c. A switch port connected to the Internet

d. Data & voice capability on one interface

156. What is an access link?

a. A link that is only part of one VLAN and is referred to as the native VLAN of the port

b. Violation mode shutdown

c. A switch port connected to the Internet

d. Media Access Count

157. What does a VLAN do?

a. Saves the password

b. Runs internet

c. Breaks up broadcast domains

d. Provides fragmentation segmentation

158. What is a static VLAN?

a. A VLAN that can not be renamed or removed

b. A VLAN which can not be removed

c. Ports on the switch assigned to a VLAN by an administrator

d. Ports on the switch assigned to a VLAN by a VTP server

159. Which of the following is a true statement regarding VLANs?

a. Must have at least two VLANs defined in every Cisco network.

b. All VLANs configured at the fastest by default; propagate information to all others witches.

c. VLAN can only be used with Fast-Ethernet or Gigabit Ethernet.

d. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

160. Which are the two ways that an administrator can configure VLAN memberships?

a. Via a ISA server

b. Statically

c. Dynamically

d. Via a VTP domain database

161. How the dynamic VLANs can be configured?

a. Dynamically

b. By network administrator

c. Using any ghost software

d. Via a VLAN Management Policy Server

162. Which of the given below protocols is used to configure trunking on a switch?

a. VTP

b. Static

c. Trunk

d. DSL

163. Regarding trunked links, which of the given below is true?

a. By default they are configured on all switch ports

b. No token Ring, FDDI or ATM, but they work only with a type of Ethernet networking.

c. Can be settled trunk links on any 10-, 100-, and 1000Mbps ports.

d. You must clear the unwanted VLANs by hand.

164. Regarding an access link, which of the following is true?

a. They can carry multiple VLANs.

b. Switches remove any VLAN information from frame before sending to an access-link device.

c. Access-link devices cannot communicate with devices outside their VLAN unless the packet is routed through a router.

d. Access links transport the VLANs between devices and can be configured to transport all VLANs or just a few.

165. When is frame tagging used?

a. When 802.1q is used on an access link

b. When VLANs are traversing a trunked link

c. When ISL is used on an access link

d. When VLANs are traversing an access link

166. What is called the connection which supports multiple VLANs?

a. Server

b. Ethernet

c. Trunk

d. Router

167. Which of the following is true concerning 802.1Q?

a. It supports hub connections.

b. It is not supported on the 2960 switches.

c. NVLAN is tagged.

e. Transparent mode makes a switch dynamically secure.

168. Which of the following is a proprietary Cisco protocol used to share VLAN configuration information

between Cisco switches on trunk connections.

a. Server

b. DSL

c. Trunk Protocol

d. Router

169. Which of the given below VTP mode can propagate VTP messages?

a. Client and server

b. Server, client

c. Client, server, and transparent

d. All above are correct

170. There are a server switch VLANs accounting “A” and “B” are on one switch with a configuration

revision value of 55 and another server switch with VLANs engineering. “C” and “D” are with configuration revision value of 57. Now the two switches are not connected together. We connect them together. What can be possible happenings?

A. If the domain names don’t match, nothing occurs , if the domain names don’t match.

B. If the domain names don’t match the revision switch are used and the other ones are deleted.

C. If the domain names match, the engineering, “C”, and “D” VLANs are deleted.

D. If the domain names match, the accounting, HR, and executives VLANs are deleted.

171. Enter the switch command to set the VTP mode to transparent mode: __________.

Erase NVRAM

Vtp transparent

Line aux port

None of above

172. Which of the given switch command can enable trunking on a 2960 switch?

a. switchport mode trunk

b. trunking on

c. trunking enable

d. switchport trunk on

173. Which 2960 command assigns a VLAN to an interface, choose the correct option?

a. vlan-membership static

b. nvlan

c. switchport access vlan

d. All above are correct

174. Which of the given below is not symptom of a layer 2 loop?

Broadcast flooding

Transparent mode makes a switch dynamically secure

Learning MAC addresses on incorrect ports

None of these

175. With what the root switch is elected?

Weak MAC address

highest MAC address

lowest switch ID

Strong switch ID

176. What called the port that is chosen to forward traffic for a segment?

root port

alternate port

Serial port

designated port

177. Which the two options are true concerning a port in a listening state?

a. It remains there for 15 seconds.

b. It forwards BPDUs and builds the CAM table.

c. It remains there for 25 seconds.

d. It forwards BPDUs.

178. There are how many port states in RSTP?

179. What role will be assigned to a port that has the second best path to the root switch?

a. Root Directory

b. Designated

c. Alternate

d. Database

180. On a switch, which command enables RSTP with PVRST+?

a. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

b. (config)#clear mac-address-table dynamic

c. stp state rapid-pvst

d. Exec-timeout 0 1

181. Regarding Ether-Channels which of the following is true?

a. Switch should be configured with server.

b. You can have up to eight channels on a switch.

c. Ports must be configured identically to form a channel.

d. RSTP logically groups ports into a channel.

182. What symptom should be looked to determine whether we have a layer 2 loop?

High number of packets and/or multicast frames

High port utilization

User switch interfaces dropping and disconnecting

Address tables are not being updated

183. Which tool would be used to determine whether broadcast storm caused by a layer 2 loop?

a. traceroute command

b. Protocol analyzer

c. High port utilization

d. show interface command

184. Which of the following is/are a routed protocol?

a. RIP

b. OSPF

c. Both RIP and OSPF

d. Neither RIP nor OSPF

185. Which of the given routes between different autonomous systems?

a. IGP

b. EGP

c. IPP

d. BGP

186. Which routing protocol will be router to use for this route if a router is running RIP and OSPF, while

both routing protocols are learning 192.168.1.0/24.?

a. RIP

b. OSPF

187. What will a routing protocol use to determine which path is best?

a. Cost

b. Metric

c. Hop count

d. Administrative distance

188. Which type of routing protocol uses the Shortest Path First algorithm?

a. Hybrid

b. Link state

c. Distance vector

d. None of these is correct.

189. Which is an example of a hybrid protocol?

a. IPP

b. EIGRP

c. RIP

d. BGP

190. What would use to prevent forever a packet from traveling around a routing loop?

a. Split horizon

b. ICMP

c. Hold-down timer

d. TTL

191. Which of the following States that if a neighboring router sends a route to a router, the receiving router

will not propagate this route back to advertising router on the same interface?

a. Split horizon

b. Hold-down timer

c. Hold-count limit

d. Poison reverse

192. If a route has been poisoned in the routing table, how would we know?

a. It uses hold-down timers.

b. It has an infinite metric assigned to it

c. Distance vector protocols use broadcasts

d. It has an infinite administrative distance assigned to it.

193. What could cause the problem if we ping a host in the destination network, but the ICMP message we

receive back is “TTL expired in transit.” What could cause this problem?

a. Link is down between an intermediate router and the destination network.

b. The administrative distances of RIP are mismatch.

c. A routing loop exists.

d. There is any physical layer problem with destination host.

194. What does the Passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?

a. Stops an interface from sending/receiving periodic logical Updates

b. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but still receives updates

c. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates

d. All above are correct

195. Which protocol does Ping use?

a. TCP

b. ARP

c. ICMP

d. BootP

196. Which two of the following are stored in ROM?

a. POST

b. ROMMON

c. passwords

d. routing information

197. Which type of memory does not maintain its contents during a power-off state?

a. NVRAM

b. ROM

c. RAM

d. Flash

198. If configuration register is set to 0x0101, where a router boots from??

a. Flash memory

b. ROM

c. Boot ROM

d. VRAM

199. Which router command we have to use to view the configuration register value?

a. Switchport mode trunk

b. show interfaces trunk

c. switch(config)# interface type 0/port_#

d. show version

200. Which isrouter IOS Configuration mode command to change the configuration register 0x2142

a. switch (config - if)# switchport mode access

b. config-version 0x2142

c. config-register 0x2142

d. config-interface 0x2142

[To be Continued]

2016-11-23T12:55:00.000+05:00

IMPORTANT

Topic : CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide (Exam 640-802)

Type : MCQs

Please note all the Bold Options are correct.

1 - 100 of 300 MCQs

I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine"
Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing.
You may start

1 - 100 of 300 MCQs

1. Which of the following network characteristics is concerned about Mean Time Between Failures?

a. Cost

b. Password

c. Reliability

a. Non-Availability

2. Which of the following describes users working from home?

a. SOHO

b. Central Office

c. Regional Office

3. Which of the following topology uses a single cable to connect all devices together?

a. Bus

b. Extended Star

c. Point-to-point

d. Token Ring

4. Which of the following has both logical and physical ring topologies?

a. Router

b. FDDI

c. Token Ring

d. All above are correct

5. Whit of the following Ethernet has/have both a physical and logical bus topology?

a. 10BaseT

b. 10Base2 and 10Base5

c. 10Base5 and 10BaseT

d. 10Base2, 10BaseT, and 10Base5

6. Which topology describes the communication of devices with each other?

a. Star

b. Logical

c. Layered

d. Mesh

7. If a person is interested in attacking our network, what generally security term is used?

a. Security Rules

b. Adversary

c. Passive

d. Distributed

8. Looking for such things as clear-text passwords, What class of attack monitors unencrypted traffic?

a. Passive

b. Adversaries

c. Distributed

d. Programmed

9. Keeping spares on hand to mitigate the threat, which type of installation threat involves?

a. Software

b. Electronically

c. Management

d. Maintenance

10. As what kind of attack would be classified the brute-force password attack?

a. Reconnaissance

b. Access

c. Authorization

d. DoS

11. For what refers the term SSL?

a. denial of service

b. uninterruptible power supply

c. Secure Sockets Layer

12. The term OTPs refers for what?

a. Access Control lists

b. One Time Passwords

c. Computer Security Institute

13. For what the term SSL stands?

a. denial of service

b. uninterruptible power supply

c. Secure Sockets Layer

13. For what the term OSI stands?

a. Open system interconnection

b. International Organization for Standardization

c. Command-line interface

14. Which one of the following is not provide OSI Reference Model?

a. Defines the process for connecting two layers together, promoting interoperability between vendors

b. Allows vendors to compartmentalize their design efforts to fit a modular design, which eases implementations and simplifies troubleshooting

c. Separates a complex function into simpler components

d. Defines eight layers common to all networking protocols

e. Provides a teaching tool to help network administrators understand the communication process used between networking components

15. Put the following in the correct order, from high to low:

(a) session, (b) presentation, (c) physical, (d) data link, (e) network, (f) application, (g) transport.

a. c, e, d, f, a, b, g

b. f, a, b, g, d, e, c

c. f, b, g, a, e, d, c

d. f, b, a, g, e, d, c

16. Which one of the following layer provides for hardware addressing?

a. IPX Addresses

b. Point-to-Point Protocol

c. Data link

17. How many bits in length and what is the represented numbering format of MAC addresses?

a. 40 Bits in length and representing octal format

b. 40 Bits in length and representing hexadecimal format

c. 20 Bits in length and representing octal format

d. 20 Bits in length and representing decimal format

18. Except which one of the following Network layer handles all?

a. Broadcast problems

b. Conversion between media types

c. Hierarchy through the use of physical addresses

d. Splitting collision domains into smaller ones

19. Which of the following is used to provide reliable connections?

a. Ready/not ready signals

b. Sequence numbers and acknowledgments

c. Operating System

d. Ready/not ready signals and windowing

20. Through which of the following a number connection multiplexing is done

a. Socket

b. Software

c. Session

d. Internet

21. Match the device with the OSI Reference Model at which it primarily functions.

Devices: (1) Repeater, (2) Router, (3) NIC, and (4) Switch

Layers: (a) Physical, (b) Data link, (c) Network, and (d) Transport

a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

b. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-b

c. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

d. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

22. Match the PDU name with the OSI Reference Model at which it is used.

PDU names: (1) Data, (2) Frame, (3) Packet, (4) Bits, and (5) Segment.

Layers: (a) Application, (b) Presentation, (c) Session, (d) Transport, (e) Network, (f) Data link, (g) Physical

a. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e

b. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-f

c. 1-a, 2-f, 3-e, 4-f, 5-d

d. 1-g, 2-f, 3-d 4-e, 5-d

23. There is a network with some network components physically e.g. Data-link, Router and Hub. PC-1 wants

to send data to PC-2. Which of the following statements is true, assuming that the layer 2 medium is Ethernet and TCP/IP is used at layer?

a. When PC-2 generates the frame, it puts its MAC address in the source field and the Switch-A’s MAC address in the destination field.

b. When PC-1 generates the packet, it puts its MAC address in the source field and the PC-2’s MAC address in the destination field.

c. When PC-1 generates the packet, it puts its IP address in the source field and Router-A’s IP address in the destination field.

d. When PC-1 generates the packet, it puts Router-A’s IP address in the source field and PC-2’s IP address in the destination field.

e. When Router-1 generates the frame, it puts its MAC address as the source and PC-2’s MAC address as the destination.

24. Which of the following media access methods are used by Gigabit Ethernet?

a. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access, Collision Detection

b. Collision sense, multiple access, carrier detection

c. Defines the MAC

d. Multiple collision and carrier detection

25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Ethernet 802.3?

a. Contains an LLC

b. Media Access Control

c. Has a type field

d. Uses FCS to detect invalid frames

26. Which is a valid MAC address given below?

a. 00:00:11:GA:7A:34

b. 000:00:FFCCC:ABC12

c. 00:1F:FF:CE:DA:12

d. AC:45:FF:EE:12:57:34:65

27. 11000001 is what in hexadecimal and decimal?

a. B1, 193

b. C1, 193

c. C1, 195

d. C1, 190

28. In decimal what is the 11100111?

a. 230

b. 245

c. 190

d. 231

29. Match the following hexadecimal and binary values correctly to their corresponding decimal values:

Decimal : 14, 3, 10, 7

Hexadecimal : A, 7, E, 3

Binary : 1110, 1010, 0111, 0011

Deci Hex. Bin.

a. 3 3 001

b. 7 7 0111

c. 10 A 1010

d. 14 E 1110

e. None of above is correct.

30. Which of the following is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

a. Implemented with single wire

b. Uses two-pair wire

c. Is susceptible to EMI and RFI

d. Used between two office buildings

31. For connecting a hub to a switch, which cabling would be used?

a. Straight-through UTP

b. Crossover UTP

c. Strar Topology

32. We need to connect a PC to a hub, hub to a switch, switch to another switch, and then second switch to a router. What kinds and numbers of UTP cables do we need to make this network?

a. Two straight-through and two crossover

b. Three straight-through and three crossover

c. One straight-through and One crossover

d. Four Crossover

33. Which is a connector on a Category 5 cable with 10BaseT running across it?

a. AUI

b DB-25

c. RJ-45

d. BNC

34. Collision problems can’t be solved by which devices?

a. Hubs

b. Routers

c. Switches and Routers

d. Switches and hubs

35. Which is the different than three main functions of a layer 2 device?

a. Loop removal

b. Forwarding

c. Listening

d. Learning

36. A switch can not flood which type of traffic?

a. Multicast

b. Known unicast

c. VoIP

d. Unknown unicast

37. If there are Host A, Host B, with one switch and Host C, Host D are with other switch but both switches

are connected with each other in Physical Depiction of Transparent Bridging How many collision and

broadcast domains are there?

a. 1, 4

b. 5, 1

c. 4, 1

d. 1, 5

38. Point out which is the true concerning bridges given below?

a. They switch frames in software.

b. They support full-duplexing.

c. They support one collision domain for the entire bridge.

d. They do only store-and-forward switching.

39. With which of the following switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address of the frame and

immediately starts forwarding the frame.

a. Half-Duplex

b. Cut-through

c. Fragment-free

d. Full Duplex

40. Concerning full-duplexing on a NIC which of the following is tru?

a. It can’t either send or receive frames, but both simultaneously.

b. It can’t be used with hubs.

c. It can be used with 10Base10 cabling.

d. It uses point-to-point connections.

41. Concerning the switch learning process which of the following option is true?

a. Known destination MAC addressing information is updated in the port address table.

b. They do only store-and-forward switching.

c. A broadcast MAC address can be learned by the switch.

d. All above are correct

42. In a switched network, when do we see the transmitting multiple copies of same unicast frame ?

a. When a port is misconfigured in half-duplex on one side and full-duplex on the other.

b. This is impossible.

c. When the switching mode is configured as runtless.

d. When an inadvertent layer 2 loop exists.

43. If PC A, PC B, and PC C are connected with a Hub and Hub is Connected with a Switch, Same three PCs

PC D, PC E, and PC F are connected with Switch. Which of the following statements would be false?

a. If PC-B sends a frame to PC-C, the frame would be dropped by the switch.

b. If PC-B is moved to port 3 of the switch, the switch will automatically update its CAM table when PC-A sends a frame to PC-B.

c. If PC-C sends out a broadcast, the switch will still learn the MAC address of the source.

d. PC-D can set its interface to full-duplex if the switch port supports full-duplexing.

44. What is meant by the term SNMP?

a. Single Network Management Party

b. Super Network Multi protocol

c. Simple Network Management Protocol

45. What is called the term CDP?

a. Creative Discovery Protocol

b. Cisco Discovery Protocol

c. Cisco Disconnected Protocol

46. Concerning WLAN wireless transmissions, which is the following given statement is true?

a. A device can send only.

b. CSMA/CD is used to detect and transmit a signal.

c. A wireless device will use RTS and CTS signals to avoid collisions.

d. All are correct.

47. We are experiencing intermittent connection and signal quality problems with our WLAN implementation.

Which of the following would typically not be causing this problem?

a. Computer USB headset

b. Cordless phone

c. Microwave oven

d. Rogue AP

e. All above are wrong

48. Which of the given below statement is not true concerning 802.11b?

a. Maximum transmission rate of 11 Mbps

b. Backward compatible with the original 802.11 standard

c. Uses OFDM as a transmission method

d. Is an IEEE standard

49. OFDM is stands for which of the following?

a. Original Frequency Division Multiplexing

b. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing

c. Outgoing Frequency Division Multiplexing

d. Original Frequency Digital Multiplexing

50. Which of the following IEEE standards supports the Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing

transmission method and can transmit data at 54 Mbps using a 5 GHz frequency?

a. 802.11b

b. 802.11a

c. 802.11n

d. 802.11a and g

51. Which of the given below Wi-Fi standards supports RC4 encryption with TKIP and PSK authentication?

a. WAP

b. 802.1x

c. WPA

d. All above are correct

52. Which of the given below will be true if we disable broadcast beaconing on an AP?

a. No any option is correct.

b. We need to enable MAC address filtering to allow clients to talk to the AP.

c. We must not define the IBSS on each client, matching it to the configured value on the AP.

d. We must define the SSID on each client, matching it to the configured value on the AP.

53. Which of the following be used by WLAN security solution uses 802.1x authentication with AES-CCMP

for encryption?

a. Personal WAP

b. Personal WPA2

c. Enterprise WAP

d. Enterprise WPA2

54. Which 802.11 access mode is based on Independent Basic Service Set?

a. Ad hoc

b. Infrastructure

c. SOHO

d. ISA

55. Three APs make up the WLAN network with roaming devices. Which of the given below is true concerning

the setup of the three APs?

a. They should use same SSID values.

b. ESA coverage should be used.

c. They should all use the different RF channel.

d. They should use same RF frequencies.

56. If there is a problem of consistent connection drops and poor performance on WLAN SOHO network

in A three room office. Which of the following would to be done to solve this problem?

a. Buy an AP for each room and setup a network for better coverage.

b. Place the AP in a central location between the three rooms.

c. Check the direction of the antennas on the AP and possibly upgrade the antennas to get better signal coverage.

d. Replace the AP with another product.

57. How many layers does the TCP/IP protocol stack have? Choose the correct one.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

58. Which option of the given below is wrong concerning the IP protocol and the TCP/IP protocol stack?

a. The Internet layer corresponds to layer 3 of the OSI Reference Model.

b. The IP protocol provides for connectionless delivery of datagrams.

c. The IP protocol provides for best effort delivery, with data recovery capabilities.

d. The source and destination address in an IP header totals 64 bits.

59. How many host bits has a Class A Address?

a. 32

b. 16

c. 8

d. 24

60. Which is the class of Address of 191.75.39.24?

a. C

b. B

c. A

d. All above are correct

61. Which is the class of Address of 172.16.240.256?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. None of the above

e. All Above are correct

62. Which of the given below is a private IP address?

a. 192.168.0.1

b. 172.32.18.19

c. 192.169.1.66

d. 10.189.289.66

63. If we are getting reply message “request timeout” or “destination unreachable” by using ping command

while testing connectivity, At what layer of the OSI Reference Model does this indicate a problem?

a. Transport or Higher

b. Data link or equal

c. Network or lower

d. All above are correct

65. For What the term ARP stands?

a. Additional Resolution Protocol

b. Address Resolution Protocol

c. Added Resolution Protocol

d. None of above

66. We execute ping 127.0.0.1 on our Windows PC and we get echo replies to the ping. What is the indication

of its behavior?

a. We have connectivity to other layer 3 devices.

b. We have connectivity to other hosts on the same segment/domain.

c. We have correctly installed TCP/IP on your Pc.

d. We have correctly configured our DNS and default gateway settings.

67. We execute the Windows ping command. The first echo request times out, but the last three are

successful. What would typically cause this problem?

a. DHCP is occurring.

b. ARP is occurring.

c. The routers are running protocol to find the destination.

d. There is problem with application layer.

68. How many bits have a Class B address?

a. 8

b. 16

c. 20

d. 24

69. Which of the following is Class of address of 192.168.256.135?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. None of the above

70. Which of the given below is a valid subnet mask value?

a. 255.0.255.255

b. 255.0.0.255

c. 255.255.254.0

d. 192.255.255.256

71. Which of the following function is to differentiate between the network address, the host addresses and the

directed broadcast address?

a. Subnet Mask

b. Configured IP

c. TCP/IP

d. WLAN

72. How many subnets do you have, if you are given a Class C network with 25 bits for networking?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 3

73. If Class C network is given with a subnet mask 255.255.255.248, how many host addresses are there on

each subnet?

a. 8

b. 6

c. 12

d. 14

74. If there is a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. How many host addresses would be

there on each subnet?

a. 40

b. 62

c. 136

d. 256

75. What type of address it would be, if you are given the addressing information 192.168.37.192/25?

a. Subnet Mask

b. Network

c. Host

76. You are given this addressing information 172.17.16.255/23. What type of it would be?

a. Network

b. TCP/IP

c. Host

77. What type of address it could be if we give the addressing information 10.0.8.0/22?

a. Network

b. Directed broadcast

c. Host

78. VLSM is supported by which protocol?

a. RIPv2

b. EIGRP

c. BGP

d. None of these

79. How many subnet masks do you need, if you given a Class C network, 192.168.1.0/24, but you need one

network with 120 hosts and two networks with 60 hosts?

a. 5

b. 2

c. 3

d. 1

80. If a Class C network is given 192.168.1.0./24. and need one network with 120 hosts and three networks

with 60 hosts. What subnet mask values would be used?

a. 255.255.255.128

b. 255.255.255.1/24

c. 255.255.255.0

d. None of these

81. Class C network 162.168.1.0/24 is given and need three networks with 60 hosts and two networks with 30

hosts, what the subnet masks values could be used?

a. 255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.192

b. 255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.240

c. 255.255.255.192 and 255.255.255.224

d. 255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

82. Some-one is given this address space: 172.16.5.0/25. and need one network with 64 hosts and two with 30

hosts. What are the most specific subnet mask values to use?

a. /27 and /28

b. /26 and /27

c. /25 and /26

d. None of these

83. If a Class C network is given and we have four LAN segments with the following numbers of devices: 120,

60, 30, and 30, what subnet masks values can be used to accommodate these segments?

a. /20, /25, and /20

b. /25, /26, and /27

c. /26, /27, and /28

d. All these are correct

84. VLSM allows us to summarize what back to the Class A,B or C network boundary?

a. Subnets

b. Networks

c. IPs

85. Which of the given below is not an advantage of route summarization?

a. It helps contain network problems such as flapping routes.

b. It supports smaller routing update sizes.

c. It requires less memory and processing.

d. It supports discontiguous subnets.

86. Which of the below option allows creating this summarization: 10.0.0.0/7.

a. Subnetting

b. Networks

c. Supernetting

d. VLSM

87. Which of the following are classless protocols?

a. IGRP and EIGRP

b. EIGRP

c. IGRP

d. Neither IGRP nor EIGRP

88. Except which of the following a routing protocol that supports route summarization must perform all?

a. Carry the subnet mask with the network entry.

b. Summarize entries so that the same lowest order bits match.

c. All of these are correct.

89. You have the following two routes: 192.168.1.64/27 and 192.168.1.96/27. Which is the most specific

summarized route for these two subnets?

a. 255.255.168.0.1

b. 192.168.256.0/24

c. 192.168.1.64/26

90. We have the following four routes: 192.168.1.32/30, 192.168.1.36/30, 192.168.1.40/30, and

192.168.1.44/30. Which of the following will be the most specific summarized route for these subnet?

a. 192.255.168.1/24

b. 192.168.1.32/28

c. 255.255.0.255.1

91. What can we get the term UDP?

a. User Datagram Protocol

b. Urgent Datagram Protocol

c. User Datagram Process

d. None of these is correct

92. How many Transport layer protocols use the TCP/IP?

a. Four Transport Layers Protocol

b. Two Transport Layers Protocol

c. Three Transport Layers Protocol

d. None of these is correct

93. What is the main responsibility of TCP?

a. To provide a reliable full-duplex, connection-oriented, logical service between two devices.

b. To provide a reliable full-duplex, connection-oriented, Physical service between two devices.

c. To provide a reliable Half-duplex, connection-oriented, Physical service between two devices.

d. All above are correct.

94. Which three steps take place during the three-way handshake?

a. SYN, SYN/AC, SYN

b. ACK, AC/SYN, ACK

c. SYN, SYN/AC, ACK

d. All these are Correct

95. Through which of the following mechanisms flow control is commonly implemented?

a. Windowing

e. UDP

f. MAC addresses

g. Subnet mask

96. How many types the port numbers falls?

a. Four

b. Three

c. five

d. None of these

97. What called a PDU at the transport layer?

e. Single Host ability

f. UDP

g. Frame

h. segment

98. Except which of the following, all are the characteristics of TCP?

a. Connection-oriented

b. Windowing

c. Best-effort delivery

d. Reordering packets

99. Which are the three types of port numbers?

a. Un-Known, Registered, Dynamically Assigned

b. Well-Known, Registered, Dynamically Assigned

c. Well-Know, Un-Registered, Dynamically Assigned

d. Un-Known, Un-registered, Dynamically Assigned.

100. What does the term SNMP refer to?

a. Super Network Management Protocol

b. Simple Network Management Protocol

c. Single Network Model Protocol

d. Source Network Modern Protocol

[To be Continued]

CCNA VOICE (Official Exam Certification Guide)

2011-01-04T11:59:00.000+05:00

Which of the following signal types of signal typically use the PSTN analog phones to connect?

a. GDTMF

b. Loop start

c. Echo

d. CCS

By using ground start signaling which of the given below issues is prevented?

a. CAS

b. Off-hook signal

c. Mirrored communication

d. Glare

Which signaling type represents supervisory signaling?

a. Ground Start

b. Dial tone

c. Off-hook signal

d. Congestion

Usage of analog connectivity what can be a disadvantage of following?

a. Limited calls per line

b. TCP

c. Conversion complexity

d. Lack of common voice services

By using which type of process we can samples an analog waveform at timed intervals to obtain a digital measurement of the electrical signal?

a. PAM

b. Codec

c. Dial tone

d. Quantization

To send multiple voice calls over a digital signal circuit by dividing the calls into specific time slot, which of the given below system we can choose?

a. DE-MUX

b. MUX

a. TDM

b. TCP

Which bits are used to transmit signaling information within each voice channel?

a. The eighth bit of every sixth frame

b. The second and third bits of every third frame

c. The first bit of each frame

d. The last bit of each frame

Below are given the list of how large is each T1 frame sent over a digital CAS connection, Which is the correct one?

a. 16 bits

b. 193 bits

c. 80 bits

d. 240 bits

Which of the given below time slots are used for E1 and T1 signaling while using CCS connections?

a. Time slot 17

b. Time slot 16

c. Time slot 1

d. Time slot 23

10.

The standards crated by the ITU designate international numbering plans for devices connected to the PSTN, Which of the following is correct?

a. ITU-161

b. ITU-T

c. T-161

d. E.164

11.

What can be a disadvantage of using VoIP over a traditional PBX system?

a. Reduced cabling costs for new buildings

b. To track a user’s location in the network

c. Support of larger-scale deployments

d. Digital and IP phone signaling support

12.

In Cisco Unified Communications model, which of the given below is not valid layer?

a. Dial tone

b. Network

c. Infrastructure

d. Call processing

13.

Which is the ideal call processing component for 25 persons and planned to make it double in size over next three years?

a. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express

b. Unified Communications 500

c. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

d. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition

14.

To use the Cisco Unified CME, which platforms, Which of the following could be used?

a. Cisco Media Convergence Server (MCS)

b. Cisco 3550 Switch

c. Cisco 1861 Router

d. Cisco UC500

15.

How we can say Unified Communications Manager Business Edition is better than Unified Communications Manager? list any one of following.

a. Integrated voice mail support

b. SIP-based signaling support

c. Support of non-Cisco IP phones

d. Support of larger-scale deployments

16.

Which of the following advantages would you gain by using a full Cisco Unity solution over Cisco Unity Connection?

a. Text-to-speech support

b. The ability to receive voice mails through an e-mail client

c. The ability to manage voice mails using a web interface

d. Integration with legacy voice-mail systems

17.

Which of the given below is correct about which application provides an ACD service for a Cisco VoIP network?

a. Cisco Communications Manager

b. Cisco Unified Contact Center

c. Cisco UC500

18.

Which of the following function is provided by Cisco Unified Mobility application?

a. To allow users to only log out of IP phones on the network

b. To auto-forward VoIP devices to different locations based on time of day

c. To link a single phone number to multiple devices

d. All above are correct.

19.

A phone with three lines and a custom XML application is needed for tracking, Which of given below Cisco IP phone model will meet the need?

a. Cisco 7911G

b. Cisco 7960G

c. Cisco 7941G

d. None of above is correct

20.

To convert signals from analog fax machine into VoIP packes, which of the below device meet our need?

a. Cisco Expansion Module

b. Cisco ATA

c. Cisco 7985G

d. Cisco 3911

21.

To power a Cisco 7941G IP Phone, which of the given below methods can be used?

a. Cisco 3550 Switch

b. 802.1Q

c. Local power brick

d. Cisco 7960G

22. What type of signal is sent by Cisco Inline Power to detect an unpowered Cisco device?

a. +8 DC voltage

b. Fast Link Pulse

c. Cisco Discovery Protocol

d. Polarity reversal

23.

Below given is as same as a VLAN term, which is correct?

a. ISL

b. Broadcast domain

c. Port security

d. Collision domain

24.

To connect a Cisco Switch to a non-Cisco Switch device, which of the following trunking protocols can be used?

a. VTP

b. 802.1Q

c. Cisco UC500

d. All above are correct

25.

Which of the given below protocols replicates the VLANs over trunk link?

a. VRRP

b. 802.1Q

c. VTP

d. DSL

26.

By default which VTP mode can be used by a Cisco Switch?

a. a.Client

b. Transparent

c. Server

d. VTP is disabled by default.

27.

What will be the result if a switch interface is set to switchport mode dynamic auto is connected to another switch interface set to the same mode?

a. The interface enters an err-disable state.

b. The interface maintains the default mode.

c. The interface becomes a trunk port.

d. The interface becomes an access port.

28.

Which command of the given below can be used to forward DHCP request from an interface which is connected to 172.16.1.0/24 subnet to a DHCP server with 172.16.100.100 IP address?

a. ip helper-address 172.16.100.100

b. ip helper-address 172.16.1.0 172.16.100.100

c. forward-protocol 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.100

d. All above commands can be used.

29.

When a Cisco IP phone receives PoE and starts the boot process, how does the Cisco Switch communicate voice VLAN information?

a. Voice VLAN information must be statically entered on the Cisco IP phone.

b. Using 802.1Q

c. Through CDP

d. Using the proprietary ISL protocol

30.

Which of the following DHCP option provides the IP address of a TFTP server to a Cisco IP phone?

a. Option 20

b. Option 150

c. Option 290

d. Option 40

31.

Which of the given below NTP stratum numbers are considered the best?

a. Stratum 0

b. Stratum 2

c. Stratum 10

d. Stratum 3

32.

How many Cisco IP phones can have a Cisco 2801 CME Router support?

a. 50

b. 8

c. 24

e. 144

33.

Which of the given below is required license to operate a Cisco Unified CME router?

a. User license

b. Phone license

c. Phone user license

d. Router license

34.

Which model would be used if we need the number of lines on each IP phone to match the number of phone lines coming from the PSTN?

a. Limited model

b. Hybrid model

c. PBX model

d. Shared line model

35.

Which of the following command can be used to extract a bundle of CME files into the flash of the router?

a. copy

b. extract

c. xtract

d. archive

36.

Which files of Cisco IP phone can download from TFTP server during the boot process?

a. Music on Hold

b. XML templates

c. Firmware

d. All above are wrong

37.

In tftp-server command what is the primary function or alias syntax?

a. To hide the original filename to increase network security

b. To make files in subdirectories accessible without entering the full path To rename files

c. To allow multiple files to be accessed through one filename

38.

How to make accessible the firmware files to IP phones if once downloaded and copied to the flash memory of a router?

a. The firmware files are copied to an external TFTP server by the router and downloaded directly to the IP phones

b. The firmware files must be manually made available by using the tftp-server command.

c. The firmware files are made available through TFTP when entered in the telephony service using the load command.

39.

Which of the following command can be used to allow the CME router to begin accepting IP phone registrations?

a. max-up

b. shutdown

c. ip source-address

d. telephony-service enable

40.

How Configuration files are created by Unified CME for the Cisco IP phones?

Configuration files must be downloaded from Cisco and copied to the flash of the router.
Configuration files are automatically created as configuration information is entered.
all above are correct.

41.

What is the File name that is generated by Cisco Unified CME router for IP phones which don’t have any configuration informations?

Config.default
XMLDefault.cnf.xml
Default.xml
Emergency prompt
None of above is true.

42.

By which of the given below commands firmware file can be specified that is used by a Cisco 7960 Phone while contacting the CME router?

a. tftp-server

b. firmware-load 7960

c. load

d. All above are correct

43.

What mode does the CME router use for the ehpone-dn while entering the command ehpone-dn20 from global configuration mode?

a. Dual-line

b. Limited

c. Distinct

d. Single-line

44.

Which of the given below features are not allowed with an ephone-dn configured in single-line mode?

a. Conference

b. Speaker

c. Hold

d. Redial

45.

CME router need which criteria to link an ephone to a physical Cisco IP phone?

a. MAC address and IP address

b. IP address

c. Serial number

d. MAC address

46.

An ephone-dn 11 (DN 2703) is needed to assign to ephone 8 line 4 and also needed to ring the line after three pulses, By hich of the following commands we can do this all?

a. button 4f2703

b. button 4f11

c. button 4:2703 feature

d. All above are correct.

47.

By entering the following configuration on the CME router:

CME_Voice(config)# ephone-dn 10 dual-line

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# number 1010

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# preference 0

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# huntstop channel

CME_Voice(config)# ephone-dn 11 dual-line

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# number 1010

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# huntstop

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# preference 1

If ephone1 is assigned ephone-dn 10 and ephone 2 is assigned ephone-dn 11 , What can be the result?

a. Both ephone 1 and 2 will ring on an incoming call to 1010.

b. Only ephone 1 will ring on an incoming call to 1010; ephone 2 will only ring if ephone 1 is currently on a call.

c. Only ephone 1 will ring on an incoming call to 1010; ephone 2 will never ring, even if ephone 1 is on a call.

d. None of all is correct.

48.

Which of the given option is correct that how CME supports shared-line environments that allow multiple phones to receive calls on same DN simultaneously?

a. Using overlay configurations

b. Using shared-dn configurations

c. Using feature-ring configurations

d. All are true.

49.

The IP phone has no explicit ephone configuration in CME currently while a Cisco IP phone attempts on register with the CME router. What will the CME router so b default?

a. Register the phone but not create an ephone entry in the running-config

b. Register the phone, create an ephone entry, and auto-assign a DN

c. Reject the registration

d. Register the phone and create an ephone entry in the running-config

50.

Which of the following represents the minimum configurations necessary to apply the changes if a ephone 9 is updated to use DN 1010 on line 5?

a. The phone must be hard booted by performing a shutdown followed by a no shutdown on the connecting switch interface.

b. No additional configuration is necessary; the CME router updates the phone via SCCP.

c. The phone must be restarted using the restart command.

d. The phone must be restarted using the reset command.

51.

Which of the given below commands will change the default “Cisco Unified CME” title displayed on the bottom of all Cisco IP phones?

a. prompt

b. phone banner

c. system message

d. banner

e. All above are true

52.

What process must be followed to build the local phone directory for CME environment?

a. Assign directory entries under each ephone-dn using the directory command.

b. Assign directory entries under each ephone using the directory command.

c. CME automatically builds the directory when you assign caller-id information with the name command.

d. None of above is correct.

53.

A command call-forward max-length 0 from telephony service configuration mod, How does this will be affective for voice network?

a. Users can forward their phone for an unlimited amount of time.

b. The CFwdAll softkey on users’ IP phones dims and becomes unavailable.

c. Users can forward their phones to any destination that is reachable from their IP phone.

d. All above are correct.

54.

Which of the given below categories of standards prevents calls from hairpinning on the network when they are forwarded or transferred?

a. H.225

b. H.450

c. H.323

d. H.250

55.

Which of the given below transfer modes by default does a Cisco router support?

a. Full-consult

b. Blind

c. Consult

d. All are correct

56.

What will be the result when the command transfer-pattern 95…is entered from telephony service configuration mode?

a. Transferred calls have “95” added to the end of the dialed number information.

b. Users are now able to transfer calls to numbers matching the 95... pattern.

c. Transferred calls have “95” added to the front of the dialed number information.

d. Call transfers are restricted to only numbers matching the 95... pattern.

57.

What effect does this have on the voice environment if the following configuration is entered on CME router?

CME_Voice(config)#ephone-dn 51

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)#number 3002

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)#park-slot timeout 60 limit 10 recall

a. This creates a call park slot numbered 3002 that can have up to ten calls parked for 60 seconds each, at which point the original phone is recalled.

b. This creates a call park slot numbered 3002 that can have a call parked for 60 seconds, at which point the original phone is recalled. If this occurs ten times, the parked call is disconnected.

c. This creates a call park slot reserved for ephone-dn 3002 that can have up to ten parked calls for 60 seconds each.

d. This creates a call park slot numbered 3002 that can have up to ten parked calls for 60 seconds each.

58.

By default, what does pressing the PickUp softkey allow to do in a Cisco Unified CME environment?

a. Pick up a ringing phone in your group

b. Pick up a specific ringing extension (which you must specify)

c. Answer your own ringing phone

d. Pick up a ringing phone in another group

59.

After creating a new ephone-dn the command number A100 is entered and Enter key is pressed, What is the purpose of this command?

a. To designate extension 100 as an intercom line

b. To prevent the number from being dialed from an IP phone

c. To match the number with number B100 on the other side of the intercom connection

d. To list the line as the first intercom in the configuration

60.

What is the maximum number of paging groups which a Cisco IP phone can belong?

a. There is no practical limit.

b. 25

c. 1

d. 5

61.

Which process ca be used to exempt IP phone from an after-hours call block configured with 24/7 keyword?

a. Enter the correct PIN number.

b. An after-hours 24/7 call block cannot be exempted.

c. You must configure the user’s phone as exempt.

d. All above are correct.

62.

Which is the destination to which Cisco Unified CME can send CDRs?

a. Syslog server

b. TFTP server

c. HTTP server

d. All above are correct.

63.

Which area does Cisco Unified CME not allows to modify from the CME GUI, by defauly?

a. Ephone

b. The system message

c. Ephone-dn

d. All above are false.

64.

The Nyquist theorem reproduces what frequency range accurately?

a. 300–4000 Hz

b. 20–20,000 Hz

c. 200–9000 Hz

d. 300–3400 Hz

65.

In United States which forms of G.711 is used?

a. G.711a

b. G.711 μ-law

c. G.711ab

d. None of above is correct

66.

How much bandwidth consumes the audio payload of G.729a?

a. 6.3 kbps

b. 4.3 kbps

c. 16 kbps

d. 8 kbps

67.

How many bytes per packet transmit G.729 assuming a 20-ms sample size?

a. 40

b. 20

c. 120

d. 100

68.

What amount of data does the UDP, RTP, and IP header information add to each packet transmitted?

a. 20 bytes

b. 56 bytes

c. 40 bytes

d. 58 bytes

69.

VAD have which functions on the voice network

a. Significant bandwidth savings due to silence suppression

b. The creation of redundant voice paths over the PSTN

c. Permits additional, compressed calls over the IP WAN

d. All three options are correct.

70.

Which of the given below is high complexity codecs?

a. G.711 μ-law

b. G.729

c. G.729a

d. None is wrong

71.

With which of the given below interfaces would be equipped the router if a small office environment is needed to trunk to PSTN using analog connections?

a. FXS

b. E&M

c. FXS-DID

d. FXO

72.

Which of the following protocols can be used to configure a VoIP environment to allow for centralized control over all voice gatways?

a. H.323

b. SIP

c. SCCP

d. MGCP

73.

On what common standard SIP signaling is based?

a. IETF

b. HTTP

c. TCP

d. UDP

74.

Which of the given below types of interface would be used to connect an analog fax machine to the VoIP network

a. FXS

b. FXO

c. E&M

d. BRI

75.

Which of the given below commands would be used to configure a T1 line to use channels 1-6 to connect to the PSTN using FXO loop start signaling?

a. pri-group 1 timeslots 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

b. ds0-group 1 timeslots 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

c. pri-group 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

d. ds0-group 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

76.

What type of dial peer would you create, if a configuration is needed to dial peer to connect to a PBX system using a digital T1 CAS configuration?

a. Analog

b. POTS

c. VoIP

d. Digital

77.

Following configuration is entered on voice router: dial-peer voice 99 pots

destination-pattern 115.

port 1/0/0

What digits the router will send out the port 1/0/0 if the number 1159 is dialed?

a. 59

b. 115

c. 9

d. 1159

e. 11

78.

Which of the following default codec used by any VoIP dial peer?

a. G.723

b. G.711 μ-law

c. G.729

d. G.711 a-law

79.

To match any dialed number up to 32 digits in length, Which of the following destination patterns could be used?

a. .x

b. [0-32]

c. &

d. T

80.

After creation of a translation rule how it will be allpied?

a. To an interface

b. To a translation profile

c. Globally

d. Above all options are correct

81.

Under a VoIP dial peer which of the given below digit manipulation command will work?

a. digit-strip

b. forward-digits

c. prefix

d. translation-profile

82.

To match an inbound dial peer for incoming calls, A router uses what final method?

a. Using the answer-address command

b. Using the port command

c. Using dial peer 0

d. Using the destination-pattern command

83.

Which of the given below is not an area that can use OoS to manage?

a. Fixed delay

b. Packet jitter

c. Variable delay

d. Router queuing

83.

Which are the four Cisco Unity Express hardware platforms that are currently available?

a. NM-CUE1, NM-CUE2, NMW-CUE, and AIM-CUE

b. AIM-CUE, NM-CUE, NM-CUE-EC, and NME-CUE

c. CUE1, CUE2, CUE3, and CUE4

d. AIM-CUE, NM-CUE, CUE-EC, and NME-CUE-EC

84.

Which Cisco Unity Express module(s) is installed inside of a Cisco router?

a. The CUE2 and CUE4 modules

b. The AIM-CUE module

c. The NM-CUE and AIM-CUE modules

d. The NM-CUE module

85.

Which of the given below factor determines the maximum number of simultaneous sessions supported by Cisco Unity Express?

a. The installed license

b. The configuration

c. The weather

d. The hardware platform

86.

Which of the following factor determines the number of mailboxes supported by Cisco Unity Express?

a. The installed license

b. The configuration

c. The weather

d. None of above.

87.

On what operating system Cisco Unity Express runs?

a. Cisco IOS

b. Microsoft Windows Server 2003

c. A Linux-based operating system

d. Microsoft Windows Server 2000

88.

How we can access the messages in a GDM (General Delivery Mailbox) ?

a. By logging in to a subscriber mailbox that is associated with the GDM

b. By logging in to the GDM extension number via the GUI

c. By logging in to the GDM extension number via the telephony user interface (TUI)

d. A GDM is not accessed. All messages are forward to a distribution list.

89.

Which of the following is describing the difference between pin and password in Cisco Unity Express?

a. Nothing; they are two terms that mean the same thing.

b. A password provides VoIP authentication, whereas a PIN provides application authentication.

c. A password provides GUI authentication, whereas a PIN provides TUI authentication.

d. All above options are wrong.

90.

To alert a subscriber of a new message which of the following method can use message notification function?

a. Red light

b. Send an e-mail

c. Flashing envelope

d. All above are correct.

91.

What does integrated messaging provide?

a. Allows a subscriber’s e-mail and voice-mail to be delivered to the same e-mail account

b. Allows a subscriber to access both voice-mail and e-mail content from a single MAPI-capable server

c. Allows a subscriber to access both voice-mail and e-mail content from a single MAPI-capable e-mail client

d. All above are correct.

92.

Which of the following are default auto attendant (AA) greetings/prompts.

a. Business closed prompt

b. Alternate greeting

c. Emergency prompt

d. The weather

93.

How the AA prompts are recorded/re-recorded?

a. Using the administrator’s mailbox

b. Using a subscriber’s mailbox

c. Using the administrator via telephone feature

d. Using the administrator GUI home page

94.

To run at 2 a.m. How Cisco Unity Express backup will be configured?

a. Set the backup schedule to begin the backup process at 2 a.m.

b. Set the backup schedule to begin the backup process two hours past midnight. Starting a backup is a manual process for Cisco Unity Express. An administrator must log in to the GUI and click the Start Backup button to begin the process.

c. The administrator must click the Start Backup button at 2 a.m.

d. Because 2 a.m. is generally outside of normal business hours, a backup cannot be scheduled for this time.

95.

How to keep configuration information synchronized between Cisco Unity Express and Cisco Unified CME?

a. Use the synchronize feature in the CME CLI.

b. Synchronization requires a reboot of both CME and Cisco Unity Express.

c. CME and Cisco Unity Express both operate under the same operating system, so they cannot lose synchronization.

d. Use the synchronize feature in the Cisco Unity Express GUI.

96.

How to make a connection to the Cisco Unity Express CLI?

a. Issue the service-module service-engine module/port session command from within Cisco Unified CME

b. Issue the cue module/port session command from within Cisco Unified CME

c. Telnet to the IP address of Cisco Unity Express

d. Connect a console cable to the console port of Cisco Unity Express

97.

What type of server Cisco Unity Express requires to download software?

a. HTTP server

b. FTP server

c. Web server

d. TFTP server

98.

When software downloads upgrade command be used?

a. When performing either a fresh install or an upgrade from Cisco Unity Express version 1.x and higher.

b. When performing an upgrade from Cisco Unity Express version 2.3.4 only.

c. Never; Cisco Unity Express does not currently support upgrades.

d. Only when performing an upgrade from Cisco Unity Express version 1.x and higher.

99.

Cisco Unity Express licenses enables which of the following features?

a. Number of recording hours supported

b. Number of subscriber mailboxes supported

c. Number of concurrent system ports

d. Number of languages supported

100.

Which of the given below is not configured by the Cisco Unity Express post installation configuration tool?

a. Cisco Unity Express’s DNS

b. Cisco Unity Express’s hostname

c. Cisco Unity Express’s IP address

d. Cisco Unity Express’s NTP

e. Cisco Unity Express’s time zone

f. Cisco Unity Express’s administrative credentials

42.

By which of the given below commands firmware file can be specified that is used by a Cisco 7960 Phone while contacting the CME router?

a. tftp-server

b. firmware-load 7960

c. load

d. All above are correct

43.

What mode does the CME router use for the ehpone-dn while entering the command ehpone-dn20 from global configuration mode?

a. Dual-line

b. Limited

c. Distinct

d. Single-line

44.

Which of the given below features are not allowed with an ephone-dn configured in single-line mode?

a. Conference

b. Speaker

c. Hold

d. Redial

45.

CME router need which criteria to link an ephone to a physical Cisco IP phone?

a. MAC address and IP address

b. IP address

c. Serial number

d. MAC address

46.

An ephone-dn 11 (DN 2703) is needed to assign to ephone 8 line 4 and also needed to ring the line after three pulses, By hich of the following commands we can do this all?

a. button 4f2703

b. button 4f11

c. button 4:2703 feature

d. All above are correct.

47.

By entering the following configuration on the CME router:

CME_Voice(config)# ephone-dn 10 dual-line

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# number 1010

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# preference 0

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# huntstop channel

CME_Voice(config)# ephone-dn 11 dual-line

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# number 1010

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# huntstop

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)# preference 1

If ephone1 is assigned ephone-dn 10 and ephone 2 is assigned ephone-dn 11 , What can be the result?

a. Both ephone 1 and 2 will ring on an incoming call to 1010.

b. Only ephone 1 will ring on an incoming call to 1010; ephone 2 will only ring if ephone 1 is currently on a call.

c. Only ephone 1 will ring on an incoming call to 1010; ephone 2 will never ring, even if ephone 1 is on a call.

d. None of all is correct.

48.

Which of the given option is correct that how CME supports shared-line environments that allow multiple phones to receive calls on same DN simultaneously?

a. Using overlay configurations

b. Using shared-dn configurations

c. Using feature-ring configurations

d. All are true.

49.

The IP phone has no explicit ephone configuration in CME currently while a Cisco IP phone attempts on register with the CME router. What will the CME router so b default?

a. Register the phone but not create an ephone entry in the running-config

b. Register the phone, create an ephone entry, and auto-assign a DN

c. Reject the registration

d. Register the phone and create an ephone entry in the running-config

50.

Which of the following represents the minimum configurations necessary to apply the changes if a ephone 9 is updated to use DN 1010 on line 5?

a. The phone must be hard booted by performing a shutdown followed by a no shutdown on the connecting switch interface.

b. No additional configuration is necessary; the CME router updates the phone via SCCP.

c. The phone must be restarted using the restart command.

d. The phone must be restarted using the reset command.

51.

Which of the given below commands will change the default “Cisco Unified CME” title displayed on the bottom of all Cisco IP phones?

a. prompt

b. phone banner

c. system message

d. banner

e. All above are true

52.

What process must be followed to build the local phone directory for CME environment?

a. Assign directory entries under each ephone-dn using the directory command.

b. Assign directory entries under each ephone using the directory command.

c. CME automatically builds the directory when you assign caller-id information with the name command.

d. None of above is correct.

53.

A command call-forward max-length 0 from telephony service configuration mod, How does this will be affective for voice network?

a. Users can forward their phone for an unlimited amount of time.

b. The CFwdAll softkey on users’ IP phones dims and becomes unavailable.

c. Users can forward their phones to any destination that is reachable from their IP phone.

d. All above are correct.

54.

Which of the given below categories of standards prevents calls from hairpinning on the network when they are forwarded or transferred?

a. H.225

b. H.450

c. H.323

d. H.250

55.

Which of the given below transfer modes by default does a Cisco router support?

a. Full-consult

b. Blind

c. Consult

d. All are correct

56.

What will be the result when the command transfer-pattern 95…is entered from telephony service configuration mode?

a. Transferred calls have “95” added to the end of the dialed number information.

b. Users are now able to transfer calls to numbers matching the 95... pattern.

c. Transferred calls have “95” added to the front of the dialed number information.

d. Call transfers are restricted to only numbers matching the 95... pattern.

57.

What effect does this have on the voice environment if the following configuration is entered on CME router?

CME_Voice(config)#ephone-dn 51

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)#number 3002

CME_Voice(config-ephone-dn)#park-slot timeout 60 limit 10 recall

a. This creates a call park slot numbered 3002 that can have up to ten calls parked for 60 seconds each, at which point the original phone is recalled.

c. This creates a call park slot reserved for ephone-dn 3002 that can have up to ten parked calls for 60 seconds each.

d. This creates a call park slot numbered 3002 that can have up to ten parked calls for 60 seconds each.

58.

By default, what does pressing the PickUp softkey allow to do in a Cisco Unified CME environment?

a. Pick up a ringing phone in your group

b. Pick up a specific ringing extension (which you must specify)

c. Answer your own ringing phone

d. Pick up a ringing phone in another group

59.

After creating a new ephone-dn the command number A100 is entered and Enter key is pressed, What is the purpose of this command?

a. To designate extension 100 as an intercom line

b. To prevent the number from being dialed from an IP phone

c. To match the number with number B100 on the other side of the intercom connection

d. To list the line as the first intercom in the configuration

60.

What is the maximum number of paging groups which a Cisco IP phone can belong?

a. There is no practical limit.

b. 25

c. 1

d. 5

61.

Which process ca be used to exempt IP phone from an after-hours call block configured with 24/7 keyword?

a. Enter the correct PIN number.

b. An after-hours 24/7 call block cannot be exempted.

c. You must configure the user’s phone as exempt.

d. All above are correct.

62.

Which is the destination to which Cisco Unified CME can send CDRs?

a. Syslog server

b. TFTP server

c. HTTP server

d. All above are correct.

63.

Which area does Cisco Unified CME not allows to modify from the CME GUI, by defauly?

a. Ephone

b. The system message

c. Ephone-dn

d. All above are false.

64.

The Nyquist theorem reproduces what frequency range accurately?

a. 300–4000 Hz

b. 20–20,000 Hz

c. 200–9000 Hz

d. 300–3400 Hz

65.

In United States which forms of G.711 is used?

a. G.711a

b. G.711 μ-law

c. G.711ab

d. None of above is correct

66.

How much bandwidth consumes the audio payload of G.729a?

a. 6.3 kbps

b. 4.3 kbps

c. 16 kbps

d. 8 kbps

67.

How many bytes per packet transmit G.729 assuming a 20-ms sample size?

a. 40

b. 20

c. 120

d. 100

68.

What amount of data does the UDP, RTP, and IP header information add to each packet transmitted?

a. 20 bytes

b. 56 bytes

c. 40 bytes

d. 58 bytes

69.

VAD have which functions on the voice network

a. Significant bandwidth savings due to silence suppression

b. The creation of redundant voice paths over the PSTN

c. Permits additional, compressed calls over the IP WAN

d. All three options are correct.

70.

Which of the given below is high complexity codecs?

a. G.711 μ-law

b. G.729

c. G.729a

d. None is wrong

71.

With which of the given below interfaces would be equipped the router if a small office environment is needed to trunk to PSTN using analog connections?

a. FXS

b. E&M

c. FXS-DID

d. FXO

72.

Which of the following protocols can be used to configure a VoIP environment to allow for centralized control over all voice gatways?

a. H.323

b. SIP

c. SCCP

d. MGCP

73.

On what common standard SIP signaling is based?

a. IETF

b. HTTP

c. TCP

d. UDP

74.

Which of the given below types of interface would be used to connect an analog fax machine to the VoIP network

a. FXS

b. FXO

c. E&M

d. BRI

75.

Which of the given below commands would be used to configure a T1 line to use channels 1-6 to connect to the PSTN using FXO loop start signaling?

a. pri-group 1 timeslots 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

b. ds0-group 1 timeslots 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

c. pri-group 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

d. ds0-group 1-6 type fxo-loop-start

76.

What type of dial peer would you create, if a configuration is needed to dial peer to connect to a PBX system using a digital T1 CAS configuration?

a. Analog

b. POTS

c. VoIP

d. Digital

77.

Following configuration is entered on voice router: dial-peer voice 99 pots

destination-pattern 115.

port 1/0/0

What digits the router will send out the port 1/0/0 if the number 1159 is dialed?

a. 59

b. 115

c. 9

d. 1159

e. 11

78.

Which of the following default codec used by any VoIP dial peer?

a. G.723

b. G.711 μ-law

c. G.729

d. G.711 a-law

79.

To match any dialed number up to 32 digits in length, Which of the following destination patterns could be used?

a. .x

b. [0-32]

c. &

d. T

80.

After creation of a translation rule how it will be allpied?

a. To an interface

b. To a translation profile

c. Globally

d. Above all options are correct

81.

Under a VoIP dial peer which of the given below digit manipulation command will work?

a. digit-strip

b. forward-digits

c. prefix

d. translation-profile

82.

To match an inbound dial peer for incoming calls, A router uses what final method?

a. Using the answer-address command

b. Using the port command

c. Using dial peer 0

d. Using the destination-pattern command

83.

Which of the given below is not an area that can use OoS to manage?

a. Fixed delay

b. Packet jitter

c. Variable delay

d. Router queuing

83.

Which are the four Cisco Unity Express hardware platforms that are currently available?

a. NM-CUE1, NM-CUE2, NMW-CUE, and AIM-CUE

b. AIM-CUE, NM-CUE, NM-CUE-EC, and NME-CUE

c. CUE1, CUE2, CUE3, and CUE4

d. AIM-CUE, NM-CUE, CUE-EC, and NME-CUE-EC

84.

Which Cisco Unity Express module(s) is installed inside of a Cisco router?

a. The CUE2 and CUE4 modules

b. The AIM-CUE module

c. The NM-CUE and AIM-CUE modules

d. The NM-CUE module

85.

Which of the given below factor determines the maximum number of simultaneous sessions supported by Cisco Unity Express?

a. The installed license

b. The configuration

c. The weather

d. The hardware platform

86.

Which of the following factor determines the number of mailboxes supported by Cisco Unity Express?

a. The installed license

b. The configuration

c. The weather

d. None of above.

87.

On what operating system Cisco Unity Express runs?

a. Cisco IOS

b. Microsoft Windows Server 2003

c. A Linux-based operating system

d. Microsoft Windows Server 2000

88.

How we can access the messages in a GDM (General Delivery Mailbox) ?

a. By logging in to a subscriber mailbox that is associated with the GDM

b. By logging in to the GDM extension number via the GUI

c. By logging in to the GDM extension number via the telephony user interface (TUI)

d. A GDM is not accessed. All messages are forward to a distribution list.

89.

Which of the following is describing the difference between pin and password in Cisco Unity Express?

a. Nothing; they are two terms that mean the same thing.

b. A password provides VoIP authentication, whereas a PIN provides application authentication.

c. A password provides GUI authentication, whereas a PIN provides TUI authentication.

d. All above options are wrong.

90.

To alert a subscriber of a new message which of the following method can use message notification function?

a. Red light

b. Send an e-mail

c. Flashing envelope

d. All above are correct.

91.

What does integrated messaging provide?

a. Allows a subscriber’s e-mail and voice-mail to be delivered to the same e-mail account

b. Allows a subscriber to access both voice-mail and e-mail content from a single MAPI-capable server

c. Allows a subscriber to access both voice-mail and e-mail content from a single MAPI-capable e-mail client

d. All above are correct.

92.

Which of the following are default auto attendant (AA) greetings/prompts.

a. Business closed prompt

b. Alternate greeting

c. Emergency prompt

d. The weather

93.

How the AA prompts are recorded/re-recorded?

a. Using the administrator’s mailbox

b. Using a subscriber’s mailbox

c. Using the administrator via telephone feature

d. Using the administrator GUI home page

94.

To run at 2 a.m. How Cisco Unity Express backup will be configured?

a. Set the backup schedule to begin the backup process at 2 a.m.

c. The administrator must click the Start Backup button at 2 a.m.

d. Because 2 a.m. is generally outside of normal business hours, a backup cannot be scheduled for this time.

95.

How to keep configuration information synchronized between Cisco Unity Express and Cisco Unified CME?

a. Use the synchronize feature in the CME CLI.

b. Synchronization requires a reboot of both CME and Cisco Unity Express.

c. CME and Cisco Unity Express both operate under the same operating system, so they cannot lose synchronization.

d. Use the synchronize feature in the Cisco Unity Express GUI.

96.

How to make a connection to the Cisco Unity Express CLI?

a. Issue the service-module service-engine module/port session command from within Cisco Unified CME

b. Issue the cue module/port session command from within Cisco Unified CME

c. Telnet to the IP address of Cisco Unity Express

d. Connect a console cable to the console port of Cisco Unity Express

97.

What type of server Cisco Unity Express requires to download software?

a. HTTP server

b. FTP server

c. Web server

d. TFTP server

98.

When software downloads upgrade command be used?

a. When performing either a fresh install or an upgrade from Cisco Unity Express version 1.x and higher.

b. When performing an upgrade from Cisco Unity Express version 2.3.4 only.

c. Never; Cisco Unity Express does not currently support upgrades.

d. Only when performing an upgrade from Cisco Unity Express version 1.x and higher.

99.

Cisco Unity Express licenses enables which of the following features?

a. Number of recording hours supported

b. Number of subscriber mailboxes supported

c. Number of concurrent system ports

d. Number of languages supported

100.

Which of the given below is not configured by the Cisco Unity Express post installation configuration tool?

a. Cisco Unity Express’s DNS

b. Cisco Unity Express’s hostname

c. Cisco Unity Express’s IP address

d. Cisco Unity Express’s NTP

e. Cisco Unity Express’s time zone

f. Cisco Unity Express’s administrative credentials

I hope these MCQs will help you :) :)

CCNA & CCNP MCQs

I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine" Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing. You may start:

200 - 300 of 300 MCQs

I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine" Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing. You may start:

101 - 200 of 300 MCQs

CCNA VOICE (Official Exam Certification Guide)

I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine"
Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing.
You may start:

I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine"
Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing.
You may start: