CCNA V.4 Networking Academy

CCNA Exploration 4 - Module 5 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T17:20:00.000-08:00

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
& blocked in and out of all interfaces
& blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
& permitted in and out of all interfaces
& blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
& packet size
& protocol suite
& source address
& destination address
& source router interface
& destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
& by destination UDP port
& by protocol type
& by source IP address
& by source UDP port
& by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
& Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
& Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
& Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
& Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
& Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
& close to the source
& close to the destination
& on an Ethernet port
& on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
& An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
& A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
& A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
& A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
& Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
& Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
& The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
& The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
& The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
& The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
& The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
& FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
& All traffic is implicitly denied.
& FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
& Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
& Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
& The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
& Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
& The network administrator receives an error.
& Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
& server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
& ISP Fa0/0 outbound
& R2 S0/0/1 inbound
& R3 Fa0/0 inbound
& R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
& Only named ACLs allow comments.
& Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
& Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
& Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
& More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
& extended ACL
& reflexive ACL
& console logging
& authentication
& Telnet connectivity
& user account with a privilege level of 15

13.

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
& It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
& It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
& It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
& It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
& company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
& What type of ACL is most appropriate?
& dynamic
& port-based
& reflexive
& time-based

15.

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
& TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
& TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
& Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
& Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
& The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
& The access list statements are misconfigured.
& All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
& No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
& Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
& The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
& The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
& The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
& Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
& Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
& Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
& Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
& Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
& They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
& They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
& When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
& Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
& Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
& Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
& In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
& the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
& the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
& the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
& the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
& address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
& 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
& 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
& 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
& 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
& 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
& Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
& The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
& The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
& A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
& A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
& It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
& It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
& It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
& It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
& Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
& Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
& Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
& Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
& The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
& The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
& The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
& The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

CCNA Exploration 4 - Module 2 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T17:13:00.000-08:00

1. Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)
• uses only PVCs
• is useful for video transfers
• has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
• cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
• mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection

2. Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.)
• Each packet carries an identifier.
• Each packet carries full addressing information.
• Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.
• Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
• The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit.

3. A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?
• ATM
• X.25
• Frame Relay
• Leased lines

4. Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?
• ISDN
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU

5. A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• X.25
• analog dialup

6. Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN technology?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
• to determine the WAN topology
• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

7. On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?
• IP
• PPP
• HDLC
• SLIP
• HSSI
• CSU

8. A company only requires a WAN connection to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. They estimate they will never need a connection faster than 56 kbps. Which type of connection is best for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN
• analog dialup
• T1 Leased Line

9. Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)
• DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
• DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
• DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
• DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
• For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
• DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong security.

10. Which of the following are disadvantages of circuit-switched networks? (Choose two.)
• Data is subject to unpredictable delays while it waits for other subscribers to transmit data.
• The connection capacity is used inefficiently due to irregular traffic bursts.
• Data delivery is less reliable because only connectionless delivery methods are used.
• Circuit-switched networks are more expensive for data traffic.
• Circuit-switched networks are less expensive for 24/7 data traffic.

11. Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
• to determine the WAN topology
• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

12. Which of the following is true of WANs?
• Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency and jitter than dedicated lines.
• ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
• The more network devices that data has to pass
• WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.

13. A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?
• a mesh network of all branch WANs
• a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
• a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
• a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN

14. Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?
• Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.
• Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
• WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
• WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.

15. A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem
• 56 kbps

16. Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service provider?
• CPE
• CO
• local loop
• DCE
• DTE

17. Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for large businesses?
• BRI
• PRI
• DLCI
• PSTN
• POTS

CCNA Exploration 4 - Module 1 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T17:11:00.000-08:00

1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)
• Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer
• Network Layer
• Transport Layer
• Presentation Layer
• Application Layer

2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)
• ATM switches
• core routers
• CSU/DSU
• Ethernet switches
• Frame Relay switches
• repeaters

3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?
• core router
• access server
• Frame Relay switch
• ATM switch

4. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?
• Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
• metro Ethernet
• Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
• Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
• CIR
• DLCI
• DSLAM
• PVC
• SPID
• 53-byte cells

6. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
• ATM
• ISDN
• Frame Relay
• metro Ethernet

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)
• low cost
• availability
• traffic encryption
• available bandwidth
• support for voice and video

8. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)
• DLCI
• circuit switching
• packet switching
• data bearer channels
• switched virtual circuits
• time-division multiplexing

9. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?
• smaller cells
• number of subscribers
• committed information rate
• distance from the central office of the provider

10. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?
• PVCs
• DLCIs
• tunnels
• virtual circuits
• dedicated Layer 2 links

11. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN
• analog dialup
• T1 Leased Line

12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?
• CSU/DSU
• Frame Relay switch
• ISDN switch
• modem
• PBX switch

13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• DTE
• DCE
• BRI
• PRI

14. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• dedicated switched lines
• frame-switched
• packet-switched

15. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI

16. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN switch
• Ethernet switch

17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
• The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.
• Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.
• Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.
• The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policy-based connectivity.
• The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

18. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?
• Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.
• The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."
• The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.
• Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.

19. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?
• WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.
• A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.
• A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.
• All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.

20. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?
• Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.
• It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.
• A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.
• Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

21. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?
• ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.
• Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
• The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.
• ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuit-switched technology.

22. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?
• Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.
• Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
• Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
• Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.

CCNA Exploration 3 : LAN Switching and Wireless

2008-12-14T17:07:00.000-08:00

Cisco Networking Academy
CCNA Exploration 3 : LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

A Complete Learning Program

The Cisco Networking Academy Program provides skills students need to work in IT fields. The program offers Web-based content, online assessment, hand-on labs, instructor training, and preparation for industry certifications

CCNA Exploration 3 - FINAL Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T17:03:00.000-08:00

1.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch?
& Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
   Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
   Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
   Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
& Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
   Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
   Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
   Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
& Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
   Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
   Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
   Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
& Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
   Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
   Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
   Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
& Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
   Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
   Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
   Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
& 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
& 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
& 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. & 802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
& All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
& Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
& Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
& The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
& SSID
& OFDM
& WEP
& DSSS

5.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
& SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
& SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
& SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
& SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
& QoS
& routing
& trunking
& VPN

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
& S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
& S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
& S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
& S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
& S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
& This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
& This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
& This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
& This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
& This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
& S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
& R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
& The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
& Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
& Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
& Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
& Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
& Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
& Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
& Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
& Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
& Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
& A new RSA key pair is created.
& The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
& The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
& The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
& forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
& add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
& forward the frame out Interface3
& discard the frame
& forward the frame out all interfaces
& forward the frame out Interface2

14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
& It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
& It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
& It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
& It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
& It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
& 192.168.1.11 /28
& 192.168.1.22 /28
& 192.168.1.33 /28
& 192.168.1.44 /28
& 192.168.1.55 /28

16.

Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
& SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
& SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
& SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
& SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
& A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
& A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
& An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
& An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
& A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
& A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
& computer B
& computer B and Router1
& computer C and Router1
& computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
& computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
& computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

19.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
& The SSH version number is wrong.
& SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
& Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
& The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
& Cat-A
& Cat-B
& Cat-C
& Cat-D

21.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
& VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
& VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
& VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
& VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22.

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
& The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
& Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
& This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
& The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
& When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
& requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
& requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
& more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
& requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
& can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
& makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
& The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
& The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
& The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
& The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
& The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
& The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
& S1-Central# reload
& S1-Central# erase flash:
& S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
& S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
& S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26.
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
& The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
& The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
& The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
& The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

27.
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
& Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
& Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
& Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
& Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
& reduced contention for bandwidth
& reduced size of the physical layout
& increased fault tolerance of the network
& elimination of the need for wiring closets
& elimination of the need for layer three functionality
& simplification of management and troubleshooting

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
& Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
& A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
& The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
& A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
& Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
& An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
& All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
& SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
& VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
& The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
& AS1 and AS2
& DS1 and DS2
& Gateway and CS1
& Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2

32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
& Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
& Enable password is configured as cisco.
& All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
& The flash directory contains the IOS image.
& VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
& All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
& After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
& Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
& The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
& Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
& If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

34.

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
& The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
& The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
& The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
& The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
& Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
& Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
& Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
& Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
& Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
& Select the correct VTP mode and version.
& Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
& Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
& Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
& Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
& Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.

37.

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
& only hosts A and B
& only hosts A, B, and C
& only hosts A, B, C, and D
& only hosts A, B, C, and E

38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?
& The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
& The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
& The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
& To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

39.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
& This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
& A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
& Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
& Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
& The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40.

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
& The switch ports are on different VLANs.
& The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
& The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
& A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
& The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
& The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41.

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
& switch A
& switch B
& switch C
& switch D
& switch E
& switch F

42.

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
& hub HB1
& switch SW1
& router R1
& switch SW2
& router R2
& switch SW4

43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
& The network diameter limitation is 9.
& BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
& The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
& The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
& Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
& Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
& No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
& One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
& disable port security
& make the port operational
& override the default port behavior
& force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?
& Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
& The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
& A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
& Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs

47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
& AID
& SSID
& BSSID
& ESSID

48.

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
& A syslog message will be logged.
& Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
& The incoming frames will be dropped.
& The security violation count will be incremented.

49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
& client
& root
& server
& transparent

50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
& Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
& Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
& From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
& Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
& Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
& The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
& The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
& The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
& Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
& requires less equipment
& provides improved range
& permits increased data rates
& has a single-input and a single-output
& needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 7 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T17:01:00.000-08:00

1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
• 802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
• The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
• 802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
• 802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
• 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
• 802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
• Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
• The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
• 802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
• A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
• set up WEP on the access point only
• set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
• set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
• set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel

5. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
• MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
• Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
• Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.
• Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
• Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

6. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?
• This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
• The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
• Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
• Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.

7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)
• gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
• built-in Ethernet switch
• network management station
• VTP server
• wireless access point
• VPN concentrator

8. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?
• CSMA/CD
• token passing
• CSMA/CA
• polling

9. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11g
• 802.11n

11. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.
• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

12. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis

13. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?
• authentication
• SSID broadcasting
• MAC address filtering
• EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
• Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

14. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
• beacon
• password
• probe request
• association request

15. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?
• to keep users segregated on separate subnets
• to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized
• to keep signals from interfering with each other
• to keep traffic secure

16. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?
• converts clear text data before transmission
• indicates which channel the data should flow on
• determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
• allows the host to choose which channel to use

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?
• Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.
• Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.
• All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.
• All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
• Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.
• Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.
• Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.
• Disable SSID broadcasts.

19. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
• dynamically assigns an IP address to the host
• provides local DHCP services
• converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
• provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

20. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?
• bandwidth saturation
• privacy concerns
• media contention
• device interoperability

21. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?
• association response
• beacon
• key
• probe request

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 6 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:54:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

& This design will not scale easily.
& The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
& This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
& This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
& This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
& If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
& Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
& Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
& Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
& Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?

& R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
& S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
& S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
& S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?

& The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
& The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
& The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
& The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet. The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
& Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
& Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
& Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
& Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

6. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
& When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.
& When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.
& When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.
& When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

7. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
& subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
& more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
& fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
& simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
& less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

8. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
& one subinterface per VLAN
& one physical interface for each subinterface
& one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
& one trunked link per VLAN
& a management domain for each subinterface
& a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

& Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
& Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
& Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
& Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
& Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
& Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

& R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.
& R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
& Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
& The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?

& PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
& The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
& An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
& The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

& PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
& The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
& The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
& The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

13. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?
& Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.
& Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
& Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
& Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

14. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
& The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
& The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
& The command configures a subinterface.
& The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
& Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

& The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
& Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
& A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.
& Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
& Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?
& Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
& Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
& Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.
& Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

& Port 0/4 is not active.
& Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
& Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
& Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

18. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
& The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
& The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
& The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
& The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

19. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
& a network with high traffic requirements
& a network with a limited number of VLANs
& a network with experienced support personnel
& a network using a router with one LAN interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other. Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other. Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs. Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?

& The router interface is shut down.
& The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
& All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
& The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
& The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 5 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:51:00.000-08:00

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
• The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
• Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
• All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
• Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
• Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to negotiate a trunk between switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
• immediately loses its edge status
• inhibits the generation of a TCN
• goes immediately to a learning state
• disables itself
• becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?

• Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
• Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
• PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
• PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
• PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
• Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
• If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?

• Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?

• Spanning tree blocks Gi 0/1 on S3.
• • Gi 0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
• Port priority makes Gi 0/2 on S1 a root port.
• S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
• the max-age timer
• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• Learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
• RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
• Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
• Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
• Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
• Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
• STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
• STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
• STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
• STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?

Two hosts communicating between ports Fa 0/2 and Fa 0/4 have a cost of 38.
• The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
• STP is disabled on this switch.
• The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location
• memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• Shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• alternate
• backup
• Designated
• root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
• bridge priority
• MAC address
• protocol
• VLAN ID

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 4 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:47:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the exhibit. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem?
• The switches must be interconnected via access link.
• Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
• Both switches must be configured as VTP clients.
• Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.
• The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own
• VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

4. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
• Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
• Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to Switch2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After Switch2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What is the quickest way to solve the problem?
• Reset the revision number on Switch2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
• Change Switch1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat, and then change back to server mode.
• Change Switch2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically repopulate.
• Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they repropagate throughout the network.

6. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

7. Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
• can add VLANs of local significance only
• can only adopt VLAN management changes
• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
• can add VLANs to domain
• cannot add VLANs

8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain.
• VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain.
• VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
• All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
• Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
• SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.
• Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
• It verifies the configured VTP password.
• It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
• It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
• It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process?
• VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-eligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-ineligible VLANs.
• VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process the flood traffic.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
• revision number
• domain name
• pruning
• mode
• domain password
• version number

15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab Network?
• The switch operates as a VTP client.
• switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
• The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
• The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be?
• S2 loses all VLANs until the cable is reconnected.
• S2 automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode.
• S2 does not send a VTP request advertisement unless it is reloaded.
• S2 automatically sends a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
• Switches must be connected via trunks.
• The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
• Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
• The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
• Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 3 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:46:00.000-08:00

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• 802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
• VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
• VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
• VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
• VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
• VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
• VLAN1 should renamed.
• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
• Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
• A
• A, B
• A, B, D, G
• A, D, F
• C, E
• C, E, F

6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
• The VLANs may be named.
• VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
• Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
• The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
• Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
• The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
• The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
• Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
• The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
• The ports default back to the management VLAN.
• The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
• The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
• VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
• VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
• DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
• The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.
• The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
• A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
• The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
• By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
• A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
• Disable DTP.
• Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
• Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
• VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
• The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
• Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• There is a native VLAN mismatch.
• The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
• The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
• VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
• The default native VLAN is being used.
• The trunking mode is set to auto.
• Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
• VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?
• Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
• Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
• Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
• Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

• 17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
• none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
• computer A, computer B, computer C
• computer A, computer D, computer G
• computer B, computer C
• computer D, computer G
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
• Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
• A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
• Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
• Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)
• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
• 802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated.

20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
• dynamic desirable mode
• on or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
• The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.
• The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
• PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
• A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
• Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 2 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:44:00.000-08:00

1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
• SW1 drops the frame.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
• SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

4. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
• The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
• The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
• The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 6
• 7
• 8

7. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
• Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
• Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
• Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
• Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

8. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
• user EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• global configuration mode
• interface configuration mode

9. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ?
• to the last parameter
• append a space and then ? to the last parameter
• use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.
• use the Tab key to show which options are available

10. Where is the startup configuration stored?
• DRAM
• NVRAM
• ROM
• startup-config.text

11. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?
• Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
• Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
• Switch1(config-line)# login

12. to secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?
• incorrect vty lines configured
• incompatible Secure Shell version
• incorrect default gateway address
• vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
• The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
• The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
• The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
• The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
• The enable password is encrypted by default.
• An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
• Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
• This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

15. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
• The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
• The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
• The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
• The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
• Enable CDP on the switch.
• Change passwords regularly.
• Turn off unnecessary services.
• Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
• Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
• The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
• Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
• The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
• After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
• If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
• Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

20. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
• The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
• Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
• A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
• The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the server. What two statements about latency are true? (Choose two.)
• Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency.
• Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay.
• Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path.
• The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency.
• The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for the propagation delay.
• Because optimized routing algorithms are faster than switching algorithms, routers R1 and R2 are expected to add less latency than switches SW1 and SW2.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
• hosts A and B
• hosts D and E
• hosts A, B, and C
• hosts A, B, C, D, and E
• hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 1 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:42:00.000-08:00

1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
• forwarding rate
• traffic flow analysis
• expected future growth
• number of required core connections
• number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
• Layer 1
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5

3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
• Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
• The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
• A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
• QoS issues are greatly reduced.
• There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
• port security
• security policies
• 10 Gigabit Ethernet
• quality of service (QoS)
• hot-swappable hardware
• Power over Ethernet (PoE)

6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• security policies
• Power over Ethernet
• switch port security
• quality of service
• Layer 3 functionality
• end user access to network

7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)
• Power over Ethernet
• load balancing across redundant trunk links
• redundant components
• Quality of Service
• link aggregation

8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
• low port density
• high forwarding rate
• high latency level
• support link aggregation
• predefined number of ports

9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
• core only
• distribution and core
• access and distribution
• access, distribution, and core

10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
• Power over Ethernet
• quality of service
• switch port security
• inter-VLAN routing

11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
• core layer
• distribution layer
• access layer
• entry layer

13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4

14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
• scalability
• security
• redundancy
• maintainability

15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
• access layer
• core layer
• data-link layer
• distribution layer
• network layer
• physical layer

16. What statement best describes a modular switch?
• a slim-line chassis
• allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
• defined physical characteristics
• flexible characteristics

17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
• StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
• StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.
• StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.
• StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
• PoE
• redundancy
• aggregation
• access lists

19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
• convergence
• redundant links
• link aggregation
• network diameter

20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of • • policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
• Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
• Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
• Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
• Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

CCNA Exploration 2 : Routing Protocols and Concepts

2008-12-14T16:40:00.000-08:00

Cisco Networking Academy
CCNA Exploration 2 : Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)

CCNA Exploration 2 - FINAL Exam (C) Version 4.0

2008-12-14T16:36:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
• from R1 to 172.16.1.1
• from R1 to 192.168.3.1
• from R2 to 192.168.1.1
• from R2 to 192.168.3.1
• from R3 to 192.168.1.1

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
• It will append the update information to the routing table.
• It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
• It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
• It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
• They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
• They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
• They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
• They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
• They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIPv1
• RIPv2

5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
• It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
• It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
• It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
• It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
• It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
• The command was run on the router.
• ABCD is a non-CISCO device.
• Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
• ABCD supports routing capability.
• ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
• R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
• The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
• The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
• R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
• Router A will send the data via the A-D-E path that is listed in the routing table.
• Router A will load-balance the traffic between A-B-E and A-C-E.
• Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
• Router A will send the data through A-D-E and keep A-B-E and A-C-E as the backup paths.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command?
• Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
• This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
• Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
• The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
• the IP address of the server
• the default gateway of host A
• the IP address of host A
• the default gateway of the server

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
• FastEthernet 0/0
• FastEthernet 0/1
• Serial 0/0/0
• Serial 0/0/1

13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
• updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
• updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
• updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
• updates for 172.16.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
• R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
• The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
• The maximum path number has been exceeded.

15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
• ROM, TFTP server, flash
• flash, TFTP server, RAM
• flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
• ROM, flash, TFTP server

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
• Router1
• Router2
• Router3
• Router4

17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
• route poisoning
• split horizon
• hold-down timer
• triggered updates

18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
• It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
• It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
• It is the hold-down time, measured in seconds, before the next update.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
• There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
• The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
• The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
• a CSU/DSU device
• a modem
• an Ethernet switch
• a hub
• a bridge

21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
• the Cisco123 password only
• the Cisco789 password only
• the Cisco001 password only
• the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
• the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
• This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
• The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
• A static route is established.
• The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
• It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
• It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
• It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
• It will drop the packet.

25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
• They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
• They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
• They use only a hop count metric.
• They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.

26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 6

27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
• It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
• It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
• It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
• It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
• It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
• The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
• All routes are stable.
• The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
• The serial interface between the two routers is down.
• Each route has one feasible successor.

30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
• The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.

31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
   A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
   B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
   B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
   A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
   B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
• the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1
• the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
• the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1
• the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2

33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
• There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
• The serial interface between the two routers is down.
• A default route is not configured on R1.
• The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
• The router is using RIPv2.
• The router is not forwarding routing updates.
• The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
• The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
• It will travel via A, B, and C.
• It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
• It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
• The traffic will be load-balanced on all paths.

36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
• Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
• Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.
• Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
• Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.
• Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
• the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1
• the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
• the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
• the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
• If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
• If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths.
• If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
• If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.

39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
• Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
• Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
• Check the process ID of both routers.
• Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
• R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
• Automatic summarization is disabled.
• The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
• A classful routing protocol is being used.

41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
• the same process ID
• the same area ID
• network addresses and wildcard masks
• the same router ID
• the same loop back address

44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
• 192.168.135.1
• 192.168.142.1
• 192.168.144.1
• 192.168.128.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
• the first path that the router learned.
• only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
• the last path that the router learned.
• all four paths.

46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• It connects multiple IP networks.
• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It determines the best path to send packets.
• It manages the VLAN database.
• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
• A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
• The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
• The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.
• The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
• Switch the cable with a known working cable.
• Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
• Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
• Set the encapsulation for the interface.

49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
   R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
   R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
   R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
   R2(config)# router ospf 2
   R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
   R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
   R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
   R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
   R2(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
• A static route will be updated in the routing table.
• The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
• The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
• The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
• All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
• The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
• R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
• R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
• The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
• Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

54. Which two situations require the use of a link-state protocol? (Choose two.)
• Fast convergence of the network is critical.
• The network is very large.
• The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network.
• The capacity of the router is low.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
• EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
• The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
• The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
• Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
• An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
• No static route is configured on Router2.
• A routing loop has occurred.
• No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.4.0/22
• 172.16.4.0/23
• 172.16.4.0/24

CCNA Exploration 2 - FINAL Exam (B) Version 4.0

2008-12-14T16:33:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
• permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network

3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork
assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for
Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. • The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from forwarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be
discarded
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that
are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that
route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others
in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send
packets out multiple exit interfaces.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM - loads the bootstrap
• RAM - stores the operating system
• Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM - stores the configuration file
• ROM - stores the backup configuration file
• POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command.
How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
   A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
   B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
   B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
   A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
   B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
   A(config)# no router rip

42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• modem
• hub

43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router
commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route
to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next
step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency?Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
• learn about directly connected networks
• send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
• choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
• flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states

CCNA Exploration 2 - FINAL Exam (A) Version 4.0

2008-12-14T16:32:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
• The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
• Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
• Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.

9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• Modem
• hub

17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
   A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
   B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
   B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
   A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
   B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
• All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 11 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:28:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
• an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
• 1786

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
• area id
• hello interval
• network type

4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• designated router
• backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth

6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
• Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
• B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
• R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
• The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
• The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
• B(config)# router ospf 1B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
• 6

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
• 110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
• A(config)# interface fa0/0
   A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
   D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• 1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
• nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
• A FULL adjacency is formed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
• DR for network 192.168.1.200
• BDR for network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
• OSPF hello or dead timers do not match

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
   RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
   RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
• Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
• Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
• hello packets

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 10 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:27:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
• whenever the network topology changes
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
• SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighborsall routers in the area have identical link state databases.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
• cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
• Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
• link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
• IS-IS
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
• when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
• OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
• floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
• B and C

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 9 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:25:00.000-08:00

1. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
• put the route into passive mode
• query neighbors for a new route
• search routing table for a feasible successor
• run the SPF algorithm to find a new successor
• search topology table for a feasible successor

2. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to
enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
• R1(config-router)# auto-summary
• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

3. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between
hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful.
However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the
most likely cause of this problem?
• IP classless is enabled and is causing the packet to drop.
• The command network 192.168.1.32 was not issued on router C.
• The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.
• Automatic summarization of the networks is causing the subnetted routes to be dropped.

4. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
• the routing protocol
• the feasible distance of the route
• the highest cost of the route
• the SRTT value for the route
• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
• the physical address of the gateway interface

5. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
• routing table
• neighbor table
• topology table
• adjacency table

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
• the route is in a stable state
• the route is a preferred route
• DUAL is searching for a better route to this destination
• the exit interface is in passive mode and EIGRP advertisements are blocked

7. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
• specifies the administrative distance for all EIGRP routes
• identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise
• determines what metric is added to all advertised routes
• indicates the number of addresses in the EIGRP routing domain

8. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
• the route metric that is applied to those EIGRP routes for this router
• the trustworthiness of the routing information source
• the composite of the hop count and bandwidth to that destination network
• the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

9. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
• EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.
• EIGRP is classified as a link-state routing protocol.
• EIGRP uses TCP for reliable delivery of EIGRP update packets.
• With EIGRP, loop-free paths are achieved through the use of hold-down timers.
• EIGRP sends a periodic update every 30 minutes.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

11. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

12. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source
external to the autonomous system?
• 1
• 5
• 70
• 90
• 170
• 190

13. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination?
(Choose two.)
• routing
• topology
• neighbor
• path
• shortest path

14. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
• routes learned from other routing protocols
• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
• all passive routes in the routing table

15. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a
common routing policy to the Internet?
• autonomous system
• contiguous networks
• process ID
• BGP

16. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are c
on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
• A route to network 198.18.1.0/24 is not listed in the routing table.
• Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
• EIGRP will perform equal cost load balancing across two paths when forwarding packets to 198.18

17. The router with interface 172.16.3.2 is a successor for network 198.18.1.0/24.
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the example
Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what
packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• A,B,E
• A,C,E
• A,D,E
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,C,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,D,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,C,E and A,D,E paths.

18. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
• MTU
• load
• delay
• bandwidth
• reliability

19. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

20. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor
route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the
primary route to this network fails?
• The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network 192.168.1.0/24.
• The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup route.
• Packets that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway instead.
• The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with
adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
• The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
• Automatic summarization was disabled.
• The hello timer for R1 was altered.
• The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
• No feasible successors were found.

22. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not
forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
• one router is a non-cisco router
• they have different autonomous-system numbers
• they are using difference sequence numbers
• they are sending incorrect hello types

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32
network on router A?
• network 192.168.1.0
• network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.7
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.255

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 8 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:24:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
• The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
• The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
• A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
• All of the routes listed are network routes.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
• searches for a default route to forward the packet
• drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
• performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
• sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network

3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/16
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.0.0/30
• 172.16.1.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
• R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a level 1 parent route
• a level 1 supernet route
• a level 1 ultimate network route
• a level 2 child route
• a level 2 ultimate child route

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
• issue the ip default-network command
• use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
• enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
• issue the ip classless command
• do nothing, ip classless is on by default

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
• drop the packet
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
• use the default route

7. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8

8. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
• drop the packet
• send packet out Serial 0/0/1
• send packet to network 0.0.0.0
• send packet out FastEthernet 0/0

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
• EIGRP is being used
• There is at least one parent and one child route
• 192.168.2.0, 192.168.3.0, and 192.168.4.0 networks are child routes
• Traffic going to 172.16.3.0 will be directed to s 0/0/1

10. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
• they are dropped
• sent to default gateway
• forward out interface Serial0/0/1
• forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
• ip classless
• A router has the following entries in its routing table:
• S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
• O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
• D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
• R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1

12. The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
• router use to forward the packet?
• the static route
• the OSPF route
• the EIGRP route
• the RIP route

13.What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
• Child routes are present in the routing table.
• A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
• The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
• Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
• Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.

14. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
• The router will only support classful IP addressing.
• The router will only support classful routing protocols.
• The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
• The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child
• routes for a better match.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
• 172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
• 0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
• 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
• 172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask

16. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
• the route with the smallest AD
• the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
• the route with the highest bandwidth
• the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost

17. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• EIGRP
• OSPF

19. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
• metric
• route prefix
• update timer
• administrative distance

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 7 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:23:00.000-08:00

1. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/12
• 192.168.0.0/16

2. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
• Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
• The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
• RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
• RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

6. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
• router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
• propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
• The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
• 15 hops
|
10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
• determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
• A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

12. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
• Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
• Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
• They both use hop count as a metric.
• They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
• They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
• Configure RIPv2 on routers.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
• Subnet mask

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
• Router2(config-router)# version 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
• Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
• The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
• Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

21. When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
• RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 6 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:20:00.000-08:00

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• reduced routing table size
• reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
• 192.168.4.15/29

3. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
• 84

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• 32-bit address
• Subnet mask

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
• 255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
• OSPF
• RIP v2
• EIGRP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
• the shortage of IP addresses

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
• The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
• 255.255.255.224 for Sales
• 255.255.255.240 for QA

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
• 192.168.0.0/21

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
• /27

13. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
• 192.168.2.130/25

14. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
• 24

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
• 29

16. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
• 192.1.1.224/28

17. What is a supernet?
• a summarization of classful addresses

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
• The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
• 192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
• CIDR

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 5 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:18:00.000-08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
• Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0

2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
• 3

3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
• RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
• 155 seconds

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
• uses hop count as a metric
• considers a metric of 16 as infinity
• calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
• RouterB(config)# router rip
   RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
   RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
   RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
• 30

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
• The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
• routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
• All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
• It is a distance vector routing protocol.
• The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
• RouterB(config)# no router rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
• R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
• R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip

16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
• There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
• 10.0.0.0/8

18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
• RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
• All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
• only the gateway router

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 4 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:15:00.000-08:00

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
• a route is installed in the routing table

2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
• They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
• instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
• updates are broadcast at regular intervals
• broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
• will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
• EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

7. Which statement is true regarding cisco's RIP_JITTER variable?
• It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
• Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB

9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
• Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
• route poisoning

11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
• limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
• routing loops
• inconsistent traffic forwarding
• inconsistent routing table entries

13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
• The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
• EIGRP updates are partial.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
• The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
• RIPv1
• EIGRP
• RIPv2

17. What is a routing loop?
• a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
• inconsistent routing tables
• incorrectly configured static routes

19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
• 16

20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
• adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
• 3

CCNA Exploration 2 - Module 3 Exam V. 4.0

2008-12-14T16:10:00.000-08:00

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
• R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• sends subnet mask information in routing updates
• allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
• show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
• EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
• the network is using a hub and spoke topology
• the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
• hey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
• OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
• increased security
• the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
• The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
• A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
• The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
• The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
• The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
• OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
• 3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
• The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.