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Based on candidate experienceIBPS Clerk Latest Exam paper -27 november and 04 december 2011

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Tue, 06 Dec 2011 05:53:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

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IBPS CLERK Exam on 04 December 2011-Exam Paper

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Here are some of the Question asked in General Awareness Section of IBPS Clerk exam on the 04th Decemeber 2011.

Prime Minister of Singapore – Lee Hsien Loong

President of Srilanka – Mahinda Rajapaksa

CRR & SLR – Cash Reserve Ration (6%) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (24%)

LAF – Liqudity Adjustment Facility.

Clean Bowled Associated with – Cricket

Who is the newly Honary lt. of Territorial Army – Abhnav bindra

What is Repo? – 7.5 Basis point

Who can deal in foreign exchanges

Foreign Minister of Pakistan – Hina Rabbani Khar

Who governs International Monetary Fund – Christine Lagarde

Which is not a Bank? -SEBI

Who preside Rajya Sabha – Vice President

Lalkrishna Advani – Member of Loksabha

Foreign minister of China – Yang Jiechi

Who is president of Italy? – Giorgio Napolitano

Largest producer of Rice? In World China, In India Andhra Pradesh

Largest producer of Jute? – India, West Bengal

India gave financial aid to which of its neighbour? – Burma

Headquarter of IAEA? – Vienna, Austria

Wimbledon related to which game? – Tennis

Who represented India in general assembly of United Nations? – Permanent Representative Hardeep Singh Puri

Bank can borrow overnight from RBI is called?

Who can not open a current account? – A Minor

Who can cancel demand draft? – Issuer Bank

Which is not the function of bank? – Postal money order

Which country was affected badly by economic crisis? – Greece / USA

Sodium chloride used daily – table salt

Author of book last man in tower – Arvind Adiga

How was prime minister when nationalization of bank toke place – Indira Ghandi

Largest Milk producing country – India

Highest population country – China

New country just formed – South Sudan

Railway Minister – Dinesh Trivedi

Currency of Iran – Dinar

NBFC – Non Banking Financial Companies

AQB – Average Quarterly Balance

FEMA – Foreign Exchange Management Act

CDSL – Central Depository Services (India) Limited

What does R stands for in MGNREGA? – Rural (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Gurantee Act)

Chief minister of West bengal – Mamata Banerjee

When the banks were nationalised who was the prime minister of india? – Indira Gandhi

What is overdraft? – A deficit in a bank account caused by drawing more money than the account holds.

BRICS – Brazil, Russia, India,China and South Africa

If a loan stops earning income then it is called? – Bad Loan

Who was the president of Nepal prior to Dr. Ram Baran Yadav? – Girija Prasad Koirala

Vishav Khad Divas – 26 Oct

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IBPS CLERK Exam on 27 November 2011-Exam Paper

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1. What is Repo Rate?

(a) It is the rate at which RBI gives loans to its prime customers.

(b) It is the rate at which RBI gives loans to poor people.

(d) It is the rate at which RBI borrows rupees from Commercial banks.

(e) None of these.

2. N Rangaswamy is the new CM of Puducherry, he actually belongs to which party?

(a) BSP

(b) BJP

(d) AIADMK

(e) UDF

3. Who is Union Agriculture Minister at present?

(a) Rajiv Kumar Shukla.

(b) Sharad Pawar

(d) Shashi Tharor

(e) None of these

4. Define KYC in banking sector.

(a) Know Your Customer.

(b) Know Your Consumer.

(d) Knew Your Customer.

(e) None of these.

5. Which is the Central Bank to the Government in India?

(a) SBI

(b) RBI

(d) SEBI

(e) None of these.

6. NPA stands for :

(a) Non Performing Asset.

(b) Non Performing Adopt.

(d) Non Performal Asset.

(e) None of these.

7. Financial Inclusion means

(a) Including every Indian citizen financially.

(b) Providing banking services to metropolitan areas.

(d) Special scheme for government employees.

(e) None of these

8. India recently with which country sign land border dispute agreement.

(a) Nepal

(b) Bangladesh

(d) China

(e) None of these

9. Who is the new president of Singapore?

(a) Tony Tane

(b) Robbert Zoellick

(d) Yoshihiko Noda

(e) None of these.

10. Bulls and Bears is related with

(a) Cricket

(b) Football

(d) Chess

(e) None of these

11. Gagan Narang is recently honored with

(a) Sita Puraskar

(b) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award.

(d) Vyas Samman

(e) None of these.

12. RTGS means

(a) Money transfer from one branch to another branch of the same Bank.

(b) Money transfer from one branch to another branch of the different Bank.

(d) Does not transfer money.

(e) None of these.

13. Who is Dipika Kumari?

(a) Famous Archer

(b) Famous Swimmer

(d) Famous Discuss Thrower

(e) None of these

14. Which award is given in cinema sector.

(a) Pritkzer Prize

(b) Dada Saheb Phalke award

(d) Man Booker Prize

(e) None of these

15. In SEZ what does S stands for.

(a) Special

(b) Simple

(d) Stiff

(e) None of these

16. Nationalized Banks are also called as

(a) Public Sector banks

(b) Private Sector banks

(d) MFI

(e) None of these

17. Where is the headquarter of International organization IAEA?

(a) Vienna

(b) Washington DC

(d) England

(e) None of these.

18. Which Government scheme is related to Health Services.

(a) ASHA

(b) Jeevan Arogya

(d) SABLA

(e) None of these

19. Which person is also called as a father of Green Revolution.

(a) Dr. MS Swaminanthan

(b) Dr. Ella Bhatt

(d) Dr. Siddartha Mukherjee

(e) None of these

20. Which country is NOT related with OPEC group.

(a) China

(b) Kuwait

(d) UAE

(e) None of these

21. Nirumpama Rao is recently appointed as an Indian ambassador to__________

(a) UK

(b) USA

(d) UAE

(e) Kuwait

22. Which credit rating company is recently in news.

(a) UNCTAD

(b) UNDP

(d) IAEA

(e) ADB

23. Teachers Day is celebrated on_____

(a) 5th of September

(b) 5th of November

(d) 5th of August

(e) None of these

24. Currency of Iran is

(a) Real

(b) Peso

(d) Dollar

(e) Lira

25. Which one is a private sector bank.

(a) IDBI

(b) Bank of Rajasthan

(d) SIDBI

(e) None of these

26. ILO stands for

(a) International Labour Organization.

(b) International Local Organization.

(d) Italy Labour Organization.

(e) None of these

27. Which one of the following is not related with Hockey.

(a) Rangaswamy Cup

(b) Nehru Trophy

(d) Sultan Azlan Shah

(e) Davis Cup

IT OFFICER -COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PREVIOUS OLD SOLVED EXAM PAPER FOR ALL BANKS

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Tue, 29 Nov 2011 17:02:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

Please find below "IT OFFICER -COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PREVIOUS OLD SOLVED EXAM PAPER FOR ALL BANKS like Union bank,IBPS,Central bank, Allahabad,Punjab national bank,UCO Bank ETC. "

IBPS CWE COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MCQs

1.Which command devides the surface of the blank disk into sectors and assign a unique address to each one

1) Ver

2) Format

3) Fat

4) Chkdsk

5) None of these

2.If you need to duplicate the entire disk, which command will you use ?

1) Copy

2) Diskcopy

3) Chkdsk

4) Format

5) None of these

3.A
.............. sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a
computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk
or the master boot record of a hard disk

1) system virus

2) Trojan horse virus

3) file virus

4) macro virus

5) None of these

4.A result of a computer virus can not lead to ......

1) Disk Crash

2) Mother Board Crash

3) Corruption o f program

4) Deletion of files

5) None of these

5.Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct .......

1) firewall

2) proxy server

3) IP address

4) domain name

5) None of these

6.Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as ......

1) 4GLs

2) Macro languages

3) object-oriented languages

4) visual programming languages

5) None of these

7.Firewalls are used to protect against .......

1) unauthorized Attacks

2) virus Attacks

3) Data Driven Attacks

4) Fire Attacks

5) None of these

8.Which of the following extensions suggest that the file is a backup copy

1) Bak

2) Bas

3) Com

4) Txt

5) None of these

9.Computer
programs are written in a high - level programming language; however,
the human readable version of a program is called .......

1) cache

2) instruction set

3) source code

4) word size

5) None of these

10.The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are known as .......

1) Hardware

2) Networked Software

3) Shareware

4) Applications

5) None of these

11...............
proessing is used when a large mail-order company accumulates orders
and processes them together in one large set

1) Batch

2) Online

3) Real-time

4) Group

5) None of these

12.When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it is often called a(n) ...... file

1) data

2) information

3) executable

4) application

5) None of these

13.A complier translates a program written in a high - level language into ........

1) Machine language

2) An algorithm

3) A debugged program

4) Java

5) None of these

14.A set of step - by - step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n) .....

1) algorithm

2) hardware program

3) software bug

4) firmware program

5) None of these

15.A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n) ......

1) Workstation

2) CPU

3) Magnetic disk

4) Integrated circuit

5) None of these

16.A saved document is referred to as a .....

1) file

2) word

3) folder

4) project

5) None of these

17.What is output ?

1) What the processor takes from the user

2) What the user gives to the processor

3) What the processor gets from the user

4) What the processor gives to the user

5) None of these

18.When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test ........

1) RAM test

2) Disk drive test

3) Memory test

4) Power - on self-test

5) None of these

19.Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only ?

1) Floppy disk

2) Magnetic disk

3) Magnetic tape

4) Optical disk

5) None of these

20.In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph is ........

1) copy and paste

2) copy, cut and paste

3) cut, copy and paste

4) cut and paste

5) None of these

21. Hardware includes ..........

1) all devices used to input data into a computer

2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes

3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data

4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage

5) None of these

22.The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ....... command

1) Replace

2) Find

3) Lookup

4) Search

5) None of these

23.The term 'user interface' refers to ............

1) What the user sees on the screen and how they can interact with it

2) How the operating system responds to user commands

3) the means by which the user interacts with the peripheral devices on the computer

4) the monitor that is available for the computer

5) None of these

24.For creating a document, you use ........ command at File Menu.

1) Open

2) Close

3) New

4) Save

5) None of these

25.The .............. becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing

1) Active tab

2) Insertion point

3) Mouse pointer

4) Ribbon

5) None of these

26.Specilizd programs that asist users in locating information on the Web are called ....

1) Information engines

2) Search engines

3) Web browsers

4) Resource locators

5) None of these

27.The background of any Word document ......

1) Is always white colour

2) Is the colour you presect under the Options menu

3) Is always the same for the entire document

4) Can have any colour you choose

5) None of these

28.Correcting errors in a program is referred to as .........

1) debugging

2) bugging

3) rectifying

4) modifying

5) None of these

29.Any letter, number, or symbol found on the keyboard that you can type into the computer ..........

1) output

2) character

3) type

4) print

5) font

30.A symbol or question on the screen that prompts you to take action and tell the computer what to do next ........

1) scanner

2) questionnaire

3) prompt and dialog box

4) information seeker

5) None of these

31.Commands at the top of a screen such as : FILE-EDIT-FONT-TOOLS to operate and change things within programs .....

1) menu bar

2) tool bar

3) user friendly

4) word processor

5) None of these

32.The primary device that a computer uses to store information ......

1) monitor

2) memory

3) disk

4) hard drive

5) None of these

33.A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) ......, but no spaces

1) questiion nark

2) exclamation mark

3) underscore

4) period

5) None of these

34.Application software is designed to accomplish .......

1) real -w orld tasks

2) computer-centric tasks

3) gaming tasks

4) operating system tasks

5) None of these

35.A
...... is a device that not only provdes surge protection, but also
furnishes your computer with battery backup power during a power outage

1) surge strip

2) USB

3) UPS

4) battery strip

5) None of these

36.The term ............. designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance, its functionality

1) digitial device

2) system add-on

3) disk pack

4) peripheral device

5) None of these

37........... this is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of it.

1) Network piracy

2) Plagiarism

3) Software piracy

4) Site-license piracy

5) None of these

38.When
installing ............., the user must copy and usually decompress
program files from a CDROM or other medium to the hard disk

1) programming software

2) system hardware

3) applications hardware

4) applications software

5) None of these

39.Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a computer virus can enter a computer system ?

1) Opening an application previously installed on the computer

2) Borrowed an illegal copy of software

3) Viewing a website without causing any additional transctions

4) Running antivirus programs

5) None of these

40.Programs such as Mozila Firefox that serve as navigable windows into the Web are called ..........

1) Hypertext

2) Networks

3) Internet

4) Web browsers

5) None of these

41.What is the main difference between a mainframe and a super computer ?

1) Super computer is much larger than mainframe computers

2) Super computers are much smaller than mainframe computers

3)
Supercomputers are focused to execute few programs as fast as possible
while mainframe uses its power to execute as many programs concurrently

4)
Supercomputers are focused to execute as many programs as possible
while mainframe uses its power to execute few programs as fast as
possible

5) None of these

42.What is the function of Recycle Bin ?

1) Store deleted file

2) Store temporary file

3) Store corrupted file

4) Store Document file

5) None of these

43.Which is the latest version of MS Office ?

1) Office XP

2) Windows XP

3) Office 2007

4) Office 2010

5) None of these

44.Which device can not be shared in network ?

1) Floppy

2) Keyword

3) Computer

4) Printer

5) None of these

45.What is the purpose of query ?

1) Input data

2) Output data

3) Sort & filter

4) All of above

5) None of these

46.Which port doesn't exist in computer ?

1) USB

2) Parallel

3) Com1 / Com2

4) RAW

5) None of these

47.What is the name of exel files ?

1) Workbook

2) Worksheet

3) Spreadsheet

4) Spread book

5) None of these

48.Workgroup means

1) Computers in network

2) Individual user

3) Individual computer

4) All of he above

5) None of these

49.Synonym can be reviewed with

1) Spelling and grammar

2) Thesaurus

3) Both

4) Synonym viewer

5) None of these

50.Which command allows you to reduce fragments of file and optimize the performance of disk ?

1) Scandisk

2) Diskcomp

3) Chkdsak

4) Defrag

5) None of these

ANSWERS:

    1) 2    2) 2    3) 5    4) 2    5) 2    6) 4        7) 1    8) 1    9) 3    10) 4

11) 1    12) 3    13) 1    14) 1    15) 4    16) 1    17) 4    18) 2        19) 2   20) 4

21) 4    22) 2    23) 1    24) 3        25) 3    26) 2    27) 4    28) 1    29) 2    30) 3

31) 1    32) 4    33) 5    34) 4    35) 3    36) 4 37) 3    38) 1    39) 2    40) 4

41) 3    42) 1   43) 4    44) 2    45) 4    46) 4    47) 1    48) 1        49) 2    50) 4

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1. Who amongst the following is called the father of modern computing?

(A) charles babbage

(B) hollerith

(C) gottfried von leibnitz

(D) joesph M. jacquard

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (A)

2. Which of the following is a circuit that issue signals at regular intervals...

(A) Circuit board

(B) Clock

(C) Circuit card

(D) Gates

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

3.
________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and
provides a means by which users can interact with the
computer

(A) The platform

(B) Application software

(C) Operating system

(D) The motherboard

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

4. Paper tape is an old-established method of storing data, which replaced.....in many application.

(B) Magnetic tape

(B) Punched card

(C) Cartridge tape

(D) Magnetic disk

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

5. A set of related programms are...

(A) File

(B) Arrays

(C) Package

(D) Subscripts

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

6.Which of the following is a list-processing high-level language...

(A) APL

(B) LISP

(C) PROLOG

(D) ADA

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

7. The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called binary digits or ....

(A) bytes

(B) kilobytes

(C) decimal bytes

(D) bits

(E) nibbles

ANSWER: (D)

8.
A monitor's ... is the distance between the holes in the mask behind
the screen. This helps determine how sharp the dots
appear.

(A) refresh rate

(B) dot pitch

(C) resolution

(D) colour depth

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

9.All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _

(A) hackers

(B) spam

(C) viruses

(D) identify theft

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

10. A directly accessible appointment calendar is a feature of a ... resident package.

(A) CPU

(B) memory

(C) Buffer

(D) ALU

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

11.Which of the following code used in present day computing was developed by IBM corporation?

(A) ASCII

(B) Hollerith Code

(C) Baudot Code

(D) EBCDIC Code

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (D)

12.The first generation computer system used...

(A) Vacuum tubes

(B) Transistors

(C) Registers

(D) Magnetic cores

(E) Silicon chip

ANSWER: (A)

13. A term associated with the comparision of processing speeds of different computer system is...

(A) EFTS

(B) MPG

(C) MIPS

(D) CFPS

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

14. Accessing data on tapes is much ....... than that accessing data on disks.

(A) Slower

(B) Faster

(C) Same

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (A)

15.
A standard intended to connect relatively lowspeed devices such as
keyboards, mice, modems and printers is

(A) Access bus

(B) Access
time

(C) Connector

(D) Access story

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (A)

16.The hardware in which data may be stored for a computer system is called

(A) Registers

(B) Bus

(C) Control unit

(D) Memory

(E) Chip

ANSWER: (D)

17.A
byte consists of one group of 8 bits put together. What is the largest
decimal number which can be represented by a byte?

(A) 128

(B) 256

(C) 255

(D) 118

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

18. The 7-bit ASCII code widely used

(A) For data communication work

(B) In IBM mainframe models

(C) For coding external memory

(D) In large machines produced by non-IBM vendors

(E) None of the above

ANSWER: (A)

19. Perforated paper used as input or output media is known as...

(A) Paper tape

(B) Magnetic tape

(C) Punched paper tape

(D) Card punch

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (A)

20. The ____ directory is mandatory for every disk.

(A) Root

(B) Base

(C) Sub

(D) Case

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (A)

21. The invention of the slide rule is attributed to..

(A) Babbage

(B) Oughtred

(C) Pascal

(D) Napier

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

22.
Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage.

(A) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of
magnetic tape

(B) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape

(C) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (E)

23. Zip disks are referred as....

(A) Primary memory

(B) Secondary memory

(C) Register

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

24. Two write a data one uses...

(A) CD-ROM drive

(B) CD-R drive

(C) Record player

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (B)

25. The memory sizes in mainframe computers and advanced technology micro computer are expressed as

(A) Bytes

(B) Kilo-bytes

(C) Bits

(D) Megabytes

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (D)

26.A byte is comprised of

(A) One bit

(B) Four bits

(C) Eight bits

(D) Sixteen bits

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

27.A hard copy would be prepared on a

(A) Line printer

(B) Dot matrix printer

(C) Type writer terminal

(D) Plotter

(E) All of the above

ANSWER: (E)

28.A prefix for billion which is equal to .... is called as billi.

(A) 100

(B) 10000

(C) 1000

(D) 10

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (D)

29. Which of the following animations cannot be done in PowerPoint ?

(A) bullet list, revealed one bullet point at a time

(B) clip art - Fly in from the bottom

(C) table, revealed row by row

(D) chart, revealed by series

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

30. In MS-Excel, what displays the contents of the active cell ?

(A) Namebox

(B) RowHeadings

(C) Formulabar

(D) Taskpane

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

31. Several views are available in MS Front Page. Which one of the following is NOT a valid view ?

(A) Design View

(B) Folders View

(C) Navigation View

(D) Web Server View

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (D)

32. An electronic device that is capable of accepting encoded data at its input and generating unencoded data at its output is

(A) Modem

(B) Joystick

(C) Decoder

(D) Plotter

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (C)

33.
A communication protocol that converts noisy data links into
communication channels free of transmission errors is known
as

(A) Data link protocol

(B) Data link

(C) Data medium

(D) Data model

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (A)

34.
One of the components of central processing unit (CPU) of the computer
that performs mathematical and logical operations is ...

(A) ALU (arithmetic logical unit)

(B) Address register

(C) Analog

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (A)

35. In Assembly language....

(A) Mnemonics are used to code operations

(B) Alphanumeric symbols are used for addresses

(C) Language lies between high-level language and machine language

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

ANSWER: (D)

Sunday, November 20, 2011

IBPS CLERKS EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE MODEL PAPER

1.    The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer .........

1) programs

2) processors

3) input devices

4) memory modules

5) None of these

2.    An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is ..........

1) CPU

2) Memory

3) Storage

4) File

5) None of these

3.    To select or unselect one word to the right

1) CTRL + SHIFT

2) CTRL + SHIFT + UP Arrow

3) CTRL + SHIFT + Down Arrow

4) CTRL + SHIFT + Right Arrow

5) None of these

4.    To maximize or restore a selected window

1) CTRL + F7

2) CTRL + F10

3) CTRL + F8

4) CTRL + F9

5) None of these

5.    To Copy a picture of the selected window to the clipboard

1) ALT + TAB

2) Ctrl + TAB

3) ALT + Print Screen

4) Both (1) and (2)

5) None of these

6.    .......... is the key to close a selected drop - down list; cancel a comm-and and close a dialog box.

1) TAB

2) SHIFT

3) ESC

4) F10

5) None of these

7.    ......... is the key we use to run the selected command.

1) SHIFT

2) TAB

3) ENTER

4) CTRL

5) None of these

8.    ............ is the functional key to display save-as box.

1) F5

2) F6

3) F9

4) F12

5) None of these

9.    ............ is the combination of keys to switch between the last four places that you have edited

1) ALT + CTRL + Z

2) ALT + CTRL + Y

3) ALT + TAB + Z

4) ALT + SHIFT + Z

5) None of these

10.    ............ is the Keyboard shortcut key to insert auto sum

1) ALT

2) ALT=

3) ALT+

4) ALT–

5) ALT+CTRL

11.    Data becomes ................ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use

1) processed

2) graphs

3) information

4) presentation

5) None of these

12.    The term ............. designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.

1) digital device

2) system add-on

3) disk pack

4) peripheral device

5) None of these

13.    A ............ is a microprocessor - based computing device.

1) personal computer

2) mainframe

3) workstation

4) server

5) None of these

14.    RAM can be thought of as the ......... for the computer's processor

1) factory

2) operating room

3) waiting room

4) planning room

5) None of these

15.    Which of the following are the functions of a operating system

1) Allocates resources

2) Monitors Activities

3) Manages disks and files

4) All of the above

5) Only 1 and 2

16.    To move a copy of file from one computer to another over a communication channel is called ?

1) File transfer

2) File encryption

3) File modification

4) File copying

5) None of these

17.    The primary function of the ............ is to set up the hardware and load and start an operating system

1) System Programs

2) BIOS

3) CP

4) Memory

5) None of these

18.    What kind of memory is both static and non - volatile ?

1) RAM

2) ROM

3) BIOS

4) CACHE

5) 5) None of these

19.    .......... is computer software designed to operate the computer hardware and to provide platform for running application software

1) Application software

2) System software

3) Software

4) Operating system

5) None of these

20.    The ......... is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the Computer per second

1) data migration rate

2) data digitizing rate

3) data transfer rate

4) data access rate

5) None of these

21.    A device, which is not connected to CPU, is called as .......

1) land-line device

2) On-line device

3) Off-line device

4) Device

5) None of the above

22.    What is the other name for programmed chip?

1) RAM

2) ROM

3) LSIC

4) PROM

5) None of these

23.    On-line real time systems become popular in ........... generation

1) First Generation

2) Second Generation

3) Third Generation

4) FOurth Generation

5) None of thes

24.    You use a(n) ....., such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information

1) output device

2) input device

3) storage device

4) processing device

5) None of these

25.    ............ is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the requested data

1) Sequential access

2) Random access

3) Quick access

4) All of the above

5) None of these

26.    ............ provides process and memory management services that allow two or more tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously

1) Multitasking

2) Multithreading

3) Multiprocessing

4) Multicoputing

5) None of these

27.    The task of performing operations like arithmetic and logical operations is called ......

1) Processing

2) Storing

3) Editing

4) Sorting

5) None of these

28.    The ALU and Control Unit joinly known as

1) RAM

2) ROM

3) CPU

4) PC

5) None of these

29.    RAM is an example of

1) Secondary memory

2) Primary memory

3) Main memory

4) Both (1) and (2)

5) None of these

30.    Magnetic disk is an example of

1) Secondary memory

2) Primary meory

3) Main memory

4) Botha (1) and (2)

5) None of these

31.    Which one of the following is NOT a computer language /

1) MS-Excel

2) BASIC

3) COBOL

4) C++

5) None of these

32.    Each memory cell has a unique number, assigned to it is called as the ....... of the cell

1) Address

2) Register

3) Number

4) Path

5) None of these

33.    RAm is also called as

1) Read / Write Memory

2) Long Memory

3) Permanent Memory

4) Primary Memory

5) None of these

34.    ............ Store data or information temporarily and pass it on as directed by the control unit

1) Address

2) Register

3) Number

4) Memory

5) None of these

35.    Select the Odd one

1) Operating system

2) Interpreter

3) Compiler

4) Assembler

5) None of these

36.    A ............ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu

1) dialog box

2) submenu

3) menu selection

4) All of the above

5) None of these

37.    COBOL is an acronym for .............

1) Common Business Oriented Language

2) Computer Business Oriented Language

3) Common Business Operated Language

4) Common Business Organized Language

5) None of these

38.    All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT

1) hackers

2) Spam

3) viruses

4) identity theft

5) None of these

39.    Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?

1) gathering data

2) processing data into information

3) analyzing the data or information

4) storing the data or information

5) None of these

40.    All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT :

1) hard disk drives

2) printers

3) floppy disk drives

4) CD drives

5) Pen drives

41.    The CPU and memory are located on the :

1) expansion board

2) motherboard

3) storage device

4) output device

5) display board

42.    .............. is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do

1) Nanoscience

2) Nanotechnology

3) Simulation

4) Aritificial intelligence (Al)

5) None of these

43.    Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a :

1) networkd

2) mainframe

3) supercomputer

4) client

5) internet

44.    When creating a computer program, the ......... designs the structure of the program

1) End user

2) System Analyst

3) Programmer

4) All of the above

5) None of these

45.    A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/ an

1) interpreter

2) simulator

3) characters

4) numbers

5) None of these

46.    Computers process data into information by working exclusively with :

1) multimedia

2) words

3) characters

4) numbers

5) None of these

47.    The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the :

1) digital divide

2) Internet divide

3) Web divide

4) broadband divide

5) None of these

48.    Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is calld ......

1) upgrading

2) processing

3) batching

4) utilizing

5) None of these

49.    The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal's computer is an example of a law enforcement speciality called:

1) robotics

2) simulation

3) computer forensics

4) animation

5) None of these

50.    Where does most data go first with in a computer memory hierarchy ?

1) RAM

2) ROM

3) BIOS

4) CACHE

5) None of these

ANSWERS:

    1) 1    2) 2    3) 4    4) 2    5) 3    6) 3        7) 3    8) 4    9) 1    10) 2

11) 3    12) 4    13) 1    14) 3    15) 4    16) 1    17) 2    18) 2        19) 2

20) 3    21) 3    22) 2    23) 3    24) 2        25) 2    26) 1    27) 1    28) 3    29) 2    30) 1

31) 1    32) 1    33) 1    34) 2    35) 1    36) 1   37) 1    38) 2    39) 3    40) 2

41) 2    42) 4    43) 2    44) 2    45) 3    46) 4    47) 1    48) 2        49) 3    50) 1

************************************************

punjab-and-sind-bank-clerk-exam-2011.html'>Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam., 2011

Computer Knowledge

(Held on 30-1-2011)

1. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are known as—
(A) Hardware
(B) Networked Software
(C) Shareware
(D) Applications
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. A………shares hardware, software, and data among authorized users.
(A) network
(B) protocol
(C) hyperlink
(D) transmitter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3.
Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language;
however, the humanreadable version of a program is called—
(A) cache
(B) instruction set
(C) source code
(D) word size
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph is—
(A) copy and paste
(B) copy, cut and paste
(C) cut, copy and paste
(D) cut and paste
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit ?
(A) Read instructions
(B) Execute instructions
(C) Interpret instructions
(D) Direct operations
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of information is a(n)—
(A) operating system
(B) database
(C) database program
(D) data warehouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n)—
(A) algorithm
(B) hardware program
(C) software bug
(D) firmware program
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is not true about RAM ?
(A) RAM is a temporary storage area
(B) RAM is the same as hard disk storage
(C) RAM is volatile
(D) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The main directory of a disk is called the………directory.
(A) root
(B) sub
(C) folder
(D) network
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s……
(A) features
(B) format
(C) pagination
(D) grid
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. =SUM (B1 : B8) is an example of a—
(A) function
(B) formula
(C) cell address
(D) value
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only ?
(A) Floppy disk
(B) Magnetic disk
(C) Magnetic tape
(D) Optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Compilers and translators are one form of—
(A) ROM
(B) RAM
(C) Hard disk
(D) Software
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Data representation is based on the………number system, which uses two numbers to represent all data.
(A) binary
(B) biometric
(C) bicentennial
(D) byte
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. The most common input devices include—
(A) Monitor and keyboard
(B) Monitor and mouse
(C) Mouse and keyboard
(D) Printer and mouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. www means—
(A) world wide wonder
(B) world wide wizard
(C) world wide web
(D) wide world web
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. ………processing is used when a large mail-order company accumulates orders and processes them together in one large set.
(A) Batch
(B) Online
(C) Real-time
(D) Group
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW ?
(A) They are the same—just two different terms used by different manufacturers
(B) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot
(C) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from
(D) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as—
(A) Moving
(B) Dragging
(C) Dropping
(D) Highlighting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. A………is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table.
(A) spreadsheet
(B) presentation
(C) database
(D) web page
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. The………primarily take(s) care of the behind-the-scenes details and manage(s) the hardware.
(A) operating system
(B) application software
(C) peripheral devices
(D) hard disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. A……is a professionally designed ‘empty’ document that can be adapted to the user’s needs.
(A) file
(B) guide
(C) template
(D) user guide file
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. A group of 8 bits is known as a—
(A) Byte
(B) Kilobyte
(C) Binary digit
(D) Megabit
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. The hardware device commonly referred to as the ‘brain’ of the computer is the—
(A) RAM chip
(B) Data input
(C) CPU
(D) Secondary storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called ?
(A) Column
(B) Value
(C) Address
(D) Cell
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. ………are often delivered to a PC through an e-mail attachment and are often designed to do harm.
(A) Viruses
(B) Spam
(C) Portals
(D) Email messages
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. What is the storage area for e-mail messages called ?
(A) A folder
(B) A directory
(C) A mailbox
(D) The hard disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. A desktop computer is also known as a—
(A) Palm Pilot
(B) PC
(C) Laptop
(D) Mainframe
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it is often called a(n) ……file.
(A) data
(B) information
(C) executable
(D) application
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. Documents converted to……can be published to the Web.
(A) a.doc file
(B) http
(C) machine language
(D) HTML
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. If a user needs information instantly available to the CPU, it should be stored—
(A) on a CD
(B) in secondary storage
(C) in the CPU
(D) in RAM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. To what temporary area can you store text and other data, and later paste them to another location ?
(A) The clipboard
(B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM
(D) The hard disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. In a spreadsheet, a………is a number you will use in a calculation.
(A) label
(B) cell
(C) field
(D) value
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34.
After slide-directed time, if you want to move ahead automatically,
click in……check box in transition of this slide group in tab of
animations—
(A) Transition timer
(B) Automatically opter
(C) Transition opter
(D) Automatic timer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. All are included in removable media except the following—
(A) CD-ROMs
(B) Diskette
(C) DVDs
(D) High disk drive
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36.
If you open some menu and then decide that you do not want to select
some option, then click the menu title again or press the…… key to
layout the menu.
(A) shift
(B) tab
(C) escape
(D) F1
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Using the……process, it is easy to change the name of the file.
(A) transforming
(B) crash
(C) renaming
(D) retagging
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

38. ………view shows that how will content on printed page, alongwith footer and margin header, appear.
(A) Draft
(B) Full screen reading
(C) Outline
(D) Page layout
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

39. Using………, the text can be entered and edited very efficiently.
(A) spreadsheet
(B) typewriter
(C) word processing programme
(D) desktop publishing programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. Other folders, named subfolders, can remain in the folders while creating hierarchical structure—
(A) Mini folder
(B) Teard folder
(C) Subfolders
(D) Object
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. By using slide………, the characteristics of the fonts of all the slides in presentation, can be changed.
(A) theme
(B) icon
(C) master
(D) style
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. Though several programmers can be opened simultaneously yet only…………programmed can be active.
(A) four
(B) three
(C) two
(D) one
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

43. Straight and Uniform margins on both the sides indicate that there is …………in the document.
(A) full justification
(B) full alignment
(C) left justification
(D) right justification
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. Among the typical computer programming languages used today, the following is not included in—
(A) C++
(B) JAVA
(C)Visual Basic.NET
(D) Machine language
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. In table in excel, there are typical labels alongwith……
(A) Letters
(B) Numbers
(C) Names
(D) Formulae
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46.
………….makes available the commands to righten the software. Instructions
are translated step-by-step and executed by the processor so that some
objective can be achieved or some problem can be solved.
(A) Software patch
(B) Al language
(C) Presentation language
(D) Programming language
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. As you create documents, graphs and pictures your computer holds the data in—
(A) Restore file
(B) Backup drive
(C) Clip board
(D) Memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

48. Which of the following terms is used for the form in which the word will appear on the page ?
(A) Text formatting
(B) Character formatting
(C) Point size
(D) Type face
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

49. ……….helps to capture the raw data and enter into the computer system.
(A) CPU
(B) Integrated circuit
(C) Input device
(D) Motherboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. The following are included in the world programme ………….Title Bar, Ribbon, Status Bar, Views, Document workspace.
(A) Window
(B) Browser
(C) Explorer
(D) Website
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

**********************************************************************

IBPS CLERKS EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MCQs

1.
Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that
provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and
menus are known as ....

(A) software suites

(B) integrated software packages

(C) software processing packages

(D) personal information managers

(E) none of these

ANS (A)

2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?

(A) Can be updated by the end users

(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats

(C) Organized around important subject areas

(D) Contains only current data

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.

(A) Authentication

(B) Main

(C) Web

(D) File

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____

(A) hackers

(B) spam

(C) viruses

(D) identify theft

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often
connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems .

(A) Data

(B) Sales

(C) Query

(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.

(A) five

(B) six

(C) seven

(D) eight

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______ software to work together.

(A) management

(B) processing

(C) utility

(D) application

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.

(A) Servers

(B) Embedded computers

(C) Robotic computers

(D) Mainframes

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

9. The following are all computing devices , except.........

(A) notebook computers

(B) cellular telephones

(C) digital scanners

(D) personal digital assistants

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data

(A) packet

(B) data

(C) access method

(D) token

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals,
such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial
ports ____

(A) basic input/output system

(B) secondary input/output system

(C) peripheral input/output system

(D) marginal input/output system

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive

(A) Trojan horse

(B) Boot sector

(C) Script

(D) Logic bomb

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and
provides a means by which users can interact with the computer

(A) The platform

(B) Application software

(C) Operating system

(D) The motherboard

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________

(A) mainframe

(B) network

(C) supercomputer

(D) client

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

(A) To explain some observed event or condition

(B) To confirm that data exists

(C) To analyze data for expected relationships

(D) To create a new data warehouse

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

16. URL stands for ........

(A) Universal Research List

(B) Universal Resource List

(C) Uniform Resource Locator

(D) Uniform Research Locator

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............

(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database

(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.

(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.

(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?

(A) Capture , process and store transactions

(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities

(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions

(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making

(E) None of these

ANS ()

19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?

(A) To provide security against unauthorized users

(B) To process client requests for web pages

(C) To process client requests for database access

(D) To provide TCP/IP

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:

(A) data redundancy

(B) information overload

(C) duplicate data

(D) data inconsistency

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.

(A) Control worlds

(B) Reserved words

(C) Control structures

(D) Reserved keys

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?

(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers

(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program

(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem

(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms

(E) None of these

ANS ()

23. ______ describe what is database fields.

(A) Structures

(B) Field markers

(C) Field definition

(D) Field names

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.

(A) router

(B) modem

(C) node

(D) cable

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

25. A goal of normalization is to __________

(A) minimize the number of relationships

(B) minimize the number of entities

(C) minimize the number of tables

(D) minimize the number of redundancy

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____

(A) extranet

(B) intranet

(C) internet

(D) hacker

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site

(A) URL

(B) Web site address

(C) Hyperlink

(D) Domain name

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as .....

(A) QBE

(B) SQL

(C) OLAP

(D) Sequel Server

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):

(A) transistor

(B) resistor

(C) integrated circuit

(D) semiconductor

(E) None of these

ANS (c)

30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:

(A) unlock the database

(B) provide a map of the data

(C) uniquely identify a record

(D) establish constraints on database operations.

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.

(A) programming language

(B) syntax

(C) programming structure

(D) logic chart

(E) None of these

ANS ()

32. The design of the network is called the network:

(A) architecture

(B) server

(C) transmission

(D) type

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:

(A) the hard disk

(B) cache memory

(C) RAM

(D) registers

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.

(A) data dictionary

(B) data table

(C) data record

(D) data field

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:

(A) listservs

(B) Webcasts

(C) blogs

(D) subject directories

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.

(A) command - based user interface

(B) GUI

(C) system utility

(D) API

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.

(A) documentation

(B) programming

(C) technical

(D) user

(E) None of these

ANS ()

38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?

(A) Cable

(B) DSL

(C) Dial-up

(D) Satellite

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:

(A) spyware

(B) adware

(C) spam

(D) malware

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

40. Making a field ______ means that it cannot be left blank.

(A) numeric

(B) required

(C) calculated

(D) validated

(E) None of these

ANS (B)

41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.

(A) Debugging

(B) Compiling

(C) Testing

(D) Running

(E) None pf these

ANS ()

42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.

(A) Boot-sector viruses

(B) Macro viruses

(C) Time bombs

(D) Worms

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.

(A) open-source

(B) Microsoft

(C) Windows

(D) Mac

(E) None of these

ANS (A)

44. What is a backup?

(A) Restoring the information backup

(B) An exact copy of a system's information

(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest

(A) character, file, record, field, database

(B) character, record, field, database, file

(C) character, field, record, file, database

(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

46. The internet is ......

(A) a large network of networks

(B) an internal communication system for a business

(C) a communication system for the Indian government

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

(A) GUIs

(B) Icons

(C) Menus

(D) Windows

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?

(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both

(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name

(C) File extension is another name for file type

(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name

(E) None of these

ANS (D)

49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

(A) configuration

(B) accessibility

(C) authentication

(D) logging in

(E) None of these

ANS (C)

50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?

(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.

(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.

(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.

(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.

(E) None of these

ANS (B)
*********************************************
Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam.

(Held on 17-4-2011)

1. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media ?
(A) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large amount of data and information
(B) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
(C) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. A ……… is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
(A) blog
(B) hit
(C) link
(D) view
(E) success
Ans : (C)

3. The ……… is the term used to describe the window that is currently being used.
(A) Web Window
(B) display area
(C) WordPad Window
(D) active window
(E) monitor
Ans : (D)

4. CPU is an abbreviation for—
(A) central programming unit
(B) central processing unit
(C) computer processing unit
(D) computer protocol unit
(E) central protocol unit
Ans : (B)

5. A microprocessor is the brain of the computer and is also called a(n)—
(A) microchip
(B) macrochip
(C) macroprocessor
(D) calculator
(E) software
Ans : (A)

6. Storage and memory differ with respect to which of the following characteristics ?
(A) Price
(B) Reliability
(C) Speed
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. What are two examples of freeware ?
(A) WinZip and Linux
(B) Shareware and file sharing
(C) Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar
(D) Instant messaging and the Google toolbar
(E) Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel
Ans : (D)

8.
If a disk drive fails but the computer application running and using it
can continue processing, this application is said to have been designed
with this feature—
(A) 100 per cent uptime
(B) fault tolerance
(C) high reliability
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. What is e-commerce ?
(A) Buying and selling international goods
(B) Buying and selling products and services over the Internet
(C) Buying and selling products and services not found in stores
(D) Buying and selling products having to do with computers
(E) Buying and selling of electronic goods
Ans : (B)

10. What are the four things needed to connect to the Internet ?
(A) Telephone line, modem, computer, and an ISP
(B) Modem, computer, PDA and ISP
(C) Telephone line, PDA, modem and computer
(D) Computer, ISP, modem and communication software
(E) Monitor, keyboard, mouse, modem
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following functions are not performed by servers ?
(A) Email processing
(B) Database sharing
(C) Processing Web sites
(D) Storage
(E) Word processing
Ans : (E)

12. Which media have the ability to have data/information stored (written) on them by users more than once ?
(A) CD-R disks
(B) CD-RW disks
(C) Zip disks
(D) OptiDisks
(E) Both CD-RW disks and Zip disks
Ans : (A)

13. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called—
(A) downloading
(B) uploading
(C) FTP
(D) JPEG
(E) downsizing
Ans : (C)

14. The………controls a client computer’s resources.
(A) application program
(B) instruction set
(C) operating system
(D) server application
(E) compiler
Ans : (D)

15. To reload a Web page, press the ……… button.
(A) Redo
(B) Reload
(C) Restore
(D) Ctrl
(E) Refresh
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following could be digital input devices for computers ?
(A) Digital camcorder
(B) Microphone
(C) Scanner
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. The………enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.
(A) tab box
(B) pop-up helper
(C) tab row
(D) address bar
(E) Esc key
Ans : (A)

18. You can use the………bar to type a URL and display a Web page, or type a keyword to display a list of related Web pages.
(A) menu
(B) Title
(C) Search
(D) Web
(E) Address
Ans : (E)

19. Storage media such as a CD read and write information using—
(A) a laser beam of red light
(B) magnetic dots
(C) magnetic strips
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. Vendor-created program modifications are called—
(A) patches
(B) antiviruses
(C) holes
(D) fixes
(E) overlaps
Ans : (D)

21. Cache and main memory will lose their contents when the power is off. They are—
(A) dynamic
(B) static
(C) volatile
(D) non-volatile
(E) faulty
Ans : (C)

22. The collection of links throughout the Internet creates an interconnected network called the—
(A) WWW
(B) Web
(C) World Wide Web
(D) All of the above
(E) Wide Area Web
Ans : (D)

23. Every computer has a(n) ………;
many also have.
(A) operating system, a client system
(B) operating system; instruction sets
(C) application programs; an operating system
(D) application programs; a client system
(E) operating system; application programs
Ans : (E)

24. Main memory works in conjunction with—
(A) special function cards
(B) RAM
(C) CPU
(D) Intel
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

25. A sales clerk at a checkout counter scanning a tag on an item rather than keying it into the system, is using—
(A) input automation
(B) item data automation
(C) scanning automation
(D) source data automation
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. A(n)……is composed of several computers connected together to share resources and data.
(A) Internet
(B) network
(C) backbone
(D) hyperlink
(E) protocol
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information—
(A) floppy diskette
(B) hard disk
(C) permanent disk
(D) optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. Microsoft Office is an example of a—
(A) closed-source software
(B) open-source software
(C) horizontal-market software
(D) vertical-market software
(E) compiler
Ans : (A)

29. A popular way to learn about computers without ever going to a classroom is called—
(A) i-learning
(B) isolated learning
(C) e-learning
(D) close learning
(E) Distance Learning
Ans : (C)

30.
A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s
computers to get information illegally or do damage is a—
(A) spammer
(B) hacker
(C) instant messenger
(D) programmer
(E) analyst
Ans : (B)

31. Which of the following is an example of storage devices ?
(A) Magnetic disks
(B) Tapes
(C) DVDs
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. The………folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
(A) Inbox
(B) Outbox
(C) Drafts
(D) Sent Items
(E) Address Book
Ans : (C)

33. Which of the following is an example of an optical disk ?
(A) Digital versatile disks
(B) Magnetic disks
(C) Memory disks
(D) Data bus disks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. The main job of a CPU is to—
(A) carry out program instructions
(B) store data/information for future use
(C) process data and information
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

35. ……are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
(A) Phishing trips
(B) Computer viruses
(C) Spyware scams
(D) Viruses
(E) Phishing scams
Ans : (E)

36. An example of a processing device would be—
(A) a magnetic ink reader
(B) a tablet PC
(C) special function cards
(D) scanners
(E) keyboards
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following is not a type of computer software which can be bought ?
(A) Off-the-shelf
(B) Tailor-made
(C) Custom-developed
(D) Off-the-shelf with alterations
(E) All of these can be purchased
Ans : (D)

38. You can use………to copy selected text, and ……… to paste it in a document.
(A) CTRL + C, CTRL + V
(B) CTRL + C, CTRL + P
(C) CTRL + S, CTRL + S
(D) SHIFT + C, ALT + P
(E) CTRL + D, CTRL + A
Ans : (A)

39. Video processors consist of ……… and ……, which store and process images.
(A) CPU and VGA
(B) CPU and memory
(C) VGA and memory
(D) VGI and DVI
(E) VGA and VGI
Ans : (C)

40. The main memory of a computer can also be called—
(A) primary storage
(B) internal memory
(C) primary memory
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. Computer software can be defined as—
(A) the computer and its associated equipment
(B) the instructions that tell the computer what to do
(C) computer components that act to accomplish a goal
(D) an interface between the computer and the network
(E) the interaction between the computer and its database
Ans : (B)

42. When speaking of computer input and output, input refers to—
(A) any data processing that occurs from new data input into the computer
(B) retrieval of data or information that has been input into the computer
(C) data or information that has been entered into the computer
(D) the transmission of data that has been input into the computer
(E) Both (C) and (D) above
Ans : (E)

43. A ……… is a set of rules.
(A) resource locator
(B) domain
(C) hypertext
(D) URL
(E) protocol
Ans : (E)

44. The connection between your computer at home and your local ISP is called—
(A) the last mile
(B) the home stretch
(C) the home page
(D) the backbone
(E) the vital mile
Ans : (C)

45. All of the logic and mathematical calculations done by the computer happen in/on the—
(A) system board
(B) central control unit
(C) central processing unit
(D) mother board
(E) memory
Ans : (C)

46. There are several primary categories of procedures. Which of the following is not a primary category of procedures ?
(A) Testing
(B) Backup and recovery
(C) Firewall development
(D) Design
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. The operating system called UNIX is typically used for—
(A) desktop computers
(B) laptop computers
(C) supercomputers
(D) Web servers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

48. The………file format is a method of encoding pictures on a computer.
(A) HTML
(B) JPEG
(C) FTP
(D) URL
(E) DOC
Ans : (B)

49. Press………to move the insertion point to the Address box, or to highlight the URL in the Address box.
(A) ALT + D
(B) ALT + A
(C) SHIFT + TAB
(D) TAB + CTRL
(E) CTRL + S
Ans : (A)

50. Computer systems are comprised of—
(A) hardware, programs, information, people and networks
(B) hardware, software, procedures, networks and people
(C) hardware, programs, information, people and procedures
(D) hardware, programs, processors, procedures, networks and people
(E) hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people
Ans : (A)

*****************************************************
BANK EXAMS COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
1. Compiler is the

(a) name given to the computer operator

(b) part of the digital machine to store the information

(c) translator of source program to object

(d) part of arithmetic logic unit

(e) operator of Boolean Algebra

Ans (c)

2. Main memory is

(a) Random Access Memory

(b) Read only Memory

(c) Serial Access Memory

(d) None of these

Ans (a)

3. Which of the following is the smallest and fastest computer imitating brain working?

(a) Supercomputer

(b) Quantum Computer

(c) Param-10,000

(d) IBM chips

Ans (b)

4. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage of the type

(a) Magnetic

(b) Optical

(c) Electrical

(d) Electromechanical

Ans (a)

5. Which of the following is not as language for computer programming?

(a) WINDOWS

(b) PASCAL

(c) BASIC

(d) COBOL

Ans (a)
6. What are the two basic types of memory that your computer uses?

a) RAM

(b) RW/RAM

(c) ROM

(d) ERAM

Ans (a)

7. The term gigabyte refers to

(a) 1024 bytes

(b) 1024 kilobytes

(c) 1024 megabytes

(d) 1024 gigabytes

Ans (c)

8. A computer with CPU speed around 100 million instructions per second & with the word length of around 64 bits is known as

(a) Super computer

(b) Mini computer

(c) Micro computer

(d) Micro computer

Ans (a)

9. What digits are representative of all binary numbers?
(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) Both (a ) and (b)

(d) 3

Ans (c)

10. To locate a data items for storage is

(a) Field

(b) Feed

(c) Database

(d) Fetch

Ans (d)

11. Off-line operation is the operation of devices without the control of

(a) Memory

(b) CPU

(c) ALU

(d) Control unit

Ans (b)

12. A type of line printer that uses an embossed steel band to form the letters printed on the paper is

(a) Golf ball printer

(b) Dot-matrix printer

(c) Laser printer

(d) Band printer

Ans (d)

13. A software used to convert source program instructions to object instruction is known as

(a) Compiler

(b) Assembler

(c) Interpreter

(d) Language processor

14. The 'IC' chip, used in computers, is made of

(a) Chromium

(b) Iron oxide

(c) Silica

(d) Silicon

Ans (d)

15. Name the first general purpose electronic computer

Ans : UNIVAC

16. The size of commonly used Floppy disk is

(a) 4.5”

(b) 3.5”

(c) 3.25”

(d) 5.5”

Ans (b)

17. Which of the following statement is wrong

(a) Windows XP is an operating system

(b) Linux is owned and sold by Microsoft

(c) Photoshop is a graphical design tool by Adobe

(d) Linux is free and open source software

Ans (b)

18. Operating system of a computer

(a) Enables the programmer to draw a flow chart

(b) Links a program with subroutine with references

(c) Provides a layer, user friendly interface

(d) None of the above

Ans (c)

19. The term ‘Operating System’ means

(a) A set of programs which control computer working

(b) The way a user operates the computer system

(c) Conversion of high level language to machine language

(d) The way computer operator works

Ans (a)

20. Wild card operators specifies

(a) can be used when writing into multiple files

(b) allows several files to be read simultaneously

(c) Provide an easy way of groups of related files

(d) Are only used when printing the contents of a file

Ans (c)

21.Which one of the following is not a broadband communication medium

(a) Microwave

(b) Fibre optic cable

(c) Twisted pair

(d) Coaxial cable

Ans (c)

22.Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation

(a) Coaxial cable

(b) Satellite

(c) Modem

(d) Optical fibre

Ans (c)

23. Which one of the following is not an application software package

(a) Redhat Linux

(b) Microsoft Office

(c) Adobe PageMaker

(d) Open Office

Ans (a)

24. Who is the father of computer

Ans : Charles Babbage

25.The function of key F4 is

Ans : To repeat the last action

26.The function of key F4 is

Ans : To repeat the last action

27. The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called binary digits or .......

(a) bytes

(b) kilobytes

(c) decimal bytes

(d) bits

Ans (D)

28. A monitor's ...... is the distance between the holes in the mask
behind the screen. This helps determine how sharp the dots appear.

(a) refresh rate

(b) dot pitch

(c) resolution

(d) colour depth

Ans (B)

29. A directly accessible appointment calendar is a feature of a ....... resident package.

(a) CPU

(b) memory

(c) Buffer

(d) ALU

Ans (B)

30. Perforated paper used as input or output media is known as

(a) Paper tape

(b) Magnetic tape

(c) Punched paper tape

(d) Card punch

Ans (A)

31. The invention of the slide rule is attributed to

(a) Babbage

(b) Oughtred

(c) Pascal

(d) Napier

Ans (B)

32. Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage.

(a) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape

(b) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape

(c) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage

(d) All of the above

Ans (e)

33. The memory sizes in mainframe computers and advanced technology micro computer are expressed as

(a) Bytes

(b) Kilo-bytes

(c) Bits

(d) Megabytes

Ans (d)

34. A prefix for billion which is equal to .... is called as billi.

(a) 100

(b) 10000

(c) 1000

(d) 10

Ans (d)

35. Each model of a computer has a unique

(a) Assembly language

(b) Machine language

(c) High level language

(d) All of the above

Ans (b)

36. One kilobyte = ____ byte.

(a) 1250

(b) 2088

(c) 1024

(d) 1000

Ans (c)

37. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory device' in computers?

(a) Rectifier

(b) Flip-Flop

(c) Comparator

(d) Attenuator

Ans (b)

38. To move the cursor to the end of the document press

Ans : Ctrl + End

39. In Word Processing the red underline indicates

Ans : Spelling mistakes

40. The shortcut key to print documents is

Ans : Ctrl + P

41. First layer in the OSI reference model is

(a) Data link

(b) Network

(c) Physical

(d) Application

Ans (c)

42. Viruses, Trojan horses and Worms are

(a) able to harm computer system

(b) unable to detect if affected on computer

(c) user-friendly applications

(d) harmless applications resident on computer

Ans (a)

43. Program threats are

(a) Trap doors

(b) Trojan horse

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) All of the above

Ans (b)

44. Failure of passwords security due to exposure can result from

(a) Electronic monitoring

(b) Visual

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) All of the above

Ans (c)

45. Data security threats include

(a) Hardware failure

(b) Privacy invasion

(c) Fraudulent manipulation of data

(d) All of the above

Ans (b)

46. The bar which displays information about the current page number is

Ans : Status bar

47. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. are

(a) Task bar

(b) Windows

(c) Desktop

(d) Icons

Ans (d)

48. Who invented the super-computer?

(a) P.T Farnsworth

(b) J.R Whinfield

(c) J.H. Van Tassell

(d) Charles Ginsberg

Ans (c)

49. Accessing records from a file directly without searching from the beginning of the file is

(a) Time sharing

(b) Random

(c) Direct access

(d) Access time

(e) None of the above

Ans (c)

50. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is

(a) Delay time

(b) Real time

(c) Execution time

(d) Down time

Ans (c)
**************************************************************
Bank IT Officer/Specialist Exam Question Paper

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key
value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these

2. An applet __________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a
computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or
the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of
OSI Model-

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is true ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check _____

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates,
or_____.a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a
distinct_____

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values
of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database
depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user's perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose
of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is
a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an
instruction___.

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and
Excel are known as____

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's
request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the
user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client's request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a
null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as
blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back
each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

****************************************
SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM 2011
Marketing Aptitude and Computer Knowledge

Q. 1. An email account includes a storage area, often called a(n) __

(1) attachment

(2) hyperlink

(3) mailbox

(4) IP address

(5) None of these

Q. 2. Data becomes __ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.

(1) processed

(2) graphs

(3) information

(4) presentation

(5) None of these

Q.3. A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more efficiently isajan __

(1) Windows

(2) System Software

(3) DBMS

(4) Application Software

(5) None of these

Q. 4. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is __

(1) CPU

(2) Memory

(3) Storage

(4) File

(5) None of these

Q.5. A __ is a microprocessor-based computing device.

(1) personal computer

(2) mainframe

(3) workstation

(4) server

(5) None of these

Q. 6. You use a(n) __ , such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information.

(1) output device

(2) input device

(3) storage device

(4) processing device

(5) None of these

Q.7. The term __ designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.

(1) digital device

(2) system add-on

(3) disk pack

(4) peripheral device

(5) None of these

Q. 8. The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer __

(1) programs

(2) processors

(3) input devices

(4) memory modules

(5) None of these

Q. 9. RAM can be thought of as the __ for the computer's processor.

(1) factory

(2) operating room

(3) waiting room

(4) planning room

(5) None of these

Q. 10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of __ languages.

(1) low-level

(2) computer

(3) system programming

(4) high-level

(5) None of these

Q.11. __ is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the requested data.

(1) Sequential access

(2) Random access

(3) Quick access

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Q.12. The __ is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the Computer per second.

(1) data migration rate

(2) data digitizing rate

(3) data transfer rate

(4) data access rate

(5) None of these

Q.13. A __ converts all the statements in a program in a single batch and the resulting collection of instructions is placed in a new file.

(1) converter

(2) compiler

(3) interpreter

(4) instruction

(5) None of these

Q.14. One thousand bytes is a __

(1) kilobyte

(2) megabyte

(3) gigabyte

(4) terabyte

(5) None of these

Q.15. 'Benchmark' means __

(1) Benches for customers to sit

(2) Benches for salesmen to sit

(3) Products displayed on a bench

(4) Set standards

(5) All of the above

Q. 16 A Call Centre is __

(1) a meeting place for DSAs

(2) a Training Centre for DSAs

(3) a meeting place for customers

(4) Data Centre

(5) a back office set up where customer queries are answered

Q .17. The sequence of a sales process is __

(1) Lead generation, Call, Presentation & Sale

(2) Sale, Presentation, Lead generation & Call

(3) Presentation, Lead generation, Sale & Call

(4) Lead Generation, Call, Sale & Presentation

(5) There is no sequence required

Q.18. Home loans are granted to -

(1) Individuals

(2) Institutions

(3) Builders

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

Q.19. To 'Close a Call' means __

(1) 'fo end the conversation

(2) To put the phone down

(3) To close the doors

(4) To clinch the sale

(5) To close the business

Q.20. A __ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu.

(1) dialog box

(2) submenu

(3) menu selection

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Q.21. Information kept about a file includes ----

(1) print settings

(2) deletion date

(3) (1) & (2) only

(4) size

(5) None of these

Q.22. __ provides process and memory management services that allow two or more tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously.

(1) Multitasking

(2) Multithreading

(3) Multiprocessing

(4) Multicomputing

(5) None of these

Q.23. The ALU performs __ operations.

(1) arithmetic

(2) ASCII

(3) algorithm-based

(4) logarithm-based

(5) None of these

Q. 24. A (n) __ is software that helps a computer control itself to operate efficiently and keep track of data.

(1) application system

(2) hardware system

(3) software system

(4) oprating system

(5) None of these

Q.25. 'Customisation' means __

(1) Tailor-made products for each customer

(2) Customers selling goods

(3) Tailor-made products for each staff

4) A selling process

(5) None of these

Q.26. A 'Call' in Marketing language means __

(1) Calling On a salesperson

(2) Calling on a customer

(3) Making a phone-call

(4) Telemarketing

(5) None of these

Q.27. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called __

(1) upgrading

(2) processing

(3) batching

(4) utilizing

(5) None of these

Q.28. A Marketing Survey is required for __

(1) deciding marketing strategies

(2) deciding Product strategies

(3) deciding pricing strategies

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

Q.29. The Target Group for Education Loans is ----

(1) all colleges

(2) all parents

(3) research scholars

(4) meritorious students seeking higher education

(5) all of these

Q.30. Cross-selling means __

(1) Selling with a cross face

(2) Cross country marketing

(3) Selling other products to existing customers

(4) Selling to friends

(5) Selling to employees

Q.31. Market Segmentation is useful for---

(1) Preferential marketing

(2) Targeting existing clients

(3) Identifying prospects

(4) Knowing customers' tastes

(5) All of the above

Q.32. The Target Group for Savings Deposit Accounts is __

(1) Newborn babies

(2) students

(3) parents

(4) businessman

(5) all of the above

Q. 33. Market Segmentation can be resorted to by means of __

(1) segmenting by age

(2) segmenting by income

(3) segmenting geographically

(4) all of these

(5) none of these

Q.34. The Target Group for a Car Loan is ---

(1) all auto drivers

(2) all auto dealers

(3) all car owners

(4) any individual needing a car

(5) all of these

Q.35. Market information means ---

(1) knowledge of industries

(2) knowledge of households

(3) knowledge of peers

(4) knowledge of customers' tastes

(5) All of these

Q.36. Credit cards are used for -

(1) Cash withdrawals

(2) Purchase of air tickets

(3) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

Q.37. TheTarget Group for Agricultural Loans is __

(1) any farmer

(2) farm labourers

(3) any individual dealing in agricultural or related activity

(4) farmers'societies

(5) all of these

Q.38. The Target Group for Credit Cards is ----

(1) existing cardholders

(2) all graduates

(3) all minors

(4) individuals with taxable income

(5) all of these

Q.39. Market Segmentation means __

(1) segmenting the salesmen

(2) segmenting the employees

(3) segmenting the customers as per their Heeds

(4) segmenting the products

(5) All of these

Q. 40. A 'Target Group' means---

(1) a group of sellers

(2) a group of buyers

(3) a group of products

(4) a group of persons to whom sales should be focused

(5) all of these

Answer :

(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 2 (5) 1 (6) 2 (7) 4 (8) 1 (9) 3 (10) 4 (11) 2 (12) 3 (13) 2 (14) 1 (15) 4 (16) 5 (17) 1 (18) 1 (19) 4 (20) 1 (21) 3 (22) 1 (23) 1 (24) 4 (25) 1 (26) 2 (27) 2 (28) 4 (29) 4 (30) 3 (31) 5 (32) 5 (33) 4 (34) 4 (35) 5 (36) 4 (37) 3 (38) 4 (39) 3 (40) 5

**************************************************
Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam. 2011 Solved Paper

div style="color: blue;">(Exam Held on 9-1-2011)

1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—

(A) My folder

(B) My Documents

(C) My Files

(D) My Text

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—

(A) Web sites

(B) Information

(C) Programs

(D) Objects

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

3. A directory within a directory is called—

(A) Mini Directory

(B) Junior Directory

(C) Part Directory

(D) Sub Directory

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

4. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into—

(A) Machine language

(B) An algorithm

(C) A debugged program

(D) Java

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—

(A) RAM test

(B) Disk drive test

(C) Memory test

(D) Power-on self-test

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. A ……is a unique name that you give to a file of information.

(A) device letter

(B) folder

(C) filename

(D) filename extension

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

7. Hardware includes—

(A) all devices used to input data into a computer

(B) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes

(C) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data

(D) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

8. A ……… contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.

(A) programming language

(B) syntax

(C) programming structure

(D) logic chart

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

9. All the deleted files go to—

(A) Recycle Bin

(B) Task Bar

(C) Tool Bar

(D) My Computer

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—

(A) Multiprogramming

(B) Multitasking

(C) Time-sharing

(D) Multiprocessing

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—

(A) Password

(B) Passport

(C) Entry-code

(D) Access-code

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

12. Computers use the ……… number system to store data and perform calculations.

(A) binary

(B) octal

(C) decimal

(D) hexadecimal

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

13. The main function of the ALU is to—

(A) Perform arithmetic and logical operations

(B) Store data and information for future use

(C) Control computer output, such as printing

(D) Monitor all computer activities

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

14. ……is the process of carrying out commands.

(A) Fetching

(B) Storing

(C) Executing

(D) Decoding

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

15. Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy ?

(A) The physical parts of the computer

(B) The printed parts of the computer

(C) The printed output

(D) The physical output devices

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

16. A(n) ……… is a program that makes the computer easier to use.

(A) utility

(B) application

(C) operating system

(D) network

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

17. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)—

(A) Workstation

(B) CPU

(C) Magnetic disk

(D) Integrated circuit

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

18. Computer systems are comprised of—

(A) Hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people

(B) Hardware, programs, information, people and procedures

(C) Hardware, programs, information, people and networks

(D) Hardware, software, procedures, networks and people

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

19. An error in a computer program—

(A) Crash

(B) Power Failure

(C) Bug

(D) Virus

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

20. What is output ?

(A) What the processor takes from the user

(B) What the user gives to the processor

(C) What the processor gets from the user

(D) What the processor gives to the user

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

21. The person who writes and tests computer programs is called a—

(A) programmer

(B) computer scientist

(C) software engineer

(D) project developer

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

22. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called—

(A) mentor

(B) instructor

(C) compiler

(D) program

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

23. What menu is selected to print ?

(A) Edit

(B) Special

(C) File

(D) Tools

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

24. What is backup ?

(A) Adding more components to your network

(B) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination

(C) Filtering old data from the new data

(D) Accessing data on tape

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

25. The term bit is short for—

(A) Megabyte

(B) Binary language

(C) Binary digit

(D) Binary number

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

26. A saved document is referred to as a—

(A) file

(B) word

(C) folder

(D) project

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

27. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called—

(A) Information engines

(B) Search engines

(C) Web browsers

(D) Resource locators

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

28. An application program has which one of the following functions ?

(A) It specifies the informationprocessing procedures required by a particular informationprocessing job

(B) It controls the input/output and storage functions of the computer system

(C) It provides various support services for the computer system

(D) It supervises the operations of the CPU

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

29. In page preview mode—

(A) You can see all pages of your document

(B) You can only see the page you are currently working

(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

(D) You can only see the title page of your document

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

30. An operating system that can do multitasking means that—

(A) The operating system can divide up work between several CPUs

(B) Several programs can be operated concurrently

(C) Multiple people can use the computer concurrently

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

31. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ……… command.

(A) Replace

(B) Find

(C) Lookup

(D) Search

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

32. What is the default file extension for all Word documents ?

(A) WRD

(B) TXT

(C) DOC

(D) FIL

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

33. With a CD you can—

(A) Read

(B) Write

(C) Read and Write

(D) Either Read or Write

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

34. A collection of interrelated records is called a—

(A) Utility file

(B) Management information system

(C) Database

(D) Spreadsheet

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

35. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the ……… key.

(A) PageUp

(B) A

(C) Home

(D) Enter

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

36. The term ‘user interface’ refers to—

(A) What the user sees on the screen and how they can interact with it

(B) How the operating system responds to user commands

(C) the means by which the user interacts with the peripheral devices on the computer

(D) The monitor that is available for the computer

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

37. The background of any Word document—

(A) Is always white colour

(B) Is the colour you preset under the Options menu

(C) Is always the same for the entire document

(D) Can have any colour you choose

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

38. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym—

(A) CD

(B) DVD

(C) ROM

(D) RW

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

39. For creating a document, you use ……… command at File Menu.

(A) Open

(B) Close

(C) New

(D) Save

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

40. The contents of ……… are lost when the computer turns off.

(A) storage

(B) input

(C) output

(D) memory

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

41. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called—

(A) A database management system

(B) Batch processing

(C) A real-time system

(D) An on-line system

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

42. A printer is this kind of device—

(A) Input

(B) Word processing

(C) Processing

(D) Output

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

43. Text in a column is generally aligned—

(A) Justified

(B) Right

(C) Center

(D) Left

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

44. What type of device is a computer mouse ?

(A) Input

(B) Output

(C) Software

(D) Storage

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

45. In Excel, Charts are created using which option ?

(A) Chart Wizard

(B) Pivot Table

(C) Pie Chart

(D) Bar Chart

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

46. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?

(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(C) CPU

(D) CD-ROM

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

47. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ ‘Copy’ was clicked, what would happen ?

(A) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard

(B) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard

(C) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking

(D) (B) and (C) above

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

48. You can start Microsoft Word by using ……… button.

(A) New

(B) Start

(C) Program

(D) Control Panel

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

49. You click at B to make the text—

(A) Italics

(B) Underlined

(C) Italics and Underlined

(D) Bold

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

50. The……becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing.

(A) Active tab

(B) Insertion point

(C) Mouse pointer

(D) Ribbon

(E) None of these

Ans : (C

****************
Punjab National Bank PNB Clerk Exam 2010 Paper

Marketing and Computer Knowledge

(Exam Held on: 4-4-2010)

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.

Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1. Marketing function includes—

(A) Designing new products

(B) Advertisements

(C) Publicity

(D) After sales service

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

2. Lead generation can be resorted to

by browsing—

(A) Telephone directories

(B) Yellow pages

(C) Internet sites

(D) List of existing customers

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

3. Effective selling skills depend on—

(A) Effective lead generation

(B) Sales Call Planning

(C) Territory Allocation

(D) Effective communication skills

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

4. Market Information means—

(A) Knowledge level of marketing staff

(B) Information about marketing staff

(C) Information regarding Share market

(D) Knowledge of related markets

(E) All of these

Ans : (D)

5. Marketing channels mean—

(A) Delivery period

(B) Delivery time

(C) Delivery outlets

(D) Delivery place

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

6. ‘Buyer Resistance’ means—

(A) Buyer’s interest in the product being sold

(B) Buyer fighting with the seller

(C) Buyer’s hesitation in buying the product

(D) Buyer becoming a seller

(E) Buyer buying the product

Ans : (C)

7. Marketing is the function of—

(A) Sales persons

(B) Production Department

(C) Planning Department

(D) Team leaders

(E) A collective function of all staff

Ans : (E)

8. A DSA means—

(A) Direct Service Agency

(B) Direct Selling Agent

(C) Double Selling Agent

(D) Distribution Agency

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

9. Service Marketing is resorted to in—

(A) All manufacturing companies

(B) All production houses

(C) Export units

(D) Insurance companies and banks

(E) All of these

Ans : (D)

10. Marketing is—

(A) A skilled person’s job

(B) A one day function

(C) A one time act

(D) Required only when a new product is launched

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

11. Market share refers to—

(A) Share market prices

(B) Price fluctuation in the market

(C) Share issue floated by the company

(D) Share of wallet

(E) Share of business of the company

as compared to peers

Ans : (E)

12. Service Marketing is the same as—

(A) Internet marketing

(B) Telemarketing

(C) Internal Marketing

(D) Relationship Marketing

(E) All of these

Ans : (D)

13. Current Accounts can be freely opened by ………… Find the incorrect answer.

(A) All NRIs

(B) All businessmen

(C) Government departments

(D) Firms and Companies

(E) HUFs

Ans : (E)

14. Buyer Resistance can be overcome by—

(A) Cordial relation between buyer and

seller

(B) Good negotiation

(C) Persuasive communication

(D) Good after sales service

(E) All of these

Ans : (A)

15. Cross-selling is useful for canvassing—

(A) Current Accounts

(B) Fixed Deposit Accounts

(C) Student loans

(D) Car loans

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

16. Market segmentation helps to

determine—

(A) Target groups

(B) Sale price

(C) Profit levels

(D) Product life cycle

(E) All of these

Ans : (A)

17. The target group for Car loans is—

(A) Auto manufacturing companies

(B) Car dealers

(C) Taxi drivers

(D) Car purchasers

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

18. The best promotional tool in any marketing is—

(A) e-promotion

(B) Public Relations

(C) Viral marketing

(D) Word of mouth publicity

(E) Advertisements

Ans : (E)

19. Customisation results in—

(A) Customer exodus

(B) Customer retention

(C) Customer complaints

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

20. The target group for Education Loans is—

(A) All parents

(B) All Professors

(C) All Research Scholars

(D) All Tutorial Colleges

(E) All College Students

Ans : (E)

21. Find the correct sentence.

(A) Higher the price, higher are the sales

(B) More sales persons lead to more sales

(C) Mission statement is part of a Market Plan

(D) Better sales incentives means better performance

(E) All customers are profitable customers

Ans : (C)

22. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper—

(A) Product development

(B) Promotion and Distribution

(C) Pricing

(D) Relationship management

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

23. Savings Accounts can be opened by—

(A) All individuals fulfilling KYC norms

(B) All individuals earning more than Rs. 1,00,000 per annum

(C) All individuals above the age of 18

(D) All salaried persons only

(E) All students below the age of 18

Ans : (C)

24. Situation Analysis is useful for—

(A) SWOT Analysis

(B) Analysis of Sales person’s performances

(C) Analysis of capital markets

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

25. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software is called—

(A) Input

(B) Output

(C) Throughput

(D) Reports

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

26. With a CD you can—

(A) Read

(B) Write

(C) Neither Read nor Write

(D) Both Read and Write

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

27. Errors in a computer program are referred to as—

(A) bugs

(B) mistakes

(C) item overlooked

(D) blunders

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following are computers that can be carried around easily ?

(A) Laptops

(B) Supercomputers

(C) PCs

(D) Minicomputers

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

29. What menu is selected to change font and style ?

(A) Tools

(B) File

(C) Format

(D) Edit

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

30. Where is the disk put in a computer?

(A) In the hard drive

(B) In the disk drive

(C) Into the CPU

(D) In the modem

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

31. A computer’s hard disk is—

(A) an arithmetic and logical unit

(B) computer software

(C) operating system

(D) computer hardware

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

32. A compiler is used to translate a program written in—

(A) a low level language

(B) a high level language

(C) assembly language

(D) machine language

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

33. In programming, you use the following keys—

(A) Arrow keys

(B) Function keys

(C) Alpha keys

(D) page up and Page Down keys

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

34. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly ?

(A) Function keys

(B) The numeric keypad

(C) Ctrl, shift and alt

(D) Arrow keys

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

35. Files are organized by storing them in—

(A) tables

(B) databases

(C) folders

(D) graphs

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

36. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—

(A) entry-code

(B) passport

(C) password

(D) access-code

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

37. Advertisements are not required in—

(A) Public Sector banks

(B) Private Sector banks

(C) Government concerns

(D) Profit making companies

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

38. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is through the use of a—

(A) plotter

(B) scanner

(C) printer

(D) keyboard

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

39. Computer programs are also known as—

(A) operating systems

(B) documents

(C) peripherals

(D) applications

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

40. A collection of unprocessed items is ………

(A) information

(B) data

(C) memory

(D) reports

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

41. ……… is when the more powerhungry components, such as the monitor and the hard drive, are put in

idle.

(A) Hibernation

(B) Power down

(C) Standby mode

(D) The shutdown procedure

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

42. ……… is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.

(A) Tracking

(B) Formatting

(C) Crashing

(D) Allotting

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

43. A saved document is referred to as a ………

(A) file

(B) word

(C) folder

(D) project

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?

(A) GB

(B) KB

(C) MB

(D) TB

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

45. The operating system is the most common type of ……… software.

(A) communication

(B) application

(C) system

(D) word-processing

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. A ……… is approximately one billion bytes.

(A) kilobyte

(B) bit

(C) gigabyte

(D) megabyte

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

47. A scanner scans—

(A) Pictures

(B) Text

(C) Both Pictures and Text

(D) Neither Pictures nor Text

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

48. Dumb terminals have terminals and—

(A) Mouse

(B) Speakers

(C) Keyboard

(D) Mouse or Speakers

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

49. The portion of the CPU that coordinates the activities of all the other computer components is the—

(A) motherboard

(B) coordination board

(C) control unit

(D) arithmetic logic unit

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

50. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n)—

(A) version

(B) patch

(C) tutorial

(D) FAQ

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

***********************************************
SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

(EXAM HELD ON : 16-01-2011)

Q. 1. An email account includes a storage area, often called a(n) __

(1) attachment

(2) hyperlink

(3) mailbox

(4) IP address

(5) None of these

Q. 2. Data becomes __ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.

(1) processed

(2) graphs

(3) information

(4) presentation

(5) None of these

Q.3. A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more efficiently isajan __

(1) Windows

(2) System Software

(3) DBMS

(4) Application Software

(5) None of these

Q. 4. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is __

(1) CPU

(2) Memory

(3) Storage

(4) File

(5) None of these

Q.5. A __ is a microprocessor-based computing device.

(1) personal computer

(2) mainframe

(3) workstation

(4) server

(5) None of these

Q. 6. You use a(n) __ , such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information.

(1) output device

(2) input device

(3) storage device

(4) processing device

(5) None of these

Q.7. The term __ designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.

(1) digital device

(2) system add-on

(3) disk pack

(4) peripheral device

(5) None of these

Q. 8. The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer __

(1) programs

(2) processors

(3) input devices

(4) memory modules

(5) None of these

Q. 9. RAM can be thought of as the __ for the computer's processor.

(1) factory

(2) operating room

(3) waiting room

(4) planning room

(5) None of these

Q. 10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of __ languages.

(1) low-level

(2) computer

(3) system programming

(4) high-level

(5) None of these

Q.11. __ is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the requested data.

(1) Sequential access

(2) Random access

(3) Quick access

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Q.12. The __ is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the Computer per second.

(1) data migration rate

(2) data digitizing rate

(3) data transfer rate

(4) data access rate

(5) None of these

Q.13. A __ converts all the statements in a program in a single batch and the resulting collection of instructions is placed in a new file.

(1) converter

(2) compiler

(3) interpreter

(4) instruction

(5) None of these

Q.14. One thousand bytes is a __

(1) kilobyte

(2) megabyte

(3) gigabyte

(4) terabyte

(5) None of these

Q.15. 'Benchmark' means __

(1) Benches for customers to sit

(2) Benches for salesmen to sit

(3) Products displayed on a bench

(4) Set standards

(5) All of the above

Q. 16 A Call Centre is __

(1) a meeting place for DSAs

(2) a Training Centre for DSAs

(3) a meeting place for customers

(4) Data Centre

(5) a back office set up where customer queries are answered

Q .17. The sequence of a sales process is __

(1) Lead generation, Call, Presentation & Sale

(2) Sale, Presentation, Lead generation & Call

(3) Presentation, Lead generation, Sale & Call

(4) Lead Generation, Call, Sale & Presentation

(5) There is no sequence required

Q.18. Home loans are granted to -

(1) Individuals

(2) Institutions

(3) Builders

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

Q.19. To 'Close a Call' means __

(1) 'fo end the conversation

(2) To put the phone down

(3) To close the doors

(4) To clinch the sale

(5) To close the business

Q.20. A __ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu.

(1) dialog box

(2) submenu

(3) menu selection

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Q.21. Information kept about a file includes ----

(1) print settings

(2) deletion date

(3) (1) & (2) only

(4) size

(5) None of these

Q.22. __ provides process and memory management services that allow two or more tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously.

(1) Multitasking

(2) Multithreading

(3) Multiprocessing

(4) Multicomputing

(5) None of these

Q.23. The ALU performs __ operations.

(1) arithmetic

(2) ASCII

(3) algorithm-based

(4) logarithm-based

(5) None of these

Q. 24. A (n) __ is software that helps a computer control itself to operate efficiently and keep track of data.

(1) application system

(2) hardware system

(3) software system

(4) oprating system

(5) None of these

Q.25. 'Customisation' means __

(1) Tailor-made products for each customer

(2) Customers selling goods

(3) Tailor-made products for each staff

4) A selling process

(5) None of these

Q.26. A 'Call' in Marketing language means __

(1) Calling On a salesperson

(2) Calling on a customer

(3) Making a phone-call

(4) Telemarketing

(5) None of these

Q.27. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called __

(1) upgrading

(2) processing

(3) batching

(4) utilizing

(5) None of these

Q.28. A Marketing Survey is required for __

(1) deciding marketing strategies

(2) deciding Product strategies

(3) deciding pricing strategies

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

Q.29. The Target Group for Education Loans is ----

(1) all colleges

(2) all parents

(3) research scholars

(4) meritorious students seeking higher education

(5) all of these

Q.30. Cross-selling means __

(1) Selling with a cross face

(2) Cross country marketing

(3) Selling other products to existing customers

(4) Selling to friends

(5) Selling to employees

Q.31. Market Segmentation is useful for---

(1) Preferential marketing

(2) Targeting existing clients

(3) Identifying prospects

(4) Knowing customers' tastes

(5) All of the above

Q.32. The Target Group for Savings Deposit Accounts is __

(1) Newborn babies

(2) students

(3) parents

(4) businessman

(5) all of the above

Q. 33. Market Segmentation can be resorted to by means of __

(1) segmenting by age

(2) segmenting by income

(3) segmenting geographically

(4) all of these

(5) none of these

Q.34. The Target Group for a Car Loan is ---

(1) all auto drivers

(2) all auto dealers

(3) all car owners

(4) any individual needing a car

(5) all of these

Q.35. Market information means ---

(1) knowledge of industries

(2) knowledge of households

(3) knowledge of peers

(4) knowledge of customers' tastes

(5) All of these

Q.36. Credit cards are used for -

(1) Cash withdrawals

(2) Purchase of air tickets

(3) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

Q.37. TheTarget Group for Agricultural Loans is __

(1) any farmer

(2) farm labourers

(3) any individual dealing in agricultural or related activity

(4) farmers'societies

(5) all of these

Q.38. The Target Group for Credit Cards is ----

(1) existing cardholders

(2) all graduates

(3) all minors

(4) individuals with taxable income

(5) all of these

Q.39. Market Segmentation means __

(1) segmenting the salesmen

(2) segmenting the employees

(3) segmenting the customers as per their Heeds

(4) segmenting the products

(5) All of these

Q. 40. A 'Target Group' means---

(1) a group of sellers

(2) a group of buyers

(3) a group of products

(4) a group of persons to whom sales should be focused

(5) all of these

Answer :

(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 2 (5) 1 (6) 2 (7) 4 (8) 1 (9) 3 (10) 4 (11) 2 (12) 3 (13) 2 (14) 1 (15) 4 (16) 5 (17) 1 (18) 1 (19) 4 (20) 1 (21) 3 (22) 1 (23) 1 (24) 4 (25) 1 (26) 2 (27) 2 (28) 4 (29) 4 (30) 3 (31) 5 (32) 5 (33) 4 (34) 4 (35) 5 (36) 4 (37) 3 (38) 4 (39) 3 (40) 5

****************************************

Central Bank of India PO Exam Paper 2010

Computer Knowledge

(Exam Held on 25-07-2010)

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline

appears below the word.

(A) red

(B) green

(D) black

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent

commands or actions.

(A) Search

(B) Cut

(D) Undo

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—

(A) a formula

(B) text

(D) a title

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of

data.

(A) Word processing

(B) Presentation graphics

(D) Electronic Spreadsheet

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.

(A) kilobyte

(B) megabyte

(D) terabyte

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected

cells.

(A) Formatting

(B) Merging

(D) Splitting

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.

(A) communication

(B) application

(D) word-processing

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—

(A) Primary-clicking

(B) pointing

(D) Secondary-clicking

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—

(A) cells

(B) sheets

(D) gridlines

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of

the insertion point.

(A) press the left mouse key

(B) double-click the right mouse key

(D) press the delete key

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.

(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).

(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.

Ans : (D)

12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.

(A) CD

B. BIOS

C. CPU

D. DVD

Ans : (B)

13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

(A) GUIs

(B) Icons

(D) Windows

Ans : (C)

14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple

programs at the same time.

(A) Multitasking

(B) Streamlining

(D) Simulcasting

Ans : (A)

15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in

need of immediate attention is called an:

(A) action.

(B) event.

(D) activity.

Ans : (C)

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________

to each task requiring the processor’s attention.

(A) CPU

(B) slice of time

(D) event

Ans : (B)

17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications

interact with are known as:

(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).

(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).

(D) bootstrap loaders.

Ans : (A)

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

(A) point-and-click

(B) user-friendly

(D) Mac

Ans : (C)

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.

(B) peripheral device.

(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.

Ans : (D)

20. A spooler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.

(B) print job.

(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.

Ans : (C)

21. Virtual memory is typically located:

(A) on a floppy disk.

(B) in the CPU.

(D) on the hard drive.

Ans : (D)

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.

(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.

(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.

Ans : (B)

23. The definition of thrashing is:

(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.

(B) insufficient hard disk space.

(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.

Ans : (A)

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.

(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.

(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.

Ans : (B)

25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

(A) configuration.

(B) accessibility.

(D) logging in.

Ans : (C)

26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the

computer’s:

(A) CPU.

(B) platform.

(D) CMOS.

Ans : (B)

27. The following message generally means:

(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.

(B) the CD drive is not functioning.

(D) there is a problem loading a device.

Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the

boot-up process?

(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings

(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings

(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system

Ans : (B)

29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:

(A) load the operating system into RAM.

(B) the power-on self-test.

(D) load application programs.

Ans : (D)

30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating

system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.

(A) BIOS

(B) API

(D) supervisor program

Ans : (A)

31. The basic Input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

(A) RAM.

(B) ROM.

(D) the hard drive.

Ans : (B)

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the

____________ process.

(A) configuration

(B) CMOS

(D) ROM

Ans : (C)

33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—

(A) registry.

(B) API.

(D) kernel.

Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?

(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.

(B) The video card and video memory are tested.

(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.

Ans : (A)

35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—

(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.

(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be

manually changed.

(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.

Ans : (A)

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a

hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) files.

(B) folders.

(D) drives.

(D) systems.

Ans : (D)

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—

(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.

(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.

(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.

Ans : (A)

38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—

(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.

(B) Files can be generated from an application.

(D) Files should be organized in folders.

Ans : (C)

39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—

(A) an open folder.

(B) the folder contains subfolders.

(D) a graphics file.

Ans : (B)

40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a

folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.

(A) List

(B) Thumbnails

(D) Icon

Ans : (C)

***********************************

Central Bank of India P.O. Exam., 2010

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline appears below the word.

(A) red

(B) green

(C) blue

(D) black

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.

(A) Search

(B) Cut

(C) Document

(D) Undo

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—

(A) a formula

(B) text

(C) a name

(D) a title

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.

(A) Word processing

(B) Presentation graphics

(C) Database Management Systems

(D) Electronic Spreadsheet

P a g e | 61

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.

(A) kilobyte

(B) megabyte

(C) gigabyte

(D) terabyte

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.

(A) Formatting

(B) Merging

(C) Embedding

(D) Splitting

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.

(A) communication

(B) application

(C) system

(D) word-processing

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—

(A) Primary-clicking

(B) pointing

(C) Double-clicking

(D) Secondary-clicking

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—

(A) cells

(B) sheets

(C) block lines

(D) gridlines

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.

(A) press the left mouse key

(B) double-click the right mouse key

(C) press the BACKSPACE key

(D) press the delete key

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.

(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).

(C) manage memory and storage.

(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.

Ans : (D)

12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.

(A) CD

B. BIOS

C. CPU

D. DVD

Ans : (B)

13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

(A) GUIs

(B) Icons

(C) Menus

(D) Windows

Ans : (C)

14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.

(A) Multitasking

(B) Streamlining

(C) Multiuser

(D) Simulcasting

Ans : (A)

15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:

(A) action.

(B) event.

(C) interrupt.

(D) activity.

Ans : (C)

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.

(A) CPU

(B) slice of time

(C) stack

(D) event

Ans : (B)

17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:

(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).

(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).

(C) device drivers.

(D) bootstrap loaders.

Ans : (A)

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

(A) point-and-click

(B) user-friendly

(C) command-driven

(D) Mac

Ans : (C)

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.

(B) peripheral device.

(C) utility program.

(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.

Ans : (D)

20. A spooler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.

(B) print job.

(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.

(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.

Ans : (C)

21. Virtual memory is typically located:

(A) on a floppy disk.

(B) in the CPU.

(C) in a flash card.

(D) on the hard drive.

Ans : (D)

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.

(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.

(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.

(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.

Ans : (B)

23. The definition of thrashing is:

(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.

(B) insufficient hard disk space.

(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.

(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.

Ans : (A)

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.

(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.

(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.

(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.

Ans : (B)

25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

(A) configuration.

(B) accessibility.

(C) authentication.

(D) logging in.

Ans : (C)

26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:

(A) CPU.

(B) platform.

(C) BIOS.

(D) CMOS.

Ans : (B)

27. The following message generally means:

(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.

(B) the CD drive is not functioning.

(C) the BIOS is corrupted.

(D) there is a problem loading a device.

Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?

(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings

(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings

(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings

(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system

Ans : (B)

29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:

(A) load the operating system into RAM.

(B) the power-on self-test.

(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).

(D) load application programs.

Ans : (D)

30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.

(A) BIOS

(B) API

(C) device driver

(D) supervisor program

Ans : (A)

31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

(A) RAM.

(B) ROM.

(C) the CPU.

(D) the hard drive.

Ans : (B)

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.

(A) configuration

(B) CMOS

(C) POST

(D) ROM

Ans : (C)

33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—

(A) registry.

(B) API.

(C) CMOS.

(D) kernel.

Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?

(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.

(B) The video card and video memory are tested.

(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.

(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.

Ans : (A)

35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—

(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.

(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.

(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).

(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.

Ans : (A)

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) files.

(B) folders.

(D) drives.

(D) systems.

Ans : (D)

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—

(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.

(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.

(C) more than one window can be open at a time.

(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.

Ans : (A)

38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—

(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.

(B) Files can be generated from an application.

(C) Files are stored in RAM.

(D) Files should be organized in folders.

Ans : (C)

39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—

(A) an open folder.

(B) the folder contains subfolders.

(C) a text file.

(D) a graphics file.

Ans : (B)

40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.

(A) List

(B) Thumbnails

(C) Details

(D) Icon

Ans : (C)

*******************************************

Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam., 2010 Solved Paper

Computer Knowledge(Held on 23-5-2010)

1. Memory, also called random access memory, or RAM……….

(A) contains the electronic circuits that cause processing to occur

(B) makes the information resulting from processing available for use

(D) consists of electronic components that store data

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

2. Correcting errors in a program is referred to as………

(A) debugging

(B) bugging

(D) modifying

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

3. An assembler is used to translate a program written in………

(A) a low level language

(B) machine language

(D) assembly language

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

4. The capability of the operating system to enable two or more than two programs to execute simultaneously in a single computer system by using a single processor is………

(A) Multiprocessing

(B) Multitasking

(C) Multiprogramming

(D) Multiexecution

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

5. The basic goal of computer process is to convert data into……

(A) information

(B) tables

(C) files

(D) graphs

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

6. A hard copy of a document is …

(A) stored in the hard disk

(B) stored on a floppy

(C) stored on a CD

(D) printed on the printer

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following is not an output device ?

(A) Plotter

(B) Printer

(C) Scanner

(D) Monitor

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

8. Which keys can be used together with other keys for special tasks ?

(A) Insert, Delete

(B) Ctrl, Shift

(C) Left Arrow, Right Arrow

(D) Page up, Page Down

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

9. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?

(A) Programs

(B) Software

(C) Hardware

(D) Output

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

10. Computers gather data, which means they allow users to…… data.

(A) present

(B) store

(C) output

(D) input

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. CPU stands for……

(A) CD-run on memory

(B) central processing unit

(C) call powers up

(D) create programs user

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

12. Moves the cursor one space to the right to puts spaces in between words……

(A) control key

(B) space bar

(C) printer

(D) mouse

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

13. Use this when you want to make all letters capital without having to use the shift key for each character………

(A) shifter

(B) upper case

(C) caps lock key

(D) icon

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

14. A device that reads the information contained on a disk and transfers it to the computer’s memory……

(A) monitor

(B) screen

(C) keyboard

(D) disk drive

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following is not the major function of a computer ?

(A) Processing data into information

(B) Storing data or information

(C) Gathering data

(D) Analysing data or information

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

16. A disk on which you store information………

(A) plate

(B) data disk

(C) paper disk

(D) TV disk

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. Allows you to print……

(A) ribbon

(B) monitor

(C) go now

(D) Control-P

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

18. Easy to use……

(A) user friendly

(B) select

(C) helpful

(D) ever-ready

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

19. When your computer stops working suddenly, it is referred to as a……

(A) crash

(B) die

(C) death

(D) penalty

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

20. The smallest item of useful information a computer can handle…

(A) bite

(B) byte

(C) bit

(D) bait

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

21. Devices that let the computer communicate with you……

(A) input

(B) output

(C) type

(D) print

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

22. Devices that allow you to put information into the computer ……

(A) input

(B) output

(C) type

(D) print

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

23. Eight bits of data……

(A) octabit

(B) word

(C) sentence

(D) byte

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

24. The secret code that gives you access to some programs……

(A) clue

(B) cue

(C) password

(D) help

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

25. The different styles of lettering in a word processing program……

(A) font

(B) calligraphy

(C) writing

(D) manuscript

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

26. Any letter, number, or symbol found on the keyboard that you can type into the computer……

(A) output

(B) character

(C) type

(D) print

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

27. A symbol or question on the screen that prompts you to take action and tell the computer what to do next……

(A) scanner

(B) questionnaire

(C) prompt and dialog box

(D) information seeker

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

28. Choices are referred to as……

(A) options

(B) exit

(C) boot

(D) folder

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

29. Anything written on the screen ……

(A) cursor

(B) text

(C) folder

(D) boot

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

30. Lets you leave a screen or program……

(A) boot

(B) programs

(C) exit

(D) text

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

31. Instructions that tell the computer what to do. Another name for software……

(A) programs

(B) CPU

(C) options

(D) folder

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. A program which helps create written documents and lets you go back and make corrections as necessary……

(A) spreadsheet

(B) personal writer

(C) word printer

(D) word processor

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. A place that a user can create to store files……

(A) cursor

(B) text

(C) folder

(D) boot

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

34. Start or restart the computer……

(A) exit

(B) kick

(C) boot

(D) kick-start

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

35. A blinking indicator that shows you where your next action will happen……

(A) CPU

(B) cursor

(C) tool bar

(D) boot

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

36. Commands at the top of a screen such as : FILE-EDIT-FONT-TOOLS to operate and change things within programs……

(A) menu bar

(B) tool bar

(C) user friendly

(D) word processor

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

37. CD-ROM stands for……

(A) central processing unit

(B) CD-remote open mouse

(C) CD-resize or minimize

(D) CD-read only memory

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

38. To change written work already done……

(A) file

(B) edit

(C) cut

(D) close

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

39. A place in the computer system where data and programs are temporarily stored……

(A) paste

(B) open

(C) memory

(D) pocket

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

40. A key that will erase information from the computerÕs memory and characters on the screen……

(A) edit

(B) delete key

(C) dummy out

(D) trust key

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

41. To insert a copy of the clipboard contents, whatever was last cut or copied at the insertion point……

(A) paste

(B) stick in

(C) fit in

(D) push in

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

42. The command used to remove text or graphics from a document. The information is then stored on a clipboard so you can paste it.

(A) chop

(B) cut

(C) clip

(D) cart away

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

43. To exit the program without leaving the application……

(A) file

(B) edit

(C) copy

(D) close

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

44. A removable magnetic disc that holds information……

(A) floppy disk

(B) hard drive

(C) monitor

(D) portable

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

45. A command that saves what you are working on into the hard drive, or onto a disk……

(A) view

(B) hold

(C) save

(D) go

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

46. A command to get a file you worked on from the memory where it was stored……

(A) close

(B) delete

(C) open

(D) get it

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

47. To move down a page in a document……

(A) jump

(B) fly

(C) wriggle

(D) scroll

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

48. The primary device that a computer uses to store information……

(A) TV

(B) storehouse

(C) desk

(D) hard drive

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

49. Screen that comes on when you turn on your computer that shows all the icons……

(A) desktop

(B) face to face

(C) viewer

(D) view space

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

50. A program that works like a calculator for keeping track of money and making budgets……

(A) calculator

(B) spreadsheet

(C) budgeter

(D) financier

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

*******************************************

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam, 2010

Computer Knowledge

(Held on 21-2-2010)

1. A………typically connects personal computers within a very limited geographical area, usually within a single building.

(A) LAN

(B) BAN

(C) TAN

(D) NAN

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

2. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called—

(A) utilizing

(B) batching

(C) upgrading

(D) processing

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

3. An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the ……… sign and the name of the e-mail server that manages the user’s electronic post office box.

(A) @

(B) #

(C) &

(D) *

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. Software applies……, also called algorithms, to process data.

(A) arithmetic

(B) procedures

(C) objects

(D) rules

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

5. A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) ……, but no spaces.

(A) question mark

(B) exclamation mark

(C) underscore

(D) period

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

6. An ad hoc query is a—

(A) pre-planned question

(B) pre-scheduled question

(C) spur-of-the-moment question

(D) question that will not return any results

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

7. A Web ……… consists of one or more Web pages located on a Web server.

(A) hub

(B) site

(C) story

(D) template

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

8. A computer ……… is a set of program instructions that can attach itself to a file, reproduce itself, and spread to other files.

(A) worm

(B) virus

(C) trojan horse

(D) phishing scam

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

9. The desktop contains small graphics called—

(A) windows

(B) logos

(C) icons

(D) pictures

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of ……… languages.

(A) low-level

(B) computer

(C) system programming

(D) high-level

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………camera is a peripheral device used to capture still images in a digital format that can be easily transferred into a computer and manipulated using graphics software.

(A) digital

(B) analog

(C) classic

(D) film

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

12. ……makes it possible for shoppers to make purchases using their computers.

(A) E-world

(B) E-commerce

(C) E-spend

(D) E-business

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

13. Networks are monitored by security personnel and supervised by ………who set(s) up accounts and passwords for authorized network users.

(A) IT managers

(B) the government

(C) network administrators

(D) password administrators

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

14. Application software is designed to accomplish—

(A) real-world tasks

(B) computer-centric tasks

(C) gaming tasks

(D) operating system tasks

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

15. A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of—

(A) a record

(B) data

(C) a file

(D) a database

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

16. The human-readable version of a program is called—

(A) source code

(B) program code

(C) human code

(D) system code

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

17. A ……… computer (also referred to as a laptop), is a small, lightweight personal computer that incorporates the screen, the keyboard, storage, and processing components into a single portable unit.

(A) notebook

(B) journal

(C) diary

(D) briefcase

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

18. ……… is the result produced by a computer.

(A) Data

(B) Memory

(C) Output

(D) Input

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

19. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are called—

(A) Hypertext

(B) Networks

(C) Internet

(D) Web browsers

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

20. A ……… is a device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes your computer with battery backup power during a power outage.

(A) surge strip

(B) USB

(C) UPS

(D) battery strip

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

21. When you save to ………, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.

(A) RAM

(B) motherboard

(C) secondary storage device

(D) primary storage device

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

22. The motherboard is the—

(A) circuit board that houses peripheral devices

(B) same as the CPU chip

(C) the first chip that is accessed when the computer is turned on

(D) circuit board that contains a CPU and other chips

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

23. A computer-intensive problemruns on a—

(A) server

(B) main frame

(C) supercomputer

(D) super PC

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

24. A(n)……converts and executesone statement at a time.

(A) compiler

(B) interpreter

(C) converter

(D) instructions

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

25. The term ……… designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.

(A) digital device

(B) system add-on

(C) disk pack

(D) peripheral device

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

26. Approximately how many bytes make one megabyte ?

(A) One thousand

(B) Ten thousand

(C) One hundred

(D) One million

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

27. What is MP3 ?

(A) A mouse

(B) A Printer

(C) A Sound format

(D) A Scanner

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

28. All the deleted files go to—

(A) Recycle Bin

(B) Task Bar

(C) Tool Bar

(D) My Computer

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

29. ……… this is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of it.

(A) Network piracy

(B) Plagiarism

(C) Software piracy

(D) Site-license piracy

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

30. A directory within a directory is called—

(A) Mini Directory

(B) Junior Directory

(C) Part Directory

(D) Sub Directory

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

31. Which is the best definition of a software package ?

(A) An add-on for your computer such as additional memory

(B) A set of computer programs used for a certain function such as word processing

(C) A protection you can buy for a computer

(D) The box, manual and license agreement that accompany commercial software

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

32. In MICR, C stands for ……….

(A) Code

(B) Colour

(C) Computer

(D) Character

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. Fax machines and imaging systems are examples of—

(A) bar-code readers

(B) imaging systems

(C) scanning devices

(D) pen-based systems

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

34. When writing a document, you can use the ……… feature to find an appropriate word or an alternative word if you find yourself stuck for the right word.

(A) dictionary

(B) word finder

(C) encyclopedia

(D) thesaurus

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

35. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?

(A) Function

(B) Control

(C) Arrow

(D) Space bar

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

36. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is—

(A) read-only

(B) memory-only

(C) run-only

(D) write-only

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

37. In an information system, alphanumeric data normally takes the form of—

(A) Sentences and paragraphs

(B) Numbers and alphabetical characters

(C) Graphic shapes and figures

(D) Human voice and other sounds

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

38. A Website’s main page is called its—

(A) home page

(B) browser page

(C) search place

(D) bookmark

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

39. When installing ………, the user must copy and usually decompress program files from a CDROM or other medium to the hard disk.

(A) programming software

(B) system hardware

(C) applications hardware

(D) applications software

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

40. A collection of interrelated files in a computer is a—

(A) file manager

(B) field

(C) record

(D) database

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

41. A ……… computer is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users.

(A) server

(B) mainframe

(C) desktop

(D) tablet

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

42. The trend in computer systems is toward the use of graphical user interfaces (GUIs). In these operating systems, a trackball is described as—

(A) a roller ball which moves the cursor

(B) a pen-shaped device which allows data to be entered through the CRT screen

(C) a figure which resembles a familiar office device

(D) an outdated input device

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

43. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by—

(A) Symbols

(B) Labels

(C) Graphs

(D) Icons

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

44. What is usually used for displaying information at public places ?

(A) Monitors

(B) Overhead Projections

(C) Monitors and Overhead Projections

(D) Touch Screen Kiosks

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

45. The real business and competitive value of information technology lies in—

(A) The software applications that are used by many companies

(B) The capabilities of the software and value of the information a business acquires and uses

(C) The infrastructure of hardware, networks, and other IT facilities that are commonly used by many companies

(D) The capabilities of the hardware and the speed at which it processes information

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. Companies use which of the following vendors to provide access to software and services rather than purchasing the applications and maintaining the applications themselves ?

(A) Open source vendors

(B) Alliances

(C) Application service providers

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

47. Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a computer virus can enter a computer system ?

(A) Opening an application previously installed on the computer

(B) Borrowed copies of software

(C) Viewing a website without causing any additional transactions

(D) Running antivirus programs

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

48. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of—

(A) spooling

(B) dentity theft

(C) spoofing

(D) hacking

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

49. The first step in the transaction processing cycle is—

(A) database operations

(B) audit

(C) data entry

(D) user inquiry

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

50. In the information systems concept, the output function involves—

(A) Capturing and assembling elements that enter the system to be processed

(B) Transformation processes that convert input into output

(C) Transferring elements that have been produced by a transformation process to their ultimate destination

(D) Monitoring and evaluating feedback to determine whether a system is moving toward the achievement of its goal

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)
*********************************
Computer Awareness for Bank Exams

1. Who is called as "Father of Computers''?

(A) Charles Babage

(B) Blaise Pascal

(C) Hollirth

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

2. The first Digital Computer introduced, was named as :

(A) Univac

(B) Mark-I

(C) Eniac

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

3. How many generations, computer can be classified?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 3

(D) 6

(E) None of these

4. First Generation Computers contain :

(A) Transistors

(B) Vacume Tubes

(C) LSI

(D) VLSI

(E) None of these

5. II Generation Computers are made of :

(A) Vaccume Tubes

(B) Transistors

(C) LSI

(D) VLSI

(E) None of these

6. IV Generation Computers contain :

(A) LSI

(B) Vaccume Tubes

(C) All Technology

(D) Transistors

(E) None of these

7. Vth Generation Computers are based on:

(A) Artificial Intelligence

(B) Programming Intelligence

(C) System Knowledge

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

8. Computers, combine both measuring and counting, are called :

(A) Analog

(B) Digital

(C) Hybrid

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

9. In world today, most of the computers are :

(A) Digital

(B) Hybrid

(C) Analog

(D) Complex

(E) None of these

10. In any computer installation, how many elements consists?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 1

(E) None of these

11. Physical structure of computer is called :

(A) Software

(B) Hardware

(C) Humanware

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

12. A computer can perform, which of the following tasks?

(A) Computation

(B) Communication

(C) Processing

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

13. CPU stands for :

(A) Computer Processing Unit

(B) Central Processing Unit

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) Communication Processing Unit

(E) None of these

14. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals?

(A) Analog computer

(B) Digital computer

(C) both

(D) Digilog Computer

(E) None of these

15. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now?

(A) Mainframe

(B) Microcomputer

(C) Minicomputer

(D) Both (B) & (C)

(E) None of these

16. PARAM is an example of :

(A) Super computer

(B) PC

(C) Laptop

(D) PDA

(E) None of these

17. Who developed the `analytical engine'?

(A) Jacquard loom

(B) Charles Babbage

(C) Shannon

(D) IBM

(E) None of these

18. ENIAC stands for :

(A) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator

(B) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer

(C) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator

(D) Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator

(E) None of these

19. First Generation of computer was based on which technology?

(A) Transistor

(B) Vacuum Tube

(C) LSI

(D) VLSI

(E) None of these

20. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of computer?

(A) Second Generation

(B) Fourth Generation

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) Third Generation

(E) All of the above

21. GUI stands for :

(A) Graphical User Interface

(B) Graph Use Interface

(C) Graphical Universal Interface

(D) None of these

22. The time taken by CPU to retrieve and interpret the instruction to be executed is called as :

(A) Instruction cycle

(B) Fetch cycle

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

23. Which of the following is responsible for all types of calculations?

(A) ALU

(B) Control Unit

(C) Registers

(D) BUS

(E) None of these

24. Internal memory in a CPU is nothing but :

(A) A set of registers

(B) A set of ALU

(C) Microprocessor

(D) BUS

(E) None of these

25. Which of the following is permanent memory?

(A) SRAM

(B) DRAM

(C) ROM

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Answers :

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)

11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)

21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (C)

SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam., 2009

Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge

1. A keyboard is this kind of device—

(A) black

(B) input

(C) output

(D) word Processing

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

2. IT stands for—

(A) information Technology

(B) integrated Technology

(C) intelligent Technology

(D) interesting Technology

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?

(A) Personal Computers

(B) Supercomputers

(C) Laptops

(D) Notebooks

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—

(A) disk

(B) data

(C) file

(D) floppy

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—

(A) pulling

(B) pushing

(C) downloading

(D) transferring

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?

(A) Disk drive

(B) Keyboard

(C) Monitor

(D) Printer

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.

(A) Fetching

(B) Storing

(C) Executing

(D) Decoding

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software.

(A) computer Scientist

(B) computer sales representative

(C) computer consultant

(D) corporate trainer

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?

(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor

(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor

(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor

(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—

(A) title bar

(B) button

(C) dialog box

(D) window

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.

(A) pointer

(B) menu

(C) icon

(D) button

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

12. An error is also known as—

(A) bug

(B) debug

(C) cursor

(D) icon

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

13. Arithmetic Operations—

(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item

(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order

(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT

(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—

(A) picturing an event

(B) narrating a story

(C) writing a letter

(D) creating a drawing

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

15. Promotion in Marketing means—

(A) passing an examination

(B) elevation from one grade to another

(C) selling the products through various means

(D) selling the product in specific areas

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

16. Microsoft Word is an example of—

(A) an operating system

(B) a processing device

(C) application software

(D) an input device

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. Sources of Sales Leads are—

(A) Data Mining

(B) Market Research

(C) Media Outlets

(D) Promotional Programs

(E) All of these

Ans : (E)

18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—

(A) storage

(B) output

(C) input

(D) information

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ?

(A) RAM

(B) printer

(C) monitor

(D) ROM

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—

(A) to watch TV serials

(B) to discuss with other sales persons

(C) to monitor media outlets

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

21. Market Expansion means—

(A) hiring more staff

(B) firing more staff

(C) buying more products

(D) buying more companies

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—

(A) program

(B) command

(C) user response

(D) processor

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

23. Effective marketing helps in—

(A) developing new products

(B) creating a competitive environment

(C) building demand for products

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?

(A) Hardware

(B) Software

(C) Programs

(D) Output

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

25. A Call in Marketing means—

(A) to phone the customers

(B) to visit the customers

(C) to visit the marketing site

(D) to call on prospective customers

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

26. Delivery Channel means—

(A) maternity wards

(B) handing over the products to the buyers

(C) places where products are made available to the buyers

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

27. Processing involves—

(A) inputting data into a computer system

(B) transforming input into output

(C) displaying output in a useful manner

(D) providing relevant answers

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking.

(A) All the customers

(B) All the educated customers

(C) All the computer educated customers

(D) Only creditors

(E) All of these

Ans : (C)

29. Innovation mean—

(A) Product Designing

(B) New ideas

(C) Impulse

(D) Both (A) and (B)

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan.

(A) All the customers

(B) Students

(C) Only poor students

(D) Students having promising educational track record

(E) All of these

Ans : (B)

31. Service after sale is not the function of—

(A) Marketing staff

(B) Seller

(C) Director of the company

(D) Employees of the company

(E) All of the above are wrong

Ans : (A)

32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.

(A) fairs

(B) village fairs

(C) door to door campaign

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

33. Market Survey means—

(A) Market Research

(B) Market Planning

(C) Marketing Strategies

(D) Market Monitering

(E) All of these

Ans : (A)

34. ………can be done through digital Banking ?

(A) Mobile phone

(B) Internet

(C) Telephone

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ?

(A) Devotion to the work

(B) Submissive

(C) Sympathy

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

36. The rural marketing is not required because—

(A) rural people do not understand marketing

(B) its not practical from the cost point of view

(C) it is sheer wastage of time

(D) All are wrong

(E) All are correct

Ans : (D)

37. Planned-cost service means—

(A) Costly products

(B) Extra profit on the same cost

(C) Extra work by seller

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

38. Internet marketing means—

(A) Self-marketing

(B) Core Groups monitering

(C) Employees marketing

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

39. The aim of successful marketing is—

(A) to increase the sale

(B) to increase the profit

(C) to increase the output of sellers

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

40. The networking becomes……through networking.

(A) very difficult

(B) dull

(C) easy

(D) has no role in marketing

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

********************************************************
Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2008

Computer General Knowledge

(Held on 30-08-2008)

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline appears below the word.

(A) red

(B) green

(C) blue

(D) black

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.

(A) Search

(B) Cut

(C) Document

(D) Undo

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—

(A) a formula

(B) text

(C) a name

(D) a title

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.

(A) Word processing

(B) Presentation graphics

(C) Database Management Systems

(D) Electronic Spreadsheet

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.

(A) kilobyte

(B) megabyte

(C) gigabyte

(D) terabyte

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.

(A) Formatting

(B) Merging

(C) Embedding

(D) Splitting

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.

(A) communication

(B) application

(C) system

(D) word-processing

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—

(A) Primary-clicking

(B) pointing

(C) Double-clicking

(D) Secondary-clicking

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—

(A) cells

(B) sheets

(C) block lines

(D) gridlines

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.

(A) press the left mouse key

(B) double-click the right mouse key

(C) press the BACKSPACE key

(D) press the delete key

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.

(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).

(C) manage memory and storage.

(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.

Ans : (D)

12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.

(A) CD

B. BIOS

C. CPU

D. DVD

Ans : (B)

13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

(A) GUIs

(B) Icons

(C) Menus

(D) Windows

Ans : (C)

14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.

(A) Multitasking

(B) Streamlining

(C) Multiuser

(D) Simulcasting

Ans : (A)

15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:

(A) action.

(B) event.

(C) interrupt.

(D) activity.

Ans : (C)

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.

(A) CPU

(B) slice of time

(C) stack

(D) event

Ans : (B)

17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:

(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).

(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).

(C) device drivers.

(D) bootstrap loaders.

Ans : (A)

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

(A) point-and-click

(B) user-friendly

(C) command-driven

(D) Mac

Ans : (C)

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.

(B) peripheral device.

(C) utility program.

(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.

Ans : (D)

20. A spooler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.

(B) print job.

(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.

(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.

Ans : (C)

21. Virtual memory is typically located:

(A) on a floppy disk.

(B) in the CPU.

(C) in a flash card.

(D) on the hard drive.

Ans : (D)

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.

(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.

(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.

(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.

Ans : (B)

23. The definition of thrashing is:

(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.

(B) insufficient hard disk space.

(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.

(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.

Ans : (A)

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.

(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.

(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.

(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.

Ans : (B)

25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

(A) configuration.

(B) accessibility.

(C) authentication.

(D) logging in.

Ans : (C)

26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:

(A) CPU.

(B) platform.

(C) BIOS.

(D) CMOS.

Ans : (B)

27. The following message generally means:

(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.

(B) the CD drive is not functioning.

(C) the BIOS is corrupted.

(D) there is a problem loading a device.

Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?

(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings

(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings

(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings

(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system

Ans : (B)

29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:

(A) load the operating system into RAM.

(B) the power-on self-test.

(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).

(D) load application programs.

Ans : (D)

30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.

(A) BIOS

(B) API

(C) device driver

(D) supervisor program

Ans : (A)

31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

(A) RAM.

(B) ROM.

(C) the CPU.

(D) the hard drive.

Ans : (B)

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.

(A) configuration

(B) CMOS

(C) POST

(D) ROM

Ans : (C)

33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—

(A) registry.

(B) API.

(C) CMOS.

(D) kernel.

Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?

(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.

(B) The video card and video memory are tested.

(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.

(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.

Ans : (A)

35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—

(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.

(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.

(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).

(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.

Ans : (A)

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) files.

(B) folders.

(D) drives.

(D) systems.

Ans : (D)

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—

(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.

(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.

(C) more than one window can be open at a time.

(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.

Ans : (A)

38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—

(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.

(B) Files can be generated from an application.

(C) Files are stored in RAM.

(D) Files should be organized in folders.

Ans : (C)

39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—

(A) an open folder.

(B) the folder contains subfolders.

(C) a text file.

(D) a graphics file.

Ans : (B)

40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.

(A) List

(B) Thumbnails

(C) Details

(D) Icon

Ans : (C)

**********************************************************************

1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:

A. hackers.

B. spam.

C. viruses.

D. identity theft.

Ans : B

2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.

A. data mining

B. data selection

C. POS

D. data conversion

Ans : A

3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.

A. Data

B. Point-of-sale (POS)

C. Sales

D. Query

Ans : B

4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.

A. PSS

B. POS

C. inventory

D. data mining

Ans : A

5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called:

A. robotics.

B. simulation.

C. computer forensics.

D. animation.

Ans : C

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?

A. gathering data

B. processing data into information

C. analyzing the data or information

D. storing the data or information

Ans : C

7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the animal’s movements.

A. POS

B. RFID

C. PPS

D. GPS

Ans : B

8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known as:

A. robotics.

B. computer forensics.

C. simulation.

D. forecasting.

Ans : A

9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:

A. proprietary.

B. open.

C. experimental.

D. in the public domain.

Ans : A

10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.

A. Nanoscience

B. Microelectrodes

C. Computer forensics

D. Artificial intelligence

Ans : A

11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do.

A. Nanoscience

B. Nanotechnology

C. Simulation

D. Artificial intelligence (AI)

Ans : D

12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.

A. A process

B. Software

C. Storage

D. Information

Ans : D

13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:

A. programming.

B. processing.

C. storing.

D. organizing.

Ans : B

14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.

A. present

B. input

C. output

D. store

Ans : B

15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered:

A. data.

B. output.

C. input.

D. the process.

Ans : B

16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.

A. processing

B. kilobyte

C. binary

D. representational

Ans : C

17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:

A. multimedia.

B. words.

C. characters.

D. numbers.

Ans : D

18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of:

A. eight bytes.

B. eight kilobytes.

C. eight characters.

D. eight bits.

Ans : D

19. The term bit is short for:

A. megabyte.

B. binary language.

C. binary digit.

D. binary number.

Ans : C

20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:

A. megabyte.

B. byte.

C. kilobyte.

D. gigabyte.

Ans : B

21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.

A. kilobyte

B. bit

C. gigabyte

D. megabyte

Ans : C

22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.

A. gigabyte

B. kilobyte

C. megabyte

D. terabyte

Ans : C

23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.

A. Hardware

B. A device

C. A peripheral

D. An application

Ans : A

24. The components that process data are located in the:

A. input devices.

B. output devices.

C. system unit.

D. storage component.

Ans : C

25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:

A. scanner.

B. mouse.

C. keyboard.

D. printer.

Ans : D

26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?

A. scanner

B. speaker

C. CD

D. printer

Ans : A

27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:

A. hard disk drives.

B. printers.

C. floppy disk drives.

D. CD drives.

Ans : B

28. The ____________, also called the “brains” of the computer, is responsible for processing data.

A. motherboard

B. memory

C. RAM

D. central processing unit (CPU)

Ans : D

29. The CPU and memory are located on the:

A. expansion board.

B. motherboard.

C. storage device.

D. output device.

Ans : B

30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:

A. application software.

B. system software.

C. operating system software.

D. platform software.

Ans : A

31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.

A. An instruction

B. Software

C. Memory

D. A processor

Ans : B

32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ____________ software to work together.

A. management

B. processing

C. utility

D. application

Ans : D

33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:

A. platforms.

B. applications.

C. programs.

D. storage devices.

Ans : A

34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems.

A. languages

B. methods

C. CPUs

D. storage devices

Ans : C

35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:

A. network.

B. mainframe.

C. supercomputer.

D. client.

Ans : A

36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.

A. supercomputers

B. clients

C. laptops

D. mainframes

Ans : D

37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.

A. Servers

B. Supercomputers

C. Laptops

D. Mainframes

Ans : B

38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.

A. network

B. wireless

C. slow

D. broadband

Ans : D

39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:

A. digital divide.

B. Internet divide.

C. Web divide.

D. broadband divide.

Ans : A

40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale.

A. Nanotechnology

B. Micro-technology

C. Computer forensics

D. Artificial intelligence

Ans : A

41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?

A. Process à Output à Input à Storage

B. Input à Outputà Process à Storage

C. Process à Storage à Input à Output

D. Input à Process à Output à Storage

Ans : D

42. ____________ bits equal one byte.

A. Eight

B. Two

C. One thousand

D. One million

Ans : A

43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).

A. 8

B. 2

C. 1,000

D. 1

Ans : B

44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.

A. bit

B. binary digit

C. character

D. kilobyte

Ans : C

45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.

A. The platform

B. The operating system

C. Application software

D. The motherboard

Ans : B

46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.

A. communication

B. application

C. system

D. word-processing software

Ans : C

47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.

A. Servers

B. Embedded computers

C. Robotic computers

D. Mainframes

Ans : B

48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called:

A. instructions.

B. the operating system.

C. application software.

D. the system unit.

Ans : A

49. The two broad categories of software are:

A. word processing and spreadsheet.

B. transaction and application.

C. Windows and Mac OS.

D. system and application.

Ans : D

50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:

A. system unit.

B. CPU.

C. mainframe.

D. platform.

Ans : A

*******************************************************
SBI PO EXAM 2008

General Awareness & Computer Knowledge

(Held on 27-07-2008)

1. Which of the following statement(s) reflects India's stand on new World Trade Organization's proposal on the issue of the subsidy to agro products ?

(1) India would protect the interest of its poor farmers who can not bear the burden of the cost of the products if they have to sell them on cheaper rate.

(2) Indian industry needs more flexibility as compared to the industry in developed countries.

(3) WTO has set up a new committee under the chairmanship of Putin of Russia to look into the issue of subsidy and find out a solution to the problem acceptable to all the parties.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

2. Which of the following statement(s) is / are true about the 11th five year plan of India ?

(1) The highest priority is given to exports ,education and development of steel sector.

(2) The plan aims at achieving the growth at 10 % level by the end of the plan.

(3) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is revived in such a way so that it can be achieve a growth nof 4 % for agriculture sector.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

3. As per the figures released recently the Stock markets in emerging economies made handsome returns last year (2007-08). Which of the following stock markets amongst the BRIC nations registered highest increased (97 %) compared to its performance in 2006-07 ?

(A) China

(B) Brazil

(C) Russia

(D) India

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. Bayana which was in news recently is a place in—

(A) Uttar Pradseh

(B) Madhya Pradseh

(C) Bihar

(D) Haryana

(E) Rajasthan

Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following statement (s) is / are correct about the Indo-Russia Bilateral Defence Ties ?

(1) Both the countries have decided to produce a fifth generation fighter aircraft and a multi role cargo plane.

(2) India has agreed to launch Russian missiles from its base at Chandipur incase some other nation attacks on Russia

(3) India and Russia were able to sort out differences over the utilization of Rupee debt fund which is of Rs. 8000 crore at present.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 3 only

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

6. India has recently decided to put a wire fence on the 76 km. long border in Dhudri district in Assam. The fence will separate India from—

(A) Nepal

(B) China

(C) Bangladesh

(D) Myanmar

(E) Pakistan

Ans : (C)

7. As we all know the Govt. of India is very keen about providing banking service to the people in rural and remote areas . However , banks feel that the cost of providing services in these areas for financial inclusion is quite high if services are offered through the "traditional branch channel ". What is / are the other alternative cost effective channel(s) to fulfill this aim of the Govt. of India ?

(1) Putting biometric ATMs.

(2) Introduce mobile banking.

(3) Issue credit or debit cards

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

8. The Govt. of India recently issued a notification altering constituencies in 24 States and Union territories. This is done as per the provision of which of the following Acts?

(A) Delimitation Act

(B) Census Act

(C) Parliament Act

(D) State Reorganization Act

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

9. As we read very frequently in the newspaper fraudulent activities in financial world is still continuing despite various efforts made by various countries to prevent them. As an estimate by IMF, what is the probable amount derived from such illegal activities which is laundered through the world's formal financial systems every year? About -

(A) US$ 500 billion

(B) US$ 800 billion

(C) US$ 1000 billion

(D) US$ 1250 billion

(E) US$ 1500 billion

Ans : (A)

10. Indian Prime Minister during his visit the Arunachal Pradseh a few months back asserted that the State is India's Land of Rising Sun. Which of the following countries did not like his statement and had raised some objection over his visit to Arunachal Pradseh which is very much a part of India?

(A) Myanmar

(B) China

(C) Bangladseh

(D) Bhutan

(E) Nepal

Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana?

(A) Rs. 10,000/-

(B) Rs. 20,000/-

(C) Rs. 30,000/-

(D) Rs. 40,000/-

(E) Rs. 50,000/-

Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following is NOT one of the highlights Economic Survey presented in the Lok Sabha for the year 2007-08?

(A) Economy has "moved to higher growth phase"

(B) A trend of acceleration in domestic investment and saving rate is recorded.

(C) Buoyant growth in Govt. revenue.

(D) Indian Economy at market rate of exchange crossed 1 trillion US$ in current fiscal.

(E) Net Foreign direct Investment increased by 350% .

Ans : (E)

13. Which of the following is / are correct about sub prime crisis which was in news recently?

(1) It has reduced the flow of capital coming of Indian Stock Markets.

(2) The sub prime crisis is the major financial crisis whose origin is in the Russia and Brazil.It has adversely affected the economy of Europe and USA.

(3) The crisis started when some people started trading with false Share certificates of major blue chip US companies in the stock markets.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

14. The Prime Minister Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) has a target to connect all habitations of which of the following levels with all weather roads by 2008-09?

(A) 1000+

(B) 2000+

(C) 3000+

(D) 4000+

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

15. As we all know the value of the Indian rupee has appreciated in the recent past . The value of the Rupee is direct dependent on which of the following?

(A) Availability of commodities in the market.

(B) VAT introduced by the Govt. on various commodities.

(C) Size of total Forex Reserve of India currently.

(D) Capital flow in the market during a given period of time.

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

16. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab?

(A) ICICI Bank

(B) IDBI Bank

(C) HDFC Bank

(D) AXIS Bank

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. As per provision made in Bharat Nirman Programme the pace of creation of irrigation facilities is required to be raised from present level of 1.42 million hectare per year in such a way so that it can achieve the target level fixed for the same?

(A) 1.50 million hectares / year

(B) 1.75 million hectares / year

(C) 2.00 million hectares / year

(D) 2.25 million hectares / year

(E) 2.50 million hectares / year

Ans : (D)

18. Inflation has become major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Govt. of India / RBI normally take to control the same?

(1) Fixation of Maximum Price of the Commodities

(2) System of Dual prices.

(3) Increased in supply of food grains.

(4) Control on credit and liquidity in market.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Only 2, 3 & 4

(E) All 1, 2, 3 & 4

Ans : (D)

19. How much Education Cess is being levied on all the taxes to support elementary education for the children of age group of 6-14 years under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?

(A) 0.50%

(B) 0.75%

(C) 1.00%

(D) 1.50%

(E) 2.00%

Ans : (E)

20. Which of the following is / are correct about various concessions given in the Union Budget for 2008-09?

(1) Five years tax holidays for setting up hospitals in Tier II & Tier III regions for providing health care in rural areas.

(2) Commodities tax transaction to be introduced.

(3) Banking cash transaction tax withdrawn.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Only 2 & 3

(E) All 1, 2 & 3

Ans : (E)

21. Which of the following statements reflects the aim(s) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)?

(1) Give focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities.

(2) Provide basic services to the urban poors

(3) Scale up civic amenities and provision of utilities in urban areas.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

22. The Press Freedom Day is observed on which of the following days?

(A) 1st May

(B) 1st June

(C) 3rd May

(D) 3rd June

(E) 10th June

Ans : (C)

23. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means : it will now be applicable to about—

(A) 200 districts

(B) 300 districts

(C) 400 districts

(D) 500 districts

(E) 600 districts

Ans : (E)

24. As per the reports published by the Ministry of Finance recently the overseas borrowings by the Corporates and currency fluctuation has gone up by which of the following percentage points? About—

(A) 1%

(B) 2%

(C) 3%

(D) 4%

(E) 5%

Ans : (C)

25. The Govt. of India and Reserve Bank of India is planning to set up an autonomous "ATM corporation of India" in which various banks can get together for common ATM operations. If this happens how will we all be benefited by the same?

(1) It will be a cost effective measure as each bank can share its operational cost with others.

(2) Clients can withdrawn money from any ATM from any location. They are not required to go to their banks' ATM only.

(3) It will indirectly help the IT business also as India has a large pool of IT skilled manpower waiting for suitable placement.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 & 2

(D) All 1, 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

26. As per the news published in various newspapers the Govt. of India has decided to create a Strategic Reserve of—

(A) Oil & Petroleum

(B) Rasoi Gas

(C) Food grains

(D) Cement & Steel

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

27. The Govt. of India had constituted a high level committee on financial sector reforms with Raghuram G.Rajan as its Chairman. Which of the following is / are the recommendations of the committee?

(1) Liberalize the interest rate that banks/institution can charge to ensure credit for poors.

(2) Create an office of the Ombudsman exclusively for financial sector.

(3) Do not allow foreign investors in domestic stock markets.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

28. Yves Leterme has taken over as the prime minister of—

(A) Newzealand

(B) Belgium

(C) Croatia

(D) Portugal

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

29. The State Bank of India recently opened its 10000th branch in Puduvayal (Tamil Nadu). Only a bank in China has more branches than State Bank of India in the world. What is the name of that Chinese bank?

(A) Shanghai Commercial Bank

(B) Bank of China

(C) China Banking Corporation

(D) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

30. Many a times we read about 'Globalization' and its impact on business practice in India. Which of the following is NOT one of the important parameters of 'Globalization'?

(1) Reduction of trade barriers to permit free flow of goods and services amongst various nations.

(2) Developing an environment in which free flow of capital can take place.

(3) Promoting local industry to cater to the needs of the consumers in Tier II and Tier III cities. The production from metros should be reserved only for exports.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1,2 & 3

(E) Both 2 & 3

Ans : (D)

31. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter 'C' in the term 'CBS'?

(A) Core

(B) Credit

(C) Continuous

(D) Complete

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. As per news published in newspapers the Oil & Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) has purchased some oil assets in Latin American Countries along with one other major company of India . What is the name of that company?

(A) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation

(B) Indian Oil Corporation

(C) Reliance Industries Ltd.

(D) National Mineral Development Corporation of India

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

33. India's First centre to monitor climate change was opened recently at—

(A) New Delhi

(B) Chennai

(C) Jaipur

(D) Bangalore

(E) Kolkata

Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following Acts was framed specially to deal more effectively with the problem of Non-Performing Assets in banking system?

(A) SARFAESI ACT.

(B) Banking Regulation Act.

(C) Foreign Exchange Management Act.

(D) Industrial Dispute Act.

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

35. The————shows all the websites and pages that you have visited over a period of time.

(A) status bar

(B) task bar

(C) history list

(D) tool bar

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

36. A proxy server is used for the which of the following?

(A) To provide security against unauthorized users

(B) To process client requests for web pages

(C) To process client requests for database access

(D) To provide TCP/IP

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

37. A repair for a known software bug,usually available at no charge on the internet, is called a(n)—

(A) version

(B) Patch

(C) Tutorial

(D) FAQ

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

38. In the URL http://www.prenhall.com, the portion lebelled http is the—

(A) host

(B) domain name

(C) protocol

(D) top-level domain

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

39. Which of the following organizations has recently given a US$ 600 million loan to Power Grid Corporation of India,a Govt. run organization?

(A) Asian Development Bank

(B) World Bank

(C) International Monetary Fund

(D) Bank of America

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

40. The ability to easily add additional users meAns : that a network is—

(A) Scalable

(B) dedicated

(C) Decentralized

(D) Secure

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

41. In a database, a field is a—

(A) lable

(B) table of information

(C) group of related records

(D) category of information

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

42. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen—

(A) resolution

(B) colour depth

(C) refresh rate

(D) viewing size

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

43. Wor processing , spreadsheet , and phoyo-editing are example of—

(A) application software

(B) system software

(C) operating system software

(D) platform software

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

44. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a—

(A) repeater

(B) router

(C) gateway

(D) switch

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

45. A————is approximately a million bytes.

(A) gigabyte

(B) kilobyte

(C) megabyte

(D) terabyte

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

46. The time it takes a device to locate data and instructions and make them available to CPU is known as—

(A) clock speed

(B) a processing cycle

(C) CPU speed

(D) access time

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

47. ——————controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means : by which users are interact with the computer.

(A) The platform

(B) The operating system

(C) Application software

(D) The motherboard

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

48. ——————meAns : that the data contained in a database is accurate and reliable.

(A) Data redundancy

(B) Data integrity

(C) Data reliability

(D) Data consistency

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

49. A(n) —————— is aprivate corporate network,used exclusively by company employees.

(A) Internet

(B) local area network

(C) peer-to-peer

(D) intranet

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

50. A characteristic of a file server is which of the following?

(A) Manages file operations and is shared on a network

(B) Manages file operations and is limited to one PC

(C) Acts as fat client and is shared on a network

(D) Acts as fat client and is limited to one PC

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

***********************************************

SOLVED PAPER-KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN-PREVIUOUS YEAR PAPER-TGT/PGT/PRT

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sun, 06 Nov 2011 12:39:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
SOLVED PAPER-KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN-PREVIUOUS YEAR PAPER-TGT/PGT/PRT

KVS-TGT

General Knowledge

(Exam Held on 12-02-2011)

1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a) Kalinga Award          -     Popularization of Science
b) Barlong Award          -     Agriculture
c) David-Cohen Award   -     Literature
d) Pulitzer Prize         -     Progress in Religion

2. Which of the following characters was not a part of Shakespearian plays?
a) Julius
b) Brutus
c) Potterd) Ariel

3. Which of the following international organizations is dedicated to the cause of wildlife conservation?
a) UNFPA
b) UNDP
c) UNESCO
d) WHO

4. Human Rights Day is observed on :
a) 10 October
b) 9 May
c) 10 December
d) 18 February

5. Railway coaches are made in the largest number at Integral coach factory, situated in:
a) Kapurthala
b) Peramburc) Varanasi
d) Moradabad

6. Which of the following is not a necessary qualification for a state to become a member
of United Nationas Organization? It should :
a) be a sovereign state
b) be a peace loving state
c) be a willing to discharge responsibilities under the UNO charterd) guarantee human rights and freedom to its citizens

7. The imaginary line on the earth’s surface which closely follows 180^omeridian, is called :
a) International date time
b) Tropic of Cancer
c) Equator
d) Prime Meridian

8. ‘Loti’ is the currency of :
a) Burundi
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Lesotho

9. Which type of rocks are mainly found in the Himalayan ranges?
a) Sedimentary
b) Metamorphicc) Igneous
d) Granite

10. Water Lily is the national emblem of :
a) Denmark
b) Bangladesh
c) Italy
d) Luxemberg

11. Who is a famous ‘Sarangi’ player?
a) Vilayat Khan
b) Ustad Zakir Husian
c) Alauddin Khan
d) Ustad Binda Khan

12. Which of the following is not a dance/dance-drama associated with the state ‘Maharashtra’?:
a) Lezim
b) Lavani
c) Kathid) Dahi Kala

13. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. Simon Commission                                   1. 1885
II. Quit India Movement                                  2. 1942
III. Formation of Indian National Congress        3. 1927
IV.Minto-Morley Reforms                               4. 1909
      Codes :
      I      II       III       IV
a)   3     2       1        4
b)   1     3       4        2
c)   4     3       2        1
d)   1     2       3        4

14.Commonwealth games in 2014 will be held in :
a) Edinburgh, Scotland
b) Ontario, Canada
c) Glasgow, Scotland
d) Abuja, Nigeria

15. United Kingdom’s Prime Minister since May, 2010 is :
a) Tony Blair
b) David Cameron
c) Gordon Brown
d) Edward Health

16. Which of the following two IIT’s started functioning in 2009?
a) Gandhinagar, Jodhpur
b) Ropar, Patna
c) Indore, Mandid) Bhubaneshwar, Hyderabad

17. Banking of cureves is done to provide :
a) Centripetal force
b) Centrifugal force
c) Centrifugal acceleration
d) Angular velocity

18. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
I.   Calomel                   1. Copper sulphate
II. Blue vitriol                2. Calcium sulphate
III. Gypsum                   3. Mercurous chloride
IV. Normal salt              4. Sodium chloride
      Codes :
       I      II       III       IV
a)   1     2       3        4
b)   4     3       2        1
c)   3     2       1        4
d)   3     1       2        4

19. Which of the following have maximum calrofic value?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fatsc) Protiens
d) Vitamins

20. How many Fundamental Rights are there now guaranteed under the Constitution of India?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

21. The reduction of voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as Assemblies is in :
a) Sixty-First Amendment 1989
b) Seventy-Third Amendment 1992
c) Sixty-Fourth Amendment 1990
d) Fifty-Ninth Amendment 1988

22. Jute is mainly grown in :
a) Tamil Nadu
b) West Bengal
c) Kerala
d) Himachal Pardesh

23. Delhi became the capital of India in :
a) 1910
b) 1911
c) 1916
d) 1923

24. Who amonst the following is the author of the book ‘My Country My Life’?
a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
b) Atal Behari Vajpayee
c) L.K.Advani
d) Shashi Tharoor

25. One-rupee currency notes bear the signature of :
a) The President of India
b) Prime Minister of India
c) Governor of Reserve bank
d) Indian Finance Secretary

26. Which of the following country won the FIFA World Cup, 2010?
a) Germany
b) South Africa
c) Brazil
d) Spain

27. Who among the following is Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
a) President
b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister
d) Home Minister

28. B.C. Roy Award is given in the field of :
a) Journalism
b) Medicine
c) Music
d) Environment

29. Who among the following has been declared as Businessman of the decade?
a) Mukesh Ambani
b) Anil Amabani
c) Ratan Tata
d) Azim Premji

30. Who amongst the following has been named UNESCO’s National Ambassador?
a) Aishwarya Rai
b) Priyanka Choprac) Sharmila Tagore
d) Kajol

31. People have eyes of different colours, e.g. brown, black or blue, depending upon
the particular Pigment present in the :
a) Iris
b) Corena
c) Pupil
d) Choroid

32. Which of the following is known as the ‘red planet’ ?
a) Mercury
b) Mars
c) Jupiter
d) Saturn

33. The special Constitution position of Jammu & Kashmir is that :
a) It is not one of the States of the Indian Union
b) It is beyond the purview of the Indian Constituion
c) Indian laws do not apply to it
d) It has its own Constitution

34. The fundamental right which has been described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ” The heart
and soul of the Constitution” is the right to :
a) Equlaity
b) Property
c) Freedom of religion
d) Constituional remedies

35. Fourth Estate is referred to :
a) Public Opinion
b) Chamber of Commerce
c) The Newspaperd) Political Parties
***************************************
Biology

1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO₂
(B) CO
(C) SO₂
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH₂
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO₂ pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

101. Which pair is correct ?
(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi
(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia
(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird
(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect
Ans : (D)

102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson & Punnet
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Sutton
Ans : (B)

103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—
(A) Earthworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Corn worm
(D) Tongue worm
Ans : (D)

104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—
(A) Y-chromosome
(B) X-chromosome
(C) Autosome
(D) X-chromosome & autosome both
Ans : (D)

105. Nonsense codons are—
(A) AUG, AAU, UAG
(B) GGU, AGU, AUG
(C) UAG, UAA, UGA
(D) GAU, AAU, GUA
Ans : (C)

106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?
(A) Metaphase-I
(B) Prophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II
(D) Anaphase-II
Ans : (D)

107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Didelphys
(B) Macropus
(C) Pteropus
(D) Tachyglossus
Ans : (D)

108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—
(A) Preen gland
(B) Mucus gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Sebaceous gland
Ans : (A)

109. A snake that is viviparous is—
(A) The Russell’s pitless viper
(B) The pit viper
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Kraits
Ans : (B)

110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?
(A) Sudorific gland
(B) Femoral gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Stink gland
Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?
(A) Leishmania
(B) Giardia
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Noctiluca
Ans : (D)

112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—
(A) Is free swimming
(B) Is ectoparasite on fish
(C) Is endoparasite on fish
(D) Lives in bottom
Ans : (B)

113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—
(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer
(B) J.Q. Plowe
(C) Dancilli & Davson
(D) Robertson
Ans : (B)

114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—
1. Synthesis of lipids
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Sterol metabolism
4. Detoxification
Codes :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 2 and 3 both are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (D)

115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—
(A) Inner thin albumen
(B) Vitelline membrane
(C) Dense alburmen
(D) Chalaziferous layer
Ans : (B)

116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?
(A) Leech
(B) Roundworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Flatworm
Ans : (D)

117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?
(A) Autostylic
(B) Holostylic
(C) Craniostylic
(D) Hyostylic
Ans : (A)

118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(B) Krebs’ cycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Ornithine cycle
Ans : (D)

119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—
(A) Hydra
(B) Earthworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm
Ans : (B)

121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Echinoidea
(C) Holothuroidea
(D) Crinoidea
Ans : (B)

122. Neoteny is observed in—
(A) Ambystoma
(B) Alytes
(C) Sycon
(D) Sacculina
Ans : (A)

123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—
(A) Regulation of body fluids
(B) Regulation of acid-base balance
(C) Removal of metabolic wastes
(D) All of these functions
Ans : (D)

124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Cyst
Ans : (C)

125. Parasitic castration occurs in—
(A) Fasciola
(B) Nereis
(C) Sacculina
(D) Palaemon
Ans : (C)
******************************************
Solved GK Paper of Preliminary Examination for Post Graduate Teachers
Exam held on 11th Feb. 2011
1. The headquarters of World Trade Organisation is located in :
    a) Geneva
    b) Paris
    c) Washington
    d) New York
2. The number of High Courts in India is :
    a) 31
    b) 21
    c) 25
    d) 24
3. Under which section of the Hindu marriage Act, 1955 the provision relating to registration of
    Marriage is given?.
    a) 8
    b) 7
    c) 6
    d) 5
4. A radar which detects the presence of an enemy aircraft uses :
    a) sound waves
    b) radio waves
    c) electric waves
    d) ultrasound waves
5. “Sub Prime Lending” is a term applied to the loans made to :
    a) those borrowers who do not have a good credit history.
    b) those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets.
    c) those who have a good credit history and are known to bn since 10 years.
    d) those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the bank.
6. Production function explains the relationship between :
    a) Initial inputs and ultimate output
    b) Input and ultimate consumption
    c) Output and consumption
    d) Standard deviation
7. The 50th percentile is also known as :
    a) Mean
    b) Mode
    c) Median
    d) Standard deviation
8. The World’s Number two economy is :
    a) USA
    b) Japan
    c) China
    d) Germany
9. Saina Nehwal has been named the brand ambassador for :
    a) Orissa
    b) Andhra Pradesh
    c) Tamil nadu
    d) Kerala
10. NASA is planning to establish a permanent base at :
     a) Moon
     b) Mars
     c) Venus
     d) Jupiter
11. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the
     a) Pulsars
     b) White dwarf
     c) Atomic clocks
     d) Quartz clocks
12. The overall objective of Fundamental Rights is to ensure :
     a) Democratic government
     b) Individual liberty
     c) Judicial independence
     d) Secularism
13. The Governor is responsible to the :
     a) State legislature
     b) State legislative assembly
     c) President
     d) Prime Minister
14.Who among the following received the Noble prize twice in the same subject?
     a) Madam Curie
     b) Pierre Curie
     c) Linus Pauling
     d) John Bardeen
15. Which of the following was known from the title of “Nightangale of India”?
     a) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
   b) Sarojini Naidu
   c) Maria montessori
    d) Suraiya
16. NPC concerns :
     a) Industries
     b) Schools
     c) Agriculture
     d) Medicine
17. World Food Day is observed on :
     a) 18 February
     b) 11 June
     c) 28 September
     d) 16 October
18.The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
     a) 1542
     b) 1601
     c) 1677
     d) 1809
19. The lowest layer of atomosphere is called :
     a) Stratosphere
     b) Troposphere
     c) Ionosphere
     d) Exosphere
20. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I. Nigeria           1. Luanda
      II. Qatar             2. Abuja
      III. Zambia          3. Lusaka
      IV. Angola          4. Doha

      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   2     4       3        1
           b)   4     3       2        1
           c)   1     2       3        4
           d)   4     2       3        1

21. Which of the following countries does not have its emblem as ‘Lion’ ?
     a) Belgium
     b) Norway
     c) Sri Lanka
     d) Spain
22. ‘Swaythling Cup’ is associated with the sport:
     a) World badminton (Men)
     b) World Table tennis (Men)
     c) Horse racing
     d) Car racing
23. Which of the following is not a famous ‘Tabla Player’ ?
     a) Allarakha
     b) Zakir Husain
     c) Pandit Jasraj
     d) Gudai Maharaj
24. Which of the following is not a dance/dance drama associated with the state ‘Kerla’ ?
     a) Koodiyattam
     b) Mudiyettu
     c) Kottam
     d) Tappatri Kai
25. Shivaji’s war strategy used against the Mughals was:
     a) Alert army
     b) Political supremacy
     c) Large army
     d) Guerilla warfare
26. Asian games 2014 will be held in :
     a) Gouangjhou, China
     b) Incheon, South Korea
     c) New Deslhi, India
     d) NBusan, South Korea
27. Next US Presidential election will be held in :
     a) November, 2012
     b) Januaary, 2013
     c) November, 2013
     d) January, 2012
28. Amitabh Bachchan has won three times the Best Actor National Awrd. Which of the films
     is not the one when he was not given the National Award for Best Actor?
     a) Agneepath
     b) Sholay
     c) Black
     d) Paa
29. Sound travesl with a different speed in different media. In what order does the velocity of
     sound increase in these media?
     a) Water, iron and air
     b) Iron, air and water
     c) Air, water and iron
     d) Iron, water and air
30. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I. Carbon dioxide           1. Reducing agent
      II. Chlorine                     2. Anaesthetic in dentisty
      III. Hydrogen                  3. Bleaching powder
      IV. Nitrous oxide            4. Refrigerant

      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   1     2       3        4
           b)   4     3       2        1
           c)   4     3       1        2
           d)   2     1       3        4
31. Medula oblongata is a part of human :
     a) heart
     b) brain
     c) liver
     d) sex organs
32. Funk discovered :
     a) Proteins
     b) Vitamins
     c) Enzymes
     d) Hormones
33. The 8th schedule of the constitutions deals with :
     a) Fundamental Rights
     b) Directive Principles of State Policy
     c) The list of 18 regional languages
     d) All the above
34. Thirty-Sixth Amendment of Indian Constitution, 1975 conferred statehood on :
     a) Arunachal Pradesh
     b) Nagaland
     c) Meghalaya
     d) Sikkim
35. Who among the following has a right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceeding
     of either House of Parliament and to be a member of any Parliamentary Committee but is
     not entitled to vote?.
     a) The Chief Election Commissioner
     b) Chairmain of Finance Comission
     c) The Attorney General
     d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

****************************************************************

TGT 2005

1. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) Quintessence
(B) Qintessence
(C) Quentesence
(D) Quintesence
Ans : (A)

2. Venus and Adonis is by—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Galsworthy
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)

3. Pun is—
(A) Opposite word
(B) A play on words
(C) A funny word
(D) Identical words
Ans : (B)

4. Vers libre is—
(A) Colophon
(B) Closed form
(C) Rhymed form
(D) Open form
Ans : (D)

5. Choose the correct verb—
They …… to school by bus.
(A) going
(B) goes
(C) go
(D) to go
Ans : (C)

6. Insert the correct verb form—
Barcelona …… the world to the Montjuic Stadium.
(A) brought
(B) took
(C) welcomed
(D) welcome
Ans : (C)

7. Which of the following is a pastoral poem by Milton ?
(A) Adonis
(B) Thyrsis
(C) Lycidas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

8. Punctuate correctly—
At sunset the general taking decision marched forward.
(A) At sunset, the general, taking decision marched forward
(B) At sunset the general, taking decision, marched forward
(C) At sunset, the general taking decision, marched forward
(D) At sunset, the general, taking decision, marched forward
Ans : (D)

9. The Solitary Reaper is a—
(A) Ballad
(B) Ode
(C) Lyric
(D) Pastoral
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 10 and 11) Ascertain the correct tense of the following in the verb—

10. Yesterday at school, I …… the echo of a roar of laughter.
(A) were startled
(B) was startled
(C) was startling
(D) were startling
Ans : (B)

11. We …… by a strange sound.
(A) were startle
(B) was startled
(C) was startling
(D) were startling
Ans : (A)

12. “Milton's poetry is a mirror in which the writer's character is very clearly reflected.” Who made this statement ?
(A) Verity
(B) Macmillan
(C) Pattison
(D) Bush
Ans : (B)

13. The passive voice of—“Jack was forcing through the crowd”…… is—
(A) Jack was being forced through the crowd
(B) The crowd was forcing through by Jack
(C) The crowd forced through Jack
(D) The crowd was being forced through by Jack
Ans : (D)

14. ‘Incredible’ means—
(A) surprising
(B) interesting
(C) disgusting
(D) unbelievable
Ans : (D)

15. The period known as the age of Milton is—
(A) 1621-1681
(B) 1620-1665
(C) 1625-1660
(D) 1628-1655
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16 and 17) Fill in with prepositions—

16. Ask …… me tomorrow and you shall find me a grave man.
(A) in
(B) by
(C) for
(D) from
Ans : (C)

17. It is a translation …… Horace's Ars Poetica.
(A) to
(B) in
(C) from
(D) of
Ans : (D)

18. The originator and namer of ‘deconstruction’ is—
(A) Jacques Derrida
(B) Friedrich Nietzsche
(C) Martin Heidegger
(D) Sigmund Freud
Ans : (A)

19. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) rythym
(B) ryhthm
(C) rhythm
(D) rhithym
Ans : (C)

20. The age of Milton had three kinds of poets—
(A) Religious, Heroic, Puritan
(B) Metaphysical, Cavalier, Puritan
(C) Metaphysical, Romantic, Dramatic
(D) Cavalier, Religious, Classical
Ans : (B)

21. Lyrical Ballads was written by Coleridge and—
(A) Arnold
(B) Keats
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Blake
Ans : (C)

22. Legitimate means—
(A) valid
(B) correct
(C) rightful
(D) possessive
Ans : (A)

23. We …… dinner at the Park Hotel yesterday.
(A) had eaten
(B) ate
(C) were eating
(D) got
Ans : (B)

24. Paradise Lost was written by Milton in the …… phase of his life.
(A) Middle
(B) Last
(C) Student
(D) First
Ans : (B)

25. One who hates mankind is called—
(A) egoist
(B) egotist
(C) introvert
(D) misanthrope
Ans : (D)

26. Wordsworth composed some of his finest poems during the years—
(A) 1798-99
(B) 1778-79
(C) 1788-89
(D) 1768-69
Ans : (A)

27. The regular ode is a close imitation of—
(A) Petrarch
(B) Shelley
(C) Tata
(D) Pindar
Ans : (D)

28. Gita……hundred times everyday.
(A) skip
(B) skips
(C) skipped
(D) skipping
Ans : (B)

29. ‘Skilful’ is—
(A) Advent
(B) Adopt
(C) Adroit
(D) Adverse
Ans : (C)

30. Find the mis-spelt word—
(A) appropriate
(B) title
(C) mission
(D) passege
Ans : (D)

31. ‘The Dark Lady’ appears in the sonnets of—
(A) Surrey
(B) Wyatt
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Spenser
Ans : (C)

32. Which is the correct meaning of the idiom backed up ?
(A) sold
(B) corroded
(C) supported
(D) fabricated
Ans : (C)

33. Tick the correct Infinitive—
…… is difficult for a sinner.
(A) Saying prayer
(B) To pray
(C) Praying to
(D) Being praying
Ans : (B)

34. The plural for ‘handfull’ is—
(A) handfuls
(B) handfulls
(C) handsfull
(D) handsfulls
Ans : (A)

35. John Galsworthy was the son of a—
(A) novelist
(B) merchant
(C) lawyer
(D) doctor
Ans : (C)

36. ‘Dastard’ means—
(A) destitute
(B) becoming
(C) brave
(D) coward
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 37 and 38) Identify the type of adverb in the bold word—

37. She often goes to the cinema—
(A) Adverb of time
(B) Adverb of Degree
(C) Adverb of Frequency
(D) Adverb of Manner
Ans : (C)

38. She barely left the room when the roof fell in.
(A) Adverb of Time
(B) Adverb of Degree
(C) Adverb of Frequency
(D) Adverb of Manner
Ans : (B)

39. Which is not Shakespeare's drama ?
(A) Titus Andronicus
(B) Edward the Second
(C) Hamlet
(D) Richard III
Ans : (B)

40. Tick the correct meaning of the idiom come about—
(A) get
(B) take place
(C) happen
(D) recover
Ans : (C)

41. Galsworthy began his literary career as—
(A) a journalist
(B) a dramatist
(C) a novelist
(D) a poet
Ans : (C)

42. ‘Novella’ is a word from—
(A) India
(B) France
(C) Italy
(D) England
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following is a masque written by Milton ?
(A) Comus
(B) Adeopagitica
(C) Lycidas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

44. Put in the correct prepositions—
We heard……it……our meeting.
(A) of, through
(B) at, during
(C) of, during
(D) of, in
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 45 to 49) The following sentences are given with blank spaces. Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

45. I am looking forward …… you.
(A) to seeing
(B) to see
(C) to have seen
(D) for seeing
Ans : (B)

46. He says he is not …… for the job of a doctor.
(A) cut up
(B) cut off
(C) cut down
(D) cut out
Ans : (D)

47. He is repairing his car with a view …… it.
(A) to sell
(B) to selling
(C) for selling
(D) to have sold
Ans : (A)

48. Our school library boasts of many …… editions of the …… classical writers.
(A) old, ancient
(B) ancient, ancient
(C) ancient, new
(D) old, old
Ans : (A)

49. As sheep are to a flock, so are cattle to a ……
(A) swarm
(B) multitude
(C) pack
(D) herd
Ans : (D)

50. Next to, but not necessarily touching, is—
(A) Adjoin
(B) Adjacent
(C) Adhere
(D) Adapt
Ans : (B)

51. ‘Poetic Justice’ was a term coined by—
(A) Samuel Johnson
(B) Geoffrey Leech
(C) John Dryden
(D) Thomas Rymer
Ans : (A)

52. Which among the following bold words is the correct Adverbial qualifications—
(A) The flames spread everywhere
(B) The flames spread everywhere
(C) The flames spread everywhere
(D) The flames spread everywhere
Ans : (A)

53. Shakespeare was born in—
(A) 1574
(B) 1563
(C) 1564
(D) 1589
Ans : (C)

54. In which poem does the following statement apear ?
“Solitude, sometimes is best society.”
(A) Paradise Regained
(B) Lycidas
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) Comus
Ans : (A)

55. The plural for ‘man-servant’ is—
(A) manworkers
(B) man-servants
(C) mans-servant
(D) men-servant
Ans : (D)

56. She slept soundly. Identify the nature of the bold verb—
(A) Transitive verb
(B) Intransitive verb
(C) Regular verb
(D) Verb of complete predication
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 57 and 58) Fill in the gaps with the correct prepositions—

57. Chased by the dog, the thief ran …… the lawn.
(A) across
(B) around
(C) over
(D) through
Ans : (A)

58. He vanished …… the darkness.
(A) to
(B) in
(C) into
(D) through
Ans : (C)

59. ‘To refurbish’ is—
(A) to repair
(B) to survey
(C) to apply
(D) to renovate
Ans : (D)

60. Punctuate correctly—
Amrit sharma is a metro railway employee
(A) Amrit sharma is a metro railway employee.
(B) Amrit Sharma is a Metro Railway employee.
(C) Amrit Sharma is a metro railway Employee
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

61. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) canceled
(B) canciled
(C) cancelled
(D) canscelled
Ans : (C)

62. Put in the correct verb form—
I know that you …… twenty on your last birthday.
(A) were
(B) was
(C) are
(D) is
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 63 to 67) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions which follow—

SANTINIKETAN, Aug. 17, 1998 : The rainy season has returned, and the man is back at his work, He is Pannalal Patel, the man who has completed 96 years, and is still going strong.

Pannalal was once a ‘terrorist’. Then he turned into a Gandhian. At present his mission is ‘Meen Mangal’ or ‘the well-being of fish’, as he calls it.

Come the rains, and Pannalal would release millions of young salmons into rivers following through the neighbourhood. He says that water without fish is just as absurd as fish without water.

On Independence Day Eve he had, as if, an appointment with the Ajoy, the river he loves and adores.

Choked up with silt and sand from bank to bank, the river remains almost dry throughout the year except in the rainy season. Once called ‘the crazy river’ for often changing its course. Ajoy is now better known for the great destruction it causes, at intervals of some years, by flooding the villages on its banks. It then washes away people and cattle and houses, and brings great misery.

The appointed day arrived. It was a cloudy afternoon at Palitpur, the venue of the programme where a new bridge has been built across the river.

Short speeches were made. Songs were sung. Mr. Patel took a handful of the young salmon and threw them into the water–once, twice, thrice. Others followed him. The hero of the day looked happy, and a smile lit up his wrinkled face.

But some fisherman in the crowd were rather sceptical about the usefulness of the programme. Will the fish, when grown up, return to the same waters and be caught in their nets ? perhaps not. They talked among themselves.

Mr. Patel, However, does not bother himself about who catches how much fish in which waters. He himself is a complete vegetarian. His only concern is the well-being of fish.

63. Pannalal Patel, who is very old, is still—
(A) strong
(B) fond of fishing
(C) very alert
(D) can walk fast
Ans : (A)

64. Pannalal had an appointment with the river Ajoy—
(A) on 15th August
(B) on 14 August
(C) on 15th August morning
(D) on 14th August evening
Ans : (D)

65. The Ajoy floods its banks—
(A) every rainy season
(B) very rarely
(C) every few years
(D) quite often
Ans : (C)

66. According to Pannalal, water without fish is—
(A) unthinkable
(B) tasteless
(C) impure
(D) unprofitable
Ans : (A)

67. The object of Pannalal's programme at Palitpur was the welfare of—
(A) the fishermen
(B) the Ajoy
(C) society
(D) fish
Ans : (D)

68. The meaning of ‘solicited’ is—
(A) advice requested
(B) to do a court case
(C) to form a party
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

69. Select the correct spelling—
(A) Staff Quarters
(B) Stuff Quarters
(C) Staff Quaters
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

70. ‘Compact’ means—
(A) Face powder for women
(B) Computer software
(C) Put together in a small space
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 71 and 72) Choose the correct word for the blanks—

71. …… the boy return to his village ?
(A) Shall
(B) Will
(C) Was
(D) Shan't
Ans : (B)

72. Songs …… sung in his memory.
(A) is
(B) were
(C) had
(D) been
Ans : (B)

73. Change the following into a complex sentence—
He received the call of his friend and left for Delhi right away.
(A) Receiving the call of his friend, he left for Delhi right away
(B) He received the call of his friend therefore the call of his friend, therefore he left for Delhi right away
(C) As soon as he received the call of his friend. He left for Delhi
(D) He received the call of his friend and soon left for Delhi
Ans : (C)

74. Change the following simple sentence into a complex sentence—
His senior colleagues have been transferred to Dehradun.
(A) His colleagues having a seniority over him have been transferred to Dehradun
(B) His Colleagues who are senior to him have been transferred to Dehradun
(C) Some of his colleagues are senior to him there or they have been transferred to Dehradun
(D) Being senior some of his colleagues have been transferred to Dehradun
Ans : (B)

75. The most common form of closing a letter to a close relative is—
(A) Yours sincerely
(B) Yours affectionately
(C) Yours faithfully
(D) Yours truly
Ans : (B)

76. Punctuate the following—
Dont worry father said he Ill soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.
(A) Dont worry father, “said he” Ill soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi
(B) Don't worry father, said he “I'll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.”
(C) “Don't worry father,” said he, “I'll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.”
(D) “Don't worry father said he” I'll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi
Ans : (C)

77. Find out the correct narration of the following direct speech—
“I know this area because I used to live here,” he informed.
(A) He informed that he knew that area because he used to live there
(B) He informed that he knew that area because he had lived there
(C) He informed that he knew that area because he had been living there
(D) He informed that he knew that area because he lived there
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 78 to 82) Each of the following sentences is divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Some of the sentences have errors is one part and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.

78. He explained to the government why (A) / the manufacturing of cars (B) / have stopped in his new factory. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

79. We have lived (A) / in this house ever since (B) / my father has died. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

80. The principal claimed that (A) / there were less than fifty students present in the building (B) / when it caught fire. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (D)

81. The examinations of the undergraduate students (A) / are likely to commence (B) / from Friday. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

82. Few people know (A) / that the climate of Shimla (B) / is better than Srinagar. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

83. “A violet by a mossy stone / Half hidden from the eye !” is a quote from the—
(A) Ode to Duty
(B) Lucy Poems
(C) The Green Linnet
(D) The Solitary Reaper
Ans : (B)

84. Tick the correct one—
(A) Gita asked me where I lived.
(B) Gita asked to me where I lived.
(C) Gita asked me where did I live ?
(D) Gita asked me where do you live ?
Ans : (A)

85. Informal essay is also known as—
(A) Funny essay
(B) Scholarly essay
(C) Familiar essay
(D) Impersonal essay
Ans : (B)

86. Tick the correct auxiliary to indicate discontinued habit—
(A) There was a house there
(B) There used to be a house there
(C) There is a house there
(D) There was used to be a house there
Ans : (B)

87. Wordsworth's poems, mostly, deal with—
(A) politics
(B) city life
(C) humble and rustic life
(D) revolution
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 88 to 97) In question you have a brief passage with 10 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

We were in class when the headmaster came in, followed by a ‘new fellow’, not wearing the school uniform and a school servant carrying a large desk. Those who had been asleep woke up, and everyone rose as if surprised at his work. The headmaster made a sign to us to sit down. Then turning to the class master, he said to him in a low voice : “Mr. Roger, here is a pupil whom I recommend to your care.” The new boy was wearing a tight green jacket, yellow trousers and a strange cap which soon attracted the attention of the hole class.

The new boy was still holding his strange cap on his knees even after the prayers were over. ‘Rise,’ said the master. The boy stood up. His cap fell. The whole class began to laugh. He stood to pick it up. A neighbour knocked it down again with his elbow. He picked it up once more, ‘Get rid of your helmet,’ said the master, who was a bit of a joker. There was a burst of laughter from the boys, which so throughly shamed the boy that he didn't know whether to keep his cap in his hand, leave it on the ground, or put it on his head. He sat down again and placed it on his knee.

‘Rise,’ repeated the master, ‘and tell me your name.’ The new boy articulated in a stammering voice an unintelligible name, ‘Again !’ said the master. The same sputtering of syllables was heard, drowned by the tittering of the class ‘Louder !’ cried the master; ‘louder !’ The new fellow opened a large mouth and shouted at the top of his voice as if calling someone the word ‘Charbovari’. A hubbub broke out; they shouted, barked,
stamped and repeated ‘Charbovari ! Charbovari !’

88. Who distrubed the peace of the class ?
(A) the new boy
(B) the mischievous boys of the class
(C) the master
(D) the headmaster
Ans : (B)

89. What is the function of the clause “a school servant carrying a large desk” in the opening sentence ?
(A) just to provide an extra information
(B) to describe the atmosphere
(C) to create seriousness
(D) to create humour
Ans : (B)

90. What contributed most to the misery of the new boy ?
(A) the appearance of the boy
(B) his shyness
(C) the sadistic attitude of the master
(D) insenitive classmates
Ans : (D)

91. Which of the following is true about the description of the new boy ?
(A) The boy has been sketched sympathetically
(B) The boy has been caricatured
(C) It is a serious description
(D) The writer seems to hate the boy
Ans : (A)

92. The last part of the episode proves to be an anticlimax to—
(A) the class
(B) the boy
(C) the teacher
(D) all of them
Ans : (D)

93. The boy was ‘sputtering’ syllables because he was—
(A) angry
(B) sad
(C) shy
(D) calm
Ans : (C)

94. In the command of the master ‘Get rid of your helmet’ in the second paragraph—
(A) there is a cruel joke
(B) there is nothing cruel about it
(C) the master wants to help the boy
(D) the master wants to discipline the class
Ans : (B)

95. Which literary device has been used in the following sentence of the last paragraph ?
“The same sputtering of syllables was heard, drowned by the tittering of the class”.
(A) Metaphor
(B) Irony
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Onomatopoeic
Ans : (D)

96. The word ‘hubbub’ in the last sentence of the passage means—
(A) complete silence
(B) noise and excitement
(C) dullness
(D) atmosphere
Ans : (B)

97. Which of the following would be the most suitable title for the passage ?
(A) The mischievous master
(B) The mischievous class
(C) A funny boy in the class
(D) A new boy in the class
Ans : (B)

98. Wordsworth, before his death, resided at—
(A) Rydal Mount
(B) Grasmere Parsonage
(C) Dove Cottage
(D) Allan Bank
Ans : (A)

99. He …… sitting beside a river. (Fill in with the correct verbs) :
(A) shall find
(B) is saw
(C) is finded
(D) was found
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 100 and 101) Give the meaning of the idiom—

100. The new play has fallen flat—
(A) The play is a success
(B) The play met with a cold reception
(C) The play received good review
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

101. Life is a bed of roses—
(A) Pleasant living
(B) Bed made of roses
(C) Simple living
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

102. ‘Charming and witty’ may be expressed as—
(A) Schism
(B) Scintillating
(C) Scion
(D) Sanguine
Ans : (D)

103. Split into simple sentence—
In the night the thief came into the garden.
(A) It was night. The thief came into the garden
(B) Night came. The thief came into the garden
(C) At night. The thief was in the garden
(D) Night fell. The thief came into the garden
Ans : (A)

104. ‘Alliteration’ may be defined as—
(A) a literary genre
(B) repeated consonants in a sentence
(C) a repetition of a speech sound in a sequence of words
(D) Literary aptitude
Ans : (C)

105. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) bivouck
(B) bivouk
(C) bivouac
(D) bivoak
Ans : (C)

106. Fill in the gap with correct preposition—
On Saturday, he left Delhi …… Mumbai.
(A) at
(B) for
(C) near
(D) to
Ans : (B)

107. Join into a single sentence—
He was absent from school. He was ill.
(A) As he was ill he was absent from school
(B) He was absent from school because of his illness
(C) He was ill and so he was absent from school
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 108 to 110) Fill in the blanks according to subjectverb concord—

108. A pair of trousers …… to go into his suitcase.
(A) should
(B) were
(C) are
(D) is
Ans : (D)

109. There …… some books in his bag.
(A) is
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have
Ans : (C)

110. You go first and I …… you.
(A) shall follow
(B) shall following
(C) am follow
(D) am following
Ans : (A)

111. William Wordsworth's Tintern abbey is—
(A) a dramatic monologue
(B) a dramatic lyric
(C) a dramatic epic
(D) none of the above
Ans : (A)

112. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) Tyrannize
(B) Tyrannise
(C) Tyranize
(D) Tyrranise
Ans : (A)

113. ‘Epic’ is—
(A) A story of a battle
(B) A long narrative poem on a serious subject
(C) A dramatic monologue
(D) A dramatic monologue
Ans : (B)

114. To find fault with, in one word, is—
(A) Cryptic
(B) Cruciate
(C) Criticize
(D) Curtail
Ans : (C)

115. In 1805, Wordsworth's which poem was written—
(A) Tintern Abbey
(B) The Prelude
(C) Lucy Poems
(D) The Solitary Reape
Ans : (B)

116. Insert the correct word—
He …… his application when he heard he has not got the necessary certificates.
(A) withdraw
(B) withdrew
(C) had withdrawn
(D) got withdrawn
Ans : (B)

117. The Prelude by Wordsworth was part of a vast work which was to be called—
(A) The Excursion
(B) The Recluse
(C) Yarrow Revisited
(D) Peter Bell
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 118 and 119) Tick the correctly punctuated sentence—

118. (A) “You know, he isn't dead, sir !”
(B) “You know he isnt dad, sir.”
(C) “You know, he is'nt dead, sir”
(D) “You know-He ins't dead-sir !”
Ans : (A)

119. (A) Alas ! The king is dead.
(B) Alas, the King is dead.
(C) Alas, the King is dead !
(D) Alas. The King is dead.
Ans : (A)

120. ‘Schematic’ means—
(A) disturbing
(B) diabolical
(C) grammatic
(D) diagrammatic
Ans : (D)

121. Use the correct preposition—
She tuned …… to the music programme.
(A) on
(B) into
(C) onto
(D) with
Ans : (A)

122. ‘Act’ is—
(A) a major division in the action of a play
(B) an acting category in a play
(C) chapter of a play
(D) acting by actors
Ans : (A)

123. Indicate the correct verb—
Before the Aryans …… to India, Dravidians had lived there.
(A) coming
(B) come
(C) came
(D) did come
Ans : (C)

124. The lower class was represented in Galsworthy's—
(A) The Country House
(B) The Forsyte Saga
(C) Fraternity
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

125. Tick the correct sentence—
(A) Not a girls was injured
(B) Neither nor girl was injured
(C) Neither girl was injured
(D) None girl was injured
Ans : (C)

*************************

Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Test
English Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In questions 1 to 10 you have a brief passage with 10 questions. Read the passage carefully, and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. You may think the sign of a good manager is to have a department where everybody is busy at work on their assigned tasks. But if your people are merely doing their jobs, they’re only working at about half their potential. A truly productive department is one in which every employee is actively thinking of better, more efficient methods of working ways in which to produce a higher quality product, in less time, at lower cost.

To get this kind of innovation from your people, you have to be receptive to new ideas; what’s more, you have to encourage your people to produce new ideas. Incentives are one way to motivate employees to be more productive. You can offer a cash bonus, time off, or a gift. But a more potent form of motivation is simply the employee’s knowledge that management does listen to him or her, and does put employee suggestions and ideas to work. When you listen to new ideas, be open-minded. Don’t shoot down a suggestion before you’ve heard it in full. Many of us are too quick, too eager, to show off our own experience and knowledge and say that something won’t work because ‘we’ve tried it before’ or ‘we don’t do it that way’. Well, may be you did try it before but that doesn’t mean it won’t work now. And having done things a certain way in the past doesn’t mean you’ve been doing them the best way. A good manager is open-minded and receptive to new ideas.

1. The given passage speaks about—
(A) the sign of a good manager
(B) the workers doing their job
(C) ways in which to produce a higher quality product
(D) the need to be open to new ideas
Ans : (A)
2. We understand from the passage that a good manager is one—
(A) who has a department where everybody is busy at work
(B) who offers a cash bonus, time off or a gift to his workers
(C) who is open minded and receptive to new ideas
(D) who is too quick, too eager to show off his experience and knowledge
Ans : (C)
3. People merely ‘doing their jobs’ in the passage means—
(A) that people busy at work do not perform their assigned tasks
(B) that such people produce a higher quality product
(C) that such people are working at about half their potential
(D) that such people are innovative
Ans : (C)
4. In a truly productivedepartment—
(A) people are busy at work on their assigned tasks
(B) people are busy at work to produce a large quantity of product
(C) people always think of evolving better and more efficient methods of working
(D) people always make a show of their experience and knowledge
Ans : (C)
5. The word ‘motivation’ in the passage means—
(A) to impute a motive to an action
(B) the act of inspiring others
(C) to put a thing into action
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. ‘To be receptive to new ideas’ in the passage suggests—
(A) Readiness to receive new ideas
(B) to be cautious and careful about the new ideas
(C) to share with your people the new ideas
(D) to think of better and more efficient methods of working
Ans : (A)
7. The word ‘incentives’ in the context of the passage suggests—
(A) to produce higher quality product, in less time
(B) to produce higher quality product, at lower cost
(C) an additional payment or additional facilities to employees to increase production
(D) employee’s faith that management does listen to his suggestions and ideas
Ans : (C)
8. A truly productive employee, according to the writer, is always—
(A) busy at work on his assigned tasks
(B) actively thinking of better and more efficient methods of working
(C) has an eye on a cash bonus, time off, or a gift
(D) suggesting but never busy at work
Ans : (B)
9. The innovative suggestions or new ideas from your employee can be obtained when—
(A) you offer a cash bonus to him
(B) you make him feel that management does listen to him or her and puts his ideas to work
(C) you distrust his experience and knowledge
(D) you pressurise him to tender new ideas or face the consequences
Ans :(B)
10. A good manager should—
(A) be open-minded and receptive to new ideas
(B) quickly shoot down innovative suggestions from an employee to assert supremacy of his experience and knowledge
(C) discard innovative ideas dubbing them unworkable
(D) be content with the normal functioning of the department
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Choose the correct alternatives to fill in the blanks in the following sentences—
11. A …… soldier fights for the sake of money.
(A) materialistic
(B) pioneer
(C) veteran
(D) mercenary
Ans : (D)
12. The road to Hell is …… with good intentions.
(A) decorated
(B) engraved
(C) paved
(D) crowded
Ans : (C)
13. Laws grind the …… and rich man rule the law.
(A) criminals
(B) poor
(C) innocents
(D) destitute
Ans : (B)
14. It is not possible for everyone to …… an elephant.
(A) keep up
(B) keep up with
(C) keep in
(D) keep on
Ans : (A)
15. Our college building has a good …….
(A) sight
(B) site
(C) cite
(D) side
Ans : (B)
16. Shakespeare is indebted to one of the following sources for the subject matter of his some plays. Choose the right one from the following—
(A) The Arabian Nights
(B) Holinshed’s Chronicle
(C) Bewoulf
(D) The Arthurian Legends
Ans : (B)
17. One of the following poets was nicknamed ‘The Lady of Christ’s’ by his fellow undergraduates. Spot the correct name of the poet—
(A) Milton
(B) Spenser
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Marlowe
Ans : (A)
18. ‘When the assault was intended to the city’ is a sonnet written by—
(A) Milton
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Spenser
Ans : (A)
19. Which play of Shakespeare portrays the character of Malvolio ?
(A) Love’s Labour Lost
(B) Twelfth Night
(C) Hamlet
(D) As You Like It
Ans : (B)
20. ‘On the Morning of Christ’s Nativity’ is a—
(A) Sonnet
(B) Ode
(C) Masque
(D) Pastoral Elegy
Ans : (A)
21. Which, of the following, is a work of Milton ?
(A) Novum Organum
(B) De Doctrina Christana
(C) Endymion
(D) Prothalmion
Ans : (A)
22. What figure of speech has been used in the following line ? ‘Rascals and rogues ran a race round and round the rugged rock.’
(A) Hyperbole
(B) Alliteration
(C) Onomatopoeia
(D) Apostrophe
Ans : (B)
23. Choose the correct word to complete the given proverb—
‘Barking dogs …… bite.’
(A) Sometimes
(B) Seldom
(C) Always
(D) Never
Ans : (B)
24. What is the antonym of ‘Manly’ ?
(A) Feminine
(B) Effeminate
(C) Masculine
(D) Strong
Ans : (B)
25. What figure of speech has been used in the following line ?
‘Frailty, thy name is woman !’
(A) Metaphor
(B) Personification
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Simile
Ans : (B)
26. ‘Venus and Adonis’ is a poetic composition of a poet who was a dramatist also—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Marlowe
(D) Dryden
Ans : (A)
27. ‘For a handful of silver, he left us.’ This line of Browning has a reference to—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Tennyson
(D) Dryden
Ans : (B)
28. ‘A Bend in the Ganges’ is a work of—
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Amitav Ghose
(C) Manohar Malgonkar
(D) M.R. Anand
Ans : (C)
29. Pick out the right option which expresses the meaning of word ‘Invaluable’ ?
(A) Valueless
(B) Priceless
(C) Useless
(D) Cheap
Ans : (B)
30. The following sentence has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space ?
‘The doctor said that a small daily …… of the new drug would soon cure him.’
(A) tablet
(B) pill
(C) dose
(D) quantity
Ans : (C)
31. Correct form of the sentence ‘I have often found him negligent …… his work.’ is—
(A) I have often found him negligent in his work
(B) I have often found him negligent of his work
(C) I have often found him negligent to his work
(D) I have often found him negligent with his work
Ans : (B)
32. During his visit to France, Wordsworth fell in love with a girl named—
(A) Catherine
(B) Mary Hutchinson
(C) Annette Vallon
(D) Simon Lee
Ans : (C)
33. ‘The fall of……in 1453 marks the beginning of Renaissance in Europe.’
Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank in the above sentence—
(A) Bastille
(B) The Roman Empire
(C) The Spanish Armada
(D) Constantinople
Ans : (D)
34. Who wrote the following about Shakespeare ?
‘Others abide our question, thou art free.’
(A) T.S. Eliot
(B) Arnold
(C) Blake
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (B)
35. The figure of speech in which the sound suggests the sense or meaning is known as—
(A) Alliteration
(B) Onomatopoeia
(C) Oxymoron
(D) Transferred Epithet
Ans : (B)
36. Punctuate the following sentence—
“She called out angrily so you have been hitting makhan again phatik answered indignantly no I have not who told you that’ Find out the correct option—
(A) She called out angrily, so you have been hitting Makhan again. Phatik answered indignantly. ‘No, I have not. who told you that’.
(B) She called out angrily, ‘So you have been hitting Makhan again.’ Phatik answered indignantly. ‘No, I haven’t. who told you that’.
(C) She called out angrily. ‘So you have been hitting Makhan again ?’ Phatik answered indignantly, ‘No, I haven’t. Who told you that ?’
(D) She called out angrily, ‘So you have been hitting Makhan ?’ Again Pharik answered indignantly. ‘No, I haven’t. Who told you that ? ’
Ans : (C)
37. Select the word with its correct spelling—
(A) Vaccum
(B) Vaccume
(C) Vaccuum
(D) Vacuum
Ans : (D)
38. Who calls Milton ‘God-gifted organ-voice of England’ ?
(A) Arnold
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Gray
(D) Tennyson
Ans : (D)
39. Name the critic who remarks ‘Justice (1910) is a commentary upon the prison administration of that period.’ ?
(A) Coats
(B) A.C. Ward
(C) A. Nicoll
(D) Skemp
Ans : (A)
40. What does the idiom (the) pros and cons mean ?
(A) Changes of life
(B) The arguments urged for and against a thing
(C) Irregularly
(D) Repeatedly
Ans : (B)
41. Select from the following the correct meaning of the word ‘Nostalgia’—
(A) A fatal disease
(B) Longing for things that are past
(C) An allegorical story
(D) A state of excessive fear and anxiety
Ans : (B)
42. Choose the correct animal cry to complete the sentence—
‘Dogs bark, lions roar but frogs….’
(A) coo
(B) bleat
(C) croak
(D) cluck
Ans : (C)
43. A figure of speech in which a qualifying adjective is sometimes transferred from a person to a thing or from one word to another, to which it does not strictly belong, is called—
(A) Metonymy
(B) Transferred Epithet
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Personification
Ans : (B)
44. Find out the mis-spelt word—
(A) accompaniment
(B) explaination
(C) superstitious
(D) miscellaneous
Ans : (B)
45. Choose the correct spelling of the word—
(A) restaurant
(B) restuarant
(C) resteurant
(D) restorant
Ans : (A)
46. Which, of the following words, means ‘a place where the birds are kept’ ?
(A) Aquarium
(B) Zoo
(C) Amnesty
(D) Aviary
Ans : (D)
47. Which of the following plays is not written by Galsworthy ?
(A) The Silver Box
(B) Joy
(C) Weavers
(D) A Doll’s House
Ans : (D)
48. ‘Every great poet is a teacher’ are the words of—
(A) Shelley
(B) Keats
(C) Byron
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)
49. The Restoration period was influenced by—
(A) French dramatists
(B) The dramatists of England
(C) Italian dramatists
(D) Greek dramatists
Ans : (A)
50. Punctuate the following lines—
“as caeser loved me i weep for him as he was fortunate i rejoice at it as he was valiant i honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him’
Find out the correct one—
(A) As Caeser loved me I weep for him, as he was fortunate I rejoice at it, as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him
(B) As Caeser loved me, I weep for him. As he was fortunate. I rejoice at it. As he was valiant, I honour him but as he was ambitious, I slew him
(C) As Caeser loved me, I weep for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him but—as he was ambitious, I slew him
(D) As Casear loved me I weep for him; as he was fortunate I rejoice at it; as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him
Ans : (C)
51. Find out the figure of speech in the following lines—
‘Is this the face that launched a thousand ships.
And burned the topless towers of Illium ?’
(A) Personification
(B) Hyperbole
(C) Metaphor
(D) Oxymoron
Ans : (B)
52. The first Indian author to win the prestigious Pulitzer Prize in the U.S.A. was—
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Khushwant Singh
Ans : (B)
53. What is the antonym of ‘consent’ ?
(A) descent
(B) dissent
(C) decent
(D) assent
Ans : (B)
54. Select the right meaning of the word ‘Aristocracy’ from the following—
(A) Government by the rich
(B) Government by the nobles
(C) Government by the officials
(D) Rule by mob
Ans : (B)
55. Select, from the following, the name of the author on whose grave the words he chose himself are carved—
‘Here is one whose name is writ in water.’
(A) Keats
(B) Byron
(C) Milton
(D) Swinburne
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each of the following sentences to trace the parts which are incorrect grammatically. The alphabet of the part is to be mentioned as the answer—
56. The father as well as (A) / the sons were (B) / involved in the murder. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
57. He could not give cattle (A) / green fodder today because (B) / he has broken his right hand a week ago. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
58. What to talk of charity (A) / you do not practise (B) / even ordinary humanity. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
59. I am very thirsty (A) / give me little water (B) / to drink. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
60. You and your wife (A) / appear to have seen (B) / much more happier days. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
61. Nobody was prepared (A) / to give up their seat (B) / to the old man bending on a stick. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
62. The price of this car (A) / is higher than (B) / your new car. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
63. No sooner the bell rang (A) / than all students ran out (B) / of their classes helter-skelter. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
64. The Principal, along with teachers, (A) / were invited (B) / on the occasion. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
65. Suresh asked Akbar (A) / when could he (B) / reach Kanpur. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
66. ‘Docile’ means—
(A) vague
(B) gentle
(C) stupid
(D) stubborn
Ans : (B)
67. ‘Enigmatic’ is—
(A) displeased
(B) puzzling
(C) learned
(D) short-sighted
Ans : (B)
68. ‘Alleviation’ is the antonym of—
(A) lessening
(B) magnification
(C) aggravation
(D) exaggeration
Ans : (C)
69. ‘Deviate’ is the antonym of—
(A) obliviate
(B) break
(C) concentrate
(D) follow
Ans : (C)
70. ‘Inevitable’ bears the opposite meaning of—
(A) unavoidable
(B) eatable
(C) uncertain
(D) mutilated
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 71–75) Choose the most appropriate proposition—
71. A good judge never jumps …… the conclusion.
(A) at
(B) for
(C) to
(D) on
Ans : (A)
72. Such remarks are certainly derogatory …… your reputation.
(A) for
(B) to
(C) with
(D) of
Ans : (B)
73. Minority aspirations cannot forever be kept in check …… the gun.
(A) by
(B) through
(C) with
(D) from
Ans : (A)
74. The Sarpanch turned……the proposal without thinking properly.
(A) in
(B) out
(C) up
(D) down
Ans : (D)
75. His story seems to be devoid …… truth.
(A) from
(B) of
(C) to
(D) in
Ans : (B)
76. Tick the correct sentence—
(A) Neither Ram or Shyam has done it
(B) Either Ram nor Shyam has done it
(C) Both Ram and Shyam has done it
(D) Neither Ram nor Shyam has done it
Ans : (D)
77. Find out the correctly spelt word—
(A) consumpshion
(B) conjumption
(C) consumption
(D) conjumpshan
Ans : (C)
78. Find out the correctly spelt word—
(A) aroplane
(B) aroplain
(C) aeroplain
(D) aeroplane
Ans : (D)
79. The sonnet is a poem of—
(A) ten lines
(B) twelve lines
(C) fourteen lines
(D) sixteen lines
Ans : (C)
80. Classical tragedy was a form of—
(A) drama
(B) novel
(C) prose
(D) poetry
Ans : (A)
81. Elegy began to be so called because—
(A) it was written in the elegiac measure
(B) it was a poem of sorrow
(C) it was written by writers of elegies
(D) some expert critics named it so
Ans : (A)
82. The novel is—
(A) one of the earliest forms of writing
(B) one of the latest forms of writing
(C) one of the discarded forms of writing
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
83. In which play do the following lines occur ?
“Neither a borrower nor a lender be—
For loan oft loses both itself and friend.
And borrowing dulls the edge of husbandry.”
(A) Macbeth
(B) The Merchant of Venice
(C) Hamlet
(D) King Lear
Ans : (C)
84. Choose the correct name of the play (from those given) from which the following lines have been taken—
“We are such stuff As dreams are made on, and our little life Is rounded with a sleep.”
(A) The Tempest
(B) Othello
(C) Macbeth
(D) Cariolanus
Ans : (A)
85. Who has said it ?
“One impulse from a vernal wood May teach us more of man.
Of moral evil and of good Than all the sages can.”
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Galsworthy
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (D)
86. From which book has it been taken ?
“To be weak is miserable Doing or suffering ?”
(A) The Tempest
(B) Paradise Regained
(C) The Prelude
(D) Paradise Lost
Ans : (D)
87. One of the following works of Milton is a prose work. Mention that—
(A) Lycidas
(B) Paradise Regained
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) Areopagitica
Ans : (D)
88. Shakespeare—
(A) was a great scholar of Latin
(B) knew a lot of Greek
(C) had a great command over English
(D) knew little Latin and less Greek
Ans : (C)
89. The first play by John Galsworthy was—
(A) Justice
(B) Loyalties
(C) The Skin Game
(D) The Silver Box
Ans : (D)
90. Which of the following plays does not belong to the group of four great tragedies of Shakespeare ?
(A) King Lear
(B) Hamlet
(C) Othello
(D) Twelfth Night
Ans : (D)
91. Shakespeare’s play Hamlet is influenced by—
(A) Marlowe
(B) Kyd
(C) Peele
(D) Nashe
Ans : (A)
92. The name of Prospero’s daughter in The Tempest is—
(A) Desdemona
(B) Cordelia
(C) Miranda
(D) Olivia
Ans : (C)
93. The dominating passion of Macbeth is—
(A) jealousy
(B) greed
(C) revenge
(D) ambition
Ans : (D)
94. In Twelfth Night Olivia is over head and ears in love with—
(A) Malvolio
(B) Duke Orsino
(C) the clown
(D) Viola disguised as Cesario
Ans : (D)
95. Shylock is a character in—
(A) As You Like It
(B) The Merchant of Venice
(C) Twelfth Night
(D) Measure for Measure
Ans : (B)
96. Milton’s Paradise Lost—
(A) has no trace of personal element
(B) is notable for its autobiographical passages
(C) is quite objective
(D) has none of the above qualities
Ans : (B)
97. Who is the hero of Paradise Lost ?
(A) God
(B) Satan
(C) Adam
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)
98. The statement, “Others abide our question, thou art free” refers to—
(A) John Milton
(B) Edmund Spenser
(C) Christopher Marlowe
(D) Shakespeare
Ans : (D)
99. Everyman is—
(A) an interlude
(B) a comedy
(C) a tragicomedy
(D) a morality play
Ans : (B)
100. A Dramatic Monologue is—
(A) a short play
(B) a poem
(C) a novel
(D) a prose story
Ans : (A)
101. What do we call a piece of writing that is an imitation of an action that is serious and complete ?
(A) A comedy
(B) A tragi-comedy
(C) A tragedy
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
102. Shakespeare has mostly used in his plays—
(A) heroic couplet
(B) blank verse
(C) free verse
(D) Spenserian stanza
Ans : (B)
103. “They also serve who only stand and wait.” This line occurs in—
(A) Lycidas
(B) Comus
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) On His Blindness
Ans : (D)
104. Name the poem from which the following words have been quoted—
The gods approve The depth, and not the tumult of the soul.
(A) The World Is To Much With Us
(B) The Tables Turned
(C) Ode to Duty
(D) Laodamia
Ans : (D)
105. In which play of Galsworthy do we have William Falder ?
(A) Loyalties
(B) The Silver Box
(C) Justice
(D) Strife
Ans : (C)
106. Shakespeare is—
(A) a Renaissance playwright
(B) a Restoration playwright
(C) a Twentieth Century playwright
(D) a Classcial playwright
Ans : (A)
107. Galsworthy belonged to—
(A) the sixteenth century
(B) the seventeenth century
(C) the twentieth century
(D) the nineteenth century
Ans : (C)
108. Who said it ?
How poor are they that have not patience, What wound did ever heal but by degrees ?
(A) Othello
(B) Cassio
(C) Iago
(D) Desdemona
Ans : (B)
109. Shakespeare wrote—
(A) 154 sonnets
(B) 145 sonnets
(C) 451 sonnets
(D) 26 sonnets
Ans : (A)
110. Milton’s Paradise Lost has been praised for its—
(A) lightness of touch
(B) grand style
(C) its satirical tone
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
111. Paradise Lost has been divided into …… Books.
(A) ten
(B) nine
(C) eleven
(D) twelve
Ans : (D)
112. Cordelia came to help her father because—
(A) he had given her the lion’s share of his kingdom
(B) he had deprived her of her share in the kingdom
(C) out of her genuine love for him
(D) she hated her elder sisters
Ans : (C)
113. Allusion is—
(A) a synonym of reference
(B) a synonym of poetry
(C) an indirect or passing reference to some event, person, place or artistic work
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
114. A ballad—
(A) is a short epic
(B) is a song sung by ballet dancers
(C) is a folk song or orally transmitted poem dealing with a popular story
(D) is a short novel
Ans : (C)
115. Denouement is related to—
(A) an essay
(B) a play
(C) a lyric
(D) an elegy
Ans : (B)
116. An eclogue is—
(A) a long poem
(B) a short poem
(C) a pastoral poem
(D) a short dialogue
Ans : (C)
117. Galsworthy’s tragedies are called—
(A) tragi-comedies
(B) heroic tragedies
(C) social tragedies
(D) classical tragedies
Ans : (C)
118. Samson Agonistes by Milton—
(A) is a play
(B) is a long poem
(C) is a masque
(D) a long treatise
Ans : (A)
119. Ben Jonson’s name is associated with—
(A) Sentimental comedy
(B) Romantic comedy
(C) comedy of Manners
(D) comedy of Humours
Ans : (D)
120. Congreve tried his hand at—
(A) romantic comedies
(B) comedies of humours
(C) comedies of manners
(D) farces
Ans : (C)
121. Who has been termed as a motiveless malignity ?
(A) Macbeth
(B) Othello
(C) Iago
(D) Polonlus
Ans : (C)
122. Caliban—
(A) is the hero of the play The Tempest
(B) married prospero’s daughter in The Tempest
(C) killed Prospero in The Tempest
(D) is the villain in The Tempest
Ans : (D)
123. Ophelia is the beloved of—
(A) Macbeth
(B) Hamlet
(C) Othello
(D) Romeo
Ans : (B)
124. Simile is—
(A) a part of speech
(B) a figure of speech
(C) a technical device used by old poets
(D) a sister of Emily Dickinson
Ans : (B)
125. John Galsworthy was awarded the Nobel Prize for literature in—
(A) 1912
(B) 1922
(C) 1932
(D) 1942
Ans : (C)

FCI Assistant Grade III Exam Paper

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sun, 06 Nov 2011 06:46:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

FCI Assistant Grade III Exam Paper

1. Total cropped area in India is:
(a) 137 mha
(b) 142 mha
(c) 147 mha
(d) 152 mha
2. The average agricultural production from irrigated area is:
(a) 1/8 tonnes/ha
(b) 2.0 tonnes/ha
(c) 2.4 tonnes/ha
(d) 2-8 tonnes/ha
3. Indian agriculture is facing the following major problems. Which is NOT CORRECT?
(a) Land degradation
(b) Rising population
(c) Lack of bullock power
(d) Stagnant cultivable area
4. The area occupied by legume in India is
(a) 24 mha
(b) 29 mha
(c) 34 mha
(d) 39 mha
5. The principle oil seed crop of India is
(a) Sesame
(b) Mustard
(c) Linseed
(d) Groundnut
6. Which fiber crop occupies largest area in India?
(a) Jute
(b) Flax
(c) Cotton
(d) Sunnhemp
7. First agricultural university was established
(a) Ludmana
(b) Pusa
(c) Kanpur
(d) Pant Nagar
8. Nobel Prize for Peace was awarded to Dr. Norman Borlaug in
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1972
9. Dr Rajendra Singh Paroda has been felicitated
with the award
(a) Padam Shri
(b) Padam Bhushan
(c) Padam Vibhushan
(d) Bharat Ratna
10. To be self reliant in agriculture the following growth rate per year is necessary
(a) 3.0%
(b) 3.5%
(c) 4.0%
(d) 4.5%
11. On the basis of agro climatic conditions Pali,
Jalore, Sirohi and Jodhpur are included in Zone
(a) II-B
(b) II-A
(c) I-B
(d)I-A
12. Which state is devoid of arid zone?
(a) Punjab
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh
13. Indian Institute of Soil Science is located at
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Hisar
(c) New Delhi
(d) Bhopal
14. The irrigation water requirement of onion is
(a) 60 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) 30 cm
15. Sowing of second crop in between the standard rows of the first crop before its removal is called
(a) Inter cropping
(b) Multi copping
(c) Intensive cropping
(d) Relay cropping
16. The cropping system beneficial to prevent soil erosion due to winds is
(a) Mixed cropping
(b) Strip cropping
(c) Relay cropping
(d) Multi cropping
17. The optimum temperature for sugarcane is
(a) 21-27 °C
(b) 14-29 °C
(c) 25-30 °C
(d) 28-34 °C
18. Per hectare seed rate of guar is
(a) 3 kg
(b) 6 kg
(c) 9 kg
(d)12 kg
19. The production of oil seeds in. India during 1996-97 was
(a) 22 million tonnes
(b) 25 million tonnes
(c) 24 million tonnes
(d) 26 million tonnes
20. The layer in the soil profile where material removed from the two overlaying horizons is deposited is called
(a) A-horizon
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) D-horizon
21. The diameter of very fine sand particles is-
(a) Below 0.002 mm
(b) 0.05-0.002mm
(c) 0.01-0.05 mm
(d) 0.05-0.10mm
22. The mineral weathering and clay formation are rapid where the climate is-
(a) Warm and moist
(b) Warm and dry
(c) Cold and moist
(d) Cold and dry
23. Alkali soils are treated with gypsum to correct the deficiency of-
(a) Sulphur
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Zinc
24. Which micro-nutrient is most deficient in Indo-Gangatic alluvium soils?
(a) Iron
(b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) Manganese
25. Which fertilizer is most beneficial for alkali soils?
(a) Urea
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Calcium ammonium nitrate
(d) Ammonium nitrate

Answers:

1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a
6. c 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. c
11. a 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. d
16. b 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. b

GK For FCI Assistant Job exam

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sun, 06 Nov 2011 06:45:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

GK For FCI Assistant Job exam

1. Which is the largest airport in the world?
(A) Singapore Airport
(B) The Kaulalumpur International Airport
(C) Heathrow at London
(D) The King Khalid airport at Saudi Arabia
2. Prithvi is a?
(A) Surface-to-air missile
(B) Surface-to-surface missile
(C) Air-to-surface missile
(D) Air-to-air missile
3. At the end of 2001, the Indian government approved the cultivation of B. T. Cotton. Which multinational company is the major beneficiary of this deci sion?
(A)Cargil
(B) BASF
(C) Monsanto
(D) All of these
4. The World Literacy Day is celebrated on?
(A) 8th September
(B) 5th June
(C) 15th August
(D) 5th September
5. Which was the first University to be established in the world?
(A) Harvard University
(B) Nalanda University
(C) Oxford University
(D) None of these
6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through?
(A)glass
(B) vacuum
(C)air
(D) water
7. Which of the following chemicals has been recently allowed by the government of India to be mixed with petrol?
(A) Methanol
(C) Kerosene
(B) Ethanol
(B) Butanol
8. What is the name of the instrument used to measure blood pressure?
(A) Barometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Sphygmomanometre
9. Who was the Prime Minister of England when India got independence?
(A) Attlee
(C) Thatcher
(B) Churchill
(D) Wilson
10. Which, among the following, would you consider a historical source?
(A) Numismatics
(B) Epigraphs
(C) Rock paintings
(D) Census reports
11. What is not correct about a soft loan?
1. It is a loan bearing no rate of interest
2. It has an interest rate which is above the true cost of the capital lent
3. The world bank gives soft loans to developing countries for long-term capital
projects
(A)Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C)2and3
(D) 1 and3
12. Which is the only historical monument which can be seen by
the naked eyes from the moon?
(A) The Leaning Tower of Pisa
(B) The Pyramids of Egypt
(C) The Statue of Liberty, NewYork
(D) The Great Wall of China
13. Formal services of Credit do not include?
(A) Self-help groups
(B) Cooperatives
(C) Employers
(D) L.I.C.
14. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to?
1. Set up new factories
2. Buy existing local companies
3. Form partnerships with local companies
4. Invest in companies with low turn over
(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2and3
(C) 2,3and4
(D) All of the above
15. How many faces are there in an octahedron?
(A)4
(B)6
(C)8
(D) 12
16. Night-blindness is caused by lackof which vitamin?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
17. The most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere is?
(A) Argon
(C) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(D) Krypton
18. The breadth of the railway broadgauge is approximately?
(A)2m
(B) 1.88 m
(C)1.67 m
(D) 1.33 m
19. Which is the richest soil among the following?
(A) Black soil
(B) Red soil
(C) Laterite soil
(D ) Alluvial soil
20. Sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to the?
(A) shape of earth
(B) revolution of earth around the sun
(C) rotation of earth on its axis
(D) movements of the sun
21. A person of which of the following blood group can receive blood of any group?
(A)A
(B)AB
(C)B
(D)0
22. Evergreen type of forests are found in?
(A) Equatorial climate
(B) Monsoon climatic region
(C) Desert regions
(D) Mediterranean region
23. What is the other name for River Gangas?
(A) Sapthanadi
(B) Bhageerathi
(C) Savitri
(D) Bhadravati
24. The earth is?
(A)Spherical
(B)Elliptical
(C)Oblate spheroid
(D) Pralate spheroid
25. Which of the following set can not enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units?
(A) Length, mass and velocity
(B) Length, time and velocity
(C) Mass, time and velocity
(D) Length, time and mass
26 Which of the following is / are the main agents of soil erosion?
(A) Wind and water
(B) Rocks
(C) Sand
(D) High temperature and humidity
27. Who is the Minister of Agriculture of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Ran Vilas Paswan
(C) Shiv Raj Patil
(D) None of these
28. Monsoon is caused by?
(A) Revolution of Earth
(B) Movement of Clouds
(C) Seasonal reversal of the winds
(D) Larger change in amplitude of seasonal cycle of land temperature
29. Which is the last letter of the Greek alphabet?
(A) Omega
(B) Sigma
(C) Zeta
(D) Chi
30. Which is the birth place of Hitler?
(A) Germany
(B) Hungary
(C) Austria
(D) France
31. Who elects President of India?
(A) Lock Sabha
(B) Rajya Sahha
(C) People of India
(D) Parliament and State Assemblies
32. Which country is called the ‘Land of Cakes’?
(A)Britain
(B) Spain
(C)France
(D) Scotland
33. Which of the following books is not written by Kalidas?
(A) Kathasaritsagar
(B) Meghdutam
(C) Raghuvansham
(D) Pushpavan Vikasam
34. In India, the Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the
Presidential elections if?
(A) he himself is a candidate
(B) he is yet to prove his majority in the State legislature
(C) he is a member of the upper house of the State legislature
(D) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
35. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the house?
(A) Whenever he desires
(B) Whenever the house desires
(C) In the event of equality of votes
(D) Whenever his party directs
36. which of the following is not a cash crop?
(A)Jute
(B) Paddy
(C)Cashew-nut
(D) Rubber
37. Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of the
Bin Laden crisis, especially for having carried out the broadcast
of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West Asia?
(A) Star Asia
(B) B. B. C. Asia
(C) Al Jazeera
(D) Khaleed Times
38. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of?
(A) Nepal
(B) U. K.
(C) Spain
(D) Japan
39. Who was Karl Marx’s main collaborator on his famous works?
(A) V.I. Lenin
(B) Max Weber
(C) Fredrick Engels
(D) Joseph Stalin
40. Which is the first Asian country to host the Commonwealth
Games?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C)Malaysia
(D) China
Answers :
1   D
2   B
3   C
4   A
5   B
6   A
7   B
8   D
9   A
10   C
11   B
12   D
13   C
14   B
15   C
16   A
17   B
18   C
19   D
20   C
21   B
22   A
23   B
24   C
25   A
26   A
27   A
28   D
29   A
30   C
31   D
32   D
33   A
34   C
35   C
36   B
37   C
38   D
39   C
40   C

FCI AGRICULTURE Solved objective Question

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sun, 06 Nov 2011 06:45:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

FCI AGRICULTURE Solved objective Question

1. How many factors are identified

for influencing plant growth till

now ?

(A) 55

(B) 60

(D) 50

Answer:C

2, How does the moisture stress

affect the cell

(A) Affect cell division

(B) Affect cell expansion

(D) No effect on cell

Answer:A

3. At the vegetative growth stage,

flowering is stopped in food-

grain crops, known as-

(A) sigmoid growth curve

(B) determinate growth

(D) grand growth period

Answer:B

4. Which one of the following can

be assessed by using the follow-

ing equation ?

A= Economic Production / Biomass Production

(A) Panicle emergence rate

(B) Rate of flowering

(D) Leaf production rate

Answer:C

5. How much radiation energy

percentage radiating on plant is

used in photosynthesis ?

(A) 0-50%-210%

(B) 0-42%-1•66%

(D) 0-16%-0-24%

Answer:B

6. The crop with yarns of sunnhemp is prepared in-

(A) 12-15 weeks

(B) 15-17 weeks

(D) 8-10 weeks

Answer:A

7. Which is not an inorganic matter

in the following ?

(A) Magnesium

(B) Iron

(D) Iodine

Answer:C

8. Which is the highest digestible

protein non-leguminous crop

among the following

(A) Napier

(B) Maize silage

(D) Iowar

Answer:D

9. Which disease occurs, when

more sorghum is consumed ?

(A) Rickets

(B) Scurvy

(D) Pellagra

Answer:D

10. Which Sorghum variety is not

multicut ?

(A) Pusa Chari-2

(B) M.P. Chari-2

(D) U.P. Chari-1

Answer:D

11. Which is not true in relation to

Bajra ? ‘

(A) Penniseturn typhoides

(B) Graminae family

(D) OriginAfrica

Answer:D

12. Which variety of Barley is husk-

less

(A) Pragati (K 508)

(B) Ritambhara (K 551)

(D) Karan-3

Answer:D

13. Which is not true in relation to

Gram ?

(A) Subfamily——Papilionaceae

(B) Chromosome No.—22

(D) Origin—North America

Answer:D

14. Which does not match in relation

to Cotton ?

(A) C-520 —— Diploid

(B) G-27 — Diploid

(D) Ranivan — American

Answer:D

15. Which is not matched in relation

to sugarcane ?

(A) Seed treatment—-Aglol 3%

(B) For seed—6-7 month old crop

(D) After flowering—Used for sowing

Answer:D

16. Which is not basic principle of

Agronomy ?

(A) To select appropriate mate-

rials for seed & sowing

(B) Management of soil and

climate

activities management for crop

(D) Livestock management for

Agriculture

Answer:D

17. Where and when was World

Meteorological Organization

established ?

(A) New York – 1980

(B) Washington-1978

(D) Rome- 1976

Answer:C

18. Effective cause of atmospheric

pressure is not-

(A) temperature

(B) altitude from the sea level

(D) soil erosion

Answer:D

19. Which is not correct in the

following ?

(A) X-rays and Gamma rays

— 9% of energy

(B) Visible lighting rays -41%

of energy

Y energy

(D) Ultraviolet rays- 10% of

energy

Answer:A

20. Match List-I with List•II and

select the correct answer using

the codes given below-

List-I

(a) Paddy (b) Wheat

List-II ’

1. 20°C 2. 22°C

3. 25°C 4. 26°C

Codes

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 2 3 1

(B) 2 1 4 3

(D) 1 3 4 2

Answer:B

21, Which states are the highest 8:

lowest producers of Potato crop ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand

(B) Gujarat and Assam

(D) Bihar & Kashmir

Answer:A

22. Which elements are useful in

energy storage, transfer and

bonding ?

(A) N P K

(B) N S P

(D) None of these

Answer:C

23. Which of the following elements

play an important role in nitro-

gen metabolism ?

(A) Magnesium

(B) Manganese

(D) Iron

Answer:C

24. How much Brinjal seed may be

obtained from one hectare area 7

(A) 150-200 kg

(B) 100-150 kg

(D) 75-125 kg

Answer:D

25. Which species of honeybee is not

Indian ?

(A) Apis florea

(B) Apis dorsata

(D) Apis mellifera

Answer:D

26. Which of the following is the

cross of Karan Swiss ?

(A) Sahiwal x Brown Swiss

(B) Sahiwal x Holstein

(D) Hariyana >< ]ersey

Answer:A

27. For how many years is Sheep

able to breed ?

(A) 10 years

(B) 7years

(D) 12 years

Answer:A

28, l-low much area mz is required

for a Goat ?

(A) 0-9 ~ 1•O m2

(B) 1-1-5 m2

(D) 1-5 – 1-75 mz

Answer:C

29. Goal of extension education is-

(A) To promote income of the

farmers

(B) To promote production of

the crops

(D) To promote scientific out-

look

Answer:D

30. The major fungi that effect food-

grains in storage are-—

(A) Mucor

(B) Rhizopus

(D) Aspergillus

Answer:A

31. The leaching loss of Nitrogen (N)

is more in the form of–

(A) Ammonia

(B) Nitrate

(D) Water solution

Answer:B

32. Which is not a natural factor

affecting soil fertility ?

(A) Topography

(B) Soil age

(D) Parent material

Answer:C

33. Approximately how much area

in lakh hectares of saline and

alkali soils are there in Uttar

Pradesh ?

(A) 15-00 lakh hectares

(B) 12-4 lakhhectares

(D) 14-4 lakh hectares

Answer:B

34. How much percentage of soluble

salts are present in Alkali soils ?

(A) 1% • 2%

(B) 0-1% — 0-2%

(D) 2% ~ 3%

Answer:B

35, How much is the cropped area in

Uttar Pradesh ?

(A) 9%

(B) 11%

(D) 8%

Answer:C

36. The monsoon airs in the country

reaches at which bank first of

all ?

(A) Coastal region of Orissa

(B) Bay of Bengal region

South Indian region

(D) Kachchh region of Gujarat

Answer:C

37. A.D.P. to A.T.P. change is called

(A) Photosymthesis

(B) Phosphorylation

(D) Oxidation

Answer:B

38. What is the order of C 4 plants 7

(A) Sugarcane — Maize — Sudan

grass — Bajra

(B) Sugarcane — Cotton – Paddy

- Maize

Paddy •- Bajra

(D) Cotton — Maize ~ Bajra —

Sugarcane

Answer:A

39. At what stage are more nutrients

essentially required in cereal

crops ?

(A) Growth stage of plants

(B)` Formation of leaves

(D) Maturity of crops

Answer:A

40. At which stage of crop, there is

no compehtion for light, moisture

and nutrients 7

(A) Node formation stage

(B) Seedling stage

(D) Before maturity stage

Answer:D

41. Approximately how much HCN

dose is harmful for animal feeding

(A) 0-25 gm

(B) 050 gm

(D) 3-50 gm

Answer:B

42. Due to which reason is the

Napier Grass mixed with Cluster

bean or Cowpea for feeding ?

(A) Due to high crude fibre

(B) Due to oxalic acid

(D) Due to more HCN content

Answer:A

43. Which is the perennial variety of

Elephant Grass (Napier Grass) ?

(A) Pusa Giant

(B) NB-21 `

(D) Napier-1

Answer:C

44. More than how much percentage

of loss of urea should not be

during silage fermentation ?

(A) 20% — 22%

(B) 15% — 18%

(D) 8% — 10%

Answer:D

45. From where is Krishak Bharati

magazine published ?

(A) G. B. Pant University of

Agriculture & Technology, Pant

Nagar

(B) C. S. A, University of Agriculture & Technology, Kanpur

Agriculture and Technology,

Fajzabad

(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

University of Agriculture and

Technology, Meerut

Answer:B

46. How much minimum temperature is essential for wheat germi-

nation and optimum temperature for crop growth in degree

Celsius ?

(A) 3•5°C-5•5°C and 20°C—22°C

(B) 5•6°C—7•5°C and 16°C—18°C

(D) 10°C—12″C and 25°C—30°C

Answer:D

47. In case of availability of two

irrigations for wheat, at which

critical stage crop should be

irrigated ?

(A) Tillering and Flowering

(B) Crown Root Initiation and

Milking stage p

Flowering

(D) Late joint and Dough stage

Answer:C

48. Which is not the symptom of

Khuim disease

(A) Dark grey colour spots on

leaves

(B) Adverse effect on root

growth

(D) Stem of plants tum and fall 1

down

Answer:A

49. What is the suitable Rabi maize

variety ?

(A) Sharadmani

(B) Azad Uttam

(D) Ganga — 5

Answer:A

50. Which disease is not related to

Bajra ?

(A) Green Ear

(B) Ergot

(D) Rust

Answer:C

FCI-FOOD CORPORATION OF INDIA -EXAM PATTERN/EXAM PAPERS-CATEGORY III EXAM

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sun, 06 Nov 2011 06:38:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

FCI-FOOD CORPORATION OF INDIA -EXAM PATTERN/EXAM PAPERS-CATEGORY III EXAM

SYLLABUS/EXAM PATTERN OF WRITTEN EXAM FOR CATEGORY. III

1 Aptitude Question Paper:

This question paper is to be attempted by all candidates. The question paper will consist of 100 objective type questions. All questions carry equal marks. The components of the question paper are as given below:

General Intelligence & Reasoning:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate's inference and logic from the given information. It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, etc.

General Awareness and Current Affairs:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate’s general knowledge and current affairs. Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and current events and apart from that general awareness about the concerned region/zone for which advertisement has been published for will also be tested. The test may also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic Environment, General Polity, Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research, etc.

Numerical Aptitude:

This sub-test is designed to test the quantitative ability of the candidates. The test consists of questions on Addition,Multiplication, Division, Fractions, Percentage, Rate of Interest, Work and Task, Ratio and Proportion, Distance, Profit & Loss,Mensuration, Algebra and Geometry, etc.

Data Analysis and Sufficiency:

This sub test is designed to test the ability of candidate to interpret and analyse the information and the data provided in the form of table, line graph, bar graphs, pie charts or combination of them. It also includes questions to test the ability to find out the sufficiency of data to answer the questions.

English Language:

This sub-test is aimed to test candidate’s ability to comprehend a situation from a given passage and testing the language ability of the candidates in day to day communication in English. It includes questions on synonyms, antonyms, words with corresponding meanings, singular, plural, one word substitutes, idioms and phrases, correct spellings, etc.

Computer Awareness:

This sub-test is designed to test candidate’s knowledge of basic computer operations, MS Office including MS Word, MS Excel, MS PowerPoint, MS Access operations, emails, internet and websites, basic computer hardware and languages.

2. Technical Paper:

This additional component will have 30 objective type questions separately for accounts and quality control and this paper to be attempted in addition to Aptitude Paper by the candidates applying for the post of AG III (Accounts) and AG III (Quality Control) respectively. All questions carry equal marks. This subtest will include technical questions based on the broad job requirement and prescribed educational qualifications for the post of AG III (Accounts) and AG III (Quality Control). The above guidelines are informative and indicative for the candidates. The actual questions may vary in difficulty level and content dispersion.

SoLVED EXAM PAPERS OF WRITTEN EXAM FOR CATEGORY. III

FCI Management Trainee Accounts Question Paper

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)

2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)

3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)

4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)

5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)

6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)

8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)

9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)

10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)

11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)

12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)

13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)

14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)

16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)

17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)

18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)

19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)

20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)

22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)
24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)

25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)

27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)
28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)
29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)

30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)
31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)
33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)
34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)

35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)
36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)

37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)
39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)
41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)
42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)
43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)

46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)

47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)

48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)

49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)

50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)

SOLVED PAPER-IBPS CWE PO _ENGLISH_PAPER

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sun, 06 Nov 2011 06:19:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

IBPS _PO EXAM PAPER

English Language

(Exam Held on 18-09-2011)

Directions—(1-5) : In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women's rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world's nations a few decades ago, ......... These range from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women's rights are only an issue in countries where religion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation's Women's Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women's rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.
(A) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(B) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(C) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade age.
(D) Women's activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(E) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.\
Ans : (A)

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun's rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without takling greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as withnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.
(A) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(B) This phenomenoun thus is part of the climate change problem.
(C) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(D) At first, it sounds like and ironic saviour to climate change problems
(E) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here
Ans : (C)

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world's people and nations. Why is this ? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight ? What about their governments ? Hove they pursued policies that actually harm successful development ? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.
(A) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(B) What is the government doing about it?
(C) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(D) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(E) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing
Ans : (A)

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and dement from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a millionplus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It's simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down..........
(A) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(B) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(C) Thereby making them more expensive.
(D) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(E) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.
Ans : (C)

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world....... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and upgradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to face successfully competition in the job market.
(A) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(B) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(C) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(D) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(E) In the next decade it will become the most populous.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(B) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the prespecified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(C) In most of these books the authors classify a measurement strategy as either normreferenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(D) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(E) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(F) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the tought or learned material.
(G) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of "test characteristics" and "logistical dimensions."

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man's world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.
(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe
(A) (4) and (5)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (1) and (6)
(D) (2) and (5)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

12. Drugs worth Rs. 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.
(1) manufactured(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought(6) compard(A) (1) and (4)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (5) and (6)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

13. An organisation .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.
(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated
(A) (3) and (6)
(B) (1) and (5)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (4) and (6)
(E) (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner's Task Force.
(1) possessing
(2) examining(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating
(A) (2) and (3)
(B) (3) and (6)
(C) (1) and (5)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (4) and (5)
Ans : (C)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.
(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2) and (6)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(16-20) : Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct altemative from (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) which represents all those synonyms.

16. MASK
(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

17. REGULAR
(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Both (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

18. LABOUR
(1) Expedite
(2) To mave faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (A)

19. MEAN(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice
(A) Only (3)
(B) Both (1) and (4)
(C) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

20. ALONE
(1) exclusively
(2) Morose
(3) Solitary
(4) Human being
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(21-35) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

As the country embarks on planning (21) the 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question mark (22) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements.

Growh is energy hungry, and the aspirations of growing at 9-10% will (23) huge demands on the energy resources of the country. In this energy Jigsaw, renewable energy will (24) like never before in the 12th Plan and (25)

By the rule of the thumb, India will (26) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of copacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (27) by some parts of the government the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the ternpered demand numbers are (28) to be below 80Gw. As against this need the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (29) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be (30) in the foresseable future. Between imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent cab be (31) to be added in the five-year time block.

(32) (33) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (34) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (35) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

21. (A) On
(B) Against
(C) For
(D) Onwards
(E) At
Ans : (C)

22. (A) Where
(B) That
(C) Inside
(D) Always
(E) Who
Ans : (D)

23. (A) Replace
(B) Forward
(C) Subject
(D) Place
(E) Demand
Ans : (D)

24. (A) Light
(B) Pass
(C) Publish
(D) Feature
(E) Find
Ans : (D)

25. (A) Earlier
(B) Likewise
(C) Publicity
(D) Next
(E) After
Ans : (E)

26. (A) Consumed
(B) Waste
(C) Require
(D) Highlight
(E) Generate
Ans : (C)

27. (A) Developmental
(B) Structures
(C) Efforts
(D) Projections
(E) Practices
Ans : (C)

28. (A) Likely
(B) Sure
(C) Unsure
(D) Unexpected
(E) Unlikely
Ans : (E)

29. (A) Expected
(B) Nominal
(C) Excelied
(D) Higher
(E) Lower
Ans : (D)

30. (A) Marginal
(B) Failure
(C) Success
(D) Dangerous
(E) Maxiimum
Ans : (A)

31. (A) Sure
(B) Certain
(C) Linked
(D) remarked
(E) Expected
Ans : (E)

32. (A) As
(B) When
(C) But
(D) However
(E) If
Ans : (A)

33. (A) Against
(B) For
(C) With
(D) Is
(E) Ever
Ans : (A)

34. (A) Capacity
(B) Through
(C) Project
(D) Versus
(E) Against
Ans : (B)

35. (A) Generating
(B) Lightening
(C) Making
(D) Touching
(E) Saving
Ans : (D)

Directions—(36-43) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policymakers and economists have become optimists while bosses do the worrying. The country's Central Bank has predicted that the country's economy is likely to grow at a double digit rate during the next 20-30 years. India has the capability with its vast labour and lauded entrepreneurial spirit. But the private sector which is supposed to do the heavy lifting that turns India from the world's tenth largest economy to its third largest by 2030 has become fed up. Business people often carp about India's problems but their irritation this time has a nervous edge. In the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at an annual rate of 7,8 percent; in 2005-07 it managed 9-10 percent. The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest rates and public spending that got India through the global crisis are belatedly withdrawn. At the same time the surge in inflation caused by exorbitant food prices has spread more widely, casting doubt over wheher India can grow at 8-10 percent in the medium term without overheating.

In India, as in many fast growing nations, the confidence to invest depends on the conviction that the long term trajectory is intact and it is that which is in doubt. Big Indian firms too sometimes seem happier to invest abroad that at home, in deals thatare often hailed as symbois of the country's growing clout but sometimes speak to its weaknesses - purchases of natural resources that India has in abundance but struggles to get out of the ground. In fact a further dip in investment could be selffulfilling: if fewer roads, ports and factories are built, this will hurt both short term growth figures and reduce the economy's long term capacity.

There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured the government need not try very hard. The liberalisation reforms that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to vibrant competition, at the same time what economists call factor markets, those for basic inputs like land, power, labour etc remain unreformed and largely under state control, which creates difficulties. Clearngces today can take three to four years and many employers are keen to replace workers with machines despite an abundance of labour force. This can be attributed to labour laws which are inimical to employee creation and an education system that means finding quality manpower a major problem. In fact the Planning Commission, concluded that even achieving 9 percent growth will need marked policy action in unreformed sectors. Twenty years age it was said that yardstick against which India should be measured was its potential and it is clear that there remains much to do.

36. Which of the following can be said about the Indian economy at present?
(A) It can comfortably achieve double digit growth rare at present.
(B) High food prices have led to overheating of the economy.
(C) citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation.
(D) Private sector confidence in India's growth potential is high.
(E) Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth.
Ans : (A)

37. Why are employers reluctant to hire Indian balour force?
(1) India's labour force is overqualified for the employment opportunities available.
(2) High attrition rate among employees stemming from their entrepreneurial spirit.
(3) Labour laws are not conducive to generating emploment.
(A) Only (3)
(B) All (1), (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. What is the state of India's basic input sectors at present?
(A) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast potential.
(B) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually awarded to foreign companies.
(C) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
(D) These sectors are well regulated as these are governed by the State.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?
(A) Showcasing the potential of India's growth potential to entice foreign investors .
(B) Exhorting India to implement measures to live up to its potential.
(C) Recommending India's model of development to other developing countries
(D) Berating the private sector for not bidding for infrastructure development projects.
(E) Criticising the measures taken by India during the global economic crisis.
Ans : (B)

40. What impact has the GDP growth of 7.8 percent had?
(1) Indian Industry is anxious about India's economic growth.
(2) India has achieved status as the world's third largest economy at present.
(3) Foreign investment in India has drastically increased.
(A) Only (1)
(B) All (1), (B) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word CLOUT given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Strike
(B) Standing
(C) Force
(D) Launch
(E) Achieve
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word MARKED given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Decreased
(B) Lgnored
(C) Clear
(D) Assessed
(E) Imperceptible
Ans : (E)

43. What measures do experts suggest be taken to ensure targeted economic growth?
(A) Loweing of interest rates to help industries hit by recession.
(B) Prolonged financial support for basic input industries.
(C) Incentives to Indian companies to invest in infrastucture.
(D) Formulation of policies and their implementation in factor markets
(E) Stringent implementation of licensing system.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(44-50) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In many countries, a combustible mixture of authoritarianism, unemployment and youth has given rise to disaffection with strongmen rulers which has in turn spilld over into uprising. Young people in these countries are far better educated than their parents were. In 1990 the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by 2010 the figure had risen to 7.1 years. Could it be that education, by making people less willing to put up with restrictions on freedom and more willing to question authority, promotes democratization. Ideas about the links between education, Income and democracy are at the heart of what social scientists have long studied. Since then plenty of economists and political scientists have looked for statistical evidence of a causal link between education and democratization. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that exists between levels of education and measures like the pluralism of party politics and the existence of civil liberties. The patterns are similar when income and democracy are considered. There are outliers, of course - until recently, many Arab countries managed to combine energy-based wealth and decent education with undemocratic political systems. But some deduce from the overall picture that as China and other authoritarian states get more educated and richer, their people will agitate for greater political freedom, culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of government.

This apparently reasonable intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics of the hypothesis point out that correlation is hardly causation. The general trend over the past half century may have been towards rising living standards, a wider spread of basic education and more democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being by another variable. Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would be difficult to know which way causation ran. Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary school whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies has shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the woment in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, raiway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.

44. Which of the following most aptly describes the central theme of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are richer and have a better track record of educating their citizens.
(B) Education does not necessarily lead to greater enthusiasm for a democratic form of government
(C) Educated societies with autocratic form of government enjoy a better quality of life than democracies.
(D) Citizens can fulfill their personal aspirations only under a democratic form of government.
(E) Democracy makes citizens more intolerant as it does not restrict personal freedoms.
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word PROMOTES given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Upgrades
(B) Prefers
(C) Recommends
(D) Advocates
(E) Publicises
Ans : (D)

46. What conclusion can be drawn from the statistics cited about Egypt's education system?
(A) Job prospects have been on the rise in Egypt in recent times.
(B) Authoritarian leaders have played a vital role in reforming Egypt's education system.
(C) Egypt has one of the youngest and best educated demographies in the world.
(D) Egypt is likely to be successful vibrant democracy.
(E) There has been a rise in education levels in Egypt in recant times.
Ans : (E)

47. In the context of the passage which of the following characterise (s) democracies?
(1) Active participation of majority of educated citizens in electoral process.
(2) Fast paced economic growth and accountability of those in power.
(3) Better standards of living and access to higher education.
(A) All (1), (2) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. What according to the author has led to uprisings in authoritarian countries?
(A) Lack of access to education.
(B) Vast numbers of uneducated and unemployable youth.
(C) Frustration with the existing system of governance.
(D) Unavailability of natural energy resources like coal and oil.
(E) Government's overambitious plans for development.
Ans : (C)

49. Which of the following is/are true about China in the context of the passage?
(1) China's citizens are in favour of a more representative form of government.
(2) China has made huge strides in infrastructure developments.
(3) China is in the midst of a political revolution.
(A) None (B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

50. What does the phrase "messiness of democracy" convey in the context of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are chaotic on account of individual freedoms.
(B) Most democratic countries frequently have violent revolts among their citizens.
(C) The divide between the poor and educated is growing wider in democracies.
(D) High levels of pollution on account of frentic pace of infrastructurd development.
(E) Resigned acceptance of intrinsic corruption in the education system.
Ans : (C)

CTET EXAM PATTERN/SOLVED PAPERS

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sun, 06 Nov 2011 06:10:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

CTET EXAM PATTERN/SOLVED PAPERS

Pattern of Examination
The CTET examination will be of objective type Multiple Choice Question (MCQ's). There will be no negative marking. There will be 2 papers of CTET.

Paper I will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes I to V.
Paper II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes VI to VIII.

Note: A person who intends to be a teacher for both levels (classes I to V and classes VI to VIII) will have to appear in both the papers (Paper I and Paper II).

Paper I (for classes I to V): Duration of examination - one-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content (All Compulsory): (Appendix 1)

(i) Child Development and Pedagogy    30 MCQs      30 Marks
(ii) Language I                                    30 MCQs      30 Marks
(iii) Language II                                  30 MCQs      30 Marks
(iv) Mathematics                                 30 MCQs      30 Marks
(v) Environmental Studies                    30 MCQs      30 Marks
      Total                                           150 MCQs    150 Marks

Nature and standard of questions:

The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educational psychology of teaching and learning relevant to the age group of 6-11 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics and needs of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.
The Test items for Language I will focus on the proficiencies related to the medium of instruction, (as chosen from list of prescribed language options in the application form).
The Language II will be from among the prescribed options other than Language I. A candidate may choose any one language from the available language options and will be required to specify the same in the application form. The test items in language II will also focus on the elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities.
The test items in Mathematics and Environmental Studies will focus on the concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of the subjects. In all these subject areas, the test items will be evenly distributed over different divisions of the syllabus of that subject prescribed for classesï¿½ I–V, by the NCERT/CBSE.
The questions in the tests for Paper I will be based on the topics prescribed for classesï¿½ I–V, but their difficulty standard, as well as linkages, could be up to the secondary stage.

Paper II (for classes VI to VIII): Duration of examination - one-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content: (Appendix 1)

(i) Child Development & Pedagogy (compulsory)                                            30 MCQs       30Marks
(ii) Language I (compulsory)                                                                            30 MCQs       30Marks
(iii) Language II (compulsory)                                                                          30 MCQs       30Marks
(iv)(a) For Mathematics and Science teacher: Mathematics and Science           60 MCQs     60Marks
     (b) For Social Studies/Social Science Teacher: Social Science                     60 MCQs       60Marks
     (c) For any other teacher ï¿½ either (a) or (b)

Nature and standard of questions:

The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educational psychology of teaching and learning, relevant to the age group 11-14 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics, needs and psychology of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.
The test items for Language I will focus on the proficiency related to the medium of instruction, as chosen from list of prescribed options in the application form.
The Language II will be a language other than Language I. A candidate may choose any one language from among the available options and as in the specified list in the application form and attempt questions in the one indicated by the candidate in the application form by him. The Test items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities.
The test items in Mathematics and Science, and Social Studies/Social Science will focus on the concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of these subjects. The test items of Mathematics and Science will be of 30 marks each. The test items will be evenly distributed over different divisions of the syllabus of that subject as prescribed for classes VI-VIII by the NCERT/CBSE.
The questions in the tests for Paper II will be based on the topics of the prescribed syllabus of the NCERT/CBSE for classes VI-VIII but their difficulty standard as well as linkages could be up to the senior secondary stage.

CTET EXAM -SOLVED PAPERS-PAPER-I

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of one and half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.

3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

4. The CODE for this Booklet is B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying 1 mark:

Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)

Part II: Mathematics (Q. 31 to Q. 60)

Part III: Environmental Studies (Q. 61 to Q. 90)

Part IV: Language I - (English/Hindi) (Q. 91 to Q. 120)

Part V: Language II-(English/Hindi) (Q.121toQ.150)

6. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V contains 30 questions for Language II. In this test booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language I and/or Language II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Test Booklet that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form.

7. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Part V (Language II) in a language other than the one chosen as Language I (in Part IV) from the list of languages.

8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same.

9. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers.

PART I

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. The term 'curriculum' in the field of education refers to

(1) methods of teaching and the content to be taught

(2) overall programme of the school which students experience on a day-to-day basis

(3) evaluation process

(4) text-material to be used in the class

Ans: (2)

2. At lower classes, play-way method of teaching is based on

(1) theory of physcial education programmes

(2) principles of methods of teaching

(3) psychological principles of development and growth

(4) sociological principles of teaching

Ans: (3)

3. "A young child responds to a new situation on the basis of the response made by him/her in a similar situation as in the past." This is related to

(1) 'Law of Analogy' of learning

(2) 'Law of Effect' of learning

(3) 'Law of Attitude' of learning process

(4) 'Law of Readiness' of learning

Ans: (2)

4. 'Dyslexia' is associated with

(1) Mental disorder

(2) Mathematical disorder

(3) Reading disorder

(4) Behavioural disorder

Ans: (3)

5. Education of children with special needs should be provided

(1) along with other normal children

(2) by methods developed for special children in special Schools

(3) in special school

(4) by special teachers in special schools

Ans: (1)

6. To make assessment a 'useful and interesting' process, one should be careful about

(1) making comparisons between different students

(2) labelling students as intelligent or average learners

(3) using a variety of ways' to collect information about the student's learning across the scholastic and co-scholastic boundaries

(4) using technical language to give feedback

Ans: (3)

7. ____ is not considered a sign of 'being gifted'.

(1) Creative ideas

(2) Fighting with others

(3) Novelty in expression

(4) Curiosity

Ans: (2)

8."Children actively construct their understanding of the world" is a statement attributed to

(1) Piaget

(2) Pavlov

(3) Kohlberg

(4) Skinner

Ans: (1)

9. Kritika who does not talk much at home, talks a lot at school. It shows that

(1) the school provides opportunities to children to talk a lot

(2) teachers demand that children should talk a lot at school

(3) she does not like her home at all

(4) her thoughts get acknowledged at school

Ans: (4)

10. A teacher should make an attempt to understand the potentialities of herlhis students. Which of the following fields is related to this objective?

(1) Educational Sociology

(2) Social Philosophy

(3) Media - Psychology

(4) Educational Psychology

Ans: (4)

11. Motivation, in the process of learning,

(1) sharpens the memory of learners

(2) differentiates new. learning from old learning

(3) makes learners think unidirectionally

(4) creates interest for learning among young learners

Ans: (4)

12. Learning can be enriched if

(1) situations from the real world are brought into the class in which students interact with each other and the teacher facilitates

(2) more and more teaching aids are used in the class

(3) teachers use different types of lectures and explanation

(4) due attention is paid to periodic tests in the class

Ans: (1)

13. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of the process of learning?

(1) Educational institutions are the only place where learning takes place

(2) Learning is a comprehensive process

(3) Learning is goal-oriented

(4) Unlearning is also a learning process

Ans: (1)

14. A student of V-grade with 'visual deficiency' should be

(1) excused to do a lower level of work

(2) helped with hislher routine-work by parents and friends

(3) treated normally in the classroom and provided support through Audio CDs

(4) given special treatment III the classroom

Ans: (3)

15. Which of the following should be considered the most important quality of a teacher at primary level ?

(1) Eagerness to teach

(2) Patience and perseverance

(3) Competence in methods of teaching and knowledge of subjects

(4) Competence to teach in highly standardised language

Ans: (2)

16. The stage in which a child begins to think logically about objects and events is known as

(1) Sensori-motor stage

(2) Formal operational stage

(3) Pre-operational stage

(4) Concrete operational stage

Ans: (4)

17. A teacher, because of his/her democratic nature, allows students to sit all over the class. Some sit together and discuss or do group reading. Some sit quietly, and read themselves. A parent does not like it. Which of the following may be the best way to handle the situation ?

(1) Parents should complain against the teacher to the principal

(2) Parents should request the principal to change the section of their ward

(3) Parents should show trust in the teacher and discuss the problem with the teacher

(4) Parents should take away the child from that school

Ans: (3)

18. The 'insight theory of learning' is promoted by

(1) 'Gestalt' theorists

(2) Pavlov

(3) Jean Piaget

(4) Vygotsky

Ans: (1)

19. Four distinct stages of children's intellectual development are identified by

(1) Kohlberg

(2) Erikson

(3) Skinner

(4) Piaget

Ans: (4)

20. In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer group?

(1) Adolescence

(2) Adulthood

(3) Early childhood

(4) Childhood

Ans: (1)

21. Parents should play a _ role in the learning process of young children.

(1) negative

(2) proactive

(3) sympathetic

(4) neutral

Ans: (2)

22. "Development is a never ending process." This idea is associated with

(1) Principle of interrelation

(2) Principle of continuity

(3) Principle of integration

(4) Principle of interaction

Ans: (2)

23. Which is the place where the child's 'cognitive' development is defined in the best way?

(1) Playground

(2) School and classroom environment

(3) Auditorium

(4) Home

Ans: (2)

24. Which of the following is not a sign of an intelligent young child?

(1) One who has the ability to cram long essays very quickly

(2) One who has the ability to communicate fluently and appropriately

(3) One who carries on thinking in an abstract manner

(4) One who can adjust oneself in a new environment

Ans: (1)

25. ____ is considered a sign of motivated teaching.

(1) Maximum attendance in the class

(2) Remedial work given by the teacher

(3) Questioning by students

(4) Pin drop silence in the class

Ans: (3)

26. Which of the following is not related to the socio-psychological needs of the child?

(1) Need for appreciation or social approval

(2) Need for emotional security

(3) Regular elimination of waste products from the body

(4) Need for company

Ans: (3)

27. 'Mind mapping' refers to

(1) a technique to enhance comprehension

(2) a plan of action for an adventure

(3) drawing the picture of a mind

(4) researching the functioning of the mind

Ans: (4)

28. The best way, specially at primary level, to address the learning difficulties of students is to use

(1) a variety of teaching methods suited to the disability

(2) expensive and, glossy support material

(3) easy and interesting textbooks

(4) story-telling method

Ans: (1)

29. According to Piaget, at which of the following stages does a child begin, to think logically about abstract propositions?

(1) Concrete operational stage (07 - 11 years)

(2) Formal operational stage (11 years and up)

(3) Sensori-motor stage (Birth - 02 years)

(4) Pre-operational stage (02 - 07 years)

Ans:

30. Which of the following will foster creativity among learners ?

(1) Teaching the students the practical value of good education

(2) Providing opportunities to question and to nurture the innate talents of every learner

(3) Emphasizing achievement goals from the beginning of school life

(4) Coaching students for good marks in examination

Ans: (2)

PART II

MATHEMATICS

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

31. While teaching comparison of fractions which the numerators are same e.g. 3/5 and 3/7 Rohit’s response was "since the numerators are same and since 7 is larger than 5,

therefore 3/7 is bigger than 3/5 .”

This suggests that

(1) Rohit does not know the concept of equivalent fractions

(2) Rohit has not practised well

(3) Rohit does not understand the magnitude of fractions

(4) Rohit does not know the concept of numerator and denominator

Ans: (1)

32. Examine the following matchstick patterns:

If the pattern continues, how many matchsticks are needed in the 15th stage?

(1) 61

(2) 62

(3) 105

(4) 65

Ans: (2)

33. To introduce the concept of fractions, a teacher can begin with

(1) writing fractions in the form of a/b where b ≠ 0

(2) identifying fractional parts of things around them

(3) identifying numerators and denominators of different fractions

(4) finding fractions on a number line

Ans: (2)

34. is 3/4 of a ‘unit’. What will be 1½ ?

Ans: (4)

35. The number 49532 rounded off to the nearest thousand is

(1) 41000

(2) 50000

(3) 49000

(4) 49500

Ans: (2)

36. In the following, which is the greatest number?

(1) [(2+2)²]²

(2) (2+2+2)²

(3) (4)²

(4) (2×2×2)²

Ans: (1)

37. "Start a discussion in the class on things in the child's environment which roll and slide. Help children to look at their shapes and see how some things roll and others slide."

Source: Math Magic II, NCERT

Suggestions like this have been given in the NCERT textbook of Class-II to help a teacher understand that

(1) discussions supplemented with demonstration help students to understand concepts better

(2) discussions bring multiple perspectives into the classroom

(3) discussion is the best strategy for the mathematics classroom

(4) it is imperative for the teachers to draw the children's attention to the things around them

Ans: (1)

38. The chapters in the NCERT textbook of mathematics of Class-IV have titles like 38. "The Junk Seller", "Trip to Bhopal", "The Way the World Looks".

This shift has been done to

(1) make it interesting by relating it to everyday life

(2) know about selling junk and travelling

(3) challenge the students to guess the mathematical content in the chapters

(4) make them understand differently

Ans: (1)

39. The weight of some mangoes is 2 kg 600 g and that of some apples is 1 kg 450 g. The weight of the mangoes is greater than that of the apples by

(1) 1 kg 200 g

(2) 150 g

(3) 4 kg 50 g

(4) 1 kg 150 g

Ans: (4)

40."Problem solving" as a strategy of doing mathematics involves

(1) activity based approach

(2) estimation

(3) extensive practice

(4) using clues to arrive at a solution

Ans: (1)

41. Sequence the following tasks as they would be taken up while. developing the understanding of shapes and space across primary classes :

a. Matches the properties of 2-D shapes by observing their sides and corners

b. Describes intuitively the properties of 2-D shapes

c. Sorts 2-D shapes

d. Describes the various 2-D shapes by counting their sides, corners and diagonals

(1) a, d, b, c

(2) c, a, d, b

(3) d, b, a, c

(4) c, b, d, a

Ans: (2)

42. If an operator is defined as

4 3=4+5+6

5 4=5+6+7+8

6 4=6+7+8+9

what will n 8 be equal to ?

(1) 8n + 36

(2) n + 36

(3) n + 28

(4) 8n + 28

Ans: (2)

43. A teacher asked in a class to represent 1/8 of .Which amongst the following is an incorrect representation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans:

44. The purpose of a diagnostic test in mathematics is

(1) to fill the progress report

(2) to plan the question paper for the end-term examination

(3) to know the gaps in children's understanding

(4) to give feedback to the parents

Ans: (3)

45. 407928 is read as

(1) Forty thousand nine hundred twenty eight

(2) Four lakh seven thousand nine hundred twenty eight

(3) Four lakh seventy nine thousand twenty eight

(4) Forty seven thousand nine hundred twenty eight

Ans: (2)

46. The length of a rectangle is 'l' and its width is half of its length. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle if the length is doubled keeping the width same?

(1) 6l

(2) 3l

(3) 4l

(4) 5l

Ans: (4)

47. Which is true for a hexagonal pyramid?

(1) It has two hexagonal faces and six rectangular faces

(2) It has six hexagonal faces joined by six rectangular faces

(3) It has six faces and each face is a hexagon

(4) It has a hexagonal base with six triangular faces meeting at a point

Ans: (4)

48. How many 4-digit numbers are there in the Hindu-Arabic Numeration System?

(1) 9999

(2) 9000

(3) 99

(4) 8999

Ans: (2)

49. Vikas teaches mathematics to a class of 56 students. He believes that conducting a test is effective if the feedback is given immediately. He conducted a short class test of 10

marks. What is the best possible way of giving the feedback effectively?

(1) He can have a whole class discussion on ways in which they have got their solutions and which is the effective strategy to arrive at the correct answer

(2) Pick out any copy at random and discuss the method followed in the copy on the board

(3) He can let the students check each other's answer

(4) He can explain the solution of each problem on the board and ask the students to check their answer on their own

Ans:

50. When teaching 'shapes', a teacher can plan a trip of historical places as

(1) field trips have been recommended by CBSE, so they are a must

(2) shapes are an integral part of any architecture and such trips encourage connections across disciplines

(3) she has completed most of the syllabus well in time and needs to provide leisure

(4) it would be a good break from the routine mathematics class and an opportunity to improve communicative kills

Ans: (2)

51. In a dice, the numbers on the opposite faces add up to 7. Which amongst the following will fold into a dice?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans: (3)

52. To introduce the concept of area, a teacher can start with

(1) calculating area of figures with the help of counting unit square

(2) explaining of formulae for finding area of figures of different shapes

(3) comparing area of any figure with the help of different objects like palm, leaf, pencil, notebook, etc.

(4) calculating area of a rectangle by finding length and breadth of a rectangle and using the formula for area of a rectangle (i.e. length x breadth)

Ans: (3)

53. When faced with word problems, Rajan usually asks "Should I add or subtract?" "Should I multiply or divide?". Such questions suggest

(1) Rajan lacks understanding of number operations

(2) Rajan cannot add and multiply

(3) Rajan seeks opportunities to disturb the class

(4) Rajan has problems in comprehending language

Ans:

54. A rhombus has diagonals of length 8 cm and 6 cm. Find its perimeter.

(1) 24 cm

(2) 28 cm

(3) 18 cm

(4) 20 cm

Ans: (4)

55. Look at the following table:

Station		Bus 1	Bus 2	Bus 3
New Delhi	Departure	19:15	12:30	16:45
Faridabad	Arrival Departure	20:22 20:37	13:25 13:35	19:10 19:22
Mathura	Arrival	00:40	18:10	21:55

Which bus takes the least time to reach Mathura from New Delhi?

(1) Bus 3

(2) Both Bus 2 and Bus 3 take equal time

(3) Bus 1

(4) Bus 2

Ans: (3)

56. When teaching addition of fractions, a teacher came across the following error: 1/2 + 1/3 = 2/5 What remedial action can the teacher take in such a situation?

(1) Help the child to understand the magnitude of each fraction

(2) Help the child to understand the concept of LCM

(3) Ask the child to practise as much as she can

(4) No intervention is needed because she will understand as she grows

Ans: (2)

57. Sequence the following tasks as they are taken up while developing the concept of measurement :

a. Learners use standard units to measure length.

b. Learners use non-standard units to measure length.

c. Learners verify objects using simple observation

d. Learners understand the relationship between metric units.

(1) c, b, a, d

(2) d, a, c, b

(3) a, b, d, c

(4) b, a, c, d

Ans: (1)

58. The NCF (2005) considers that Mathematics involves 'a certain way of thinking and reasoning'. From the statements given below, pick out one which does not reflect the above principle:

(1) The method by which it is taught

(2) Giving students set formulae to solve the numerical questions

(3) The way the material presented in the textbooks is written

(4) The activities and exercises chosen for the class

Ans: (2)

59."These days prices have started rising." Which amongst the following graphs represents this situation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans: (1)

60. To be a "good" mathematician one must be able to

(1) understand, apply and make connections across the concepts

(2) master the techniques of answering questions

(3) memorise most of the formulae

(4) solve the problem in no time

Ans: (1)

PART III

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

61. As an EVS teacher, you plan to take the students to the zoo. Which of the following activities would you not allow the students to undertake?

(1) Take along lots of eatables for the animals at the zoo

(2) Try to find out the food taken up by different animals at the zoo

(3) Collect photographs of the animals they expect to see at the zoo

(4) Take their drawing books along with them to draw what they see at the zoo

Ans: (1)

62. The concept of 'seed germination' can be taught best by

(1) asking the students to perform an activity to sow seeds, observe different stages and draw them

(2) showing photographs of seed germination

(3) showing germinated seeds to the class and explaining the process of germination

(4) presenting the germination stages through drawings on the board

Ans: (1)

63. Mira and Divya are young girls. Mira likes to eat samosas, cutlets and bread. Divya, on the other hand, takes an iron deficient diet. Which of the

following disorders are Mira and Divya likely to suffer from, respectively?

(1)Obesity and scurvy

(2)Scurvy and anaemia

(3)Anaemia and night blindness

(4)Obesity and anaemia

Ans: (4)

64. To make children aware of different kinds of fuel, a teacher can

(1) show some samples of fuels in the class

(2) discuss with children about possible kinds of fuel that can be used for cooking, along with a short film

(3) show pictures of fuels on a chart

(4) ask children to list different fuels

Ans: (2)

65. The skills required to read a map include

(1) excellent communication skills to draw out the expressive ability

(2) ability to understand relative position of places, distances and directions

(3) excellent drawing and painting skills

(4) ability to use calculations and sketch positions on a globe

Ans: (2)

66. Giving importance to individual experiences of children in an EVS class will benefit the teacher

(1) to connect the subject to the learners' experiential world and promote reflection and learning

(2) to save her energy as children enjoy talking

(3) to know the unique experiences of children

(4) to help and improve the language and communication skills of the children

Ans: (1)

67. It has been observed that the process of digestion is faster inside the stomach than outside because

(1) the digestive juices when kept outside the stomach become inactive

(2) the food is churned in the stomach thereby increasing the surface area for quicker enzyme action

(3) the digestive juices inside the stomach are acidic, while 'outside they are alkaline

(4) the amount of digestive juices produced in the stomach in the presence of food is much more

Ans: (2)

68. Which of the following statements is not an objective of teaching EVS at the primary level?

(1) To load learners with terms and definitions for assessment

(2) To internalise the values of concern for life and environment

(3) Arouse curiosity about the natural and social environment

(4) Engage in exploratory and hands-on activities that lead to the development of cognitive and psychomotor skills

Ans: (1)

69. An egret bird is often seen on a buffalo's back. This is because the egret

(1) feeds on parasites on the buffalo's back

(2) feeds on insects present in the grass

(3) loves to sing while sitting on the buffalo's back '

(4) rests after flying for a while

Ans: (1)

70. The idea of showing a sample of a railway ticket in the EVS textbook is to

(1) enhance the skills of students to arrive at conclusions

(2) give them an opportunity to interact with real information and develop the skill of observation

(3) give the students an idea 'of the rail fare

(4) provide them the knowledge of various abbreviations used in the ticket

Ans: (2)

71. Which of the following represents one of the objectives of teaching EVS at Primary School?

(1) To inform the learners about the books they should read to expand their knowledge

(2) To connect the experiences of the learners in school with the outside world

(3) To make learners aware of technical terms and definitions

(4) To assess technical terms related to EVS

Ans: (2)

72. Which of the following statements about assignments is correct?

(1) Assignments provide learners an opportunity to search for information, construct their own ideas and articulate them

(2) Assignments can be done by parents, brothers or sisters depending on the talent that they possess

(3) Assignments need to be given as classwork followed by homework every day to provide variety and practice

(4) Assignments should be the only method of assessment

Ans: (1)

73. Simple experiments and demonstrations can be performed in the EVS class

(1) to discuss ideas, record and analyse observations on the basis of questions raised by students

(2) to control the students to ensure discipline in the class'

(3) to enable children to learn on their own and sharpen their observation skills

(4) to follow what is being done in the senior classes

Ans: (1)

74. Durga lives in a village and cooks food on a chulha (earthen stove) using wood or cow dung cakes as fuel. She has been suffering from severe cough

for the last three months. This may be due to the

(1) smoke produced by burning fuels which may have caused her allergy

(2) old age and pollution inside and outside her hut

(3) carbon monoxide produced by burning fuel which may have been deposited in her respiratory tract

(4) soot produced by burning the fuels which may have been deposited in her respiratory tract

Ans: (4)

75. After the lunch break, while teaching EVS, you find that students are not. taking interest in the lesson. What would you do?

(1) Take the children out to play in the ground

(2) Ask them to put their heads down on the desk and relax

(3) Use audio-visual aids based on multiple intelligences to make the lesson interesting

(4) Change the topic immediately

Ans: (3)

76. A school planned an educational trip for Class-V students to Rajasthan. What would be your expectation from the children during the visit?

(1) They should note down their questions, if any, and ask the parents after reaching home

(2) They should observe everything without asking questions about it

(3) They should enjoy themselves

(4) They should observe keenly, make notes and share their observations with other students and the teacher

Ans: (4)

77. Rina separated the garbage from the house into two piles as shown below:

Rina has separated the garbage waste into two piles depending on the criteria

(1) are household / industrial waste

(2) have odour / are odourless

(3) can be decomposed / cannot be decomposed

(4) can be recycled / cannot be recycled

Ans: (3)

78. Chipko Movement was strengthened under the leadership of

(1) A.K. Banerjee

(2) Sunder Lal Bahuguna

(3) Amrita Devi Bishnoi

(4) Medha Patkar

Ans: (2)

79. Vitamins are substances

(1) required in small quantities to prevent deficiency diseases

(2) that increase our metabolic rate leading to loss of weight

(3) required as medicines to make us healthy

(4) that build muscles to keep us strong

Ans: (1)

80. In rural areas, cow dung is used to coat the floor and walls of huts to

(1) give a natural colour to the floor

(2) keep the insects away

(3) make them smooth and clean

(4) make them rough to increase friction

Ans: (3)

81. A farmer wanted to separate the grains from the chaff. This can be achieved by the process called

(1) Harvesting

(2) Handpicking

(3) Threshing

(4) Winnowing

Ans:

82. Which one of the following is not an objective of including riddles and puzzles in the EVS textbook?

(1) To confuse the mind of the students and let them enjoy the confusion

(2) To develop curiosity and ability to think creatively

(3) To develop critical thinking ability in students

(4) To develop reasoning ability in students

Ans: (1)

83. A man with blood group '0' marries a woman with blood group 'A'. The chance of their first child having blood group '0' is

(1) 25%

(2) 75%

(3) 50%

(4) 100%

Ans: (3)

84. A Shooting Star is a

(1) meteoroid which catches fire as it enters the Earth's atmosphere

(2) star which moves with a constant speed

(3) shining object which moves with a constant speed in the atmosphere

(4) star with a tail at the end

Ans: (1)

85. The difference between boiling and evaporation is that

(1) boiling causes reduction in volume of liquid while evaporation does not

(2) changing of boiling liquid into vapour can be seen but evaporation cannot be seen

(3) boiling causes a change of state of water while evaporation does not

(4) evaporation can take place at any temperature while boiling cannot

Ans: (4)

86. At the primary stage, assessments should consist of

(1) half-yearly and annual examinations at the end of the year

(2) home assignments and class assignments every week to rate young learners under the categories of pass or fail

(3) continuous and unstructured teacher observations to be shared with learners and parents

(4) formal tests and games done every week and recorded in the Report Card

Ans: (3)

87. A lemon sinks in normal water but floats in salty water because the density of

(1) lemon increases in salt water

(2) lemon decreases in salt water

(3) salt water is more than normal water

(4) normal water is more than salt water

Ans: (3)

88. Cooked rice can be preserved for a longer time in a refrigerator because

(1) moisture content in the food is reduced at low temperature

(2) refrigerators contain certain chemicals which kill the microbes

(3) microbes become inactive at low temperature

(4) microbes are destroyed and killed at low temperature

Ans: (3)

89. Malaria can be detected by testing the blood for the presence of

(1) eggs of mosquito in red blood cells

(2) Plasmodium in red blood cells

(3) ruptured liver cells in blood

(4) larvae of mosquito in blood

Ans: (2)

90. The use of poems and story telling to explain concepts in an EVS class helps to

(1) take care of the language and cultural diversity among learners

(2) channelize the energies of the students in the right direction

(3) make the lesson enjoyable and interesting

(4) promote the ability to imagine and explore the nature of the world at the local and global level

Ans: (4)

PART IV

LANGUAGE I

ENGLISH

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. The spoken skills in a language teaching classroom can be developed through

(1) enabling activities with a focus on conversation skills leading to communicative competence

(2) group activities where learners can talk in whichever language they would like to

(3) engaging in small talk as confident agressive learners

(4) emotionally connecting with learners

Ans: (1)

92. Lalita, a teacher of young learners, provides them with opportunities to play with clay, water and sand so as to

(1) please them and make them happy

(2) dirty their hands so that they may learn to wash them

(3) build fine motor skills, especially of the fingers and thumb

(4) encourage play with no other objective

Ans: (3)

93. How will a teacher best teach 'writing' skills to a class?

(1) Through dictation

(2) By asking students to learn articles and rewrite them

(3) By brainstorming ides and asking students to write in their own words

(4) By asking students to write neatly

Ans: (3)

94. Mary, a young teacher, believes in personalised learning because she thinks that

(1) all learners must learn on their own

(2) children must enjoy their learning

(3) every person must be exposed to learning

(4) every learner is unique and needs to be given a chance to develop to the best of their ability

Ans: (4)

95. In a diverse classroom, learners find it difficult to speak and write good English and often lapse into their mother-tongue because

(1) they do not have the ability to learn English

(2) they are slow learners

(3) they are not motivated to learn

(4) they lack enough competence and the structures of the two languages are different

Ans: (4)

96. A child studying in Class-III says: “I dranked the water.” It indicates that the child

(1) has overgeneralized the rule for marking past tense verbs, showing that learning is taking place

(2) is careless and needs to be told that she should be conscious of such errors

(3) has not learnt grammar rules properly

(4) should memories the correct sentence

Ans: (1)

97. Leena uses Big Reading Books in her language classes to

(1) use these illustrated colourful books for reading together

(2) use them for big students of different ages

(3) allow students to read at home

(4) ensure books carry a lot of information

Ans: (1)

98. Grammar should be taught by

(1) giving clear explanations

(2) enabling practice in context

(3) asking students to learn rules

(4) making learners do written assignments

Ans: (2)

99. Children who are differently abled join a new school. Teachers give different reactions. Which one reflects the concept of inclusive education?

(1) "Good, it will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive."

(2) "Such children should go to special schools where they will learn better."

(3) "Oh! How can I teach children who cannot even read? "

(4) "I'm worried that my class may not accept these children and some of the mischievous children may even harm the poor kids."

Ans: (1)

100. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 stipulates that learning should be

(1) through activities in a child-friendly manner

(2) supported by extra coaching

(3) restricted to co-scholastic subjects

(4) carefully monitored by frequent testing

Ans: (1)

101. A teacher can cater to the learning styles of all the children by

(1) advising the children to join drawing/dance/music classes

(2) employing a variety of teaching methods and modes of assessment which cater to diversity among' learners

(3) teaching every lesson thoroughly and revising the lessons

(4) testing the children frequently

Ans: (1)

102. As part of a class project, a teacher planned a salad fruit celebration day in which all learners needed to participate. The boys protested as they felt that boys do not cook. The

teacher should

(1) make an attempt to counsel the boys, impressing upon them that gender stereotyping is not healthy

(2) respect the sentiments of the boys and allow them not to participate in the class project

(3) ignore such protests and tell the boys what she thinks of their bias

(4) complain to the head of the school seeking action against the boys

Ans:

103. Read the two sentences given below:

The lizard ate the fly.

The fly ate the lizard.

A teacher can use this example to explain that

(1) they are examples of reported speech

(2) they are a collection of words

(3) there is no difference in the two sentences because both have the same words

(4) when subject and object change positions, the meaning of the sentence changes

Ans: (4)

104. Ritu often makes errors in Subject-Verb concord. The teacher can help her by

(1) asking Ritu to learn the rules and scolding her

(2) asking Ritu to write the rules ten times in her notebook

(3) taking up many examples for the entire class and paying special attention to Ritu

(4) explaining to her the rules of grammar

Ans: (3)

105. Ria is unable to pronounce the words 'smile' and 'school' clearly. As her teacher, what will you do?

(1) Humiliate Ria by isolating her and asking her to repeat the words

(2) Asking the entire class to repeat the words and appreciating Ria when she repeats them correctly

(3) Make Ria repeat the 'words' many times

(4) Make Ria understand the meaning and sound pattern and get the class as a whole to listen to these words through an audio-visual medium

Ans: (4)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 106 to 114) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. Max Weber laid the foundation for my belief that decent and hard-working people with high aspirations make great nations, no matter what the odds are. This was the first piece of the development puzzle for me. Mahatma Gandhi opened my eyes to the importance of good leadership in raising the aspirations of people, making them accept sacrifices to achieve a grand vision, and most importantly, in converting that vision into reality. He unleashed the most powerful instrument for gaining trust - leadership by example. He ate,

dressed, travelled and lived like the poor. Walking the talk was extremely important to the Mahatma who understood the pulse of our people like no other Indian leader. The biggest lesson for me from Gandhi's book and life is the importance of leading by example. I realized fairly early that this was the second piece of the development puzzle.

2. Frantz Fanon's book on the colonizer mindset of elites in a post-colonial society opened my eyes to the role of the bureaucracy and the elite in decelerating the progress of the poor and the disenfranchised. The colonial mindset of the 'dark elite in white masks" in a post-colonial society - the mindset that the ruled and the rulers have different sets of rights and responsibilities with a huge asymmetry in favour of the rulers - was indeed the third piece of the development puzzle. I see this attitude of the Indian elite every day in

how they send their children to English medium schools while forcing the children of the poor into vernacular schools, extol the virtues of poverty while living in luxury, and glorify the rural life while they sit comfortably in cities.

Source: A Better India, A Better World'

- N.R. Narayana Murthy (Adapted)

106. The main purpose of the author in the above passage is to

(1) delineate the lesson he has learnt for the development of a nation

(2) prioritise goals for only economic development of India

(3) discuss the different writers he has read

(4) argue why India should not be considered a developed country

Ans: (1)

107. The first piece of the development puzzle, according to the author, is

(1) imbuing the citizens of the country with decency and aspirations

(2) the need for making people understand the importance of leading an idealistic and simple life

(3) creating a team of industrious people for a national cause

(4) the importance of decent, inspired and industrious people for a nation's development

Ans: (4)

108. Mahatma Gandhi proved that only leadership by example can

(1) gain the trust of the people so that they are willing to make sacrifices for a larger cause

(2) inspire people to eat, dress, travel and live like the poor

(3) mobilise the people of a country against colonial rule

(4) fully and properly understand the pulse of the people of a country

Ans: (1)

109. The expression 'walking the talk' means

(1) being diplomatic in one's behaviour an words

(2) practising what one preaches

(3) addressing public gatherings in an election campaign

(4) talking to the common people by mingling with them

Ans: (2)

110. The colonial mindset of 'dark elite in white masks' with reference to the passage is

(1) looking down upon the poor and the disenfranchised

(2) the bureaucratic practice of according topmost priority to confidentiality in official dealings

(3) discriminating people on the basis of the colour of their skin

(4) an assumption that the administrators and politicians have more rights and privileges than the common people

Ans: (4)

111. Extolling 'the virtues of poverty while living in luxury' is an instance of

(1) the ideal of a good government

(2) the need to make people adopt a simple life

(3) the hypocrisy of the people of our country

(4) practising what you preach

Ans: (3)

112. 'I realized fairly early that this was the second piece of the development puzzle.' The underlined part of this sentence is a/an

(1) Noun clause

(2) Verb clause

(3) Adjective clause

(4) Adverbial phrase

Ans: (1)

113. Pick out a word or phrase from the second paragraph of the passage that means the same as 'to make (something) go slower'.

(1) decelerating

(2) vernacular

(3) disenfranchised

(4) dark elite

Ans: (1)

114. 'Development' is a noun with '-ment' as a suffix. Which of the following will become a noun if we add the suffix '-ment' to it?

(1) Enchant

(2) Endure

(3) Extort

(4) Enter

Ans: (1)

Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 115 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option.

On A Tired Housewife

Here lies a poor woman who was always tired,

She lived in a house where help wasn't hired:

Her last words on earth were: 'Dear friends,

I am going

To where there's no cooking, or washing, or sewing,

For everything there is exact to my wishes,

For where they don't eat there's no washing of dishes.

I'll be where loud anthems will always be ringing,

But having no voice I'll be quit of the singing.

Don't mourn for me now, don't mourn for me never,

I am going to do nothing for ever and ever.'

Anonymous

115. The woman described in the poem

(1) lived in her own house

(2) worked in the house of a rich man

(3) was very busy doing chores

(4) was no more

Ans: (4)

116. The woman was always tired because

(1) she did all the household work without any help

(2) she had hardly anything to eat

(3) she was physically very weak

(4) she was suffering from a serious ailment

Ans: (1)

117. The woman wanted to go to a place where

(1) people would take good care of her

(2) people would sincerely mourn for her

(3) people didn't sing or dance

(4) people didn't cook, wash or sew

Ans: (4)

118. The woman's account in the poem shows

(1) how a woman can escape from work

(2) how we should help each other

(3) how overworked a housewife is

(4) that there is no work in heaven

Ans: (3)

119. 'For everything there is exact to my wishes,' In this line, the word ‘exact' can be interpreted to mean

(1) according

(2) leading

(3) contrary

(4) contributing

Ans: (1)

120. The rhyme pattern in the poem is

(1) aa, bb, cc, dd, ee

(2) aa, ab, bc, cd, de

(3) ab, ab, ab, ab, ab

(4) aa, ab, cd, cd, ee

Ans:

PART V

LANGUAGE II

ENGLISH

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 126) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. This was one of the Old Man's pet schemes; and one about which he would brook no interference. Each child would review the events of his school week in his own words, in his

own way; he was free to comment, to criticize, to agree or disagree, with any person, subject or method, as long as it was in-some way associated with the school. No one and

nothing was sacred, from the Headmaster down, and the child, moreover, was safe from any form of reprisal.

2. "Look at it this way," Mr. Florian had said. "It is of advantage to both pupil and teacher. If a child wants to write about something which matters to him, he will take some pains to

set it down as carefully and with as much detail as possible; that must in some way improve his written English in terms of spelling, construction and style. Week by week we

are able, through his reviews, to follow and observe his progress in such things. As for the teachers, we soon get a pretty good idea what the children think of us and whether or not

we are getting close to them. It may sometimes be rather deflating to discover that a well-prepared lesson did not really excite Johnny Smith's interest, but, after all, the lesson was

intended to benefit Johnny Smith, not his teacher.

121. The scheme, according to the Old Man, was useful because

(1) it was excellent feedback for the teacher, principal and school

(2) he was slightly eccentric

(3) it was meant to humiliate the teacher

(4) it was meant to give power to the teacher

Ans: (1)

122. 'Pet schemes' in line 1 refers to

(1) a student he is fond of

(2) a formula he had discovered

(3) a pet animal

(4) a method he has advocated

Ans: (4)

123. The 'Old Man' refers to

(1) a parent of the school

(2) a student of the school

(3) a teacher of the school

(4) the headmaster called Mr. Florian

Ans: (4)

124. The advantages of the scheme were many. Pick out the disadvantage from the list given below.

(1) Sometimes deflating to the teacher's ego

(2) Diagnostic and remedial for the student and the teacher

(3) Effective feedback

(4) Enhanced writing skills

Ans: (1)

125. 'Sacred' in the context of the Headmaster means

(1) that even 'he' was not above the 'scheme' he advocated for students

(2) he believed in the sacred nature of all life

(3) that he was a holy man

(4) that he was the powerful head of the school

Ans: (1)

126. 'Brook' as a verb means 'to tolerate' in para l. As a noun, it means

(1) Tolerance

(2) Allow

(3) Suffer

(4) Stream

Ans: (4)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 127 to 135) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. Karuna Verma is bewildered. "I don't know how she did it," she says about her mother, Renu Chopra. Karuna's childhood memories are of her father leaving late for office so

that, by then, her mother would be-back from work. Of her parents working in sync to make sure the kids were well taken care of .Of her mother handling kitchen and classroom with

ease.

2. When her own daughter was born, Karuna too wanted to do the balancing act. But it did not turn out to be as easy as it seemed. For starters, her parents' era was different from

hers. As she was living with her husband in Andheri, Mumbai, away from their families, resuming work would have meant leaving her daughter with a maid while she was away. Her

daughter's formative years would be spent with an outsider, a thought that did not appeal to Karuna. She quit her teaching job in a school.

3. For a woman who was encouraged to be independent. throughout her life, the decision to quit and stay at home was a difficult one. Ironically it was her mother who urged her to

quit the job and become a full-time mother. For Karuna, being a housewife is one of the tougher jobs she has had. "I have no time for myself," says Karuna. "I make sure all my

personal work is done when Avni is asleep. Earlier I had a set routine. My husband and I used to wake up at 6 a.m. I would re-heat the food the maid had cooked the day before

and pack it for lunch. Then we used to head off to work, and at night, we would go out. I had a lot of time to myself and for my husband then," says Karuna.

4. The routine is quite different now. Karuna has taken to cooking. She wakes up quite early and makes sure all her work is done before the baby is up. The rest of the day flies by,

pandering to two-year-old Avni's needs.

Source: The Week, March 13, 2011 (Adapted)

127. Karuna Verma is bewildered at

(1) the responsibility of bringing up a daughter in a big city

(2) her mother's ability to combine her career with household work

(3) the amount of work that she has to do after becoming a mother

(4) the late hours of work that her father followed

Ans: (2)

128. ' ... parents working in sync' means

(1) father earning and mother taking care of children

(2) parents having staggered office hours and sharing household work

(3) parents pooling their resources together to take care of expenses

(4) husband and wife sinking their differences to preserve domestic harmony

Ans: (2)

129. ' Karuna too wanted to do the balancing act.' In this sentence, the term 'balancing act' implies

(1) managing the time efficiently so that parents can spend quality time with their children

(2) making adjustments in order to balance work and leisure properly

(3) sharing of responsibilities by both husband and wife

(4) a mother's ability to look after her child without quitting her job

Ans: (1)

130. 'As she was living with her husband in Andheri, Mumbai, away from their families ............ . In this sentence 'their families' refers to

(1) Families of friends in Andheri, Mumbai

(2) Karuna's parents and in-laws

(3) Karuna's mother and father's families

(4) Karuna's husband's family

Ans: (2)

131. Karuna's parents and her husband's parents probably lived

(1) in Mumbai but not in Andheri

(2) with Karuna and her husband

(3) in Andheri, Mumbai

(4) in some other city

Ans: (4)

132. Karuna decided to quit her job because

(1) she wanted to have more time, to herself and for her husband

(2) she wanted to pay more attention to her cooking

(3) she Was not interested in her teaching job

(4) she did not want her daughter to spend her early years with a maid

Ans: (4)

133. It was ironical that Karuna's mother should advise her to quit her job and stay at home because

(1) Karuna's parents had always advised her that home was much more important than career

(2) Karuna's mother herself had not quit her job to take care of children as she encouraged independence of women

(3) Karuna herself was keen on quitting her job

(4) Karuna's parents had insisted that household chores should be shared between husband and wife

Ans: (2)

134. After Karuna quit her job

(1) she sent her maid away as she felt that the maid was a bad influence on Avni

(2) she had no time for herself as Avni needed all her attention and care

(3) she had a lot of time to herself and for her husband

(4) she occupied herself with cooking to spend her time usefully

Ans: (2)

135. "I have no time for myself," says Karuna. This sentence can be written in reported speech as

(1) Karuna said that she had no time for herself

(2) Karuna says that she had no time for herself

(3) Karuna says that she have no time for herself

(4) Karuna said that she had no time for myself

Ans: (1)

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

136. Remedial teaching as part of Formative Assessment means

(1) diagnosing and addressing gaps in learning

(2) teaching beyond the textbooks

(3) extra coaching by parents

(4) teaching for gifted students

Ans:

137. Which of the following is a value associated with an inclusive classroom?

(1) Competition

(2) Envy

(3) Sympathy

(4) Collaboration

Ans:

138. The aim of mechanical drills is to

(1) strengthen the role learning capacity of the learners

(2) encourage creative use of language among the learners

(3) improve the fluency of the learners

(4) improve the accuracy of the learners

Ans:

139. Learners are involved in individual activities pair work, group work and whole-class work because these

(1) provide the learners opportunities to relax in a classroom

(2) have the sole aim of introducing variety in a language classroom

(3) enable the already over-worked teacher to preserve her energy thereby becoming more effective

(4) afford the learners opportunities to use the language in a focused manner for real-life interaction

Ans:

140. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) All formative tasks are meant for assessment.

(2) Formative assessment, to be effective, must be conducted only after teaching a lesson

(3) While all formative tasks are meant for improving teaching-learning, some are used for assessment too.

(4) Formative assessment helps us to grade students into good, average and poor.

Ans:

141. When young learners seem to lose interest in a lesson, the teacher should

(1) tell a story or conduct an interesting activity

(2) ask them to sit quietly for some time

(3) allow them to go out and play

(4) ask them to sleep for a while

Ans:

142. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 has included 'all round development of the child' as one of the aims of education because

(1) it - nurtures the physical, mental and emotional aspects of the child

(2) it ensures that every child is a part of a workforce

(3) every child grows rapidly between six to fourteen years

(4) proper health care is essential

Ans:

143. Teachers do not give the meaning of new words to learners directly because

(1) learners do not like to be given the meaning of words

(2) it prevents learners from discovering the meaning through puzzling out using clues

(3) learners already know the meaning of the words

(4) vocabulary will not be enriched

Ans:

144. Which of the following is an instance of non-formal learning?

(1) Children learning to cook from their parents

(2) Children learning a new game from friends

(3) Children learning correspondence lessons through

(4) Children learning to draw from their art teacher

Ans:

145. Group project work helps in developing

(1) a high level of ambition to achieve

(2) collaboration, critical thinking and problem solving

(3) competition among learners to excel in academics

(4) good memory in the young learners

Ans:

146. What type of questions promote thinking skills in children?

(1) Factual questions

(2) Questions based purely on the reading text

(3) Personal response questions

(4) Closed-ended questions

Ans:

147. 'Students need to brainstorm ideas, organise them, draft, edit and revise their work,' is a 'process' which reflects

(1) Listening skills

(2) Speaking skills

(3) Reading skills

(4) Writing skills

Ans:

148. Teachers help learners 'construct' their knowledge in English by

(1) giving the learners a lot of assignments and projects that will lead to much practice

(2) correcting every mistake a learner makes and giving the relevant rule of grammar as immediate feedback

(3) giving extensive language drills in which learners practice language items mechanically

(4) enabling them to see the relationship between their prior knowledge and the new knowledge

Ans:

149. Reading for comprehension can be best achieved through

(1) Teaching learners to run a finger or pencil under the line being read

(2) Asking the children to read the text aloud

(3) Helping learners speak words softly while reading

(4) Learners reading silently and asking comprehension questions

Ans:

150. A textbook describes a domestic scene which shows the father cooking in the kitchen, the mother coming home from work and their son sewing. What is the concept conveyed?

(1) Division of labour amoung sexes

(2) Work is worship

(3) Removing gender bias

(4) Dignity of labour

Ans:

CTET EXAM -SOLVED PAPERS-PAPER-II

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 1 and half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.

3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

4. The CODE for this Booklet is P. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying 1 mark:

Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy    (Q. 1 to Q. 30)

Part II: Mathematics and Science                (Q. 31 to Q. 90)

Part III: Social Studies / Social Science        (Q. 31 to Q. 90)

Part IV: Language I- (English/Hindi)            (Q. 91 to Q. 120)

Part V : Language II - (EngIish/Hindi)          (Q. 121 to Q. 150)

6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V contains 30 questions for Language II. In this test booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language I and/or Language II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Test Booklet that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form.

8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Part V (Language II) in a language other than the one chosen as Language I (in Part IV) from the list of languages.

9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same.

10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers.

PART I

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. A creative learner refers to one who is

(1) very talented in drawing and painting

(2) highly intelligent

(3) capable of scoring consistently good marks in tests

(4) good at lateral thinking and problem solving

Ans: (4)

2. Individual learners differ from each other in

(1) principles of growth and development

(2) rate of development

(3) sequence of development

(4) general capacity for development

Ans: (2)

3. Every learner is unique means that

(1) No two learners are alike in their abilities, interests and talents

(2) Learners do not have any common qualities, nor do they share common goals

(3) A common curriculum for all learners is not possible

(4) It is impossible to develop the potential of learners in a heterogeneous class

Ans: (1)

4. Constructivism as a theory

(1) focuses on the role of imitation

(2) emphasises the role of the learner in constructing his own view of the world

(3) emphasises on memorising information and testing through recall

(4) emphasises on the dominant role of the teacher

Ans: (2)

5. Development of concepts is primarily a part of

(1) emotional development

(2) intellectual development

(3) physical development

(4) social development

Ans: (2)

6. Heredity is considered as a social structure.

(1) primary

(2) secondary

(3) dynamic

(4) static

Ans: (4)

7. The most intense and crucial socialization takes place

(1) throughout the life of a person

(2) during adolescence

(3) during early childhood

(4) during adulthood

Ans: (2)

8. Helping learners recapitulate or recall what they have already learnt is important because

(1) it is a convenient beginning for any classroom instruction

(2) relating new information to prior knowledge enhances learning

(3) it is an effective way of revising old lessons

(4) it enhances the memory of learners thereby strengthening learning

Ans: (2)

9. According to Piaget, during the first stage of development (birth to about 2 years age), a child learns best

(1) by using the senses

(2) by comprehending neutral words

(3) by thinking in an abstract fashion

(4) by applying newly acquired knowledge of language

Ans: (1)

10. Theory of learning which totally and only depends on 'observable behaviour' is associated with theory of learning.

(1) Cognitivist

(2) Developmental

(3) Behaviourist

(4) Constructivist

Ans: (3)

11. Multilingual character of Indian society should be seen as

(1) a hindrance in teaching-learning process

(2) a resource for enrichment of school life

(3) a challenge to teacher's capacity to motivate students to learn

(4) a factor that makes school life a complex experience for the learners

Ans: (2)

12. Creative answers require

(1) direct teaching and direct questions

(2) content-based questions

(3) open-ended questions

(4) a highly disciplined classroom

Ans: (3)

13. Diagnosis of the gaps In the learning of students should be followed by

(1) appropriate remedial measures

(2) intensive drill and practice.

(3) systematic revision of all lessons

(4) reporting the findings to learners and parents

Ans: (1)

14. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of 'learning' ?

(1) Learning is a process that mediates behaviour

(2) Learning is something that occurs as a result of certain experiences

(3) Study of behaviour is learning

(4) Unlearning is also a part of learning

Ans: (3)

15. 'Self-regulation' of learners refers to

(1) their ability to monitor their own learning

(2) creating regulations for student behaviour

(3) rules and regulations made by the student body

(4) self-discipline and control

Ans: (1)

16. Which of the following does not reflect 'teaching for understanding' ?

(1) Ask students to explain a phenomenon or a concept in their own words

(2) Teach students to provide examples to illustrate how a law works

(3) Help students see similarities and differences and generate analogies

(4) Enable students to memorize isolated facts and procedures

Ans: (4)

17. Which of the following statements is true about 'learning' ?

(1) Errors made by children indicate that no learning has taken place.

(2) Learning is effective in an environment that is emotionally positive and satisfying for the learners.

(3) Learning is not affected by emotional factors at any stage of learning.

(4) Learning is fundamentally a mental activity.

Ans: (2)

18. Human development is based on certain principles. Which of the following is not a principle of human development?

(1) Continuity

(2) Sequentiality

(3) General to Specific

(4) Reversible

Ans: (4)

19. The main purpose of assessment should be

(1) to point out the errors of the learners

(2) to measure the achievement of learners

(3) to decide if a student should be promoted to the next class

(4) to diagnose and remedy gaps in learning

Ans: (4)

20. Centrally sponsored scheme of Integrated Education for disabled children aims at providing educational opportunities to children with disabilities in

(1) regular schools

(2) special schools

(3) open schools

(4) Blind Relief Association schools

Ans: (1)

21. Which of the following is not a sign of reading difficulty among young learners? Difficulty in

(1) letter and word recognition

(2) reading speed and fluency

(3) understanding words and ideas

(4) spelling consistency

Ans: (3)

22. A teacher wants the gifted children of her 'class to achieve their potential. Which of the following should she not do to achieve her objective?

(1) Teach them to enjoy non-academic activities

(2) Teach them to manage stress

(3) Segregate them from their peers for special attention

(4) Challenge them to enhance their creativity

Ans: (3)

23. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of intrinsically motivated children?

(1) They always succeed

(2) They enjoy doing their work

(3) They display a high level of energy while working

(4) They like challenging tasks

Ans: (1)

24. Which of the following is not an appropriate tool for Formative Assessment?

(1) Assignment

(2) Oral questions

(3) Term test

(4) Quiz and games

Ans: (3)

25. Learners should not be encouraged to

(1) ask as many questions as possible both inside and outside the class

(2) actively interact with other learners in group work

(3) participate in as many co-curricular activities as possible

(4) memorize all the answers to questions which the teacher may ask

Ans: (4)

26. Irfan breaks toys and dismantles them to explore their components. What would you do?

(1) Never let Irfan play with toys

(2) Always keep a close watch

(3) Encourage his inquisitive nature and channelise his energy

(4) Make him understand that toys should not be broken

Ans: (3)

27. The statement 'Men are generally more intelligent than women'

(1) is true

(2) may be true

(3) shows gender bias

(4) is true for different domains of intelligence

Ans: (3)

28. Understanding the principles of development of a child helps a teacher in

(1) identifying the social status of the learner

(2) identifying the economic background of the learner

(3) rationalizing why the learner ought to be taught

(4) effectively catering to the different learning styles of learners

Ans: (4)

29. Christina took her class for a field trip and after coming back, she discussed the trip with her students. It may be connotated as

(1) Assessment of Learning

(2) Assessment for Learning

(3) Learning for Assessment

(4) Learning of Assessment

Ans: (1)

30. The statement: 'An important precondition for the proper development of a child is ensuring her/his healthy physical development'

(1) is untrue as physical development does not affect other domains of development in anyway

(2) may be incorrect as development varies from individual to individual

(3) is true because physical development occupies the topmost place In the sequence of development

(4) is true because physical development is interrelated with other domains of development

Ans: (4)

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

PART II

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

31. The ratio between the length and the perimeter of a rectangular plot is 1:3. What is the ratio between the length and breadth of the plot?

(1) 1: 2

(2) 2: 1

(3) 3: 2

(4) Data inadequate

Ans: (2)

32. If a * b = a²+ b²and a . b = a²- b² , the value of (5 * 2) . 25 is

^{(1) 215}

^{(2) 225}

^{(3) 226}

^{(4) 216}

Ans: (4)

33. If a, b and c are three natural numbers in ascending order, then

(1) c²- a²> b

(2) c² - a² = b²

(3) c² - a² < b²

(4) c² + b² = a²

Ans: (1)

34. 'Buy three, get one free.' What is the percentage of discount being offered here ?

(1) 33.33%

(2) 25%

(3) 20%

(4) 28.56%

Ans: (1)

35. The Value of √2 + √3 + √2 - √3 is

(1) √6

(2) 6

(3) 2√2

(4) 2√3

Ans: (3)

36. When recast, the radius of an iron rod is made one-fourth. If its volume remains constant, then the new length will become

(1) 1/4 times of the original

(2) 1/16 times of the original

(3) 16 times of the original

(4) 4 times of the original

Ans: (3)

37. Find the value of 547527/82 if 547.527/0.0082 = x

(1) x/10

(2) 10 x

(3) 100 x

(4) x/100

Ans: (3)

38. The smallest number by which 68600 must be multiplied to get a perfect cube is

(1) 5

(2) 10

(3) 8

(4) 12

Ans: (1)

39. A cyclist at 'C' is cycling towards 'B'. How far will he have to cycle from C before he is equidistant from both A and B ?

(1) 4 km

(2) 3 km

(3) 6 km

(4) 5 km

Ans: (4)

40. Unit's digit in 13²⁰⁰³ is

(1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 7

(4) 9

Ans: (3)

41. A square sheet ABCD when rotated on its diagonal AC as its axis of rotation sweeps a

(1) cone

(2) spindle

(3) cylinder

(4) trapezium

Ans: (2)

42. The area of a triangle with base x units is equal to the area of a square with side x units. Then the altitude of the triangle is

(1) x/2 units

(2) x units

(3) 2x units

(4) 3x units

Ans: (3)

43. Which is greatest among 33 and half %; 4/15 and 0.35 ?

(1) 33 and half %

(2) 4/15

(3) 0.35

(4) Cannot be compared

Ans: (3)

44. The factorisation of 25 - p² - q² - 2pq is

(1) (5 + p + q) (5 - p + q)

(2) (5 + p + q) (5 - P - q)

(3) (5 + p - q) (5 - p + q)

(4) (5 + p - q) (5 - p - q)

Ans: (2)

45. A rectangle is divided horizontally into two equal parts. The upper part is further divided into three equal parts and the lower part is divided into four equal parts.Which fraction of the original rectangle the shaded part ?

(1) 3/5

(2) 2/7

(3) 4/7

(4) 7/12

Ans: (4)

46. In the given figure, PS = SQ = SR and L SPQ = 54°. Find the measure of L x.

(1) 54°

(2) 72°

(3) 108°

(4) 36°

Ans: (1)

47. 2x - 13, 2x - 11, 2x - 9, 2x - 7 are consecutive

(1) Prime numbers

(2) Even numbers

(3) Odd numbers

(4) Natural numbers

Ans: (3)

48. The fractional equivalent of 57.12% (approx.) is

(1) 349/625

(2) 359/625

(3) 357/625

(4) 347/625

Ans: (3)

49. The ratio of the side and height of an equilateral triangle is

(1) 2 : 1

(2) 1 : 1

(3) 2 : √3

(4) √3 : 2

Ans: (3)

50. If two adjacent sides of a square paper are decreased by 20% and 40% respectively, by what percentage does the new area decrease?

(1) 48%

(2) 50%

(3) 52%

(4) 60%

Ans:

51. 4/16 - 1/8 = 3/8

6/7 - 2/9 = 4/2

The above represents the work of a student. If this error pattern continues, the student's answer to 5/11 - 2/7 will be

(1) 7/18

(2) 3/4

(3) 3/7

(4) 2/18

Ans: (2)

52. A teacher in grade-VI provided each child with a centimeter grid paper and a pair of scissors. She wanted them to explore how two-dimensional shapes can be folded into three-dimensional objects. Which of the following concepts are the students exploring?

(1) Rotation

(2) Reflection

(3) Nets

(4) Decimals

Ans:

53. When doing exponents, the work observed in a learner's notebook was as follows :

4³ x 4² = 4⁵

6⁴ x 6⁴ = 6⁸

7³ x 3⁷ = 21¹⁰

The learner has not understood how to

(1) add exponents

(2) add exponents and multiply

(3) multiply numbers with same base

(4) multiply numbers with different bases

Ans: (4)

54. Teachers, while discussing problem-solving as an approach to teaching of mathematics, articulated four views. Which of the following views does not justify the real meaning of this approach?

(1) 'I think questions on problem-solving should be made from situations based on real life.'

(2) 'I think many questions found in the mathematics textbook can be used for problem-solving.'

(3) 'I think it is better to connect problem-solving with general mathematics class.'

(4) 'I think there is no correlation between problem-solving and mathematical reasoning.'

Ans:

55. Given linear equations I, II and III, a learner is not able to solve III algebraically. The most likely area of difficulty is that the learner has not understood

(1) that two equations can be added or subtracted to solve them

(2) that two equations can be solved by method of substitution

(3) the method of solving equations using graphs

(4) that both the equations in III can be altered by multiplying with suitable numbers

Ans: (2)

56.When introducing mensuration, a teacher writes all the formulae on the board before proceeding further. This reflects that she is following the

(1) Inductive approach

(2) Deductive approach

(3) Experimental approach

(4) Practical approach

Ans: (2)

57. Ameena is playing with matchsticks and adds one at each stage : Appu, on the other hand, makes a table:

Number of L's	1	2	3	...
Number of matchsticks	2	4	6	..

What is your observation about the two children in this situation?

(1) Ameena is only playing and Appu is doing mathematics

(2) Ameena will need lots of matchsticks to come to a generalisation. However, Appu would be faster

(3) Both Ameena and Appu are trying to make generalisations

(4) Ameena would be learning by doing and Appu may not be able to see the pattern at all

Ans: (1)

58. To be good in mathematics, one needs to

(1) remember solutions

(2) have mastery over calculations

(3) create and formulate problems through abstract thinking and logical reasoning

(4) memorise formulae

Ans: (3)

59. Students make errors while solving mathematical problems because

(1) they do not practise enough

(2) they do not refer to multiple textbooks

(3) their socio-economic status affects their performance

(4) they make alternative interpretations of concepts in their attempt to make meaning

Ans: (4)

60. With an activity on paper folding, a teacher was trying to depict the relationship of the areas of a parallelogram and a triangle. Which of the following best depicts the transformation of stages?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans: (4)

61. Bakelite is used in making electrical appliances because it is a

(1) thermoplastic

(2) good conductor of heat

(3) good conductor of electricity

(4) good insulator of electricity

Ans: (4)

62. In which of the following cases of motion, are the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement equal ?

(1) A car moving on a straight road

(2) A car moving in a circular path

(3) A pendulum oscillating to and fro

(4) The Earth revolving around the Sun

Ans: (1)

63. LED and CFL are very commonly used as sources of light in homes. Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) CFL is better because LED contains toxic materials

(2) LED is better because CFL contains toxic materials

(3) Both are equally good

(4) Neither of them is good because both contain toxic materials

Ans: (2)

64. An air bubble inside water behaves like a

(1) concave lens

(2) convex lens

(3) plano-convex lens

(4) concave mirror

Ans: (1)

65. A feather weighing 5 gm and a nail weighing 10 gm have the same kinetic energy. Which of the following statements is true about the momentum of the two bodies ?

(1) The lighter body will have higher momentum

(2) The heavier body will have higher momentum

(3) Both will have equal momentum

(4) It is not possible to compare the momentum. of two objects

Ans: (2)

66. If the pressure over a liquid increases, its boiling point

(1) decreases

(2) Increases

(3) does not change

(4) first decreases and then increases

Ans: (2)

67. A doctor prescribes a medicine to treat hyperacidity. The main ingredient of the medicine is

(1) Al(OH)₃

(2) MgCl₂

(3) CaC0₃

(4) Na₂C0₃

Ans: (1)

68. Non-metallic oxides

(1) are acidic in nature

(2) are basic in nature

(3) are amphoteric in nature

(4) turn red litmus paper blue

Ans: (1)

69. The inner surfaces of food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because

(1) zinc is costlier than tin

(2) zinc is more reactive than tin

(3) zinc has a higher melting point than tin

(4) zinc is less reactive than tin

Ans: (2)

70. A man goes door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promises to bring back the glitter on dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting woman gives a set of gold bangles to him which he dips in a particular solution. The bangles sparkle but their weight has considerably reduced. The solution used by the impostor probably is

(1) dil. HCI

(2) cone. HCI

(3) a mixture of cone. HCI and cone. HN0₃

(4) cone. HN0₃

Ans: (3)

71. Bleeding is stopped by the application of alum to a wound because

(1) the wound is plugged by the alum chunk

(2) alum coagulates the blood and forms a clot

(3) alum reduces the temperature near the wound

(4) alum is an antiseptic

Ans: (2)

72. When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, the colour of copper sulphate solution fades and a brownish layer is deposited over the iron nail. This is an example of

(1) combination reaction

(2) decomposition reaction

(3) double displacement reaction

(4) displacement and redox reactions

Ans: (4)

73. While diluting sulphuric acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water because

(1) acid has strong affinity for water

(2) acid may break the glass container

(3) dilution of acid is highly exothermic

(4) dilution of acid is highly endothermic

Ans: (3)

74. The thumb of humans moves more freely than other fingers due to the presence of

(1) pivotal joint

(2) gliding joint

(3) hinge joint

(4) saddle joint

Ans: (4)

75. Root cap is absent in

(1) Xerophytes

(2) Hydrophytes

(3) Mesophytes

(4) Halophytes

Ans: (2)

76. Adding salt and sugar to food substances helps In preserving them for a longer duration. It is because excess salt and sugar

(1) plasmolyse the microbial cells

(2) cause rupturing of microbial cells

(3) cause change in the shape of microbial cells

(4) remove water from food

Ans: (1)

77. Hormone Adrenaline

(1) helps control level of sugar in the blood

(2) helps the body to adjust stress level when one is very angry or worried

(3) helps control height

(4) helps control balance of electrolytes in the body

Ans: (2)

78. The green house effect which is causing an increase in the atmospheric temperature is mainly due to

(1) oxygen

(2) nitrogen

(3) carbon dioxide

(4) sulphur

Ans: (3)

79. Green plants appear to release oxygen instead of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during the day time because

(1) green plants do not respire during the night time

(2) green plants respire only during the night time

(3) green plants respire during the day time but are involved in photosynthesis during the night time

(4) the rate of photosynthesis is higher than the rate of respiration during the day time

Ans: (4)

80. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve-tube cells and mammalian erythrocytes is

(1) absence of nucleus

(2) absence of chloroplast

(3) absence of cell wall

(4) presence of haemoglobin

Ans: (1)

81. Most Boards of Education have banned the dissection of animals because

(1) animals are no longer available for dissection

(2) procuring animals has become an expensive proposition

(3) there is a need to sensitise students to prevention of cruelty to animals

(4) they may spread new diseases

Ans: (3)

82. The main aim of conducting Mathematics and Science Olympiads is to

(1) promote excellence in the subject by nurturing creativity and experimentation

(2) grade students according to their capabilities

(3) help students score high marks in professional examinations

(4) grade schools based on the performance of their students

Ans: (1)

83. Four applicants for a post of TGT (Science) were asked to plan a lesson on "Consequences of Deforestation", Which one of the following lesson plans reflects the scientific approach ?

(1) Explains in detail the consequences of deforestation

(2) Provides a variety of examples to explain the concept

(3) Includes activities that children can perform in groups and draw conclusions through a Power Point presentation

(4) Mentions about the use of ICT to help students understand the concept

Ans: (3)

84. Ms. Patel, Principal of a School XYZ, is keen about integrated approach to teaching of Science rather than teaching different disciplines separately. The basis of this is

(1) non-availability of qualified teachers in her school to teach separate disciplines

(2) difficulty to adjust the teachers in the time-table

(3) difficulty of students to adjust to different teachers

(4) all the disciplines are interlinked and a teacher can draw on cross-curricular linkages

Ans: (4)

85. A teacher plans to teach "Components of Food" in Class-VI. Which of the following can be used as an essential question ?

(1) List the food items your mother serves you in lunch.

(2) Why does your mother serve you a meal with a variety of food items ?

(3) Does your mother prepare a definite set of food items for lunch every day?

(4) Do you eat all the items served in your lunch every day?

Ans: (2)

86. While teaching the concept, "force can change the shape of an object" to students, a teacher plans the following activities:

a. Explain concepts using commonly observed examples.

b. Provide a dough on a plate and ask the students to press it down with the hand.

c. Show an audio-visual• film explaining the concept with some examples.

The teacher is using different approaches to learning because

(1) she wants to prove her knowledge

(2) she knows she must follow her lesson plan

(3) she wants to prepare students for a test

(4) there are different kinds of learners in the class and she wants to address multiple intelligences

Ans:

87. Which of the following can be assessed when Geeta is using only MCQ as a tool to assess "Nutrition in Humans" ?

(1) Analytical ability to classify food items and make a poster

(2) Misconceptions related to food habits

(3) Learners' ability to apply knowledge and prepare a role play to present in the morning assembly

(4) Learners' ability to comprehend the importance of components of food and write a long essay

Ans: (2)

88. A Science teacher plans group activities to teach "Properties of Air" to her students of Class-VI. Which one set of attributes would she like to have in the students she selects as group leaders ?

(1) Freedom to choose roles, work at their own pace and understanding

(2) Ordering students to take roles and deliver in consonance with their understanding

(3) Giving major roles to brighter students to ensure the group finishes first

(4) Assigning roles as per capability, motivating and coordinating among the group members

Ans: (4)

89. While selecting a performance task to help students develop research oriented skills in a Science class, a teacher may pick up a topic

(1) from the content given in the syllabus which must be completed in time

(2) which majority of the students in a class find interesting

(3) which she thinks is important for the students

(4) related to a problem faced by students in their day-to-day functioning and which is a part of the concepts to be covered for this class

Ans: (4)

90. While investigating 'how water affects the germination of seeds', a teacher asked the students to soak bean seeds on a bed of cotton wool for a few days and observe the changes. What is the guideline that she forgot to mention?

To place

(1) many seeds on wet cotton

(2) a few seeds on wet cotton

(3) many seeds on dry cotton

(4) a few seeds on dry cotton

Ans: (2)

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

PART III

SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE

Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next three questions (Q. No. 31 to 33) , by selecting the most appropriate option.

A Letter For You

"'Civics is boring.' You may have heard this from your students. You may have felt that they had a point. Syllabi of Civics in our country tends to focus on formal political institutions of government. The textbooks are full of constitutional, legal and procedural details presented in a dry and abstract manner. No wonder children experience a disconnect between the theory they read in the textbook and what they see in real life around them. This is perhaps what makes Civics 'boring' for young adults in a country otherwise full of passion for politics."

Source: Democratic Politics-I

IX Social Science

31. What is the context in which the word 'disconnect' is used in the passage ?

(1) Civics teaching is dull in schools

(2) Children find themselves unable to relate what happens in the real world with what they read in the textbooks

(3) It is related to how Civics textbooks are written and transacted

(4) It is related to the attitude of students towards schooling in general and Civics in particular

Ans:

32. Which one of the following exemplifies the best pedagogical practice for the classroom in transacting the Civics syllabi?

(1) The teacher teaches the Civics textbook cover to cover explaining everything in detail and prepares students well.

(2) The teacher makes the subject interesting by relating anecdotes and short stories but believes firmly in the textbook and lecture method.

(3) The teacher follows her lesson plan meticulously and uses many reference books for making notes.

(4) The teacher involves her students in youth parliament and encourages them to critically analyse the content in the textbooks by comparing it with what they see in reality.

Ans:

33. The 'dry and abstract' presentation of content in Civics textbooks can be brought alive by a teacher

(1) through real life examples and episodes followed by debates and, discussions

(2) if the abstract aspects are quickly glossed over

(3) through very clear and thorough explanation of the dry concepts

(4) with the help of short tests to reinforce the difficult concepts

Ans:

34. Which one of the following statements about water conservation is incorrect ?

(1) Water is a non-renewable resource.

(2) Underground water level could be improved with forest or vegetation covers.

(3) Controlling surface runoff is one of the ways to conserve water.

(4) Sprinklers effectively control evaporation.

Ans:

35. Around 3900 years ago, the earliest cities, Harappa and Mohanjodaro, began to come to an end because of various reasons, Which one of the following is not one of those reasons?

(1) There was internal rivalry and warfare between cities



(2) Deforestation and     floods brought in destruction



(3) Grazing of green cover by herds of cattle destroyed the soil cover



(4) Rivers dried up leading to the end of the cities

Ans:

36. Most of the 'Mahajanapadas' were fortified because

(1) of availability of wood, brick and stones, in the area

(2) they reflected their wealth and power

(3) the rulers were scared of attack and wanted to ensure they were protected

(4) they were symbols of their 'rich' warrior tradition

Ans:

37. When it is 10:00 a.m. in London in June, the Indian Standard Time will be

(1) 2:30 p.m.

(2) 3:00 p.m.

(3) 3:30 p.m.

(4) 2:00 p.m.

Ans:

38. In the following diagram, which arrow shows the South-East direction?

(1) D

(2) B

(3) F

(4) H

Ans:

39. A map uses a scale in which 1 cm on the map covers 20 meters on the ground. If two places are 5 cm apart on the map, the actual distance between them is

(1) 20 meters

(2) 150 meters

(3) 200 meters

(4) 100 meters

Ans:

40. For creating an effective administration practice in India, which one of the following was adopted by the British Government?

(1) Military expedition

(2) Practice of surveying

(3) Practice of land revenue collection

(4) Practice of exploiting native population

Ans:

41. The two main systems of Indigo cultivation were

(1) Nij and Kij

(2) Nij and Ryoti

(3) Kharif and Rabi

(4) Nij and terrace farming

Ans:

42. What problems did shifting cultivators face under the British rule?

(1) Exploitation

(2) Decline in their agricultural production

(3) Their movement was restricted

(4) Unemployment

Ans:

43. What was the main reason behind the destruction of Somnath temple by Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni ?

(1) He wanted to build a palace there

(2) He did not like the architecture of the temple

(3) He tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam

(4) He wanted to use the temple for some other purpose

Ans:

44. During the medieval period in India, temples were regarded as a hub of

(1) architecture

(2) cultural activities

(3) extensive foreign trade

(4) Sufi movement

Ans:

45. In Bengal, temples and other religious structures were often built by individuals or groups who were becoming powerful in order to

(1) ensure that they did good 'karma'

(2) demonstrate a marvel of architecture to the society

(3) add value to the surroundings

(4) demonstrate their power, proclaim their piety and gain followers

Ans:

46. A system of structure and practice in which men dominate, oppress and exploit women is called

(1) Hierarchy

(2) Fascism

(3) Monarchy

(4) Patriarchy

Ans:

47. Which of the following statements is not an objective of social advertising?

(1) To change attitudes and mindset, as people influence people

(2) To target social networks and social groups

(3) To advertise products on social networking sites for personal commercial value

(4) To motivate members of the public to engage in voluntary social activity

Ans:

48. Which of the following statements about 'prasastis' is an incorrect statement ?

(1) The achievements of rulers or kings are described in 'prasastis'.

(2) They were written by scholars/poets/ learned people for the purpose of praising the kings and earning their patronage.

(3) Usually the kings themselves wrote them.

(4) They are valuable sources of history of the period to which they belong.

Ans:

49. What does PHC stand for?

(1) Private Health Centre

(2) Public Health Court

(3) Public Health Centre

(4) Public Health Corporation

Ans:



50. Which of the following is not a primary economic activity ?

(1) Mining

(2) Agriculture

(3) Trading

(4) Fishing

Ans:

51. Industrialists set up industries when

(1) they can develop their own native places

(2) they find favourable government policies

(3) towns can be developed

(4) incentives provided by the government reduce their profit

Ans:

52. Which one of the following explains the term 'market' ?

(1) A local area which has conducive conditions for setting up an industry

(2) A shop to sell the goods manufactured by the industrialist

(3) The potential trade in a particular type of good being produced by an industry

(4) A mall which sells products

Ans:

53. Which of the following pedagogical approaches exhibited by four different teachers for teaching 'Industrialisation' is most appropriate ?

(1) The teacher believes that she must cover the entire process of industrialisation in detail and brings in copious material to the class

(2) The teacher asks the class to read the entire lesson silently and asks questions if they have not understood

(3) The teacher is a believer in the timeless glory of the textbook and teaches by explaining every word and asking comprehension questions to students

(4) The teacher is aware of multiple approaches to pedagogy and plans a trip to an industry in the nearby area to demonstrate the concepts, discuss and debate in groups the issues and then in a plenary, sum up the conclusions

Ans:

54. Which of the following statements about 'ancient manuscripts' is not correct?

(1) Some manuscripts were engraved on stone or metal

(2) They were usually written on palm leaves

(3) They are the primary sources of the period they reflect

(4) They were handwritten and then printed

Ans:

55. In the middle of the 19^th century, British historians divided history of India into three periods - Hindu India, Muslim India and British India. What is the basis of this division?

(1) It was convenient and easy to remember

(2) It was based on the idea that religion of the rulers was an important historical change

(3) History of England is also written in a similar way

(4) Britishers felt they were more knowledgeable at that point of time in history and so used this division

Ans:

56. Match the following and pick the correct option:

a. Agriculture          I. Cultivation of grapes

b. Horticulture        II. Growing crops and farming

c. Pisiculture           III. Growing flowers, fruits and vegetables

d. Viticulture           IV. Breeding of fish

(1) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III

(2) a-II, h-III, c-IV, d-I

(3) a-III, b-R, c-I, d-IV

(4) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I

Ans:

57. Which development facilitated the debates and discussions about social customs and practices on a wider scale during the 19th century?

(1) Magazines

(2) Theatre

(3) Movies

(4) Radio

Ans:

58. Social reformers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy used the following strategy to campaign about the prevailing social injustices (e.g. sati) against women.

(1) They took the help of the popular social milieu

(2) They used the influence of the government

(3) They used a verse or sentence which is in the ancient sacred texts to prove their stand

(4) They took the help of popular nationalist leaders

Ans:

Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q.No. 59 & 60), by selecting the most appropriate option.

"By the end of the nineteenth century, women themselves were actively working for reform. They wrote books, edited magazines, founded schools and training centres and set up women's associations. From the early twentieth century, they formed political pressure groups to push through laws for female suffrage (the right to vote) and better health -care and education for women. Women from all communities joined various kinds of 'nationalist and socialist movements from the 1920s.

In the twentieth century, leaders such as Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose lent their support to demands for greater equality and freedom for women. Nationalist leaders promised that there would be full suffrage for all men and women after Independence. However, till then they asked women to concentrate on the anti-British struggles."

Source: 'Our Pasts'-III, Part-II

59. Which of the following statements best describes the inference that can be drawn from the above extract with respect to the strategy used by leaders of India's national movement?

(l) Participation of women would make the struggle for Independence much more attractive

(2) Women and men were encouraged to follow a policy of 'give and take'

(3) Indian women through their speeches could draw many more people into the movement

(4) Nationalist leaders enlisted the support of the women to their cause by promising them the right to vote after Independence

Ans:

60. Which one of the following statements regarding women's rights is untrue based on the passage?

(1) Women were now becoming vocal in their demands for rights, including political rights

(2) Many women from all communities came forward to join the struggle for freedom

(3) Women got the support of nationalist leaders

(4) Women's writings were not appreciated

Ans:

61. "Throughout the 19th century, most educated women were taught at home by liberal fathers and husbands instead of sending them to schools,"

Which of -the following statements is not a correct reason for the above trend ?

(1) People feared that schools would take girls away from home

(2) Men derived great pleasure by teaching girls at home

(3) Girls had to travel through public places in order to reach school and their safety remained a concern

(4) There was a fear that schooling would prevent girls from doing their domestic duties

Ans:

62. Why is mining called a primary activity?

(1) It involves production from the natural resources of the earth

(2) It is one of the earliest forms of human activities

(3) It brings a lot of money to the government

(4) It is the biggest employer of workers

Ans:

63. Which of the following is not a mineral ?

(1) Graphite in pencil

(2) Salt used for cooking

(3) Gold and silver in jewellery

(4) Mica used for insulation

Ans:

64. Which of the following was not a problem faced by India soon after Independence?

(1) Wealth and debts to be equally distributed among India, Pakistan and Great Britain

(2) Persuading the Princely States to join the Indian Union

(3) Economic development

(4) Refugees from Pakistan

Ans:

65. Though India chose universal adult franchise after becoming independent, this was withheld in many other sovereign countries on the basis of certain criteria. Which of the following was not one of the criteria?

(1) Education

(2) Religion

(3) Gender

(4) Property

Ans:

66. Which one of the following statements explains the essence of 'mixed economy' ?

(1) Both the States and Centre divide responsibility towards economic development

(2) Both the Public and the Private sector play a significant role m increasing production and generation of jobs

(3) Both the Public and the Private sector share the profits generated in the economy equally

(4) Both the Central and State Governments have a say in the legislation controlling the economy of the country

Ans:

67. Which one among the following is not a feature of 'Lithosphere' ?

(1) 97% of the Earth's water lies in the Lithosphere

(2) Landforms are found on ocean floor also

(3) Mineral wealth is found in this sphere

(4) Mountains, plateaus and valleys form a part of Lithosphere

Ans:

68. Which one of the following cannot be said about our 'planet 'Earth' ?

(1) It is a perfect sphere

(2) It is slightly flattened at the Poles

(3) It has a bulge in the middle

(4) It is called the 'blue planet'

Ans:

69. Ocean water keeps moving continuously unlike the calm water of ponds and lakes. Which one of the following categories is not one of the movements of water?

(1) Waves

(2) Water cycle

(3) Tides

(4) Currents

70. Which of the following is not an advantage of high tides?

(1) They help in fishing

(2) Electricity could be generated from them

(3) They help the local economy by drawing tourists

(4) Navigation is easier

Ans:

Directions: Based on your reading of the case study given below, answer the next two questions (Q. No.71 & 72), by selecting the most appropriate option.

Rashmi has the habit of asking the surnames of persons whom she comes across for the first time. She has to place the concerned person in the varna system of Indian society. This enquiry about caste identity is resented by many people though it is not expressed openly. Things are more complicated. when' she meets a person from another region or part of India. She is unable to figure out their caste status even if that person reveals the surname. This 'world view' of Rashmi, according to her, does not affect/influence her teaching-learning transaction process. She says that it is part of her primary socialization and she cannot help it.

71. Primary socialization is

(1) social networking at the primary level

(2) learning from family and friends at an early age

(3) learning from society during adolescence

(4) memorising and imitating the teacher

Ans:

72. The resentment is justified because the teacher's attitude

(1) highlights the need for socialization

(2) is purely based on personal biases

(3) is not an indictment of the stereotypes it creates'

(4) perpetuates social, political and economic inequalities

Ans:

73. Most people during the 19th century felt education will have a 'corrupting' influence on women. Which of the following brings out the contextual meaning of 'corrupting' in the above sentence?

(1) Women were more corrupt than men

(2) It would bring them more money

(3) The power they gain through education would take them away from their traditional roles

(4) They would become impure

Ans:

74. A teacher gives the following exercise to her students: Imagine you are a member of a nomadic community that shifts residence every 3 months. How would this change your life?

(1) The question will prove that a student's life is far safer and more enjoyable than the life of people in such situations

(2) The question will make students less egocentric and promote universal brotherhood

(3) The question will impress upon the students that facts are more important than reflection in Social Science

(4) The question will help students place themselves in new situations to gain a better understanding of the concepts involved

Ans:

Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q. No.75 & 76), by selecting the most appropriate option.

"The popular perception of Social Science is that it is a non-utility subject. As a result, low self-esteem governs the classroom transactions, with both teachers and students feeling uninterested in comprehending its contents. From the initial stages of schooling, it is often suggested to students that the Natural Sciences are superior to the Social Sciences."

Source: NCF - 2005,

Teaching of Social Sciences

75. What is the context in which the term 'non-utility subject' is used in the above extract?

(1) Social Science has nothing to offer to improve human civilization

(2) Studying Social Science does not lead to well-paid jobs and material wealth

(3) Social Science is a subject that cannot be learnt for its utility

(4) Social Science is a dry and difficult subject having no use for educators or learners

Ans:

76. Which of the following best conveys the essence of the above extract?

(1) The way Social Science is taught to students does not enthuse them to take Social Science seriously

(2) Natural Sciences need to be given importance in school curriculum

(3) Students considered good in Natural Sciences are considered bright

(4) Social Sciences are inferior to Natural Sciences since they are non-utilitarian subjects

Ans:

77. The significance of language in teaching-learning of Social Science cannot be over-emphasized. Which of the following statements does not convey the above idea?

(1) Effective understanding of the meaning and use of a language enhances learning in Social Science

(2) Language is of least significance in a fact-oriented subject like Social Science

(3) Only a language teacher can do justice to the teaching-learning process of Social Science

(4) Since language is important, a Social Science teacher should include comprehension and grammar questions in Social Science tests

Ans:

78. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Social Science?

(1) Social Science encompasses diverse concerns of society, including historical, geographical, economic and political dimensions

(2) Social Science creates and widens human values such as freedom, respect for diversity, etc.

(3) As Social Science deals with people, the nature of enquiry is not scientific

(4) Social Science lays the foundations for an analytical and creative mindset

Ans:

79. Which of the following is not a source material for writing oral history?

(1) The anecdotes of a person who participated in the 'Quit India Movement'

(2) A British soldier's oral account of the Sepoy Mutiny

(3) The memories of a person who migrated to Pakistan from India at the time of Partition

(4) A scholar talking about today's education system

Ans:

80. Which of the following statements about the title of NCERT History textbook, 'Our Pasts', as expressed by the authors, is not correct?

(1) It is about the pasts of neighbouring countries

(2) It does not talk about the times of kings and queens only

(3) It tries to bring out contribution of various groups or communities like farmers and artisans

(4) It emphasizes the notion that India does not have just 'one past' but 'many pasts'

Ans:

81. The following question is given under the heading 'Let's discuss' at the end of a chapter: 'Why do you think ordinary men and women did not generally keep records of what they did ?' What is the relevance of asking this question?

(1) Such questions encourage guesswork and so should not be given

(2) Ordinary men and women lead common lives. There is nothing great or of significance to write about them

(3) It is good to ignite a discussion and let students come out with their reasoning

(4) Questions which do not have fixed answers should not be given, as they will confuse the students

Ans:

82. Which type of questions will not develop critical thinking among students ?

(1) Closed-ended questions

(2) Open-ended questions

(3) Probing questions

(4) Divergent questions

Ans:

83. While discussing gender roles in the classroom, you would assert that

(1) there are different professions for men and women

(2) boys need to attend school as they are the future earning members of the family

(3) gender stereotypes in society need to be addressed meaningfully

(4) household work should not be seen as productive

Ans:

84. The approach of the 'Social and Political Life' textbooks of NCERT is to

(1) give the learner one correct answer for a question

(2) focus the attention of the learners on the factual content of lessons

(3) use definitions to sum up a concept

(4) use case studies and narratives to explain concepts

Ans:

85. Which of the following questions would help build the critical thinking skills of students ?

(1) 'All communicable diseases are water borne'. State whether true or false.

(2) Comment on the 'double burden of women's work'.

(3) Write two measures the government has adopted to control pollution.

(4) What is the government's role in Indian Health and Indian Education?

Ans:

86. You are teaching 'Unity in Diversity' to the students of Class-VIII. Which of the following activities would you do to make the students understand the concept effectively?

(1) Write an essay on the river disputes between States of India

(2) Prepare a model of the Hydro-electric project near the school

(3) Conduct' a test after the lesson is thoroughly taught

(4) Present a feature on the different dance forms of our country appreciating their underlying similarities and differences

Ans:

87. Diagnostic testing in Social Science will help a teacher understand

(1) the part of the topic the student has not memorised

(2) learning difficulties a student is facing in Social Science

(3) how revision work has helped her students

(4) how intelligent her students are

Ans:

88. Choose the most inappropriate statement regarding teaching of Social Science in middle school.

(1) Social Science should be taught as it helps to acquire an understanding of human relationships

(2) Social Science should be taught as it helps sensitize children regarding social reality

(3) Social Science should be taught because it helps students debate and reflect on social issues

(4) Social Science should be a part of the curriculum so that the learners 'know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought

Ans:

89. Doing activities with children will be effective only if

(1) the teacher does not know why she is doing it

(2) the teacher conducts them to complete her 'Lesson Plan'

(3) the teacher does them as a pretence to obey her principal's directions for activity-based learning

(4) she believes that activity-based education will help the child in understanding the concepts

Ans:

90. Which of the following should not be a part of the Social Science instructional process?

(1) Planning

(2) Dictation of facts

(3) Feedback mechanism

(4) Implementation

Ans:

PART IV

LANGUAGE I

ENGLISH

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 91 to 99) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Surviving a Snakebite

1 Annually, there are a million cases of snakebite in India and of these, close to 50,000 succumb to the bites.

2 When you look around the countryside, where most bites occur, and notice people's habits and lifestyles, these figures aren't surprising. People walk barefoot without a torch at night when they are most likely to step on a foraging venomous snake.

3 We encourage rodents by disposing waste food out in the open, or by storing foodgrains in the house. Attracted by the smell of rats, snakes enter houses and when one crawls over someone asleep on the floor and the person twitches or rolls over, it may bite in defence.

4 Once bitten, we don't rush to the hospital. Instead, we seek out the nearest conman, tie tourniquets, eat vile tasting herbal chutneys, apply poultices or spurious stones, cut/slice/suck the bitten spot, and other ghastly time-consuming deadly "remedies".

5 As Rom cattily remarks : "If the snake hasn't injected enough venom, even popping an aspirin can save your life." That's the key - snakes inject venom voluntarily and we have no way of knowing if it has injected venom, and if it is a lethal dose. The only first aid is to immobilise the bitten limb like you would a fracture, and get to a hospital for anti-venom serum without wasting time.

91. Of the people who are. bitten by snakes in India, the fatality rate is

(1) 5%

(2) 25%

(3) 50%

(4) 100%

Ans:

92. According to the author, people living in which parts are more prone to snake bites?

(1) Crowded cities

(2) The open

(3) Villages

(4) Forests

Ans: (3)

93. Storing foodgrains in the house is one of the causes for snake bites because

(1) foodgrains attract rats which in turn attract snakes

(2) snakes enter houses in search of stored foodgrains

(3) the smell of foodgrains brings both snakes and other animals into the house

(4) stored foodgrains create convenient hiding places for snakes within houses

Ans: (1)

94. '... it may bite in defence' (para-3). This observation implies that

(1) a snake is very good at defending itself

(2) a snake may bite a human being in order to defend its prey

(3) human beings are defenceless against snakes

(4) a snake bites a human only when it is threatened

Ans: (4)

95. What, according to the author, is the reason for the high fatality rate due to snakebites in India?

(1) Shortage of medical facilities

(2) Lack of scientific knowledge about snakebites

(3) Shortage of anti-venom serum

(4) Shortage of doctors

Ans: (2)

96. In the instance of a snakebite, what should we do immediately?

(1) Tie torniquets

(2) Eat herbal chutneys

(3) Immobilise the bitten part and get anti-venom serum

(4) Cut-slice-suck the bitten spot

Ans: (3)

97. Pick out a word from the passage which means 'to go around in search of food'. (Para 2)

(1) Foraging

(2) Countryside

(3) Venomous

(4) barefoot

Ans: (1)

98. "If the snake hasn't injected enough venom, even popping an aspirin can save your life." This sentence can be rewritten without changing the meaning as

(1) When a snake has not injected enough venom, life can be saved even by swallowing an aspirin.

(2) Life can be saved even by swallowing an aspirin, even though the snake hasn't injected enough venom.

(3) Even popping an aspirin can save your life, in spite of a snake not having injected enough venom.

(4) As long as you are popping an aspirin to save your life, the snake will not inject enough venom.

Ans: (1)

99. Pick out a word from the passage, that power to cause death'. means 'having the (Para 5)

(1) immobilise

(2) voluntarily

(3) lethal

(4) serum

Ans: (3)

Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 100 -105) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Common Cold

1 Go hang yourself, you old M.D.! You shall not sneer at me. Pick up your hat and stethoscope, Go wash your mouth with laundry soap; I contemplate a joy exquisite I'm not paying you for your visit. I did not call you to be told My malady is a common cold.

2 By pounding brow and swollen lip; By fever's hot and scaly grip; By those two red redundant eyes That weep like woeful April skies; By racking snuffle, snort, and sniff; By handkerchief after handkerchief; This cold you wave away as naught Is the damnedest cold man ever caught !

3 Bacilli swarm within my portals Such as were ne'er conceived by mortals, But bred by scientists wise and hoary In some Olympic laboratory; Bacteria as large as mice, With feet of fire and heads of ice

Who never interrupt for slumber Their stamping elephantine rumba.

100. What is the emotion that the poet displays in the first stanza ?

(1) Anger

(2) Joy

(3) Jealousy

(4) Sympathy

Ans: (3)

101. Why and at whom does the poet show his emotion?

(1) At an old man because he has sneered at the poet

(2) At a doctor for an incorrect diagnosis of his medical condition

(3) At a friend who is happy at the poet's plight

(4) At a doctor who has said the poet merely has a cold

Ans: (4)

102. The poet describes his eyes as 'two red redundant eyes' because .

(1) he cannot see properly due to the cold

(2) they show how furious the poet is

(3) they have been affected by an eye-disease

(4) in his medical condition the poet is imagining things

Ans: (1)

103. 'Bacteria as large as mice' is an instance of a/ an

(1) simile and a hyperbole

(2) metaphor

(3) personification

(4) alliteration

Ans:

104. 'Who never interrupt for slumber Their stamping elephantine rumba.' The meaning of these lines is that

(1) the bacteria are continuously stamping their elephant-like feet

(2) the cold-causing germs are causing much discomfort and pain to the poet without any break

(3) the bacilli are so active that they refuse to go to sleep

(4) the poet is not able to concentrate on his work due to the raging cold

Ans: (2)

105. The general tone of the poem can be described as

(1) satirical and harsh

(2) ironical and mocking

(3) whimsical and humorous

(4) sad and tragic

Ans: (1)

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

106. The Constructivist Approach to learning means

(1) involving the students in a variety of activities to encourage them to learn new words and structures by accommodating them with those that they have already learnt through a process of discovery

(2) teaching rules of grammar and consolidating through rigorous practice

(3) helping learners acquire new vocabulary by studying literature intensively

(4) teaching new words and structures using a variety of audio-visual aids followed by practice through drill

Ans: (1)

107. What is the skill among the ones given below that cannot be tested in a formal written examination?

(1) Reading for information

(2) Meaning of words and phrases

(3) Extensive reading for pleasure

(4) Analysing texts

Ans: (3)

108. Which of the following is suitable for making students responsible for their own learning?

(1) Discouraging students from making decisions about how they learn best

(2) Using technology to chat and network

(3) Encouraging students to ask more and more questions

(4) Giving a lot of homework, project work and assignments to improve language skills of students

Ans: (3)

109. Ania, while teaching paragraph construction, should draw attention to

(1) a large variety of ideas

(2) originality of ideas

(3) topic sentence, supporting details and connectors

(4) a range of vocabulary

Ans: (3)

110. Communicative Language Teaching is concerned with

(1) teaching of vocabulary and grammar through rules of spelling and language

(2) teaching language to learners for written tests

(3) interpreting grammar rules to suit the audience

(4) enhancing receptive and productive skills such as speaking, listening, reading and writing

Ans: (4)

111. Formative Assessment is assessment

(1) of learning

(2) at learning

(3) in learning

(4) for learning

Ans: (1)

112. The term 'Comprehensive' in Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation means

(1) scholastic development

(2) co-scholastic development

(3) academic skills

(4) scholastic and co-scholastic development

Ans:

113. A teacher designs a test to find out the cause of the poor grades of her learners through alan

(1) Diagnostic Test

(2) Proficiency Test

(3) Achievement Test

(4) Aptitude Test

Ans: (1)

114. An inclusive class is that in which

(1) differently abled learners study with normal students

(2) students from different nationalities study together

(3) students from different religions study together

(4) both boys and girls study together

Ans: (1)

115. 'Concrete Operational Stage' refers to those learners who are

(1) adolescents

(2) at middle level

(3) toddlers

(4) adults

Ans: (2)

116. When learners are engaged in a pair activity, taking on roles of a doctor and a patient, the activity is called

(1) Real Activity

(2) Declamation

(3) Simulation

(4) Exchanging notes

Ans: (3)

117. Essays or long writing tasks especially on a discursive issue should

(1) help students develop their literary skills

(2) help students with grammar

(3) help them to improve their handwriting

(4) help them discuss the different points of view and justify them with illustrative points

Ans: (4)

118. A teacher, Amrita, uses various tasks such as creating charts, graphs, drawing, gathering information and presenting them through pair or group work. This differentiated instruction

(1) helps learners with multiple intelligences to perform well and learn better

(2) is a way of demonstrating her own knowledge

(3) only helps the bright learners

(4) is the best way to prepare students for an assessment

Ans:

119. Using a word bank and brainstorming helps to build

(1) Vocabulary

(2) Ideas

(3) Writing skills

(4) Reading comprehension

Ans: (1)

120. Gender stereotypes and bias among learners can be discouraged by

(1) enabling all learners to cook and sew irrespective of gender

(2) using textbooks which do perpetuate such beliefs

(3) creating an open and encouraging atmosphere in a mixed class

(4) pressuring girls to learn cooking

Ans: (1)

PART V

LANGUAGE II

ENGLISH

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 129) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1 If you are living in a house with a child on the cusp of becoming a teenager, congratulations. I'm not being sarcastic; you are about to embark on an amazing voyage. It may be a bumpy ride, but on the journey your child will grow, change and blossom into the adult she will one day become. If you are living with an older teenager, I won't try to sugar coat it : you will meet challenges. The raging hormones; the pressures of exams; the angst of relationships with friends and eventually lovers - modern teenagers are under so much pressure, it's no wonder they get moody !

2 Living with teens can be difficult because your child is in the process of great change. Gone is the baby who adored you without question; only shadows remain of the child who hung on your every word of wisdom. Your teenager is becoming a young adult, trying to find his way in the world. He is now programmed to reject your values and kick against your authority. Some days, when arguments are raging, music is blaring, dishes pile up in the sink and your daughter misses her curfew again, you may feel that you just can't bear it any longer.

3 But if you take a step backwards, breathing deeply for a moment, you will be able to see that most of the problems and irritations we have parenting teens are small ones. It's only because we are so close to them that they look so big. It's all about perspective. Your baby is metamorphosing into the adult he or she will be, and it's hard to watch. You want to save them from making your mistakes, and make

their lives easier. News flash: you can't. What you can - and must - do is always be there to listen. There will be times when you are the last person she wants to talk to, but you must make sure the opportunity is always there. Be available.

Source : Raising Teenagers

Lynn Huggins-Cooper (adapted)

121. According to the author, living with a teenager is like an 'amazing voyage' because

(1) during this voyage the parent will see the teenager blossoming into an adult

(2) the voyage will be very bumpy and dangerous

(3) both the teenager and the parent will get to see many amazing sights

(4) the vogage will take them to different wonderful places on the earth

Ans:

122. 'I won't try to sugar coat it' - By this what the author wants to convey is that

(1) she does not want to hide the fact that parenting a teenager is full of challenges

(2) parenting is very challenging and parents must be prepared for it in a gentle manner

(3) parenting teenagers is like taking an unpleasant cure for an ailment

(4) she does not want to flatter the parents into believing that they are capable of managing teenagers

Ans:

123. Modern teenagers easily become annoyed or unhappy for no reason because of

(1) the hormonal imbalance that is characteristic of this period of development

(2) the failed relationships with friends and lovers

(3) failing in examinations

(4) the enormous stress they experience at this age

Ans:

124. 'Only shadows remain of the child ...'. The word 'shadows' here refers to

(1) faint traces of the adoring child

(2) old memories of the teenager

(3) old memories of the parents

(4) the darker aspect of the growing teenager

Ans:

125. 'Kick against your authority' is a manifestation of a teenager's

(1) innate tendency to become physically violent

(2) natural rebellious tendency

(3) excessive sentimentality

(4) need for identification with family values

Ans:

126. 'He is now programmed to reject your values' implies that the teenager

(1) behaves in such a way because of biological factors

(2) derives much pleasure in going against the family

(3) is capable of programming his behaviour carefully

(4) rejects parents' values out of sheer spite

Ans:

127. The author says that parents cannot prevent their teenage children from making mistakes. What is his advice to the parents ?

(1) Be available for consultations and listen to the teenagers

(2) Don't try to save the teenagers or make their lives easier

(3) Be the last person to approach the teenagers with advice

(4) Do not watch the children growing up at this stage because it can be painful

Ans:

128. Pick out a word from the first paragraph of the above passage that means 'strong feelings of anxiety and unhappiness.'

(1) angst

(2) raging

(3) sarcastic

(4) cusp

Ans:

129. Living with teens can be difficult because your child is in the process of great change. The underlined part of this sentence is a/an

(1) adverb clause

(2) adjective clause

(3) prepositional phrase

(4) noun clause

Ans:

Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions (Q. No. 130 - 135) that follow by choosing the most appropriate option.

The Hand Holders:

A Tribute To Caregivers

There is no job more important than yours, no job anywhere else in the land. You are the keepers of the future; you hold the smallest of hands.

Into your care you are trusted to nurture and care for the young, and for all of your everyday heroics, your talents and skills go unsung.

You wipe tears from the eyes of the injured. You rock babies brand new in your arms. You encourage the shy and unsure child. You make sure they are safe from all harm.

You foster the bonds of friendships, letting no child go away mad. You respect and you honour their emotions. You give hugs to each child when they're sad.

You have more impact than does a professor, a child's mind is moulded by four; so whatever you lay on the table is whatever the child will explore.

Give each child the tools for adventure, let them be artists and writers and more; let them fly on the wind and dance on the stars and build castles of sand on the shore.

It is true that you don't make much money and you don't get -a whole lot of praise, but when one small child says "I love you", you're reminded of how this job pays.

Author unknown

130. The expression 'the smallest of hands' refers to

(1) babies

(2) caregivers with small hands

(3) parents with small hands

(4) people with small hands

Ans:

131. Though caregivers look after the young they are

(1) never tired of their work

(2) not properly recognised

(3) not loved by the children under their care

(4) paid very well in return

Ans:

132. A caregiver has more influence on a child than a professor because

(1) the child generally prefers a caregiver to a professor

(2) the professor is not capable of providing love to a child

(3) the child spends the formative years with the caregiver

(4) the caregiver can teach better than a professor

Ans:

133. What is the most valuable gift that a caregiver gets ?

(1) Acknowledgement of the society

(2) Praise from the parents

(3) Money for her services

(4) Love from children

Ans:

134. 'You give hugs to each child when they're sad.' This act can be described as one of

(1) empathy

(2) encouragement

(3) recrimination

(4) reassurance

Ans:

135. 'Letting no child go away mad' - the meaning of this line is

(1) no child is allowed to be angry for long

(2) no child is permitted to go away from school without permission

(3) no child is allowed to become mad

(4) no caregiver is permitted to be mad with a child

Ans:

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

136. Which among the following is a feature of a child-centred language classroom ?

(1) Teacher gives instructions and expects children to obey and be disciplined

(2) Children interact in the target language through tasks that require multiple intelligences

(3) Children work individually to prepare projects

(4) Teacher plans assessment every day

Ans:

137. Fluency in English can be developed through

(1) creating opportunities to use the target language for communication

(2) the teacher talking for most of the time

(3) the teacher being alert to spot the errors and correct them

(4) allowing students who are not confident to have the freedom to be quiet

Ans:

138. An effective lesson for teaching a language begins with

(1) listing the learning objectives of the lesson

(2) presenting the content of the lesson

(3) recapitulation and motivation through fun activity

(4) writing on the blackboard

Ans:

139. Some noise in the language class indicates

(1) indiscipline of learners

(2) teacher's lack of control over the class

(3) incompetence of the teacher

(4) constructive activities with learners engaged in language learning

Ans:

140. Enquiry-based learning

(1) does not place students in thought provoking situations

(2) encourages quiet learners

(3) does not nurture creative thinking in students

(4) allows learners to raise questions

Ans:

141. Effective learning takes place when students are

(1) passive

(2) interactive

(3) quiet

(4) good at preparing for examinations

Ans:

142. In large language classes, group work can be accomplished by

(1) asking 4 - 5 students to sit together on a narrow bench despite lack of space

(2) asking students to turn around for group work

(3) asking all students to stand in a circle

(4) asking half the class to go out to the playground

Ans:

143. A test to assess the potential of students for specific abilities and skills such as music, spatial ability or logical ability is called a/an

(1) Proficiency Test

(2) Aptitude Test

(3) Attitude Test

(4) Achievement Test

Ans:

144. A teacher can develop listening skills in English by

(1) speaking to them continuously both within the classroom and outside

(2) focusing only on listening skills without associating it with other language skills

(3) making the learners listen to everything they hear passively

(4) creating opportunities for them to listen to a variety of sources and people and engage in listening activities

Ans:

145. Which of the following is best suited for improving the speaking skills of learners ?

(1) Recitation of poetry

(2) Reading a prose and drama aloud

(3) Oral language drill

(4) Debates and group discussions followed by role play

Ans:

146. Which of the following will be most effective to remove conventional beliefs about gender roles?

(1) Showing a picture in which the mother is seen cooking and the father is seen reading a newspaper

(2) Teaching all the learners to sweep, wash and sew in the craft class without any gender discrimination

(3) Encouraging girls to develop interest in household chores from a young age

(4) "Telling the girls that talking freely is not a trait of good girls

Ans:

147. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 has 'overall development' as an aim. It means

(1) training the children for the development of the country

(2) nurturing both the scholastic and co-scholastic areas

(3) coaching all the children for academic excellence

(4) training the children for different careers

Ans:

148. A play can be best taught by

(1) making the students read it silently a number of times to understand the story

(2) encouraging the students to stage the play after working m groups to understand the plot, characters etc.

(3) asking a number of questions to test the comprehension of the students

(4) conducting a test with specific questions on the story and grammar items

Ans:

149. A class is reading a story based in a village. The teacher asks some students to mark the villages in an outline map of their locality. Some other students are asked to collect information about the different crops grown in these villages. Yet another group works on the nutritional value of the grains, fruits and vegetables grown in the locality. Later the students exchange their work and have a class

discussion, relating the information with the story. What is the underlying principle of this approach?

(1) Treating knowledge in specific segments based on geography, science, language, etc.
(2) Making connections across disciplines and bringing out the inter-relatedness of knowledge
(3) Teaching language through written assignments and projects

(4) Giving importance to the practical and scholastic aspects of literary pieces

Ans:
150. "Schools need to become centres that prepare children for life and ensure that all children, especially the differently abled, children from marginalised sections, and children in difficult circumstances get the maximum benefit of this critical area of education." - This- observation found in the National Curriculum Framework-2005 is related to
(1) Inclusive education

(2) Constructivist learning ,
(3) Gender equality
(4) Critical pedagogy

Ans:

ANSWER KEY:

CTET 2011 Answer Key Paper-I (EXAM HELD ON: 26-06-2011)

CTET PAPER_II ANSWER KEY

SNAP Original Exam papers Download Free

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Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
SNAP Original Exam papers Download Free

CURRENT AFFAIR QUIZ- October 2011

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Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

CURRENT AFFAIR QUIZ- October 2011

1. How many districts are there in India at present?

580

640

490

2. Who founded the Bharatiya Janata Party?

A.B. Vajpayee

Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

K.P.Singh

3. Who is the first woman IAS officer in the country?

Auna George Malhotra

Ranjana Choudhary

Vandana Preyashi

4. Which state chief minister in India has distributed free laptops to students recently?

Jammu and Kashmir

Gujarat

Tamil Nadu

5. Why is Neelima Mishra in the news recently?

IAS officer who was humiliated abroad

Magsaysay awardee who was denied USA visa

First lady minister who was arrested

6. When was the Indian Postal Order started in India?

1962

1952

1935

7. Who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry this year?

Daniel Shechtman

Thomas A. Steitz

Yves Chauvin

8. Who has been appointed as the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister?

Shivshankar Menon

Rajkumar Singh

Pulok Chatterjee

9. Where is the Institute of Mathematical Science located in India?

Chennai

Kolkata

Allahabad

10. What is the length of the coastline of the country?

6514 km

7517 km

5898 km

Score =

Correct answers:

International News : October 2011

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 12:02:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
International News : October 2011

Myanmar was banned from taking part in qualifying matches for the 2018 World Cup by FIFA
China became Russia’s biggest trading partner. The exports and imports between these two nations touched 50.8 billion US dollars from January to August 2011
Steve Jobs, co-founder of Apple Inc. died at age 56 from pancreatic cancer
Ukraine’s former PM Yulia Tymoshenko was sentenced to 7 years in prison on charges of abuse of office in signing a gas deal with Russia
Red Bull’s Sebastian Vettel who finished third in the Japanese Grand Prix became the youngest double world champion
World Food Day is observed every year on 16 October. In 2011, World Food Day was observed with the theme- Food Prices – From Crisis to Stability. Food Priices-from Crisis to Stability was chosen as the 2011 World Food Day theme to shed some light on what can be done to mitigate its impact on the most vulnerable.
Andy Murray retained his Shanghai Masters title by defeating David Ferrer 7-5 6-4 in the final on 16 October 2011
Sebastian Vettel of Red Bull won the Korean Grand Prix on 16 October 2011
The Sense of an Ending. Julian Barnes' eleventh novel won him the 2011 Man Booker Prize
The USA issued a travel alert to its citizens in India, warning them of possible terror attacks in the country during the holiday season
2011 Durand Cup, the 124th edition of the Durand Cup was won by the Churchill Brothers
Commonwealth Games gold-medallist Krishna Poonia wongold at Halloween Throws Meet at Portland on 17 October 2011
An earthquake measuring 7.2 on the Richter scale killed many people in eastern Turkey
Muammar Gaddafi, who ruled Libya for over 40 years, was killed on 20 October 2011 while trying to flee from his hometown, Sirte.
UNESCO decided Audiovisual Heritage: See, Hear, and Learn as theme for celebration of the World Day for Audiovisual Heritage 2011 on 27 october.
Louisiana governor Bobby Jindal, won re-election on 22 October 2011. He is a member of the Republican Party

National News : October 2011

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Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

National News : October 2011

Former Bihar Chief Minister Bhagwat Jha Azad died on 4 October 2011 at the age of 89.
On 4 October 2011 the credit rating of the State Bank of India was downgraded by the Global ratings firm Moody’s.
Delhi state government on 8 October 2011 launched a micro-finance project for women. The project aims at providing financial support to over one-lakh vulnerable women in the capital.
The largest ever water supply scheme in Himachal Pradesh was inaugurated on 6 October 2011 in Kangehan area of Kangra district
The Sports Authority of India and the All India Football Federation signed an agreement to develop the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium as the football hub in India
The World's cheapest computer cum access device, Aakash was launched on 5 October 2011. Aakash is a part of the Indian Government's National Mission on Education's Sakshat Project.
India took over as the Chairman of United Nations South Asian Regional Commission for tourism. This was announced at the ongoing United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO) conference at Gyeongju in South Korea
Veteran ghazal singer Jagjit Singh passed away on 10 October 2011 in Mumbai. He was awarded Padmabhushan, India’s third highest civilian honour, in 2003
All India Football Federation appointed Dutchman Robert Baan as the Technical Director for a period of two years
Environmentalist, lawyer & former Union Minister, Mohan Dharia was selected as the winner of the 26th Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration
. Former Supreme Court judge Markandey Katju was appointed as the new chairman of media regulator Press Council of India on 5 October
. Indian swimmers won eight gold medals on 10 October 2011 at 7th Asian age group swimming championship
he Union Cabinet of India on 13 October 2011 approved the introduction of the Enforcement of Security Interest and Recovery of Debts Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2011 in the winter session of Parliament
Vinod Kumar of RSPB (Railway Sports Promotion Board) on 14 October 2011 won the 55 kg freestyle gold medal in the 56th Senior National wrestling championships at Nandininagar, Uttar Pradesh
In Jammu and Kashmir, the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna, jointly sponsored by the Centre and State governments was formally launched by State Health and Family Welfare Ministry in Srinagar
The Save Sarmila Campaign was flagged off by Magsaysay award winner Sandeep Pandey on 16 October 2011. The campaign was launched in Srinagar demanding the revocation of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) from Jammu and Kashmir and the northeast.
Union Agriculture Commissioner Gurbachan Singh was appointed Chairman of the Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board for a seven-year term
Amol Gupte's son Partho Gupte won the best actor award for Stanley Ka Dabba at Schlingel International Film Festival
India's Suresh Rana won the extreme four wheeler categories in the 13th Raid de Himalaya motor rally
Bharti Airtel launched special Formula One Race Pack for F1 fans in Bangalore
Ratan Tata was honoured with the Swiss Ambassador's award for exceptional leadership & his contribution to strengthening Indo-Swiss ties
MC Mary Kom won gold in the 51kg category at 12th Senior Women's National Boxing Championships
The Rajasthan Government launched a web based Social Security Pension System at Jaipur
Veteran Congress leader and former Karnataka minister K H Ranganath died in Bangalore on 18 october 2011
Eminent Malayalam novelist George Varghese Kakkanadan breathed his last on 19 October 2011 in Kollam
Page from the Past-A journalist looks back, a book by veteran journalist K P Srivastava released by veteran journalist Inder Malhotra
Olympic champion Abhinav Bindra won the air rifle silver in the fourth Asian airgun shooting championship in Kuwait
Aman Sethi won International Committee of the Red Cross award for the best Indian print media article on humanitarian issues
Indian Railways launched Real Time information system(RTIS) through which passengers can access the accurate train running information
A report by IFC & World Bank titled- Doing Business 2012: Doing Business in a More Transparent World released on 20 October 2011. India ranked 132 in world bank report.
Dr M K Mani, pioneer of nephrology in India was on 20 October 2011 declared the winner of the 40th Dhanvantari Award
Renowned litterateur, writer of novel Rag Darbari, Shrilal Shukla died at a hospital in Lucknow on 28 October 2011. He wrote many satires like Angad Ka Paanv…
India won 5 matches one-day series by 5-0 by defeating England. Ravindra Jadeja of team India was declared Man of the Match, while Indian captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni was awarded with Man of the Series
Tehelka and The Week were jointly chosen for the International Press Institute (IPI) – India award for excellence in journalism

IES-Indian Engineering services, UPSC - EXAM PATTERN/PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 09:36:00 +0000

IES-Indian Engineering services, UPSC - EXAM PATTERN/PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

Indian Engineering Services (IES/ES) constitute of engineers that work under the government of India to manage a large segment of public sector economy which constitutes of Railroads, Public works, Power, Telecommunications, etc.

A combined competitive examination is conducted by the Union Public Services Commission (UPSC) for recruitment to the Indian Engineering Services. The Examination constitutes of a written examination followed by an interview for personality test.

What is IES Exam?

Indian Engineering Services (IES) exam (also called as Engineering Services Exam) is a premier competitive examination conducted by UPSC (Union Public Service Commission), for selecting aprox. 500-600 engineers for Government of India’s engineering organizations, such as Indian Railway Service of Engineers (IRSE), Central Engineering Service (CES), Military Engineer Services (IDSE) etc. The examination is conducted for the branches of Civil. Mechanical, Electrical & Electronics Engineering.

The popularity of this exam can be gauged from the following analysis, compiled from UPSC Annual Reports:

As you can see from above, only two to four persons per thousand who applies for IES exam, cuts the grade and becomes an IES officer. Thus the popularity of IES exam can be compared to another cream services of Government of India – IAS (Civil Sevices) exam.

This blog post is made to introduce you to IES exam: telling you when IES notification comes out, what are the eligibilities for IES exam and where you can get the IES exam application forms.

IES Exam statistics:

You can find from above IES exam statistics that close to 30% -40% people who applies for IES exam, does not appears for the IES exam. Also majority of the screening is done at the Written test - only 1.5% - 3% of those who writes the exam are called for interview. However, once you are called for the interview, chances of being finally selected is pretty good- 30%- 40%.

What were the branch-wise vacancies in IES exam from IES-2003 to IES-2006? Following analysis tells you that:

IES Exam Notification:

If you are an IES exam aspirant, you would definitely wish to know when the IES exam notification comes out. UPSC conducts IES examination every year in the 1st/2nd Saturday of June, notification for which comes out in the 1st/2nd Saturday of January month.

IES Exam Pattern/

UPSC conducts IES Examination in following branch of engineering

Category I—Civil Engineering.

Category II—Mechanical Engineering.

Category III—Electrical Engineering.

Category IV—Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

Part I- General Ability Test 200 Marks

Part I- Objective Paper I 200 Marks & Objective Paper II 200 Marks

Part II- Conventional Paper I 200 Marks & Conventional Paper II 200 Marks

Both Objective & Conventional Sections will cover the entire syllabus of the relevant engineering disciplines viz. Civil Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Electrical Engineering and Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering.

· Minimum qualifying marks has to be obtained in Objective type papers for checking conventional papers.

· IES cutoff marks are available at website. You may contact student counselor in case you need any such data related to ES examination, IES cutoff, IES Question papers, IES solution, IES interview question.

· IES 2012 examination pattern are same as IES 2011, Examination difficulty level, cutoff and paper pattern are almost same.

Part II- Personality test carrying a maximum of 200 marks of such of the candidates who qualify on the basis of the written examination.

SO, MAIN POINT IS
IES exam consists of a total 1200 mark selection process, which consists of a written test for 1000 marks and a 200 mark Interview for those shortlisted. Out of the total 1000 marks in the written test, 600 marks are for Objective test and 400 marks for Conventional test.

Plan of IES written test along with mark distribution paper-wise is given below:
IES Objective Test Papers: 600 marks
General Ability Test: 2 hrs duration: 200 marks
Electronics Engineering Paper I: 2 hrs duration: 200 marks
Electronics Engineering Paper II: 2 hrs duration: 200 marks
General Ability Test consists of:
Part A: General English
Part B: General Studies.
There are 120 questions in each of the above three papers – thus you have one minute for each question of average worth 1.67 marks.

Objective type test consists of multiple-choice questions with four options, in which you have to choose the correct option and mark the same in the answer booklet with an HB pencil, by darkening the circle (representing the correct option) completely. The answer booklet is an OMR (Optical Mark Recognition) sheet, which looks like the one below:
Negative marking:
Beware - for each wrong answer of a question, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Hence encircle the correct answer properly and also make wise-guesses!

IES Conventional Test Papers: 400 marks
Electronics Engineering Paper I: 3 hrs duration: 200 marks
Electronics Engineering Paper II: 3 hrs duration: 200 marks
These papers consists of descriptive (i.e. essay) type questions.
Depending on the relative performance by the IES candidates, UPSC decides the cut-off (minimum qualifying marks) in the Objective test and the papers of Conventional test is evaluated only for those above this cut-off. IES exam cut-off in the Objective test is approximately 60%.

Interview:
Interview for Personality test of selected candidates: 200marks
General (but important) instructions

All Question Papers must be Answered in English. Question Papers will be set in English only.
Candidates must write the papers themselves. They will not be allowed a scribe to write the answer for them under "any circumstances".
Points (upto 5%) may be deducted from the total points of a candidate if his/her handwriting is not easily legible.
Put in a serious and sincere effort.Marks are not allotted for mere superficial knowledge. Orderly, effective and exact expression combined with due economy of words will be rewarded.
SI units will be used in the papers and Candidates should use only International form of Indian numerals (i.e. 1,2,3,4,5,6 etc.) while answering question papers.
The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
The Objective Type papers will be evaluated first and evaluation of the Conventional Type papers is done only for those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Objective types papers, as fixed by the Commission.

Previous year papers:

YEAR 2009:

Engineering Services Exam, 2009
General Ability Test
Objective Papers
Civil Engineering Paper I	Civil Engineering Paper II
Mechanical Engineering Paper I	Mechanical Engineering Paper II
Electrical Engineering Paper I	Electrical Engineering Paper II
E & T Engineering Paper I	E & T Engineering Paper II
Conventional Papers
Civil Engineering Paper I	Civil Engineering Paper II
Mechanical Engineering Paper I	Mechanical Engineering Paper II
Electrical Engineering Paper I	Electrical Engineering Paper II
E & T Engineering Paper I	E & T Engineering Paper II

YEAR 2010:

Engineering Services Exam, 2010
General Ability Test
Objective Papers
Civil Engineering Paper I	Civil Engineering Paper II
Mechanical Engineering Paper I	Mechanical Engineering Paper II
Electrical Engineering Paper I	Electrical Engineering Paper II
E & T Engineering Paper I	E & T Engineering Paper II
Conventional Papers
Civil Engineering Paper I	Civil Engineering Paper II
Mechanical Engineering Paper I	Mechanical Engineering Paper II
Electrical Engineering Paper I	Electrical Engineering Paper II
E & T Engineering Paper I	E & T Engineering Paper II

YEAR 2011:

Engineering Services Exam, 2011
General Ability Test
Objective Papers
Civil Engineering Paper I	Civil Engineering Paper II
Mechanical Engineering Paper I	Mechanical Engineering Paper II
Electrical Engineering Paper I	Electrical Engineering Paper II
E & T Engineering Paper I	E & T Engineering Paper II
Conventional Papers
Civil Engineering Paper I	Civil Engineering Paper II
Mechanical Engineering Paper I	Mechanical Engineering Paper II
Electrical Engineering Paper I	Electrical Engineering Paper II
E & T Engineering Paper I	E & T Engineering Paper II

PSU'S|Government Jobs Notifications| Employment News

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 09:32:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

DETAILS OF ALL PSU'S EXAMINATION:

FOR ENLARGE,CLICK ON THE IMAGE...

PSU’s Examination pattern

NOTE: Kindly review following details of different PSU’s examination, This site providing you following details as per the data available. But keep in mind pattern of PSU’s will be differ from one PSU to other as they have different projects and depending upon their current project they put their selection process.

TIPS & TRICKS to CRACK PSU’s Exams: 95% of the TECHNICAL Question will be basic in nature. We suggest all PSU’s preparing candidate must be focused on their core Technical subjects. As most of the questions are based upon formula and basic definition, so kindly prepare yourself or revise your classroom notesl before the examination. We tried our level best to suit these requirements, but don’t forget examination are sometime unpredictable as I we briefed you, recruitment process of any PSU’s are likely to follow their current projects for which they are going to conduct recruitment.

Always keep yourself on practice to Non-technical (General study + Aptitude + Reasoning + English Grammar + Vocabulary) section as they are very important in terms of Scoring higher marks.

Examination Pattern common to almost all PSU’s are like :

1. Technical paper normally consists 70-75% of the total question, which is normally: 90-120 Question
• Time duration: vary as per total number of questions. • Negative Marking: Vary from 1/4^th -1/3^rd

• Non-Technical : 30-35% of total questions ( include General knowledge , aptitude and English)

BARC:Candidates who do not opt for GATE or who do not qualify on the basis of GATE Score may take the Written Test. The written test is held in around the month of April or May every year.

IOCL : Age Limit :Maximum 26 years as on 30th June 2011 for the general category candidates. Age relaxation for OBC (Non Creamy Layer)/SC/ST/PH candidates will be applicable as per the Presidential Directive.
· On the basis of GATE-2011 score, the candidates will be short listed for further selection process comprising of:
1. Group Discussion / Group Task
Personal Interview for assessment of different facets of knowledge, skill, attitude and aptitude.

FOR ENLARGE,CLICK ON THE IMAGE... FOR ENLARGE,CLICK ON THE IMAGE...

Exam pattern/Solved Exam/Question Paper of GIC _Assistant manager Exam

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 06:18:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

The GIC Officers Exam Pattern comprises of following stages:

Stage I: Written Examination

Candidates who have submitted duly filled applications and who fulfill all the eligibility criteria are called for the objective type written examination that comprises of the following:

Test of Reasoning:20 marks
English Language:20 marks
General Awareness/Current Affairs:20 marks
Analytical ability:20 marks
Numerical/quantitative aptitude:20 marks
Professional Knowledge:50 marks

Stage II: Group Discussion and Interview

Only those candidates who pass the written examination are called for the Group discussion(20 marks) and Interview. (30 marks)

Total marks:200

Minimum qualifying marks in the written test –
60% for General & OBC and 50% for SC /ST.

Check Solved Question Paper of GIC here.

Solved Papers-GIC(General Insurance Corporation Of India)-Assistant Manager (Scale-I)

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 06:08:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
Below are some sample paper for the said exam. Though the level of difficulty may vary in the exam. However, the basis and the pattern will remain the same. As not many exam of Insurance have taken in the past so there no sure pattern, but believe me this question paper will have more or less same set of questions as below. We are also trying to chalk out more sample paper for other different section. They would be uploaded as soon as they are available. All the best and keep practicing. Hard and fast. And o remember that such exams are all about speed but speed should not come at the cost of accuracy.

General and Financial Awareness

(Held on 14-11-2010)

1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—

(A) 5%

(B) 5.5%

(C) 6%

(D) 6.5%

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—

(A) to give boost to bank deposits

(B) to safeguard banks advances

(C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature

(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—

(A) 50% under section 80G

(B) 75% under section 80G

(C) 100% under section 80 G

(D) 100% under section 88

(E) No exemption is available

Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?

(A) Disbursal of small value credit

(B) Collection of small value deposits

(C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products

(D) All the three above

(E) Only (B) and (C) above

Ans : (E)

5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—

(A) Rs. 3,000

(B) Rs. 5,000

(C) Rs. 10,000

(D) Rs. 15,000

(E) There is no such provision

Ans : (B)

6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—

(A) Sanction of loans

(B) Enhancement of loan limits

(C) Recovery of loans

(D) All the above

(E) None of above

Ans : (C)

7. MSMED Act is applicable to—

(A) Smalls enterprises only

(B) Medium enterprises only

(C) Micro enterprises only

(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises

(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity

Ans : (D)

8. Money Laundering refers to—

(A) Conversion of assets into cash

(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained

(C) Conversion of cash into gold

(D) Conversion of gold into cash

(E) None of the above

Ans : (B)

9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—

(A) one year

(B) one month

(C) two years

(D) five years

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

10. PPF account is opened for a period of—

(A) 5 years

(B) 10 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 20 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

11. Yuan is the currency of—

(A) Japan

(B) China

(C) Indonesia

(D) Myanmar

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—

(A) Six years

(B) Three years

(C) Six and half years

(D) Five years

(E) Five and half years

Ans : (A)

13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—

(A) 5 years

(B) 3 years

(C) 10 years

(D) 20 years

(E) Any number of years

Ans : (E)

14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—

(A) RBI

(B) SEBI

(C) FEDAI

(D) BCSBI

(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises

Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?

(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery

(B) No interest earning for banks

(C) Works like a normal withdrawal

(D) All the above

(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder

Ans : (E)

16. IFRS stands for—

(A) International Financial Reporting standards

(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards

(C) International Financial Rating Standards

(D) All the three above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (A)

17. What is the present Repo Rate ?

(A) 5%

(B) 5•5%

(C) 6%

(D) 6•5%

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—

(A) Derivatives

(B) Securitisation

(C) Leasing

(D) Factoring

(E) Venture Capital Funding

Ans : (A)

19. What is the full form of ASBA ?

(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount

(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount

(C) Application supported by Bank Amount

(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account

(E) None of the above

Ans : (B)

20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—

(A) Inject liquidity

(B) Absorb liquidity

(C) Increase the liquidity with banking system

(D) Keep the liquidity at one level

(E) None of the above

Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?

(A) A Highway project

(B) Construction of Educational Institution

(C) Construction of Hospital

(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines

(E) None of the above

Ans : (E)

22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Ministry of Finance

(C) Indian Banks Association

(D) Financial Action Task Force

(E) Ministry of Home affairs

Ans : (A)

23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—

(A) Power of a person

(B) An authority to operate a Bank account

(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person

(D) All of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?

(A) Rs. 50

(B) Rs. 100

(C) Rs. 200

(D) Rs. 500

(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank

Ans : (B)

25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Chennai

(C) Kolkata

(D) New Delhi

(E) All the above places

Ans : (D)

26. Bridge loans refer to—

(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges

(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers

(C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions

(D) All of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—

(A) Payee

(B) Holder

(C) Purchaser

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?

(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank

(B) The Deputy Governor RBI

(C) Governor of RBI

(D) Finance Minister

(E) None of the above

Ans : (B)

29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?

(A) To boost their lending capacity

(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms

(C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio

(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

30. What is monetary policy transmission ?

(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank

(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government

(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy

(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?

(A) Tightening of monetary policy

(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector

(C) Concessions for foreign investment

(D) Introduction of GST

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—

(A) Customer

(B) Members Establishments

(C) Banks

(D) All the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (D)

33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?

(A) RBI Act

(B) Banking Regulation Act

(C) Indian Companies Act

(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

34. Bancassurance is—

(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits

(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks

(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product

(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—

(A) Separate

(B) Small

(C) Special

(D) Savings

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?

(A) CIBIL

(B) SEBI

(C) RBI

(D) CRISIL

(E) IBA

Ans : (A)

37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—

(A) Personal Loans

(B) Priority Sector Loan

(C) Business Loan

(D) Corporate Loan

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?

(A) RBI

(B) SEBI

(C) NABARD

(D) IBA

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—

(A) Consumption loan

(B) White goods loan

(C) Consumer durable loan

(D) All the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?

(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas

(B) To provide employment to educated youth

(C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes

(D) To create more valuable rural assets

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Eight

(E) Six

Ans : (B)

42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?

(A) Retail Lending

(B) Corporate Lending

(C) SME Lending

(D) Supply Chain Finance

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

43. Expand the term FRBM—

(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management

(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management

(C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management

(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?

(A) 10 days

(B) 20 days

(C) 8 days

(D) 30 days

(E) 60 days

Ans : (D)

45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?

(A) Spain

(B) Turkey

(C) Portugal

(D) Greece

(E) Finland

Ans : (D)

46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?

(A) 2•0

(B) 2•5

(C) 3•0

(D) 4•0

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?

(A) China

(B) India

(C) Brazil

(D) Russia

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?

(A) UIDAI

(B) Sports Ministry, GOI

(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI

(D) NHAI

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?

1. Good Health Service

2. Freedom from illiteracy

3. Optimum Sex Ratio

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 1 and 2

(D) Only 3

(E) All 1, 2 and 3

Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?

(A) 4.0

(B) 4.5

(C) 5

(D) 3.33

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

*************************************************

Reasoning Ability

(Held on 9-5-2010)

1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ?

479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Ans : (C)

2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?

(A) North

(B) North-East

(C) South

(D) South-East

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow—

On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North.

(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.

(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B

(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.

(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.

3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?

(A) 120

(B) 150

(C) 170

(D) 230

Ans : (D)

4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?

(A) 53

(B) 78

(C) 92

(D) 120

Ans : (C)

5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) E

Ans : (A)

6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?

(A) North

(B) West

(C) South

(D) East

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.

7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)

(A) (8, 14, 22)

(B) (10, 15, 25)

(C) (6, 12, 23)

(D) (12, 17, 26)

Ans : (D)

8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)

(A) (4, 11, 14)

(B) (9, 12, 15)

(C) (8, 13, 18)

(D) (6, 9, 12)

Ans : (A)

9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)

(A) (21, 35, 52)

(B) (18, 42, 65)

(C) (16, 40, 72)

(D) (13, 30, 58)

Ans : (C)

10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)

(A) (84, 67, 52)

(B) (52, 25, 17)

(C) (70, 49, 36)

(D) (65, 45, 21)

Ans : (A)

11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)

(A) (233, 343, 345)

(B) (273, 365, 367)

(C) (143, 226, 237)

(D) (145, 235, 325)

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

12. (1) All books are having pages.

(2) All kings are having pages.

(3) All kings are books.

(4) Some heavy things are having pages.

(5) Some heavy things are books.

(6) Some books are heavy.

(7) Some heavy things are having pages.

(A) 1, 2, 3

(B) 6, 1, 4

(C) 4, 6, 1

(D) 1, 5, 7

Ans : (D)

13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.

(2) All cricket players are athletes.

(3) Some athletes play cricket.

(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.

(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.

(6) All athletes are vegetarians.

(A) 1, 2, 5

(B) 3, 4, 1

(C) 1, 5, 2

(D) 2, 5, 6

Ans : (A)

14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.

(2) No man is a grandmother.

(3) Some men do not cook well.

(4) All those who cook well are men.

(5) No one who cooks well is a man.

(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.

(7) Some men are not grandmothers.

(A) 2, 6, 5

(B) 2, 5, 6

(C) 1, 4, 2

(D) 6, 4, 7

Ans : (B)

15. (1) Looting is a crime.

(2) Some crooked people are criminals.

(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.

(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.

(5) All criminals are looked down in society.

(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.

(A) 1, 4, 6

(B) 3, 6, 2

(C) 1, 2, 6

(D) 3, 4, 2

Ans : (D)

16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.

(2) Some men are those who have patience.

(3) No man is a woman.

(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.

(5) Some who are successful in life are men.

(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.

(A) 1, 3, 6

(B) 4, 2, 6

(C) 1, 5, 3

(D) 2, 4, 5

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers—

(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question;

(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions;

(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question;

(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.

17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?

I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.

II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.

Ans : (C)

18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?

I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.

II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.

Ans : (B)

19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?

I. A is taller than C.

II. B is taller than C and D.

Ans : (C)

20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?

I. The month begins on Monday.

II. The month ends on Wednesday.

Ans : (D)

21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?

I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.

II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.

Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season.

II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.

III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only I and II are implicit

(C) Only II and III are implicit

(D) All are implicit

Ans : (D)

23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life.

Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.

II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.

III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment.

(A) Only I and II are implicit

(B) Only III is implicit

(C) Only I and III are implicit

(D) None is implicit

Ans : (A)

24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.

Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.

II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.

III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.

(A) All are implicit

(B) Only II and III are implicit

(C) Only I and II are implicit

(D) None is implicit

Ans : (C)

25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.

Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement.

II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.

III. People may come to see the product.

(A) All are implicit

(B) None is implicit

(C) Only II and III are implicit

(D) Only I and II are implicit

Ans : (A)

26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.

Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.

II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.

III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.

(A) All are implicit

(B) None is implicit

(C) Both II and III are implicit

(D) Both I and II are implicit

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under—

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If both I and II follows.

(D) Neither I nor II follows.

27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.

2. All machines are wheels.

Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.

II. All hands are wheels.

Ans : (B)

28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.

2. Some leaves are red.

Conclusions :

I. Some buds are red.

II. Some leaves are not buds.

Ans : (B)

29. Statements :

1. Some stones are shells.

2. All shells are pearls.

Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.

II. All pearls are shells.

Ans : (A)

30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.

2. Green is pink and yellow is red.

Conclusions :

I. Yellow is brown.

II. Pink is blue.

Ans : (C)

31. Statements :

1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.

2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.

Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.

II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.

Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689

Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689

Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689

Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689

Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689

Step IV is the last step of input.

32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?

(A) II

(B) III

(C) IV

(D) I

Ans : (B)

33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ?

Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857

(A) 5

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 6

Ans : (A)

34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?

Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358

(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358

(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358

(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358

(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358

Ans : (C)

35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ?

Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977

(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977

(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977

(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977

(D) Can’t be determined

Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?

Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549

(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549

(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549

(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549

(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it—

(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.

(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.

(3) The Manager D is married to A.

(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.

(5) B is the mother of F and E.

(6) There are two married couples in the family.

(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.

37. What is the profession of E ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Engineer

(C) Manager

(D) Psychologist

Ans : (B)

38. How is A related to E ?

(A) Brother

(B) Uncle

(C) Father

(D) Grandfather

Ans : (D)

39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?

(A) One

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Two

Ans : (B)

40. What is the profession of A ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Lawyer

(C) Jeweller

(D) Manager

Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?

(A) AB

(B) AC

(C) AD

(D) AE

Ans : (C)

42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Papaya

(B) Mango

(C) Jackfruit

(D) Watermelon

Ans : (C)

43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?

(A) SPEAK : PZVKH

(B) HUSKY : BPGFS

(C) BRAIN : MRZIY

(D) BREAK : PZVIY

Ans : (B)

44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ?

(A) DJWR

(B) EKXR

(C) KQDX

(D) AGTN

Ans : (A)

45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A) GWOURV

(B) LZKMSU

(C) SFXPMG

(D) JOEHNP

Ans : (C)

46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.

(A) Watt : Power

(B) Ampere : Current

(C) Pascal : Pressure

(D) Radian : Degree

Ans : (D)

47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ?

(A) ONLKI

(B) OMKIG

(C) OMJFA

(D) OIGDC

Ans : (C)

48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?

(A) E

(B) O

(C) T

(D) I

Ans : (D)

49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?

(A) 3

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 9

Ans : (C)

50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

(1) Dissipate

(2) Dissuade

(3) Disseminate

(4) Distract

(5) Dissociate

(6) Dissect

(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5

(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4

(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2

Ans : (A)

51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?

(A) SUXADF

(B) RVZDFG

(C) HKNGSW

(D) RVZDHL

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—

Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)

NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)

UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)

PIN (5) (10) (5)

PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)

OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)

ONE (0) (5) (0)

CUT (5) (10) (5)

SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)

DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)

52. VINA

(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)

(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)

(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)

(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)

Ans : (B)

53. AGE

(A) (0) (15) (0)

(B) (15) (15) (15)

(C) (0) (10) (10)

(D) (0) (5) (0)

Ans : (D)

54. PEAR

(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)

(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)

(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)

(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)

Ans : (A)

55. TIN

(A) (0) (5) (0)

(B) (5) (0) (5)

(C) (0) (10) (0)

(D) (5) (10) (5)

Ans : (D)

56. UNIT

(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)

(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)

(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)

(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)

Ans : (C)

57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Ans : (C)

58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 7

(D) 11

Ans : (B)

59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?

8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 4

Ans : (D)

60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?

645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans : (A)

********************************************

(Held on 9-5-2010)

1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?

(A) Barnard’s Star

(B) Sirius A

(D) Proxima Centauri

Ans : (D)

2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—

(A) 5•8%

(B) 4•5%

(D) 1•2%

Ans : (C)

3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—

(A) Chess

(B) Hockey

(D) Bridge

Ans : (A)

4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—

(A) Orissa

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Karnataka

Ans : (D)

5. Balance of Payments means—

(A) Difference between export and imports

(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters

(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States

Ans : (A)

6. A light year is equivalent to about—

(A) 365 days

(B) Six million miles

(C) Six billion miles

(D) Six trillion miles

Ans : (D)

7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—

(A) Slovakia

(B) Scandinavia

(C) Netherlands

(D) Australasia

Ans : (B)

8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—

(A) Sonar

(B) Radar

(C) Laser

(D) Maser

Ans : (A)

9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ?

(A) 376

(B) 370

(C) 368

(D) 390

Ans : (C)

10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?

(A) Dawn

(B) Deluxe

(C) Demor

(D) Dewey

Ans : (D)

11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—

(A) N. R. Finsen

(B) T. A. Edison

(C) J. L. Baird

(D) Berliner

Ans : (B)

12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?

(A) Love

(B) Peace

(C) Prophecy

(D) Medicine

Ans : (C)

13. NASA’s new space telescope is—

(A) Wise

(B) Rise

(C) Barack

(D) Telle

Ans : (A)

14. Bull fighting is the national game of—

(A) Italy

(B) Poland

(C) Spain

(D) Sudan

Ans : (C)

15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ?

(A) Sound of Hills

(B) Sparsh Ganga

(C) Heaven

(D) Amrit

Ans : (B)

16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?

(A) Ela Bhatt

(B) Jhumpa Lahiri

(C) Punam Suri

(D) Mandakni Apte

Ans : (A)

17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?

(A) February 28

(B) February 21

(C) February 11

(D) February 4

Ans : (D)

18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called—

(A) Bali

(B) Vidatha

(C) Varman

(D) Kara

Ans : (B)

19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—

(A) Red blood cells

(B) Neutrophils

(C) Lymphocytes

(D) Platelets

Ans : (C)

20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—

(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol

(B) Hyper text transfer protocol

(C) Higher transfer text protocol

(D) Higher text transfer protocol

Ans : (B)

***************************************************

(Held on 6-6-2010)

1. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of—

(A) 13th Plan

(B) 14th Plan

(D) 16th Plan

Ans : (A)

2. Bollywood actors who, on February 2, 2010 rang bells in NASDAQ on Time Square, New York—an honour usually reserved for CEOs of major corporations, are—

(A) Amir Khan and Priyanka Chopra

(B) Shah Rukh Khan and Kajol

(D) Saif Ali Khan and Kareena Kapoor

Ans : (B)

3. The term ‘16 yards hit’ is associated with—

(A) Badminton

(B) Baseball

(D) Hockey

Ans : (D)

4. The vital constituent of blood that helps in clotting is—

(A) Platelets

(B) Haemoglobin

(D) Serum

Ans : (A)

5. Which of the following animals can hear ultrasonic sound ?

(A) Cat

(B) Rat

(D) Squirrel

Ans : (C)

6. The acid rain destroys vegetations because it contains—

(A) Sulphuric acid

(B) Ozone

(C) Carbon monoxide

(D) Nitric acid

Ans : (A)

7. Man Booker Prize winner Ms. Kiran Desai’s novel, ‘The Inheritance of Loss’ deals with—

(A) Telangana movement

(B) Santhal movement

(C) Gorkhaland movement

(D) Bodoland movement

Ans : (C)

8. GARC is the acronym for—

(A) Global Automotive Research Consortium

(B) Global Atomic Research Consortium

(C) Global Automotive Research Centre

(D) Global Advancement Research Centre

Ans : (C)

9. The largest fresh water lake, ‘Lake Superior’ is located in—

(A) Canada

(B) Russia

(C) Tanzania

(D) Argentina

Ans : (A)

10. In which State of India is the largest river island Majuli ?

(A) Assam

(B) Kolkata

(C) Orissa

(D) M.P.

Ans : (A)

11. Match the following—

(a) Berlin, Germany

(b) Ankara, Turkey

(c) Bristol, UK

(d) Budapest, Hungary

1. Danube

2. Kizil

3. Spree

4. Avon

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 4 3 1 2

(C) 1 4 2 3

(D) 3 2 4 1

Ans : (D)

12. Government’s ambitious UID Project has been renamed—

(A) Parichaya

(B) Pahchan

(C) Aadhar

(D) Aanklan

Ans : (C)

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Speaking for Myself’ ?

(A) Salman Rushdie

(B) Cherie Blair

(C) Mohammad Hanif

(D) Hillary Clinton

Ans : (B)

14. The name of India’s first homebuilt stealth warship whose features reduce the probability of being detected at sea is—

(A) Sahyadiri

(B) Satpura

(C) Shivalik

(D) Shivaji

Ans : (C)

15. Which country will host the 17th SAARC summit ?

(A) Bangladesh

(B) Nepal

(C) Shri Lanka

(D) Maldives

Ans : (D)

16. India’s Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is seated at the ……… spot in the leaders’ list of 100 most influential persons of the world realeased by the famous Time Magazine recently.

(A) 15

(B) 19

(C) 23

(D) 27

Ans : (B)

17. The Islam was established in—

(A) 5th A.D.

(B) 7th A.D.

(C) 3rd B.C.

(D) 5th B.C.

Ans : (B)

18. Which part of the human body is highly affected by the nuclear radiation first ?

(A) Bone marrow

(B) Skin

(C) Lungs

(D) Eyes

Ans : (B)

19. Who invented the video-tape ?

(A) Charles Ginsberg

(B) Georges de Mestral

(C) Richard James

(D) P. T. Farnsworth

Ans : (A)

20. Match the following—

(a) NH–1

(b) NH–3

(c) NH–5

(d) NH–7

1. Varanasi–Kanyakumari

2. Kolkata–Chennai

3. New Delhi–Amritsar

4. Agra–Mumbai

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 3 4 2 1

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (B)

******************************************

1. Which of the following is a General Insurance Company functioning in India ?

(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India

(B) ICICI Prudential

(D) United India Insurance Company

(E) All are General Insurance Companies

Ans : (D)

2. Who amongst the following is the Regulator of Insurance sector in India ?

(A) RBI

(B) AMFI

(D) SEBI

(E) All of these

Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following terms is NOT used in insurance sector ?

(A) Indemnity

(B) Coverage

(D) Casualty

(E) Annuity

Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following Public Sector companies/organizations provides insurance cover to exporters ?

(A) ECGC

(B) NABARD

(C) SIDBI

(D) IRDA

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

5. The main feature of the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme is to insure which of the following?

(A) Life of the farmer

(B) Crop of the farmer

(C) Animals who are used in agricultural activities

(D) Land of the farmer

(E) Both Land and family of the farmer

Ans : (B)

6. In which one of the following States was the first UID card issued ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Manipur

(C) Assam

(D) West Bengal

(E) Maharashtra

Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following books is written by Anita Desai ?

(A) Magic Seeds

(B) The Village by the Sea

(C) A Bend in the River

(D) My God Died Young

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

8. Expand the term MGNREGA—

(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

(B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

(C) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Generation Act

(D) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Generation Agency

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

9. Which of the following terms is used in the field of finance and banking?

(A) Elasticity

(B) Inflation

(C) Pulse Rate

(D) Hot waves

(E) Plasma

Ans : (B)

10. With which one of the following sports, Saina Nehwal is associated ?

(A) Chess

(B) Badminton

(C) Long Jump

(D) Lawn Tennis

(E) Table Tennis

Ans : (B)

11. Which one of the following States has passed a bill to regulate the interest rates on micro-finance ?

(A) Odisha

(B) Haryana

(C) Karnataka

(D) Kerala

(E) Andhra Pradesh

Ans : (E)

12. Which of the following rates are reviewed by the RBI at the time of periodical review of the policy ?

(a) Bank Rate

(b) Repo Rate

(c) Savings Bank Rate

(A) Only (a)

(B) Only (b)

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) All (a), (b) and (c)

(E) Only (c)

Ans : (D)

13. Which one of the following is not included in TAPI gas project ?

(A) Turkmenistan

(B) Pakistan

(C) Afghanistan

(D) India

(E) Iran

Ans : (E)

14. Which one of the following States has passed a legislation to confiscate the property of corrupt officials and to open schools in these properties ?

(A) West Bengal

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Bihar

(D) Rajasthan

(E) Haryana

Ans : (C)

15. Brihadeeswara Temple has recently celebrated its millennium birthday. In which of the following States is it located ?

(A) Karnataka

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Kerala

(D) Odisha

(E) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (E)

16. In which one of the following States, Jaitapur Nuclear Power plant is proposed to be set up ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Haryana

(C) Odisha

(D) Karnataka

(E) Maharashtra

Ans : (E)

17. According to Planning Commission, in how many years shall the per capita income in India become double ?

(A) Nine

(B) Five

(C) Seven

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

18. Expand the term IFRS.

(A) Indian Financial Reporting Standards

(B) Indian Financial Reporting Systems

(C) International Financial Reporting Standards

(D) International Financial Reporting Systems

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

19. Who is Liu Xiaobo ?

(A) North Korean dissident, who has been awarded Nobel peace prize

(B) Chinese citizen, who has been awarded Nobel peace prize

(C) North Korean dissident, who has been awarded Nobel literature prize

(D) Sportsman who was awarded maximum 8 Gold medals in Commonwealth

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

20. Who is Hardeep Puri ?

(A) India’s permanent representative at UN

(B) Vice President, IMF

(C) Vice President, World Bank

(D) India’s ambassador in USA

(E) India’s ambassador in UK

Ans : (A)

21. With which one of the following games is Ishant Sharma associated ?

(A) Chess

(B) Badminton

(C) Table Tennis

(D) Volley Ball

(E) Cricket

Ans : (E)

22. With which one of the following games, France’s Zinedine Zidane is associated ?

(A) Hockey

(B) Football

(C) Snooker

(D) Volley Ball

(E) Base Ball

Ans : (B)

23. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries was second largest importer of goods and services in the world during year 2009-10 ?

(A) China

(B) USA

(C) Japan

(D) Russia

(E) India

Ans : (E)

24. According to RBI governor, which one of the following is the challenge in its monetary policy ?

(A) Inflation

(B) Inflation and Supportive recovery

(C) Inflation and fiscal deficit

(D) Inflation and high cost of imports

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

25. Which one of the following Public Sector Organisations has offered largest ever equity offer ?

(A) SAIL

(B) Coal India

(C) Power Grid

(D) Shipping Corporation of India

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

26. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ?

(a) IPO only

(b) FPO only

(c) Commercial papers

(A) Only (a) and (b)

(B) All (a), (b) and (c)

(C) Only (a) and (c)

(D) Only (a)

(E) Only (c)

Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. want Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs ?

(A) To reduce liquidity in the market

(B) It is as per Basel II requirements

(C) It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives

(D) It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

28. In the financial year 2009-10, which one of the following Banks has made highest Total dividend Payout ?

(A) SBI

(B) PNB

(C) Bank of India

(D) Canara Bank

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

29. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for import of crude oil ?

(A) Iran

(B) Iraq

(C) Kuwait

(D) Sudan

(E) U.A.E.

Ans : (A)

30. Through which one of the following methods, RBI has allowed Indian companies to hedge exchange rate risks associated with trade transactions ?

(A) Forwards

(B) FRA

(C) Swaps

(D) Currency options

(E) Cross currency options

Ans : (D)

31. Which of the following books is written by V. S. Naipaul ?

(A) A Handful of Dust

(B) A House for Mr. Biswas

(C) A Passage to India

(D) Darkness at Noon

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

32. With which one of the following countries, India has signed agreement to build Multi Model Transit Transport Project ?

(A) Bangladesh

(B) Myanmar

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Nepal

(E) Maldives

Ans : (B)

33. Which one of the following countries is Number One Country in terms of Purchasing Power ?

(A) USA

(B) Germany

(C) China

(D) South Korea

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

34. Which one of the following directions has been given by Government to Civic bodies ?

(A) They must use 70 per cent of the funds for BPL families

(B) They must use 70 per cent of the funds for the poor living within their jurisdiction

(C) They must use 25 per cent of the funds for BPL families

(D) They must use 25 per cent of the funds for the poor living within their jurisdiction

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

35. On which one of the following issues a group of business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed concern ?

(A) E-Governance

(B) Governance

(C) Fiscal deficit

(D) Governance deficit

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

36. ‘Yuan’ is the currency of which one of the following countries ?

(A) Japan

(B) South Korea

(C) North Korea

(D) Taiwan

(E) China

Ans : (E)

37. Which one of the following is a leading power in 17 nation Euro Region ?

(A) Germany

(B) France

(C) Norway

(D) Greece

(E) Portugal

Ans : (A)

38. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks ?

(A) Fixed rate of interest charged by banks

(B) Floating rate of interest charged by banks

(C) Rate of interest in the initial period is less and goes up subsequently

(D) Rate of interest in the initial period is more and it goes down subsequently

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

39. Expand the term FSDC which is used in financial sectors ?

(A) Financial Security and Development Council

(B) Financial Stability and Development Council

(C) Fiscal Security and Development Council

(D) Fiscal Stability and Development Council

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

40. According to the 8th Annual Global Retail Development Index (GRDI), which one of the following countries is ‘most attractive’ retail market in the world ?

(A) China

(B) India

(C) UAE

(D) Saudi Arabia

(E) Japan

Ans : (B)

41. Govt.’s ‘Food-for-work’ programme means—

(A) to pay in kind to work and build rural infrastructure

(B) supplying balanced diet to workers in rural areas

(C) no-work-no-pay principle

(D) ensuring enough food to rural worker-households

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

42. The insurance companies collect a fixed amount from its customers at a fixed interval of time. What

is it called ?

(A) Instalment

(B) Contribution

(C) Premium

(D) EMI

(E) Service Charge

Ans : (A)

43. Which of the following is/are the various types of insurance ?

(a) Life Insurance

(b) Health Insurance

(c) Liability Insurance

(A) Only (a)

(B) Only (b)

(C) Only (c)

(D) All (a), (b) and (c)

(E) Only (a) and (b)

Ans : (D)

44. What is the full form of ‘ESOPs’ as seen in financial newspapers ?

(A) Employee Stock Ownership Plan

(B) Executive Salary Options

(C) Emergency Stock Operations

(D) Early Sales Opportunities

(E) Executive Stock Ownership

Ans : (A)

45. Who are considered Super Senior Citizen as per budget 2011-12 ? Those who have completed a minimum age of—

(A) 65 years

(B) 70 years

(C) 75 years

(D) 80 years

(E) 90 years

Ans : (D)

46. Pohang Steel Company (POSCO) is a company originally based in—

(A) China

(B) Vietnam

(C) USA

(D) Italy

(E) South Korea

Ans : (E)

47. As per the revised data released by the Central Statistical Organisation, the GDP growth in 2010 has been at which of the following levels ?

(A) 6%

(B) 6•5%

(C) 8%

(D) 7•5%

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

48. Who amongst the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan recently (2011) ?

(A) Kumar Mangalam Birla

(B) Harbhajan Singh

(C) Nirupama Rao

(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(E) Saina Nehwal

Ans : (D)

49. Annual meeting of World Economic Forum was organized in January 2011 in which of the following cities ?

(A) Davos

(B) Milan

(C) Tokyo

(D) London

(E) Lisbon

Ans : (A)

50. India recently signed a deal on the sharing of Teesta and Feni river waters. This agreement is signed with which of the following countries ?

(A) Nepal

(B) China

(C) Pakistan

(D) Bangladesh

(E) Bhutan

Ans : (D)

*************************************************

1. What is Siam now known as ?

(A) Laos

(B) Thailand

(D) Cambodia

Ans : (B)

2. The correct group of cities, through which National Highway No. 8 passes is—

(A) Bikaner, Ajmer, Kota

(B) Jodhpur, Jaipur, Bikaner

(D) Jaipur, Pune, Udaipur

Ans : (C)

3. Through its power of judicial review, the Supreme Court ensures—

(A) Judicial Supremacy

(B) A democrtic government in the country

(D) That Parliament Sovereignty is curbed

Ans : (D)

4. Which unit of valuation is known as ‘Paper Gold’ ?

(A) Petrodollar

(B) SDR

(C) Eurodollar

(D) GDR

Ans : (B)

5. What is the playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem ?

(A) 47 seconds

(B) 50 seconds

(C) 52 seconds

(D) 60 seconds

Ans : (C)

6. When was Barack Obama sworn in as the 44th President of U.S.A. ?

(A) January 15, 2009

(B) January 20, 2009

(C) January 25, 2009

(D) January 30, 2009

Ans : (B)

7. The Movie ‘Slumdog Millionaire’ is based on a novel ‘Q and A’ written by an Indian—

(A) Khuswant Singh

(B) Khalid Mohammad

(C) Sabarjit Singh

(D) Vikas Swarup

Ans : (D)

8. Who has been appointed the first Director-General of the ‘National Investigation Agency (NIA)’ ?

(A) P. S. Sharma

(B) A. Gopalswami

(C) Radha Vinod Raju

(D) K. C. Verma

Ans : (C)

9. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, can the President of India withhold his assent to a Bill passed by both the houses of Parliament ?

(A) Article, 100

(B) Article, 111

(C) Article, 200

(D) Article, 222

Ans : (B)

10. Which language is spoken by the people of Tripura ?

(A) Bengali

(B) Telugu

(C) Assamese

(D) Malayalam

Ans : (A)

11. Surya Shekhar Ganguly is a player of—

(A) Chess

(B) Cricket

(C) Golf

(D) Hockey

Ans : (A)

12. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?

1. To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals

2. To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities

3. To attract foreign investment directly

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3 all

Ans : (C)

13. With which is ‘Uro Cup’ associated ?

(A) Cricket

(B) Football

(C) Polo

(D) Wrestling

Ans : (B)

14. World Environment Day is on—

(A) June, 5

(B) June, 11

(C) June, 17

(D) June, 30

Ans : (A)

15. Which rock-shelter in India bears largest number of paintings ?

(A) Adamgarh

(B) Bhimbetka

(C) Ghagharia

(D) Lekhia

Ans : (B)

16. Heat received by earth from the sun is known as—

(A) Isolation

(B) Solar heat

(C) Solar radiation

(D) Thermal radiation

Ans : (A)

17. Who invented Coronograph which allowed the study of the sun without waiting for a total solar eclipse ?

(A) Donald Menzel

(B) Pierre Jenseen

(C) John Evershed

(D) Bernard Lyot

Ans : (D)

18. Who wrote ‘The Structure of the Universe’, giving in detail the origin of the universe and its present status, among other things ?

(A) Robert Jastrow

(B) S. Chandrashekhar

(C) Jayant V. Narlikar

(D) Carl Sagan

Ans : (C)

19. Name the Sri Lankan town which has been the Tamil Tiger’s administrative and political headquarters and has been captured by the army recently ?

(A) Kandy

(B) Jaffana

(C) Kilinochchi

(D) Mullaithivu

Ans : (C)

20. Which committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under Section, 88 ?

(A) Kelkar Committee

(B) Rangarajan Committee

(C) Chelliah Committee

(D) Shome Committee

Ans : (D)

*******************************

Reasoning Ability

Directions—(Q. 1—5) In the following questions, the symbols +, -,x

÷ and = are used with the following meanings

A + B means A is greater than B;

A – B means A is greater than or equal to B;

A x B means A is equal to B;

A ÷ B means A is smaller than B; and

A = B means A is smaller than or equal to B.

For each question you have to assume given statements to be true and then decide which of the two given conclusions is are definitely true. Give answer

(A) If only conclusion I is true;

(B) If only conclusion II is true;

(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

1. Statements:

D=S, N + V, D x R, R + V

Conclusions: I. S + V

II D+N

2. Statements:

K x P, M + J, C÷ P, K = M

Conclusions: I. M + P

II. M x P

3. Statements:

L – R, N x M, L ÷ M, N = P

Conclusions: I. M + R

II. R+P

4.Statements:

W + K, S = Z, X – W, S x K

Conclusions: I. K x Z

II. X÷K

5. Statements:

P ÷ Q, W – N, P — N, T + W

Conclusions: I. P x W

II. Q÷W

Directions—(Q. 6—10) There are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II , III and IV. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) .

6. Statements:

Some songs are throngs.

Some throngs are longs.

Conclusions:

I. Some songs are longs.

II. No songs are longs.

III. Only longs are songs.

IV Only songs are longs.

(A) Only I Follows

(B) Only III follows

(D) Either III or IV follows

7. Statements:

Some charts are darts.

All darts are carts.

Some carts are smarts.

Conclusions:

I. Some charts are carts.

II. Some carts are darts.

Ill. Some darts are smarts.

IV. Some smarts are charts.

(A) Only I and II follow

(B) Only I and III follow

(D) Only I, III and IV follow

8. Statements:

All blanks are beams.

All bridges are beams.

All bridges are cows.

Conclusions:

I. Some cows are beams.

II. Some blanks are cows.

III. Some blanks are bridges.

IV. Some bridges are not cows.

(A) Only I follows

(B) Only II follows

(D) None follow

9. Statements:

Some Chinese are not Russians.

All Russians are Africans.

Some Africans are Indians.

Conclusions:

I. Some Chinese are not Africans.

II. Some Chinese are not Indians.

Ill. All Russians are Indians.

IV. Some Indians are Chinese.

(A) Only II follows

(B) Only III follows

(D) Either II or IV follows

10. Statements:

All chalks are cheese.

No cheese are ships.

Some herds are ships.

Conclusions:

I. Some herds are not chalks.

II. Some herds are cheese.

Ill. Some cheese are not herds.

IV. No chalk is a ship.

(A) I, II and IV follow

(B) Either II or III and IV follows

(D) II and IV follow

Directions—(Q. 11—15) A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular logic. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement?

Input: CRI END YAM STU THE

StepI:YAM THE CRI END STE

StepII:YAM THE STE END CRI

Step III:STU CRI YAM THE END

Step IV;STU CRI END THE YAM

Study the logic and answer questions

11. If step VII of an input is ‘OVER THE PRE NEW BONE’ what is

the step IV of that input?

(A) BONE THE PRE OVERNEW

(B) THE PRE BONE NEW OVER

(D) PRE BONE THE OVER NEW

12. Given the following input— SYM REACH LAD PHOTO CAL

what step will the following arrangement?

REACH LAD PHOTO SYM CAL

(A) VI

(B) V

(D) III

13. If Step VI of a given input be ‘MAP IND PAK RUS ENG’, what would be the input?

(A) IND MAP PAK RUS ENG

(B) IND MAP ENG RUS PAK

(D) RUS MAP IND ENG PAK

14. Given the following input, what would be Step VIII of the input?

Input : BANK CRIS ATTRACT WITH PRIZE

(A) PRIZE WITH CRIS ATTRACT BANK

(B) CRIS BANK PRIZE WITH ATTRACT

(D) CR15 BANK ATTRACT WITH PRIZE

15. In which step will we get the same arrangement as the input?

(A) VIII

(B) IX

(C)X

(D)XI

Directions—(Q. 16—20) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I II and III. You have to consider the statement and the assumption, and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Then decide which one of the answers, (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct.

16. Statement : Considering the tickets sold during the last seven days, the circus authorities decided to continue the show for another fortnight which includes two weekends.

Assumptions:

I. People may not turn up on weekdays.

II. The average number of people who will be visiting circus will be more or less the same as that of the last seven days.

III. There may not be enough responses at other places.

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only II is implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

17. Statement : The telephone company informed the subscribers through a notification that those who do not pay their bills by the due date will be charged penalty for every defaulting day.

Assumptions:

I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by the due date to avoid penalty.

II. The money collected as penalty may set off the losses due to delayed payment.

III. People generally pay heed to such notices.

(A) Only I and II are implicit

(B) Only II and III are implicit

(D) All are implicit

18. Statement The national air carrier has decided to start a weekly air service from town ‘A’ to town ‘B’.

Assumptions:

I. There will be enough passengers to make the operation economically viable.

II. Other carriers may not start such service.

III The people staying around these towns can afford the cost of air travel.

(A) Only I is implicit

(B) Both II and III are implicit

(D) ALL are implicit

19. Statement : A group of friends decided to go for a picnic to Dum Duma Lake during the next holiday season to avoid crowd of people.

Assumptions:

I. Generally many people do not go to Dum Duma Lake.

II. People prefer other spots to Dum Duma Lake.

III. Many people do not know about Dum Duma Lake.

(A) Only I is implicit

(B) Only II is implicit

(D) All are implicit

20. Statement : “Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession”—Advertisement.

Assumptions:

I. Flats are available in court

II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.

Ill. It is a practice to give such an advertisement.

(A) Only I and II are implicit

(B) Only II is implicit

(D) All are implicit

21. pq—rqp—qrrq—p—rrqpp—r

(A) rqpqr

(B) qprrq

(D) rppqq

22. nnt—qqn—tt—qnn—tq-.

(A) nnqtq

(B) qntnq

(D) ttqtq

Directions(Q. 23 and 24)

P + Q means P is the brother of Q

P – Q means P is the sister of Q

P x Q means P is the father of Q

P ÷ Q means P is the mother of

23. A÷B-C x D,

then A is D

(A) Sister

(B) Aunt

(D) Grandmother

24. Which of the following shows that V is the grandmother of Y?

(A) VxR+KVY

(B) V÷RxK-Y

(D) VxR-K÷Y

25. How many pairs of letters are there in the word STRAIGHT FORWARD which have numbers of letters between them in the word equal to the number of letters between them in English alphabet?

(A)4

(B)5

(D)7

26. Milk: Butter

(A) Banana : Fruit

(B) Juice : Health

(D) Chili Spices

27. Hat : Headwear

(A) Shark : Fish

(B) Crocodile : Terrapin

(D) Glove: Hand

28. Horse : Cow

(A) Milk: Ice-cream

(B) Mars : Moon

(D) Pink: Blue

29. Hair : Head

(A) Teeth : Mouth

(B) Tea-leaves : Mountain slopes

(D) Footpath : Road

30. Fore: Hind

(A) Sky:Space

(B) Land:Sea

(D) Face:Neck

Directions—(Q. 31—35) Read the following information to answer the questions— A, B, C, D and E are sons of P, Q ,R, S and T but not in the same order.

Match the right mother and son on the basis of the information given below—

Q is not B’s or C mother.

A’s or Es mother is not T.

C is not R’s son.

E is not Q’s or S’s son and his mother’s name does not start with the letter ‘R’.

A’s mother is not Q or R

31. Who is S’s son?

(A)A

(B)B

(C)C

(D)D

32. Who is C mother?

(A)P

(B)R

(C)S

(D)T

33. Who is Q’s son?

(A)A

(B)D

(C)B

(D)E

34. Who is P’s son?

(A)B

(B)C

(C)D

(D)E

35. Who is son of R ?

(A)E

(B)A

(C)B

(D)D

Lflrections—(Q. 36-40) In each of the following number series, two terms are put within brackets. Mark in the answer-sheet—

(A) If both the bracketed terms are right;

(B) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong;

(D) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.

36. 5, 17, (30), 73, 129, (225)

37. 11, 29, (55), 89, (131), 181

38. 3, 12, 28, 32, (42), (57), 61, 70, 86

39. 2,3,6, (11), 18, (27), 38

40. 4, 14, (18), (24), 31, 36, 38, 48, 53

Directions—(Q. 41-45 )Choose the odd one.

41.

(A) YNHIA

(B) SGRFI

(D) FHUJU

42.

(A) PROUD

(B) DRIVER

(D) TRAIN

43.

(A) CXHIA

(B) RCFCL

(D) CPRSV

44.

(A) JOT

(B) OUT

(D)DIN

45. (A) HR

(B) GT

(D) FU

Directions—(Q. 46-49) Read the following information and answer the questions given below it. If ranks of five candidates P, Q ,R S and T are arranged in ascending order of their marks in Numerical Ability, T is the fourth and S is the first. When they are arranged in the ascending order of marks in General Awareness, P takes the place of T and T takes the place of Q. R’s position remains the same in both the arrangements. Q’s marks are lowest in one test and highest in the other test. P has more marks than R in Numerical Ability.

46. Who has secured the highest marks in General Awareness?

(A)Q

(B)T

(C)S

(D)R

47. Who has secured the highest marks in Numerical Ability?

(A)S

(B)R

(C)P

(D)Q

48. Which of the following groups of candidates has improvement in rank in General Awareness as compared to that in Numerical Ability?

(A) SPT

(B) PSR

(D) SPQ

49. Whose marks in General Awareness are more than R’s marks in General Awareness?

(A) Only P’s

(B)P’s, Q’s and S’s

(D) P’s, Q’s and T’s

50. In a certain code CAMEL is written as XPOGT and RABBITS as YPUULFZ. How can AIRMAIL be written in that code?

(A) PIYOPLT

(B) PLYOPTL

(D) PLYOPLT

Answers:

1	A
2	C
3	A
4	B
5	D
6	C
7	A
8	D
9	D
10	B
11	C
12	B
13	D
14	C
15	C
16	B
17	D
18	C
19	D
20	A
21	D
22	C
23	D
24	B
25	C
26	C
27	D
28	B
29	A
30	C
31	A
32	D
33	B
34	D
35	C
36	C
37	A
38	C
39	A
40	D
41	D
42	B
43	C
44	B
45	A
46	B
47	D
48	A
49	C
50	D

******************************************

1. Which of the following is not the

name of an Insurance Scheme

launched by the Government of

India

(A) ]anashree Bima Yojana

(B) Krishi Shramik Sarnajik

Suraksha Yojana

(D) Varsha Bima Yojana

(E) National Saving Scheme

Programme

Answer.D

2. Which of the following insurance

companies writes its punch

line in the advertisements

”Insurance is the subject matter

of solicitation” ?

(A) CIC

(B) LIC

Co.

(D) Tata AIG Life Insurance Co.

(E) None of these

Answer.B

3. How much Foreign Institutional

Investment is allowed in

insurance sector at present

(A) 20%

(B) 46%

(D) 63%

(E) None of these

Answer.E

4. How many public sector companies in India are in Insurance

Business

(A) Only one

(B) Two

(D) Four

(E) More than ten

Answer.A

5. Which of the following was the

parent company of New India

Assurance ?

(A) LIC

(B) GIC

(D) United India Insurance

(E) None of these

Answer.B

6. Which of the following organizations of the workers of unorganized sector has adopted an insurance scheme for all its workers and has become a model organization for the workers of the unorganized sector ?

(A) SERC

(B) SEWA

(D) SEBI

(E) MTNL

Answer.B

7. Which of the following projects

of the ISRO was recently insured

by the New India Assurance

Company ?

(A) MATSAT-II

(B) Aryabhatt

(D) Chandrayaan

(E) lNSAT—2E

Answer.C

8. Which of t.he following industrial

groups of India is Not in any

type of Insurance Business in

India 7

(A) Tatas

(B) Birlas

(C)‘ Iaipurias

(D) Mahindras

(E) All are in Insurance Business

Answer.C

9. Which of the following words/

terms is closely associated with

the insurance business

(A) Archives

(B) Donation

(D) Quest

(E) All are associated with

insurance

Answer.C

10. Which of the following is the

abbreviated name of the agency /

organization which is the regulator of insurance business in

India ?

(A) NHB

(B) IRDA

(D) IDFC

(E) ICRISAT

Answer.B

ll. Insurance services are normally

not provided for which of the

following?

(A) Health

(B) Life

(D) House & Property

(E) It is available for all

Answer.C

12. The New India Assurance Company was established in 1919

(A) Dorab Tata

(B) G. D. Birla

(D) Kamlapat Singhania

(E) None of these

Answer.A

13. Which of the following is largest

Non Life Insurance Company in

India ?

(A) ICICI Lombard General

Insurance Company Ltd.

(B) United India Insurance

Company Ltd.

Ltd.

(D). New India Assurance Company Ltd.

(E) None of these

Answer.D

14. Ramesh Pokhriyal has taken over

as the new-

(A) Chief Minister of Chhattis-

garh

(B) Chief Minister of Uttara-

khand

(D) Governor of Uttarakhand

(E) Governor of Chhattisgarh

Answer.B

15. As per the announcement made

by the Govt. of India, which of

the following organizations is

set up by it for a very specific

purpose of providing a personal

identity card to all its citizens ?

(A) National Remote Sensing

Agency

(B) Unique Identification

Authority of India (UIA)

(D) Trade Development Authority

(E) People’s Union for Civil

Liberties

Answer.B

16. Which of the following Insurance

Companies was launched with

NABARD as one of its promoter”s with 30% stake in it ?

(A) General Insurance Corpora-

tion Ltd.

(B) National Insurance Corn-

pany Ltd.

pany Ltd,

(D) SBI Life Insurance Company

Ltd.

(E) None of these

Answer.A

17. Who amongst the following is

new Foreign Secretary of India 7

(A) Nirupama Rao

(B) Goolarn E. Vahanvati

(D) Naveen Chawla

(E) None of these

Answer.A

18. Which of the following correctly

describes what the ’Bancass-

urance’ is

1. It is an arrangement where-

by the branches of a bank

sell / distribute insurance

products of an insurance

company.

2. It is a new product devel-

oped/ launched by the banks

in which the risks of the

high value customers are

covered for any losses to

their property and/or lives

through an insurance cover.

3, It is a new product launched

by some banks by which

they are providing insurance

cover to exporters/ impor-

ters for the losses, if any due

to high fluctuations in the

exchange rates of dollars

and other major currencies.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only2

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) None of these

Answer.A

19, Which of the following is the

abbreviated name of the organizations which provides credit

guarantee to exporters ?

(A) FICCI

(B) NABARD

(D) ECGC

(E) SEBI

Answer.D

20. The Railway Budget 2009-10 was

presented in the Lok Sabha (in

Iuly 2009) by

(A) Lalu Prasad Yadav

(B) Kapil Sibal

(D) Mamata Banerjee

(E) Pranab Mukherjee

Answer.D

21. ‘Satyam’ the well known company which has been i.n the news

in recent past, is now known

with its new name as—

(A) Mahindra Satyarn

(B) Birla Satyam

(D) Tata Satyam

(E) None of these

Answer.A

22. The Economic Survey which was

presented in the Lok Sabha in

]uly 2009, was the survey for the

year/ period of—

(A) 2007-08

(B) 2008—09

(D) Tenth five year plan

(E) None of these

Answer.B

23. The Government of India has

recently decided to allow about

2,200 items to come to Indian

markets with a tag of ‘Duty Free

Items} These items are imported

from

(A) China

(B) Singapore

(D) Nepal

(E) Pakistan

Answer.B

24. Who amongst the following is

not one of the HFA Award

winners of 2009 ? (Under any one

of the categories).

(A) Priyanka Chopra

(B) Asin

(D) Karishma Kapoor

(E) Hrithik Roshan

Answer.D

25. Saina Nehwal is a famous—

(A) Badminton player

(B) Table Tennis Player

(D) Hockey Player

(E) Chess Player

Answer.A

26. ’No Tobacco Day’ is observed

every year on——

(A) lst May

(B) lst ]une

(D) 30th june

(E) None of these

Answer.C

27, India has recently appointed a

new Attorney General. Attorney

Generals are advisers to the

Government of India in-

(A) Defence related matters

(B) Diplomatic matters

(D) Financial matters

(E) None of these

Answer.C

28. The presidential election in

which of the following countries,

held in ]une 2009, created a con•

troversy as one of the candidates

who was declared defeated

refused to accept the results of

the same ?

(A) Iran

(B) Pakistan

(D) Sri Lanka

(E) USA

Answer.A

29. Which of the following awards is

given for excellence in the field

of Literature 7

(A) N. Borlaug Award

(B) Kalinga Prize

(D) Saraswati Samman

(E) Dronacharya Award

Answer.D

30. The parliamentarian elections of

which of die following organizations were held in june 2009 ?

(A) European Union (EU)

(B) Oil & Petroleum Exporting

Countries (OPEC)

(D) South Asian Association for

Regional Cooperation (SAARC)

(E) None of these

Answer.A

31. The 79th Amendment to the

Indian Constitution done in 1999

was associated with the»-

(A) reservation of seats in the

Parliament and State Assemblies

for sC/ ST candidates

(B) creation of three new states

Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and

jharkhand

(D) giving more powers to

Panchayats

(E) None of these

Answer.A

32. Which of the following books is

written by Arundhati Roy ?

(A) The Last Hero

(B) Stolen Harvest

(D) Freedom From Fear

(E) God of Small Things

Answer.E

33. Which of the following schemes

was launched recently to make

Indian cities free from slums ?

(A) Bharat Nirrnan

(B) Indira Vikash Yojana

(D) Rajiv Awas Yojana

(E) None of these

Answer.D

34. Admiral Gorshkov Aircraft

carrier Refit Project is a deal

between India and-

(A) China

(B) South Korea

(D) Iran

(E) None of these

Answer.C

35. The sex ratio in India is higher in

which of the following states ?

(Females (1052) are more than

per thousand males)-

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Kerala

(D) Assam

(E) Karnataka

Answer.B

36. Which of the following countries

in Not a member of ASEAN ?

(A) Myanmar

(B) Singapore

(D) Vietnam

(E) Malaysia

Answer.C

37. Tipaimukh Dam which was in

news recently is located in which

of the following states ?

(A) Nagaland

(B) Meghalaya

(D) Manipur

(E) Assam

Answer.D

38. Which of the following states

has highest Literacy Rate in

country ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Andhra Pradesh

(E) Kerala

Answer.E

39. Which of the following cups/

trophies is closely associated with

the game of Hockey ?

(A) Mardeka Cup

(B) Wimbledon Trophy

(D) Durand Cup

(E) Agha Khan Cup

Answer.E

40. Which of the following diseases

is caused by a virus ?

(A) Plague

(B) Cholera

(D) Tetanus

(E) Chicken pox

Answer.E

**********************************************

479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675

(A) 3

(B) 4

(D) 6

Ans : (C)

2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?

(A) North

(B) North-East

(D) South-East

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow—

On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North.

(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.

(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B

(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.

(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.

3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?

(A) 120

(B) 150

(D) 230

Ans : (D)

4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?

(A) 53

(B) 78

(D) 120

Ans : (C)

5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) E

Ans : (A)

6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?

(A) North

(B) West

(C) South

(D) East

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.

7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)

(A) (8, 14, 22)

(B) (10, 15, 25)

(C) (6, 12, 23)

(D) (12, 17, 26)

Ans : (D)

8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)

(A) (4, 11, 14)

(B) (9, 12, 15)

(C) (8, 13, 18)

(D) (6, 9, 12)

Ans : (A)

9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)

(A) (21, 35, 52)

(B) (18, 42, 65)

(C) (16, 40, 72)

(D) (13, 30, 58)

Ans : (C)

10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)

(A) (84, 67, 52)

(B) (52, 25, 17)

(C) (70, 49, 36)

(D) (65, 45, 21)

Ans : (A)

11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)

(A) (233, 343, 345)

(B) (273, 365, 367)

(C) (143, 226, 237)

(D) (145, 235, 325)

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

12. (1) All books are having pages.

(2) All kings are having pages.

(3) All kings are books.

(4) Some heavy things are having pages.

(5) Some heavy things are books.

(6) Some books are heavy.

(7) Some heavy things are having pages.

(A) 1, 2, 3

(B) 6, 1, 4

(C) 4, 6, 1

(D) 1, 5, 7

Ans : (D)

13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.

(2) All cricket players are athletes.

(3) Some athletes play cricket.

(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.

(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.

(6) All athletes are vegetarians.

(A) 1, 2, 5

(B) 3, 4, 1

(C) 1, 5, 2

(D) 2, 5, 6

Ans : (A)

14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.

(2) No man is a grandmother.

(3) Some men do not cook well.

(4) All those who cook well are men.

(5) No one who cooks well is a man.

(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.

(7) Some men are not grandmothers.

(A) 2, 6, 5

(B) 2, 5, 6

(C) 1, 4, 2

(D) 6, 4, 7

Ans : (B)

15. (1) Looting is a crime.

(2) Some crooked people are criminals.

(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.

(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.

(5) All criminals are looked down in society.

(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.

(A) 1, 4, 6

(B) 3, 6, 2

(C) 1, 2, 6

(D) 3, 4, 2

Ans : (D)

16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.

(2) Some men are those who have patience.

(3) No man is a woman.

(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.

(5) Some who are successful in life are men.

(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.

(A) 1, 3, 6

(B) 4, 2, 6

(C) 1, 5, 3

(D) 2, 4, 5

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers—

(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question;

(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions;

(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question;

(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.

17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?

I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.

II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.

Ans : (C)

18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?

I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.

II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.

Ans : (B)

19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?

I. A is taller than C.

II. B is taller than C and D.

Ans : (C)

20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?

I. The month begins on Monday.

II. The month ends on Wednesday.

Ans : (D)

21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?

I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.

II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.

Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season.

II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.

III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only I and II are implicit

(C) Only II and III are implicit

(D) All are implicit

Ans : (D)

23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life.

Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.

II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.

III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment.

(A) Only I and II are implicit

(B) Only III is implicit

(C) Only I and III are implicit

(D) None is implicit

Ans : (A)

24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.

Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.

II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.

III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.

(A) All are implicit

(B) Only II and III are implicit

(C) Only I and II are implicit

(D) None is implicit

Ans : (C)

25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.

Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement.

II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.

III. People may come to see the product.

(A) All are implicit

(B) None is implicit

(C) Only II and III are implicit

(D) Only I and II are implicit

Ans : (A)

26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.

Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.

II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.

III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.

(A) All are implicit

(B) None is implicit

(C) Both II and III are implicit

(D) Both I and II are implicit

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under—

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If both I and II follows.

(D) Neither I nor II follows.

27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.

2. All machines are wheels.

Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.

II. All hands are wheels.

Ans : (B)

28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.

2. Some leaves are red.

Conclusions :

I. Some buds are red.

II. Some leaves are not buds.

Ans : (B)

29. Statements :

1. Some stones are shells.

2. All shells are pearls.

Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.

II. All pearls are shells.

Ans : (A)

30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.

2. Green is pink and yellow is red.

Conclusions :

I. Yellow is brown.

II. Pink is blue.

Ans : (C)

31. Statements :

1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.

2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.

Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.

II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.

Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689

Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689

Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689

Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689

Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689

Step IV is the last step of input.

32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?

(A) II

(B) III

(C) IV

(D) I

Ans : (B)

33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ?

Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857

(A) 5

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 6

Ans : (A)

34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?

Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358

(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358

(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358

(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358

(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358

Ans : (C)

35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ?

Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977

(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977

(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977

(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977

(D) Can’t be determined

Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?

Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549

(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549

(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549

(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549

(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it—

(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.

(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.

(3) The Manager D is married to A.

(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.

(5) B is the mother of F and E.

(6) There are two married couples in the family.

(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.

37. What is the profession of E ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Engineer

(C) Manager

(D) Psychologist

Ans : (B)

38. How is A related to E ?

(A) Brother

(B) Uncle

(C) Father

(D) Grandfather

Ans : (D)

39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?

(A) One

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Two

Ans : (B)

40. What is the profession of A ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Lawyer

(C) Jeweller

(D) Manager

Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?

(A) AB

(B) AC

(C) AD

(D) AE

Ans : (C)

42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Papaya

(B) Mango

(C) Jackfruit

(D) Watermelon

Ans : (C)

43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?

(A) SPEAK : PZVKH

(B) HUSKY : BPGFS

(C) BRAIN : MRZIY

(D) BREAK : PZVIY

Ans : (B)

44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ?

(A) DJWR

(B) EKXR

(C) KQDX

(D) AGTN

Ans : (A)

45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A) GWOURV

(B) LZKMSU

(C) SFXPMG

(D) JOEHNP

Ans : (C)

46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.

(A) Watt : Power

(B) Ampere : Current

(C) Pascal : Pressure

(D) Radian : Degree

Ans : (D)

47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ?

(A) ONLKI

(B) OMKIG

(C) OMJFA

(D) OIGDC

Ans : (C)

48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?

(A) E

(B) O

(C) T

(D) I

Ans : (D)

49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?

(A) 3

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 9

Ans : (C)

50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

(1) Dissipate

(2) Dissuade

(3) Disseminate

(4) Distract

(5) Dissociate

(6) Dissect

(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5

(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4

(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2

Ans : (A)

51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?

(A) SUXADF

(B) RVZDFG

(C) HKNGSW

(D) RVZDHL

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—

Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)

NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)

UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)

PIN (5) (10) (5)

PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)

OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)

ONE (0) (5) (0)

CUT (5) (10) (5)

SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)

DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)

52. VINA

(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)

(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)

(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)

(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)

Ans : (B)

53. AGE

(A) (0) (15) (0)

(B) (15) (15) (15)

(C) (0) (10) (10)

(D) (0) (5) (0)

Ans : (D)

54. PEAR

(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)

(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)

(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)

(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)

Ans : (A)

55. TIN

(A) (0) (5) (0)

(B) (5) (0) (5)

(C) (0) (10) (0)

(D) (5) (10) (5)

Ans : (D)

56. UNIT

(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)

(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)

(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)

(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)

Ans : (C)

57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Ans : (C)

58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 7

(D) 11

Ans : (B)

59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?

8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 4

Ans : (D)

60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?

645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans : (A)

*********************************************

1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?

(A) Barnard’s Star

(B) Sirius A

(D) Proxima Centauri

Ans : (D)

2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—

(A) 5•8%

(B) 4•5%

(D) 1•2%

Ans : (C)

3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—

(A) Chess

(B) Hockey

(D) Bridge

Ans : (A)

4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—

(A) Orissa

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Karnataka

Ans : (D)

5. Balance of Payments means—

(A) Difference between export and imports

(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters

(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States

Ans : (A)

*******************************************************

General Awareness (Held on 10-08-2008)

1. The foreign trade policy announced in the year 2004 was announced for a period of—

(A) two years

(B) three years

(C) four years

(D) five years

(E) ten years

Ans : (D)

2. As per reports in the newspapers the Indian Rupee is appreciating these days. What does it really mean it ?

(1) The value of the Rupee has gone up. It is now 110 paise and not 100 paise.

(2) The exchange rate of Rupee has gone up.

(3) Now we can purchase more in one Rupee which was not possible earlier.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

3. As per newspaper reports the inflation in India and China was at very high level . In such a situation the central Banks of these countries are required to follow—

(A) a more liberal credit policy

(B) a very tight credit policy

(C) create an atmosphere of easy liquidity in the market.

(D) raise the limits of personal and corporate income taxes.

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

4. The US Federal Reserve had recently reduced the interest rates by 150 basis points in the last few months. This was done because—

(A) US was going into recession.

(B) Inflation was high in countries like India and China hence a correction in economic policies by all the countries was needed.

(C) Euro had become more attractive currency, hence US wanted to save dollars from further depreciation.

(D) Iraq had bacome a very lucrative destination for foreign investment . US does not want it to happen.

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

5. The Stock market index of London Stock Market is referred as—

(A) Sensex

(B) Footsie (FTSE)

(C) NIFTY

(D) Bullish

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. As we all know Ministry of Finance every year prepare Union Budget and present it to the parliament . Which of the following is / are the elements of the Union Budget ?

(1) Estimates of revenue and capital receipts.

(2) Ways and MeAns : to raise the revenue.

(3) Estimates of expenditure.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following is NOT used as raw material for production of nuclear power?

(A) Uranium

(B) Barylium

(C) Zirconium

(D) Sodium

(E) All these are used

Ans : (A)

8. As per figure released recently, the GDP growth in the last two years has been in the range of—

(A) 6%–7%

(B) 7%–8%

(C) 8%–9%

(D) 9%–9.5%

(E) 10%–11%

Ans : (D)

9. Sri Lankan Monitoring Mission (SLMM) has Nordic Monitors from five nations. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

(A) India

(B) Sweden

(C) Norway

(D) Denmark

(E) Iceland

Ans : (A)

10.Many a times we read a term in financial newspaper GDR. What is the full form of the same?

(A) Gross Domestic Revenue

(B) Global Domestic Ratio

(C) Global Depository Receipts

(D) Gross Depository Revenue

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

11. The Govt. of India has fixed some targets for various programmes for the entire plan period/or a part of it. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Bharat Nirman Programme?

(1) The plan envisages irrigation of 10 million hectares additional land.

(2) It is planned that about six hundred km. of new roads will be developed every month.

(3) About 1000 new telephone connections will be given to rural areas every month so that by the end of the plan all villages in India are brought under telephone services network.

(A) Only (1) is true

(B) Only (2) is true

(C) Only (3) is true

(D) All (1), (2) & (3) are true

(E) None is true

Ans : (A)

12. Who played the role of the Hockey coach in the Film 'Chak De India' for which he was given the award for Best Actor?

(A) Shahrukh Khan

(B) Abhishek Bachchan

(C) Aaamir Khan

(D) Salman Khan

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

13. India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with which of the following countries which says they will create a "Multi Polar Order" based on the rule of law, sovereign equality and non-interference in internal affairs of States?

(A) USA

(B) Nepal

(C) China

(D) Britain

(E) Russia

Ans : (E)

14. Recently one Indian cricket player has become the sixth batsman to earn 10000 runs in Test Crickets. The name of the player is—

(A) Virendra Sehwag

(B) Sachin Tendulkar

(C) Sourav Ganguly

(D) Anil Kumble

(E) Rahul Dravid

Ans : (E)

15. Yousuf Raza Gillani who was elected the Prime Minister of Pakistan is from which political parties?

(A) Jamiat-e-Ulema Islami

(B) Pakistan People's Party

(C) Awami National Party

(D) Muslim League

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

16. As per the Govt. Notifications / Advertisements given in various newspapers the wheat procurement this year was of a record of 210 lakh MTs. Which of the following was/were the contributory factors in such a record making procurement?

(1) Minimum support price was keep as Rs. 1,500/- per quintal.

(2) Wheat was also procured from non-traditional State like Gujrat and Maharashtra

(3) State Govt. were also involved actively in the Scheme

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

17. Very often we read in newspapers that some sports persons have to go for a Dope Test after their performance in the field. Why Dope Test is conducted ?

(1) To know the general health of the sports person

(2) To know the sugar level of their blood

(3) To detect whether they have taken any performance inhancing drugs

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

18. Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of—

(A) Cricket

(B) Badminton

(C) Tennis

(D) Chess

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

Hint : Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of Football.

19. As per the newspaper reports some economically developed states onlt hold about 60% of the total 'Demat Accounts in India. A Demat Account is—

(A) an acount which is opened by the people of the lower income groups of the society.

(B) an account in which trading of the shares is done.

(C) an account which can be opened only by minors.

(D) an account which can be operated by big corporate houses and are mainly business accounts like current accounts.

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

20. Federal Reserve is the Financial Organization of the—

(A) USA

(B) Britain

(C) France

(D) Japan

(E) Germany

Ans : (A)

21. Which of the following organization is known as Market Regulator in India?

(A) IBA

(B) SEBI

(C) AMFI

(D) NSDL

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

22. Which of the following phenomenon occurred /surfaced recently associated with the economy of USA has put a catastrophic influence on the economy of the World?

(A) Increase in the oil prices

(B) High level of inflation

(C) Huge and mounting expenditure due to attack on Iraq by USA and allied forces.

(D) Sub-prime Crisis

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

23. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on changing various ratio/rates frequently. Why this is done?

(1) To keep inflation under control.

(2) To ensure that Indian Rupee does not loose its market value.

(3) To ensure that Banks do not earn huge profits at the cost of public money.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

24. Which of the following is true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?

(1) It is applicable only in 100 rural districts.

(2) It gives a guaranteed employment of 100 days to all those who are eligible for the same and are also willing to take it.

(3) This Act is applicable only for men between the age of 21-65. Women do not get the benefit of the same.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1 , 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

25. Many times we here about SEZ in newspapers/magazines. What is the full form of SEZ?

(A) Small Economic Zone

(B) Social Economic Zone

(C) Special Enforcewment Zone

(D) Service & Economic Zone

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

****************************************************

Directions: In this Section you have Six short passages. After each passage you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read Passage-I, and answer the questions based on it. Then go on to the other passages.

PASSAGE—I

The martyrs who laid down their lives for the freedom of the country, had a lofty vision of the future. They wanted the nation to be free from all the slavery and bondage. They wanted an India in which all the communities would live in perfect harmony and in which there would be no high class and no low class of people, the curse of untouchability having been wiped out completely. Women would enjoy equal rights with men and contribute their fullest to the making of a great nation. Such a vision was in keeping with the ancient glory of the country renowned for its splendid achievements in literature, art and culture.

We must now revitalise this ancient culture of ours with tolerance as its masthead. If we forget or cease to take pride in our noble heritage, we shall have to face severe indictment in the court of history which is a ruthless judge and seldom spares the erring people.

1. The martyrs who died for the freedom of India wanted:

(a) the country to be the strongest nation in the world

(b) the country to rule over the other nations

(d) the people to give up their antiquated customs

2. These martyrs wanted that:

(a) there should be reservation in the jobs for the backward sections of the society

(b) there should be perfect communal love and peace in the country

(d) the women should look after their families only

3. We must strive with our total commitment to:

(a) defeat and overcome the enemies of the nation

(b) revitalise our rich past culture

(d) make scientific advancements

4. Our freedom-fighters envisioned that in free India:

(a) there would be an egalitarian society

(b) women would enjoy higher privileges and rights than others

(d) industrialisation should occupy the top priority

PASSAGE—II

Dr S. Radhakrishnan, the illustrious philosopher statesman of India, was one of the greatest sons of our motherland. He cautioned the world against the domination of science in society. It is erroneous to claim that scientific knowledge would bring with it perpetual progress and a steady improvement in human relations. The recent period of great scientific achievements has also increased human misery: two world wars, concentration camps, atomic destruction, cold war, deadly wars in the middle east, Persian Gulf and at many other places in the world. Growth in human wisdom has not been commensurate with the increase in scientific knowledge and power. The fear of universal destruction hangs over the world. There is a feeling of disenchantment, anxiety and even despair. Science has failed to liberate man from the tyranny of his own nature.

Mankind is passing through a critical period and an education of the human spirit has become essential. In order to remake society, man has to remake himself. If humanity is to survive, man must integrate his knowledge with a social responsibility.

5. Dr S. Radhakrishnan has:

(a) emphasised that science should be banished from the society

(b) opposed the teaching of science in educational institutions

(d) counselled that preponderance of science in life does not necessarily generate happiness

6. The recent past of tremendous scientific progress has:

(a) made the world a very happy place

(b) led to global warming

(d) shown that human wisdom has not kept pace with galloping scientific knowledge

7. Man is despaired of science because:

(a) science has given too much knowledge

(b) science has brought him excessive material comforts

(d) he is confronted with the nightmare of total annihilation of the world

. Man can save humanity only if he:

(a) abandons science

(b) brings about an internal transformation in himself

(d) goes back to nature and primitive times

9. In this passage, the writer has tried to show that:

(a) science is the only saviour that shall lead humanity forward

(b) science can bring about an end to all the wars

(d) human wisdom must grow proportionately with growth of knowledge to evolve a creative integration to help mankind

PASSAGE—III

In Asia and much of the Third World, trees are still destroyed in the old-fashioned way : they are cut down for fuel and cropland. In Europe, there is new and potentially more deadly culprit. The Germans call it ‘Waldsterben’, the dying forest syndrome. But the disease is far more than a German phenomenon. Since it was first observed by German scientists in the autumn of 1980, the mysterious malady has raced across Europe, blighting woods in countries as far apart as Sweden and Italy.

Explanations for the epidemic range from a cyclic change in the environment to a baffling form of tree cancer. But the most convincing evidence points to air pollution. Indeed, saving the rapidly deteriorating forests of Europe will probably require a two-pronged strategy : an offensive campaign that includes the breeding of pollution-immune trees and a defensive scheme that calls for reductions in toxic emissions. But both will require more money than is currently being spent on such measures, as well as total commitment to protecting the environment.

10. According to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) There is less damage in Asia than in Europe

(b) More forests are dying in Germany than anywhere else in Europe

(d) Air pollution is the main culprit of destroying European forests

11. Saving the tress of European forests:

(a) should not be difficult because of the advances in experimental research

(b) appears to be a hopeless task and therefore pointless to undertake

(d) demands vigilance and punitive measures against those who cut down the trees

12. The dying forest syndrome is a disease that:

(a) is peculiar to the forests of Asia

(b) has spread rapidly over the forests of Europe

(d) has affected forests all over the world

13. The writer suggests that:

(a) it is no longer possible to grow trees in industrialized areas

(b) pollution-immune trees wil absorb toxic emissions

(d) it is not possible to grow trees that remain unaffected by pollution

14. The writer’s approach toward the problem of forest devastation is one of:

(a) tolerance

(b) indifference

(d) despondency

PASSAGE—IV

One of the major crises facing the country is the looming water shortage. A recent report of the UN has named India among the worst countries for poor quality of ater. The report ranks 122 countries according to the quality of their water as well as their ability and commitment to improve the situation. Belgium is considered the worst basically because of the quality of its ground water.

Rains failed in most parts of India last year and the vast areas of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra and Orissa were in the grip of devastating drought. People without water turn desperate and violent. Villagers in Rajasthan last year attacked the Food Corporation godowns.

Worse may be coming. With man refusing to control pollution (America, the world’s greatest polluter, refuses to cooperate with other countries) the world is getting hotter. This means that the great ice shelves (weighing billions of tonnes) of the Antarctic are collapsing. We cannot even conceptualise the dangerous consequences. Last century, sea levels in Venice rose by one step of a staircase. This century they are expected to rise by five steps. An additional cause for Venice’s sinking is the draining of underground water table due to industrialization.

The water tables in our cities have also been going lower and lower. When ocean level rises, Tuvalu in the Pacific Ocean will be the first to go under the waves. Citizens of that country are already migrating to New Zealand. Will citizens of Maldives crowd into Kerala? Will another mass migration from Bangladesh turn West Bengal upside down?

15. Citizens of Tuvalu are migrating to:

(a) Belgium (b) West Indies

16. Belgium, is suffering acutely because of:

(a) the sluggish pace of its economy

(b) the discharge of industrial effluents

(d) rising cost of living

17. Villagers in Rajasthan attacked Food Corporation godowns because of:

(a) low prices offered to them for wheat

(b) refusal of Food Corporation to buy wheat from the local farmers

(d) shortage of water

18. One of the reasons for Venice’s sinking is:

(a) industrialization

(b) its proneness to earthquake

(d) civil construction

PASSAGE—V

Most of us use the products of science—railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others—without thinking how did they come into existence. We take them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of right. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very advanced. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous ages and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing from saying that e as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdity to say that because an engine driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine driver is more advanced than, or is superior to, Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.

19. Which one of the following statements is correct:

(a) An engine driver cannot be compared to Plato or Socrates

(b) Plato or Socrates is in no way inferior to the engine driver

(d) An engine driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates

20. People today are very proud because they:

(a) live in a philosophically advanced age

(b) live in a spiritually advanced age

(d) live in a scientifically advanced age

21. Many of us make use of machines:

(a) with full knowledge of their genesis

(b) without knowing how were they invented

(d) without any knowledge of their historical significance

22. In this passage, the writer mentions Plato and Socrates to emphasise that:

(a) they had a great respect for learning

(b) they were men of great scholarship

(d) the engine is a better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot

PASSAGE—VI

To sum up the whole, we should say that the aim of the Platonic philosophy was to exalt man into a God. The aim of the Baconian philosophy was to provide man with what he requires while he continues to be a man. The aim of Platonic philosophy was to raise us far above the vulgar wants. The aim of Baconian philosophy was to supply our vulgar wants. The former aim was noble; but the latter was attainable. Plato drew a good bow; he aimed at the stars; and therefore, though there was no want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away. His arrow was indeed followed by a track of dazzling radiance; but it struck nothing. Bacon fixed his eye on a mark which was placed on earth and hit it in the white. The philosophy of Plato began with words and ended in words, noble words indeed, words such as were to be expected from the finest of human intellects exercising boundless dominion over the finest of languages.

23. The above passage presents Platonic philosophy as:

(a) giving rise to volgar wants

(b) too idealistic in terms of a realistic assessment of a man

(d) being pragmatic

24. The author in the above passage:

(a) praises Platonic philosophy

(b) explains the drawbacks of Baconian philosophy

(d) compares and contrasts two systems towards which he is impartial

25. Which one of the following best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?

(a) All ideas regarding man are couched in noble words

(b) Man when exalted into a God comes to nothing

(d) It is the image of man conceived differently that makes the basic distinction between different systems

26. Which of the following words in the passage confirm the exalted notions of man according to Plato?

(a) ‘exercising boundless dominion’

(b) ‘he aimed at the stars’

(d) ‘there was no want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away’

27. The reference to a bow and an arrow in the passage:

(a) serves as an example of Plato’s strength

(b) teaches us to stay focused on target

(d) shows us the comparative strengths and weaknesses of Platonic and Baconian systems

SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT

Directions: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part.

If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c).

If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

28. The Union Finance Minister has said that fresh recruitment will be restricted to one-third of the vacancies that arise in the government jobs:

(a) rise (b) raise (c) arouse (d) No improvement

29. Our armed forces are superior to those of any other country in the world.

(a) superior than (b) superior from

30. He secured the first position in a hundred metres race:

(a) a hundred metre race

(b) hundred metres race

(d) No improvement

31. Working in the slums brought her in against the realities of poverty.

(a) brought her forward

(b) brought her up

(d) No improvement

32. I hope it’s not imposing on your hospitality, but could I stay to dinner?

(a) stay over (b) stay up to

33. I have dreamt all my life for owning a beautiful maroon-coloured car.

(a) of owning (b) to owning

34. The war has had a negative impact over the economy of the country.

(a) in the economy (b) on the economy

35. They claimed to bring the best products and services on the doorsteps of their consumers.

(a) up to the doorsteps (b) to the doorsteps

36. My company has decided to go it alone rather than set up a joint venture.

(a) put up (b) deal with

37. The last exercise was fairly easier than I thought it would be:

(a) more (b) rather

38. The Chief Manager asked me to carry on his orders immediately.

(a) carry forward (b) carry out

39. The profit will be dealt with among the investors:

(a) dealt in (b) dealt out

40. Your advice is no different from the other friends.

(a) not different from

(b) not different from that of the

(d) No improvement

41. It was she, not me, who put forth the attractive proposition.

(a) she, not I, (b) her, not me,

42. His love of languages bent him towards a career as a translator.

(a) inclined him (b) twisted him

43. His suggestion was greeted with hoots of laughter.

(a) greeted in (b) greeted over

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions: In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentence are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

44. S1 : It is said that deep down people are alike. S6 : People differ in intelligence, personality, emotional display, values, priorities and the like. P : However in the broadest sense we can saypeople are all alike.

Q : This statement is essentially false.

R : But the individual differences are far more illuminating.

S : For instance, it’s true that people all have attitudes, likes and dislikes, feelings and similar attributes.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) Q R S P (b) S P Q R

45. S1 : Let us look at the statement ‘It’s not what you say, but it’s what you do’.

S6 : But when words and actions diverge, people focus most on what they see in terms of behaviour.

P : Actions do speak louder than words.

Q : Words can influence others; we don’t deny.

R : The statement is mostly true.

S : This doesn’t mean that words fall on deaf ears.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q

46. S1 : There are no limit to insanitation.

S6 : So I asked for a broom to clean them myself.

P : There were only a few latrines

Q : They refused point-blank to clean them.

R : Pools of water were everywhere.

S : I pointed it out to the volunteers.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) R S P Q (b) Q P S R

47. S1 : I did not feel at all sea-sick.

S6 : For I could rarely follow their remarks when they came up to speak to me.

P : I was quite unaccustomed to talking English, and except one all the other passengers in the second saloon were English.

Q : But as the days passed, I became fidgety.

R : I could not speak to them.

S : I felt shy even in speaking to the steward..

The proper sequence should be:

(a) P S Q R (b) Q R P S

48. S1 : The hall darkened

S6 : And then father taught the girl arithmetic.

P : After all that, his father came on the screen.

Q : And then a little girl came up, and he spoke to her exactly as he used to speak to Sambu.

R : He was wearing just the dhoti and shirt he used to wear at home.

S : Sambu sat through the trailers and slide advertisements without enthusiasm.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) Q R P S (b) S P R Q

49. S1 : Love for the country is a necessity.

S6 : God created the globe, but man drew lines of hatred and emmity on it.

P : Similarly nationalism has to be sacrificed at the altar of internationalism.

Q : But it should in no way exceed the limits and take the shape of jingoism.

R : Provincialism has to be sacrificed in the interest of the nation as a whole.

S : There is no reason why the nations of the world cannot live together with harmony and peace.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) P R Q S (b) Q S P R

SELECTING WORDS/PHRASES

Directions: In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words/phrases, underlined and marked (a), (b), (c). Choose the best word/phrase out of the three and indicate your choice in the relevant column of your Answer Sheet.

50.

(a) acquired

(b) achieved

freedom produces; and that cure is freedom. When a person first leaves his

51.

(a) prison

(b) barrack

he cannot

52. (a) bear

(b) stand

the light of day, he is unable to

53. (a) distinguish

(b) discriminate

or recognize faces. But the remedy is not to

54. (a) push

(b) throw

him to his

55. (a) quagmire

(b) dungeon

but to

56. (a) adopt

(b) accustom

him to the

57. (a) rays

(b) twilight

of the sun. The blaze of truth and liberty at first

58. (a) glitters

(b) blazes

and bewilders nations which have become half blind in the house of

59. (a) prison.

(b) bondage.

But let them gaze on and they will soon be able to

60. (a) bear

(b) tolerate

it. In a few years men will learn to reason. The extreme violence of opinion

::: ANSWERS :::

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c)

****************************************************************
GIC_Quantitatative _Aptitude_SOLVED

SAT(SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST)

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 05:05:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
SAT(SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST)
SAT: Scholastic Aptitude Test

SAT is a mandatory exam to get undergraduate admission into any college of USA. The SAT is developed and administered by the USA-based |College Entrance Examination Board|. This implies that College Board sets the questions, conducts the test, and sends each examinee the score report. High school juniors and seniors take the SAT exam. The test is a measure of the critical thinking skills of each student for the academic success in their under graduation program. SAT exam is conducted seven times a year.

• There are two SAT exams namely SAT I and SAT II.

SAT I is structured as a reasoning test that basically tests candidate|s verbal, mathematical and reasoning abilities.

SAT II is a subject test; to test the candidate|s knowledge of specific subject opted by the candidate. SAT exam is more of multiple choice questions based. Some schools or colleges expect students to clear more subject tests.

• Candidates may either take the SAT reasoning test or up to three SAT subject tests on the given test date. Candidates wishing to take the test may register online, by mail, or by telephone, at least three weeks before the test date. Many U.S. universities use tests such as the SAT as a way of assessing students coming from schools using different grade, class and division system. Nearly every college in USA accepts SAT score to admit students.

Books:

The official SAT Guide- The College Board, Princeton Review – Cracking the SAT, Kaplan SAT.

• Website: www.collegeboard.com

LSAT (LAW SCHOOL ADMISSION TEST)

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 05:02:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
LSAT: Law School Admission Test

LSAT exam is mandatory for getting admission in those Law Schools of USA, which are approved by ABA (American Bar Association). LSAT is also compulsory for getting admission in Law courses in most of the Canadian Law Schools and many of the non-ABA approved Law Schools too. LSAT is conducted four times a year at selected centers all over the world. LSAT helps Law Schools make sound admission decisions by providing standard measure of verbal and reasoning skills of the students. The Law schools can use LSAT score as one among the few other features in evaluating the candidates for admission.

The LSAT precisely comprise of five sections namely,

• Reading comprehension section.

• Logical reasoning (arguments) section.

• Analytical reasoning (games) section.

• Experimental section (another Arguments, Games, or Reading Comprehension).

• Essay section or writing sample section.

The Experimental section will be games, arguments, or reading section. You will not know which is the real section and which is the experimental one, so you must just try your best on every single section. The good news is that if at some point you have a strangely difficult section that makes no sense, there|s a strong chance that it was the experimental section. There is also a writing sample or essay section. The writing sample does not count towards your score, but the law schools to which you apply will receive a copy of your essay to evaluate. The duration of the test is about 3.5 hours. There is no negative marking as such, but you are expected to attend all the questions. After your test is graded, your score will be converted into an LSAT score ranging from a low of 120 to a high of 180. Your score and hence your percentile will roughly follow along a bell curve pattern, a score of 150 is an average one, and 170 is the 99th percentile.

Books: LSAT Prep Tests, Master The LSAT by Jeff Kolby and Scott Thornburg.

Website: http://www.lsac.org

PEARSON TEST OF ENGLISH LIKE TOEFL & IELTS TO STUDY ABROAD

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 04:59:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
Pearson Test of English (PTE) like TOEFL and IELTS to study Abroad

The education arm of Pearson Group, PTE Academic, has developed English language proficiency test for students who aspire to study abroad at institutions where English is the primary language of instruction.

Pearson Test of English (PTE) is an assessment of international English and measures the reading, writing, listening and speaking ability of the candidates.

Leading business schools such as Stanford, Yale, INSEAD and ISB, Hyderabad are accepting PTE academic scores. Just like TOEFL and IELTS, PTE is also computer-based test. The test costs candidates a total of USD 160. As on date, there are 15 test centers across country. The test is for three hours and registration can be done a day’s notice, says Philip.

A score of 58 out of 90 in PTE is equivalent to 6.5 of IELTS. The validity of the test is for two years.

For more details Click here

******************************************

IELTS: International English Language Testing System

The IELTS test is taken by students who are interested in furthering their academic careers. The competitiveness of college admissions dictates a good IELTS score as a minimum to even be considered by some colleges. The IELTS test requires that you understand the underlying concepts of the English language. The University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), the British Council and IDP Education Australia jointly manage the IELTS. Most universities in UK, Australia, Canada and New Zealand accept an IELTS overall band score of 6.0 or 6.5 for entering academic programmes.

The IELTS test covers 4 content areas:

• Writing- 60 minutes

• Reading- 60 minutes

• Listening – 28-30 minutes

• Speaking- 12-14minutes
The maximum amount of time allowed to take the IELTS test - 2 hours and 45 minutes.
The key IELTS testing tips are stated as follows

1. Improve your writing skills.

2. Review reading passages that frequently occur on the IELTS test.

3. Improve your vocabulary.

4. Be familiar with the format of the IELTS test.

5. Practice intensely for the listening and speaking tests on the IELTS test.
Select one answer per question. Do not leave questions blank.
Website:www.ielts.org or www.idp.com
Books for preparation: Cambridge IELTS, Ace The IELTS.
Test Fees: 7200 INR.
*****************************************************

ETS- TOEFL in India

ETS introduced a TOEFL India Call Centre Number 000-800-100-3780. Students can call 9 am-5 pm. An Indian representative answers and responds to queries, thus making students feel comfortable.
Students can also Email queries to support4India@ets.org
The TOEFL India Scholarship was successfully launched last year. 7 scholarships were given worth $ 50,000 (3 for $ 10,000 and 3 for $ 5,000). This year too, the TOEFL Scholarship Program has just closed with 9 awards (3 for $ 10,000 and 6 for $ 5,000) worth $ 60,000 in total. TOEFL Scholarship Press Brief was held in Mumbai on July 07
ETS is conducting the TOEFL Propell Teachers Training Workshops in four cities for the second year in a row. An ETS expert travels to India to conduct these. She is responsible for creating and assessing (a section of) the Test, therefore she can impart vital information to counselors, who in turn, can help students better. This year’s cities are Mumbai, Bangalore, Visakhapatnam and New Delhi. Last year the workshops were conducted in Hyderabad, Chennai, Mumbai and New Delhi
Students can purchase Vouchers for TOEFL and pay in INR over the counter at various designated Centers across India. This was introduced because Online payment in USD proved problematic for many students.
ETS connects with students 1:1 via the FB Page TOEFLGoAnywhere/India. Regular updates are posted and queries are responded to by ETS representative on a daily basis
A special website detailing every update aiming to assist students all over the world, was introduced a while ago: The TOEFL Go Anywhere website: http://www.toeflgoanywhere.org/
ETS has conducted several Counselor workshops and student road shows in the past three years to initiate conversations with the target audience.
ETS participates in regular Live Chats to communicate with students
Poster and leaflet campaigns have been conducted to spread the word on TOEFL.
6 -minute “Welcome to the TOEFL iBT™ Testing Site” video to help students with the test procedure
Important Information:
- The TOEFL Test is 45 years old and is the most credible Test of English
- The TOEFL Test has recently been accepted by Australia for student visas
- The TOEFL Test has also been approved by the UK Border agency
- Over 8000 universities accept TOEFL worldwide
- ETS has introduced The TOEFL Journey program to help students on their journey abroad for further studies
- 25 million test takers have taken the test since its inception

**********************************************************

TOEFL: Test of English As A Foreign Language

The TOEFL- IBT (Internet Based Test) is taken by students who are interested in furthering their academic careers and want to demonstrate a proficiency in North American English.

The TOEFL test covers 4 areas:

Speaking
Listening
Reading, and
Writing

The key TOEFL testing tips are stated as follows:

1. Improve your writing skills.

2. Review reading passages that frequently occur on the TOEFL test.

3. Improve your vocabulary.

4. Be familiar with the format of the TOEFL test.

5. Practice intensely for the listening test on the TOEFL test.

The maximum amount of time allowed to take the TOEFL test - 4 hours.

Select one answer per question. Do not leave questions blank.

Scores are reported online fifteen business days after the test.

Website: www.toefl.org> or www.ets.org/toefl

Books for preparation: Kaplan TOEFL iBT, Cambridge preparation for the TOEFL TEST.

Test Fees: US $165.

GRE(GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATION)

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 04:49:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

GRE: Graduate Record Examination

GRE General Exam Overview
The General GRE Exam consists of 3 sections, the
• Verbal• Quantitative • Analytical writing sections.

Verbal Reasoning : This section contains 30 questions to be attempted in 30 minutes. The verbal section requires a good vocabulary level, and basic skills of grammatically correct English coupled with reasoning and analysis. The questions consist of four types : Antonyms, Analogies, Sentence Completion, and Reading Comprehension. The four types are intermingled, with no fixed number for each type.
The skills measured include the test taker|s ability to

• analyze and evaluate written material and synthesize information obtained from it
• analyze relationships among component parts of sentences
• recognize relationships between words and concepts

Quantitative Reasoning : This section contains 28 questions on Mathematics that are to be completed in 45 minutes. This difficulty level of questions is comparable to Class X. Major topics include Number Systems, Percentages, Fractions & Decimals, Algebra (including Quadratic Equations), Geometry (including Basic Coordinate Geometry), Ratio & Proportion, Area & Volume of 2-D and 3-D figures, and Probability.

The skills measured include the test taker|s ability to

• understand basic concepts of arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and data analysis

• reason quantitatively

• solve problems in a quantitative setting

Analytical Writing : The writing assessment section requires you to write two short essays. The first is the Issue task, in which you need to analyze the issue presented and explain your views on it. For the Issue task, you will be able to choose 1 of 2 essay topics selected by the computer from the pool of topics. The time allotted is 45 minutes.

The second essay is Analysis of an Argument, in which a given argument has to be critically analyzed and evaluated. The Argument task does not offer a choice of topics; the computer will present you with a single topic selected from the topic pool. The time allotted is 30 minutes.

The skills measured include the test taker|s ability to

• articulate complex ideas clearly and effectively

• examine claims and accompanying evidence

• support ideas with relevant reasons and examples

• sustain a well-focused, coherent discussion

• control the elements of standard written English.

Test Fees: US $160.

Books: Kaplan GRE, Princeton Review, Barron’s GRE.

GRE Subject Tests Overview:
The GRE Subject Tests gauge undergraduate achievement in the eight disciplines listed below. Each Subject Test is intended for students who have majored in or have extensive background in that specific area.

• Biochemistry, Cell and Molecular Biology
• Biology
• Chemistry
• Computer Science
• Literature in English
• Mathematics
• Physics
• Psychology
The Subject Tests are given at paper-based test centers worldwide three times a year in:
• October • November• April

Test Fees: US $170.

Books: Kaplan GRE, Princeton Review, Barron’s GRE.

STATE SYMBOL:BIRDS,ANIMAL,FLOWER.....

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 04:29:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online
STATE SYMBOL:BIRDS,ANIMAL,FLOWER.....
This is a list of Indian states and union territory birds:

State	Common name	Binomial name
Andhra Pradesh	Indian Roller	Coracias benghalensis
Arunachal Pradesh	Great Hornbill	Buceros bicornis
Assam	White-winged Wood Duck	Cairina scutulata
Bihar	Indian Roller	Coracias benghalensis
Chhattisgarh	Hill Myna	Gracula religiosa
Goa	Black-crested bulbul	Pycnonotus gularis
Gujarat	Greater Flamingo	Phoenicopterus roseus
Haryana	Black Francolin	Francolinus francolinus
Himachal Pradesh	Western Tragopan	Tragopan melanocephalus
Jammu and Kashmir	Black-necked Crane	Grus nigricollis
Jharkhand	Asian Koel	Eudynamys scolopacea
Karnataka	Indian Roller	Coracias benghalensis
Kerala	Great Hornbill	Buceros bicornis
Lakshadweep	Sooty Tern	Onychoprion fuscata
Meghalaya	Hill Myna	Gracula religiosa
Madhya Pradesh	Asian Paradise Flycatcher	Terpsiphone paradisi
Maharashtra	Yellow-footed Green Pigeon	Treron phoenicoptera
Manipur	Mrs. Hume's Pheasant	Syrmaticus humiae
Mizoram	Mrs. Hume's Pheasant	Syrmaticus humiae
Nagaland	Blyth's Tragopan	Tragopan blythii
Orissa	Peacock	Pavo cristatus
Pondicherry	Asian Koel	Eudynamys scolopaceus
Punjab	Northern Goshawk	Accipiter gentilis
Rajasthan	Great Indian Bustard	Ardeotis nigriceps
Sikkim	Blood Pheasant	Ithaginis cruentus
Tamil Nadu	Emerald Dove	Chalcophaps indica
Uttarakhand	Himalayan Monal	Lophophorus impejanus
Uttar Pradesh	Sarus Crane	Grus antigone
West Bengal	White-breasted Kingfisher	Halcyon smyrnensis

*********************************************
This is a list of Indian states and union territory animals:

State	Common name	Scientific name
Andhra Pradesh	Blackbuck	Antilope cervicapra
Arunachal Pradesh	Gayal	Bos frontalis
Assam	One-horned rhino	Rhinoceros unicornis
Bihar	Gaur	Bos gaurus
Chhattisgarh	Wild Buffalo	B. bubalis arnee
Goa	Gaur	Bos gaurus
Gujarat	Asiatic lion	Panthera leo persica
Haryana	Blackbuck	Antilope cervicapra
Himachal Pradesh	snow leopard
Jammu and Kashmir	Kashmir stag	Cervus elaphus hanglu
Jharkhand	Indian Elephant	Elephas maximus indicus
Karnataka	Indian Elephant	Elephas maximus indicus
Kerala	Indian Elephant	Elephas maximus indicus
Lakshadweep	Butterfly Fish	Chaetodon decussatus
Meghalaya	Clouded Leopard	Neofelis nebulosa
Madhya Pradesh	Barasingha	Rucervus duvaucelii
Maharashtra	Indian Giant Squirrel	Ratufa indica
Manipur	Sangai	Cervus eldi eldi
Mizoram	Hoolock gibbon	Hoolock hoolock
Nagaland	Gaur	Bos gaurus
Orissa	Indian Elephant	Elephas maximus indicus
Pondicherry
Punjab	Blackbuck	Antilope cervicapra
Rajasthan	Chinkara	Gazella bennettii
Sikkim	Red Panda	Ailurus fulgens
Tamil Nadu	Nilgiri Tahr	Nilgiritragus hylocrius
Tripura	Phayre's Langur	Trachypithecus phayrei
Uttarakhand	Musk deer
Uttar Pradesh	Swamp Deer	Rucervus duvaucelii
West Bengal	Royal Bengal Tiger	Panthera tigris bengalensis

**************************************
This is a list of Indian states and union territory trees:

State	Common name	Scientific name
Andhra Pradesh	Margosa	Azadirachta indica
Arunachal Pradesh	Hollong	Dipterocarpus macrocarpus
Assam	Hollong	Dipterocarpus macrocarpus
Bihar	Sacred fig	Ficus religiosa
Chhattisgarh	Sal	Shorea robusta
Goa	Asna	Terminalia elliptica
Gujarat	Mango	Mangifera indica
Haryana	Sacred fig	Ficus religiosa
Himachal Pradesh	Deodar	Cedrus deodara
Jammu and Kashmir	Almond tree	Prunus dulcis
Jharkhand	Sal	Shorea robusta
Karnataka	Sandalwood	Santalum album
Kerala	Coconut	Cocos nucifera
Lakshadweep	Bread fruit	Artocarpus altilis
Meghalaya	White teak	Gmelina arborea
Madhya Pradesh	Banyan	Ficus benghalensis
Maharashtra	Mango	Mangifera indica
Manipur	Indian Mahogany	Toona ciliata
Mizoram	Iron wood	Mesua ferrea
Nagaland	Alder
Orissa	Sacred fig	Ficus religiosa
Pondicherry
Punjab	Indian Rosewood	Dalbergia sissoo
Rajasthan	Khejri	Prosopis cineraria
Sikkim		Rhododendron
Tamil Nadu	Palmyra palm	Borassus
Tripura	Agar	Gelidium amansii
Uttarakhand		Rhododendron
Uttar Pradesh	Ashoka tree	Saraca asoca
West Bengal	Devil Tree	Alstonia scholaris ^[1]

**************************************
This is a list of state flowers of the states and union territories of India:

State	Common name	Scientific name	Image
Andhra Pradesh	Nelumbo Water lily
Arunachal Pradesh	Lady's Slipper
Assam	Foxtail Orchids	Rhynchostylis gigantea
Bihar	White Orchid-tree	Bauhinia acuminata
Chhattisgarh
Goa
Gujarat	MARIGOLD (GALGOTA)		image = African Marigold.jpg
Haryana	Lotus	Nelumbo nucifera
Himachal Pradesh	Rhododendron
Jammu and Kashmir	Common Rhododendron	Rhododendron ponticum
Jharkhand	Parrot Tree	Butea monosperma
Karnataka	Lotus	Nelumbo nucifera
Kerala	Golden Shower Tree	Cassia fistula
Lakshadweep
Meghalaya	Lady's Slipper
Madhya Pradesh	Parrot Tree	Butea monosperma
Maharashtra	Jarul	Lagerstroemia speciosa^[1]
Manipur	Siroi Lily	Lilium mackliniae
Mizoram	Red Vanda
Nagaland	Rhododendron
Orissa	Lotus	Nelumbo nucifera
Pondicherry
Punjab
Rajasthan	Rohira	Tecomella undulata
Sikkim	Noble orchid	Cymbidium goeringii
Tamil Nadu	Glory lily	Gloriosa superba
Tripura	Nag Kesar	Mesua ferrea
Uttarakhand	Brahma Kamal	Saussurea obvallata
Uttar Pradesh	Brahma Kamal	Saussurea obvallata
West Bengal	Night-flowering Jasmine	Nyctanthes arbor-tristis

IBPS CWE PO DESCRIPTIVE QUESTION PAPERS

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Mon, 26 Sep 2011 20:20:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

IBPS CWE PO DESCRIPTIVE QUESTION PAPERS

(Exam held on 18-09-2011)

DESCRIPTIVE PAPER

1 Write a letter to your brother infoming him Importace of Lokpal Bill .

2 wrire a letter to related authority informing him water shortage in your area

3 Write a letter to editor of newspaer for starting a series of cultural heritage in your state .

Essays

1 e-banking

2 emerging trends of Aviation Industry in India

3 Global world converting into global Village

PRECIS

Precis was relating to land acquisition and urbanisation

UCO BANK/ALL BANK IT OFFICER EXAM PAPER -SOLVED QUESTION PAPERS

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Mon, 26 Sep 2011 19:10:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

UCO BANK/ALL BANK IT OFFICER EXAM PAPER -SOLVED QUESTION PAPERS

EXAM PATTERN:

There were 4 categories of questions:

1. Logical Reasoning (50 Questions )

2. Aptitude(35 Questions)

3. English(35 Questions)

4. Professional Paper(IT Objective Questions) (100 Questions)

I couldn’t remember the exact questions. But, I can tell the pattern of questions asked in each section below:

Logical Reasoning:

1. In a certain code abcd is written as sdtr. How adhf will be written in that code? (2 questions)
2. Find the odd one among below 5. (3 questions)
3. How many such pair of letter are there in the word (some word) each of which has as many letters between them as in the English alphabet. (1 Question)
4. Similar question for number (1 Question)
5. How many meaningful words can be formed from a given set of letters(1 Question)
6. Letter searies and corresponding Digit/symbol series. Find Digit/symbol for a given set of letter based on certain condition. (5 Questions)
7. There are some statements like:
Some buses are cars. All cars are trucks.
Find which conclusion logically follows. (5 Questions)
8. There was a series of digits, letters and symbols followed by five questions. (5 questions)
9. $ means not less than,
@ means not greater than,
* means neither less than nor greater than etc.
There will be some statements like a@b, b$c, c*d
Find the correct conclusion. (5 questions)
10. Strong argument weak argument (5 questions)
11. Data about hobbies of 6 students are given. Find corresponding answers. (5 questions)

The paper is very much similar to any other bank PO logical reasoning test
.

I have written the IT Officer exam for State Bank of India today. I am sharing my experience so that it will be helpful for those who are looking for Specialist Officer (IT Officer) in other banks.

Pattern:

There were 4 categories of questions:
1. Logical Reasoning (50 Questions )
2. Aptitude(35 Questions)
3. English(35 Questions)
4. Professional Paper(IT Objective Questions) (100 Questions)

Time: Section {1, 2, 3} Combined 90 minutes and section 4 - 90 minutes. There was negative marking. -.25 for each wrong answer.

I couldn’t remember the exact questions. But, I can tell the pattern of questions asked in each section.

Logical Reasoning:

1. In a certain code abcd is written as sdtr. How adhf will be written in that code? (2 questions)
2. Find the odd one among below 5. (3 questions)
3. How many such pair of letter are there in the word (some word) each of which has as many letters between them as in the English alphabet. (1 Question)
4. Similar question for number (1 Question)
5. How many meaningful words can be formed from a given set of letters(1 Question)
6. Letter searies and corresponding Digit/symbol series. Find Digit/symbol for a given set of letter based on certain condition. (5 Questions)
7. There are some statements like:
Some buses are cars. All cars are trucks.
Find which conclusion logically follows. (5 Questions)
8. There was a series of digits, letters and symbols followed by five questions. (5 questions)
9. $ means not less than,
@ means not greater than,
* means neither less than nor greater than etc.
There will be some statements like a@b, b$c, c*d
Find the correct conclusion. (5 questions)
10. Strong argument weak argument (5 questions)
11. Data about hobbies of 6 students are given. Find corresponding answers. (5 questions)

The paper is very much similar to any other bank PO logical reasoning test. Have a look at a similar paper at http://allbankexam.blogspot.com

Mathematical Aptitude:

This paper was relatively easy.
1. Length of two train and their speeds are given. Find out the time taken to cross each other. (1 Question)
2. 540+1378-678=? (similar question)(1 Question)
3. Sqrt(?) X 16.02 = 216 (1 Question)
4. 5(1/5) + 3(2/3) =? (1 Question)
5. Multiplication and division of decimal numbers (1 Question)
6. Simple fraction related (1 Question)
7. Compound interest (1 Question)
8. Profit loss (2 question)
9. Ratio proportion (2 question)
10. Man and work. Number of person and number of days to complete a work. (1 Question)
11. A statics using bar graph was given. Five questions asked based on that. (5 Questions)
12. Number Series (3 Questions)
13. A table containing college information for 6 years are given. Five questions asked on the table. All were simple questions where only you need to calculate the addition or average. ( 5 Questions)

English:

It was relatively easy paper.
1. There was a paragraph and based on it, there were 15 questions. Out of 15 questions, there were 3 synonym and 2 antonym questions. Here you need to find out Synonym or antonym of words with respect to their meaning in the paragraph. (15 Questions)
2. Find out the segment from sentence that has a grammatical error. (5 Questions)
3. There is a sentence with a segment underlined. It might have an error in it.
Replace it with appropriate choice from below. (5 Questions)
4. There was a paragraph in letter and its reply format. Five questions based on that. (5 Questions)
5. There was a paragraph with numbered blank spaces. Fill those blanks with choices from below. (5 Questions)

Professional Test:

Here comes the most important paper for Specialist Officer (IT Officer) in SBI. It was bit tough. There were 100 questions and 90 minutes.
1. Few questions from java like, Java Virtual Machine(JVM), JDBC, Applet (3 Questions)
2. Database questions
e.g. query using aggregate function(1 Question)
3. How to add a not null constraint to a already created table. (1 Question)
4. Primary key – not null and unique (1 Question)
5. What is a datatable in database(1 Question)
6. What is metadata in database(1 Question)
7. What is property of transaction?
8. Either a transaction is fully committed or fully discarded. Which property is it? Ans: Atomicity
9. Question related to Oracle Extent, Table
10. Network and security (5 – 6 Questions)
11. TCP/IP
12. SOAP protocol
13. SMTP – sending and receiving mail
14. What is a worm?
15. DSS (Decision support system)
16. How signal moves from a mobile to a tower? Uplink Channel
17. Data backup and recovery (3 – 4 Questions)
18. Disaster recovery (3 – 4 Questions)
19. Web technology and security (5 Questions)
20. HTML elements defined using -----? : HTML Tags
21. How JavaScript is mentioned in a HTML file.
22. Which language is used in ASP scripting?
23. Software development life cycle, phases (3 Questions)
24. Testing, Unit testing, System testing (3 Questions)
25. What is Honey Pot?
26. Dial up connection uses static ip. True or false.
27. Cache memory
28. How to protect data in laptop. A. By setting password B. Encryption C. Physical locking
29. Disadvantage of Single Sign On (SSO)
30. Why EFT is better than Manual Cheques?
31. System software/ application software
32. Search engine/ spider/ bots/ crawlers
33. ISP/ ASP/ Web Hosting

***********************************

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these

2. An applet __________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is true ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check _____

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user's perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client's request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a) (c) (e) (b) (b)

6. (e) (d) (a) (c) (a)

11. (b) (c) (b) (b) (a)

16. (c) (b) (d) (a) (e)

21. (d) (c) (d) (c) (b)

i hope you get help from this..

***************************

Andhra Bank I.T. Officer question paper

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Who amongst the following has written the book "The Last Moghul"?

(A) John Banville
(B) Elfriede Jelinek
(C) Graham Green
(D) Hussain Haqqani
(E) William Darlymple

Ans (E)

2. The logo of the "Olympic Games - 2008" is named as -

(A) Dancing Beijing
(B) Race of Harmony
(C) One world one dream
(D) Beijing welcomes you
(E) None of these

Ans (A)

3. Midnight children is book written by -

(A) Kiran Desai
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Salman Rusdie
(D) V.S.Naipaul
(E) None of these

Ans (C)

4. Which of the following teams won the "Asia cup cricket 2008" held in Karanchi in July 2008?

(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these

Ans (C)

5. The commonwealth Games 2010 are scheduled to be held in -

(A) Bnagalore
(B) Pune
(C) New Delhi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Hyderabad

Ans (C)

6. Which of the following teams won the "Champions Trophy" 2008 (of Hockey) held in June 2008?

(A) Russia
(B) England
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
(E) Australia

Ans (E)

7. The 34th G-8 Summit was organized in July 2008 in -

(A) France

(B) Germany

(C) Russia

(D) Italy

(E) Japan

Ans (E)

8. Which of the following is specifically designed to control various risk involve in Banking operations?

(A) RTGS

(B) FEMA

(C) Basel Norms

(D) EFTOPS

(E) All these

Ans (C)

9. In banking world providing credit and other financial services and products of very small amount to the poors in rural/semi-urban area is known as -

(A) NGO Finance

(B) Credit Finance

(C) Corporate Finance

(D) Micro Finance

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

10. Which of the following organizations has launched "Kick the CO2 Habit" Campaign to create awareness about "Global Warming"?

(A) ISRO

(B) WTO

(C) NASA

(D) UNO

(E) None of these

Ans (E) UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme)

11. Which of the following has been the approximate growth of India economy during 2007-08?

(A) 7 %

(B) 8 %

(C) 9 %

(D) 10 %

(E) 11 %

Ans (C)

12. Which of the following plays a very important role in farming guidelines/policies pertaining to provide credit facility to agriculculture and rural sectors?

(A) SIDBI

(B) NABARD

(C) ICICI Bank

(D) ECGE

(E) Exim Bank

Ans (B)

13. Who amongst the following was the Speaker of the Lok Sabha when Mnamohan Singh Govt. was required to go for "Vote of Confidence" on 22nd July 2008?

(A) Najma Heptulaha

(B) P.M.Sayeed

(C) Somnath Chatterjee

(D) Mohamad Hamid Ansari

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

14. Amar singh whose name was very much in news recently belongs to which of the following political parties?

(A) Bohujan Samaj Party

(B) Samajwadi Party

(C) Samta Party

(D) CPI (M)

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

15. The RBI Governor reviews the Annual Monetary and Credit Policy every time after a gap of -

(A) Two months

(B) Three months

(C) Four months

(D) Six months

(E) As and When required

Ans (B)

16. The Advertisement of which of the following banks has the punch line "Much more to do with you in focus"?

(A) State Bank of India

(B) ICICI Bank

(C) Bank of Baroda

(D) Bank of India

(E) Andhra Bank

Ans (E)

17. R.S.Gavai has taken over as the Governor of _

(A) Assam

(B)Jammu & Kashmir

(C) Biha

(D) Kerala

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

18. The unit of sound is -

(A) Dyne

(B) Joule

(C) Knot

(D) Watt

(E) Decibel

Ans (E)

19. Who amongst the following has written the book "Gandhiji's Emissary"?

(A) Arun Gandhi

(B) Abdul Sultan

(C) B.G.Varghese

(D) D.B.C.Pierre

(E) Sudhir Ghosh

Ans (E)

20. Ashok Mankad who died recently was a famous -

(A) Journalist
(B) Cricket Player
(C) Politician
(D) Author
(E) Cine Artist

Ans (B)
**********************************
Andhra Bank Special Officers Solved Paper (Reasoning Ability)

PART-1

Directionsâ€”(Q. 1â€“5 ) In a certain code the symbol for 0 (zero) is l and that for 1 is H. There are no other symbols for numbers and all numbers greater than 1 are written using these two symbols only, the value of the symbol for 1 doubling itself every-time it shifts one place to the left. Thusâ€”
0 is written l
1 is written H
2 is written H l
3 is written H H
4 is written H l l and so on

01. If HHH is multiplied by HH, the product will beâ€”
(A) H l H l H
(B) H H l l H
(C) H l l H H
(D) l H H H H
(E) H l l l H

02. Which of the following will represent 20% of 45 in that code ?
(A) H H H H (B) H H H
(C) H l l H (D) H H l H
(E) H H H l

03. Which of the following stands for 7 in that code ?
(A) H H H H H H H
(B) H l H l H l H
(C) H H l
(D) H l l H
(E) H H H

04. If H H l is added to H l H H, the sum will beâ€”
(A) H H H H H
(B) H l l l H
(C) H H l l H
(D) H l l H H
(E) H H H l H

05. Which of the following numbers is written as H l H l in that code ?
(A) 8080 (B) 202
(C) 42 (D) 10
(E) 9

06. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Jasmine (B) Rose
(C) Dahlia (D) Marigold
(E) Lotus

07. â€˜Jackalâ€™ is related to â€˜Carnivo-rousâ€™ in the same way as â€˜Goatâ€™ is related to â€¦â€¦â€¦.
(A) Omnivorous
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Multivorous
(E) None of these

08. If blue is called red, red is called green, green is called black and black is called white, what is the colour of grass ?
(A) Red (B) Black
(C) White (D) Green
(E) None of these

09. In a certain code RAID is written as %#H$, ripe is written as %H@Â©. How is dear written in that code ?
10. â€˜Radishâ€™ is related to â€˜Rootâ€™ in the same way as â€˜Brinjalâ€™ is related to â€¦â€¦â€¦.
(A) Fruit (B) Stem
(C) Flower (D) Root
(E) None of these

Directionsâ€”(Q. 11â€“15) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements num-bered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data pro-vided

in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give the answersâ€”
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to ans-wer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to ans-wer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in State-ment I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data even in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the ques-tion.
(E) If the data in both the State-ments I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

11. How many children are there in the group ?
I. Sangita has scored more marks than 12 children in the group.
II. Reena has scored less than Sangita.

12. What is the value of 36$4H8 ?
I. P$Q means divide P by Q.
II. AHB means multiply A by B.

13. What is Samirâ€™s rank from the top in the class of 30 students ?
I. Sudhir, who is four ranks above Samir, is fifteenth in rank from the bottom.
II. Samir is three ranks below Neeta who is eighteenth from the bottom.

14. Who among L, N, F, G and Q was the first to reach the college ?
I. F reached before L and G but not before Q who was not the first to reach.
II. N reached before F and G and L reached after F.

15. In the code language what is the code for â€˜fatâ€™ ?
I. In the code language â€˜she is fatâ€™ is written as â€˜he ra caâ€™.
II. In the same code language â€˜fat boyâ€™ is written as â€˜ra kaâ€™.

Directionsâ€”(Q. 16â€“20) Below in each question are given two state-ments (a) and (b). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the state-ments and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answerâ€”
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect.
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect.
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of inde-pendent causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause.

16. (a) Large number of primary schools in the villages in the district are closed down this year.
(b) Severe draught situation gripped the state resulting into acute shortage of drink-ing water.

17. (a) Govt. has imposed a strict ban on use of plastics all over the state.
(b) All the small scale units producing plastic products are on the verge of closure.

18. (a) Police had launched a crack-down on all the criminal activities in the locality last month.
(b) There has been a significant decline in the cases of criminal activities in the locality.

19. (a) Large number of devotees visited the shrine on Satur-day.
(b) Every Saturday special prayers are offered.

20. (a) The Village Panchayats in the state are empowered by the Govt. to settle cases of land disputes in the villages.
(b) There has been significant reduction in the number of criminal cases in the district court.

Directionsâ€”(Q. 21â€“25) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Digits in the numbers are to be codes as followsâ€”
Digit : 3 5 7 2 4 6 1 8 9
Code : F K R L D T G H B

Following conditions are to be appliedâ€”
i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as X.
(ii) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, both are to be coded as A.
(iii) If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as the code for last digit.
(iv) If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as the code for the first digit.
Applying above conditions you have to find out the correct code for the letter in each question and indicate your answer accordingly. If none of the codes is correct, (E) i.e. None of these is your answer.

21. 364289
(A) BTDLHB (B) FTDLHB
(C) FTDLHF (D) BTDLHF
(E) None of these

22. 521437
(A) KLGDFK (B) RLGDFR
(C) KLGDFR (D) KLDGFK
(E) None of these

23. 392648
(A) ALBTDA (B) XBLTDA
(C) XBLTDX (D) ABLTDA
(E) None of these

24. 279654
(A) LRBTKD (B) LRBTKL
(C) DRBTKL (D) DRTBKD
(E) None of these

25. 725638
(A) ALKTFH (B) ALKTFA
(C) XLKTFX (D) XLKTFH
(E) None of these

Directionsâ€”(Q. 26â€“33) In the following questions the symbols @, #, $, % and & are used with different meanings as followsâ€”
â€˜P @ Qâ€™ means â€˜P is neither smaller than nor equal to Qâ€™.
â€˜P # Qâ€™ means â€˜P is not greater than Qâ€™.
â€˜P $ Qâ€™ means â€˜P is not smaller than Qâ€™.
â€˜P % Qâ€™ means â€˜P is neither greater than nor smaller than Qâ€™.
â€˜P & Qâ€™ means â€˜P is neither greater than nor equal to Qâ€™.
In each of the following ques-tions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give the answerâ€”
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or con-clusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
26. Statements : G # H, H $ K, K @ M
onclusions :
I. M # G
II. G & M

27. Statements :F $ D, H # M, M % D
onclusions :
I. F $ H
II. F @ H

28. Statements : R & M, M # L, L $ Q
onclusions :
I. M % Q
II. M @ Q

29. Statements :F # R, Q $ R, Q & M
onclusions :
I. F # Q
II. R & M
30. Statements :D & T, R # T, R $ M
Conclusions :
I. M & T
II. M % T

31. Statements :E % H, H $ M, M # Q
onclusions
I. H $ Q
II. E $ M

32. Statements :S # A, S @ T, L & T
onclusions :
I. L & A
II. S @ L

33. Statements :G $ J, J @ K, K % N
onclusions :
I. G @ N
II. G % N

Directionsâ€”(Q. 34â€“40) These questions are based on the following arrangement of numerals, symbols and letters.
W T D I 5 M K % L $ 3 7 F E B # 1 G H A Â© @ J U V 2 4

34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a numeral and also immediately preceded by a letter ?
(A) None (B) Two
(C) Three (D) One
(E) None of these

35. If KL : $7 then B1 : ?
(A) GA (B) HÂ©
(C) GH (D) Â©J
(E) None of these

36. If all the vowels are dropped from the arrangement, which element will be fifth to the right of the thirteenth element from the right ?
(A) H (B) G
(C) A (D) 1
(E) None of these

37. If the first ten elements in the arrangement are reversed, which element will be third to the left of eleventh element from the left ?
(A) D (B) %
(C) K (D) I
(E) None of these

38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) D5W (B) L3K
(C) E#7 (D) HÂ©G
(E) U2@

39. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement which are immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) None of these

40. Which element is exactly mid-way between the eighth element from the left and the tenth ele-ment from the right ?
(A) E (B) 7
(C) B (D) #
(E) None of these

Directionsâ€”(Q. 41â€“45) Given an input, a coding machine generates pass-codes for six batches every day as followsâ€”
Input the shopkeeper offered dis-count to customers Pass-code for :
Batch I customer the shopkeeper offered discount to
Batch II customer discount the shopkeeper offered to
Batch III customer discount offered the shopkeeper to and so on until the arrangement is completed.
After the arrangement is com-pleted the next batch gets the same code as that for Batch I.

Duration of each batch is 1 hour. There is a break of one hour after the fourth batch. Sixth batch is the last batch. Now answer the following questionsâ€”

41. If the pass-code for the second batch is â€œdo lean window out of notâ€, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch ?
(A) do lean of not out window
(B) do lean of out not window
(C) do lean not out window of
(D) do lean not of window out
(E) None of these

42. If the input isâ€”
â€œplease do not delay the matterâ€, what will be the pass-code for third batch ?
(A) do please not delay the matter
(B) delay do matter please not the
(C) delay do matter not please the
(D) delay do matter not the please
(E) None of these

43. If the pass-code for third batch is â€œbrisk every for morning go walkâ€, what will definitely be the input ?
(A) morning brisk go walk for every
(B) morning go brisk walk for every
(C) morning go walk brisk for every
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

44. If the pass-code for the second batch is â€œchildren for not is good watching televisionâ€, what will be the pass-code for the fifth batch ?
(A) children for good not is watching television
(B) children for good is not wat-ching television
(C) children good for is not tele-vision watching
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

45. If the input is â€œnecessary arrange-ments have already been madeâ€, how many batches are required to complete the arrangement ?
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Six
(E) None of these
Directionsâ€”(Q. 46â€“55) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. An organization wants to recruit System Analysts. The following con-ditions apply.

The candidate must â€¦â€¦â€¦
(i) be an engineering graduate in Computer/IT with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of Computer at least for 2 years after acquiring the requi-site qualification.
(iii) have completed minimum 25 years and maximum 30 years of age as on 1.12.2005.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs. 50,000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.

However, if a candidate fulfills all other conditions exceptâ€”
(a) At (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)â€“IT.
(b) At (iv) above, but has an experience of at least 5 years as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.
In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the infor-mation provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information povided in each ques-tion. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2005. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows.

Mark ans-werâ€”
(A) If the case is to be referred to VP.
(B) If the case is to be referred to GM.
(C) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision.
(D) If the candidate is to be selected.
(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.

46. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 years after complet- ing engineering degree and has completed 27 years of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs. 50,000.

47. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and there- after is working as a Software Manager for past 6 years. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December 1976. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs. 50,000.

48. Ramkumar is an engineering graduate in Computers with 78% marks passed out in 1999 at the age of 23 years. Since then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesnâ€™t want to sign the bond for Rs. 50,000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

49. Nishant is an Electronics Engi-neer passed out in June 2002 at the age of 22 years. Since then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has pas-sed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

50. Kalyani is an engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 years of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.
PART-3

51. Sangita is an IT Engineer and is working as an EDP Officer in a bank for past 5 years. She has completed 28 years of age and is willing to sign the bond of Rs. 50,000. She has obtained 65% marks in the selection test.

52. Abhijit is a Computer Engineer with 65% marks passed out in 2001 at the age of 22 years. Since then he is working as a Software Engineer, in a private firm. He is willing to sign the bond for the required amount. He has secured 63% marks in selection test.

53. Giridhar is working as a Soft-ware Engineer in a reputed com-pany for past 4 years after com-pleting Computer Engineering with 68% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 75% marks and is willing to sign the bond. His date of birth is December 17, 1978.

54. Nikita has just completed 26 years of age. She has passed IT Engineering examination in 2002 with 66% marks and is working as a Sr. Programmer since then. She has no problem in signing the bond of Rs. 50,000. She has secured 53% marks in selection test.

55. Mr. Rajan is working as a Programmer for the last 6 years in an engineering firm after pas-sing engineering examination. He has passed Electronics Engi-neering with 76% marks. His date of birth is 16.05.78. He has cleared the selection test with 62% marks and is willing to sign the bond for Rs. 50,000.

Directionsâ€”(Q. 56â€“60) Study the following information to answer these questions.
Seven Professors A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in evaluation of answer papers in three different subjects English, Mathematics and History. At least two persons evaluate the papers in each subject. Each of the evaluators stay in different buildings P, Q, R, S, T, V & W not necessarily in the same order. A evaluates English papers only with E and stays in building R. D stays in building W and does not evaluate Maths papers. The one who stays in building V evaluates History papers. B and C do not evaluate the papers in the same subject. Those who evaluate English papers do not stay in building Q. F stays in building P but does not evaluate History papers. G evaluates same papers as F. C stays in building T.

56. Who stays in building V ?
(A) E (B) F
(C) G (D) B
(E) None of these

57. Which of the following combina-tions of subject, person and buildings is definitely correct ?
(A) Maths Fâ€“Q
(B) Maths Gâ€“Q
(C) History Dâ€“T
(D) History Eâ€“S
(E) None of these

58. Which of the following groups of persons evaluate the Mathema-tics paper ?
(A) CF (B) EFG
(C) CFG (D) FG
(E) None of these
59. Papers in which subject are evaluated by D ?
(A) History
(B) Maths
(C) English
(D) English or Mathematics
(E) History or Mathematics
60. E stays in which building ?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) T
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Directionsâ€”(Q. 61â€“65) In each question given below, use the follow-ing notationsâ€”
â€˜A ] Bâ€™ means â€˜Add A to Bâ€™, â€˜A I Bâ€™ means â€˜Subtract B from Aâ€™, â€˜A $ Bâ€™ means â€˜Multiply A by Bâ€™, and â€˜A @ Bâ€™ means â€˜Divide A by Bâ€™.

61. Profit percentage is computed by using the following method. Cost Price (C) is subtracted from the Sale Price (S) and the difference is multiplied by 100 and the product is then divided by Cost Price (C).Which of the following expres-sions indicates the profit percen-tage ?
(A) (CIS) $ 100 @ C
(B) (SIC) $ 100 @ C
(C) (SIC) @ 100 @ C
(D) CIS $ 100 ] C
(E) None of these

62. IQ is worked out by dividing mental age (MA) of a person by his chronological age (CA) and the quotient so obtained is multiplied by 100. Which of the following expressions
indicates the IQ of a person ?
(A) MA $ 100 @ CA
(B) MA $ CA @ 100
(C) CA $ MA ] 100
(D) MA $ CAI 100
(E) None of these

63. The percentage increase in pro-duction in a particular year over that of its previous year is com-puted by dividing the difference between production of the two years (P1 and P2) by the pro-duction in the previous year (P1), and multiplying the quotient so obtained by 100. Which of the following expressions indicate the percentage increase in pro-duction in the particular year over its previous year ?
(A) P2 I P1 @ 100 $ P1
(B) P1 I P2 $ P1 @ 100
(C) (P2 I P1) @ P1 @ 100
(D) P2 I P1 $ P1 @ 100
(E) None of these

64. The average salary of the Mana-gers is computed by the follow-ing methodâ€”
(i) The average salary (A) is multiplied by the Grand Number (GN),
(ii) The average salary of other employees (AE) is multi-plied by number of emplo-yees (N),
(iii) (ii) is subtracted from (i), and
(iv) The difference so obtained is divided by the number of Managers (NM).
Which of the following expres-sions indicates the average salary of the Managers ?
(A) A $ GN I (AE $ N @ NM)
(B) A $ GN ] (AE $ N @ NM)
(C) GN I AE @ N @ NM
(D) (GN $ A I AE $ N) @ NM
(E) None of these

65. For earthquake relief fund, each employee of a company had con-tributed an amount equal to the total number of employees (N) in the company. To this amount was added the contribution made by 10 Directors, each of whom had paid Rs. 100 more than what each employee had paid. Which of the following expressions indi-cate the total contribution made by the company ?
(A) N ] N $ 10 @ (N ] 100)
(B) N $ N ] 10 $ (100 ] N)
(C) N $ N @ 10 $ (N I 100)
(D) N $ N ] 10 $ (100 $ N)
(E) None of these

Directionsâ€”(Q. 66â€“68) Study the following information carefully to answer these questionsâ€”
Seven executives A, B, C, D, E, F and G from a company have to visit seven different places Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Jaipur to market their newly launched product. The order of persons and cities may not be necessarily the same. Each one flies by a different airline Spicejet, King-fisher, Sahara, Jet, Air Deccan, Indian Airlines, Air India, not necessary in the same order. C goes to Kolkata but not by Sahara or Jet Airlines. D flies by Air India to Bangalore. The one who goes to Jaipur does not travel by Air Deccan or Sahara. E travels by Air Deccan. A does not go to Ahmeda-bad. F travels to Hyderabad by Spice jet. B goes to Chennai by Kingfisher. E does not go to Ahmedabad. G does not go to Jaipur.

66. Who travels by Sahara Airlines ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) G
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

67. Who goes to Jaipur ?
(A) A (B) E
(C) G (D) D
(E) None of these

68. The one who travels by Air Deccan, visits which place ?
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Chennai
(D) Bangalore
(E) None of these

Directionsâ€”(Q. 69â€“75) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questionsâ€”
A word and number arrange-ment machine when given an input line of words and numbers rear-ranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrange-mentâ€”
Input day case 20 13 now for 49 56
Step I 13 day case 20 now for 49 56
Step II 13 now day case 20 for 49 56
Step III 13 now 20 day case for 49 56
Step IV 13 now 20 for day case 49 56
Step V 13 now 20 for 49 day case 56
Step VI 13 now 20 for 49 day 56 case
and Step VI is the last step As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate Step for the given input.

69. Input : yes 21 far 32 17 12 wide goal Which of the following will be Step V of the above input ?
(A) 12 yes 21 wide 32 far 17 goal
(B) 12 yes 21 wide far 32 17 goal
(C) 12 yes 21 far 32 17 wide goal
(D) There will be no such step
(E) None of these

70. Step IV of an input is : 17 hotel 29 father 83 76 door eye. Which of the following will be Step VII ?
(A) 17 hotel 29 father 76 door 83 age
(B) 17 hotel 29 father 76 age 83 door
(C) 17 hotel 29 father 76 83 door age
(D) There will be no such step
(E) None of these

71. Step III of an input is : 25 win 32 85 73 tax break home. How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Five (B) Four
(C) Six (D) Seven
(E) None of these

72. Step III of an input is : 37 yellow 42 61 53 violet green red. How many more steps will be requi-red to complete the rearrange-ment ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
(E) None of these

73. Input : can you go there 22 36 13 46.
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 5
(E) None of these

74. Input : 42 36 go and come back 20 15
Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
(A) IV (B) V
(C) VII (D) VIII
(E) None of these

75. Step II of an input is : 39 sure 72 63 height over 42 lamp. Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(A) height 39 sure 72 63 over 42 lamp
(B) 72 63 39 sure height over 42 lamp
(C) 63 39 sure 72 height over 42 lamp
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
Answers with Explanation :

1. (A) H H H Ãž (4 + 2 + 1) = 7
H H Ãž (2 + 1) = 3
(H H H) Â´ (H H)
= 7 Â´ 3 = 21
= (16 + 0 + 4 + 0 + 1)
= H l H l H
2. (C) 20% of 45 = 9
= (8 + 0 + 0 + 1)
= H l l H
03. (E) 7 = 4 + 2 + 1
= H H H
04. (B) (H H l) + (H l H H)
= (4 + 2 + 0) + (8 + 0 + 2 + 1)
= 6 + 11 = 17
= (16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1)
= H l l l H
05. (D) H l H l Ãž (8 + 0 + 2 + 0)
= 10
06. (E) Only lotus is a water flower.
07. (C) As â€˜Jackalâ€™ is â€˜Carnivorousâ€™ in the same way â€˜Goatâ€™ is a â€˜Herbi-vorousâ€™.
08. (B) The colour of â€˜Grassâ€™ is â€˜greenâ€™ and â€˜greenâ€™ is called â€˜blackâ€™. Hence the colour of â€˜Grassâ€™ is black.
09. (D) R A I D Ãž % # H $
and R I P E Ãž % H @ Â©
D E A R Ãž $ Â© # %
10. (A) As â€˜Radishâ€™ is related to â€˜Rootâ€™ in the same way â€˜Brinjalâ€™ is related to â€˜Fruitâ€™.
11. (D) The data even in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
12. (E) From I and II,
36 $ 4 H 8 = 36 Ã· 4 Â´ 8
= 8 = 72
13. (C) From I,
15 + l l l l l + 10
Sudhir Samir
Samirâ€™s rank from the top is 20th.
From II, 12 + l l l l + 14
Neeta Samir
Samirâ€™s rank from the top is 16th.
14. (A) From I, N > Q > F > L, G
Hence N was the first to reach the college.
From II, N > F, G
and F > L
There is no any information regarding Q.
15. (E) From I,
â€˜she is fatâ€™ Â® â€˜he ra caâ€™
From II, â€˜fat boyâ€™ Â® â€˜ra kaâ€™
From I and II,
â€˜fatâ€™ Â® ra
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (E) 25. (B)
26. (D) G # H Ãž G ≤ H
H $ K Ãž H ≥ K
and K @ M Ãž K > M
G ≤ H ≥ K > M
I. M # G Ãž M ≤ G (False)
II. G & M Ãž G <>

27. (A) F $ D Ãž F ≥ D H # M Ãž H ≤ M and M % D Ãž M = D \ F ≥ D = M ≥ H I. F $ H Ãž F ≥ H (True) II. F @ H Ãž F > H (False)
28. (D) R & M Ãž R < m =" Q"> Q (False)
29. (E) F # R Ãž F ≤ R
Q $ R Ãž Q ≥ R
and Q & M Ãž Q <>

30. (C) D & T Ãž D < m =" T">

31. (B) E % H Ãž E = H H $ M Ãž H ≥ M and M # Q Ãž M ≤ Q \ E = H ≥ M ≤ Q I. H $ Q Ãž H ≥ Q (False) II. E $ M Ãž E ≥ M (True)

32. (E) S # A Ãž S ≤ A S @ T Ãž S > T
and L & T Ãž L <> L (True)
33. (A) G $ J Ãž G ≥ J
J @ K Ãž J > K
and K % N Ãž K = N
G ≥ J > K = N
I. G @ N Ãž G > N (True)
II. G % N Ãž G = N (False)
34. (B) L $ 3 and B # 1
35. (A)
36. (B) After dropping all the vowels we get,
Here 13th element from the right is 7 and fifth element to the right of 7 is G.
37. (A) On reversing the first ten elements we get,
11th element from the left is â€˜3â€™ and the third element to the left of â€˜3â€™ is â€˜Dâ€™.
38. (D)
39. (C) F E B and J U V
40. (E) 8th element from the left is â€˜%â€™ and 10th element from the right is G. The element exactly midway betwe'en â€˜%â€™ and â€˜Gâ€™ is â€˜Fâ€™.
41. (D) Batch II do lean window out of not
Batch III do lean not win-dow out of
Batch IV do lean not of window out
42. (B) Input please do not delay the matter
Batch I delay please do not the matter
Batch II delay do please not the matter
Batch III delay do matter please not the
43. (D)
44. (E) Batch II children for not is good watching television
Batch III children for good not is watching television
Batch IV children for good is not watching television
Batch V children for good is not television watching
45. (C) Input necessary arrange-
ments have already been made
Batch I already necessary arrangements have been made
Batch II already arrange-ments necessary have been made
Batch III already arrange-ments been neces-sary have made
Batch IV already arrange-ments been have necessary made
Batch V already arrange-ments been have made necessary
This is the last batch.
46. (D) Ms. Suneeta fulfils all the conditions. Hence she is to be selected.
47. (A) Rakesh Rao fulfils all the conditions except (iv) but he has been working as a software manager for the last 6 years so according to (b) his case is to be referred to V.P.
48. (A) Ram Kumar fulfils all the conditions except (iv) but he has been working as a software manager for the last 6 years so according to (b) his case is to be referred to V.P.
49. (C) Since the marks obtained by Nishant in graduation are not given. So the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision.
50. (E) Kalyani is a Telecommuni-cation engineer. Hence she is not to be selected.
51. (C) The marks of graduation is not given. So data is inadequate to take the decision.
52. (D) Abhijit fulfils all the condi-tions. Hence he is to be selected.
53. (D) Giridhar fulfils all the condi-tions. Hence he is to be selected.
54. (E) Nikita does not fulfil the condition V. Hence she is not to be selected.
55. (B) Mr. Rajan does not fulfil the condition (i) But he passed the Electronics Engineering will more than 65%. Hence according to (a) his case is to be referred to G.M.
56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (E)
61. (B) 62. (E) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B)
69. (E) Input yes 21 far 32 17 12 wide goal
Step I 12 yes 21 far 32 17 wide goal
Step II 12 yes 17 21 far 32 wide goal
Step III 12 yes 17 wide 21 far 32 goal
Step IV 12 yes 17 wide 21 goal far 32
Step V 12 yes 17 wide 21 goal 32 far
70. (D) Step IV 17 hotel 29 father 83 76 door eye
Step V 17 hotel 29 father 76 83 door eye
Step VI 17 hotel 29 father 76 eye 83 door
There will be no VII step.
71. (E) Step III 25 win 32 85 73 tax break home
Step IV 25 win 32 tax 85 73 break home
Step V 25 win 32 tax 73 85 break home
Step VI 25 win 32 tax 73 home 85 break
To complete the rearrange-ment there will be 3 more steps.
72. (A) Step III 37 yellow 42 61 53 violet green red
Step IV 37 yellow 42 violet 61 53 green red
Step V 37 yellow 42 violet 53 61 green red
Step VI 37 yellow 42 violet 53 red 61 green
Hence to complete the rearrange-ment 3 more steps will be required.
73. (A) Input can you go there 22 36 13 46
Step I 13 can you go there 22 36 46
Step II 13 you can go there 22 36 46
Step III 13 you 22 can go there 36 46
Step IV 13 you 22 there can go 36 46
Step V 13 you 22 there 36 can go 46
Step VI 13 you 22 there 36 go can 46
Step VII 13 you 22 there 36 go 46 can
Hence to complete the rearrange-ment 7 steps will be required.
74. (B) Input 42 36 go and come back 20 15
Step I 15 42 36 go and come back 20
Step II 15 go 42 36 and come back 20
Step III 15 go 20 42 36 and come back
Step IV 15 go 20 come 42 36 and back
Step V 15 go 20 come 36 42 and back
Step VI 15 go 20 come 36 back 42 and
The last but one step is V.
75. (D)
****************************
INDIAN OVERSEAS BANK PAPERS
1. As we all know rise of the ‘BRICs’ has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise of the BRICs’ on global/other powerful economy/economies ?
1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
2. It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are in ‘Swap Agreement’ with various nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong globally ?
About—
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) Rs. 30,000 crore

3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present ?
(A) 40%
(B) 49%
(C) 50%
(D) 64%
(E) 74%

4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
1. A target of Rs. 2.80 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector.
2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 1•5%.
3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also acceptable.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

5. As per the news in major financial newspapers a ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ is launched in Delhi and Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of Rs.………
(A) 15,000
(B) 20,000
(C) 25,000
(D) 30,000
(E) 50,000

6. As proposed in the Union Budget 2008-09 a ‘Risk Capital Fund’ is set up by the Govt. of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund ?
(A) NABARD
(B) SIDBI
(C) ECGC
(D) RBI
(E) None of these

7. As per the Economic Survey 2007-08 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008, what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About—
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 21%
(E) 26%

8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 2008-09 the operating ratio of the railways has—
(A) Improved only by 0•5%
(B) Decreased by 0•5%
(C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 2007-08
(D) Reached at the level of 81%
(E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 2000-01

9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for the ‘Girl Child’. What is the name of the scheme ?
(A) Raj Lakshmi
(B) Rani Bitia
(C) Dhan Lakshmi
(D) Aanandita
(E) None of these

10. The President of India recently signed the much-awaited notification for the implementation of the suggestions made by the ‘Delimitation Commission’.
What will be the effect of this notification ?
(A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined
(B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years’ time
(C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further
(D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of their origin. They will also be like Public Sector Banks
(E) None of these

11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now—
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 30
(E) 31

12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India ?
1. CARE
2. CRISIL
3. ULIP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce ‘Plastic Currency Notes’. What is/are the benefits of ‘Plastic Notes’ ?
1. Their Shelf life will be longer.
2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices.
3. Printing will be cheaper.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

14. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to—
(A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
(B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets
(C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years
(D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank
(E) None of these

15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector ?
(A) Credit cards
(B) Loan against gold from financial institute
(C) Debit cards
(D) Money lender
(E) None of these

16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee on financial sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee ?
(A) Janki Raman
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) K. V. Kamath
(E) None of these

17. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry ?
(A) Risk management
(B) Manpower planning
(C) Retirement benefits for the employees
(D) Corporate Governance
(E) None of these

18. What is meant by ‘Underwriting’ the term frequently used in financial sector ?
(A) Under valuation of the assets
(B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee
(C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan
(D) The act of permission to float an IPO
(E) None of these

19. The government of India recently constituted the New Finance Commission (13th). What are its major functions ? To decide—
1. The salary structure of the employees of the Central Government.
2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between states and Central Govt.
3. Rate of Income Tax and other taxes collected by the Union Govt.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

20. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which registered its victory in tri-series ODI matches against Australia played in March 2008 ?
(A) M.S. Dhoni
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) Sachin Tendulkar

21. Mr. Nicolas Sarkozy who was the chief guest during the Republic Day Function 2008 is the—
(A) President of Brazil
(B) Prime Minister of Brazil
(C) President of France
(D) Prime Minister of France
(E) Foreign Secretary of USA

22. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia after the General elections held there in February 2008 ?
(A) Boris Tadic
(B) Tomislav Nicolic
(C) Samak Sundaravej
(D) Novak Djokovic
(E) None of these

23. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the US-India Business Council is the CEO of which of the following Companies ?
(A) Pepsi Co.
(B) Infosys
(C) Tata Consultancy Services
(D) NIIT
(E) None of these

24. Maria Sharapova won the Australian Open 2008 Women’s singles by defeating—
(A) Shahar Peer
(B) Kateryna Bondarenko
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) Ana Ivanovic

25. Saina Nehwal won the Seniors’ Championship match of which of the following games held in Goa in January 2008 ?
(A) Golf
(B) Tennis
(C) Table tennis
(D) Archery
(E) Badminton

26. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture ‘SPV’. What is the full form of ‘SPV’ ?
(A) Small Power Venture
(B) Special Purpose Vehicle
(C) Special Power Venture
(D) Small Purpose Vehicle
(E) None of these

27. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recently agreed to allow foreign direct investment in the field of mobile television services. Upto what extent FDI is allowed in this field ?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 64%
(D) 70%
(E) 74%

28. As per the performance assessment data released by the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) in January 2008. Which of the following sectors registered a growth of 3•6 per cent ?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Banking Sector
(C) Tourism Sector
(D) Aviation Services Sector
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which bring lot of disaster ?
(A) Trade winds
(B) Hurricane
(C) Cirrus
(D) Stratus
(E) None of these

30. The Global Employment Trends Report 2008 published by the International Labour Organization has indicated that there may be increase in global unemployment. What according to them is/are the major reasons of this possibility ?
1. Turmoil in Credit Markets all over the world.
2. Rise in oil prices in international market.
3. Civil unrest in some under and undeveloped nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these

31. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace ?
1. These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation.
2. These banks wish to help Indian firms to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates.
3. These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3

32. Many economists, bankers and researchers in India often advocate that banks should equip themselves for new challenges. These challenges are in which of the following shapes/forms ?
1. As Indian economy is getting increasingly integrated with the rest of the world the demand of the Corporate banking is likely to change in terms of size, composition of services and also the quality.
2. The growing foreign trade in India will have to be financed by the local banks.
3. Foreigners are habitual of the comforts provided by the technology. India has to do a lot in this reference.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

33. As per the reports published in the newspapers Indian Rupee is now fully accepted in Asian countries like, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia etc. What does it really mean ?
1. Anybody from Asian country can purchase Indian Rupee and keep it in his/her bank account in his/her country without any restrictions.
2. Now people in these nations are not required to go for a double conversion first in dollar and then in rupee.
3. People travelling European/Asian countries can make their payments in rupee anywhere without any problem.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

34. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) Credit wrap
(B) EMI
(C) Held to Maturity
(D) Exposure limit
(E) Diffusion

35. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions ?
1. Providing subsidy to agriculture.
2. Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations.
3. Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

36. The Technology Mission on Cotton was launched during Xth plan. The scheme was designed to get increase in production of cotton by which of the following levels by the end of the plan ?
(A) 100 lakh bales
(B) 150 lakh bales
(C) 175 lakh bales
(D) 200 lakh bales
(E) None of these

37. A National Development Fund was created by the Government of India a few years ago. What was the purpose of the fund ?
1. Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and
employment.
2. Capital investments in selected profitable PSEs to yield adequate returns.
3. To fund revision in pay structure of Central Government employees.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

38. Olympic 2008 are scheduled to be held in—
(A) Paris
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) None of these

39. The general elections took place in which of the following countries in March 2008 ?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) Sri Lanka

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Economic Nightmare of India’ ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) K. Rajeshwar Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Jyoti Basu
(E) None of these

41. As per the targets for 11th plan educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 9%

42. ‘Long Walk’ to Freedom’ is a book written by—
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) L. K. Advani
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Benazir Bhutto
(E) Nawaz Sheriff

43. India recently signed a pact with which of the following countries on solving the problems of Indian labour in that country ?
(A) Iran
(B) UAE
(C) Malaysia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following countries is trying to launch a Satellite to study the sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) None of these

45. Jang Hyun Jong who was adjudged as the ‘Asian Hockey Player of the year’ is from—
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these

46. Who amongst the following is the winner of Padma Vibhushan Awards given away recently ?
(A) Rahul Gandhi
(B) Priya Dutt
(C) Vinod Dua
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following films was adjudged ‘Best Film’ in 14th Star Screen Awards given away in January 2008 ?
(A) Om Shanti Om
(B) Guru
(C) Taare Zameen Par
(D) Jab We Met
(E) Chak De India

48. A meeting of the European Leaders was held in January 2008 at which of the following places to discuss ‘Global Economic Turmoil’ ?
(A) London
(B) New Delhi
(C) New York
(D) Tokyo
(E) Milan

49. Castro Sibling is the new President of—
(A) Romania
(B) Cuba
(C) Israel
(D) Venezuela
(E) None of these

50. Kosovo declared itself independent from which of the following countries ?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Croatia
(C) Serbia
(D) Russia
(E) None of these

Answers with Hint
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D) According to Economic Survey 2007-08, the percentage growth in bank credit is 21.5%. 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (E) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (E) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (E) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (E) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (E) 48. (A) 49. (E) 50. (E)

**************************
Allahabad Bank Exam Sample Paper 2008
General Awareness

1. India test-fired Agni III on—
(A) May 15, 2008
(B) May 17, 2008
(C) May 20, 2008
(D) May 7, 2008

2. Which one of the following countries is not included in the elite club which India joined after its successful test firing of Agni III—
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) U.K.
(D) France

3. M. Natrajan is—
(A) Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister
(B) Chief Controller and Programme Director of Agni Missile System
(C) Scientific Advisor to the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above

4. Currently which one of the following organizations is celebrating its golden jubilee (year) ?
(A) ISRO
(B) CBI
(C) DRDO
(D) NASSCOM

5. India and Malaysia held their joint naval exercise at—
(A) Andman island
(B) Nicobar island
(C) Lumut
(D) Kualalampur

6. SERB stands for—
(A) Social Enlightenment and Research Board
(B) Scientific And Engineering Research Board
(C) Scientists’ and Engineers’ Research Board
(D) Science and Engineering Research Board

7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with—
(A) Prithvi II
(B) Chandryan I
(C) Narco Analysis test conducted on Aarushis’ alleged murderer
(D) The finalization of Indo-US Nuclear deal

8. The country which recently announced to have its own version of Star Wars—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) North Korea

9. The Indian state which, in May 2008, launched Food Security Scheme—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jammu & Kashmir

10. The most coveted award at the 61st Cannes Film Festival was received by—
(A) ‘Hunger’
(B) Line of Passage
(C) ‘The Class’
(D) Three Monkeys

11. The Winner of the Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest is—
(A) Ravi Kumar
(B) Sameer Mishra
(C) Kuljit Singh
(D) None of these

12. ‘Travelling Through Conflict’ is a book written by—
(A) Hamid Ansari
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Balraj Krishna
(D) Salman Rushdie

13. According to the Global Peace Index released in May 2008, the most peaceful country on the earth is—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Norway
(C) Denmark
(D) Iceland

14. Which of the following was recently granted Navratna status to ?
(A) PGCIL
(B) REC
(C) NALCO
(D) All the above

15. In terms of billionnaire population. Mumbai ranks…… at world level ?
(A) Sixth
(B) Fifth
(C) Fourth
(D) Seventh

16. According to a report, the number of Indians who have a problem of loud snoring during sleep is—
(A) 35 million
(B) 36 million
(C) 40 million
(D) 45 million

17. The government has planned to establish ………… universities of global standards across the country ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 16

18. The government has increased Minimum Support Price of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Cane
(D) None of these

19. India recently refused to accept the offer of funds/loans from World Bank for— (A) Disaster management
(B) North-East projects
(C) Tiger protection
(D) None of the above

20. Yves Saint Laurent recently died. He was a—
(A) U.S.A. film director
(B) First man to go to Mars mission
(C) Renowned fashion designer
(D) An internationally renowned financial expert

Answers:

1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20 (C)
***************************************************
ndian Bank Computer Officers Exam, 2008 and Professional Knowledge of Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam., 2008

(Questions asked in Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam, 2008 & Professional Knowledge Section of Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam., 2008)

1. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are calledâ€”
(1) Metasearch engines
(2) Webcrawlers
(3) Spiders
(4) Hits
(5) None of these

2. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system includeâ€”
(1) use-case, class, and state diagrams
(2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams
(3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams
(4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams
(5) None of these

3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if theâ€”
(1) database is structured
(2) database is well-designed
(3) database has no data
(4) database is relatively small
(5) database is relatively large

4. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hardware?
(1) Bootstrap memory
(2) Volatile memory
(3) Exteranl mass memory
(4) Static memory
(5) Random access memory

5. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP
(4) PING
(5) PONG

6. What is Internet 2?
(1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
(3) A new standard for Internet browsers
(4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology
(5) None of these

7. The term, "hypertext", meansâ€”
(1) Non-sequential writing
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these

8. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
(1) Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy.
(2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information.
(3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there.
(4) Use the wayback machine.
(5) None of these

9. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher
(2) Warded
(3) Device
(4) Tumbler
(5) Typelock

10. Aâ€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(1) system virus
(2) trojan horse virus
(3) file virus
(4) macro virus
(5) None of these

11. Carbon credit is meant forâ€”
(1) Deforestation
(2) Protection of environment
(3) Rural infrastructure
(4) Diamond trading
(5) Precision farming

12. Acetic acid is present inâ€”
(1) Vinegar
(2) Curd
(3) Lime
(4) Fish
(5) Rancid butter

13. Deep litter and cage systems are associated withâ€”
(1) Dairy development
(2) Pig farming
(3) Poultry growing
(4) Quali farming
(5) Sheep rearing

14. When milk is churned, the cream is separated due toâ€”
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Centrifugal force
(3) Frictional force
(4) Electro magnetic effect
(5) None of the above

15. Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peaceâ€”
(1) Dr Norman E. Borlaug
(2) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Dr Hargovind Khorana
(4) Dr Chandrasekhar
(5) Dr Watson

16. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged underâ€”
(1) WTO
(2) Food Bill
(3) AEZ
(4) Essential commodities Act
(5) Warehouse Bill

17. Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd isâ€”
(1) Oxidation
(2) Dehydration
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Fermentation
(5) Hydration

18. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations ofâ€”
(1) Committee on Financial Inclusion
(2) Vaidyanathan Committee
(3) Forward Market Commission
(4) Working Group on Agriculture
(5) National Commission on Farmers

19. The Head Quarters of CFTRIâ€”the leading institute for research on various food products is located atâ€”
(1) Mysore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Gurgaon
(5) Jammu

20. Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storagesâ€”
(1) Neon
(2) Freon
(3) Crypton
(4) Argon
(5) Ice

21. Who among the following is the author of the novel â€˜Two Livesâ€™?
(1) Salman Rushdie
(2) Vikram Seth
(3) Arundhati Roy
(4) Ruskin Bond
(5) Dhruv Sawhney

22. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(1) Vijay Shankar
(2) T.N. Seshan
(3) Wajahat Habibullah
(4) Mathew Varghese
(5) M.H. Baig

23. On which of the following dates is World AIDS Day observed?
(1) December 9
(2) December 1
(3) November 30
(4) October 24
(5) December 30

24. Which of the following is Indiaâ€™s first indigenous animation film?
(1) Hanuman
(2) Ramayana
(3) Harry Potter
(4) Mughal-e-Azam
(5) Ram Sita

25. Who among the following has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashimir?
(1) Mufti Mohammed Sayeed
(2) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(3) Omar Abdullah
(4) M.H. Baig
(5) T. N. Seshan

ANSWERS:

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (5) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

*************************************************************************

Model Questions : The Descriptive Test should be Prepared on Basis of All Books of Degree Exam with Special Emphasis on Banking.We are Listing Sample Questions
***************************
1. What do you understand by 'Authentication' and 'Encryption' in the context of system security? In this context explain
(i) Kerberos
(ii) IP Security
(iii) RSA Encryption

2.Write short notes on each of the following:
(a) Trojan Horse
(b) Smart Cards

3. Write short notes on each of the following:
(a) Trojan Horse
(b) Smart Cards
(c) Physical threats and security
(d) PGP

4. Explain the DMA controller with block diagram. What is meant by a block transfer?

What are the various phases of an instruction cycle ? Give the micro operation of fetch and decode phases

Compare Static RAM with Dynamic RAM.

5. Using NAND gate generate the AND and NOR functions

6. Which of the following services should be enabled in a secure workstation connected in an Ethernet LAN ? Give reasons for your answer.
Anacron, ftp, netfs, nfs, telnet, sendmail, SSH, syslog, SNMP, time. (Assume the LAN is connected to the Internet but is not connected via Firewall nor is Kerberos used).

7. What is a Socket ? Write two differences between a TCP Socket and a UDP Socket.

8. What are the standard port numbers for (i) Web Server (ii) Mail Server (iii) FTP Server (iv) Telnet ?

9 What is Network Address Translation (NAT) ? Give any two advantages and two disadvantages of NAT.

10 What is VPN ? How is it useful for an organization ?

11. What is a Search Engine ? How is it useful for Internet/Intranet ? Give the names of any four Search engines.

12 What is WAP ? Give any two advantages and two limitations of WAP. Also explain its layered architecture.

*******************************************************
1a (i) what is Database trigger?

(ii)Explain the concept of Stored Procedure and briefly describe the advantages of
using Triggers.
1b (i) what is View?
(ii) How it is related to data independence?
2a (i) what are distributed system?
(ii)What is the advantage of distributed system?
2b (i) explain the need of concurrency control.
(ii)What is its significance in banking transaction?
3a (i) what is remote query?
(ii) How it is processed?
3b (i) Explain what you understand by cookie .How are they useful.
(ii)When are the advantage of using session over cookie and URL writing?
4a (i) what is different between an applet and servlet?

(ii) What is life cycle of a servlet?
4b (i) Why is XML important to database application?
5a (i) discuss in detail the use of a computer network?
5b what is APR & RARP?
6a what security technique are used to protect computer system?
6b how is data protected during transmission over the network?
7a How is E-business changed the definition of enterprise system.
7b Distinguish between the various normal forms in database.
8a what are the different type of backup possible for the database?
8b (i) what is data Warehousing?
(ii) How it is different form Database?

***********************************************

International News : September 2011

noreply@blogger.com (Roma) — Mon, 26 Sep 2011 15:45:00 +0000

Published by Roma Rahul Gupta for Chhattisgarh Online

International News : September 2011

Jamaica's Usain Bolt won the Men's 4x100 Relay final and set a world record at the World Athletics Championships in Daegu
Australia’s Samantha Stosur defeated Serena Williams to win the US Open crown and her first grand slam singles title
Leila Lopes became the first woman from Angola to be crowned Miss Universe on 12 September 2011 in Sau Paulo
Helle Thorning-Schmidt elected Denmark's first female Prime Minister following elections
Sri Lankan golfer Anura Rohana won the Global Green Bangalore Open
Mad Men took the best drama Emmy at 63rd Annual Primetime Emmy Awards ceremony organised at the Nokia Theatre in Downtown Los Angeles
The government-run Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) setup its first overseas campus in Kampala, Uganda to assist students of African nations
Former Afghan President Burhanuddin Rabbani was killed by a suicide bomber killed in Kabul on 20 September
Australia under the captaincy of skipper Michael Clarke won the Test series 10-0 gainst Sri Lanka
Russian grandmaster Peter Svidler won the Chess World Cup title by defeating Alexander Grischuk
WikiLeaks founder founder Julian Assange’s unauthorised autobiography was released by publishers Canongate on 22 September 2011
King Abdullah of Saudi Arabia on 25 September 2011 granted women the right to vote and run in future municipal elections
Former Pakistani Cricketer Shoaib Akhtar’s autobiography, Controversially Yours launched
Hewlett-Packard Co named former eBay Inc Chief Executive Meg Whitman its president and CEO
Red Bull driver Sebastian Vettel of Germany won the Singapore Formula One Grand Prix on the Marina Bay City Circuit in Singapore.
Chen Long won the men's singles badminton title at the Japan Open .
World Tourism Day (WTD) is observed anually on 27 September. In 2011 WTD was celebrated with the theme Tourism – Linking Cultures. World Tourism Day (WTD) 2011 highlighted the role of the tourism industry in bringing together the cultures of the world and promoting global understanding through travel. Egypt was the host country for the official celebration of WTD 2011.
Kenyan environmentalist & Nobel laureate Wangari Maathai died on 25 September 2011 in Nairobi.
Three distinguished Indian Americans, two inventors and a researcher were named by US President Barack Obama on 27 September 2011 as recipients of National Medal of Science, and for Technology and Innovation. New York University’s Srinivasa SR Vardhan, Purdue University’s Rakesh Agarwal, and North Carolina State University’s B Jayant Baliga were the three Indians selected dozen to receive the National Medal of Science, and for Technology and Innovation, the highest honor bestowed by the United States government on scientists, engineers as well as inventors.
CAG was appointed as external auditor of two major UN organisations, the IAEA and WIPO

1	A
2	C
3	A
4	B
5	D
6	C
7	A
8	D
9	D
10	B
11	C
12	B
13	D
14	C
15	C
16	B
17	D
18	C
19	D
20	A
21	D
22	C
23	D
24	B
25	C
26	C
27	D
28	B
29	A
30	C
31	A
32	D
33	B
34	D
35	C
36	C
37	A
38	C
39	A
40	D
41	D
42	B
43	C
44	B
45	A
46	B
47	D
48	A
49	C
50	D

1	A
2	C
3	A
4	B
5	D
6	C
7	A
8	D
9	D
10	B
11	C
12	B
13	D
14	C
15	C
16	B
17	D
18	C
19	D
20	A
21	D
22	C
23	D
24	B
25	C
26	C
27	D
28	B
29	A
30	C
31	A
32	D
33	B
34	D
35	C
36	C
37	A
38	C
39	A
40	D
41	D
42	B
43	C
44	B
45	A
46	B
47	D
48	A
49	C
50	D

1	A
2	C
3	A
4	B
5	D
6	C
7	A
8	D
9	D
10	B
11	C
12	B
13	D
14	C
15	C
16	B
17	D
18	C
19	D
20	A
21	D
22	C
23	D
24	B
25	C
26	C
27	D
28	B
29	A
30	C
31	A
32	D
33	B
34	D
35	C
36	C
37	A
38	C
39	A
40	D
41	D
42	B
43	C
44	B
45	A
46	B
47	D
48	A
49	C
50	D