Dermatology Blueprint Questions 36-40

Answer 40

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 21:34:00 +0000

40. Choice C is the correct answer. This is a paronychia which is an accumulation of purulent material around the nail apparatus. This needs incision and drainage for definitive treatment. Skin biopsy is not indicated. Warm soaks would help but not provide definitive treatment. Topical bactroban may help but will not provide definitive treatment. The patient after incision and drainage should be on cephalexin and bactrim or doxycycline pending cultures.

Question 40

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 21:27:00 +0000

40. Which of the following would be definitive treatment for the skin condition listed below?

A. Skin Biopsy
B. Warm soaks
C. Incision and Drainage
D. Topical Bactroban

Answer 39

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 21:22:00 +0000

39. Choice D is the correct answer. Lesion lesion occur between the web spaces consistent with scabies. Bactroban ointment and bactrim would be appropriate if an infection is suspected. Prednisone would be over treatment is this was suspected to be contact dermatitis. There is only a couple of lesions and this could be treated with topical steroids if it was contact dermatitis.

Question 39

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 21:19:00 +0000

39. Which of the following is the best management option for the skin disorder pictured in the photograph below?

A. Bactroban Ointment

B. Bactrim

C. Prednisone

D. Permethrin

Answer 38

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 20:45:00 +0000

38. Choice D is the correct answer. Seborrheic keratosis are benign skin lesions that occur after the age of 30. Skin biopsy is not necessary. Topical or intra-lesion injection of triamcinolone would not be helpful. Removal is definitive treatment.

Question 38

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 20:40:00 +0000

38. Which of the following is the best management option for the skin condition depicted below?

A. Skin biopsy
B. Topical Triamcinolone
C. Intra-lesion injection of triamcinolone
D. Removal with cautery or surgery

Answer 37

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 20:31:00 +0000

37. Choice B is the correct answer. Psoriatic arthritis has an incidence of about 5-8 percent.

Question 37

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 20:30:00 +0000

37. What is the incidence of arthritis associated with psoriasis?

A. 1-2%
B. 5-8%
C. 10-12%
D. 15-20%

Answer 36

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 20:26:00 +0000

36. Choice D is the correct answer. Lichen Simplex Chronicus is a predilection of the skin that responds to trauma by epidermal hyperplasia. It has no fungal properties so lotrisone is not indicated. It can be treated with a combination of crude tar and zinc oxide, topical steroids, intra-lesion injections of triamcinolone, or occlusive dressings.

Question 36

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 11 Jan 2014 20:21:00 +0000

36. Which of the following is not a treatment for the skin condition depicted below?

A. Combination of crude tar in zinc oxide
B. Topical Steroids
C. Intra-lesion injections with triamcinolone
D. Lotrisone Cream