Dermatology Flashcards 1-5

Answer and Explanation 5

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 06:25:00 +0000

5. D is the correct answer. This is shingles. This is characteristic grouped vesicles on a erythematous base in a dermatomal distribution. Contact dermatitis can have blister appearance but does not follow a dermatomal distribution. MRSA typically has a more erythematous appearance and does not follow a dermatomal distribution. It may have a central necrotic center. Cellulitis too does not follow a dermatomal distribution and has more of a reddened and warm appearance.

Question 5

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 06:19:00 +0000

5. Which of the following diagnoses best fit the picture listed below?

A. MRSA

B. Cellulitis

C. Contact Dermatitis

D. Shingles

Answer and Explanation 4

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 06:15:00 +0000

4. A is the correct answer. This rash is a malar. It has the characteristic butterfly appearance with the nasolabial fold sparing. Roscea and Fifth's disease just affects the cheeks and usually has a deeper red appearance. Photosensitivity does not affect the face in this way just in that area. This patient needs a further workup for SLE.

Question 4

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 06:10:00 +0000

4. What is the diagnosis of the rash listed below?

A. Malar rash

B. Rosacea

C. Fifth's Disease

D. Photosensitivity

Answer and Explanation 3

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 06:06:00 +0000

3. B is the correct answer. It is often difficult to differentiate between tinea corporis and erythrasma They both are well demarcated. Erythrasma usually has a darker brown appearance and is thicker. This is important because it erythrasma is caused by corynebacterium and tinea is fungal. It usually responds to erythromycin. This is not Vitiligo.

Question 3

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 06:03:00 +0000

3. Which of the following best describes the lesion listed below?

A. Tinea Corporis

B. Erythrasma

C. Substantia Nigricans

D. Vitiligo

Answer and Explanation 2

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 05:57:00 +0000

2. C is the correct answer. Kerion is a scalp lesion that develops with tinea capitus that is an inflamed secondarily infected lesion. It has a boggy granulated appearance. It is best treated with oral anti fungals, and oral antibiotics may be needed. Pemphigus is a bullous lesion that usually affects the torso the most. This is not a cutaneous abscess. This is not shingles because there is no vesicular appearance and it does not follow a dermatomal distribution.

Question 2

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 05:52:00 +0000

2. Which of the following best describes the skin lesion depicted below?

A. Pemphigus

B. Cutaneous abscess

C. Kerion

D. Shingles

Answer and Explanation 1

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 05:47:00 +0000

1. B is the correct answer. Seborrheic keratosis is one of the most common types of non cancerous skin growths that usually occur in older patients. They usually appear as a brown, black, or pale growth on the face or torso. These lesions usually have a scaly, elevated appearance. Multiple lesions can occur at the same time. Basal cell usually are pearly or waxy. There color can be white, light pink, or skin colored. They tend to bleed easy. They may have a sunken area in the middle. Melanomas have an irregular border, are more flat, and exceed the diameter of a pencil eraser. They are usually dark brown or black. Pityriasis rosea is a rash the affects predominately the trunk. Usually has a herald patch in the center and resemble a christmas tree appearance.

Question 1

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 03 Feb 2013 05:39:00 +0000

1. Please identify the lesion below.

A. Basal Cell Carcinoma

B. Seborrheic Keratosis

C. Melanoma

D. Pityriasis