Dermatology Questions 1-4

Answer and Explanation 4

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 19 Jan 2013 02:35:00 +0000

4. The correct answer is D acyclovir. This patient has herpes zoster characterized by grouped lesions on an erythematous base in a dermatomal distribution. They occur most commonly on the trunk. They are somewhat ulcerated which is the natural progression of the disease. Triamcinalone would be appropriate for localized treatment of contact dermatitis or steroid responsive dermatoses. It would also work for psoriasis. Prednisone would be appropriate if the dermatitis was more systemically involved. Keflex would be appropriate if it was infectious or cellulitis not thought to be caused by MRSA.

Question 4

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 19 Jan 2013 02:28:00 +0000

4. Your patient is a 44 year old male who presents with the rash below. What is the best therapeutic intervention based upon your assessment?

A. Triamcinalone

B. Keflex

C. Prednisone

D. Acyclovir

Answer and Explanation 3

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 19 Jan 2013 02:16:00 +0000

3. The correct answer is D permetherin. These papular excoriated lesions in the web space in a linear fashion are characteristic of scabies. This patient has a rash involving almost their entire body. You notice the head and neck are not mentioned and often spared in scabies. Prednisone would be effective in contact dermatitis. These lesions are more characteristic of scabies. Bactrim and keflex would be helpful in folliculitis or bed bugs that were infected. Triamcinalone would be helpful for more localized treatment of contact dermatitis or steroid responsive dermatoses. The parasite that cause scabies is sarcoptes scabiei.

Question 3

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 19 Jan 2013 00:06:00 +0000

3. Your patient is a 34 year old female who presents with a pruritic rash below. The rash encompasses both arms and legs as well as the torso. There are other people in the house that have the same rash.

Base upon the above data, what is the best therapeutic intervention?

A. Prednisone

B. Bactrim and Keflex

C. Triamcinalone

D. Permethrin Topical

Answer and Explanation 2

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 18 Jan 2013 23:30:00 +0000

2. C is the correct answer. Syphllis is not a cause of Erythema Multiforme. Erythema Multiforme is a Type IV Hypersensitivity reaction that occurs in a variety of conditions and has many causes. The major causes of erythema multiforme include the following: herpes simplex virus, pregnancy, connective tissue disease, and occasionally malignancy. Some of the major drugs that can cause erythema multiforme include sulfa, penicillin, tegretol, phenytoin, valporic acid, cipro, erythromycin, minocycline and vancomycin. Erythema multiforme presents as target shaped lesions on the body.

Question 2

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 18 Jan 2013 23:19:00 +0000

2. Which of the following is not a cause of Erythema Multiforme?

A. Herpes Simplex Virus

B. Pregnancy

C. Syphllis

D. Penicillin

Answer and Explanation 1

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 18 Jan 2013 23:08:00 +0000

1. A is the correct answer. Sarcoidosis is not a part of CREST Syndrome. CREST Syndrome is a group of disorders that include Calcinosis, Raynaud's Espohageal Motility Disorders, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. It is a form of scleroderma.

Question 1

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 18 Jan 2013 22:44:00 +0000

1. Which of the following is not seen in CREST Syndrome?

A. Sarcoidosis

B. GERD

C. Telangectasia

D. Raynaud's