Doctors' Quiz

BEST FREE DNB-CET,AIPGMEE,FMGE,DNB-PDCET,UPSC-CMS.ONLINE MOCK TEST

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BEST FREE DNB-CET,AIPGMEE,FMGE,DNB-PDCET,UPSC-CMS.ONLINE MOCK TEST

DNB-CET,AIPGMEE,FMGE,DNB-PDCET,UPSC-CMS :DOCTORS QUIZ

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DNB-CET,AIPGMEE,FMGE,DNB-PDCET,UPSC-CMS :DOCTORS QUIZ

FREE BEST online PREPARATION DNB-CET,AIPGMEE,FMGE,DNB-PDCET,UPSC-CMS.MOCK TEST 20015

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FREE BEST online PREPARATION DNB-CET,AIPGMEE,FMGE,DNB-PDCET,UPSC-CMS.MOCK TEST 20015

GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Mon, 08 Jun 2015 06:22:00 +0000

GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY

Pharmacology - the study of the effects of drugs on the body. However, given the broad nature of this subject area, pharmacology includes a number of subdisciplines:

Neuropharmacology - the subdiscipline devoted to the study of the effects of drugs on cells of the nervous system.

Psychopharmacology - the subdiscipline devoted to the study of the effects of drugs on psychological processes and behavior.

Clinical Psychopharmacology - the subdiscipline of psychopharmacology concerned mainly with the use of drugs to treat abnormal human behaviour.

Clinical Neuropsychopharmacology - you guessed it, a combination of all three subdisciplines of pharmacology, i.e. the subdiscipline concerned with the study of the effects of drugs on the nervous system, their effects on psychological and behavioural processes, and their use in the treatment of abnormal human behaviour.

India Newborn Action Plan - WHO newborn CC 2014-2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 07 Jun 2015 18:07:00 +0000

5 WAYS to protect your eyes from AMD

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 05 Jun 2015 04:05:00 +0000

5 WAYS to protect your eyes from AMD

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a condition in which the macula, the part of the eye that's responsible for your sharpest and most detailed vision, begins to thin and break down, causing vision loss. If left untreated, it can lead to blindness.

There is no surefire way to prevent AMD. However, there are things you can do to delay its onset or reduce its severity. Here's how:

Smoking can speed up AMD damage. If you smoke, quit.
Sunlight is thought to possibly promote AMD. Protect your eyes from the sun by wearing sunglasses and broad-brimmed hats.

Research also suggests that certain nutrients help prevent macular degeneration. Eat a diet rich in fresh fruits and dark green leafy vegetables — such as spinach, collard greens, and kale — that are rich in lutein and zeaxanthin, which are key for eye health.

For people at high risk of developing the advanced stages of the "wet" form of AMD, high-dose combinations of antioxidant vitamins and minerals may lower their risk by about 25%. However, supplements don't seem to help people who don't have AMD or who have early AMD.

Ask your doctor about supplements if you have intermediate or advanced dry AMD or wet AMD. It's unclear whether omega-3 supplements are beneficial for AMD, but eating fish and other foods high in these nutrients may still be worthwhile for preserving optimal vision and overall good health.

5 TRUTH about protecting your eyes

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 05 Jun 2015 04:01:00 +0000

5 TRUTH about protecting your eyes

Of your five senses, which one are you most afraid of losing? If you're like most people, your answer is your ability to see. Because our eyesight is so precious, it's no wonder that myths abound about what can damage our eyes — and what can protect them. Here, we debunk five common myths — and tell you how to truly keep your eyes healthy.

Myth: Doing eye exercises will delay the need for glasses.

Fact: Eye exercises will not improve or preserve vision or reduce the need for glasses. Your vision depends on many factors, including the shape of your eyeball and the health of the eye tissues, neither of which can be significantly altered with eye exercises.
Myth: Reading in dim light will worsen your vision.
Fact: Dim lighting will not damage your eyesight. However, it will tire your eyes out more quickly. The best way to position a reading light is to have it shine directly onto the page, not over your shoulder. A desk lamp with an opaque shade pointing directly at the reading material is ideal.

Myth: Carrots are the best food for the eyes.
Fact: Carrots, which contain vitamin A, are indeed good for the eyes. But fresh fruits and dark green leafy vegetables, which contain more antioxidant vitamins such as C and E, are even better. Antioxidants may even help protect the eyes against cataracts and age-related macular degeneration. Just don't expect them to prevent or correct basic vision problems such as nearsightedness or farsightedness.

Myth: It's best not to wear glasses or contact lenses all the time. Taking a break from them allows your eyes to rest.
Fact: If you need glasses or contacts for distance or reading, use them. Not wearing your glasses will strain your eyes and tire them out instead of resting them. However, it will not worsen your vision or lead to eye disease.

Myth: Staring at a computer screen all day is bad for the eyes.
Fact: Using a computer does not damage your eyes. However, staring at a computer screen all day can contribute to eyestrain or tired eyes. People who stare at a computer screen for long periods tend not to blink as often as usual, which can cause the eyes to feel dry and uncomfortable. To help prevent eyestrain, adjust the lighting so it doesn't create a glare or harsh reflection on the screen, rest your eyes briefly every 20 minutes, and make a conscious effort to blink regularly so that your eyes stay well lubricated.

FREE ONLINE MOCK TEST AND SUBJECTWISE TEST 2015 AT WWW.DOCTORSQUIZ.COM

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Transform Your Laptop, PC, Tablet and Mobile to Study Room.

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 05 Apr 2015 15:51:00 +0000

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

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ONLINE AIPGMEE MOCK TEST 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 28 Mar 2015 15:27:00 +0000

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

1. A 50 year old female has undergone mastectomy for Ca Breast. After Mastectomy, Patient is not able to extend, adduct and internally rotate the arm. There is damage to nerve supplying which muscle?
A. Latissimus Dorsi
B. Pectoralis Major
C. Teres Minor
D. Long head of Triceps
ANS-A

2. Muscle spared by complete transection of cranial part of accessory nerve
A. Stylopharyngeus
B. Palatopharyngeus
C. Salpingiopharyngeus
D. Cricopharyngeus
ANS A

3. Cervical vertebra is differentiated from the Thoracic vertebra by the presence of (Twisted Nov 2006)
A. Foramen Transversarium
B. Triangular Foramina
C. Upward facing facets
D. Larger Vertebral Body
ANS A
4. In complete unilateral damage to Hypoglossal nerve, all are true EXCEPT (May 2008)
A. Atrophy on affected side
B. Deviation of tongue towards the site of lesion
C. Deviation of Larynx to the contralateral side during swallowing
D. Loss of tactile sensation on tongue on affected side
ANS D

5. Which of the following is True?
A. Hypothalamus is part of brainstem
B. Occipital lobe is part of Cerebral Cortex
C. Medulla is part of Limbic System
D. All of the above
ANS B

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ONLINE FMGE/MCI SCREENING TEST MOCK TEST 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 28 Mar 2015 15:23:00 +0000

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

6.extra renal manifestations of ADPKD include all except
A.saccular aneurysms
B.aortic root and annulus dilation
C.colonic diverticulae
D.splenic cysts
Answer.d.splenic cysts.

7.a unique form of hemolytic anemia (with spur cells and acanthocytes) can occur in patients with severe alcoholic hepatitis . This is called as
A.kostamann's syndrome
B.zieve's syndrome
C.seckel syndrome
D.dubowitz syndrome
Answer.b.zieve's syndrome.

8.aplastic anemia with pancreatic insufficiency and malabsorption is seen in
A.fanconi's anemia
B.dyskeratosis congenita
C.shwachman diamond syndrome
D.diamond Blackfan syndrome
Ans.c.shwachman diamond syndrome

9.hemorrhagic cystitis is a dreaded complication with use of
A.clobazam
B.cyclosporin A
C.cycloserine
D.cyclophosphamide
Ans.d.cyclophosphamide.

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ONLINE DNB-CET MOCK TEST MARCH 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 28 Mar 2015 15:18:00 +0000

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

1.Non pancreatic gastrinomas are mostly located in
A.duodenum
B.stomach
C.liver
D.heart
Answer.a.duodenum.

2.the holiday heart syndrome which typically appears after a drinking binge manifests most frequently as
A.heart failure
B.atrial fibrillation
C.complete heart block
D.sudden death
Answer.2.atrial fibrillation.

3.acute kidney injury caused by acyclovir is due to
A.tubular necrosis
B.tubular obstruction
C.acute interstitial nephritis
D.all the above
Answer.d.all the above.

4.lesch-nyhan syndrome is characterised by all except
A.hyperuricemia
B.self mutilation behaviour
C.choreoathetosis
D.partial deficiency of HPRT
Answer.d.partial deficiency of HPRT.

5.hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except
A.drugs
B.pituitary stalk compression
C.hyperthyroidism
D.renal failure
Answer.hyperthyroidism.

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ANATOMY MCQ( Multiple choice questions) WITH EXPLANATION 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 08 Mar 2015 16:35:00 +0000

MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION IN ANATOMY 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

1. The part of the sperm containing proteolytic enzymes to digest the zona pellucida is the:

A. capacitor
B. head
C. corona
D. acrosome
E. cumulus

D. is correct.
The acrosome is the part of the sperm containing proteolytic enzymes to digest the zona pellucida. It is exposed by the process of capacitation. Then, under the influence of substances released by corona radiata cells, it releases its proteolytic enzymes and penetrates the oocyte.

2. The ovulated mammalian oocyte is arrested at:

A. prophase of meiosis I
B. metaphase of meiosis I
C. prophase of meiosis II
D. metaphase of meiosis II
E. none of the above

D. is correct.
The long arrest in meiosis occurs in the primary oocyte. These descendants of oogonia begin meiosis before birth and stop dividing during prophase of the first division. Years later, this first division is completed just prior to ovulation. Ovulated secondary oocytes then stop at metaphase II until fertilized.

3. The seven-day blastocyst:

A. has a single layer of trophoblast at the embryonic pole
B. has an amniotic cavity
C. is attached to the endometrial epithelium
D. is surrounded by a degenerating zona pellucida
E. is called the hypoblast

C. is correct.
The decidual reaction of the endometrium creates a nourishing environment for the conceptus a it buries itself by invasion of the uterine endometrial wall. Progesterone produced by the corpus luteum stimulates glandular secretion in the endometrium during the secretory phase of menstruation or early pregnancy.

4. Haploid nuclei that fuse at fertilization are called:

A. homunculi
B. mitotic figures
C. centrioles
D. nucleoli
E. pronuclei

E. is correct.
After the sperm reaches the ovum, it deposits its genetic load, the male pronucleus, into the cytoplasm of the egg. After finally completing the meiotic division that had begun years before, the female pronucleus fuses with the male pronucleus to create the diploid nucleus of the zygote

5. The first week of human development is characterized by formation of the:

A. inner cell mass
B. hypoblast
C. trophoblast
D. blastocyst
E. all of the above

E. is correct.
At four days, the blastocyst cavity of blastocele forms within the morula. Trophoblast are outer cells of the blastocyst, while a knot of cells appears, protruding into the blastocele. This is the inner cell mass. Trophoblast becomes 2 layers: syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. Inner cell mass becomes epiblast and hypoblast.

6. During implantation, the blastocyst:

A. implants in the endometrium
B. usually attaches to endometrial epithelium at its embryonic pole
C. usually implants in the posterior wall of the body of the uterus
D. causes change in the endometrial tissues
E. all of the above are correct

E. is correct.
Implantation occurs when the trophoblast cells at the embryonic pole secrete proteolytic enzymes that allow the blastocyst to penetrate the wall of the uterus, usually the posterior wall. The endometrial lining responds to implantation through the decidua reaction, by which it becomes more succulent for nourishing the blastocyst.

7. Capacitation of the sperm:

A. is caused by the zona pellucida
B. occurs in the male
C. prevents polyspermy
D. is essential for fertilization
E. removes the head of the sperm

D. is correct.
Capacitation involves removing the glycoprotein coat and seminal plasma proteins from the head of the sperm, exposing the acrosome and allowing the acrosome reaction to occur. Capacitation occurs within the female genital tract, and without its occurrence, fertilization could not occur.

8. The early stages of cleavage are characterized by:

A. formation of a hollow ball of cells
B. formation of the zona pellucida
C. increase in the size of the cells in the zygote
D. increase in the number of cells in the zygote
E. none of the above

D. is correct.
The earliest stages of cleavage are marked by a series of mitotic divisions that increase the number of cells in the zygote without an increase in size. As the cleavage continues the zygote becomes a morula or a solid ball of 12-16 cels. A cavity forming within the morula transforms it into a blasocyst, at about day 4.

9. The most common site for implantation in ectopic pregnancy is:

A. internal os of the uterus
B. mesentery
C. ovary
D. uterine tube
E. other

D. is correct.
The most common site of ectopic implantation is the uterine tube. The growth of the embryo in this site usually causes rupture of the tube and severe hemorrhage in the mother. Abdominally, an ectopic pregnancy often occurs in the rectouterine pouch, an area between the uterus and the rectum.

10. With the light microscope, the zona pellucida appears as a translucent membrane surrounding the:

A. primary oocyte
B. zygote
C. morula
D. very early blastocyst
E. all of the above are correct

E. is correct.
The zona pellucida persists until early it the blastocyst stage. It dissolves during the blastocyst stage in order that implantation may occur.

11. The amniotic cavity develops:

A. on the tenth day
B. within the outer cell mass
C. within the inner cell mass near the cytotrophoblast
D. in extraembryonic mesoderm
E. none of the above

C. is correct.
The amniotic cavity begins to develop around the 8th ay as a slit-like area within the epiblast near the cytotrophoblast. It usually ha a thin strip of epiblast cells, called amnioblasts, between it and the cytotrophoblast.

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HIGH YIELD POINT FOR MICROBIOLOGY2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 22 Feb 2015 16:40:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR MICROBIOLOGY2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

Primary B-cell diseases include panhypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton disease), an X-linked deficiency of all three major classes of immunoglobulins, as well as other selective deficiencies of the immunoglobulins or their subgroups. This condition presents after 3 months of age (after maternal antibodies wane) with recurrent and often simultaneous bouts of otitis media, pneumonia, diarrhea, and sinusitis.

T-cell: Among the T-cell diseases is DiGeorge anomaly, in which defective embryologic development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches results in hypoplasia of both thymus and parathyroid glands. Associated findings with DiGeorge anomaly include CATCH: C for cardiac, A for abnormal faces, T for thymic hypoplasia, C for cleft palate, and H for hypocalcemia.

Combined B and T-cell diseases:
▪ X-linked recessive Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome of mild T-cell dysfunction, diminished serum IgM, marked elevation of IgA and IgE, eczema, recurrent middle-ear infections, lymphopenia, and thrombocytopenia.
▪ Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID), have deficient T- and B-cells. Consequently, they are both marked lymphopenia and agammaglobulinemia, as well as hypoplasia of the thymus.
▪ Ataxia telangiectasia and chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis.

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WHAT CAN I DO TO PROTECT MYSELF FROM GETTING SICK ? SWINE FLU

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 20 Feb 2015 02:31:00 +0000

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

WHAT CAN I DO TO PROTECT MYSELF FROM GETTING SICK ?
There is no vaccine available right now to protect against swine flu. There are everyday actions that can help prevent the spread of germs that cause respiratory illnesses like influenza. Take these everyday steps to protect your health:

Cover your nose and mouth with a tissue when you cough or sneeze.Throw the tissue in the trash after you use it

Wash your hands often with soap and water, especially after you cough or sneeze. Alcohol-based hand cleaners are also effective

Avoid touching your eyes, nose or mouth. Germs spread this way

Try to avoid close contact with sick people

THERE ARE EVERYDAY ACTIONS PEOPLE CAN TAKE TO STAY HEALTHY
Cover your nose and mouth with a tissue when you cough or sneeze. Throw the tissue in the trash after you use it

Wash your hands often with soap and water, especially after you cough or sneeze. Alcohol-based hands cleaners are also effective
Avoid touching your eyes, nose or mouth. Germs spread that way

WHAT DRUGS ARE AVAILABLE FOR TREATMENT ?

Antiviral drugs for seasonal influenza are available in some countries and effectively prevent and treat the illness. There are two classes of such medicines, 1) adamantanes (amantadine and remantadine), and 2) inhibitors of influenza neuraminidase (oseltamivir and zanamivir)..

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR Swine Influenza (swine flu) 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 20 Feb 2015 02:22:00 +0000

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

Swine Influenza (swine flu)

IT is a respiratory disease of pigs caused by type A influenza viruses (H1N1 subtype) that causes regular outbreaks in pigs. People do not normally get swine flu, but human infections can and do happen

Swine flu viruses have been reported to spread from person-to-person, but in the past, this transmission was limited and not sustained beyond three people

SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS

The symptoms of swine flu in people are similar to the symptoms of regular human flu and include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, headache, chills and fatigue. Some people have reported diarrhea and vomiting associated with swine flu.

In the past, severe illness (pneumonia and respiratory failure) and deaths have been reported with
swine flu infection in people.
Like seasonal flu, swine flu may cause a worsening of underlying chronic medical conditions.

The symptoms of swine flu in people are similar to the symptoms of seasonal flu in humans and may include:

Fever (greater than 100°F or 37.8°C)

Sore throat

Cough

Stuffy nose

Chills

Headache and body aches Fatigue

Spread of this swine influenza A (H1N1) virus is thought to be happening in the same way that seasonal flu spreads. Flu viruses are spread mainly from person to person through coughing or sneezing of people with influenza. Sometimes people may become infected by touching something with flu viruses on it and then touching their mouth or nose.

SAFETY PRECAUTIONS

Avoid live animal markets, poultry and pig farms in affected countries

Always maintain high levels of personal hygiene, especially before and after food preparation and in-out of toilets. Regular wash your hands

Cook pork thoroughly

Do not consume half-done pork

While in an affected region, seek immediate medical attention if you develop influenza-like symptoms. (High Fever, body pain, coughing and red nose)

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR BASIC RADIOLOGY 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 19 Feb 2015 14:10:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR BASIC RADIOLOGY 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

absorbed dose (D): The quotient of dE by dm, where dE is the mean energy imparted by ionizing radiation to matter of mass dm. The unit for absorbed dose is the joule per kilogram (J kg–1), with the special name gray (Gy).

accelerator: In this Report, refers to an electron accelerator, which is a device for imparting kinetic energy to elec- trons, with the kinetic energy being >2 and <50 br="" mev.="">
accelerator head: The part of the accelerator enclosing the x-ray target or source from which the useful beam ema- nates. The accelerator head contains shielding and may rotate about an axis.

activation: The process of inducing radioactivity by irradiation. An example is the process of creating radionuclides by neutron and gamma-ray activation of materials within the treatment room.

activity: The number of spontaneous nuclear transformations that occur in a quantity of a radioactive nuclide per unit time. The unit of activity is one transformation per second (s–1) with the special name becquerel (Bq).

annihilation: The process by which electromagnetic radiation is emitted as a result of the combination and disappear- ance of an electron and a positron. Two gamma rays of 0.511 MeV energy each are emitted in most cases.

as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA): A principle of radiation protection philosophy that requires that exposures to ionizing radiation be kept as low as reasonably achievable, economic and social factors being taken into account. The protection from radiation exposure is ALARA when the expenditure of further resources would be unwarranted by the reduction in exposure that would be achieved.

atomic number (Z) (low-Z, high-Z): The atomic number of a nucleus is the number of protons contained in the nucleus. Low-Z describes nuclei with Z ≤ 26. High-Z describes nuclei with Z > 26.

attenuation: The reduction of dose equivalent or other physical properties of a radiation field upon the passage of radiation through matter. This Report is concerned primarily with broad-beam attenuation that occurs when the area of the radiation field is large at the barrier (in contrast to a small diameter beam).

barn: Special unit for the cross section. 1 barn = 10–28 m2 (10–24 cm2) (see cross section).

barrier (or protective barrier): A protective wall of radiation attenuation material(s) used to reduce the dose equivalent on the side beyond the radiation source (see primary and secondary barriers).

beam-on time: The time that the radiation source is actually producing radiation.

bremsstrahlung: The spectrum of photons produced by the acceleration or deceleration of high-energy electrons, particularly near the coulomb fields of nuclei (see also x-ray target).

broad beam: Conditions of a radiation-shielding situation in which the beam impinging on a barrier surface includes scattered radiation and is laterally extensive.

collimator: A device used to reduce the cross-sectional area of the useful beam of photons or electrons with an absorbing material.

controlled area: A limited-access area in which the occupational exposure of personnel to radiation or to radioactive material is under the supervision of an individual in charge of radiation protection. This implies that access, occu- pancy, and working conditions are controlled for radiation protection purposes.

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR PATHOLOGY 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 15 Feb 2015 15:15:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR PATHOLOGY 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

1. Fastest growing tumor – Burkitt’s

2. PE’s are found in half of all autopsies

3. Courvoisier’s Law: tumors that obstruct the common bile duct cause enlarged gallbladders, but obstructing

gallstones do not (too much scarring), so if you can palpate the gallbladder you’e probably looking at cancer.

4. Only DNA virus to replicate in cytoplasm: Pox

5. Only RNA virus to replicate in nucleus: Influenza

6. Bacillus anthracis has the only protein capsule

7. Bordetella pertussis (Whooping Cough) elicits lymphocytosis rather than granulocytosis

8. Bronchioalveolar carcinomas grow without destroying the normal architecture of the lung

9. Cryptococcus neoformans often lacks a capsule and, when stained with GMS, looks just like Pneumycistis

carinii, except that Cryptococcus lacks the prominent nucleoli.

10. Weil Felix reaction: (+)R. rickettssi & (+)Proteus vulgaris & P. mirabilis

11. Treponema pallidum (Syphilis) tests: 1)VDRL 2)FTA-Abs: most widely used 3)TPI (immobilization test – most expensive but the Gold Standard)

DNB MOCK TEST QUESTION WITH ANSWER 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 14 Feb 2015 14:11:00 +0000

DNB MOCK TEST QUESTION WITH ANSWER 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

1. A patient with Hypertension, comes with severe unilateral headache and vomiting. On MRI, lateralized convex lesion seen. He has neck stiffness. The diagnosis is
A. Intracerebral Hemorrhage
B. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
C. Meningitis
D. meningoencephalites
ANS B

2. Drug induced Lupus seen in all EXCEPT ?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Hydralazine
C. Isoniazid
D. Penicillin

ANS D
3. All about Leukemia are FALSE EXCEPT ?
A. CML occurs after 50 years of age
B. ALL occurs before 1 year in neonates
C. ALL in before 1 year has poor prognosis
D. Hairy Cell Leukemia occurs before 50 years of age

ANS C

4. Patient with Pneumococcal Brain Abscess. Culture is sent for Antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic is given till culture sensitivity result come?
A. Penicillin G
B. Ceftriaxone
C. ceftriaxone+ vancomycin
D. Ampicillin

ANS C
5. Pseudotumor Cerebri is seen in
A. Obese Female of 20-40 years
B. Obese Male of 20-40 years
C. Thin Female of 50-60 years
D. Thin Male of 50-60 years
ANS A

6. Photosensitivity is a symptom of Porphyria. All of the following enzyme deficiencies have photosensitivity EXCEPT
A. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
B. Uroporphyrinogen oxidase
C. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
D. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
ANS B

7. A 60 year old lady has progressive slowing of movements since 2 years. She has Rigidity and rectangular slow wave jerking movements. Most probable diagnosis is ?
A.Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
B. Lewy-Body Dementia
C. Parkinsonism
D. Multiple System Atrophy
ANS A

8. A Penicillin allergic patient has Rheumatic Fever. Which of the following drug should be prescribed?
A. Penicillin G
B. Sulfoxazole
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Sulfadiazine
ANS B

9. A neonate presents with bleeding from umbilical stump, rest of the examination is normal. Probable diagnosis is ?
A. Factor X deficiency
B. von Willebrand Disease
C. Glanzman Thromboasthenia
D. Bernard Soulier Syndrome
ANS A

10. Which scientific principle is the basis for Thermodilution method used in measurement of cardiac output by Pulmonary Catheter?
A. Hagen-Poisseuille Principle
B. Stewart-Hamilton Principle
C. Bernoulli’s Principle
D. Universal Gas Equation

ANS A

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HIGH YIELD POINT FOR PSM 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 14 Feb 2015 13:30:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR PSM 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

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HIGH YIELD POINT FOR ANATOMY 2015-THORAX

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Wed, 11 Feb 2015 05:00:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR ANATOMY 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

THORAX
THORAX
	Dermatome around nipple	T4
	Vertebral level at inferior angle of scapula	TV7
	Structure that lies immediately posterior to manubrium	Thymus
	Rib related to oblique fissure of lung posteriorly	2nd
	Rib paralleled by horizontal fissure of right lung	4th
	Inferior extent of lung at midclavicular line	6th rib
	Inferior extent of pleura at midclavicular line	8th rib
	Inferior extent of lung at midaxillary line	8th rib
	Inferior extent of pleura at midaxillary line	10th rib
	Inferior extent of lung posteriorly	10th rib
	Inferior extent of pleura posteriorly	12th rib
	Innervation of costal pleura	Intercostal nerve
	Innervation of mediastinal pleura	Phrenic nerve
	Site for auscultation of pulmonary valve	Left 2nd interspace
	Site for auscultation of aortic valve	Right 2nd interspace
	Site for auscultation of tricuspid valve	Xiphisternal joint
	Site for auscultation of mitral valve	Left 5th interspace,
		midclavicular line
	Heart chamber with greatest sternocostal projection	Right ventricle
	Chamber that forms apex of heart	Left ventricle
	major chamber that forms base of heart	Left atrium
	Heart chamber that contains moderator band	Right ventricle
	Artery that determines coronary dominance	Posterior interventricular
	Usual origin of SA and AV nodal arteries	Right coronary artery
	Location of SA node	Cristae terminalis
	Major vessel that drains the musculature of the heart	Coronary sinus
	Innervation of fibrous pericardium	Phrenic nerve
	Most common cause of systolic ejection murmur	Aortic stenosis
	Rib associated with sternal angle	Second rib
	Vertebral level associated with sternal angle	Disc between TV4-5
	Location of ductus arteriosus	Between left pulmonary
		artery and aorta
	Nerve potentially injured with repair of patent ductus arteriosus	Left recurrent laryngeal
		Nerve
	Veins that unite to form brachiocephalic	Subclavian and internal
		Jugular
	Veins that unite to form superior vena cava	Right and left
		Brachiocephalic
	Termination of azygos vein	Superior vena cava
	Structures that lie to right and left of thoracic duct	Azygos veins, aorta
	Spinal levels of greater splanchnic nerve	T5-9
	Spinal levels of lesser splanchnic nerve	T10-11
	Spinal levels of least splanchnic nerve	T12
	Thoracic structures that can compress the esophagus	Left bronchus, aorta and
		Diaphragm
	Disease often associated with thymoma READ MORE	Myasthenia gravis

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR PSYCHIATRY 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Tue, 10 Feb 2015 13:04:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR PSYCHIATRY 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

Neurexin is responsible for synaptic transmission. It is implicated in autism.

Disorders oF perception-
Illusion- Sensory distortions
Hallucination- No stimulus; Clear, vivid, 3D; Insight is absent; No voluntary control; Objective space*

Auditory hallucination → Psychiatric disorder (typical of schizophrenia, may also be seen in depression)

Visual hallucination → Organic disorder

Olfactory hallucination → Temporal lobe epilepsy

Pseudo-hallucination-

Insight is present

May be in a subjective space

Imagery-
Not clear
Not 3D
Subjective space
Voluntarily controlled

Thought-
Flow
Form-
Flight of ideas (Prolixity): Two thoughts are joined by superficial association → Mania
Loosening of association
Word salad → Only words

Neologism → Coining new words or using old words in unique way → schizophrenia (most characteristic sign)

Circumstantiality → Unnecessary boring details

Tangentiality- Patient gives unnecessary details but substantce of idea is not communicated.
Content- Delusion (Grandiose, Persecution, Reference)

READ MORE

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR FORENSIC MEDICINE 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Mon, 09 Feb 2015 08:40:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR FORENSIC MEDICINE 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

VARIOUS ACTS -FOR FORENSIC MEDICINE

· The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971(Amend 1975)

· The Narcotic Drugs & 1985 Psychotropic Substance Act

· Consumer Protection Act 1986

· Mental Health Act 1987

· Organs Transplantation of Human Act 1994

· Prenatal Diagnostic Technique 1994(Amend in 2000). Punishment to doctor if gender of embryo is revealed-

◦ 1st time--> 3 yr+10,000 fine

◦ 2nd time--> 5 yr+10,000 fine

· Tardieu spots- Petechial hemorrhages found in asphyxia. They are seen above the level of obstruction in asphyxia.

· MTP Act --> 1931 (Amended in 1975)

· Prenatal diagnostic Technique act --> 1994 (amended in 2000)

· Consumer protection act --> 1986

· Drugs and cosmetic rules --> 1945

IMPORTANT Declarations- FORENSIC MEDICINE-

1. Declaration of Oslo--> Therapeutic abortion

2. Declaration of Sydney--> Definition of death

3. Declaration of Munich-->Discrimination in medicine

4. Declaration of Helsinki-->Human experimentation and clinical trials*

5. Declaration of Lisbon--> Rights of patients

6. Declaration of Venice--> Terminal illness

7. Declaration of Tokyo--> Torture in medicine

READ MORE

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR MEDICINE 2015

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sun, 08 Feb 2015 16:43:00 +0000

HIGH YIELD POINT FOR MEDICINE 2015

http://www.doctorsquiz.com important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET, UPSC-CMS online medical examination .

Diabetes insipidus(DI) is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of severely diluted urine, with reduction of fluid intake having no effect on the latter. There are several different types of DI, each with a different cause.

The most common type in humans is central DI, caused by a deficiency of arginine vasopressin(AVP), also known as antidiuretic hormone(ADH). Vasopressin acts at the distal tubule and collecting ducts to increase permeability to water not a/w electrolytes i.e. free water. Hence central DI is a/w *free waterclearence. Under normal circumstances, this would result in the movement of free water from renal tubule to capillary. Under conditions of vasopressin deficiency, as in nephrogenic DI water remains in the tubules, resulting in excretion of dilute urine.

The second common type of DI is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which is caused by an insensitivity of the kidneys to ADH. Symptoms are similar to neurogenic DI except plasma levels of vasopressin are increased.

Plummer vinson's syndrome- Combination of symptomatic hypopharyngeal webs and Iron deficiency anemia in middle aged female. Presence of web is in postcricoid* region. Hemoglobin is low and there is hypochromic microcytic anemia. All cases have a low serum iron and high iron binding capacity. Iron shold be given orally to correct Hb levels.

Lofgren's syndrome- erythema nodosum, arthralgias, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

AR-Peripheral signs------

1. Austin Flint murmur* may be heard in severe AR

2. Collapsing (water hammer) pulse*

3. Corrigan’s sign* (carotid pulsation)

4. de Musset’s sign* (head nodding)

5. Duroziez’sign* (femoral diastolic murmur as blood flows backwards in diastole)

6. Hill Sign -BP difference in upper and lower limb--> (UL
7. Quincke’s sign* (capillary pulsations in nail beds)

8. Traube’s sign* piston sound over femoral arteries

9. Wide pulse pressure*

READ MORE

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