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GAIL

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Sat, 30 Jun 2012 05:41:00 +0000

What is GAIL?

Incorporated on 16th August 1984, GAIL (Gas Authority of India Ltd.) is the largest gas processing-cum-distribution-cum-marketing company in India, integrating all aspects of the natural gas value chain. Its Market Share is more than 70% in both Transmission as well as Marketing.

Manned by over 3,700 employees, it has 11,000 km of Natural Gas high pressure trunk pipeline, 1,922 km of LPG Transmission pipeline, 7 LPG Gas Processing Units & 27 oil and gas Exploration blocks and 1 Coal Bed Methane Blocks, besides other infrastructures like 13,000 km of OFC network offering highly dependable bandwith for telecom service providers.

In 2010, GAIL was ranked as No.1 company among gas utilities in Asia in the Platts Global Ranking and in 2004, it was rated as one of the Best Employers in India by Hewitt Associates.
for more information visit GAIL website by Click Here.

GAIL Executive Trainee Eligibility:

Age eligibility: Max. 28 years as on 30.09.2011.Relaxations exist as per Govt. rule.

Academic Qualification Eligibility for GAIL Executive Trainee:

Minimum 65% aggregate (60% for SC/ST candidates) marks in Batchelor degree of Engineering (B.E. / B.Tech. / B.Sc. Engg.) from following engineering disciplines:

i) ET (Mechanical): Mechanical / Production / Production & Industrial / Manufacturing / Mechanical & Automobile.

ii) ET (Electrical): Electrical / Electrical & Electronics.

iii) ET (Instrumentation): Instrumentation / Instrumentation & Control / Electronics & Instrumentation / Electrical & Instrumentation / Electronics / Electrical & Electronics.

iv) ET (Chemical): Chemical / Petrochemical / Chemical Technology / Petrochemical Technology.

v) ET (Civil): Civil Engineering

vi) ET (Telemetry): Electronics / Electronics & Communication / Electronics & Telecommunication / Telecommunication / Electrical & Electronics / Electrical & Telecommunication.

Qualifications for ET (Human Resources):

Bachelor Degree with minimum 60% Marks and Two years MBA / MSW with specialization in Personnel Management & Industrial Relations / Human Resources Management with minimum 65 % Marks OR Bachelor Degree with minimum 60% Marks and Two years Master Degree / Two years PG Diploma in Personnel Management / Personnel Management & Industrial Relations with minimum 65 % Marks. Preference will be given to additional qualification of LL.B. (Prof.).

Relaxations for SC/ST/PH is 5% for above %ages.

GAIL Executive Trainees Selection Procedure :
The selection process consists of a Written test, followed by GD/Interview for those selected in the Written test. Written Test Centers: The written test will be held in 14 cities as mentioned in the On-line Application System. Candidates are required to give two choices for Test Centers in the online application form. The choices given by the candidates in respect of the Test Centre for written test shall only be considered as their preferred choice.

GAIL ET Exam Pattern:

GAIL in its notification has given following pattern of written exam for Executive Trainees:

Paper-1: Subject Knowledge Test - 100 questions.

Paper-2: General Aptitude Test - 50 questions.

While Subject Knowledge Test would be specific to your own branch/discipline, General Aptitude Test would be common to all. These 150 Objective type questions are to be answered within two hours duration.

There is negative marking - 1/4th mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. As you can see, you have to give special emphasis on the Subject Test, as it has twice the marks of Aptitude Test. Following the GAIL ET written exam, the short listed candidates would be called for GD/Interview.

CAT Topic Analysis

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Fri, 29 Jun 2012 16:45:00 +0000

Section Based Distribution of Previous Years' CAT Questions:

Section	CAT 2003	CAT 2004	CAT 2005	CAT 2006	CAT 2007	CAT 2008
Quantitative Ability	50	35	30	25	25	25
Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning	50	38	30	25	25	25
Verbal Ability	50	50	30	25	25	40
Total Questions	150	123	90	75	75	90

Topic Based Distribution of Previous Years' CAT Questions:

Section	CAT 2003	CAT 2004	CAT 2005	CAT 2006	CAT 2007	CAT 2008
Arithmetic	17	11	12	12	8	12
Algebra	8	5	3	5	4	5
Geometry	14	10	8	6	3	5
Word Problems	1	8	4	2	9	1
Miscellaneous	7	0	3	0	1	2
Data Interpretation	34	32	30	25	21	27
Logical Reasoning	16	6	0	10	4	5
Reading Comprehension	25	21	12	15	12	20
Verbal Logic	12	9	7	10	7	4
Vocabulary	13	13	7	0	3	11
Grammar (Sentence Correction)	0	6	4	0	3	5

More Info. About CAT >>
Common Admission Test(CAT)
CAT Syllabus
CAT Exam Analysis and Cut Off
CAT Tips for Preparation
IIM Seat

IIM Seat

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 28 Jun 2012 19:20:00 +0000

As the Common Admission Test (CAT) window draws to a close, the number of seats available in different categories at the top ten b-schools . The data excludes Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Bangalore as it has not yet finalised the total number of seats available for the 2012-14 batch.
Indian Institutes of Management (IIM) Seats: The top five IIMs have a total of 2,016 seats between them for the next academic year. Last year it was 1,979, so that is an increase of 37 seats (1.8%).
Reserved Seats: Of the 2,016 seats, 998 seats are reserved (49.5%). The percentage of reserved seats remains the same as last year – for NC/OBCs it is 27% (544 seats), for SC it is 15% (302 seats) and for ST it is 7.5% (151 seats).
General Category: That leaves 1,018 seats open for general category candidates.
Faculty of Management Studies (FMS): The total number of seats at FMS is 200. From the next academic year, FMS will accept CAT scores.

Reserved Seats: The reserved seats are 99 in number. Out of which 54 seats are for NC/OBC category, 30 seats are for the SC category and 15 seats are reserved for the ST category.

General Category: That leaves 101 seats for general category students.
SP Jain Institute of Management and Research (SPJIMR): Like the present academic year, SP Jain will accept CAT, XAT and GMAT scores with 180 seats on offer in the next academic year. It has no reserved seats.
General Category seats for CAT takers: To determine the number of seats available for CAT takers for admission to the top nine b-schools, the numbers at IIMs (1,018), FMS (101) and SPJIMR (117) need to be added up. Past trends show that approximately 65% of candidates have got admission in SPJIMR through CAT. That adds up to a total seat number of 1,236.
Reserved Category seats for CAT takers: For admission to the top nine b-schools, the number of seats for the reserved category is 1097.
Seats for XAT takers: Only two of the top ten b-schools accept the Xavier’s Aptitude Test (XAT). Xavier’s Labour Relations Institute (XLRI) has 240 seats on offer for the next academic session and SPJIMR’s takes approximately 30% of its intake through XAT, which is 54 seats. So a total of 294 seats are approximately available through XAT.
Seats for GMAT takers: Again only two of the top ten b-schools accept GMAT scores. The Indian School of Business (ISB) is offering 770 seats in its next academic year. SPJIMR takes approximately 5% of its intake through GMAT, which is about 9 seats. So a total of 779 seats are approximately available by taking the GMAT.

**Number of Seats for 2012 batch**
Institutes	Seats
Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Ahmedabad	385
Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Calcutta	PGDM=402 PGDCM=60 Total=462
Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Bangalore	Not yet decided on total number Last year’s seats=382
Indian School of Business (ISB)	Hyderabad campus=560 Mohali Campus=210 Total=770
Xaviers Labour Relations Institute (XLRI), Jamshedpur	BM = 120 HR = 120
Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Lucknow	419
Faculty of Management Studies (FMS), Delhi	200
SP Jain Institute of Management and Research (SPJIMR)	180
Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Kozhikode	300
Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Indore	450

More Info. About CAT >>
Common Admission Test(CAT)
CAT Syllabus
CAT Exam Analysis and Cut Off
CAT Topic Analysis
CAT Tips for Preparation

CAT Tips for Preparation

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 28 Jun 2012 19:01:00 +0000

WINNERS DON’T DO DIFFERENT THINGS, THEY DO THINGS DIFFERENTLY
To do justice to this topic, it was not possible to keep it too short . How to prepare is mainly divided in following subtopics
Fundamentals of Preparation - This is common to all competitive exam preparations
Exam Specific Preparation - Important Areas for CAT
Books - A brief on text and reference books for CAT. You can also use TestBag study material

In short - first believe in yourself - you can do it and build will power, learn to manage time, study specific to competition - then self assess each topic wise- identify gap - fill gap - move on - on completing syllabus move to mock tests and finally no match to practice
Fundamentals for Preparation

Construction of knowledge in your mind is the key because only you have to reproduce this knowledge in exam. Teaching (Instructions) from school / coaching class / digital media are methods of giving knowledge to you but far more important is how much have you gained (construction of knowledge in your mind) and for that only your efforts will matter. Memorising is short lived. Learning is lasting as you have put in efforts to understand each topic. In objective exams there is no shortcut to learning

CAT mainly tests your concepts with speed and accuracy

In most competitive exams, your knowledge is important but how much you know more than others is more important. As CAT has a limited curriculum, do not leave anything

This year CAT is computer based. You may be required to practice on computers beforehand. However the nature of preparation is same

You can divide your CAT study in two phases

Phase 1 is setting your fundamentals right. Master each topic chapter wise. Self assessor would be of great help

Divide you curriculum into short objectives. Each objective should be specific, measurable, achievable, realistic and time-bound. The overall period of all short term objectives should not extend beyond 10th October

1. Start QA, DI & DS and VA simultaneously
2. Master topics step by step

Phase II - Start practicing to improve your speed and accuracy. Test simulator will come handy

Methodology

Study yourself from any good book
90 minutes maths
30 minutes Reasoning and Logic
45 minutes Data Sufficiency and Data interpretation
30 minutes English Proficiency and Usage
45 minutes Reading Comprehension

There after take ten to fifteen minutes self test on each topic of the subject studied by you to assess level of understanding achieved in the topic studied. These tests draw questions from a large and specific knowledge pool based on your selection criteria. Kindly ensure that there is sufficient challenge in your self test. Your number of questions be more than 10 for the topic, level of questions should be at least L2 (except in Elementary maths where it should be L1) and time should be bare enough to solve questions.

Analyse results. For questions done incorrectly refer to books to understand where you have gone. try to complete this exercise alone. Alternatively take help of your mentor. The mentors can be your school teacher or teacher in coaching class. To economise time prefer coaching if necessary only in subjects where you are weak.

Thereafter retake test with new set of questions. Once confident, move to next topic. This is active learning as you have yourself put in efforts to understand topics. You will start enjoying your studies and these concepts will be long lasting in you mind
Remember - Move step by step to ensure that you cover all topics and avoid confusion

Start arithmetic with number system - understand concepts from any good book. Initially take a 10 minute tests with 10 questions on number system in TestBag at question level L1 with question type Any. (Number system questions in CAT can be straight objective multiple choice or common data type where more than one questions are linked to a common data or comprehension) Analyse what is not known to you and what mistakes are you doing. Go back to books, peers in group study or take help of teacher. Take tests again and till you achieve requisite confidence

Repeat this for other areas in arithmetic - ratio proportions, simplification, averages, logarithms, ages, boats and streams, time and work, time and distance, calendars clocks . Thereafter work on Mensuration , followed by geometry. And now cover the most important - Algebra (mainly Theory of Equations,Inequalities, Logarithms and Permutations andCombination). At the end work on Probability

Start English with Vocabulary, then move to English Proficiency ( working on sentence improvement, rearrangement of words in sentence, sentence in paragraphs, paragraph formation, paragraph completion etc) and then move to English Usage (common errors, spotting errors, in appropriate usage)

Start Reading comprehension with history paragraphs, move to science and technology paragraphs, sociology and philosophy

Start data interpretation with less complex tables, bar charts, pie diagrams, line graphs and then move to complex graphs, charts, mixed diagrams

Start Reasoning with data arrangements, data comparison, move to analytical reasoning and case lets

Remember - Move from simple topics to complex and excel step by step.

Each test is build on previous patterns or by subject matter experts and clearly indicating topics included, number of questions, level of questions and type of questions. Each test simulates exam like environment with time and marking pattern of CAT
Mock tests and old papers have fixed question. But test patterns every time generate new online tests where computer based on specific parameters randomly generates questions from CAT knowledge pool. This pool keeps getting enriched regularly

Again the new set of questions replaces old questions in mock tests after regular time intervals
Test Simulator will help you to build Speed and Accuracy and indicate

your shortcomings so that you can initiate steps for improvement
your mistakes so that you can avoid them
topics you have not covered or covered inadequately

Test Bag is very comprehensive for CAT preparation and is available at a reasonable cost.
Books : Study from any good book. Preferably use only one/two books as your base/test books . Other books be only used for reference. This saves lot of time. Few books are mentioned below

Topic	Name of the Book	Writer/Publisher

Maths	NCERT Maths from 8th to 10th	NCERT
Maths	Quantitative Aptitude for CAT	Nishit Sinha/Pearson
Maths	Quantitative Aptitude for MBA Entrance Examinations	Abhijit Guha
Maths	Quantitative Aptitude for MBA Entrance Examinations	R.S. Aggarwal
Maths	How to prepare for Quantitative Aptitude for CAT	Arun Sharma/TATA McGRAW HILL
Maths	Puzzles and some other number books	Shakuntla Devi
Maths	Higher Algebra	Hall and Knight
Maths and DI	Crack The Cat Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation	Vivek Gupta and Sandeep Amar
Data Interpretation	Any good book in Statistics
Data Interpretation	How To Prepare For The Data Interpretation And Logical Reasoning For The CAT 3rd Edition	Arun Sharma/TATA McGRAW HILL
Data Interpretation	Course in Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude	Edgar Thorpe
Data Interpretation	Fundamental of Reasoning A Logic Book	Robert M. Johnson
English	High School English Grammar and Composition	Wren and Martin
English	Word Power Made Easy	Norman Lewis
English	Business English and Communication	Clark Grade C
English	All about Words	Rosenblum and Nurenberg
English	How to Prepare for the Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension for the CAT	Arun Sharma & Meenakshi

More Info. About CAT >>
Common Admission Test(CAT)
CAT Syllabus
CAT Exam Analysis and Cut Off
CAT Topic Analysis
IIM Seat

CAT Exam Analysis and Cut Off

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 28 Jun 2012 18:46:00 +0000

CAT Exam Analysis
1. The duration of the test is 2 hours and 30 minutes including initial 15 minute tutorial. No breaks will be given during the test. The test consists of questions that evaluate a candidate’s quantitative, verbal, and logical & data interpretive abilities. The paper had 60 Qs, 20 QA, 20 DI/LR and 20 VA
2. Each Question has 4 options for marking and only one answer is correct for each question.3. Each question carries 3 marks each, so maximum marks for paper is 180.
4. Although there was no mention but there should be negative marking . As such 1 mark should be deducted for each incorrect answer
5. The coverage of questions in three sections were similar to previous CAT papers although the difficulty may have been a notch lower
The exact questions are not known but some indications of CAT 2010 are as under
The paper was of 2 hours 15 minutes duration with 20 questions each from Verbal Ability, LR and DI and Quantitative Aptitude section.

In Verbal Ability Section, common pattern of questions is

Topic	Number of Qs
Completion of paragraph/sentence	2
Paragraph Jumbles	4
Grammar (Sentence Correction)	2
Correct Usage of words given	2
Vocabulary Based Questions
Fill in the blanks (2 blanks)	1
Reading Comprehension
RC 1	3
RC 2	3
RC 3	3

In LR and DI, common pattern of questions is

Topic	Number of Qs

Logical and Critical Reasoning reasoning questions	14
Calculation based questions	6

Broadly following areas are covered in DI questions
1.Table
2. Pie-chart
3. Bar chart
4. Stacked Bar
5. Line Graphs
6. Mixed Diagrams
7. 3D Charts
8. Maxima & Minima

Broadly following areas are covered in Reasoning Questions
1.    Set of conditions
2.    Logical Arguments and conclusions / deductions
3.    Puzzles
4.    Venn Diagrams

In Quant Section , common pattern of questions is

Topic	Number of Qs
Algebra and Number System	8
Geometry and Mensuration	3
Probability	1
Arithmetic and others	8

Broadly following areas are covered in arithmetic, algebra , geometry and others
Arithmetic
1. Number Systems and Number Theory
2. Percentages - Details
3. Profit and Loss - Details
4. Simple and Compound Interest
5. Speed, Time and Distance
6. Pipes and Cisterns
7. Races
8. Averages
9. Ratio and Proportions
10. Mixtures and Alligations

Algebra
1. Linear and Quadratic Equation
2. Logarithm
3. Progressions - AP, GP, HP
4. Binomial Theorem
5. Inequalities
6. Permutation & Combination
7. Probability
8. Function
9. Set Theory

Geometry
1.Geometry
2. Co ordinate Geometry
Trigonometry
Mensuration

CAT 2010 Cut Offs :
Cut Offs are compiled on basis of likely cut-offs for various business schools for admissions to their MBA/PGDBM programmes. There is no rule in compiling same. It is based on data sourced from B Schools, from candidates getting calls. Kindly call respective B schools for specific information. The said information is only indicative

Correct Questions	Marks @ 3 marks for correct question	Percentage	Expected Percentile	Expect Call fr
37	111	62	100	All IIMs
36	108	60	99.5	At least 3 IIMS
35	105	58	99	At least 1 IIM
34	102	57	98	At least 1 IIM
33	99	55	97	MDI Gurgaon
32	96	53	96	MDI Gurgaon ,IMT G
31	93	52	95	NITIE, IMT G,IMI. MDI HR
30	90	50	94	SP Jain, Nirma, FORE
29	87	48	93	IMI New Delhi, TA PAI Manipal
28	84	47	92	UBS Chandigarh,
27	81	45	91	KJS, ISWBM
26	78	43	90	NIRMA
25	75	42	89	LBS, IMDR, NIBM, BIM-Trichy
24	72	40	85	NIA, BIM-Tech, SDM-IMD, EDI
23	69	38	80	Geat Lakes, Chennai
22	66	37	75	IIFM, NIT-Trichy
21	63	35	70	Welingkar, IMFR Chennai
20	60	33	65	Amity Noida

CAT 2008 Exam Analysis
The paper was slightly more difficult than last year. In addition there was more stress on verbal ability with increase of 15 questions in that section
There were 90 questions of 4 Marks each.Negative marking -1 for each question
                    Section I -    Data Interpretaion ,Data Sufficiency and Reasoning 25 Q
                    Section II - Quantitative Aptitude 25 questions
                    Section III - Verbal Ability and   Reading Comprehension 40 Q

CAT 2008 Cut offs

Overall cut off for CAT 2008 for IIMs for General category between 120+ to 140+

Section wise cut off

Quantitative Aptitude : 32 - 35

Data Interpretaion: 32-35
Verbal ability :   46 - 49

CAT 2008 Selection Criteria Institute wise

	Category	Section I (QA)		Section II	RA	Section III	VA	Overall
		Percentile	Marks	Percentile	Marks	Percentile	Marks	Percentile	Marks
Maximum Marks		100	100	100	96	100	160	100	356

IIM Ahemdabad	General	94	35	94	35	94.5	47	98	121
	OBC	80	21	80	25	80	28	88	79

IIM Calcutta	General	96	38	96	38	96	51	99	133
	OBC	85	25	85	28	85	32	94	98


IIM Bangalore	General	90	32	85	32	85	26	90	82
	OBC	80	25	75	26	60	12	80	65
	ST	50	13	50	12	50	9	70	52
	SC	50	13	50	12	50	9	70	52

IIM Indore	General	80	25	80	28	80	21	99	132
	OBC	75	23	75	26	75	19	95	98
	ST	65	19	65	19	65	14	72	55
	SC	65	19	65	19	65	14	83	71

More Info. About CAT >>
Common Admission Test(CAT)
CAT Syllabus
CAT Topic Analysis
CAT Tips for Preparation
IIM Seat

CAT Syllabus

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 28 Jun 2012 18:18:00 +0000

There is no fixed syllabus for IIM CAT. Past exam pattern depict the questions are mainly from these areas usually divided into Four section

Verbal ability and reasoning
Reading Comprehension
Quantitative skills
Data Interpretation

Verbal ability and reasoning accounts for half of the verbal section
A typical 50 marks section of verbal comprises Verbal ability and reasoning section and the Reading Comprehension section. Verbal ability accounts for about 25 to 30 marks questions in the verbal section and the reamining 20 to 25 marks questions are Reading comprehension questions.

In CAT 2004 there were 0.5, 1 and 2 marks questions in the verbal section and in CAT 2005 there were 1 mark and 2 marks questions in the verbal section. CAT 2006 and CAT 2007 had 25 questions in the Verbal Ability section with each question carrying 4 marks. Of these 12 to 15 questions were Reading Comprehension question and the remaining questions were Verbal Reasoning questions.

The questions that typically appear in the verbal section can be classified in one of the following types

Vocabulary Based
Questions based on testing one's vocabulary could be plain vanilla "synonym - antonym" questions as it appeared in CAT 2001, CAT 2002. Alternatively, the questions on vocabulary may appear as fill in the blank with the appropriate word as it appeared in the 0.5 marks section of CAT 2004 or as part of the 2 marks section in CAT 2005.
There have been interesting variations to this question as in CAT 2001 and CAT 2002 where a simple word was given. Four alternate usages for the word was given and four different shades of meaning for the word was given. One had to match the usage with the appropriate meaning. A sample of such a question is given if you follow the link at the bottom of the page.
However, please note that the emphasis on vocabulary has been on the decline and the need to memorize meanings of words such as "pleonasm" or "pterodactyl" is not essential to crack such questions in CAT.
English Usage / Grammar
Sentence correction or Grammar based questions appear in different flavours in the CAT verbal section. It could be questions where you are asked to spot the section of a sentence that is gramatically incorrect or it could be questions where a part of a sentence in underlined and you are provided with four or five alternative choices. You have to select the choice that0 corrects the error in the underlined part.
More recently in CAT 2005, questions on grammar appeared with a twist. A set of 4 sentences were given and you had to find out how many out of the 4 sentences were gramatically correct.
A good understanding of the basics of English grammar coupled with adequate exercises on the different types of common errors that appear in CAT will help you sail through these kinds of questions.
Verbal Reasoning
These questions could take multiple forms. The most common one is that of rearranging sentences of a paragraph. It could also include paraphrasing what has been said in a paragraph. In some CAT papers questions similar to the ones that appear in the Critical Reasoning section of GMAT have been tested.
CAT 2006 witnessed the comeback of Fact Inference Judgement questions. These questions which were a standard feature in CAT in the early 90s made a comeback in 2006. You will be given 3 or 4 sentences and will be asked to select which of the statements is a fact, which a judgement and which an inference.

Reading Comprehension accounts for a third to a half of the verbal section in CAT
A typical 100 marks section of verbal comprises Verbal ability and reasoning section and the Reading Comprehension section. Verbal ability accounts for about 40 to 60 marks questions in the verbal section and the reamining 60 to 40 marks questions are Reading comprehension questions. In CAT 2006, 15 out of the 25 questions in the verbal section were reading comprehension questions (i.e., 60 out of 100 marks). In CAT 2007, 12 out of the 25 questions in the verbal section were reading comprehension questions (i.e., 48 out of 100 marks).
Reading Comprehension questions come in groups of four to eight questions, and are based on reading passages that range from 250 to 750 words in length.
CRACKING THE SYSTEM
To be able to perform well in these types of questions you need to:
read quickly in a way that will allow you to understand the main idea of the passage
eliminate answer choices that could not possibly be correct
take advantage of outside knowledge
take advantage of inside information (the answer that is generally correct in exams like CAT), and
find answers in some cases without reading the passage.
BASIC PASSAGE TYPES
Passages that you will find in the CAT exam can be broadly classified into one of the following types.
1)The social science passage
This usually concerns a social or historical issue. You might see a passage about world population control or the history of the rise to power of a clan in medieval India.
2)The science passage
This might describe a scientific phenomenon, such as aviation, super conductivity or plate tectonics.
3)The business passage
This usually discusses a business-related topic. For example, you might see a passage about the privatization of state-owned industries, pricing of options and futures or the causes of inflation.
4)The entertainment passage
This usually discusses a topic related to entertainment, sports, leisure. The passage could be on a topic such as the lifestyles of the rich and famous, the reason for the success of a Hollywood or Bollywood movie.

CAT Quantitative Ability (Quant / Math)
Syllabus, Topics tested in IIM's Common Admissions Test
The Quant (Math) section in CAT usually accounts for a third of the questions in CAT. For instance, in CAT 2006 and CAT 2007 the quant section had 100 marks worth questions out of the total of 300 marks worth questions. More often than not students who take CAT find the quant section as the toughest one. Albeit, CAT 2006 was an exception

IIM's CAT Math Refresher Books cover the following topics
Broadly categorized as Arithmetic, Algebra and Geometry CAT typically tests a student's quantitative ability from over 25 topics. These topics that appear in CAT are of high school level. Click on the links that follow each topic for details of what is covered in 2IIM's Quant Refresher books on these topic and for accesing an archive of sample questions from these topics.

Arithmetic

Number Systems and Number Theory
Percentages
Profit and Loss
Simple & Compound Interest
Speed, Time and Distance
Pipes and Cisterns
Races
Averages
Ratio, Proportion
Mixtures and Alligations

Algebra

Linear and Quadratic Equation
Logarithm
Progressions - AP, GP, HP
Binomial Theorem
Inequalities
Permutation & Combination
Probability
Function
Set Theory

Geometry

Geometry
Co ordinate Geometry
Trigonometry
Mensuration

Data Interpretation (DI) Section
Data Interpretation (DI) section accounts for a third of the questions that appear in CAT
Data Interpretation (DI) - what does it comprise?

Data Interpretation accounted for 50 marks questions in the Common Admissions Tests (CAT) since CAT 2001. CAT 2005 had 30 questions in this section. 10 of the 30 questions were 1 mark questions and the remaining 20 were 2 marks questions. CAT 2006 and CAT 2007, each had 25 questions in this section. Each qeustion carried 4 marks

Data Intrepretation section can be broadly classified as comprising two types of questions.
Data Interpretation (DI)
In these questions data is presented either in the form of a table or a bar chart or a pie chart or a line graph or as a combination of one of these formats. Following each of these data presentations, there will be 4 to 6 questions. You are expected to answer the questions by interpreting the data given in the table or graph. Here is a sample data interpretation question.

Data Sufficiency (DS)
Every Data Sufficiency problem consists of a question followed by two statements. You have to decide NOT WHAT THE ANSWER IS, BUT WHETHER THE QUESTION CAN BE ANSWERED based on the information given in the two statements.

CAT exams till 2004 had DS questions either as part of the quant section or as part of the DI section. CAT 2005 and CAT 2006 did not have any DS questions at all. But it staged a comeback in CAT 2007. Hence, one cannot rule out such questions in future CAT exams.

More Info. About CAT >>
Common Admission Test(CAT)
CAT Exam Analysis and Cut Off
CAT Topic Analysis
CAT Tips for Preparation
IIM Seat

Common Admission Test(CAT)

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 28 Jun 2012 17:27:00 +0000

THE COMMON ADMISSION TEST (CAT) is conducted by the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) and is the first step in the process of seeking admission to the IIMs. CAT is considered one of the most important national standards for entrance to management institutes. Apart from the Indian Institutes of Management, over 50 other management institute use the CAT score for shorting candidates.

Common Admission Test(CAT ) is conducted by Indian Institute Of Managements (IIMs) for admission to Post Graduate Programmes and Fellow Programmes with sectoral programmes on Agricultural and Rural Development, Energy and Power, Human Settlements and Environment, Population and Health, Transportation and Education Management at Calcutta, Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Lucknow, Kozhikode, Indore, Shillong, Rohtak, Ranchi, Raipur, Tiruchirappalli ,Udaipur, Kashipur In addition some other top management institutes (around 100 ) use CAT score for admissions
Mudra Insitute of Communication, Ahmedabad
S.P.Jain Institute of Management and Research (SPJIMR), Mumbai
Management Development Institute, Gurgaon
T.A.Pai Management Institute, Manipal
Fore School of Management, New Delhi
Institute of Management, Nirma University, Ahmedabad
National Insurance Academy School of Management , Pune
Institute of Management Technology, Ghaziabad
International Management Institute, New Delhi

Admission Policy of IIMs: Each IIM admits students independently. The Common admission test (CAT) is conducted jointly by IIMs. However,each IIM follows its own admission process,independent of the other IIMs. It should be noted that performance in CAT is one of several inputs used by IIMs to judge the suitability of a candidate, first for group discussion and/or interview and then for final selection.the IIM to which the candidate has applied,evaluates the candidate in each of a set of different areas of achievement,including CAT performance. Each IIM independently decides what weightages should be given to the various are as, admission process followed by each IIM is given in the respective institutional profile.

Non-IIM Institutions: Institutions, other than the IIMs, which also use CAT scores for their admission process, are provided CAT scores of the candidates who have applied to them, along with suggested guidelines on how to use the scores.IIMs do not have any role,other than providing CAT scores,in the admission processes of these institutions.IIMs do not ascertain the quality of programme/degree offered by these institutions before agreeing to provide CAT scores

Selection Process for CAT Exam:
There will be 2 rounds for CAT exam
1) Written test 2) Interview test

CAT Eligibility
The candidate must hold a Bachelor’s Degree,with at least 50% marks or equivalent CGPA [45% in case of the candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste (SC)/ Scheduled tribe (ST) or Persons with Disability (PWD) category], of any of the Universities incorporated by an act of the central or state legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under section 3 of UGC act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification recognized by the Ministry of HRD, Government of India. the Bachelor’s Degree or equivalent qualification obtained by the candidate must entail a minimum of three years of education after completing higher secondary schooling (10+2) or equivalent.the percentage obtained by the candidate in the bachelor’s degree would be based on the practice followed by the university/ institution from where the candidate has obtained the degree. In case of the candidates being awarded grades/CGPa instead of marks,the equivalence would be based on the equivalence certified by the university/ institution from where they have obtained bachelor’s degree.In case the university/ institution does not have any scheme for converting CGPa into equivalent marks, the equivalence would be established by the IIMs by dividing obtained CGPa with the maximum possible CGPa and multiplying the resultant with 100.

Candidates appearing for the final year bachelor’s degree / equivalent qualification examination and those who have completed degree requirement and are awaiting results can also apply. Such candidates must produce a certificate from the Principal/Head of the Department/Registrar/Director of the university/ institution certifying that the candidate is currently in the final year / is awaiting final results and has obtained at least 50% marks or equivalent (45% in case of candidates belonging to SC/ST/PWD category) based on latest available grades/ marks

Exam Dates and Schedule
CAT is held in November usually on third Sunday of November

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Syllabus for NTPC Exam

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 05 Jan 2012 15:44:00 +0000

click the below link as per your stream:
Mechanical Syllabus for NTPC Exam
Civil Syllabus for NTPC Exam
Control & Instrumentation Syllabus for NTPC Exam

Mechanical Syllabus for NTPC Exam

Engineering Mechanics:

Free body diagrams and equilibrium; trusses and frames; virtual work; kinematics and dynamics of particles and of rigid bodies in plane motion, including impulse and momentum (linear and angular) and energy formulations; impact.

Engineering Materials:

Structure and properties of engineering materials and their applications, heat treatment, stress-strain diagrams for engineering materials.

Strength of Materials:

Stress and strain, stress-strain relationship and elastic constants, Mohr's circle for plane stress and plane strain, thin cylinders, thick-walled vessels; shear force and bending moment diagrams; bending and shear stresses; deflection of beams; torsion of circular members; columns and struts; strain energy and impact loading; thermal stresses; Rotating Rims & Discs; Bending of Curved Bars.

Theory of Machines:

Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms, kinematic synthesis of mechanisms; dynamic analysis of slider-crank mechanism; gear trains; flywheels; static and dynamic force analysis; balancing of rotating components; governors.

Thermodynamics:

Thermodynamic system and processes; Zeroth, First and Second laws of thermodynamics;; Carnot cycle. irreversibility and availability; behaviour of pure substances, ideal and real gases; calculation of work and heat in ideal and real processes; Rankine and Brayton cycles with modifications, analysis of thermodynamic cycles related to energy conversion; vapour refrigeration cycle, heat pumps, gas refrigeration, reverse Brayton cycle; moist air: psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric processes.

Energy Conversion:

Fuels and combustion; high pressure steam boilers; flow through nozzles; Gas turbines with intercooling, reheat and regenerators, Steam turbines, velocity diagram, power output and efficiency, maximum blade efficiency of single stage impulse turbine, blade friction, compounding of impulse turbine; reaction turbine, degree of reaction, velocity diagram, power output, efficiency; losses in steam turbines, stage efficiency, overall efficiency and reheat factor; governing of steam turbines; steam condensers, condenser vacuum, sources of air leakage & its disadvantages.

Heat-Transfer:

Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept, electrical analogy, unsteady heat conduction, fins; dimensionless parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, various correlations for heat transfer in flow over flat plates and through pipes; thermal boundary layer; effect of turbulence; radiative heat transfer, black and grey surfaces, shape factors, network analysis; heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods.

Fluid Mechanics:

Fluid properties; fluid statics, manometry, buoyancy; control-volume analysis of mass, momentum and energy; fluid acceleration; differential equations of continuity and momentum; Bernoulli's equation; viscous flow of incompressible fluids; boundary layer; elementary turbulent flow; flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends etc.

Vibrations:

Free and forced vibration of single degree of freedom systems; effect of damping; harmonically excited and transient vibrations; introduction to multi-degree of freedom systems; vibration isolation; resonance, critical speeds of shafts.

Design:

Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the design of machine elements such as bolted, riveted and welded joints, shafts, spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings, keys, couplings, brakes and clutches; Selection of Materials.

Fluid Machines:

Pelton, Francis, propeller and Kaplan turbines; performance characteristics and governing of hydraulic turbines; introduction to Deriaz and Bulb turbines; selection of turbines; Centrifugal & axial pumps and fans, reciprocating pumps.

Joining:

Chemistry of welding, design of welding joints, pre- and post-heat treatment of welded joints; brazing and soldering; adhesive bonding.

Machining and Machine Tool Operations:

Mechanics of metal cutting and chip formation, single and multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials, tool life and wear; principles of non-conventional machining processes; principles of work clamping, principles of design of jigs and fixtures.

Metrology and Inspection:

Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular measurements; comparators; gauge design; interferometry; form and finish measurement; alignment and testing methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly.

Computer Integrated Manufacturing:

Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their integration tools. 16. Production Planning and Control: Forecasting models, aggregate production planning, scheduling, materials requirement planning.

Inventory Control:

Deterministic and probabilistic models; safety stock inventory control systems, economic order quantity.

Operations Research:

Linear programming, simplex and duplex method, transportation, assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.

Product Design and Development:

Principles of good product design, tolerance design; quality and cost considerations; product life cycle; standardization, simplification, diversification, value engineering and analysis, concurrent engineering.

Industrial Safety:

Introduction, types of accidents, causes and common sources of accidents, methods of safety, first aid.

Engineering Economy and Costing:

Elementary cost accounting and methods of depreciation; break-even analysis, techniques for evaluation of capital investments, financial statements.

Management Information System:

Value of information; information storage and retrieval system - database and data structures; knowledge based systems.

Civil Syllabus for NTPC Exam

Mechanics:

Bending moment and shear force in statically determinate beams. Simple stress and strain relationship: Stress and strain in two dimensions, principal stresses, stress transformation, Mohr's circle. Simple bending theory, flexural and shear stresses, unsymmetrical bending, shear centre. Thin walled pressure vessels, uniform torsion, buckling of column, combined and direct bending stresses.

Structural Analysis:

Analysis of statically determinate trusses, arches, beams, cables and frames, displacements in statically determinate structures and analysis of statically indeterminate structures by force/ energy methods, analysis by displacement methods (slope deflection and moment distribution methods), influence lines for determinate and indeterminate structures. Basic concepts of matrix methods of structural analysis.

Concrete Structures:

Concrete Technology- properties of concrete, basics of mix design. Concrete design- basic working stress and limit state design concepts, analysis of ultimate load capacity and design of members subjected to flexure, shear, compression and torsion by limit state methods. Basic elements of prestressed concrete, analysis of beam sections at transfer and service loads.

Steel Structures:

Analysis and design of tension and compression members, beams and beam- columns, column bases. Connections- simple and eccentric, beam-column connections, plate girders and trusses. Plastic analysis of beams and frames.

Soil Mechanics:

Origin of soils, soil classification, three - phase system, fundamental definitions, relationship and interrelationships, permeability and seepage, effective stress principle, consolidation, compaction, shear strength.

Foundation Engineering:

Sub-surface investigations- scope, drilling bore holes, sampling, penetration tests, plate load test. Earth pressure theories, effect of water table, layered soils. Stability of slopes- infinite slopes, finite slopes. Foundation types- foundation design requirements. Shallow foundations- bearing capacity, effect of shape, water table and other factors, stress distribution, settlement analysis in sands and clays. Deep foundations -pile types, dynamic and static formulae, load capacity of piles in sands and clays, negative skin friction.

Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics:

Properties of fluids, principle of conservation of mass, momentum, energy and corresponding equations, potential flow, applications of momentum and Bernoulli's equation, laminar and turbulent flow, flow in pipes, pipe networks. Concept of boundary layer and its growth. Uniform flow, critical flow and gradually varied flow in channels, specific energy concept, hydraulic jump. Forces on immersed bodies, flow measurements in channels, tanks and pipes. Dimensional analysis and hydraulic modeling. Kinematics of flow, velocity triangles and specific speed of pumps and turbines.

Hydrology:

Hydrologic cycle, rainfall, evaporation, infiltration, stage discharge relationships, unit hydrographs, flood estimation, reservoir capacity, reservoir and channel routing. Well hydraulics.

Irrigation:

Duty, delta, estimation of evapo-transpiration. Crop water requirements. Design of: lined and unlined canals, waterways, head works, gravity dams and spillways. Design of weirs on permeable foundation. Types of irrigation system, irrigation methods. Water logging and drainage, sodic soils.

Water requirements:

Quality standards, basic unit processes and operations for water treatment. Drinking water standards, water requirements, basic unit operations and unit processes for surface water treatment, distribution of water. Sewage and sewerage treatment, quantity and characteristics of wastewater. Primary, secondary and tertiary treatment of wastewater, sludge disposal, effluent discharge standards. Domestic wastewater treatment, quantity of characteristics of domestic wastewater, primary and secondary treatment Unit operations and unit processes of domestic wastewater, sludge disposal.

Air Pollution:

Types of pollutants, their sources and impacts, air pollution meteorology, air pollution control, air quality standards and limits.

Municipal Solid Wastes:

Characteristics, generation, collection and transportation of solid wastes, engineered systems for solid waste management (reuse/ recycle, energy recovery, treatment and disposal).

Noise Pollution:

Impacts of noise, permissible limits of noise pollution, measurement of noise and control of noise pollution.

Surveying:

Importance of surveying, principles and classifications, mapping concepts, coordinate system, map projections, measurements of distance and directions, leveling, theodolite traversing, plane table surveying, errors and adjustments, curves.

Control & Instrumentation Syllabus for NTPC Exam

Basics of Circuits and Measurement Systems:

Kirchoff's laws, mesh and nodal Analysis. Circuit theorems. One-port and two-port Network Functions. Static and dynamic characteristics of Measurement Systems. Error and uncertainty analysis. Statistical analysis of data and curve fitting.

Transducers, Mechanical Measurement and Industrial Instrumentation:

Resistive, Capacitive, Inductive and piezoelectric transducers and their signal conditioning. Measurement of displacement, velocity and acceleration (translational and rotational), force, vibration and shock. Measurement of pressure, flow, temperature and liquid level. Measurement of pH, conductivity, humidity, hydrazine, silica, dissolved O2. Units and standards of measurement.

Analog Electronics:

Characteristics of diode, BJT, JFET and MOSFET. Diode circuits. Transistors at low and high frequencies, Amplifiers, single and multi-stage. Feedback amplifiers. Operational amplifiers, characteristics and circuit configurations. Instrumentation amplifier. Precision rectifier. V-to-I and I-to-V converter. Op-Amp based active filters. Oscillators and signal generators. Voltage stabiliser and regulator circuits. Inverter and converter circuits.

Digital Electronics:

Combinational logic circuits, minimization of Boolean functions. IC families, TTL, MOS and CMOS. Arithmetic circuits. Comparators, Schmitt trigger, timers and mono-stable multi-vibrator. Sequential circuits, flip-flops, counters, shift registers. Multiplexer, S/H circuit. Analog-to-Digital and Digital-to-Analog converters. Basics of number system. Microprocessor applications, memory and input-output interfacing. Microcontrollers.

Signals and Systems:

Definitions and properties of Laplace transform, continuous-time and discrete-time Fourier series, continuous-time and discrete-time Fourier Transform, DFT and FFT, z-transform. Sampling theorem. Linear Time-Invariant (LTI) Systems: definitions and properties; causality, stability, impulse response, convolution, poles and zeros, parallel and cascade structure, frequency response, group delay, phase delay. Signal transmission through LTI systems.

Communications:

Random signals and noise: probability, random variables, probability density function, autocorrelation, power spectral density. Analog communication systems: amplitude and angle modulation and demodulation systems, spectral analysis of these operations, superheterodyne receivers; elements of hardware, realizations of analog communication systems; signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) calculations for amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM) for low noise conditions. Fundamentals of information theory and channel capacity theorem. Digital communication systems: pulse code modulation (PCM), differential pulse code modulation (DPCM), digital modulation schemes: amplitude, phase and frequency shift keying schemes (ASK, PSK, FSK), matched filter receivers, bandwidth consideration and probability of error calculations for these schemes. Basics of TDMA, FDMA and CDMA and GSM. Basic Network topology and Net work hard wares. LAN / WAN configurations. UTP and OFC Links and components. Serial and parallel communication, Shielding and grounding. IEEE standards and broadband.

Electrical and Electronic Measurements:

Bridges and potentiometers, measurement of R,L and C. Measurements of voltage, current, power, power factor and energy. A.C & D.C current probes. Extension of instrument ranges. Q-meter and waveform analyzer. Digital voltmeter and multi-meter. Time, phase and frequency measurements. Cathode ray oscilloscope. Instrument Transformer.

Control Systems and Process Control:

Feedback principles. Signal flow graphs. Transient Response, steady-state-errors. Routh and Nyquist criteria. Bode plot, root loci. Time delay systems. Phase and gain margin. State space representation of systems. Mechanical, hydraulic and pneumatic system components. Synchro pair, servo and step motors. On-off, cascade, P, P-I, P-I-D, feed forward and derivative controller, Fuzzy controllers. Multi-state variable and Adaptative controls. System modeling, Digital controls, Distributed digital controls, control loops based on computers.

Analytical, Optical and Biomedical Instrumentation:

Mass spectrometry. UV, visible and IR spectrometry. X-ray and nuclear radiation measurements. Optical sources and detectors, LED, laser, Photo-diode, photo-resistor and their characteristics. Interferometers, applications in metrology.

Syllabus for BSNL JTO Exam

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Wed, 04 Jan 2012 17:17:00 +0000

click the below link as per your stream:
Electronics Syllabus for BSNL JTO Exam
Civil Syllabus for BSNL JTO Exam
Electrical Syllabus for BSNL JTO Exam
General Ability Test

Electronics Syllabus for BSNL JTO Exam

JTO Telecom PAPER - I
1. Materials and Components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.

2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.

3. Network Theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore's and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, micro strip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.

6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

JTO Telecom PAPER - II
1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.

3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol's Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol's Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.

4. Communication Systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalization; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.

5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propagation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.

7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.

Civil Syllabus for BSNL JTO Exam

JTO Civil PAPER - I
1. Building Material:
Timber: Different types and species of structural timber, density-moisture relationship, strength in different directions, defects, influence of defects on permissible stress, preservation, dry and wet rots, plywood, codal provision for design.
Bricks: Types, Indian standard classification, absorption, saturation factor, strength in masonry, influence of mortar strength and masonry strength.
Cement: Compounds, different types, setting times, strength.
Cement Mortar: Ingredients, proportions, water demands, mortar for plastering and masonry.
Concrete: Importance of W/C ratio, strength, ingredients including admixtures, workability, testing, elasticity, non-destructive testing mix design method.

2. Solid Mechanics
Elastic constants, stress, plane stress, Mohr's circle of stress, strains, plain strain, Mohr's circle of strain, combined stress. Elastic theories of Failure, simple and shear bending, Torsion of circular and rectangular section and simple members.

3. Structural Analysis
Analysis of determinate structures- different methods including graphical methods. Analysis of indeterminate skeletal frames- moment distribution, slope deflection, stiffness and force methods, energy methods. Muller-Breslau principal and application. Plastic analysis of indeterminate beams and simple frames-shape factors.

4. Design of Steel Structures
Principle of working stress method. Design of connections of simple members. Built up sections and frames. Design of Industrial roofs. Principles of ultimate load design. Design of members and frames.

5. Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures
Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces, Codal provisions for slabs, beams, walls and footings. Working stress method of design of R.C. members.
Principles of pre-stressed concrete design, material, method of pre-stressing losses. Design of simple members and determinate structures. Introductions to pre-stressing of indeterminate structures.
Design of brick masonry as per I.S. codes.

6. Construction Practice, Planning and Management
Concreting Equipment: Weight batcher, Mixer, vibrator, batching plant, concrete pump. Cranes, hoists, lifting equipment.
Earthwork Equipment: Power shovel, hoe, dozer, dumper, trailers and tractors, rollers, sheep foot rollers, pumps. Construction, planning and Management:
Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow diagrams. Critical path, probabilistic activity durations; Event-based networks.
PERT network: Time-cost study, crashing; Resource allocation.

JTO Civil PAPER - II
A.
(1) Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel, Pipe Flow
Fluid properties, pressure, thrust, Buoyancy, Flow Kinematics, integration, of flow equation, Flow measurement, Relative motion, Moment of momentum, Viscosity, Boundary layer and control, Drag, Lift, Dimensional analysis, Modelling, Cavitation, Flow oscillations, Momentum and Energy principles, in open cannel flow, Flow control, Hydraulic jump, Flow section and properties, Normal flow, Gradually varied flow, Flow development and losses in pipe flows, Measurements, Siphons, Surges and Water hammer, Delivery of Power Pipe networks.

(2) Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower
Centrifugal pumps, performance parameters, scaling, pumps in parallel, Reciprocating pumps, air vessels, performance parameters;

B.
(1) Hydrology
Hydrological cycle, precipitation and related data analysis, PMP, unit and synthetic hydrographs, Evaporation and transpiration, floods and their management, PMG, Streams and their gauging, .River morphology. Rooting of floods, Capacity of reservoirs.

(2) Water Resources Engineering
Water resources of the globe: Multipurpose uses of Water, Soil Plant water relationships, irrigation systems, water demand assessment, Storage and their yields, ground water yield and well Hydraulics, Water logging, drainage design, Irrigation revenue, Design of rigid boundary canals, Lacy' and Tractive force concepts in canal design, lining of canals; Sediment transport in canals; Non-Overflow and overflow sections of gravity dams and their design, Energy dissipates and tail water rating, Design of head works, distribution work, falls, cross-drainage work, outlets, River training.

ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING

C.
(1) Water Supply Engineering
Sources of supply, yield, design of intakes and conductors, Estimation of demand, Water quality standards, Control of water born diseases. Primary and secondary treatment, detailing and maintenance of treatment units. Conveyance and distribution systems of treated water, leakage and control, Rural water supply, Institutional and Industrial water supply.

(2) Waste Water Engineering
Urban rain water disposal, system of sewage collection and disposal, Design of sewers and sewerage systems, pumping, Characteristic of sewage and its treatment, Disposal of products of sewage treatment, stream flow rejuvenation, Institutional and industrial sewage management, plumbing system, Rural and semi-urban sanitation.

(3) Solid Waste Management
Sources, classification, collection and disposal, Design and Management of landfills.

(4) Air and Noise Pollution and Ecology
Sources and effects of air pollution, monitoring of Air pollution, Noise-pollution and standards; Ecological Chain and balance, Environmental assessment.

D.
(1) Soil Mechanics
Properties of soils, classification and interrelationship, Compaction behavior, method of compaction and their choice, Permeability and seepage, flow nets, Inverter filters, Compressibility and consolidation ,shearing resistance, stresses and failure, SO testing in laboratory and in-situ, Stress path and applications, Earth pressure theories, stress distribution in soil, soil exploration, samplers, load tests ,penetration tests.

(2) Foundation Engineering
Type of foundations, Selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement, laboratory and field test, Types of piles and their design and layout, Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and it prevention , foundation on swelling soils.

E.
(1) Surveying
Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy, Measurement of distances-direct and indirect methods, optical and electronic devices, Measurement of directions, prismatic compass, local attraction, Theodolites-types Measurement of elevations, Spirit and trigonometric leveling, Relief representation, Contours, Digital elevation modelling concept, Establishment of control by triangulations and traversing measurements and adjustment of observations, computation of coordinates, Field astronomy, concept of global positioning system, Map preparation by plane tabling and by photogrammetry, Remote sensing concepts, map substitutes.

(2) Transportation Engineering
Planning of highway systems, alignment and geometric design, horizontal and vertical curves, grade separation, Materials and construction methods for different surfaces and maintenance, Principles of pavement design, Drainage.
Traffic surveys, intersections, signalling, Mass transit systems, accessibility, networking.
Planning of railway systems, terminology and designs, relating to gauge, track controls, transits, rolling stock, tractive power and track modernization, Maintenance Appurtenant works, Containerization.

Electrical Syllabus for BSNL JTO Exam

JTO Electrical PAPER - I
1. EM Theory
Electric and magnetic fields. Gauss's Law and Amperes Law. Fields in dielectrics, conductors and magnetic materials. Maxwell's equations. Time varying fields. Plane-Wave propagating in dielectric and conducting media. Transmission lines.

2. Electrical Materials
Band Theory, Conductors, Semi-conductors. and Insulators. Superconductivity. Insulators for electrical and electronic applications. Magnetic materials. Ferro and ferri magnetism. Ceramics, Properties and applications. Hall effect and its applications. Special semi conductors.

3. Electrical Circuits
Circuits elements. Kirchoff's Laws. Mesh and nodal analysis. Network Theorems and applications. Natural response and forced response. Transient response and steady state response for arbitrary inputs. Properties of networks in terms of poles and zeros. Transfer function. Resonant circuits. Three phase circuits. Two-port networks. Elements of two-element network synthesis.

4. Measurements and Instrumentation
Units and Standards. Error analysis, measurement of current, Voltage, power, Power-factor and energy. Indicating instruments. Measurement of resistance, inductance, Capacitance and frequency. Bridge measurements. Electronic measuring instruments. Digital Voltmeter and frequency counter. Transducers and their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, flow-rate displacement, acceleration, and noise level etc. Data acquisition systems. AID and D/A converters.

5. Control System
Mathematical modelling of physical systems. Block diagrams and signal flow graphs and their reduction. Time domain and frequency domain analysis of linear dynamical system. Errors for different type of inputs and stability criteria for feedback systems. Stability analysis using Routh-Hurwitz array, Nyquist plot and Bode plot. Root locus and Nicols chart and the estimation of gain and phase margin. Basic concepts of compensator design. State variable matrix and its use in system modelling and design. Sampled data system and performance of such a system with the samples in the error channel. Stability of sampled data system. Elements of non-linear control analysis. Control system components, electromechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic components.

JTO Electrical PAPER - II

1. Electrical Machines and Power Transformers
Magnetic Circuits - Analysis and Design of Power transformers. Construction and testing. Equivalent circuits. Losses and efficiency. Regulation. Auto-transformer, 3-phase transformer. Parallel operation.
Basic concepts in rotating machines. EMF, torque, basic machine types. Construction and operation, leakage losses and efficiency.
D.C. Machines. Construction, Excitation methods. Circuit models. Armature reaction and commutation. Characteristics and performance analysis. Generators and motors. Starting and speed control. Testing, Losses and efficiency.
Synchronous Machines. Construction. Circuit model. Operating characteristics and performance analysis. Synchronous reactance. Efficiency. Voltage regulation. Salient-pole machine, Parallel operation. . tiunting. Short circuit transients.
Induction Machines. Construction. Principle of operation. Rotating fields. Characteristics and performance analysis. Determination of circuit model. Circle diagram. Starting and speed control.
Fractional KW motors. Single-phase synchronous and induction motors.

2. Power systems
Types of Power Stations, Hydro, Thermal and Nuclear Stations. Pumped storage plants. Economics and operating factors. Power transmission lines. Modelling and performance characteristics. Voltage control. Load flow studies. Optimal power system operation. Load frequency control. Symmetrical short circuit analysis. ZBus formulation. Symmetrical Components. Per Unit representation. Fault analysis. Transient and steady-state stability of power systems. Equal area criterion.
Power system Transients. Power system Protection Circuit breakers. Relays. HVDC transmission.

3. Analog and Digital Electronics and Circuits
Semiconductor device physics, PN junctions and transistors, circuit models and parameters, FET, Zener, tunnel, Schottky, photo diodes and their applications, rectifier circuits, voltage regulators and multipliers, switching behavior of diodes and transistors.
Small signal amplifiers, biasing circuits, frequency response and improvement, multistage amplifiers and feed-back amplifiers, D.C. amplifiers, Oscillators. Large signal amplifiers, coupling methods, push pull amplifiers, operational amplifiers, wave shaping circuits. Multivibrators and flip-flops and their applications. Digital logic gate families, universal gates-combination circuits for arithmetic and logic operational, sequential logic circuits. Counters, registers, RAM and ROMs.

4. Microprocessor
Microprocessor architecture-Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Micro-processors in power system.

5. Communication Systems
Types of modulation; AM, FM and PM. Demodulators. Noise and bandwidth considerations. Digital communication systems. Pulse code modulation and demodulation. Elements of sound and vision broadcasting. Carrier communication. Frequency division and time division multiplexing, Telemetry system in power engineering.

6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices. Thyristor. Power transistor, GTOs and
MOSFETS. Characteristics and operation. AC to DC Converters; 1phase and 3-phase DC to DC Converters; AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors; switched capacitor networks.
Inverters; single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

General Ability Test

PAPER-III (for all JTO Branches)
The candidate's comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

DRDO SET ECE Question Paper

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Mon, 28 Nov 2011 13:26:00 +0000

1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A

2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms

3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms

4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90

5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms

6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX

7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)

8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC

9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15

10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]

11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125

12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3

13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms

14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V

15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms

16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET

17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}

18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s

19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor

20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02

22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode

23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV

24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET

25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82

Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.

27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA

28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter

29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier

30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA

31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier

32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β

33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic

34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02

35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave

36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz

37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is
a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V

38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V

39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44

40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi

41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯

42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD

43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures

44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C

45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.

46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region

47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA

48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter

49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register

50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory

51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])

52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t

53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable

55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function

56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)

57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| < 2 c) 0.5<|z|<2 d) the entire z-plane

58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other
b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w
c) a constant and τg is proportional to w
d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w

59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz

60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is                                                       a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5

62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is                                                                                                                                                         a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time

64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K,respectively are
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10

65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5

66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is

67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is

69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180

71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal

72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0}is
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W

74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage

75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate

76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal
a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector

77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct

78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector d) product demodulator

79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4

80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)

81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T

82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA

83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel

84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)

85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2

86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2

87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps

88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ

89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds

90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0

91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m

92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm

93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m

94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms

95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90 0.9 L90 0.2 L0] Is
a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal
d) neither reciprocal nor lossless

96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz

97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45

98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction

99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2

100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP

102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level

103. In the month of July, it is winter in a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London

104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister

105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10

106. DRDO was formed in a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958

107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC

108. DARL 202 is a variety of a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato

109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile b) a quick reaction surface to air missile c) an intermediate range ballistic missile d) a supersonic cruise missile

110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device

111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5

112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x

113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x

115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)…….. a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1

117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only

118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A -sin A cos A] is a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]

119. Consider the function f(x) defined as F(x) = 3x-1, x<0 0, x=0 2x+5, x>0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1

120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8

121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation

122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11

123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3

124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0

125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1

126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may

129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods

132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water

133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for

134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard

135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.

136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable

137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365

138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53

139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.

140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship
denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R

141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR

142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER

144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor

ANSWERS

1) d)Uttarpradesh
2) a) co2
3) c) sydney
4) a) prime minister
5) c) PSLV C9
6) d) 1958
7) b) army
8) don't know
119) b) quick reaction surface to air missile
110) a) sonar
111 to 25 simple math problem
126) d) 4
127) might be sentence 2
128) b) will
129) c) 2
130) b) theft of ideas
131) c) permanent
132) b) height
133) b) with,at
134)b) to hear
135)d) he has been known by me for a long time
136) b) coop
137)a) 573675
138)d) 35,53
139)a) local time of C is ahead of that of B( not confirmed)
140) b) P is daughter of R
141) d) APISR
142) b) 11
143) c) killr
144) a) surgeon
145)d)
146) c)
147) b)
148) c)
149) b)
150) c)

Computer Graphics

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 25 Aug 2011 19:10:00 +0000

click below links to download your choice of books related to Computer Graphics:

Computer graphics, Hearn and Baker, PHI

Computer Graphics, Foley, PE-LPE

Introduction to Computer Graphics

Principles of Computer Graphics-Theory and Practice Using OpenGL and Maya

Software Engineering

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 25 Aug 2011 18:28:00 +0000

click below links to download your choice of books related to Software Engineering:

Software engineering – A practitioner’s Approach, Roger S. Pressman

Software engineering, Ian Sommervile, Person education

Software Engineering - A Practical Guide To User Requirements - Catherine Courage & Kathy Baxter

UNIX and SHELL Programming

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Thu, 25 Aug 2011 18:06:00 +0000

click below links to download your choice of books related to UNIX and SHELL Programming:

The Design of Unix Operating System, Maurice J. Bach, Pearson Education

The Design of Unix Operating System,Maurice J. Bach, Pearson Education (djvu)

Unix Concepts and Applications, Sumitabh Das

Advanced UNIX Programming by Richard Stevens

A Guide to UNIX Using Linux by Michael Palmer

The Unix Haters Handbook

Links for Online Study:

The Unix Programming Environment by M. Burgess

Programming the Unix/Linux Shell by C. Cantin

Teach Yourself Shell Programming by S. Veeraraghavan

The Unix Shell Guide

Ebooks for CS-IT

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Wed, 24 Aug 2011 10:03:00 +0000

Here you can download all the Ebooks and also the Solution which is either on syllabus of B.Tech/B.E. or reference book for Gate And IES. Hopefully it will help you.
Click on Subject for which you want to download Ebooks.
each Subject link contain such as text books or reference books which is on your syllabus.

C and C++ Language

Computer Architecture & design

Computational Mathematics

Discrete Mathematics

Data Structures

Analysis & Design Of Algorithms

Operating System

Database Management System

JAVA

Compiler Design

UNIX and SHELL Programming

Software Engineering

Computer Graphics

Computer Network

Mathematics-III

Basic Electronics

Digital Electronics & Logic Design

Microprocessor & Interfaces

Principal of Communication System

SAIL

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Tue, 23 Aug 2011 17:29:00 +0000

What is SAIL
Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is the leading steel-making company in India. It is a fully integrated iron and steel maker, producing both basic and special steels for domestic construction, engineering, power, railway, automotive and defence industries and for sale in export markets. SAIL is also among the five Maharatnas of the country's Central Public Sector Enterprises.
                     Hindustan Steel Private Limited was set up on January 19, 1954.The registered office was originally in New Delhi. It moved to Calcutta in July 1956, and ultimately to Ranchi in December 1959.HSL was initially started to handle the steel plant at Rourkela. But afterwards completion of other steel plants such as Bhilai, Durgapur there was a need of one managing organization. Thus a new centralized organization came up on 24th January, 1973 known as SAIL, Steel Authority of India. Today it is the most trusted Steel organization of India.With a turnover of Rs. 47,103 crore and more than 131,910 employees, it produces 13.5 million metric tons annually and is the 16th largest steel producer in the world.More about SAIL please visit http://www.sail.co.in.

Eligibilities for SAIL
Qualification for SAIL Management Trainee Technical
A full time degree in Engineering /MCA with 65% marks obtained from the average of all semesters is required. The degree should be under any of the following disciplines - Mechanical, Electrical, Metallurgy, Civil, E&T,Instrumentation, Ceramics, Chemical, Computer Science and Mining Engineering. SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates who have Bachelors' degree with 50% marks and MBA/PG Diploma in Management in the relevant discipline with just 50% marks are eligible to apply . SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates with an Engineering Degree in the required disciplines and with just 55% marks in the same are eligible to apply . Management Trainees (Technical) post, candidates having degree in related disciplines can also apply against their respective discipline.
The eligible related engineering disciplines are marked against the respective main disciplines as shown below:
Mechanical --- Mechanical / Production / Industrial Engg / Production & Industrial Engg / Thermal / Mechanical & Automation .
Electrical --- Electrical / Electrical & Electronics / Electrical , Instrumentation & Control / Power Systems & High Voltage / Power Electronics / Power Engineering .
Electronics &Telecommunication --- Electronics / Electronics & Telecomm / Electronics & Communication .
Instrumentation & Control --- Electronics & Power / Electronics & Instrumentation / Instrumentation & Control / Electrical, Instrumentation & Control .
Computer Science Computer --- Science/ Information Technology/MCA (three years) .
Qualification for SAIL Management Trainee Administration
Job In HR and Marketing : The following qualification criteria should be matched for applying for this job . A Bachelors' degree in any discipline with 60% marks and with not less than 2 years full time MBA/PG Diploma in management with 60% marks in HR/PM&IR/Pers /MHROD is required for HR and Marketing for Marketing discipline. SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates who have Bachelors' degree with 50% marks and MBA/PG Diploma in Management in the relevant discipline with just 50% marks are eligible to apply .
Age Limit: Born not earlier than June 1, 1979 (Upper age limit of 30 years is relaxable by 5years for SC/ST, by 3 years for OBC candidates and by 10 years for Physically Handicapped candidates). Those domiciled in the state of Jammu & Kashmir from1/1/80 to 31/12/89 will be allowed 5 years relaxation in upper age limit.

SAIL Exam Pattern & Selection Process
Selection process of SAIL MT exam involves a written test, followed by GD and interview. The current SAIL exam notification does not says anything about the pattern of the written test excepting that there would be negative marks for wrong answers: 1/4th of the marks for that question.So the exam pattern given here is based on the previous years SAIL exam pattern.
SAIL written exam usually have following five sections to be answered in 2:25 hr:
Reasoning -                                                 45 marks
Quantitative Aptitude-                                35 marks
General Awareness-                                    35 marks
English Language-                                      35 marks
Technical Paper (specific to your stream)-    100 marks.

Group Discussion / Interview:
Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the written test will be intimated to appear for Group Discussion and Interview, which may be held at short notice. Please visit the SAIL website for information on the same. SC/ST/OBC candidates will be given relaxation in prescribed qualifying level for written test, group discussion and interview.
Training & Probation: Candidates selected as Management Trainee (Technical) will be placed on training for one year and will be registered as apprentices under the provisions of Apprentices Act, 1961. After successful completion of the training period, they will be on probation for one year.

SAIL MT vacancies 2011:
There are 375 Management Trainee (MT) positions on offer with break-up as follows:
Management Trainee (MT) Technical:               318
Management Trainee (MT) Administration:       57
                        Salary being offered by SAIL for MT: Basic Pay of Rs.20,600/- p.m. in the pay scale of Rs.20600-3%-46500 (E-1). On successful completion of training the Management Trainees are designated as Junior Managers in the same scale of pay. With this salary for SAIL MT, the CTC is around Rs. 7 lakhs p.a with other benefits like Leave encashment, housing/HRA and free medical facility etc.

Important Dates for SAIL Management Trainee Exam 2011
1. Starting date for submitting applications through website 27.07.2011
2. Closing date for submitting applications through website 17.08.2011
3. Starting date for downloading of Admit Card from SAIL website for written examination 05.09.2011
4. Tentative Date of Written Test (will be confirmed in Admit Card) 25.09.2011

Download

Download Sail Placement Paper of G.K., Mental Ability, English, Technical 2010(All in One)

ISRO

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Fri, 19 Aug 2011 18:44:00 +0000

What is ISRO?
Indian Space Research Organisation(ISRO) is the primary body for space research under the control of the Government of India. ISRO was Established in August 15, 1969 (42 years ago).The objective of ISRO is to develop space technology and its application to various national tasks. Accordingly, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully operationalised two major satellite systems namely Indian National Satellites (INSAT) for communication services and Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites for management of natural resources; also, Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) for launching IRS type of satellites and Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) for launching INSAT type of satellites.How prestigious an organisation is ISRO can be gauged from the fact that none other than the Prime Minister of this country is at its helm, as you can find from this Organisational Chart.You can know about more about this very prestigious organisation from Wikipedia page.
Almost each year ISRO conducts two separate exams for recruiting its manpower – one for its technical stream for the positions of Scientists/ Engineers and the other for its administrative stream for the positions of Administrative Officer/Accounts Officer/ Purchase & Stores Officer.

Eligibilities for ISRO
Academic Qualification eligibility:You need to be a first class BE/B.Tech or equivalent in Electronics, Mechanical and Computer Science engineering, with a minimum aggregate of 65% (average of all semesters for which results are available). Final year students can also apply, provided the results are declared within 31st August, 2011.

Age Limit: 35 years as on 23.05.2011. (40 years in case of SC/ST candidates and 38 years for OBC candidates). Ex-serviceman and Persons with Disabilities are eligible for age relaxation as per Government of India orders.

ISRO Salaries for Scientist/Engineers: The gross salary offered by ISRO for these Scientist/Engineers positions is in pay-scale of Rs. 15600-39100 + 5400 (Grade Pay). The gross monthly salary with this pay-scale is aproximately approximately Rs.30,450/- per month.

ISRO Exam Pattern

The selection will be based on written test + interview.The short listed candidates shall be called for written test. Those who qualify in the written test shall be called for interview.

ISRO exam consists of total 80 questions, to be answered in 90 min. Marking +3 for correct answer -1 for wrong.There is only one section and the questions would be your branch-specific.

ISRO Notification

Some of you may be appearing in ISRO Recruitment Scientists/Engineers exam 2012 and would like to know when the dates for ISRO Recruitment exam 2012 notification would come out and when the exam would be held. Based on previous exams, let me tell you that the notification comes out on the 1st week of February and the written exam is held in mid-April Saturday. Date of ISRO Recruitment Scientists/Engineers exam 2012 should be 14th April 2012 (Saturday).

Downlaods

Download ISRO Scientists/ Engineers Exam Papers for Electronics:
Download ISRO Exam 2006 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2007 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2009 Electronics Papers

Download ISRO Exam 2010 Electronics Papers.

ISRO Exam Syllabus

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Fri, 19 Aug 2011 14:55:00 +0000

click the below link as per your stream:
Electronics Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam
Computer Science Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam
Mechanical Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

Electronics Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

(1) Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs:

Electrons and holes in semi-conductors, Carner Statistics, Mechanism of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, GTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; basic and Opto Electronics.

(2) Signals and Systems:

Classification of signals and systems; System modeling in terms of differential and difference equations; State variable representation; Fourier series; Fourier transforms and their application to system analysis; Laplace transforms and their application to system analysis; Convolution and superposition integrals and their applications; Z-transforms and their applications to the analysis and characterization of discrete time systems; Random signals and probability; Correlation functions; Spectral density; Response of linear system to random inputs.

(3) Network Theory:

Network analysis techniques; Network theorems, transient response, steady state sinusoidal response; Network graphs and their applications in network analysis; Tellegen’s theorem. Two port networks; Z, Y, h and transmission parameters. Combination of two ports, analysis of common two ports. Network functions: parts of network functions, obtaining a network function from a given part. Transmission criteria: delay and rise time, Elmore’s and other definitions effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

(4) Electromagnetic Theory:

Analysis of electrostatic and magneto-static fields; Laplace’s and Poisson’s equations; Boundary value problems and their solutions; Maxwell’s equations; application to wave propagation in bounded and unbounded media; Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of wave guides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

(5) Analog Electronic Circuits:

Transistor biasing and stabilization. Small signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency. response. Wide banding techniques. Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators, Rectifiers and power supplies. Op Amp, PLL, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

(6) Digital Electronic Circuits:

Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean function Karnaugh map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, Full adder; Digital comparator; Multiplexer De-multiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops. R-S, J-K, D and T flip-tops; Different types of counters and registers. Waveform generators. A/D and D/A converters. Semi-conductor memories.

(7) Control Systems:

Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity; Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems; Compensators; Industrial controllers.

(8) Communication Systems:

Basic information theory; Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstructions; Quantization and coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalization; Optical Communication: in free space and fiber optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite Communication.

(9) Microwave Engineering:

Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Wave guides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave Antennas, Microwave Measurements, Masers, Lasers; Micro-wave propagation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

(10) Computer Engineering:

Number Systems. Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture; Processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization, I/o System Organization. Microprocessors: Architecture and instruction set of Microprocessor’s 8085 and 8086, Assembly language Programming. Microprocessor Based system design: typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses.

Computer Science Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

(1) Computer H/W Digital Logic: Logic functions, Minimization, Design and synthesis of Combinational and Sequential circuits — Number representation and Computer Arithmetic (fixed and floating point)

(2) Computer Organization: Machine instructions and addressing modes, ALU and Data-path, hardwired and micro-programmed control, Memory interface, I/O interface (Interrupt and DMA mode), Serial communication interface, Instruction pipelining, Cache, main and secondary storage.

(3) SOFTWARE SYSTEMS Data structures: Notion of abstract data types, Stack, Queue, List, Set, String, Tree, Binary search tree, Heap, Graph –

(4) Programming Methodology: C programming, Program control (iteration, recursion, Functions), Scope, Binding, Parameter passing, Elementary concepts of Object oriented, Functional and Logic Programming –

(5) Algorithms for problem solving: Tree and graph traversals, Connected components, Spanning trees, Shortest paths — Hashing, Sorting, Searching — Design techniques (Greedy, Dynamic Programming, Divide-and-conquer) –

(6) Compiler Design: Lexical analysis, Parsing, Syntax directed translation, Runtime environment, Code generation, Linking (static and dynamic) –

(7) Operating Systems: Classical concepts (concurrency, synchronization, deadlock), Processes, threads and Inter-process communication, CPU scheduling, Memory management, File systems, I/O systems, Protection and security.

(8) Databases: Relational model (ER-model, relational algebra, tuple calculus), Database design (integrity constraints, normal forms), Query languages (SQL), File structures (sequential files, indexing, B+ trees), Transactions and concurrency control –

(9) Computer Networks: ISO/OSI stack, sliding window protocol, LAN Technologies (Ethernet, Token ring), TCP/UDP, IP, Basic concepts of switches, gateways, and routers.

Mechanical Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

1. ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

Linear Algebra: Algebra of matrices, system of linear equations, eigenvalues and eigenvectors.

Calculus: Taylor Series, Fourier Series, partial derivatives, total derivatives, definite and improper integrals, multiple integrals.

Vector Calculus: Gradient, divergence and curl, line and surface integrals, Green, Gauss and Stokes theorems.

Differential Equations: Linear ODEs, first order non-linear ODEs, initial and boundary value problems, Laplace transform, PDEs-Laplace, wave and diffusion equations.

Numerical Methods: Solution of system of linear equations, interpolation, numerical integration, Newton-Raphson method, Runge-Kutta method.

Probability & Statistics: Gaussian, Weibul distribution and their properties, method of least squares, regression analysis, analysis of variance.

2. APPLIED MECHANICS AND DESIGN

Engineering Mechanics: Equivalent force systems, free-body concepts, equations of equilibrium, trusses and frames, virtual work and minimum potential energy. Kinematics and dynamics of particles and rigid bodies, impulse and momentum (linear and angular), energy methods, central force motion.

Strength of Materials: Stress and strain, stress-strain relationship and elastic constants, Mohrs circle for plane stress and plane strain, shear force and bending moment diagrams, bending and shear stresses, deflection of beams torsion of circular shafts, thin and thick cylinders, Eulers theory of columns, strain energy methods, thermal stresses.

Theory of Machines: Displacement, velocity and acceleration, analysis of plane mechanisms, dynamic analysis of slider-crank mechanism, planar cams and followers, gear tooth profiles, kinematics and design of gears, governors and flywheels, balancing of reciprocating and rotating masses.Vibrations: Free and forced vibration of single degree freedom systems, effect of damping, vibration isolation, resonance, critical speed of rotors.

Design of Machine Elements: Design for static and dynamic loading, failure theories, fatigue strength; design of bolted, riveted and welded joints; design of shafts and keys; design of spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings; brakes and clutches; belt, ropes and chain drives.

3. FLUID MECHANICS AND THERMAL SCIENCES

Fluid Mechanics: Fluid properties, fluid statics, manometry, buoyancy; Control-volume analysis of mass, momentum and energy, fluid acceleration; Differential equation of continuity and momentum; Bernoullis equation; Viscous flow of incompressible fluids; Boundary layer, Elementary turbulent flow; Flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends etc.

Heat-Transfer: Modes of heat transfer; One dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept, electrical analogy, unsteady heat conduction, fins; Dimensionless parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, Various correlations for heat transfer in flow over flat plates and through pipes; Thermal boundary layer; effect of turbulence; Radiative heat transfer, black and grey surfaces, shape factors, network analysis; Heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods.

Thermodynamics: Zeroth, First and Second laws of thermodynamics; Thermodynamic system and processes; Irreversibility and availability; Behaviour of ideal and real gases, Properties of pure substances, calculation of work and heat in ideal processes; Analysis of thermodynamic cycles related to energy conversion; Carnot, Rankine, Otto, Diesel, Brayton and Vapour compression cycles.

Power Plant Engineering: Steam generators; Steam power cycles; Steam turbines; impulse and reaction principles, velocity diagrams, pressure and velocity compounding; Reheating and reheat factor; Condensers and feed heaters.I.C. Engines: Requirements and suitability of fuels in IC engines, fuel ratings, fuel-air mixture requirements; Normal combustion in SI and CI engines; Engine performance calculations.

Refrigeration and air-conditioning: Refrigerant compressors, expansion devices, condensers and evaporators; Properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychometric processes.

Turbomachinery: Components of gas turbines; Compression processes, Centrifugal and Axial flow compressors; Axial flow turbines, elementary theory; Hydraulic turbines; Euler-Turbine equation; Specific speed, Pelton-wheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines; Centrifugal pumps.

4. MANUFACTURING AND INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

Engineering Materials: Structure and properties of engineering materials and their applications, heat treatment.

Metal Casting: Casting processes (expendable and non-expendable) -pattern, moulds and cores, Heating and pouring, Solidification and cooling, Gating Design, Design considerations, defects.

Forming Processes: Stress-strain diagrams for ductile and brittle material, Plastic deformation and yield criteria, Fundamentals of hot and cold working processes, Bulk metal forming processes (forging, rolling extrusion, drawing), Sheet metal working processes (punching, blanking, bending, deep drawing, coining, spinning, Load estimation using homogeneous deformation methods, Defects). Processing of Powder metals- Atomization, compaction, sintering, secondary and finishing operations. Forming and shaping of Plastics- Extrusion, Injection Molding.

Joining Processes: Physics of welding, Fusion and non-fusion welding processes, brazing and soldering, Adhesive bonding, Design considerations in welding, Weld quality defects.Machining and Machine Tool

Operations: Mechanics of machining, Single and multi-point cutting tools, Tool geometry and materials, Tool life and wear, cutting fluids, Machinability, Economics of machining, non-traditional machining processes.

Metrology and Inspection: Limits, fits and tolerances, linear and angular measurements, comparators, gauge design, interferometry, Form and finish measurement, measurement of screw threads, Alignment and testing methods.

Tool Engineering: Principles of work holding, Design of jigs and fixtures. Computer Integrated Manufacturing: Basic concepts of CAD, CAM and their integration tools.

Manufacturing Analysis: Part-print analysis, tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly, time and cost analysis.

Work-Study: Method study, work measurement time study, work sampling, job evaluation, merit rating.

Production Planning and Control: Forecasting models, aggregate production planning, master scheduling, materials requirements planning.

Inventory Control: Deterministic and probabilistic models, safety stock inventory control systems.

Operations Research: Linear programming, simplex and duplex method, transportation, assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.

BHEL Paper For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Fri, 19 Aug 2011 11:58:00 +0000

For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS with answers(bolded words)
When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms

a.) Resistanceb.) Reactancec.) Impedanced.) None

Oscillator crystal are made of –
a.) Silicon
b.) Germanium
c.) Quartz
d.) None
For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-a. )Airb. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion

d.) Steel
If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
a.)
b.) C

c.) 2C
d.) 4C
A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
a.) Inductance

b.) Capacitance
c.) Resistance
d.) None
Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
a.) Resistance in the line
b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.) None
RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class ‘A’
b.) Class ‘b’
c.) Class ‘C’
d.) None
The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.) High positive

b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero
The input gate current of a FET is –
a.) a few microamperes
b.) negligibly small
c.) a few milliamperes
d.) a few amperes
In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

a.) 25 mA

b.) 40 mA

c.) 25/16 mA

d.) 10 mA
A step recovery diode –
a.) has on extremely short recovery time

b.) conducts equally well in both directions
c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals
In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with V_CC 10V, the value of V_CE (Q) should be approximately-
a.) 0.1V

b.) 5V
c.) 10V
d) V
In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
a.) source
b.) drain
c.) gate

d.) none
The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –a.) Triacb.) UJT c.) Diac

d.) SCR
A typical optical fibre has –
a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.) Both a and b

d.) None
In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
a.) 9
b.) 11
c.) 10
d.) 21
When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be – a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9

c.) 7.5 + j 2.5

d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load – a.) 5 b.) 6.5

c.) 8

d.) 9
For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z₀ is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-a.) Z₀ cot h Ölb.) Z₀ cot Öl c.) Z₀ tan h.Ö l

d.) Z₀ tan Öl
The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –a.) lb.) l/4 c.) l/2

d.) l/8
A relatively permanent information is stored in

a. ) ROM
b.) RAM

c.) PROM
d.) Volatile memory
The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to – b.) RC

c.) 2RC

d.) 4RC
If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be – a.) cos50tA b.) 2A

c.) 2cos100tA

d.) 2sin50tA
When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R₁, R₂ and R₃ will be respectively – a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W

c.) 9W, 6W and 9W

d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –

d.) indeterminate
Joule/coulomb is the unit of – a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c .) Charge

d.) None of the above
The electric field line and equipotential lines-

a.) Are parallel to each other
b.)Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle
For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z₀ is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line
When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X₁ and –X₁ respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-

a.) In the +x direction
b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction
d.) In the –y direction
The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-

a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation

c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-

a.) TM₀₁

b.)TE₁₀
c.) TM₁₁₂
d.)TE₁₁
When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be

a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value

b.)Remain the same
c. )Increase
d.)Decrease to zero
When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z₀ = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-

a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load

d.)none of the above
As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –a.) less accurateb.) more accurate c.) equally accurate

d.) none.
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –a.) VTVMb.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter

d.) Digital multimeter
Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5. c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero

d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm² each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –a.) 11.1b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3

d.) 66.3
The Q of a radio coil –a.) is independent of frequencyb.) increases monotonically as frequency increases c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases

d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –a.) 0.5b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5

d.) 1.75
The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation) c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)

d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -200⁰C to 500⁰C
b.) 0⁰C to 500⁰C

c.) 500⁰C to 1200⁰C
d.) 1200⁰C to 2500⁰C
In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)
When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3

d.) 4
The circuit symbol for a GTO is
a. b.
c. d.
In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction

b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction

c.) step up device

d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device
In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.

S is closed at t = 0 the

maximum value of current and the

time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mSc.) 100 A, 62.828 mSd.) 400 A, 31.414 mS
50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-

a.) 200 A

b.) 170.7 A

c.) 141.4 A

d.) 70.7 A
The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

a.) 5850 KHZ
b.)585 KHZ
c.) 5850 HZ
d.)585HZ
In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -

a). Higher current carrying
b.)Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency

d.)Lower peak increase voltage require
Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-

a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b).If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.)None of the above
A transistor with h_ie = 1.5 k and h_fe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R₁ and R₂ are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is- a.)75b.)76 c.)75/76

d.)-75
Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-

a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-

a.) Direct coupling

b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
In the circuit shown in the given figure R_f provides

a.) Current series feedback
b.)Current shunt feedback

c.) Voltage series feedback
d.)Voltage shunt feedback
Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor
Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –a.) PISO shift registerb.) SOIP shift register c.) SIPO shift register

d.) POIS shift register
PROMs are used to store-a.) bulk informationb.) information to be accessed rarely c.) sequence information

d.) relatively permanent information
The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-a.) Output bit combinationb.) analog output voltage c.) input bit combination

d.) none of the above
‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –a.) s = 0, R = 0b.) s = 1, R = 1 c.) s = 0, R = 1

d.) s = 1, R = 0
Name the fastest logic family-a) TTLb.) RTL c.) DCTL

d.) ECL
Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is – a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB c.) A + AB = A

d.) None of the above
In the given fig find radix of the system –

a.) 2

b.) 4

c.) 6

d.) 8
Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –a.) increase the transmission capacityb) improve noice performance c.) incorporate error control coding

d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is- a.) b.) 3

c.) 4

d.) 5
Identify the example of open-loop system-a.) A windscreen wiperb.) Aqualung c.) Respiratory system of an animal

d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-1. (5 – 4e^-2+) u(t)2. (e^-2t +5) (u(t)) 3 .V(t) + 8e^-2t u(t)

4 . V(t) + 4e^-2t 4(t)

Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-

a.) 1&3

b.) 1&4

c.) 2&4

d.) 1&4
A system is described by

To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.

Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-

a.) Only V₁

b.) Only V₂

c.) Both V₁ and V₂

_d.)Neither V₁nor v₂
Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function
The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-
Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions. 3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.

4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes

a.) 1 and 4

b.) 2 and 3

c.) 1 and 3

d.) 2 and 4
For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos²(150at)The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds isa.) 150 samples per second b.) 200 samples per second

c.) 300 samples per second

d.) 350 samples per second
In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.a.) 34 and 106b.) 52. And 88 c.) 106 and 142

d.) 34 and 142
Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –a.) Pulse radarb.) Tracking radar c.) MTI radar

d.) Mono pulse radar
The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed

d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-a.) Compression of the modulating signalb.) Expansion of the modulating signal

c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-a.) reflection from the ionosphereb.) line of sight mode

c) reflection from the groundd.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector toa.) increase the gain of the systemb). increase the bandwidth of the system

c.) reduce the size of the main reflectord.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body. c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid

d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
Circuit in the given figure represents. – a.) an astable multivibrator b.) A monostable multivibrator

c.) Voltage controlled oscillator

d.) Ramp generator
. . D = r is-a.) Maxwell’s 1^st equationb.) Maxwell’s II equation c.) Maxwell’s III equation

d.) Maxwell’s IV equation
In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-a.) TM₀₀b.) TM₀₁ c.) Tm₁₀

d.) TM₁₁
In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.a). port 4b). port 3 c.) port 2.

d.) port 3 & 4.
For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
a.) Barometer are used
b.) Thermisters are used

c.) Calorimetric technique
d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time

c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact
Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
a.) Hown antennas
b.) Bioconical antennas
c.) helical antenna

d. )Discone
The skip distance of microwave is given by –
a.)
b. )
c.)
d.)
How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10
8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3

c.) 4
d.) 5
What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1
Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.
Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor

b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer

d.) for programming o/p / i/p
High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help ofa.) interpreterb.) compiler c.) operating

d.) system
(10110011)₂ = (?)8a.) 253b.) 263 c.) 273

d.) 283
A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-a.) NANDb.) NOR c.) AND

d.) NOPE.
The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-a.) ANDb.) OR c.) NAND

d.) X-OR
A symbol of JK flip flop is-
A demultiplener-a.) has multiple i/p and single o/pb.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p

d.) has single i/p and single o/p
. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?a.) fascinationb.) open approval. c.) Indulgent tolerance.

d.) Scornful.
What type of sentence is this ?Hurray! We won the matcha.) Exclamatory b.) assertive

c.) Negative

d.) Affirmative
Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’a.) hourb.) M. A. c.) Umbrella

d.) Man
The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –a.) freshlyb.) freshen c.) fresheners

d.) fresh itself
The word ‘clang’ is an example of –a.) Simileb.) inversion c.) onomatopoeia

d.) irony
The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-a.) Pentafour softwareb) Infosys c.) IBM

d.) Wipro
Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussainb.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar

d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-a.) 42^ndb.) 43^rd c.) 40^th

d.) 45^th
New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-a.) T. Venkat Naidub.) K. Hari Harh c.) N. Rengaswany

d.) M. Mudliar
No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-a.) 311b.) 329 c.) 356

d.) 365
Ostrich is a-a.) Running birdb.) Flying bird c) Swimming bird

d.) Migratory bird
The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-a.) Oxygenb.) Nitrogen c.) Ozone

d.) Carbon-dioxide
Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-a.) Riceb.) groundnut c.) Sugarcane

d.) gram
The function of World Bank is to-a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economyb.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments

d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
Speed of sound is maximum in-a. )Waterb.) Air c.) Steel

d.) Vacuum
“Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-a.) Subhash Chandra Boseb.) Jawaharlal Nehru c.) Lajpat Rai

d.) Bhagat Singh
Durand cup is associated with-a.) Hockeyb.) Tennis c.) Football

d.) Badminton
Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.a.) 1908b.) 1910 c.) 1913

d.) 1914
India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-a.) May 18, 1975b.) May 20, 1974 c) May 17, 1974

d.) May 17, 1974
An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-a.) Asian development Bankb.) World Bank c.) Swiss Bank

d.) Reserve Bank of India

BHEL(Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited)

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Wed, 17 Aug 2011 19:31:00 +0000

What is BHEL?

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), established in 1953, is the largest engineering and manufacturing enterprise in India in the energy-related/infrastructure sector and is also one of leading power generation equipment manufacturers in the world. The company has been earning profits continuously since 1971-72 and is paying dividends since 1976-77.

BHEL manufactures over 180 products under 30 major product groups and caters to core sectors of the Indian Economy viz., Power Generation & Transmission, Industry, Transportation, Telecommunication, Renewable Energy, etc. The wide network of BHEL consists of 14 manufacturing divisions, four Power Sector regional centres, over 100 project sites, eight service centres and 18 regional offices.The greatest strength of BHEL is its highly skilled and committed workforce of 46,748 employees.

BHEL is on a rapid expansion mode - it plans to become a Rs. 45,000 crore company by 2011-12 and double that amount by 2016-17. More about BHEL please visit http://www.bhel.com

Eligibilities for BHEL

Academic Eligibilities for BHEL Engineer Trainee: Minimum 65 % marks (or equivalent CGPA) in aggregate in Graduate Engineering in Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics Discipline from a recognized institute.

Age Limit: as on 01.08.2011,Maximum 27 years for Graduate Engineers, 29 years for PG Engineers or Business Admn/Management.

BHEL Engineer Trainee vacancies:

As per BHEL Job Notification for the year 2011-2012, there are a total of 1000 ET vacancies with following break-up of discipline-wise vacancies: Mechanical : 700, Electrical : 200, Electronics : 100.

Category-wise vacancies for BHEL ET positions are as below:Gen : 498 , SC : 151 , ST : 90 , OBC: 261.

BHEL Exam Pattern

The selection process of BHEL for Engineer Trainee consists of a written test, followed by a personal interview. Following the written test, almost 1800 candidates are supposed to be called and one out of every three of them is expected to get the BHEL JOB!

BHEL exam consists of 240 Objective questions, each of 1 mark, to be answered in 2-n-half hour,Thus you have just over 35 seconds to answer each question.Speed is therefore a criteria in doing well in the BHEL written test.But at the same time, you need to be accurate as well in answering these BHEL questions correctly – as there are 0.2 negative marks for each wrong answer.

There are two sections in BHEL written test:

1.Aptitude Test: Consists of questions from the areas of Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage & General Awareness.

2.Technical test:Consists of two parts: General engineering questions & questions specific to your engineering discipline.

Although BHEL notification has not specified anything about how many questions would be set in each section, data from previous exams shows that 120 questions are set in each of these two sections.

BHEL Syllabus:

BHEL has not prescribed any syllabus for the written test. However as per feedback from previous exams, for the BHEL Technical test, you can follow the syllabus for the GATE exam. Likewise however, for BHEL Aptitude test, no specific exam syllabus can be prescribed and you have to rely on the Aptitude test question pattern of other competitive exams.

To get more Info plz Click This to Download .

Download:

BHEL Placement Papers For Mechanical Stream

BHEL Paper For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS (Study Online)

BEL(Bharat Electronics Limited)

noreply@blogger.com (Rakesh Sahu) — Wed, 17 Aug 2011 08:28:00 +0000

What is BEL?
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) was set up at Bangalore, India, by the Government of India under the Ministry of Defence in 1954 to meet the specialized electronic needs of the Indian defence services. Over the years, it has grown into a multi-product, multi-technology, multi-unit company serving the needs of customers in diverse fields in India and abroad . BEL is among an elite group of public sector undertakings which have been conferred the Navratna status by the Government of India. During 2008-09, BEL recorded a turnover of Rs.4624 crores.

This is a company which deals with a wide spectrum of products ranging from Radars to Solar based solutions. BEL goes much beyond the defence products they are famous for, they have made inroads into civilian products as well.Ranked among the top PSUs of the country, which has continuously made profits year after year.With massive infrastructure in the form of nine ISO certified manufacturing plants based on the state-of-the-art technology and many regional offices in all the major cities of the country as well as in New York and Singapore, BEL beckons the best brains of the country to be onboard - come , and be a part of us!!.

ELIGIBILITY - First class in Engineering Degree from AICTE approved Colleges / recognised Universities in Electronics / Electronics & Communication / Electronics & Telecommunication / Communication / Telecommunication / Mechanical / Computer Science / Computer Science and Engineering/Civil Engineering/Chemical Engineering. Candidates with AMIE / GIETE in the above specializations should have secured first class.
Age Limit
The maximum age limit for General candidates as on 01.04.2011 will be 25 years.
Upper age limit is relaxable by 5 years for SC/ST candidates and 3 years for OBC candidates.
In respect of PWD candidates upper age limit is relaxable by 5 years. In respect of PWD candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC category, the age relaxation admissible will be over and above the relaxation admissible for candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC.
.Relaxation will be extended as per Govt. guidelines in respect of Ex-Serviceman.

BEL Exam Pattern And Syllabus
The company is known to employ the best engineering talents of India.Almost every year in June/July BEL (Bharat Electronics Limited) conducts recruitment exam for graduate engineers (freshers) to recruit about 150 odd engineers.

BEL in its graduate engineer exam notification has not said much about the pattern of the written exam, except that the selection process would consist of a written test followed by interview.
So I had to search on the net for the pattern of written exam of previous years and I could find that the BEL written exam consist of a total 150 marks containing following two sections:
1.Aptitude section:consist of 30 questions each weighing 1 mark. Questions on passage comprehension, grammar, data interpretation & logical reasoning is asked.
2.Technical section:consist of 120 questions each weighing 1 mark. Subject specific (Electronics, Mechanical or Computer Science) questions are asked.You have to answer the 150 question, 150 marks paper in 2-n-half hour.There is negative marking of -0.25 for each wrong answer.and hence you should be cautious in making guesses.

There is a written test of 2.5 hours. The test consists of 30 questions based on aptitude maths and technical.. Apart from this there is a passage consisting of 3 questions. There are data interpretation questions, logical reasoning questions and questions on general knowledge.
The math questions are generally asked from topics like compound interest and height and distance. These questions can be really tricky.
The technical part consists of questions which aim to test the fundamental knowledge you have in subjects like solid state and electronics. Questions are there from Fourier transform, electrical, circuit theory, network theorems, filters, resistors connections etc.
There can be questions from control systems. Digital signal processing forms a major portion from where questions generally come. Some questions are from microprocessors.

following is the maths syllabus:
Probability: Conditional Probability; Mean, Median, Mode and Standard Deviation; Random Variables; Distributions; uniform, normal, exponential, Poisson, Binomial.
Set Theory & Algebra: Sets; Relations; Functions; Groups; Partial Orders; Lattice; Boolean Algebra.
Combinatorics: Permutations; Combinations; Counting; Summation; generating functions; recurrence relations; asymptotics.
Graph Theory: Connectivity; spanning trees; Cut vertices & edges; covering; matching; independent sets; Colouring; Planarity; Isomorphism.
Linear Algebra: Algebra of matrices, determinants, systems of linear equations, Eigen values and Eigen vectors.
Numerical Methods: LU decomposition for systems of linear equations; numerical solutions of non-linear algebraic equations by Secant, Bisection and Newton-Raphson Methods; Numerical integration by trapezoidal and Simpson’s rules.
Calculus: Limit, Continuity & differentiability, Mean value Theorems, Theorems of integral calculus, evaluation of definite & improper integrals, Partial derivatives, Total derivatives, maxima & minima.
this consists of 40% of the paper,rest g.k,aptitude.

here i am giving the syllabus of electronics and communication for BEl exam.

1. Antennas: Antenna lenths, types(vhf,uhf,yogi-gudi n other)

2. Satellites: Basics on Satillites, Satillite positions, Distance problems,Geo-synchronous Satillites

3. Rader : Basics on Raders, Tracking Raders, FW-CM Raders, MTI Raders

4. Microprocessors: 80286, Data n Adders lines(1-2 qns)

5. Networks : Resonance Frequency, Y-Delta problems, Nodal n Mesh Analysis,RLC n/w, power Calculations(p=v^2/R=I^2R=VI)

6. Control Systems :Transfer Function, Routh-Hurwitz Crierion

7. Op-amps :R and C connected op-amp o/p

8. Timers: IC(4000,4001,7485)

9. Capacitance n Inductance Formulas and its problems,Conductivity

10. Basic Electronics: p-n junction, FET, Oscillators

11. Electromagnitics : m(mue),mr, Maxwell’s equation, J= (Sigma)*E,Divergence, Wave guides.

12. 1-5 question from Basics of normal operating systems(windows,unix,win98) n Control Networking

13. Digital Electronics : Flip-flops(j-k,T,D), Logic Gates

14.Communications : Detectors,S/N ratio,
a) Pulse Analog :
PAM :P ulse Amplitude Modulation
PWM :P ulse Width Modulation
PPM : Pulse Position Modulation
b) Pulse Digital :
PCM : Pulse Code Modulation

Download:

BEL Previous year Question paper 2010
BEL Placement paper