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TNSET March 2025 Question Papers

2025-03-17T10:54:00.003+05:30

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UNIT- 1: Teaching Aptitude (NTA NET / TN SET)

2025-02-15T14:14:00.015+05:30

Teaching Aptitude

கற்பித்தல் திறன் (Teaching Aptitude) மற்றும் அதன் கூறுகள்

கற்பித்தல் திறன் என்பது ஒரு நல்ல ஆசிரியராக இருக்க தேவையான திறன்கள், தரங்கள் மற்றும் பண்புகளைக் குறிக்கிறது. இது ஒரு ஆசிரியரின் கல்வி மற்றும் கற்பித்தல் திறன்களை மதிப்பிடுவதற்கான ஒரு முக்கியமான அளவுகோலாகும். கற்பித்தல் திறன் பல கூறுகளை உள்ளடக்கியது, அவை பின்வருமாறு:

1. பாடத்தைப் புரிந்துகொள்ளும் திறன் (Subject Knowledge):

ஒரு ஆசிரியர் தனது பாடத்தை முழுமையாகப் புரிந்துகொண்டிருக்க வேண்டும். பாடத்தின் அடிப்படை மற்றும் மேம்பட்ட கருத்துகளை தெளிவாக விளக்கும் திறன் இருக்க வேண்டும். புதிய தகவல்கள் மற்றும் ஆராய்ச்சிகளை தொடர்ந்து கற்றுக்கொண்டு, மாணவர்களுக்கு அதை எளிதாக விளக்கும் திறன்.

2. கற்பித்தல் முறைகள் (Teaching Methods):

பல்வேறு கற்பித்தல் முறைகளைப் பயன்படுத்தி, மாணவர்களின் கற்றலை மேம்படுத்தும் திறன். விளக்கங்கள், விவாதங்கள், குழு வேலைகள், நடைமுறை பயிற்சிகள் போன்றவற்றைப் பயன்படுத்துதல். மாணவர்களின் கற்றல் திறன்கள் மற்றும் தேவைகளுக்கு ஏற்ப கற்பித்தல் முறைகளை மாற்றியமைக்கும் திறன்.

3. தொடர்பு திறன் (Communication Skills):

தெளிவான மற்றும் புரிந்துகொள்ளக்கூடிய முறையில் பாடத்தை விளக்கும் திறன். மாணவர்களின் கேள்விகளுக்கு சரியான மற்றும் தெளிவான பதில்களை வழங்கும் திறன். மாணவர்களுடன் நல்ல தொடர்பு கொண்டு, அவர்களின் சந்தேகங்களை நீக்கும் திறன்.

4. மாணவர்களைப் புரிந்துகொள்ளும் திறன் (Understanding Students):

ஒவ்வொரு மாணவரின் கற்றல் திறன், தேவைகள் மற்றும் பின்னணியைப் புரிந்துகொள்ளும் திறன். மாணவர்களின் பலம் மற்றும் பலவீனங்களை அடையாளம் கண்டு, அவர்களுக்கு ஏற்றவாறு கற்பித்தல் முறைகளை மாற்றியமைக்கும் திறன். மாணவர்களின் மனநிலை மற்றும் உணர்ச்சிகளைப் புரிந்துகொண்டு, அவர்களுக்கு உதவும் திறன்.

5. ஆக்கப்பூர்வமான சிந்தனை (Creative Thinking):

பாடத்தை சுவாரஸ்யமாகவும், ஈடுபாட்டுடனும் கற்பிக்கும் திறன். புதிய மற்றும் புதுமையான கற்பித்தல் முறைகளை உருவாக்கும் திறன். மாணவர்களின் ஆர்வத்தை ஈர்த்து, அவர்களை கற்றலில் ஈடுபடுத்தும் திறன்.

6. மதிப்பீட்டு திறன் (Evaluation Skills):

மாணவர்களின் கற்றலை மதிப்பிடும் திறன். பல்வேறு மதிப்பீட்டு முறைகளைப் பயன்படுத்தி, மாணவர்களின் முன்னேற்றத்தை அளவிடும் திறன். மாணவர்களின் பலம் மற்றும் பலவீனங்களை அடையாளம் கண்டு, அவர்களுக்கு சரியான வழிகாட்டுதல் வழங்கும் திறன்.

7. நெறிமுறை மற்றும் பொறுப்பு (Ethics and Responsibility):

ஆசிரியர் என்ற முறையில் நெறிமுறை மற்றும் பொறுப்பு உணர்வு கொண்டிருத்தல். மாணவர்களின் கல்வி மற்றும் தனிப்பட்ட வளர்ச்சிக்கு உதவும் திறன். சமூகத்திற்கு நல்ல முறையில் பங்களிக்கும் திறன்.

8. தொடர்ச்சியான கற்றல் (Continuous Learning):

புதிய கல்வி முறைகள் மற்றும் தொழில்நுட்பங்களைக் கற்றுக்கொண்டு, அவற்றை கற்பித்தலில் பயன்படுத்தும் திறன். தனது கல்வி மற்றும் கற்பித்தல் திறன்களை தொடர்ந்து மேம்படுத்திக் கொள்ளும் திறன்.

கற்பித்தல் திறன் என்பது ஒரு ஆசிரியரின் முக்கியமான திறன்களில் ஒன்றாகும். இது பல கூறுகளை உள்ளடக்கியது, அவை பாடத்தைப் புரிந்துகொள்ளும் திறன், கற்பித்தல் முறைகள், தொடர்பு திறன், மாணவர்களைப் புரிந்துகொள்ளும் திறன், ஆக்கப்பூர்வமான சிந்தனை, மதிப்பீட்டு திறன், நெறிமுறை மற்றும் பொறுப்பு, மற்றும் தொடர்ச்சியான கற்றல் போன்றவை. இந்த கூறுகள் ஒரு ஆசிரியரை மிகவும் திறமையானவராகவும், மாணவர்களின் வளர்ச்சிக்கு உதவும் நல்ல வழிகாட்டியாகவும் மாற்றுகின்றன.

Definitions of Teaching

John Dewey:

"Teaching is the process of facilitating learning, where the teacher guides the student to discover knowledge through experience."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது கற்றலை எளிதாக்கும் செயல்முறையாகும், இதில் ஆசிரியர் மாணவரை அனுபவத்தின் மூலம் அறிவைக் கண்டறிய வழிநடத்துகிறார்."

Maria Montessori:

"Teaching is the act of nurturing the natural curiosity and creativity of the child, allowing them to learn at their own pace."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது குழந்தையின் இயற்கையான க curiosity மற்றும் படைப்பாற்றலை வளர்ப்பதாகும், அவர்கள் தங்கள் சொந்த வேகத்தில் கற்க அனுமதிக்கப்படுகிறார்கள்."

Paulo Freire:

"Teaching is a dialogical process where the teacher and student engage in critical thinking to transform the world."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது ஒரு உரையாடல் செயல்முறையாகும், இதில் ஆசிரியர் மற்றும் மாணவர் உலகை மாற்றுவதற்காக விமர்சன சிந்தனையில் ஈடுபடுகின்றனர்."

Lev Vygotsky:

"Teaching is the process of providing scaffolding to learners, helping them achieve what they cannot do independently through social interaction."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது கற்றவர்களுக்கு மேடை அமைப்பதன் மூலம், சமூக தொடர்பு மூலம் தனியாகச் செய்ய முடியாதவற்றை அடைய உதவுவதாகும்."

Jean Piaget:

"Teaching is about creating environments where students can construct their own knowledge through exploration and interaction."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது மாணவர்கள் தங்கள் சொந்த அறிவை ஆய்வு மற்றும் தொடர்பு மூலம் கட்டமைக்கும் சூழல்களை உருவாக்குவதாகும்."

Aristotle:

"Teaching is the highest form of understanding, where the teacher imparts wisdom and knowledge to the student."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது புரிதலின் உயர்ந்த வடிவமாகும், இதில் ஆசிரியர் மாணவருக்கு ஞானம் மற்றும் அறிவைப் பகிர்ந்து கொள்கிறார்."

Socrates:

"Teaching is not about filling a vessel but about kindling a flame of curiosity and critical thinking."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது ஒரு பாத்திரத்தை நிரப்புவது அல்ல, மாறாக curiosity மற்றும் விமர்சன சிந்தனையின் சுடரைப் பற்றவைப்பதாகும்."

Howard Gardner:

"Teaching is about recognizing and nurturing the multiple intelligences of students, helping them develop their unique strengths."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது மாணவர்களின் பல்துறை அறிவுத்திறன்களை அங்கீகரித்து, அவர்களின் தனித்துவமான வலிமைகளை வளர்ப்பதாகும்."

Albert Einstein:

"Teaching is not the mere imparting of knowledge but the stimulation of curiosity and the joy of discovery."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது அறிவைப் பகிர்வது மட்டுமல்ல, க curiosity மற்றும் கண்டுபிடிப்பின் மகிழ்ச்சியைத் தூண்டுவதாகும்."

Ralph W. Tyler:

"Teaching is the process of organizing learning experiences to achieve specific educational objectives."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது குறிப்பிட்ட கல்வி நோக்கங்களை அடைய கற்றல் அனுபவங்களை ஒழுங்கமைக்கும் செயல்முறையாகும்."

B.F. Skinner:

"Teaching is the arrangement of contingencies of reinforcement to promote learning."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது கற்றலை ஊக்குவிக்கும் வலுப்படுத்தலின் நிலைமைகளை ஏற்பாடு செய்வதாகும்."

John Holt:

"Teaching is about creating an environment where children can learn naturally, without fear or pressure."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது குழந்தைகள் பயம் அல்லது அழுத்தம் இல்லாமல் இயற்கையாகக் கற்கும் சூழலை உருவாக்குவதாகும்."

Confucius:

"Teaching is lighting a fire, not filling a bucket. It is about inspiring and guiding, not just instructing."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது ஒரு வாளியை நிரப்புவது அல்ல, ஒரு தீயைப் பற்றவைப்பதாகும். இது வழிநடத்துவது மற்றும் ஊக்குவிப்பது, வெறும் அறிவுறுத்தல் அல்ல."

Parker J. Palmer:

"Teaching is about creating spaces where truth can be practiced, and where students can engage deeply with the subject."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது உண்மை பயிற்சி செய்யப்படக்கூடிய இடங்களை உருவாக்குவதாகும், மேலும் மாணவர்கள் பாடத்துடன் ஆழமாக ஈடுபடும் இடத்தை உருவாக்குவதாகும்."

Nel Noddings:

"Teaching is a relational act, where care and empathy are central to the learning process."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது ஒரு உறவுமுறைச் செயலாகும், இதில் அக்கறை மற்றும் பச்சாத்தாபம் கற்றல் செயல்முறையின் மையமாக உள்ளன."

Edmund Amidon:

"Teaching is the process of interacting with students to provide guidance and support, enabling them to achieve their learning goals."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது மாணவர்களுடன் தொடர்பு கொண்டு, அவர்களுக்கு வழிகாட்டுதல் மற்றும் ஆதரவை வழங்குவதன் மூலம், அவர்களின் கற்றல் நோக்கங்களை அடைய உதவும் செயல்முறையாகும்."

H.C. Morrison:

"Teaching is the process of directing and guiding the learning activities of students in a systematic and organized manner."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது மாணவர்களின் கற்றல் செயல்பாடுகளை ஒரு முறைப்படுத்தப்பட்ட மற்றும் ஒழுங்கமைக்கப்பட்ட முறையில் வழிநடத்தி வழிகாட்டும் செயல்முறையாகும்."

Philip W. Jackson:

"Teaching is a complex art that involves not only the transmission of knowledge but also the cultivation of attitudes, values, and social skills."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது ஒரு சிக்கலான கலையாகும், இது அறிவைப் பகிர்வது மட்டுமல்லாமல், மனப்பான்மைகள், மதிப்புகள் மற்றும் சமூக திறன்களை வளர்ப்பதையும் உள்ளடக்கியது."

N.L. Gage:

"Teaching is the process of influencing students' behavior and learning through planned and systematic interactions."

"கற்பித்தல் என்பது திட்டமிடப்பட்ட மற்றும் முறைப்படுத்தப்பட்ட தொடர்புகளின் மூலம் மாணவர்களின் நடத்தை மற்றும் கற்றலை பாதிக்கும் செயல்முறையாகும்."

TNSET 2025 - GENERAL PAPER ON TEACHING & RESEARCH APTITUDE

2025-02-15T12:49:00.013+05:30

GENERAL PAPER-I

GENERAL PAPER ON TEACHING & RESEARCH APTITUDE

Code No. : 2400

Unit-I Teaching Aptitude (Click here to see Tamil Notes)

Teaching:

Concept, Objectives
Levels of teaching (Memory, Understanding and Reflective),
Characteristics and basic requirements.

Learner’s characteristics:

Characteristics of adolescent and adult learners
(Academic, Social, Emotional and Cognitive),
Individual differences.

Factors affecting teaching related to:

Teacher,
Learner,
Support material,
Instructional facilities,
Learning environment and Institution.

Methods of teaching in Institutions of higher learning:

Teacher centred vs. Learner centred methods;
Off-line vs. On-line methods (Swayam, Swayamprabha, MOOCs etc.).

Teaching Support System:

Traditional
Modern and ICT based.

Evaluation Systems:

Elements and Types of evaluation,
Evaluation in Choice Based Credit System in Higher education,
Computer based testing,
Innovations in evaluation systems.

Unit-II Research Aptitude

Research:

Meaning
Types
Characteristics
Positivism and Post- positivistic approach to research.

Methods of Research

Experimental
Descriptive
Historical
Qualitative
Quantitative methods.

Steps of Research.
Thesis and Article writing:

Format and styles of referencing.

Application of ICT in research.
Research ethics.

Unit-III Comprehension

A passage of text be given. Questions be asked from the passage to be answered.

Unit-IV Communication

Communication:

Meaning
Types
Characteristics of communication.

Effective communication:

Verbal and Non-verbal,
Inter-Cultural
Group communications
Classroom communication.

Barriers to effective communication.
Mass-Media and Society.

Unit-V Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude Types of reasoning.

Number series
Letter series
Codes
Relationships.
Mathematical Aptitude:

Fraction
Time & Distance
Ratio
Proportion
Percentage
Profit and Loss
Interest
Discounting
Averages etc..

Unit-VI Logical Reasoning

Understanding the structure of arguments:

Argument forms
Structure of categorical propositions
Mood and Figure
Formal and Informal fallacies
Uses of language
Connotations
Denotations of terms
Classical square of opposition.

Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning.
Analogies.
Venn diagram

Simple and multiple use for establishing validity of arguments.

Indian Logic

Means of knowledge.

Pramanas:

Pratyaksha (Perception),
Anumana (Inference)
Upamana (Comparison)
Shabda (Verbal testimony)
Arthapatti (Implication)
Anupalabddhi (Non-apprehension).

Structure and kinds of Anumana (inference)

Vyapti (invariable relation)
Hetvabhasas (fallacies of inference).

Unit-VII Data Interpretation

Sources, acquisition and classification of Data.
Quantitative and Qualitative Data.
Graphical representation (Bar-chart, Histograms, Pie-chart, Table-chart and Line-chart) and mapping of Data.
Data Interpretation.
Data and Governance.

Unit-VIII Information and Communication Technology (ICT):

General abbreviations and terminology.
Basics of Internet

Intranet
E-mail
Audio and Video-conferencing.

Digital initiatives in higher education.
ICT and Governance.

Unit-IX People, Development and Environment

Development and environment:

Millennium development
Sustainable development goals.

Human and environment interaction:

Anthropogenic activities and their impacts on environment.

Environmental issues:

Local, Regional and Global
Air pollution
Water pollution
Soil pollution
Noise pollution
Waste

Solid,
Liquid,
Biomedical
Hazardous
Electronic
Climate change and its Socio-Economic and Political dimensions.

Impacts of pollutants on human health.
Natural and energy resources:

Solar
Wind
Soil
Hydro
Geothermal
Biomass
Nuclear
Forests.

Natural hazards and disasters: Mitigation strategies.
Environmental Protection Act (1986)
National Action Plan on Climate Change

International agreements/efforts
Montreal Protocol
Rio Summit
Convention on Biodiversity
Kyoto Protocol
Paris Agreement
International Solar Alliance.

Unit-X Higher Education System

Institutions of higher learning and education in ancient India.
Evolution of higher learning and research in Post Independence India.
Oriental, Conventional and Non-conventional learning programmes in India.
Professional, Technical and Skill Based education.
Value education and environmental education.
Policies, Governance, and Administration.

NOTE:

(i) Five questions each carrying 2 marks are to be set from each Module.
(ii) Whenever graphical/pictorial question(s) are set for sighted candidates, a passage followed by equal number of questions and weightage be set for visually impaired candidates.

TN PG TRB 2025 POLITICAL SCIENCE

2024-12-08T14:06:00.006+05:30

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Unit I POLITICAL THEORY AND IDEOLOGIES

Concepts: State, Sovereignty, Political Obligation
Law, Power, Citizenship
Human Rights, Liberty, Equality
Property, Justice, Common Good, Democracy and Development.
Approaches: Traditional, Behavioural, Post Behavioural
Structural-Functional, Communication and Decision Making.
Ideologies: Liberalism, Neo-Liberalism, Realism, Conservatism,
Post – Colonialism – Marxism – Neo-Marxism
Socialism – Fascism – Anarchism
Feminism – Ecologism
Multi-Culturalism –Environmentalism.

Unit II WESTERN POLITICAL THOUGHT

Ancient: Socrates
Plato
Aristotle.
Medieval: St Augustine
St Thomas Aquinas
Niccole Machiavelli.
Modern / Post Modern: Hobbes-Locke
Rousseau
John Stuart Mill
Karl Marx
Gramsci
John Rawls.

Unit III INDIAN POLITICAL THOUGHT

Evolution & Characteristics
Vedic Polity – Concept of Dharma / Artha / Kama.
Ancient Thinkers: Manu
Kautilya
Thiruvalluvar
Mohammad Iqbal
E.V. Ramasamy Periyar.
Modern Thinkers: Swami Vivekananda
Aurobindo
M.K. Gandhi
M.N. Roy
Ambedkar
Jayaprakash Narayan
Jawaharlal Nehru.

Unit IV INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

Introduction: Meaning / Origin and Evolution
Theories: Idealism – Realism
Liberalism – Marxism
Constructivism – Global Justice
Role of Modern State/ Nation & the concept of Nationalism
Security – War Impacts (First-World War & Second-World War
Cold War & Post-Cold War / Nuclear Weapons)
Dynamics of Diplomacy (Types – Mechanism – Institutions – Modern Trends)
UN & its Agencies
Regional Organisations (European Union / African Union / Shanghai Corporation Organisation / SAARC, ASEAN & BRICS).
Contemporary Issues in Foreign Policy of India during the 21st Century
Relations with Neighourhood (Pakistan, China, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Maldives, Afghanistan)
Russia, USA and European Union.

Unit V POLITICAL INSTITUTIONS IN INDIA

Introduction: Making of the Indian Constitution
Constituent Assembly
Philosophy of the Constitution
Constitutionalism and Constitutional Amendment.
Features and Structure: Executive (President, Prime Minister and Council of Ministers)
Legislature (Union Parliament – Parliamentary Committees)
Judiciary (Supreme Court, High Court, Judicial Review, Judicial Activism, Judicial Reform).
Various Institutions and Challenges: Electoral Process and Election
Commission of India – Local Government Institutions (Functioning and Reforms)
Constitutional and Statutory Bodies (Comptroller and Auditor General
National Commission for Scheduled Castes
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
National Commission for Human Rights
National Commission for Women
National Commission for Minorities

Unit VI POLITICAL PROCESS IN INDIA

Introduction: State Economy and Development
Planning and Development
Policies for Growth & Development
Political Processes in Indian Politics: Reorganization of Indian State
Identity Politics (Religion / Tribe / Caste / Region / Language)
Ideology and Party Politics (National & State Parties)
Globalization and its Dynamics
Gender & Politics (Issues of Equality and Representation)
Electoral Politics (Participation & Representation and Emerging Challenges)
Role of Civil Society.

Unit VII PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Origin and growth: Concepts, principles and theories
Classical – Bureaucratic – Scientific Management
Human Relations – Ecological
Features of Administration: Accountability and control
Legislature, Executive and Judiciary)
Human Resource Management
Structure of bureaucracy, civil service at central, state and district level)
Budgetary process – Committees – Tribunals.
Issues and Challenges in Public Administration
Ethics and Integrity
New Public Management
Issues challenges and changing trends in Public Administration.

Unit VIII GOVERNMENT AND POLITICS OF TAMILNADU

Establishment of Madras Presidency and Dravidian Nationalism
Non - Brahmanism, rise of Justice Party
Growth of Dravidian identities and parties
Self-respect Movement
Formation of Dravida Kazhagam
Role of government and its rise and decline
Congress Regime - Rajaji
State Reorganization
K. Kamaraj – M. Bhakthavatsalam – DMK Regime
1967 elections – Formation of DMK
Anti-Hindi agitations – C.N. Annadurai –
M. Karunanidhi – M.K. Stalin
AIADMK Regime: M. G. Ramachandran
J. Jayalalitha
O. Pannerselvam – Edapadi Palanisamy
Other Political Parties and Issues: PMK–MDMK–DMDK–VCK–CPI–BJP–IUML
Role and impact of Language, Cinema, Caste and Social media
Policies and Politics from 1947 till date
Welfare schemes, Social Justice programmes
Committees and Commissions
Sectoral policies and issues concerning the State & its relation with the Central Government

Unit IX MODERN GOVERNMENTS: (UK, USA & SWITZERLAND)

Introduction: Establishment of modern constitutions and their characteristics
Introduction to the State and the Government
State and its Nature
State and Government – Sovereignty
Division of powers
Unitary state
Federal State
Constitution and its classifications
Written and Unwritten
Flexible and Rigid
Parliamentary and Non-Parliamentary forms of Government
Types of governments: Presidential, Parliamentary
Quasi-Presidential and Direct Democracy in the UK, USA and Switzerland (structure and function of Executive, Legislature and Judiciary)
Nature of Political Parties & Electoral process: UK, USA and Switzerland.

Unit X PUBLIC POLICY AND GOVERNANCE IN INDIA

Introduction: Concepts (public interest, public sector, output, development, economic growth, equity, government and governance)
Theories (elite theory, group theory, political systems theory and institutionalism, policy output, incremental theory, rational choice theory)
Features of Public policy in India
Institutions and Policy Making in India
Governance Structure (Right to Information
Consumer Protection Act
Citizen Charter / Grievance Redressal System
Lokpal / Lokayukta – Panchayat Raj Institutions – System & functions
Policy Governance in India: Instrument of Socio–Economic Development
Centre and State Organizations and their Schemes/ Programmes/ Policies
(Housing, Health, Drinking Water, Education, Food Security, Science & Technology etc).

TN PG TRB 2025 PHYSICAL EDUCATION

2024-12-07T21:37:00.010+05:30

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Unit I PRINCIPLES OF MOTOR DEVELOPMENT

Meaning of Motor Development, Motor Learning, Motor Control, Physical Growth, Maturation & Aging
Theoretical perspectives in Motor Development – Newell’s Model of Motor Development
Principles of motion and stability – Motor Milestones, Development of motor skills across the lifespan
Motor Skills: Locomotor, non-locomotor and manipulative skills, Movement concepts: Body, Space, Effort & Relationship
Sensory perceptual development: Visual, Kinesthetic, Auditory and Intermodal perception
Functional constraints in Motor Development

Unit II SKILLS, RULES AND REGULATIONS OF SPORTS AND GAMES (WITH REFERENCE TO RDG/BDG AND RD/BD COMPETITIONS OF TN GOVT.)

Skills (Fundamental and Advanced Skills)
Physical, Technical and Tactical preparation
Rules and regulations – Duties of Officials
Methods of officiating – Official Signals – Scoring
Playfield dimensions, layout and marking – Equipment specifications
Organizational Set-up – Qualification and Qualities of Coach

Unit III RULES AND REGULATIONS OF ATHLETICS (WITH REFERENCE TO BDS OF TN GOVT.) AND CHESS

Athletics: Techniques – Physical, Technical and Tactical preparation
Rules and regulations – Duties of Officials – FOP preparation –
Equipment and implement specifications, layout and marking of track (400m Oval and Short track) and field events - Organizational Set-up.
Chess: Chessboard – Chessman – Values of Chessmen
Capturing – Attack – Checkmate
Technical and Tactical preparation
Rules and regulations – Duties of Officials

Unit IV TOURNAMENTS, SCHEMES AND AWARDS

Tournaments at School, College & University level
Federation/Association tournaments at District, State, Regional, National, Asian and International Level
Sports schemes of State and Central Government including SDAT and SAI
State and National awards in Sports – Sports Hostel – Centre of Excellence
Incentives for sportsperson at state and National Level
Significant sports tournaments / trophies / sportspersons
CM Trophy – National Games – Asian Games – Olympic Games/World Cup
Organisational setup and functions of DSE, SCERT & DIET – Role of CIPE & DIPE

Unit V HUMAN PERFORMANCE MEASUREMENT

Concept of Tests and Measurements – Purpose of Tests
Measurements and Evaluation
Domain of Human Performance
Criteria for Tests Selection
Norm referenced & Criterion referenced reliability and validity
Developing knowledge based tests and Survey
Components of Physical Fitness
Assessment of Physical Fitness in Youth and Adults
Sports Skills Assessment – psychomotor tests
Psychological measurements – Sports Analytics

Unit VI GENERAL THEORY AND METHODS OF SPORTS TRAINING

Principles of Sports Training
Training load components
Periodization in Sports Training
Individualization and Adaptation in Training Programs
Multilateral physical development
Sports Specific Physical development
Skill acquisition and Technique Development
Tactical and Psychological preparation
Recovery and Regeneration Techniques
Strength and Conditioning Methods
Endurance Training Strategies
Speed, Agility and coordination Training
Injury Prevention and Rehabilitation in Sports Training.

Unit VII EXERCISE PHYSIOLOGY AND SPORTS NUTRITION

Exercise Physiology: Development and aging of body systems
Energy systems and metabolism – fatigue and recovery
Body temperature regulation – Endocrine Responses to Exercise
Cardiovascular Physiology – Respiratory Physiology
Neuromuscular Physiology
Sports Nutrition: Macronutrients: Carbohydrates, Proteins and Fats
Micronutrients: Vitamins and Minerals – Fluids and Hydration Strategies
Pre- Exercise Nutrition
During-Exercise Nutrition
Post-Exercise Nutrition and Recovery
Nutrition for Athletes – Supplements in Sports Nutrition
Nutrition Strategies for Weight Management and Body Composition
Ergogenic aids – Doping

Unit VIII RESEARCH PROCESS IN PHYSICAL EDUCATION AND SPORTS

Meaning and Definition of Research – Need, Nature and importance of research in Physical Education
Types of Research: (i) Basic, Applied & Action research, (ii) Analytical Research (Philosophical, Historical, Meta Analysis)
Descriptive Research, Experimental Research, Qualitative Research
Steps in research process – Formulation of hypothesis – Purpose of the literatures
Variables and its types – Data collection tools in Research – Research Design
Mechanism of writing thesis / dissertation – Method of Writing Research proposal, Research Synopsis, Research Paper & Abstract
APA format in Bibliography writing – Research ethics.

Unit IX STATISTICS IN PHYSICAL EDUCATION AND SPORTS

Definition of Statistics – Types of Statistics
Data and its types (Nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio)
Variables and attributes
Parametric and non-parametric statistics
Measures of Central Tendency & Measures of Variability
Principles of Normal Probability Curve
Skewness and Kurtosis
Type I & II Error- Level of significance
Population & Sample
Types of Sampling: Probability and Non-Probability sampling
Concept of t-test, F-test & Correlation
Graphical Representation in Statistics.

Unit X MODERN TRENDS IN PHYSICAL EDUCATION AND SPORTS

Biomechanical Analysis
Stress Management Techniques
Wearable Fitness Trackers
Virtual Reality Training
Data Analytics for Performance Enhancement
Technological innovation in equipment, surfaces/play fields and coaching
Sports and Games for Children with Special Needs (CWSN)
Interdisciplinary Approaches
Early Childhood Physical Literacy
Thirumoolar Astanga Yoga
Sport tourism

TN PG TRB 2025 ECONOMICS

2024-12-07T19:42:00.005+05:30

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UNIT I MICRO ECONOMICS

Theory of Consumer Behaviour – Cardinal and Ordinal approaches – Revealed Preference hypothesis – Hicks Revision of demand theory
The Modern Utility analysis of Choices involving risk or uncertainty – Elasticity of demand – The concept of Consumers Surplus
Theory of Producer Behaviour: Production Function – Law of Variable Proportions and Return to scale
Production Function: Cobb-Douglas, CES – Technical progress – Least Cost Combination – The Theory of Costs
Theory of Markets: Market structure – Concept of equilibria – Perfect Competition – Monopoly and Price Discrimination
Monopolistic Competition – Oligopoly – Duopoly – Game theory – Non-cooperative games
Factor Pricing: Marginal Productivity Theory – Product Exhaustion Theorem
Theories of Rent, Wages, Interest and Profits – General Equilibrium Analysis
Efficiency criteria: Pareto – Hicks and Kaldor
Welfare Economics: old and new – Economics of information

UNIT II MACRO ECONOMICS

National Income and Social Accounting: Concepts and Measurements
Determination of Output and Employment: Classical and Keynesian, Post Keynesian
Consumption and Investment Functions: Theories of Consumption Function – The Principles of Multiplier and Accelerator
Interaction of Multiplier and Accelerator – Theories of Investment Function
New Theories of Investment: Financial, Jorgenson and Tobin
Macro theories of Distribution: Ricardo, Marx
Keynes, Kalecki and Kaldor

UNIT III MONEY BANKING

Theories of demand for and supply of money: Classical, Keynesian and Post-Keynesian approaches
Components of Money Supply – High Powered Money – The Money Multiplier
Theories of Inflation – Theories of Business Cycles
Controls of Business Cycles – Inflation and Phillips Curve Analysis
Functions of Central Banking and Credit Control – Instruments and Workings of Monetary Policy
Different Currency Standards – Rational Expectations Hypothesis and its critique
capital market and its regulations
Role and Functions of Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Institutions

UNIT IV INTERNATIONAL ECONOMICS

International Trade and Economic Development
Theories of International Trade: Smith, Ricardo
Hecksher-Ohlin and Krugman
Factor Price Equalization Theorem by Rybczynski
Balance of Payments: Concept, Composition, Equilibrium and Disequilibrium
Terms of Trade – Trade Multiplier
Theories of Exchange Rate – Exchange Rate Policies – Foreign exchange market
Optimum Currency Area – International Capital Movements – Free trade vs Protectionism
Qualitative and Quantitative Restrictions – Trade policy for developing countries – GATT and WTO
Regional Trade Blocks: EU, ASEAN, SAARC, NAFTA, BRICS etc. – IMF and World

UNIT V PUBLIC ECONOMICS

Role of Public Finance – Canons of Taxation – Principles of Taxation – Taxable Capacity
Direct and Indirect Taxes – GST design – Implementation and impact of GST
Theories of Public Expenditure: Musgrave, Wagner, Peacock and Wiseman
Public Debt: Meaning, Theories and Methods of Repayment
Budget: Procedures and types – Objectives and Instruments of Fiscal Policy
Deficit Financing and Methods – Effectiveness of Monetary and Fiscal policy
Principles of Federal Finance – Problems of Allocation of Resources of the Centre and State
Fiscal Responsibility of the Centre and State – Finance Commission in India
Local Finance in India – Sources of Local Finance
Functions and Their Defects – Fiscal Correction and Additional Stimulus

UNIT VI ECONOMIC GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

Indicators of Economic Development: GDP, Per Capita Income
PQLI, HDI and GDI
Theories of Economic Development: Smith, Ricardo, Mark, Schumpeter and Rostow
Balanced and Unbalanced, Amartya Sen
Technical Progress: Embodied and Disembodied – Endogeneous Growth
Models of Economic Growth: Harrod – Domar, Robinson, Kaldor, Solow and Mahalanobis
Concepts and Measurement: Sustainable Development Goals, Poverty and Inequalities

UNIT VII ENVIRONMENTAL ECONOMICS AND DEMOGRAPHY

Environment as a public good, Market failures – Coase Theorem
Cost Benefit Analysis and Compensation Criteria
Validation of Environmental Goals
Theories of Population – Concept, Measures and Features
Population Pyramid, Fertility, Morbidity, Mortality, Aging
Demographic dividend, Life Table, Migration, Urbanization

UNIT VIII INDIAN ECONOMY-I

Features of Indian Economy – National Income in India: Measurement, Growth and Structure
Economic reformation in India: Fiscal, Financial and Trade
Challenges facing in chain Economy: Human capital formation, Unbalanced regional development
Unemployment, Poverty and Inequality
Agriculture in India – Land reforms – Green revolution
Agricultural credit and marketing – Food Security – Reformation in agriculture
Major Issues in Agriculture: Agrarian crisis, farm subsidies, food security
Doubling farmers income and farmers’ suicide – WTO and agriculture
Industries in India – Industrialization: Role, Growth, Pattern, Features and Performance
Industrial Policies in the post independence era – Performance of Public Sector
Disinvestment policy – Large Scale Industries and MSMEs in the transformative era (2014-15)
Make in India, Startup India, Skill India – Special Economic Zones – Industrial Labour reforms in India
Impact of GST and Demonetization on Unorganized and Informal industries
Services in India: Foreign Trade: Composition, Direction, Balance of Payment Problems and Policies
Financial Services in India: Commercial Banks, Money and Capital Markets
Infrastructure: Transport, Energy, Telecommunication, Health and Education
Fiscal System in India

UNIT IX INDIAN ECONOMY-II

New Economic Policy: Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation
Critical appraisal of pre and post liberalisation
Planning Commission in India: Five Year Plans, Strategies, Achievements and performance
Planning Commission vs NITI Aayog
Rural Economy in India: Features, Problems and Challenges
Rural Development: Meaning, Need and Policies
Rural poverty and unemployment: causes and remedies
Rural indebtedness: features, causes and remedies – Rural infrastructure
Tamil Nadu Economy: Features, Growth, Structure, Performance and Models of development
Major Challenges in Tamil Nadu Economy – Dravidian Model of development.

UNIT X QUANTITATIVE METHODS

Collection of Data – Sampling methods – Organisation and Presentation of Data
Measures: Central tendency, Dispersion and Distribution – Correlation – Regression
Index Numbers – Time series and Analysis – Sampling distributions
Theories of estimation – Testing of hypothesis
Linear Regression models: Simple and Multiple
Violations of assumptions of Linear Regression model: Autocorrelation, Heteroscedasticity, Multicollinearity and Misspecification
Mathematical Economics: Sets – Functions and Continuity, Sequence, Series
Differential Calculus and its applications – Integral calculus (Basic Techniques)
Differential and difference equations with applications
Linear Algebra – Matrices and their application in Economics
Input-Output Model – Linear Programming Problems

TN PG TRB 2025 COMMERCE & ACCOUNTANCY

2024-12-07T13:51:00.006+05:30

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Unit I BUSINESS ORGANISATION AND MANAGEMENT

Business: Meaning and Characteristics
Forms of business organisation
Business combinations
Management

Unit II MARKETING AND HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

Marketing
Product
Promotional methods
Channels of distribution
Retail management
Recent Trends in Marketing
Human Resource Management
Employee Welfare

Unit III BANKING, INSURANCE, FINANCIAL MARKETS AND AUDITING

Indian Banking System – Banking Structure in India
Types of Accounts
Digital Banking Services
Insurance
IRDAI
Financial Markets
Auditing
Auditors

Unit IV BUSINESS LAW AND COMPANY LAW

The Indian Contract Act, 1872: Introduction – Elements of a valid contract – Offer and Acceptance – Consideration – Capacity to contract – Free consent – Legality of object
Void agreements – Contingent contract – Performance of contract – Quasi contract – Discharge of contracts – Remedies for breach of contract.
The Sale of Goods Act, 1930
Companies Act, 2013 -Formation of a Company
Share capital and Debentures – Directors – Meetings – Company Secretary

Unit V ENTREPRENEURIAL DEVELOPMENT AND INTERNATIONAL BUSINESS

Entrepreneurship
MSME
Women Entrepreneurship in India
International Business
Methods of entry into foreign markets
Multi-Lateral Agreements and Institutions
Developed and Developing Countries
IMF-World Bank and its affiliates

Unit VI FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

Introduction to Accounting – Accounting Concepts and Conventions – Indian Accounting Standards
Accounting Equation – Double Entry System
Journal – Ledger – Cash Book – Other Subsidiary Books
Trial Balance – Rectification of Errors – Bank Reconciliation Statement
Depreciation Accounting – Capital Expenditures and Revenue Expenditures
Final Accounts of Sole Proprietors – Average due date – Account current
Bills of Exchange – Accounts from incomplete records, Accounts of Not-for-profit organisation
Partnership Accounts

Unit VII CORPORATE ACCOUNTING

Issues of Shares – Bonus Issues – Sweat Equity Shares
Employee Stock Option Scheme and Employee Stock Purchase Scheme – Buy Back of Shares
Redemption of Preference Shares – Issue and Redemption of Debentures
Underwriting of Securities – Profit Prior to Incorporation
Valuation of Goodwill and Shares – Final Accounts of Companies
Amalgamation: Merger and Acquisition – Alteration of Capital and Internal Reconstruction
Corporate Financial Reporting – Consolidated financial statements

Unit VIII COST AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING

Introduction to Cost Accounting – Methods and Techniques of Costing
Classification of cost – Materials – Labour – Overheads – Cost sheet
Job Costing – Process Costing – Joint Products and By-Products
Operating Costing – Contract Costing
Standard costing and Variance Analysis (Material and Labour only) – Activity Based Costing
Introduction to Management Accounting – Functions and Benefits of Management accounting
Analysis and Interpretation of Financial statements: Comparative statements
Common size statements and Trend analysis – Ratios
Funds flow statement, Cash Flow Statement as per AS 3
Budgets and Budgetary control
Marginal Costing and Break – Even analysis

Unit IX FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT AND BUSINESS STATISTICS

Introduction to Financial management – Sources of finance – Sources of (National and International)
Time value of money – Risk and return
Cost of capital – Capital structure – Leverages
Dividend policy – Working capital forecast
Cash management – Receivable management
Inventory management – Capital budgeting
Introduction to Statistics – Sampling and sample designs
Collection of Primary and Secondary data
Measures of Central tendency – Measures of Dispersion
Simple Correlation – Regression Analysis
Chi-square Test – Probability

Unit X TAXATION

Basic concepts relating to Income Tax – Residential status and Tax Incidence
Scope of Income – Basic concepts of Income
Income exempt from tax
Income from salaries – Income from house property
Profits and Gains from Business or Profession – Capital Gains
Income from Other Sources – Clubbing of Income
Set off and Carry forward of losses – Deductions from Gross total income
Assessment of individuals – Return of income – Advance payment of tax
Deduction and Collection of Tax at Source – E-filing of Income Tax Returns
Introduction to Goods and Services Tax – CGST – SGST – UTGST – IGST
Taxable Event – Consideration – Levy and Collection of GST – Exemptions from GST
Place and Time of Supply – Value of taxable supply – Input Tax Credit
Procedure for Registration – Goods and Services Valuation Rules – Tax Invoice
Credit and Debit Notes – Payment of tax – Interest on Delayed Payment of Tax
Furnishing of Returns – Default in Furnishing Returns
Demand and Appeals – Authority for Advance Ruling – Settlement of cases

TN TRB 2025 GEOGRAPHY

2024-12-06T21:30:00.004+05:30

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Unit I PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

Geomorphology:

The origin of Earth, The Age of Earth
The Earth’s Interior
Rocks
Mountain Building Process
Cycle of erosion

Climatology:

Atmosphere, Distribution of Temperature, Atmospheric Pressure
Wind, Clouds, Precipitation, Air masses
Cyclones, Climatic classification, Climate change

Oceanography:

Relief of the Ocean
Bottom Relief of the Ocean floors
Ocean currents

Unit II HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

Population Geography:

Population
Theories of population growth, Migration
Population composition and characteristics
Population of Tamilnadu

Settlement Geography:

Geography of settlements, Rural Settlements
Urban settlements, Urban Classical models

Agricultural Geography:

Nature, Scope and significance of Agricultural geography
Types of Crops

Urban Geography:

Nature and scope of urban Geography
Models of urban land use
Concept of cities, Changing urban form, Urban issues

Transport Geography:

Nature, scope and significance of transport Geography
Nodes and links – Connectivity – Accessibility

Cultural Geography:

Concept of cultural Geography
Measurement of Human Development

Social Geography:

Nature and scope of social geography
Quality of life

Economic Geography:

The significance of Economic Geography, Natural resources
Industries

Political Geography:

Trends and development in political Geography, Geopolitics
Regional organisations of co-operations

Unit III GEOGRAPHICAL THOUGHT

Contributions of Greek, Romans, etc.,
Contemporary trends in Indian geography
Major Geographic Traditions
Perspectives in Geography

Unit IV REGIONAL DEVELOPMENT AND PLANNING

Definition of region – Evolution – Types of region – Formal and functional region – Planning region – Need and types of regional planning
Characteristics and ideal planning region – Delimitation of planning region – Regionalisation of India for planning
Theories and models of regional planning – Growth pole model of perroux, growth centre model in Indian context myrdal, rostow and Friedman
Village cluster – Changing concept of development – Concept of under development
Efficiency – Explicity – Indicators – Economic, social and environment – Global pattern of development
Inter-regional variation of human development – International – Interstate comparision of India – Geospatial technology of regional planning.

Unit V GEOGRAPHY OF RESOURCE

Natural Resource - Concept, Classification and Techniques
Land Resources
Water Resources
Forests and Energy Resources
Disaster
Hazards
Vulnerability

Unit VI GEOGRAPHY OF ENVIRONMENT

Nature and scope of Environmental Geography
Ecosystem
Biogeochemical Cycle
Biomes
Biodiversity & threats
Conservation of biodiversity

Unit VII GEOGRAPHY OF INDIA

Major physiographic Regions and their Characterstics
Drainge system
Indian Monsoon
Soil, Vegetation, Water
Mineral and Marine Resources
Regional variation in Agricultral Development
Population characteristics
population policies in India
Development and Pattern of Transport
Internal and External Trade
India Space programme
Natural Disasters in India

Unit VIII GEOGRAPHY OF TAMILNADU

Tamil Nadu: Location – Administrative units of Tamil Nadu
Physiography: Mountains, Plateaus, Plains
Climate: Seasons (South West, North East Monsoon, summer and winter)
Rainfall: Cyclonic Rainfall – Distribution of Rainfall – Rivers of Tamil Nadu
Soils: Types of Soil
Natural Vegetation
Distribution of Crops
Cash Crops
Livestock &Fisheries
Distribution of Minerals and Industries
Population
Transportation

Unit IX CARTOGRAPHY

Nature and scope of cartography
Map projection
Map compilation and design
Map design
Map making

Unit X TECHNIQUES IN GEOGRAPHY

Definition of Remote Sensing
Satellite data products
Digital Image Processing & interpretation
Data Models in GIS
Data structure & analysis

TN PG TRB 2025 HISTORY

2024-12-06T18:13:00.013+05:30

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HISTORY

Unit I HISTORY OF INDIA UPTO 10TH CENTURY A.D.

Sources of Indian History – Archaeological – Literary – Foreign Accounts – Pre and Proto History – Harappan Civilization – Early Vedic Age – Later Vedic Age – Formation of State – Urbanization – Mahajanapadas – Jainism – Buddhism – Rise of Magadha – Alexander’s Invasion and its impact – Mauryan Empire – Chandra Gupta Maurya – Bindusara – Ashoka – Mauryan Administration – Sungas – Satavahanas – Indo-Greeks – Sakas – Parthians – Kushans – Kanishka – Gandhara Art – Age of Guptas – Chandra Gupta I – Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta II – Administration – Art and Architecture – Literature – Education – Nalanda – Vikramasila – Valabhi – Invasion of Huns – Vardhana Dynasty – Harsha Vardhana – Hieun-Tsang’s Account – Chalukyas – Three Crowned Kingdom – Prathihara – Palas – Rashtrakutas – Second Western Chalukyas.

Unit II HISTORY OF MEDIEVAL INDIA UPTO 1565 A.D.

Arab Conquest of Sind – Mohammad-Bin-Qasim – Dahir – Impact of Arab Conquest – Turkish Invasion – Mohammad of Ghazni – Mohammad of Ghor – First and Second Battle of Tarain – The Delhi Sultanate – Slave Dynasty – Qutub-ud-din Aibak – Iltutmish – Raziya Sultana – Balban – Mongol threat – Khilji Dynasty – Jalaluddin Khilji – Alauddin Khilji – Malik Kafur Invasion – Tughlaq Dynasty – Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq – Feroz-Shah-Tughlaq – Invasion of Timur – The Sayyid Dynasty – The Lodi Dynasty – Ibrahim Lodi – Administrative System – Socio – Economic and Religious Conditions – Art and Architecture – Vijayanagar Empire – Sangama – Harihara and Bukka – Saluva – Narashima Deva Raya – Tuluva Dynasty – Krishna Devaraya – Aravidu – Thirumala – Battle of Talikota – The Bahmani kingdom – The Bhakti Movement.

Unit III HISTORY OF MUGHAL INDIA AND

THE RISE OF MARATHAS

India on the eve of Babur’s Invasion – The First Battle of Panipat – Battle of Khanwa-Chanderi – The Battle of Ghaghra – Tuzuk-i-Babri – Humayun – Sur Dynasty – Shershah Suri – Administrative Reforms – Akbar the Great – The Second Battle of Panipat – Relations with Rajputs – Military Conquest – Administration – Religious Policy – Abolition of Jiziya – Ibadat Khana – Din-i-Ilahi – Jahangir – Influence of Nurjahan – Shah Jahan – NWF Policy – Aurangzeb – Military Exploits – Deccan Policy – Religious Policy – Socio- Economic condition under Mughals – Art and Architecture – Decline and Disintegration of the Mughal Empire – Rise of the Marathas – Early Victories of Shivaji – Administration of Marathas – The Peshwas – Balaji Viswanath – Baji Rao.

Unit IV THE COMPANY RULE IN INDIA

Advent of the Europeans – The Portuguese – Vascodacama – Francisco-de- Almeida – Alphonsa – de – Albuquerque – The Dutch – The Danes – The British – The French – Anglo-French Rivalry – Carnatic Wars – Dupleix – Robert Clive – Battle of Plassey – Battle of Buxar – Dual Government in Bengal – Warren Hastings – Administrative Reforms – Lord Cornwallis – Judicial Reforms and Permanent Land Revenue Settlement – Anglo-Mysore Wars – Hyder Ali – Tipu Sultan – Anglo Maratha Wars – Lord Wellesley – Subsidiary Alliance – Hastings and Establishment of British Paramountcy – William Bentinck and his Reforms – Ranjith Singh – Anglo Sikh Wars – Dalhousie – Doctrine of Lapse and his Reforms – Deindustrialization – Peasant and Tribal Revolts.

Unit V CROWN TO INDEPENDENCE

The Great Revolt of 1857 – Lord Canning – Lord Lytton – Lord Rippon – Socio-Religious Reform Movements in 19th Century India – Pre Congress Associations – Formation of Indian National Congress – Moderates – Partition of Bengal – Muslim League – Swadeshi Movement – Surat Split – Home Rule Movement – Rowlatt Act – Jallianwala Bagh massacre – Gandhian Era – Non- Cooperation Movement – Chauri Chaura – Swaraj Party – Simon Commission – Revolutionary Movements – Dandi March – Gandhi – Irwin Pact – Round Table Conferences – Trade and Labour Unions – Civil Disobedience Movement – Cripps Mission – Quit India Movement – Mountbatten Plan – Government of India Act 1858 – Queen’s Proclamation of 1858 – Indian Council Act of 1861– Indian Council Act of 1892 – Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909 – Montague Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 – Government of India Act, 1935 – Indian Independence Act of 1947.

Unit VI POST-INDEPENDENT INDIA

Integration of Indian States – Role of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel – Republic – Constitution of India – Salient Features – Nehruvian Era – Economic Policy –Five Year Plans – Social Welfare Programmes – Foundation of Foreign Policy – Indira Gandhi Regime – Domestic Policy – 20 Point Programme – Declaration of Emergency – Janata Party – Resurgence of Indira Gandhi – Administrative Reforms – Coalition Governments – Mandal Commission – India’s role in World Affairs – Economic, Diplomatic and Military role – Indo- China Border Dispute – Indo-Pak Conflict – India’s Nuclear Capabilities – India and Common Wealth – India and NAM – India and UNO – SAARC – G-20 – BRICS.

Unit VII HISTORY OF TAMIL NADU UPTO 13TH CENTURY

Geographical Features of Tamil Nadu – Sources of the History of Tamil Nadu – Pre-Historic Tamilagam – Sangam Age – Three Ancient Kingdom – Cheran Sengutuvan – Karikala Chola – Pandya Nedunchelian – Socio – Economic Condition – Five Fold Division – Trade and Commerce – Kalabharas – Pallavas of Kanchi – Simhavarman – Mahendravarman – Narasimhavarman – Rajasimha – Nandivarman II – Pallava Chalukya Conflict – Art and Architecture of the Pallavas – Imperial Cholas – Raja Raja I – Rajendra Chola I – Kulothunga I – Administration – Economy – Kudavolai System – Maritime Activities – Art and Architecture – Later Pandyas – Maravarman Sundara Pandya I – Maravarman Sundara Pandya II – Jatavarman Sundara Pandya – Kulasekara Pandya – Accounts of Marco Polo – Art and Architecture.

Unit VIII MEDIEVAL TO CONTEMPORARY TAMIL NADU

Malik Kafur's invasion of Tamil Region – Sultanate of Madurai – The Vijayanagar rule in the Tamil Country – Nayaks of Madurai – Nayaks of Tanjore – Nayaks of Gingee – Sethupathis of Ramnad – Tamil Nadu under Marathas – Advent of the Europeans – British – French – Dutch – Poligar Rebellion – South Indian Rebellion – Vellore Mutiny – Tamil Nadu under British Rule – Tamil Nadu and Freedom Struggle – Early Nationalist – Radical Nationalist – Social Reform Movement – Congress – Rajaji – Kamaraj – Justice Party – Periyar and his Self Respect Movement – Anti-Hindi Agitation – Dravidian Parties – Dravida Kazhagam – DMK – C.N. Annadurai – Kalaignar M. Karunanithi – Emergence of ADMK – M.G. Ramachandran – J. Jayalalitha (AIADMK) – MDMK – PMK – Other Political Parties – Education and Empowerment of Women – Reservation Policy – Agrarian Condition – Irrigation – Industrialization – Information Technology.

Unit IX RISE OF MODERN WEST

Geographical Discoveries – Renaissance and Reformation – Enlightened Despots – Age of Revolution – American War of Independence – Industrial Revolution – Agrarian Revolution – French Revolution – Rise of Napoleon Bonaparte – Napoleonic Wars – Congress of Vienna – Metternich – Concert of Europe – Holy Alliance – Greek War of Independence – The Revolution of 1830 and 1848 in France.

Unit X HISTORY OF MODERN WORLD

Unification of Italy – Mazzini – Young Italy – Garibaldi – Count Cavour – Unification of Germany – Zollverein – Bismarck – Napoleon III – Crimean War – Young Turk Revolution – Balkan Wars – Russian Revolution – First World War – League of Nations – Rise of Dictatorships – Adolf Hitler, Benito Mussolini and Mustafa Kemal Pasha – Second World War – UNO – Cold War – Third World Countries and Non-Alignment – UNO and Global Disputes – Formation of European Union – End of Cold War.

TN PG TRB 2025 ZOOLOGY

2024-12-05T13:48:00.005+05:30

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Unit I ANIMAL DIVERSITY AND PHYLOGENY

Concepts of species and hierarchical taxa
Structure and life history of Protozoa
Canal systems in Porifera
Structure and life history of helminth parasites
Adaptive Radiation in Polychaetes
Structure, affinities and life history of Minor Phyla
Origin and outline classification of Chordata
Origin, Evolution and general characters of Agnatha
General characters and classification of fishes
Origin, Evolution and adaptive radiation of Amphibia
Origin and evolution of Reptiles
Origin and evolution of Birds
Origin of mammals
Structure and functions of integument and its derivatives

Unit II ENTOMOLOGY AND ECONOMIC ZOOLOGY

Classification of Insects
Beneficial insects
Harmful insects
Poultry farming
Dairy farming

Unit III CELL AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

Cellular organization
Organization of Genes and Chromosomes
Cell division and cell cycle
Structure and function of DNA
RNA synthesis and processing
Control of gene expression
Cellular communication
Cell signaling
Cancer
Programmed cell death

Unit IV GENETICS

Mendelian principles
Concept of gene - Modern concept of gene
Extensions of Mendelian principles
Sex determination in man
Gene mapping methods
Cytoplasmic Inheritance
Microbial genetics
Human genetics
Mutation
Structural and numerical alterations of chromosomes
Quantitative genetics
Recombination
Population genetics
Animal breeding

Unit V ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY

System Physiology
Blood and Circulation
Cardiovascular system
Blood vessels
Respiratory Physiology
Muscle Physiology
Neurophysiology
Sensory Physiology
Renal Physiology
Thermoregulation and Stress adaptation
Endocrinology

Unit VI DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY AND IMMUNOLOGY

Gametogenesis, fertilization and early development
Morphogenesis and organogenesis
Regeneration
Human Reproduction
Immunology
Antibody molecules
Primary and Secondary Lymphoid organs
Humoral and cell-mediated immune responses
Hypersensitivity and autoimmunity
Vaccines and immunization schedule
Immune responses to bacterial, viral and parasitic infections

Unit VII ENVIRONMENT, CONSERVATION AND MANAGEMENT

The Environment
Population Ecology
Community Ecology
Ecosystem Ecology
Biogeography
Biodiversity
Environmental issues
Environmental Management

Unit VIII EVOLUTIONARY PRINCIPLES AND ANIMAL BEHAVIOUR

Emergence of evolutionary thoughts
Origin of cells and unicellular evolution
Paleontology and Evolutionary History
Molecular Evolution
Adaptive radiation, Isolating mechanisms
Brain, Behaviour and Evolution
Neural basis of learning
Development of behaviour

Unit IX BIOPHYSICS AND BIOCHEMISTRY

Structure of atoms, molecules and chemical bonds
Stabilizing interactions
Principles of biophysical chemistry
Composition, structure and functions of biomolecules
Bioenergetics, glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation
Principle of catalysis, enzyme classification

Unit X BIOSTATISTICS

Collection of Data
Classification of Data
Presentation of Data
Descriptive Statistics
Measures of Dispersion
Correlation
Simple Regression
Probability
Inferential Statistics
Student’s ‘t’ test
Chi square test
F-test and ANOVA

Unit XI BIOTECHNOLOGY

Recombinant DNA technology
Biotechnology in health care
Microbial Fermentation Technology
Animal cell culture
Biodegradation and Bioremediation

Unit XII TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES IN BIOLOGY

Histochemical and Immuno techniques
Biophysical Method
Radiolabeling techniques
Microscopic techniques

TN TRB PHYSICS

2024-12-05T12:34:00.004+05:30

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Unit I MATHEMATICAL PHYSICS

Dimensional analysis: Differential equation (ordinary and partial) – order of equation – Expressions for gradient, divergence, curl and Laplacian – vector algebra and vector calculus – Gauss divergence theorem – Green’s theorem – Stokes’ theorem. Matrix: Cayley – Hamilton theorem, inverse of matrix – Eigen values and Eigen vectors. Polynomials: Hermite, Bessel and Legendre Functions. Special function: Beta and Gamma functions. Probability: Elementary probability theory – Random variables – Binomial – Poisson and Normal distribution. Complex variables: Analytic functions – Singular points – Cauchy’s integral theorem and formula -Taylor’s and Laurent’s expansions, poles, Calculus of residues and evaluation of integrals. Integral transforms: Fourier series and Fourier transform and their properties.

Unit II CLASSICAL MECHANICS

Mechanics of particles and systems of particles: Constraints and Generalized coordinates, Law of conservation of Energy, Linear and Angular momentum, Conservative and Non-Conservative systems, Degrees of freedom, Holonomic – Nonholonomic – Scleronomic systems. Lagrangian Formalism: Lagrange equations of motion – D’Alembert’s principle – Applications (Simple pendulum, Atwood’s machine, Harmonic Oscillator, Electrical circuit). Hamiltonian Formalism: Hamilton’s equation of motion – Cyclic co-ordinates – Hamilton’s equation from variational principle, Principle of least action, Canonical transformation, Liouville’s theorem. Rigid body Dynamics: Euler’s angles – Moment of inertia tensor, Euler’s equation of motion – Symmetrical top, Special theory of Relativity: Inertial and Non- inertial frames, Lorentz transformation, Lorentz inverse transformation, Length contraction, Time dilation, Mass invariance, Einstein’s mass-energy relation.

Unit III ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY

Electrostatics: Coulomb’s law – Gauss’s law and its application. Laplace and Poisson’s equations. Magnetostatics: Biot Savart’s law – Ampere’s law – Magnetic scalar and vector potentials – magnetic susceptibility – Equation of continuity – Displacement current – Maxwell’s equations (free space and linear isotropic media) – Electromagnetic waves – Poynting’s theorem – Dielectrics: Retarded potentials – Polarization – Radiation from a linear antenna – Transmission lines and Wave guides.

Unit IV QUANTUM MECHANICS

Failures of Classical mechanics – Black body radiation – Wave and particle duality – Postulates of Quantum mechanics – Wave function and properties – Expectation values – Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle – Schrodinger equations (time – dependent and time- independent). Eigen value problems: Particle in a box (1D and 3D), Particle in a finite potential well & barrier, Tunnelling, Harmonic oscillator. Operators: Ladder operators, Angular momentum operator, Hydrogen atom, spin – Stern Gerlach experiment. Approximation methods: Variational principle, Time independent (1st and 2nd order ) degenerate and non-degenerate perturbation theory – Time-Dependent perturbation theory – Fermi’s golden rule, Identical particles. Relativistic Quantum Mechanism: Pauli’s spin Matrices, Dirac and Klein Gordon equation. Commutators. Scattering theory: Scattering cross-section, Scattering by a central potential, Partial wave analysis, Breit-Wigner formula.

Unit V THERMODYNAMICS AND STATISTICAL MECHANICS

Laws of thermodynamics and their consequences – thermodynamic system (closed and open) – thermodynamic processes (isothermal, adiabatic, isochoric, isobaric, isotropic) – cyclic process – thermodynamic potentials (U, S, G, H) – relation between them. Specific heat – equation of state – intensive and extensive variables – The P-V diagram – Carnot cycle and its efficiency – Entropy – reversible and irreversible – T-S diagram – Equipartition theorem. Phase space – micro and macrostates – Liouville’s theorem – ensembles – partition function – classical (MB distribution) – Maxwell’s distribution of velocities – Kinetic Theory of gases – Pressure exerted by gas – Mean free path – Mean – RMS and most probable speed – and quantum (BE & FD distribution) statistics – applications to black body radiation – Bose Einstein condensation.

Unit VI ATOMIC PHYSICS AND SPECTROSCOPY

Quantum states of an electron in an atom – Hydrogen atom spectrum – Electron spin -Spin orbit coupling – Fine structure – Relativistic correction – Spectroscopic terms and selection rules – Hyperfine structure – Exchange symmetry of wave functions – Pauli’s exclusion principle – Hund’s rule – Periodic table – Alkali type spectra – LS and JJ Coupling – Zeeman, Paschen – Back and Stark effects. Principles of ESR, NMR, Chemical shift – Frank Condon principle – Born Oppenheimer approximation – Electronic, rotational and vibrational spectra of diatomic molecules, Selection rules.

Unit VII SOLID STATE PHYSICS

Crystal Physics: Lattice, Crystal structures – Bravais lattices – Miller indices – Reciprocal lattices – Lattice Dynamics: Monoatomic, diatomic lattices – Theories of specific heat – Einstein’s and Debye’s model for lattice specific heat. Classical free electron theory: Drude model – Thermal conductivity – Wiedemann Franz law. Energy bands in solids: Energy bands in metals, insulators and semiconductors, E-k diagram – Density of states – Brillouin zones – Wave equation of electron in a Periodic potential. Semiconductor Physics: Types of semiconductors – Mobility – Carrier concentration of charge carriers – Bloch’s theorem – Kronig – Penney model. Dielectrics: Polarization Mechanism – Clausius – Mossotti Equation – Piezo, Pyro and Ferroelectricity. Magnetism: Dia, Para, Ferro, Anti-Ferro and Ferri magnetism. Superconductivity: Meissner effect – Type I and Type II superconductivity – BCS theory – Josephson effect.

Unit VIII NUCLEAR AND PARTICLE PHYSICS

Nuclear properties (size, shape, charge distribution, spin and parity) – Binding energy, Nuclear force – Liquid drop model – semi – empirical mass formula, Shell model and Collective model – Deuteron, Ground state of deuteron – exicted state of deuteron – Meson theory of nuclear force – Yukawa potentials – Elementary ideas of alpha, beta and gamma decays – Radioactive decay – Fission, Fusion – Chain reaction – Nuclear reactor. Elementary particles: Classification of elementary particles, Fundamental interactions (EM, Strong, Weak, Gravitational) and their quantum numbers (charge, spin, parity, isospin, strangeness, etc.) – Gell-Mann- Nishijima formula. Elementary particles – Classifications – Quark model, Baryons and Mesons, Parity non-conservation in weak interaction.

Unit IX ELECTRONICS

Semiconducting devices: Diodes – Junction diode – Rectification – Zener diode – Light Emitting Diode. Junction Transistors: common base, common emitter and common collector configurations – Static characteristics – Transistors as amplifier and oscillators – FET, JFET, MOSFET. IC: Fabrication technology, Monolithic IC Processing. 555 Timer, Phase shift, Wien bridge oscillators. Operational Amplifier (IC 741): Op-Amp characteristics, Inverting and Non-inverting Amplifiers, Adder, Subtractor, Differentiator and Integrator. Digital techniques and applications: Flip Flops, Registers – Counters. Digital integrated circuits: Logic gates, NAND and NOR – Universal building blocks – Half and Full adder. Communication Electronics: Modulation and Demodulation (AM, FM, Phase), Transmitter and Receiver, Satellite and Fiber optic communication.

Unit X EXPERIMENTAL PHYSICS

Units and dimension of physical quantities – significant figures. Data interpretation and analysis, precision and accuracy, error analysis, propagation of errors, Least square fitting. Measurement of fundamental constants – e, h, c – Detection of X-rays, gamma rays, Charged particles, neutrons. Ionization chamber – proportional counter – Measurement of e/m ratio – Measurement of Hall voltage, mobility and charge carrier concentration – measurement of resistance and capacitance in series and parallel.

TN PG TRB 2025 MATHEMATICS

2024-12-03T20:28:00.006+05:30

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Unit I - ALGEBRA

Groups – Examples – Cyclic Groups – Permutation Groups – Lagrange’s theorem – Normal subgroups – Homomorphism – Cayley’s theorem – Cauchy’s theorem – Sylow’s theorems – Finite Abelian Groups.
Rings – Integral Domain – Field – Ring Homomorphism – Ideals and Quotient Rings – Field of Quotients of Integral domains – Euclidean Rings – Polynomial Rings – Unique factorization domain.
Fields – Extension fields – Elements of Galois theory – Finite fields.
Vector Spaces – Linear independence of Bases – Dual spaces – Inner product spaces – Linear transformations – Rank – Characteristic roots – Matrices – Canonical forms – Diagonal forms – Triangular forms – Nilpotent transformations – Jordan form – Quadratic forms and Classification – Hermitian, Unitary and Normal transformations.

Unit II REAL ANALYSIS

Elementary set theory – Finite, countable and uncountable sets – Real number system as a complete ordered field – Archimedean Property – Supremum, infimum, Sequences and Series – Convergence – limit supremum – limit infimum – The Bolzano – Weierstrass theorem – The Heine – Borel Covering theorem – Continuity, Uniform Continuity, Differentiability – The Mean Value theorem for derivatives – Sequences and Series of functions – Uniform convergence.
Riemann – Stieltjes integral: Definition and existence of the integral – properties of the integral – Integral and Differentaition – Integration of vector valued functions – Sequences and Series of functions: Uniform convergence – Continuity, Integration and Differentiation.
Power series – Fourier series.
Functions of several variables – Directional derivative – Partial derivative – derivative as a linear transformation – The Inverse function theorem and The Implicit function theorem.

Unit III TOPOLOGY

Topological spaces – Basis – The order Topology – The product Topology – The subspace Topology – Closed sets and limit points.
Continuous functions – The box and product Topologies – The matrix Topology.
Connected spaces – Connected subspaces of the real line – Components and local connectedness – compact spaces – Compact subspaces of the real line – Limit point compactness – Local compactness.
Countability and separation Axioms – Normal spaces – The Urysohn Lemma – The Urysohn metrization theorem – The Tietze extension theorem.

Unit IV COMPLEX ANALYSIS

Introduction to the concept of analytic function: Limits and continuity – Analytic functions – Polynomials and rational functions – Elementary theory of power series – Maclaurin’s series – Uniform convergence – Power series and Abel’s limit theorem – Analytic functions as mapping – Conformality arcs and Closed curves – Analytical functions in regions – Conformal mapping – Linear transformations – the linear group, the cross ratio and symmetry.
Complex integration – Fundamental theorems – line integrals – rectifiable arcs – line integrals as functions of arcs – Cauchy’s theorem for a rectangle – Cauchy’s theorem in a Circular disc – Cauchy’s integral formula: The index of a point with respect to a closed curve – The integral formula – Higher derivatives – Local properties of Analytic functions and removable singularities – Taylor’s theorem – Zeros and Poles – The local mapping – The maximum modulus Principle.

Unit V FUNCTIONAL ANALYSIS

Banach Spaces – Definition and examples – Holder’s inequality and Minkowski’s inequality – Continuous linear transformations – The Hahn-Banach theorem – Natural imbedding of X in X** – The Open mapping and The Closed graph theorem – Properties of conjugate of an operator.
Hilbert spaces – Orthonormal bases – Conjugate space H* – Adjoint of an operator – Projections – Matrices – Basic operations of matrices – Determinant of a matrix – Determinant and Spectrum of an operator – Spectral theorem for operators on a finite dimensional Hilbert space – Regular and Singular elements in a Banach Algebra – Topological divisor of zero – Spectrum of an element in a Banach algebra – The formula for the spectral radius – Radical and semi-simplicity.

Unit VI DIFFERENTIAL GEOMETRY

Curves in spaces – Serret – Frenet formulae – Locus of centers of curvature – Spherical curvature – Intrinsic equations – Helices – Spherical Indicatrix Surfaces – Curves on a surface – Surface of revolution – Helicoids – Gaussian curvature – First and Second fundamental forms – Isometry – Meusnier’s theorem – Euler’s theorem- lines of curvature – Dupin’s Indicatrix – Asymptotic lines – Edge of regression – Developable surfaces associated to a curve – Geodesics – Conjugate points on Geodesics.

Unit VII DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS

Ordinary Differential Equations

Linear differential equation with constant and variable co-efficients – Linear dependence and independence – Wronskian – Non homogeneous equations of order two and n – Initial value problems for nth order equations – Second order equations with ordinary point and regular singular points – Legendre Equations – Bessel’s equation – Hermite’s equation and their properties – Existence and Uniqueness of solutions to first order equations – Exact equation – Lipschitz condition – Non local existence of Solution – Approximation to Uniqueness of solutions.

Partial Differential Equations

Lagrange and Charpit methods for solving first order Partial Differential equations – Classification of Second order partial differential equations – General solution of higher order partial differential equation with constant co-efficients – Method of separation of variables for Laplace, Heat and Wave equations (upto two dimensions only).

Unit VIII CLASSICAL MECHANICS AND NUMERICAL ANALYSIS

Classical Mechanics

Generalised Co-ordinates – Lagrange’s equations – Hamilton’s Canonical equations – Hamilton’s principle – Principle of least action – Canonical transformations – Differential forms and Generating functions – Lagrange and Poisson brackets.

Numerical Analysis

Numerical solutions of algebraic and transcendental equations – Method of iteration – Newton Raphson method – Rate of convergence – Solution of Linear algebraic equations using Gauss elimination and Gauss – Seidel methods. Finite differences – Lagrange, Hermite and Spline Interpolation, Numerical differentiation and integration – Numerical solutions of Ordinary differential equations using Picard, Euler, Modified Euler and Runge- Kutta methods.

Unit IX OPERATIONS RESEARCH

Linear programming problem – Simplex Methods – Duality – Dual Simplex Method – Revised Simplex Method – Integer Programming Problem – Dynamic Programming – Non linear programming – Network Analysis – Directed Network – Max Flow Min Cut theorem – Queuing theory – Steady State solutions of M/M/1, M/M/1 with limited waiting space, M/M/C, M/M/C with limited waiting space, M/G/1 models – Inventory models – Deterministic models with and without shortages – Single Price break models.

Unit X PROBABILITY THEORY

Sample space – Discrete Probability – Independent events – Baye’s theorem – Random variables and Distribution functions (Univariate and Multivariate) – Expectation and Moments – Moment Generating function – Characteristic functions and Cumulants – Independent Random variables – Marginal and conditional distributions – Probability inequalities (Tchebyshev, Markov, Jensen) – Modes of convergence, Weak and Strong laws of large numbers – Central limit theorem (i.i.d case).
Probability distributions – Binomial, Poisson, Uniform, Normal, Exponential, Gamma, Beta, Cauchy distributions – Standard Errors – Sampling distributions of t, F and Chi square and their uses in tests of significance – ANOVA – Large sample tests for mean and proportions.

TN PG TRB 2025 BOTANY

2024-12-03T20:26:00.008+05:30

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Unit - I

Algae
Fungi
Lichens
Bryophytes

Unit II

Pteridophytes
Gymnosperms
Paleobotany

Unit III

Morphology
Taxonomy and Systematics
Economic Botany
Medicinal Botany

Unit IV

Anatomy
Embryology
Micro-techniques

Unit V

Cell Biology
Molecular Biology

Unit VI

Genetics
Biostatistics
Plant Breeding

Unit VII Plant Physiology

Solute transport
Photosynthesis
Respiration
Nitrogen metabolism and Secondary metabolites
Plant Growth Regulators
Stress physiology
Biochemistry

Unit VIII

Ecology
Concept and dynamics of Ecosystem
Environmental pollution and Management
Biodiversity conservation
Phytogeography

Unit IX Microbiology and Plant Pathology

Bacteria
Virology
Plant Pathology

Unit X

Introduction to Plant Tissue Culture
Genetic Engineering

TN PG TRB 2025 CHEMISTRY

2024-12-03T20:10:00.008+05:30

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INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Unit I

Chemical Periodicity
Structure and bonding in homo – and hetero-nuclear molecules, including shapes of molecules. (VSEPR Theory)
MO theory
Concepts of acids and bases
Non-Aqueous Solvents
Nature of bonding of Main group elements
Transition elements and coordination compounds
Coordination compounds
Inner transition elements

Unit II

Organometallic Compounds
Cages and clusters
Bioinorganic Chemistry
Nuclear chemistry

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

Unit III

Basic principles of quantum mechanics
Approximation method of quantum mechanics
Atomic structure and Spectroscopy
Chemical bonding in diatomic
Chemical applications group theory
Molecular spectroscopy
IR spectroscopy
Electronic spectra
Chemical thermodynamics
Reversible and irreversible process

Unit IV

Classical thermodynamics
Statistical thermodynamics
Phase Rule
Colloids and Surfaces

Unit V

Chemical kinetics
Electrochemistry
Solid state
Solid state

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Unit VI

IUPAC nomenclature
Principles of stereochemistry
Aromaticity
Organic reactive intermediates
Common named reactions and rearrangements
Polarimetry

Unit VII

Organic transformations and reagents
Concepts in organic synthesis
Asymmetric synthesis
Pericyclic reactions
Synthesis and reactivity of common heterocyclic compounds containing one or two heteroatoms
Biopolymers
Theory and spectral interpretations

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

Unit VIII

Data analysis
Sampling
Separation Techniques
Thermo analytical techniques

Unit IX

Instrumental Analysis
Emission spectrometry
Mossbauer spectroscopy
NMR spectroscopy

Unit X

Nano Chemistry
Chemical Microscopy
Green chemistry
Environmental Chemistry
Supramolecular Chemistry
Medicinal chemistry

TN PG TRB English

2024-12-03T12:18:00.033+05:30

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PG TRB 2025 ENGLISH

Test Batch Model Question Papers

Unit I - ENGLISH LITERATURE FROM 1400-1600
- Poetry
- Geoffrey Chaucer - Prologue to the Canterbury Tales (The Book of the Duchess Chapter only)
- Edmund Spenser - Prothalamion and Epithalamion
- Sir Thomas Wyatt - Remembrance
- Prose
- Bacon - Essays Of Truth, Of Friendship, Of Studies, Of Adversity,Of Revenge and Of Ambition
- Sir Philip Sydney - An Apologie for Poetrie
- The Bible The Book of Job
- Drama
- Christopher Marlowe - Dr. Faustus
- Thomas Kyd - The Spanish Tragedy
- Ben Jonson - Every Man in His Humour
Unit II - ENGLISH LITERATURE FROM 1601-1798
- Poetry
- John Milton - Paradise Lost, Book – IX
- Andrew Marvell - To His Coy Mistress
- John Donne - The Canonization
- Alexander Pope - The Rape of the Lock
- John Dryden - Absalom and Achitophel
- Thomas Gray - Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard
- Prose and Fiction
- Samuel Johnson - Life of Milton
- Jonathan Swift - Gulliver’s Travels
- John Bunyan The - Pilgrim’s Progress
- Daniel Defoe - Robinson Crusoe
- Drama
- John Dryden - All for Love
- Richard B. Sheridan - The School for Scandal
- William Congreve - The Way of the World
- Oliver Goldsmith - She Stoops to Conquer
Unit III - ENGLISH LITERATURE FROM 1798-1850
- Poetry
- William Wordsworth - Immortality, Tintern Abbey, The Prelude - Book-I
- Samuel Coleridge - Ode to Dejection, Kubla Khan
- John Keats - Ode to a Nightingale
- Percy Bysshe Shelley - Ozymandias, Adonais
- Prose and Fiction
- Charles Lamb - Essays of Elia, Christ’s Hospital,The South Sea House, Dream Children, New Year’s Eve
- William Hazlitt - My First Acquaintance with Poets
- William Wordsworth - Preface to Lyrical Ballads
- Jane Austen - Sense and Sensibility
- Emily Bronte - Wuthering Heights
- Lyrical Drama
- Percy Bysshe Shelley -Prometheus Unbound
Unit IV - LITERATURE FROM 1851 TO THE PRESENT DAY
- Poetry
- Mathew Arnold - Dover Beach, The Scholar Gypsy
- Robert Browning - Andrea Del Sarto
- Alfred Lord Tennyson - Ulysses
- W.B. Yeats - Byzantium
- T.S. Eliot - The Waste Land
- G.M. Hopkins - God’s Grandeur
- W.H. Auden The Unknown Citizen
- Ted Hughes The Thought Fox
- Prose and Fiction
- Thomas Carlyle - On Heroes, Hero-Worship and the Heroic in History Lecture III- Shakespeare
- Mathew Arnold - The Study of Poetry
- George Orwell - You and the Atom Bomb
- Charles Dickens - Hard Times
- George Eliot - The Mill on the Floss
- Thomas Hardy - Mayor of Casterbridge
- Virginia Woolf - Mrs. Dalloway
- Drama
- John Osborne - Look Back in Anger
- Bertolt Brecht - Mother Courage and Her Children
- J.M. Synge - Riders to the Sea
- Caryl Churchill - Top Girls
Unit V - PLAYS AND SONNETS BY SHAKESPEARE
- Drama
- Othello
- King Lear
- The Tempest
- Measure for Measure
- Sonnets
- 18 - Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day?
- 29 - When, in disgrace with fortune and men’s eyes
- 65 - Since brass, nor stone, nor earth, nor boundless sea
- 104 - To me, fair friend, you never can be old
- 106 - When in the chronicle of wasted time
- 116 - Let me not to the marriage of true minds
- 129 - Th'expense of spirit in a waste of shame
- 130 - My mistress' eyes are nothing like the sun
Unit VI - AMERICAN LITERATURE
- Poetry
- Walt Whitman - Out of the Cradle Endlessly Rocking
- Anne Bradstreet - Prologue
- R.W. Emerson - Brahma
- Robert Frost - Birches, Mending Wall
- Paul Lawrence Dunbar - The Sparrow
- Maya Angelou - I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings
- E.E. Cummings - The Cambridge Ladies
- Charlotte Perkins Gilman - The Anti-Suffragists
- Prose and Fiction
- H.D. Thoreau - Where I Lived and What I Lived For
- R.W. Emerson - The American Scholar
- William Faulkner - Nobel Prize Acceptance Speech
- Toni Morrison - Beloved
- Jhumpa Lahiri - The Namesake
- Drama
- Arthur Miller - The Death of a Salesman
- Eugene O’ Neil - Emperor Jones
- Tennessee Williams - A Street Car Named Desire
Unit VII - (A) INDIAN WRITING IN ENGLISH
- Poetry
- Rabindranath Tagore - Gitanjali
- Nissim Ezeikel - Goodbye Party to Miss Pushpa
- Toru Dutt - Our Casuarina Tree
- Kamala Das - An Introduction
- Sujatha Bhatt - A Different History
- Prose and Fiction
- Jawaharlal Nehru - An Autobiography
- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar - Annihilation of Caste
- Mulk Raj Anand - Coolie
- Kamala Markandeya - A Handful of Rice
- Arundathi Roy The God of Small Things
- Drama
- Girish Karnad - Hayavadana
- Vijay Tendulkar - Silence! The Court is in Session
- Mahasweta Devi - Rudali
- Mahesh Dattani - Dance like a Man
(B) COMMONWEALTH LITERATURE
- Poetry
- Kath Walker - A Song of Hope
- Banjo Patterson - Waltzing Mathilda
- Wole Soyinka - The Telephone Conversation
- E.J. Pratt - The Dying Eagle
- Judith Wright - At Cooloolah
- Abioseh Nicol - The Meaning of Africa
- A.D. Hope - Australia
- Prose and Fiction
- Thomas King - Godzilla Vs Post-Colonial
- Chinua Achebe - Things Fall Apart
- Alan Paton - Cry, the Beloved Country
- Patrick White - Voss
- Drama
- Wole Soyinka - The Lion and the Jewel
- George Ryga - The Ecstasy of Rita Joe
- Jane Harrison - Stolen
Unit VIII - LITERARY CRITICISM
- Aristotle - Poetics
- Dryden - Essay of Dramatic Poesy
- Coleridge - Biographia Literaria Ch. XIV and Ch XVII
- T. S. Eliot - Metaphysical Poets
- I. A. Richards - Four Kinds of Meaning
- William Empson - The Seven Types of Ambiguity
- Northrop Frye - The Archetypes of Literature
- Cleanth Brooks - Irony as a Principle of Structure
- Allen Tate - Tension in Poetry
- Elaine Showalter - Towards a Feminist Poetics
- Simone de Beauvoir The Second Sex
Unit IX - LANGUAGE, LINGUISTICS AND PEDAGOGY
- History of English Language and its Growth
- Indo – European Family and the Place of English language
- Old, Middle and Modern English
- Growth of Vocabulary from various Foreign Languages, Change in Meaning,
- Influence of The Bible, Shakespeare, Milton and Dr. Johnson
- Characteristics of Modern English
- Spelling Reform and the English Lexicon
- Linguistics
- English Phonetics and Phonology (Vowels, Consonants and Diphthongs)
- Morphology, Word formation and its different types
- Semantics
- Dialect and Idiolect
- Grammar – Traditional, Transformational Generative Grammar and Deep Structure
- Applied Linguistics
- English Language Teaching (ELT)
- History of ELT
- Second Language Acquisition
- Designing Syllabus
- Materials Production
- Language Testing and Evaluation
UNIT X - APPLICATION OF LANGUAGE SKILLS
- Phrases
- Synonyms
- Antonyms
- Prefix and Suffix
- Tenses
- Voice
- Parts of Speech
- Homophones
- Articles and Determiners
- Identifying Sentence Patterns
- Compound Words
- Figures of Speech
- Identifying and Correcting Errors
- British and American English

TN PG TRB 2025 Computer Science

2024-12-02T20:33:00.020+05:30

Blinking Text

Click on the topics to attend online tests!

PG TRB 2025 Computer Science

Test Batch Question Papers

Unit I - COMPUTER SYSTEM ARCHITECTURE
Unit II - DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
- Database System Concepts and Architecture
- Data Modeling
- Normalization for Relational Databases
- Constraints and Views
- Transaction management and Concurrency control
Unit III - SYSTEM SOFTWARE AND OPERATING SYSTEM
- System Software
- Basics of Operating Systems
- Process Management
- Threads
- CPU Scheduling
- Deadlocks
- Memory Management
Unit IV - DATA STRUCTURES AND ALGORITHMS
- Data Structures
- Trees and Graphs
- Performance Analysis of Algorithms and Recurrences
- Design Techniques
- Graph Algorithms
- Advanced Algorithms
Unit V - DATA COMMUNICATION AND COMPUTER NETWORKS
- Data Communication
- Computer Networks
- Network Models
- Functions of OSI and TCP/IP Layers
- World Wide Web (WWW)
Unit VI- PROGRAMMING WITH C++
- Language Design and Translation Issues
- Elementary Data Types
- Object Oriented Programming
- Basics of C++
- Functions
- Class and Objects
- Files and Event Handling
Unit VII - PYTHON PROGRAMMING
- Basics
- Python libraries
- Conditionals
- Functions
- Strings
- Lists
- Tuples
Unit VIII - WEB DEVELOPMENT
- HTML
- Elements of HTML
- CSS
- Menu and Division
- JavaScript
Unit IX - PHP AND MYSQL
- Basics of PHP
- Functions
- String Handling
- Array
- Working with file and Directoriesl
- MySQL
Unit X - CYBER SECURITY
- Cyber Crime
- Cyber Security Techniques
- Password Management
- Cryptography
- Attacks

TNSET 2017 Chemical Sciences Paper 2 Question Paper with Official answers

2021-06-16T18:20:00.001+05:30

24th September 2020 Shift 1 - UGC NTA NET June 2020 Cycle

2021-05-14T10:52:00.007+05:30

Question paper with Official answers

1. In which level of teaching, the learner gets an opportunity to discriminate at length between positive and negative example of concepts?

1. Memory level

2. understanding level

3. reflective level

4. autonomous development level

2. During teaching, a teacher’s statements that encourage students to elaborate on an answer, either their own or that of others will be called,

1. structuring

2. instructional variety

3. engagements in the learning process

4. probing

3. Which of the following will be called behavioural rather than “attitude and beliefs” related competencies for becoming an effective teacher?

A. Locus of control

B. Communicating

C. Managing and monitoring

D. teacher enthusiasm

E. Evaluating and providing feedback

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. B,C and E only

4. C, D and E only

4. From the following list of methods of teaching used in institution of higher learning, identify those which are learner-centred

A. Project work

B. Chalk and talk

C. Lecturing with audio-visual

D. Computer-aided instruction

E. Simulation and role-playing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C and D only

2. D and E only

3. A, B and C only

4. C, D and E only

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

5. Match List-I with List-II

List I	List II
A. Formative Evaluation	I. Percentile rank and standard scores are used for reporting
B. Summative Evaluation	II. Standards indicative of mastery
C. Criterion-referenced test	III. The intention of using it is to identify scope and potential for improvement
D. Norm-referenced test	IV. Its intention is to judge learning standards

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

6. In using the hypothetico-deductive research paradigm which of the following sequences is considered appropriate?

1. Hypothesis making, Hypothesis testing, Arriving at generalization and conclusion

2. Establishing a research problem, Hypothesis making, Hypothesis testing, arriving at generalization and conclusion

3. Hypothesis making, Establishing a research problem, Hypothesis testing, Arriving at generalization and conclusion

4. Hypothesis testing, Hypothesis making, Finalizing the reaching problem, Arriving at generalization and conclusion

7. Which one of the following research procedures will figure under post positivistic approach?

1. Normative survey

2. Experimental study

3. Ethnographic study

4. Ex post facto study

8. A college teacher plans a research programme in which he/she intends to improve the socio-emotional aspect of his/her classroom climate during teaching. Which one of the following research methods will be considered appropriate in this context?

1. Experimental method

2. Descriptive method

3. Historical method

4. Action research method

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

9. Which of the following steps in research are least vulnerable to research ethics?

A. Identifying the research variables

B. Defining the research variables

C. Data collection procedure

D. Data analysis procedure

E. Reporting research outcomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. C and D only

4. D and E only

10. The personalistic styles of writing a research report are permissible in which of the following research?

A. Grounded theory research

B. Experimental research

C. Participant-observation based research

D. Historical research

E. Case study research

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. A, C and E only

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Questions (11 to 15)

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

Most generally, today’s business-to-business marketers are using a wide range of digital and social marketing approaches from websites, blogs, and smart phone apps to mainstream social networks such as Facebooks, LinkedIn, Youtube and Twitter to reach business customers and manage customer relationships anywhere, anytime. Digital and social marketing has rapidly become the new space for engaging business customers. Business-to-business e-procurement yields many benefits. First, it shaves transaction costs and results in more efficient purchasing for both buyers and suppliers. E-procurement reduces the time between reder and delivery. And a web-powered purchasing program eliminates the paperwork associated with traditional requisition and ordering procedures and helps an organization keep better track of all purchases. Finally, beyond the cost and time savings, e-procurement frees purchasing people from a lot of drudgery and paperwork. In turn, it frees them to focus on more strategic issues, such as finding better supply sources and working with suppliers to reduce costs and develop new products.

The rapidly expanding use of e-procurement, however, also presents some problems. For example, at the same time that the Internet makes it possible for suppliers and customers to share business data and even collaborate on product design, it can also erode decades-old customer-supplier relationships. Many buyers now use the power of the Internet to pit suppliers against one another and search out better deals, products, and turnaround times on a purchase-by-purchase basis.

E-procurement can also create potential security concerns, Although home shopping transactions can be protected through basic encryption, the secure environment that businesses need to carry out confidential interactions is sometimes still lacking.

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

11. What is the current strategy of business to business managers?

1. Searching for new business space

2. Exploring new customer relations

3. Less dependence on social marketing

4. More and more use of digital business

12. The benefits of e-procurement are

A. Cost reduction

B. Quick delivery

C. Longer time for strategic procurement

D. Empathetic purchase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. C and D only

4. A and D only

13. What can be a strategic issue as a result of less paperwork?

1. Transaction analysis

2. More investment for supply

3. Development of new products

4. Importance to traditional customer relation

14. What can be the main issue with e-procurement vis-a-vis power of internet?

1. Different purchases for both buyers and suppliers

2. Sharing business data with customers

3. Competitive supply of products

4. Better purchase deals

15. The focus of the passage is on

1. The power of suppliers

2. Basic business data encryption

3. The supply side of business

4. The critical features of e-procurement

16. In communication process, when the sender and the receiver interchange their roles in respect of sending and receiving the message, it is called

1. Universal model

2. Transactional model

3. Singular-flow model

4. Pluralistic model

17. A teacher who encourage student’s participation in communication will ensure

A. Opposite views

B. Self-esteem

C. Class performance

D. Professional development

E. Binary distractions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, C and E only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, D and E only

18. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: In group discussions, some participants enter the fray with big chips on their shoulders

Reason R: These are antagonistic people who are calm and listed

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

19. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
Communication Barrier	Description
A. Physical	I. Different understanding
A. Psychological	II. Stereotypes
B. Language	III. Pre-disposed notions
C. Cultural	IV. Inaudible voice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

20. When communication for educational purpose takes place, the sequence of elements is

A. Source

B. Encoder

C. Message

D. Decoder

E. Feedback

Choose he correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B, C, D, E

2. B, C, D, E, A

3. C, D, E, A, B

4. D, E, B, A, C

21. A man walks at a speed of 3km/hour from location A towards east for 1 hour and then turning left walks at a speed of 1.5km/hour for 6 hours towards north to a location B. The shortest distance between locations A and B is

1. 10 km

2. 12 km

3. ~8.54 km

4. ~9.48 km

22. The volume of a cube of side 10.0 cm is changed by increasing its sides by 1.0%. The percentage increase in the volume of the cube is

1. ~1%

2. ~ 6%

3. ~3 %

4. ~10%

23. Consider the following number series 2, 10, 30, 68, X. What is the term X?

1. 130

2. 92

3. 88

4. 76

24. A household incurs a certain expenditure on the consumption of a commodity in a given month. If the price of the commodity is decreased by 20% and its consumption is increased by 20%, what will be the net percent increase or decrease in the expenditure of the household?

1. 2%

2. 4%

3. 8%

4. 10%

25. Consider the following letter series. What is next of acf, egj, ikn, oqt, __________

1. suy

2. uvy

3. rwz

4. uwz

26. Given below are two propositions:

All philosophers are fallible

Socrates is not fallible

In the classical square of opposition, which one of the following is the correct answer?

1. Contrary

2. Contradictory

3. Sub alteration

4. Sub contrary

27. Given below is a proposition:

‘Mahatma Gandhi is called father of Nation’.

What kind of classical categorical proposition is it?

1. Universal affirmative

2. Particular affirmative

3. Both 1 and 2

4. Neither 1 nor 2

28. Which of the following pramanas are accepted by Vaisheshika philosophy?

A. Pratyasha

B. Anumana

C. Sabda

D. Upamana

E. Arthapatti

F. Anupalabdhi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. C and D only

3. E and F only

4. C and E only

29. Which of the following are accepted in Buddhism?

A. Adhyasa

B. Apoha

C. Abhava

D. Arthapatti

E. Pratyaksha

F. Sabda

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. C and D only

3. B and E only

4. E and F only

30. What is the nature of a logical argument? Choose the correct answer from the following:

1. Justified or unjustified

2. True or false

3. Vaild or invalid

4.Verifiable or not verifiable

Question Numbers: (31 to 35)

Answer the question based on the data contained in the table

The following table embodies the data on vegetable produced year wise in tonne for a particular district.

Year\Vegetable	Potato	Tomato	Onion
2014	200	50	300
2015	500	70	200
2016	300	40	100
2017	100	80	400
2018	700	70	500
2019	800	90	600

31. In which year(s) the production of potato is less than that of average production?

A. 2016

B. 2014

C.2015

D. 2017

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A,B and D only

3. C only

4. C and D only

32. In which year(s) is the production of tomato the least?

1. 2014

2. 2017

3. 2019

4. 2016

33. What is the gross production of vegetables in the year 2018?

1. 1270

2. 1275

3. 1260

4. 1280

34. What is the increase (in percentage) of the total production of vegetable from the year 2018 to 2019?

1. 15.7%

2. 16.1%

3. 19.4%

4. 17.2%

35. In which year the productivity of vegetable is maximum?

1. 2018

2. 2016

3. 2019

4. 2017

36. What is the full form of the abbreviation CD.ROM?

1. Count Disk Random Only Memory

2. Compact Disk Run Only Memory

3. Compact Disk Read Only Memory

4. Count Disk Raw Only Memory

37. Multimedia comprises of

1. Text and Audio

2. Video and Audio

3. Video only

4., Text Audio and Video

38. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) comprises of

A. Online learning

B. Learning through Mobile Application

C. Web based learning

D. All the above

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A and C only

3. D only

4. A only

39. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: E- commerce companies require personal data to serve the stakeholders better

Reason R: In this process, privacy may get compromised

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both A and B are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and B are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

40. Python is a/an

A. Programming language

B. Operating system

C. Search engine

D. Snake

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B only

2. A only

3. B and C only

4. C and D only

41. Identify the correct sequence of continents in decreasing order of their yearly carbon dioxide emissions, at present

A. Africa

B. Asia

C. Europe

D. North America

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. B, D, A, C

2. B, D, C, A

3. D, B, C, A

4. D, C, B, A

42. Millennium Development Goals of Global Partnership for Development envisaged making available the benefits of new technologies – especially which of the following?

1. Information and communication

2. Artificial Intelligence

3. Nuclear technology

4. Solid waste treatment technology

43. The global emissions (by weight) of following primary pollutants from natural sources are maximum in the case of

1. Nitric oxide

2. Carbon monoxide

3. Methane

4. Carbon dioxide

44. Match List-I with List-II which contain water pollution and their sources respectively

List-I	List-II
Water pollutants	Sources
A. Oxygen demanding wastes	I. Mine drainage
B. Plant nutrients	II. Modern washing powders and agriculture run-off
C. Acids	III. Waste incineration and toxic dumps
D. Ploychlorinated	IV. Paper mills and food processing units

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

45. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Despite increasing vulnerability to natural disasters many communities resist adopting mitigation programmes and measures

Reason R: Mitigation is often perceived by communities as being incompatible with their cultural practices

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

46. The first open university in India was established in the year

1. 1980

2. 1982

3. 1985

4. 1986

47. Asynchronous communication takes place through which of the following technologies?

A. Teleconferencing

B. Virtual classroom

C. Video chat

D. Blogs

E. Discussion boards

F. Vlog

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

1. A,B and C only

2. B,C and D only

3. D, E and F only

4. C,D and E only

48. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
Stages of value development	Exemplification of value formation
A. Stage I- Value collection	I. Choosing and imbibing the values one cherishes
B. Stage II- Value assessment	II. Observing and imitating the adult behaviours, particularly parents
C. Stage III- Value clarification	III. Predictability of human behaviour is assured
D. Stage IV- Value consolidation	IV. Finding out gaps in values preached and practice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

49. Given below are two statements related to the upanishadic tradition

Statement I: Paravidya meand knowledge that transcends human experience

Statement II: Aparavidya means knowledge based on the human experience

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but statement II is true

50. Which of the following Entries of the Indian Constitution deals with coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research or scientific and technical institutions?

1. Entry 63

2. Entry 64

3. Entry 65

4. Entry 66

Q.No	Answer - 24th Sep 2020 Shift 1
1	2.Understanding level
2	4. Probing
3	3. B,C and E only
4	2. D and E only
5	1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
6	2. Establishing a research problem, Hypothesis making, Hypothesis testing, arriving at generalization and conclusion
7	3. Ethnographic study
8	4. Action research method
9	1. A and B only
10	4. A, C and E only
11	4. More and more use of digital business
12	1. A and B only
13	3. Development of new products
14	3. Competitive supply of products
15	4. The critical features of e-procurement
16	2. Transactional model
17	3. B, C and D only
18	3. A is correct but R is not correct
19	1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
20	1. A, B, C, D, E
21	4. ~9.48 km
22	3. ~3 %
23	1. 130
24	2. 4%
25	4. uwz
26	2. Contradictory
27	1. Universal affirmative
28	1. A and B only
29	3. B and E only
30	3. Vaild or invalid
31	2. A,B and D only
32	4. 2016
33	1. 1270
34	4. 17.2%
35	3. 2019
36	3. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
37	4., Text Audio and Video
38	3. D only
39	1. Both A and B are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
40	2. A only
41	2. B, D, C, A
42	1. Information and communication
43	4. Carbon dioxide
44	3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
45	3. A is correct but R is not correct
46	2. 1982
47	3. D, E and F only
48	3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
49	1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
50	4. Entry 66

24 Sep Shift 1 UGC NTA NET Question Paper with Answers

2021-03-30T21:44:00.008+05:30

Physics Work Force Energy

2020-10-03T10:46:00.003+05:30

Short Answers

Question 1: Define force. Is force a scalar or a vector quantity?
Answer: A force is that cause which changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform motion of a body. Force is a vector quantity.

Question 2: State and define the unit of force in the S.I. system.
Answer: The unit of force in S. I. system is Newton (N). Newton is defined as the force which, when applied on a body of mass 1 kg produces in it an acceleration of 1 ms².

Question 3: Define one newton. Write the relation between S. I. unit and C.G.S. unit of force.
Answer: One Newton: If a body of mass 1 kg moves with an acceleration of 1 m/s² then force acting on the body is said to be one Newton. 1N = 10⁵ Dyne.
Relation between S. I. and CGS unit of force is 1 Newton = 1 kg × 1 ms^-2.

Question 4: Define 1 kgf., How is it related to the S.I. unit of force?
Answer: 1 kgf: It is the force due to gravity on a mass of 1kg. (kilogram), 1 kgf = 9.8 N.

Question 5: (i) Where is the centre of gravity of a uniform ring situated?
(ii) ‘The position of the centre of gravity of a body remains unchanged even when the body is deformed.’ State whether the statement is true or false.
Answer: (i) Centre of gravity of a uniform ring is at its centre.
(ii) False.

Question 6: Which of the following remains constant in uniform circular motion, Speed or Velocity or both?
Answer: In uniform circular motion speed remains constant.

Question 7: Define 1 Dyne.
Answer: 1 dyne is that force which when acting on a body of mass 1 gram, produces an acceleration of 1 cm s^-2 in it.
1 dyne = 1 g × 1 cm s^-2.

Question 8: Define contact forces.
Answer: The forces which are applied on a body through a connector, are called contact forces. Forces like Frictional force, Mechanical force etc., are the forces of contact.

Question 9: Define non-contact forces.
Answer: The forces which act on a body without the help of any connector, are called non-contact forces or forces of distance. Gravitational force, Mechanical force etc., are non-contact forces.

Question 10: State the energy changes in the following devices while in use
(i) A loud speaker (ii) A glowing electric bulb
Answer: (i) Loud speaker: Electric energy to sound.
(ii) Glowing electric bulb: Electric to heat energy to light energy.

Question 11: Give any two effects of a force on a non-rigid body.
Answer: Two effects of a force on a non-rigid body are:
(i) Force can change the state of rest or motion of the body
(ii) Force can change the size or shape of the body.

Question 12: Where does the position of centre of gravity lie for
(i) a circular lamina (ii) a triangular lamina
Answer: (i) Circular lamina – Centre of the lamina
(ii) Triangular lamina – Point of intersection of medians.

Question 13: What is Gravitational force? Give gravitational units of force.
Answer: Earth exerts a force of attraction on each object. This force is due to gravity and its magnitude is directly proportional to the mass of the object. This force is known as gravitational force and its units are gravitational units.
In MKS system the gravitational unit of force is kilogramme force i.e., kgf. In CGS system it is gramme force, gf.

Question 14: What is the work done by the gravitational force on the moon that revolves around the earth?
Answer: The moon is revolving around the earth. In this process, the work done by the gravitational force is zero because the displacement of the moon is at right angle to the gravitational force.

Question 15: A coolie, with a load of 30 kg on his head, walks on the platform. If he walks a distance of 60 m, what is the work done by him?
Answer: The work done by the coolie is zero because there is no displacement of’ the load in the direction of force, which he is applying vertically upwards.

Question 16: A bullet fired against a window glass pane makes a hole in it without any cracks while a stone striking the same glass pane smashes it; explain with reason.
Answer: When the bullet strikes the glass, the part of the glass coming in contact with the bullet, immediately shares the large velocity of the bullet and makes a hole in it while the rest of the glass pane, due to inertia of rest, remains at rest and so is not smashed. But when a stone strikes the same glass pan, the surrounding part of the glass gets time to share the comparatively low velocity of stone and so it is smashed.

Question 17: State one factor on which the magnitude of a non-contact force depends. How does magnitude of a non-contact force change along distance?
Answer: The magnitude of a non-contact force depends on distance. If magnitude of a non-contact force increasing then distance decreasing.

Question 18: Under what condition will a set of gears produce
(i) a gain in speed (ii) a gain in torque.
Answer: (i) Gain in speed: When number of teeth in driving wheel is more than number of teeth in driven wheel.
(ii) Gain in torque: When number of teeth in driven gear is more than number of teeth in driving gear.

Question 19: Name the force required for uniform circular motion. State its direction.
Answer: Force required for uniform circular motion is centripetal force. It is directed towards its centre i.e., centre of the circle.
A force is applied on (i) a non-rigid body and (ii) a rigid body. How does the effect of the force differ in the above two cases?

Question 20: A force is applied on (i) a non-rigid body and (ii) a rigid body. How does the effect of the force differ in the above two cases?
Answer: When force is applied on a non-rigid body it undergoes deformation i.e. change in size, shape and position where as a rigid body doesn’t undergo change in shape, position and size.

Question 21: How does the distance of separation between two bodies affect the magnitude of the non-contact force between them?
Answer: Non-contact force decreases with the increase in separation.

Question 22: In what way does an ‘Ideal machine’ differ from a ‘Practical machine’?
Answer: Ideal machine has 100% efficiency i.e., work done on the machine = work done by the machine.

Question 23: Can a simple machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time?
Answer: No.

Question 24: State two factors on which moment of force about a point depends.
Answer: Moment of force depends on two factors:
(i) Magnitude of force applied.
(ii) Distance of line of action of the force from the axis of rotation.

Question 25: State the units of moment of force.
Answer: In CGS system, unit of moment of a force is Dyne-cm and in MKS system, unit of moment of a force is Newton-metre. The gravitational units in CGS and MKS system of measurement are gf cm and kg m respectively.

Question 26: State the principle of moments.
Answer: When number of forces acting on a body, keep it in equilibrium, then the sum total of clockwise moments about any turning point is equal to sum total of anticlockwise moments about the point.

Question 27: State when moment of force is positive and when it is negative.
Answer: If couple has a tendency to rotate the body in anti-clockwise direction then its moment is taken positive and if the tendency of rotation is clockwise then the moment is negative.

Question 28: Give the units of couple.
Answer: In MKS system, the unit of couple are Nm and kgf m.
In CGS system, the units of couple are Dyne cm and gf cm.

Question 29: Two similar vehicles are moving with same velocity on the road, such that one of thus is loaded and the other one is empty which of the two vehicles will require larger force to stop?
Answer: A large force is required to stop the loaded vehicle. It is because loaded vehicle has greater momentum than the empty vehicle as the mass of loaded vehicle is more than that of the empty one. So, it requires more force to stop.

Question 30: What is meant by the term ‘moment of force’? If the moment of force is assigned a negative sign then will the turning tendency of the force be clockwise or anti clockwise?
Answer: It is equal to the product of the magnitude of the force and the perpendicular distance of the line of action of force from the axis of rotation. If moment of force is assigned a negative value, it means clockwise tendency of force.

Question 31: Define Uniform circular motion.
Answer: When a particle moves with a constant speed in a circular path, its motion is said to be the uniform circular motion.

Question 32: Define Translational motion.
Answer: When a force acts on a rigid body which is free to move, the body starts moving in a straight line in the direction of force. This is called translational motion.

Question 33: Define Centripetal force.
Answer: At each of circular path, the particle, instead of moving straight continuously, turns towards the centre. Therefore, the motion in circular path is under the action of a force which called the centripetal force.

Question 34: Define the term momentum.
Answer: The momentum of a body is the product of the mass of the body and its velocity, i.e. p = mv.

Question 35: How is force related to the momentum of a body?
Answer: Force is equal to the rate of change of momentum.

Question 36: State the condition when the change in momentum of a body depends only on the change in its velocity.
Answer: If mass of the body m remains constant then the change in momentum of the body depends only on the change in its velocity.

Question 37: With reference to their direction of action, how does a centripetal force differ from a centrifugal force?
Answer: Direction of centripetal force is towards the centre of the circle whereas centrifugal force is opposite to centripetal force.

Question 38: Can the CG be situated outside the material of the body? Give an example.
Answer: The position of CG of a body depends on the distribution of mass in the body. It can be situated outside or inside the material of the body.
For example: The CG of a wire is at its mid-point but CG of a ring lies at the centre where there is no material.

Question 39: Explain why It is easier to knock down a boy who is standing on one foot than one who is standing on two.
Answer: It is easier to knock down a boy who is standing on one foot than one who is standing on two because boy standing on both feet has a larger base area and hence it has more stable equilibrium than a boy standing on one foot.

Question 40: Explain why One leans forward while climbing up a hill.
Answer: A person going uphill has to bend forward but while coming down has to bent backwards, this is to keep the CG at the centre of the body and between his feet.

Question 41: Explain why a tight rope-walker, often holds a long pole in his hands when in action.
Answer: A tight rope-walker carries a long stick in his hand to maintain the CG such that the vertical line passes through the rope.

Question 42: Explain why a ship loaded with light goods is more liable to be over turned than the one loaded with heavy goods.
Answer: A ship loaded with light goods is more liable to be over turned than the one loaded with heavy goods. This is because the CG in the former case is high and so a slight displacement due to water current may cause the vertical line passing through the CG to fall outside the base, thereby overturning the ship.

Question 43: Explain why Standing passengers are not allowed on the upper deck of a double decker bus.
Answer: The centre of gravity is raised and on an inclined road the bus may topple.

Question 44: Explain when we carry a weight on one hand, we bend on the other side.
Answer: This is to let our CG fall within the base of our support.

Question 45: What is the weight of a body placed at the centre of the earth?
Answer: The weight of a body placed at the centre of the earth is zero as
g = 0
∴ W = mg
= 0

Question 46: What do you understand by work? Is work a scalar or a vector quantity?
Answer: Work is said to be done when a force displaces a body through some distance, in its own direction, i.e., Work = Force × Displacement
W = F × d
Work is a scalar quantity.

Question 47: In the following cases write yes, if the work is being done and no, if no work is being done.
(i) A man trying to push a wall, (ii) A man moving on the rough ground.
(iii) A coolie standing with a heavy load on his head, (iv) A boy climbing up a staircase.
Answer: (i) No. (ii) Yes. (iii) No. (iv) Yes.

Question 48: State two conditions when the work done by a force acting on a body is zero.
Answer: (i) When there is no displacement by the force in the body.
(ii) When the displacement is normal to the direction of force.

Question 49: (i) Define power.
(ii) Is power a scalar or vector quantity?
Answer: (i) Power is defined as the rate of doing work or work done per second,

(ii) Power is a scalar quantity.

Question 50: State the condition when the work done by force is (i) positive and (ii) negative.
Answer: (i) Work done by a force is positive when the displacement is in the direction of the force.
(ii) Work done by a force is negative when the displacement is in the direction opposite to the force.

Question 51: A force F when acts on a body, displaces it by a distance d in a direction at an angle θ with the direction of force. Write down the expression for the work done by the force.
Answer: Work done by the force, W = Fd cos θ.

Question 52: Can two agents, doing the same work, have different power?
Answer: Yes, since power = work/time the two agents can have different powers if they take different amounts of time to do the same work.

Question 53: When does a force do work? What is the work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth?
Answer: Work is said to be done if a body undergoes displacement due to applied force.
Work done = Force × Displacement
Work done is zero by the moon, as there is no displacement since it is moving in a circular path.

Question 54: State the amount of work done by an object when it moves in a circular path for one complete rotation. Give a reason to justify your answer.
Answer: Amount of work done is equal to zero.
Work is said to be done only when there is displacement produced. In case of a body moving in a circular path, the body comes to its original place, therefore, there is no displacement and hence work is zero.

Question 55: State two conditions for work to be done.
Answer: The two conditions are:
(i) Application of-force on the body.
(ii) Displacement of the body in the direction of force.

Question 56: Why is less effort needed to lift a load over an inclined plane as compared to lifting the load directly?
Answer: Less effort is required because for a given height ‘h’ as longer is the length ‘l’ of the inclined plane, smaller is the angle of inclination therefore, greater is the mechanical advantage, so lesser will be the effort required. As we know
Mechanical Advantage = l/h.

Question 57: What is the S.I. unit of work? Define it.
Answer: The S.I. unit of work is newton-metre or joule (J).
1 Joule = 1 N × 1 m.
1 J of work is said to be done by a force of 1 N if it displaces a body by 1 m in the direction of force.

Question 58: State S.I. unit of power and define it.
Answer: S.I. unit of power is J/s or Js^-1 (or watt W). The power is said to be 1 watt when 1 J of work is done in 1 sec.

Question 59: Justify the statement. “Power can be expressed as the product of force and velocity.”
Answer:

(Since rate of change of displacement is velocity).

Question 60: State larger units of power.
Answer: The larger units of power are:
1 Kilowatt = 1000 watt 10³ W
1 Megawatt = 1000,000 W = 10⁶ W.

Question 61: State the practical unit mainly used in mechanical engineering and write down its equivalent in watt.
Answer: The practical unit of power used in mechanical engineering is ‘Horse Power’ (H.P,)
1 H.P. = 746 W = 0.746 KW.

Question 62: What happen to the power if the time for doing a work is reduced from t second to t/10 second?
Answer: The power becomes 10 times of its initial value. This is because power = work/time. Thus, power ∝ 1/time for a given work. Reducing the time by a factor of 10 thus increases the power 10 times.

Question 63: What do you understand by the term energy? Is energy a scalar or vector? How is energy possessed by a body measured?
Answer: Energy is defined as the capacity of a body to do work. Energy is a scalar quantity. The energy possessed by a body is measured by the amount of work done by a body while changing its state of rest or state of motion.

Question 64: State the S.I. and C.G.S. units of energy. How are they related?
Answer: The S.I. unit of energy is joule (J) and C.G.S. unit is erg.
1J = 10⁷ erg.

Question 65: Write five forms of energy.
Answer: (i) Mechanical energy (ii) Chemical energy (iii) Solar energy
(iv) Heat energy (v) Light energy.

Question 66: What do you understand by mechanical energy? What are the different forms of mechanical energy?
Answer: The energy possessed by body due to its state or its motion is called mechanical energy. Mechanical energy is of two forms: (i) potential energy, and (ii) kinetic energy.

Question 67: What do you understand by the potential energy of the body?
Answer: The potential energy of a body is the energy possessed by body by virture of its state or position.

Question 68: What do you understand by the kinetic energy of the body? Give three examples of bodies possessing kinetic energy.
Answer: The kinetic energy of a body is the energy possessed by body by virtue of its state of motion,
(i) A moving bullet (ii) A flowing river (iii) Wind.

Question 69: How is kinetic energy possessed by a moving body measured?
Answer: The kinetic energy possessed by a moving body is measured by the amount of work done by an opposing force in bringing the body to rest from its present state of motion.

Question 70: A man climbs a slope and another walks same distance on level road. Which of the two expends more energy and why?
Answer: The man moving along the slope expends more energy. It is because, while moving along slope, he gains height and hence has extra potential energy.

Question 71: Is it possible that a body may possess energy even when it is not in motion?
Answer: Yes, the body may possess potential energy.

Question 72: What kind of energy is possessed in the situations when?
(i) A cocked up spring of air gun. (ii) A stone lying on the top of roof.
(iii) A fish moving in water. (iv) A horse running along a level road,
(v) Water stored in dams. (vi) An electron spinning around nucleus.
(vii) A shooting arrow. (viii) A stone, in a strecthed catapult.
Answer: (i) P.E. (ii) P.E. (iii) K.E.
(iv) K.E. (v) P.E. (vi) K.E.
(vii) K.E. (viii) P.E.

Question 73: Relate 1 KWh (kilowatt hour) with joule.
Answer: 1 KWh = 1 KW × 1 h = 1000 W × 3600s = 36,00,000 J.

Question 74: Obtain an expression for the potential energy of a body of mass m at a height h above the ground.
Answer: Force due to gravity on the body F = mg
Work done in lifting the body against the force of gravity to a height h above the ground
W = F × d = mg × h = mgh
Thus, potential energy of body = mgh.

Question 75: When an arrow is shot from its bow, it has kinetic energy. From where does it get the kinetic energy?
Answer: A stretched bow possessed potential energy on account of a change in its shape. To shoot an arrow, the bow is released. The potential energy of the bow is converted into the kinetic energy of the arrow.

Question 76: What happens to the K.E. when (i) the mass of the body is doubled at constant velocity and (ii) the velocity of the body is doubled at constant mass?
Answer: We have, K.E. = 1/2 mv²
Hence,
(i) On doubling the mass, at constant velocity, the K.E. becomes double of its original value.
(ii) On doubling the velocity, at constant mass, the K.E. becomes (2)² i.e., 4 times its original value.

Question 77: Write the type of energy possessed in the following cases:
(i) A bent bow (ii) A falling apple
(iii) A wound up spring (iv) A moving cricket ball.
Answer: (i) A bent bow: Potential Energy
(ii) A falling apple: Kinetic Energy
(iii) A wound up spring: Potential Energy
(iv) A moving cricket ball: Kinetic Energy.

Question 78: Give three examples of bodies possessing potential energy.
Answer: (i) An object kept at a height above the ground.
(ii) A compressed spring, and
(iii) A stretched catapult.

Question 79: What is dissipation of energy?
Answer: In transforming the mechanical energy if a part of it gets converted into another form of energy which cannot be utilised for useful work, this loss of energy is called the dissipation of energy.

Question 80: State the energy changes which takes place in Electricity is obtained from solar energy.
Answer: Heat energy from sun is converted into electricity.

Question 81: What is the main energy transformation that occurs in:
(i) Photosynthesis in green leaves;
(ii) Charging of a battery.
Answer: (i) Light energy of chemical energy.
(ii) Electric energy to chemical energy.

Question 82: A man climbs a slope and another walks same distance on level road. Which of the two expends more energy and why?
Answer: The man moving along the slope expends more energy. It is because, while moving along slope, he gains height and hence has extra potential energy.

Question 83: State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer: According to law of conservation of mechanical energy, the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy always remains constant.

Question 84: Name the two groups in which various sources of energy are classified?
Answer: Renewable and Non-renewable sources of energy.

Question 85: Give two examples each of renewable and non-renewable sources of energy?
Answer: Renewable sources of energy: Solar energy and wind energy.
Non-renewable sources of energy: coal and oil.

Question 86: Why using wood as fuel is not advisable although wood is a renewable source of energy?
Answer: It is not advisable to use wood as fuel even though it can be replenished because burning of
wood produces smoke that causes pollution which results in environmental imbalance.

Question 87: Name a device in which solar energy is converted into electricity state its two uses.
Answer: Solar cell. Its two uses are:
(i) All artificial satellites and space probes mainly depend upon electricity generated by solar cells.
(ii) Solar cells are used for lighting, operating water pumps, for running radio and television sets in remote areas and traffic signals etc.

Question 88: Name the material commonly used for manufacturing of solar cells.
Answer: Silicon and Gallium. Solar cell produces d.c. current. State whether a solar cell produces a.c. or d.c. current.

Question 89: Name two places in India where electricity is generated from nuclear power plants.
Answer: (i) At Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu, and
(ii) At Narora, in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 90: What should be the characteristic of a source of energy?
Answer: A good source of energy should have the following characteristics:
(i) It should do a large amount of work per unit mass or volume.
(ii) It should have high calorific value.
(iii) It should be easily accessible over a long period of time.
(iv) It should be economical and easy to store and transport.
(v) It should be Safe and convenient to use.

Question 91: What is hydro-energy? Explain the principle of generating electricity from hydro-energy.
Answer: The energy possessed by the flowing water is called hydro-energy.
Principle: It works on the principle of conversion of kinetic energy of flowing water into electrical energy. When the stored water is allowed to fall from the top of dam on the blades of water-turbine, the potential energy of stored water is converted into kinetic energy which rotates the water turbine rapidly which in turn rotates the armature coil of generator and generates electricity.

Question 92: How much hydro-electric power is generated in India?
Answer: At present, 23% of total electricity is generated in India using hydro-energy.

Question 93: State two advantages and two disadvantages of using hydro-energy for producing electricity.
Answer: Advantages:
(i) When the electricity is generated, no greenhouse gases are made.
(ii) It is an inexhaustible source of energy.
Disadvantages:
(i) The dam is expensive to build.
(ii) By building a dam, the nearby area has to be flooded and this could affect nearby wildlife and Plants.

Question 94: What is wind energy? Explain the principle of working of windmill for generating electricity.
Answer: The blowing wind has kinetic energy is called wind energy.
Principle: It works on the principle of conversion of kinetic energy of blowing wind into electrical energy. When the blowing wind strikes across the blades of a windmill it exerts a force which rotates its blade. The turning of the blades would simultaneously cause the shaft to turn, which is connected to a generator. This makes the generator produce electricity.

Question 95: State two advantages and disadvantage of using wind energy for producing electricity.
Answer: Advantages:
(i) Wind is free and will not run not (renewable sources).
(ii) Wind energy does not create greenhouse gases.
Disadvantages:
(i) The wind farms can be established only at places near the coastal areas where wind blows around the year steadily with a speed not less than 15 Km h^-1.
(ii) The establishment of wind farm is expensive.

Question 96: State two advantages and disadvantage of using nuclear energy for producing electricity.
Answer: Advantages:
(i) A very small amount of nuclear fuel produces huge amount of energy.
(ii) Nuclear fuel does not contribute harmful greenhouse gases to the atmosphere on burning.
Disadvantages:
(i) The waste that is produced when using nuclear fuel is radioactive and very harmful. It needs to be disposed of carefully.
(ii) World uranium supplies may run out in about 50 year.

Question 97: State two ways for the judicious use of energy.
Answer: (i) The wastage of energy should be avoided.
(ii) The excessive use of non-renewable resources such as coal, petroleum and natural gas should be reduced.

Question 98: Explain, why submarines are able to dive under water as well as sail on the surface of water?
Answer: Submarines are provided with ballast tanks. When required to dive, the water is allowed to enter in the tanks. And when required to sail, the water is forced out by compressed air.
Work is a scalar quantity.

Question 99: State the principle of conservation of energy.
Answer: Principle of conservation of energy: It states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but can be transferred from one form to another form.

Question 100: Distinguish between work and power.
Answer: Work does not depend on time, while the power depends on time. Power is the work done in unit time.

Question 101: State the energy changes which takes place when:

A body released from rest from the top of a building.
A body thrown vertically upwards from the ground.
In a heat engine.
A bulb glows, when torch light is switched on.
A car moves up a hill.
A toy car spring is wound and car is made to run on level floor.
Water stored in dams rotates turbine connected to a dynamo.
An air gun is loaded and then fired.
A magnesium ribbon burns in air.
A stone projected vertically upwards, returns back to the thrower.
Water freezes in the freezing chamber of a fridge.
Photographic film is exposed to sunlight.
Food is digested by animals.
During electrolysis.
Burning of coal.
Petrol engine of a running motor car.
A battery lighting up a bulb.
Electricity obtained from nuclear energy.
Electricity obtained from solar energy.
Electricity obtained from wind energy.
Electricity obtained from hydro energy.

Answer:

The potential energy changes to kinetic energy.
The kinetic energy changes to potential energy.
The heat energy changes to mechanical energy.
The chemical energy of cell changes to electric energy. The electric energy first changes to heat and finally to light energy.
The K.E. of moving car changes to potential energy.
The mechanical energy changes to potential energy during winding. The potential energy is then released in the form of kinetic energy.
P.E. of stored water changes to K.E. of flowing water, The K.E. of flowing water rotates turbine. The turbine in turn rotates the coil of generator and changes into electric energy.
During loading, the mechanical energy changes to potential energy of spring. On firing, the P.E. of spring changes to K.E. of bullet.
During burning of magnesium, chemical energy changes to heat and light energy.
The kinetic energy changes to potential energy when stone rises up. The potential energy then changes back to kinetic energy, when stone comes down.
The kinetic energy of water molecules is released in the form of heat energy.
The light energy changes to chemical energy?
The chemical energy changes into heat energy.
The electrical energy changes to chemical energy.
The chemical energy changes into heat energy.
The chemical energy changes into mechanical energy.
The electrical energy changes into heat energy and light energy.
The heat energy changes into electricity.
The heat energy changes into electricity.
The K. E. changes into electricity.
The Kinetic energy changes into electricity.

Question 102: Give one example when:

Heat energy changes to kinetic energy.
Kinetic energy changes to heat energy.
Sound energy changes to electric energy.
Electric energy changes to sound energy.
Light energy changes to chemical energy.
Chemical energy changes to light energy.
Electric energy changes to mechanical energy .
Mechanical energy changes to electric energy.
Potential energy changes to electric energy.
Electric energy changes to potential energy.
Mechanical energy to heat energy.
Kinetic energy to potential energy.
Electrical energy to heat energy.
Chemical energy to electrical energy.

Answer:

In the automobile engine, heat energy changes to kinetic energy.
When two stones are rubbed against each other, kinetic energy changes to heat energy.
When we speak in front of microphone, sound energy changes to electric energy.
When a loudspeaker works, the electric energy changes to sound energy.
During photosynthesis, light energy changes to chemical energy.
During burning of magnesium, chemical energy changes to light energy.
In an electric motor, electric energy changes to mechanical energy.
In an electric generator, the mechanical energy changes to electric energy.
The P.E. of stored water in dams, changes to electric energy in generators.
When electrolysis is carried out, the electric energy changes to potential energy.
Rubbing of palms.
Throwing up a pebble from the ground.
Electric heater while in use.
Drawing current from an electric cell.

Long Answers

Question 1: Give two examples each of contact and non-contact forces.
Answer: Contact Forces:
(i) Pushing of a pile of rubble by a bulldozer.
(ii) Squeezing of a gum tube to extract the gum.
Non-contact Forces:
(i) When a magnet is brought near iron-nails, they stick to the magnet.
(ii) A ripen apple falls by itself from the tree.

Question 2: Why is it easier to open a door by applying the force at the free end of it?
Answer: If we open or shut a door, we need to apply less force at the free end because according to the formula of moment of force
M = Force × Perpendicular distance of force from axis of rotation
Magnitude of force is inversely proportional to the perpendicular distance of force from axis of rotation. Thus, as the distance between the point of force application and hinge will increase, the amount of force required to open the door will decrease.

Question 3: Explain the term ‘centre of gravity’ of a body.
Answer: A body can be considered to be made up of a number of particles, each particle has weight ‘W’. Weight of all these particles act vertically downward and can be replaced by a single resultant force. This force passes through a fixed point. ‘G’ which is a point where algebraic sum of moments of weight of all the particles is zero, and is called centre of gravity of the body.
Thus we can define ‘CG’ as ‘the point through which the weight of the body acts irrespective of the position of the body.’

Question 4: State the effects that a force can produce. Given one examples of each.
Answer: A force can produce following three effects:
(i) It can bring changes in dimensions. For example, in stretching a spring its length increases.
(ii) It can start or stop motion. For example, a ball moves when kicked.
(iii) It can changes speed or direction of motion. For example, a hockey player changes the speed and direction of motion of the ball by his stick.

Question 5: What is meant by equilibrium and state the conditions of equilibrium of a body.
Answer: Equilibrium: When a number of forces acting on a body produce no change in its state of rest or of uniform motion the body is said to be in equilibrium.
The two conditions of equilibrium of a body:
(i) The resultant of all the forces acting on the body should be equal to zero.
(ii) The resultant moment of all the forces acting on the body about a point should be zero.

Question 6: What do you mean by dynamic and static equilibrium? Give one example of each.
Answer: When the body remains in the state of rest under the influence of applied forces, it is in static equilibrium and if it remains in the state of uniform motion, it is in dynamic equilibrium.
For example: In a beam balance when the beam is balanced in the horizontal position, the clockwise and anti-clockwise moments balance each other and the beam has no rotational motion i.e., it is in static equilibrium.
A body moving with uniform velocity in a straight line over a friction less surface is in dynamic equilibrium.

Question 7: State two methods of increasing the stability of the body.
Answer: The stability off a body is increased if:
(i) The centre of gravity is as low as possible. It should be above the base and near the geometric centre of the body. This is the case when mass of the body is large at the bottom.
(ii) The area of base of the body is large so that the vertical line through the CG of the body passes through its base. If the body is slightly tilted, its CG rises higher and it has a tendency to regain its original position to lower the CG.

Question 8: What is the difference between renewable and non-renewable resources?

Renewable Sources	Non-renewable Sources
1. The resources that can be renewed by reproduction are called renewable resources.	The resources that are present in fixed quantities are called non-renewable.
2. Renewable resources are inexhaustible.	Non-renewable resources are exhaustible.
3. Renewable resources are not affected by the human activities.	Non-renewable resources are affected by human activities.
4. They are the non-conventional sources.	They are the conventional sources.
5. Example: Wind energy, solar energy and hydro energy.	Example: Coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 9: What are the advantages and disadvantages of using solar cells for producing electricity?
Answer: Advantages of Solar Cells:
(i) Solar cells have no moving parts, easy to construct, require little maintenance.
(ii) Solar cells derive their energy from solar radiations which is a renewable source of energy and also inexhaustible.
(iii) They are most suitable for the remote inaccessible and isolated places where laying a power transmission line may be expensive and not commercially viable.
(iv) They are environment friendly as they do not cause any pollution.
(v) Use of solar cells enables us to save usage of fossil fuels as solar cells require no fuel.
Disadvantages of Solar Cells:
(i) The manufacturing cost of solar cells is sufficiently expensive.
(ii) The efficiency of energy conversion of solar energy to electricity is low.
(iii) The electricity produced in solar cells is direct current (DC) which cannot be directly used for many household appliances.

Figure Based Short Answers

Question 1: What is a couple?
Answer:
Two equal parallel and opposite forces acting on a rigid body at different points constitute a couple. The distance ‘d’ is called arm of the couple.

Question 2: Is it possible to have an accelerated motion with a constant speed? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, it is possible to have accelerated motion with constant speed, when a body is moving in a circular path. The body changes its path so there is a change in direction (velocity) but its speed remains the same.

Question 3: One end of a spring is kept fixed while the other end is stretched by a force as shown in the diagram.
(i) Copy the diagram and mark on it the direction of the restoring force.
(ii) Name one instrument which works on the above principle.
Answer:
(i) F’ in the fig. shows the direction of restoring force.
(ii) Spring balance.

Question 4: A boy of mass 30 kg is fitting at a distance of 2 m from the middle of a see-saw. Where should a boy of mass 40 kg sit so as to balance the see-saw?
Solution:

Question 5: Write the expression for calculating the moment of force about a given point.
Answer: Moment of force about the point O
= Force × Perpendicular distance of force from the point O
= F × OP

Question 6: The moment of a force of 10 N about a fixed point O is 5 Nm. Calculate the distance of the point O from the line of action of the force.
Solution:
Given: Moment of force = 5 Nm
Force = 10 N
According to the formula,
Moment of force = F × OA
5 Nm = 10 × OA
OA = 5/10
= 0.5 m

Question 7: A boy sits and stands repeatedly. Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy with time.
Answer:

Question 8: A ball is placed on a compressed spring. When the spring is released, the ball is observed to fly away.
(i) What form of energy does the compressed spring possess?
(ii) Why does the ball fly away?
Answer: (i) Compressed spring possess potential energy.
(ii) Potential energy of the spring is imparted to the ball in the form of kinetic energy.

Question 9: Draw a diagram to show the energy changes in an oscillating simple pendulum. Indicate in your diagram how the total mechanical energy in it remains constant during the oscillation.
Answer: Diagram shows a freely oscillating pendulum.
In position A, it has max. P.E. and zero K.E.
In position B, it has zero P.E. and max. K.E.
In position C, it has max. P.E. and zero K. E.
Thus, experiment clearly proves that sum of total of energy is conserved, but it can change its form.

Question 10: What is the form of that graph between
(i) K.E. and velocity for a constant mass?
(ii) K.E. and mass for a constant velocity?
Answer: (i) We have, for a constant mass,
K.E. ∝ v²
Hence, the graph is a parabola.

(ii) We have, for a constant velocity
K.E. ∝ m
Hence, the graph is a straight line.

Question 11: Define an Inclined plane.
Answer:
An inclined plane is usually a smooth, flat rigid surface inclined at an angle (θ) to the horizontal. It is used to raise heavy loads with relatively small force. The longer the slope, the smaller is the effort needed.

Figure Based Long Answers

Question 1: Two unlike forces (parallel) of 10 N and 25 N act at a distance of 12 cm. from each other. Find the point about which the body balance.
Solution:

Question 2: A uniform metre scale is balanced at 40 cm mark, when weights of 20 gf and 5 gf are suspended at 5 cm mark and 75 cm mark respectively. Calculate weight of metre scale.
Solution: A metre scale is uniform, therefore its weight acts at 50 cm mark.
Taking moments about to cm mark.

Question 3: Give an experiment to verify the principle of moments.
Answer: Verification of Principle of Moments:
Suspend a metre scale horizontally its mid point O’, by means of a thread with its other end connected to a fixed support.
Now suspend some weights on both sides of the mid-point and adjust their distances in such a way that scale again becomes horizontal.

Let W₁, W₂ and W₃, W₄ be the weights suspended and l₁, l₂ and l₃, l₄ are respective lengths.
The weights W₁ and W₂ tend to turn the scale clockwise while the weights W₃ and W₄ tend to turn the scale anti-clockwise.
Total clockwise moments = W₁ × l₁ + W₂ × l₂
Total anti-clockwise moments = W₃ × l₃ + W₄ × l₄
In equilibrium, when the scale is horizontal, it is found that:
Total clockwise moments = Total anti-clockwise moments
W₁l₁ + W₂l₂ = W₃l₃ + W₄l₄
This verifies the principle of moments.

Question 4: A uniform metre rule rests horizontally on a knife-edge at the 60 cm mark when a mass of 10 gram is suspended from one end. At which end must this mass be suspended? What is the mass of the rule?
Solution: Let M gram be the mass of the rule. Since density of the rule is uniform, its weight Mg will act at its middle point i.e., at the 50 cm mark (Fig.).
The weight of the rule produces an anti-clockwise moment about the knife-edge O. In order to balance it, 10 gram mass is to be suspended at the end B, to produce a clockwise moment.
From the principle of moments,
Anti-clockwise moment = Clockwise moment
Mg × (60 – 50) = 10 g × (100-60)
or Mg × 10 = 10 g × 40
∴ M = 40 gram

Question 5: A uniform metre scale can be balanced at the 70.0 cm mark when a mass of 0.05 kg is hung from the 94.0 cm mark.
(i) Draw a diagram of the arrangement.
(ii) Find the mass of the metre scale.
Solution: (i) Diagram of the given arrangement is shown below.
(ii) As the given meter scale is a uniform scale. So its centre of gravity lies at 50 cm. Let mass of meter scale be W₁ kg.
By principle of moments,

Question 6: A block of mass 30 kg is pulled up a slope, as shown in diagram with a constant speed, by applying a force of 200 N parallel to slope.
A and B are initial and final positions of block.
(i) Calculate the work done by force in moving the block from A to B.
(ii) Calculate P.E. gained by block. [g = 10ms^-2]
Solution: (i) Work done in moving the block from = F × d
A to B = 200 N × 3m = 600 J
(ii) Gain in potential energy = mgh = 30 × 10 × 1.5 = 450 J.

Question 7: (i) A 200g ball is thrown vertically upward with a initial velocity of 30 ms^-1. Draw a velocity time graph for the motion of ball.
(ii) How long will the ball take to reach the highest point?
(iii) What will be the kinetic energy of ball, when it returns to starting point, neglecting the air resistance?
(iv) What will be the potential energy of ball at highest point?
Solution:

Question 8: A truck driver can load oil drums into the back of the truck by pushing them up a sloping plank, or by lifting them directly. Each drum has a mass of 80 kg, the plank is 3 m long, and the back of the truck is 0.8 m above the ground.

(i) How much force would be needed to lift a drum into the truck directly/without using the plank? (Take g = 10 m/s²)
(ii) How much energy would be required in lifting the drum into the truck without the plank?
(iii) If the force needed to push the drum up the plank is 300 N, why is this less than the answer to part (i)?
(iv) When the truck is loaded, the driver drives off. List the major energy changes that take place in moving the truck.
(v) The driver has to stop at the factory gates. What happens to the kinetic energy of the truck?
Solution:

It is less than the answer in part (i) as the efforts acts through 3 m whereas the weight is lifted up through 0.8 m. The effort needed may be 300 N instead of 213.3 N owing to loss of energy in overcoming friction and air resistance.
(iv) The energy released owing to combustion of fuel changes into kinetic energy of the truck and load, and this changes in heat energy of the pebbles on the road and of wheels.
(v) The kinetic energy is dissipated as heat.

Question 9: Show that in case of a body falling freely under gravity, total mechanical energy remains conserved (neglect air resistance).
Answer: Let a body of mass m fall freely under gravity from height h above ground.
Let A, B and C be the positions of body.
Let x be the distance fallen from A to B.

From (i), (ii) and (iii) it is clear that sum of mechanical energy remains same at any point in the path of free fall of a body.

Question 10: What is nuclear energy? Explain the principle of producing electricity using the nuclear energy is a nuclear reactor.
Answer: The process whereby an atomic nucleus breaks up into two or more major fragments with the release of tremendous amount energy is called nuclear fusion and the energy thus released is nuclear energy.
Principle: The production of electricity using nuclear energy is based on principle in which steam is produced by heating water through heat energy released during the controlled nuclear fission of uranium-235 (or plutonium-239). When atoms of uranium fuel are hit by neutrons they fission (split), releasing heat and more neutrons. Under controlled conditions, these other neutrons can strike more uranium atoms, splitting more atoms, and so on. Thereby, continuous fission can take place, forming a chain reaction releasing heat. The heat is used to turn water into steam that, it turn, spins a turbine that generates electricity. At present nuclear power is used to generate 3% of all the country’s electricity.

Short Numericals

Question 1: Derive a relation between the S.I. and C.G.S. unit of force.
Solution:

Question 2: A man can open a nut by applying a force of 150 N by using a lever handle of length 0.4 m. What should be the length of the handle if he is able to open it by applying a force of 60 N?
Solution:

Question 3: The perpendicular distance between the point of application of force and turning point is 1.75 m, when a force of 80 N acts on a rigid body. Calculate the moment of force.
Solution:

Question 4: Calculate the minimum distance between point of application of force and axis of rotation of a rigid body, if a force 125 N produces a moment of force of 25.75 Nm.
Solution:

Question 5: A couple of 15 N force acts on a rigid body, such that arm of couple is 85 cm. Calculate moment of couple in SI system.
Solution:

Question 6: Calculate magnitude of the force of a couple, when arm of couple is 63 cm and moment of couple is 21 Nm.
Solution:

Question 7: Calculate the change in the Kinetic energy of a moving body if its velocity is reduced to 1/3rd of the initial velocity.
Solution:

Question 8: If the power of a motor is 40KW, at what speed can it, raise a load of 20,000 N?
Solution:

Question 9: Calculate the length of arm of couple, if a force of 13 N produces a moment of couple of 14.3 Nm.
Solution:

Question 10: Calculate the work done when:
(i) A 5 kg weight is lifted 10 m vertically. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
(ii) A car is moved on a rough road through 30 m against a frictional resistance of 75 N.
Solution:

Question 11: A coolie carrying a load on his head and moving on a frictionless horizontal platform does no work. Explain the reason why.
Solution:

Question 12: A girl of mass 35 kg climbs up from the first floor of a building at a height 4 m above the ground to the third floor at a height 12 m above the ground. What will be the increase in her gravitational potential energy? [g = 10 ms^-2]
Solution:

Question 13: A force is applied on a body of mass 20 kg moving with a velocity of 40 ms^-1. The body attains a velocity of 50 ms^-1 in 2 seconds. Calculate the work done by the body.
Solution:

Question 14: (i) The world record for weight lifting was held by Sergei Didyk of USSR. He lifted 261 kg to a height of 2.3 m in 4s; find:
(a) Weight lifted by him (b) Work done by him
(c) Power developed by him. (g = 10m/s²)
(ii) The work done by the heart is 1 Joule per beat. Calculate the power of the heart if it beats 72 times in one
Solution:

Question 15: How long should an electric motor, of power 2 H.P. operate, so as to pump 5 m³ of water from a depth of 15m. [Take g = 10 N kg^-1]
Solution:

Question 16: A man having a box on his head, climbs, up a slope and another man having art identical box walks the same distance on a levelled road. Who does more work against the force of gravity and why?
Solution: Man having a box on his head who climbs up a slope does more work against the force of gravity because he has more potential energy by virtue of his position i.e., height.
As, P.E. = W.D. = F × S
= mg × h

Question 17: A machine raises a load of 750 N through a height of 16 m in 5 seconds. Calculate the power at which the machine works.
Solution:

Question 18: State the C.G.S. unit of work. How it is related to its S.I. unit?
Solution:

Question 19: A body of mass 0.2 kg falls from a height of 10 m to a height of 6 m above the ground. Find the loss in potential energy taking place in the body. [g = 10ms^-2]
Solution:

Question 20: A ball of mass 200 g falls from a height of 5 m. What will be its kinetic energy when it just reaches the ground? (g = 9.8 m s^-2)
Solution:

Question 21: Two bodies, A and B of equal mass are kept at heights 20 m and 30 m respectively. Calculate the ratio of their potential energies.
Solution:

Question 22: A ball of mass 0.20 kg is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. Calculate the maximum potential energy it gains as it goes up.
Solution:

Question 23: A body is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity keeps on decreasing. What happens to its kinetic energy as its velocity becomes zero?
Answer:

Question 24: A moving body weighing 400 N possesses 500 J of kinetic energy. Calculate the velocity with which the body is moving. (g = 10 ms²)
Solution:

Long Numericals

Question 1: How do you define force? What are the forces acting on a man standing in a lift? If the lift moves down with an acceleration of 2 ms^-2, what is the net force on the man if his mass is 50 kg?
Solution: Net force acting on a body is equal to mass into acceleration or we may define force as a push or pull which changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line of the body on which it acts.
The forces acting on a man in a lift are
(i) weight of the man acting vertically downwards,
(ii) the reaction of the floor acting vertically upwards.
In a lift accelerating downwards the net force on the man is
F = m(g – a) = 50(9.8 – 2)
= 50 × 7.8 = 390 N.

Question 2: A boy of mass 40 kg runs up a height of 30 steps, each 20 cm high. Find:
(i) The force of gravity acting on the boy.
(ii) The work done by the boy against gravity. (Take g = 9.8 ms^-2)
Solution:

Question 3: A coolie is pushing a box weighing 1500 N up an inclined plane 7.5 m long on to a platform, 2.5 m above the ground.
(i) Calculate the mechanical advantage of the inclined plane.
(ii) Calculate the effort applied by the coolie.
(iii) In actual practice, the coolie needs to apply more effort than what is calculated. Give one reason why you think the coolie needs to apply more effort.
Solution:

Question 4: Calculate the work done when:
(i) A 5 kg weight is lifted 10 m vertically upward (g = 9.8 ms^-2).
(ii) A car is moved on a rough road through 3 m against a frictional resistance of 75 N.
Solution:

Question 5: An electric motor of power 100 W is used to drive the stirrer in a water bath. If 50% of the energy supplied to the motor is spent in stirring the water. Calculate the work done on the water in one minute.
Solution:

Question 6: The weights of two bodies are 2.0 N and 2.0 kgf respectively what is the mass of each body?
Solution:

Question 7: A truck weighing 1000 kg changes its speed from 36 km/h to 72 km/h in 2 minutes. Calculate the work done by the engine and its power.
Solution:

Question 8: A coolie carries a load of 30 kgf through a distance of 500 m in 5 minutes while another coolie B carries the same load through the same distance in 10 minutes. Compare the (i) work done, and (ii) power developed. (Take: g = 10md^-2)
Solution:

Question 9: A girl of mass 40 kg runs a height of 80 stairs, each 25 cm high with a load of 20 kg on her head in 25 sec. If g is 10 m/s², find:
(i) Gravitational force acting on the girl.
(ii) Work done by her.
(iii) Useful work done by her.
(iv) Her power in watt.
Solution:

Question 10: A man weighing 700 N runs up a flight of 15 steps, each 20 cm high, in 5 seconds. Calculate the power of the man.
Solution:

Question 11: A water pump raises 50 kg of water through a height of 25 m in 5s. Calculate the power Supplied by the pump (Take: g = 10 N kg^-1).
Solution:

Question 12: An electric motor pump is 60% efficient and is rated 2.5 H.P. Calculate the maximum load it can lift through a height of 10m in 8 sec. (1 H.P. = 750 W).
Solution:

Question 13: For the same kinetic energy of a body, what should be the change in its velocity if its mass is increased nine times?
Solution:

Question 14: Calculate the kinetic energy of a body of mass 0.1 kg. and momentum 40kg m/s.
Solution:

Question 15: A body of mass 50 kg has a momentum of 3000 kg^-1 ms. Calculate:
(j) the kinetic energy of the body.
(ii) the velocity of the body.
Solution: (j) m =50 kg. p = 3000 kg ms^-1

Question 16: A body of mass m falls from a height h₁ to a height h₂, above the ground (h₁ > h₂). What is the loss in potential energy?
Answer:

Question 17: Obtain an expression for the kinetic energy of a body of mass m moving with a velocity v?
Answer: Let the body is brought to rest by a retarding force F after travelling a distance s.

Hence K.E = ½ mv²

Question 18: A body of mass m is taken from a height h to 2h. What is the increase in its potential energy?
Answer:
Initial potential energy = mgh
Final potential energy = mg × 2h = 2mgh
Increase in potential energy = Final potential energy – Initial potential energy
= 2mgh – mgh = mgh.

Question 19: A ball of mass 50 g falls from a height of 2m and rebounds from the ground to 1.6 m. Find:
(i) The potential energy possessed by the ball when initially at rest.
(ii) The kinetic energy of the ball before it hits the ground.
(iii) The final potential energy of the ball.
(iv) The loss in kinetic energy of the ball on collision. (Take: g = 10N kg^-1)
Solution:

Question 20: In a hydroelectric power station, 1000 kg of water is allowed to drop through a height of loo m in 1 sec. If the conversion of potential energy to electric energy is 60%. Calculate the power output. [Take: g = 10m/sec²]
Solution: In a hydroelectric power station:
Mass of water (m) 1000 kg.
Height (h) = 100 m.
Time (t) = ¡sec.
Produced potential energy (P.E.) = mgh = 1000 × 10 × 100 JouIe
= 1000000 joule

Question 21: On’a see-saw, two children of masses 30 kg and 50 kg are sitting on one side of it at distance 2 m and 2.5 m respectively, from its middle, where should a man of mass 74 kg sit to balance it?
Solution: Let the two children be sitting on the left arm. They will produce anti-clockwise moment due to their weights about the middle point.
Total Anti-clockwise moment = 30 kgf × 2 m + 50 kgf × 2.5 m
= 60 kgf m + 125 kgf m = 185 kgf m
To balance it, the man should sit on the right arm (to produce clockwise moment). Let his distance from the middle be x m. Then

Question 22: A force of 1 kgf displaces a body by a distance of 10 cm (i) in direction of force, (ii) normal to the force (iii) at an angle of 60° to the direction of force. Calculate the amount of work done in each case. (Take: g = 9.8 ms^-2 )
Solution:

TN State Board Class 9 Lesson 10 Matter Around Us

2020-09-30T12:30:00.002+05:30

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The separation of denser particles from lighter particles done by rotation at high speed is called ………………..
(a) Filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) centrifugation
Answer:
(d) centrifugation

Question 2.
Among the following ………………… is a mixture.
(a) Common salt
(b) Juice
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Pure silver
Answer:
(b) Juice

Question 3.
When we mix a drop of ink in water we get a …………………..
(a) Heterogeneous Mixture
(b) Homogeneous Mixture
(c) Compound
(d) Suspension
Answer:
(b) Homogeneous Mixture

Question 4.
…………… is essential to perform separation by solvent extraction method.
(a) Separating funnel
(b) Centrifuge machine
(c) Filter paper
(d) Sieves
Answer:
(a) Separating funnel

Question 5
…………… has the same properties throughout the sample.
(a) Pure substance
(b) Mixture
(c) Colloid
(d) Suspension
Answer:
(a) Pure substance

II. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false give the correct statement.

Oil and water immiscible in each other – True
A compound cannot be broken, into simpler substances chemically – False.
Correct Statement: A compound can be broken into simpler substances chemically.
Liquid – liquid colloids are called gels – False
Correct Statement: Liquid – solid colloids are called gels.
Buttermilk is an example of heterogeneous mixture – True
Aspirin is composed of 60% Carbon, 4.5% Hydrogen and 35.5% Oxygen by mass. Aspirin is a mixture – False.
Correct Statement: The constituents of Aspirin are present in a fixed ratio by mass. So it is a Compound.

III. Match the following.

S.No.	A	B
1.	Element	(a) Settles down on standing
2.	Compound	(b) Impure substance
3.	Colloid	(c) Made up of molecules
4.	Suspension	(d) Pure substances
5.	Mixture	(e) Made up of atoms

(e) Made up of atomsAnswer:

(c) Made up of molecules
(b) Impure substance
(a) Settles down on standing
(d) Pure substances

IV. Fill in the blanks.

A mixture has no distinguishable boundary between its components.
An example of a substance that sublimes is
Alcohol can be separated from water by
In petroleum refining, the method of separation used is
Chromatography is based on the principle of

Answer:

homogeneous
Naphthalene
distillation
fractional distillation
absorptions

V. Very short answers.

Question 1.
Differentiate between absorption and adsorption.

Absorption	Adsorption
It is the process by which atoms, molecules, or ions enter a bulk phase (liquid, gas, solid)	It is the adhesion of atoms, ions or molecules from a gas, liquid or dissolved solid to a surface

Answer:
Absorption Adsorption
It is the process by which atoms, molecules, or ions enter a bulk phase (liquid, gas, solid) It is the adhesion of atoms, ions or molecules from a gas, liquid or dissolved solid to a surface

Question 2.
Define sublimation.
Answer:
Certain solids change directly to a gas without passing through the liquid is called sublimation.

Question 3.
A few drops of ‘Dettol’ when added to water the mixture turns turbid. Why?
Answer:
The mixture turns turbid, because of emulsion,
(Disperse phase and Dispersion medium are liquid).

Question 4.
Name the apparatus that you will use of separate the components of mixtures containing two,

Miscible liquids,
Immiscible liquids

Answer:

Miscible liquids – Fractional distillation (Fractionating column and Liebig) Condenser
Immiscible liquids – Separating funnel

Question 5.
Name the components in each of the following mixtures.

Ice cream
Lemonade
Air
Soil

Answer:

The main constituents of ice cream are fat, milk solids (skim-milk powder), sugar, gelatin, egg and flavouring.
Lemonade is a mixture of lemon juice, sugar and water.
Air is a mixture of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, water vapour and other gases.
Soil is a mixture of clay, sand and various salts.

VI. Short answers.

Question 1.
Which of the following are pure substances? Ice, Milk, Iron, Hydrochloric acid, Mercury, Brick and Water.
Answer:
Ice, Iron, Hydrochloric acid, Mercury and water are pure substances.

Question 2.
Oxygen is very essential for us to live. It forms 21% of air by volume. Is it an element or compound?
Answer:
Oxygen is an element. It contains the atoms of oxygen of the same kind.

Question 3.
You have just won a medal made of 22-carat gold. Have you just procured a pure substance or impure substance?
Answer:
I have procured an impure substance. It is made of 22 parts of pure gold and 2 parts of copper or silver.

Question 4.
How will you separate a mixture containing saw dust, naphthalene and iron filings?
Answer:
When a magnet is brought near the mixture containing saw dust naphthalene and iron filings, it attracts the iron filings. Thus iron filings are separated.

The mixture of naphthalene and saw dust are put in a china dish and covered with a perforated asbestos sheet. An inverted funnel is placed over the asbestos sheet.

The open end of the stem of the funnel is closed, using cotton wool. The china dish is heated. The pure vapours of naphthalene solid pass through the holes in the asbestos sheet and condense on the inner side of the funnel. The saw dust is left in the china dish.

Question 5.
How are homogenous solutions different from heterogeneous solution? Explain with examples.
Answer:

S.No.	Homogeneous solutions	Heterogeneous solutions
1.	Components are uniformly mixed.	Components arc not uniformly mixed.
2.	It has single phase.	It has two or more distinct phases.
3.	No boundaries of separation between the components.	There are visible boundaries between the components.
4.	Components are invisible to naked eye.	Components are visible to naked eye.
5.	Examples of Homogeneous solutions are salt solution, lemonade, petrol etc.	Examples of Heterogeneous solutions are chalk in water, petrol in water, and sand in water.

VII. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Write the differences between elements and compounds and give an example for each.
Answer:

S.No.	Elements	Compounds
1.	Contains only one kind of atoms.	Contains more than one kind of atoms.
2.	It is a pure substance.	It is not a pure substance.
3	Elements cannot be broken down further into simpler substances by chemical methods.	Compounds can be broken down further into simpler substances by chemical methods.
4	Elements have definite physical and chemical properties.	Compounds have definite physical and chemical properties.
5	Examples for elements: oxygen 07, hydrogen H7, sodium Na.	Examples for compounds, water H70, cane sugar Cp

Question 2.
Explain Tyndall effect and Brownian movement with suitable diagram.
A. Tyndall Effect:

When a strong beam of light is focused on a colloidal solution the path of the beam becomes visible.
This phenomenon is called as Tyndall effect. The illuminated path is called Tyndall cone. This phenomenon is due to scattering of light by colloidal particles.

B. Brownian movement:

It is a kinetic property. When colloidal solution are viewed under powerful microscope, it can be seen that colloidal particles are moving constantly and rapidly in zig-zag directions. The Brownian movement of particles is due to the unbalanced bombardment of the particles by the molecules of dispersion medium.

Question 3.
How is a mixture of common salt, oil and water separated?
You can use a combination of different methods.
Answer:
The mixture of common salt, oil and water are taken in a beaker. The salt dissolves in water. Allow it to stand for a few minutes. The mixture of two immiscible liquids is separated by a separating funnel. The oil floats on top. The water can carefully be separated by opening the stopcock in the separating funnel. The oil is left behind in the separating funnel.

The salt water is heated slowly, in a distillation flask with a water condenser. The pure water vapour passes through the inner tube of the condenser.

The vapours on cooling condense into pure water and are collected in a receiver. The salt is left behind in the flask as a residue.

Activity

Question 1.
Make models of the molecules of compounds by using match sticks and clay balls as shown below,

Items for identification	Matters	Non matters
Flowers, bee, cloud, rainbow, leaf, fire, baby, torchlight, sky, smoke, heat coming from glowing coals, fog, the sound coming from a drum, a laser beam

Answer:

Items for identification	Matters	Non matters
Flowers, bee, cloud, rainbow, leaf, fire, baby, torch light, sky, smoke, heat coming from glowing coals, fog, sound coming from a drum, laser beam	Flowers	rainbow
	bee	torch light
	cloud,	sound coming from a drum
	leaf	laser beam
	baby	heat coming from glowing coals
	fog
	fire

Question 2.
Take some powdered iron filings and mix it with sulphur.

Divide the mixture into two equal halves.
Keep the first half of the mixture as it is, but heat the second half of the mixture.
You will get a grey brittle compound.

Answer:
Iron + Sulphur \(\stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow}\) Iron sulphide
We cannot separate iron from iron sulphide. So, it is a compound, whereas Iron and Sulphur are mixtures. We can separate it by magnetic separation method.

Question 3.
Identify whether the given substance is mixture or compound and justify your answer.

S.No.	Substance	Mixture / Compound
1.	Sand and water
2.	Sand and iron filings
3.	Concrete
4.	Water and oil
5.	Salad
6.	Water
7.	Carbon dioxide
8.	Cement
9.	Alcohol

Answer:

S.No.	Substance	Mixture / Compound	Justification
1.	Sand and water	Mixture	Can be separated by filtration.
2.	Sand and iron filings	Mixture	Can be separated by a magnet.
3.	Concrete	Mixture	Ingredients are mixed together and it can be separated.
4.	Water and oil	Mixture	Oil is less dense. So floats in water and it can be separated.
5.	Salad	Mixture	Vegetable are mixed. Can be separated easily.
6.	Water	Compound	Hydrogen and oxygen are combined chemically in a fixed proportion.
7.	Carbon dioxide	Compound	Two oxygen atoms are bonded or chemically combine with carbon atom.
8.	Cement	Compound	Different elements are combined together in a fixed proportion.
9.	Alcohol	Mixture	Two or more liquids, whose proportion can be altered by distillation.

II. Match the following.

Answer:

(c) Hidden heat
(f) Colloid
(g) Flows freely
(e) Homogenous mixture
(b) Heterogeneous mixture
(d) Fractional distillation
(a) Separating funnel

III. State which the following statements are true or false. If false give the correct statement.

Supernatant denotes the heterogeneous mixture, lying above a solid residue, after crystallization, precipitation, centrifugation or other process – False.
Correct Statement: Supernatant denotes the liquid lying above a solid residue after crystallization, precipitation, centrifugation or other process.
Liquids cannot be compressed and they have fixed volume – True
The intensity of scattered light depends on the type of colloidal solution and the size of the colloidal particles – True
In Aerosol the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is gas – False.
Correct Statement: In Aerosol, The dispersed phase is solid and the dispersion medium is gas.
When the solid (Solute) dissolves in a liquid (Solvent), it become a solution – True
Solids possess very high kinetic energy – False.
Correct Statement: Gases possess very high kinetic energy.
Celsius scale is a scale of temperature in which zero represents the melting point of ice and 100 represents the boiling point of water – True

IV. Answer very shortly.

Question 1.
What is a matter?
Answer:
Anything which has mass and occupies space (volume) is called matter.

Question 2.
What is dry ice or cardice?
Answer:
Frozen carbon dioxide, is dry ice or cardice.

Question 3.
What are the uses of dry ice?
Answer:

Act as a cooling agent
Industrial refrigeration
Transporting frozen food.
It does not leave any liquid behind, as it directly changes into gas.

Question 4.
When does the pressure of the gas increase?
Answer:
When the volume of the gas decreases, the gas gets compressed. The particles of the gas have only lesser space to move around. So the particles start hitting on the walls of the container and the pressure of the gas increases.

Question 5.
Complete the following table:

S.No.	CELSIUS	KELVIN
1.	90°C	363 K
2.	?	283 K
3.	63 °C	?
4.	250°C	?
5.	?	303 K

Solution:

S.No.	CELSIUS	KELVIN
1.	90°C	363 K
2.	9.85°C	283 K
3.	63 °C	336.15K
4.	250°C	523.15 K
5.	29.85°C	303 K

Question 6.
What does the LPG (Liquefied petroleum gas) contain?
Answer:
LPG is a highly inflammable hydrocarbon. It contains a mixture of butane and propane gases.

Question 7.
What are pure substances? Give examples.
Answer:
Pure substances contain only one kind of particles.
Eg: 1. Element (Sodium, Bromine, and Hydrogen)
2. Compound (Sodium chloride, water, carbon dioxide)

Question 8.
What are impure substances? Give examples.
Answer:
Impure substances contain more than one kind of particles.
Eg: Mixtures (Gun powder, which is a mixture of sulphur potassium nitrate and charcoal)

Question 9.
Classify the pure substance on the basis of chemical composition.
Answer:

Question 10.
Classify the types of mixtures.
Answer:

Question 11.
Write a few examples for the following colloids.
Answer:

Gels – Hair cream, tooth paste
Foam – Soap bubbles, carbonated beverages.
Solid foam – Bread, Mattresses
Emulsion – Milk, butter, paints, facial cream, pesticides

Question 12.
Name the two phases in separation of the mixtures in chromatography.
Answer:

Mobile phase
Stationary phase

Question 13.
What is absorption? Give example.
Answer:
Absorption is the process in which the substance is dissolved throughout the bulk of another substance.
Eg: Paper soaks up or absorbs water.

Question 14.
What is adsorption? Give example.
Answer:
Adsorption is the process in which particles of a substances, adhere to a surface of another substance.
Eg: Charcoal adsorbs gases on its surface.

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the factors, which will affect the rate of evaporation, taking examples from our daily life experiences.
Answer:

Temperature: Warmer the evaporation surface, the higher the rate of evaporation. In ponds, lakes and rivers, the rate of evaporation is more in sunny days.
Surface area: The evaporation increase, with the increase of surface area. Eg: The water kept in a saucer evaporates faster than the water kept in a glass.
Humidity: The amount of water vapour is high during rainy season. The air can hold little water. So it slows down the evaporation. So we sweat and perspire.
Wind: The evaporation is slow at low wind. Evaporation is faster at high wind. The particles of water move away, along with the particles of air at high wind. So the wet clothes dry faster on a windy day.

Question 2.
Compare boiling and evaporation.
Answer:

S.No.	Boiling	Evaporation
1.	Vaporization process.	Natural process.
2.	Turns liquid into gas when it is heated.	The liquid changes into gas without heating.
3.	Fast process.	Slow process.
4.	Occurs only at boiling point.	Occurs at any temperature.
5.	It forms bubbles.	It does not form bubbles.
6.	Energy is required.	Energy is supplied by surrounding.
7.	Temperature of the liquid remains constant.	Temperature of liquid decreases.

Question 3.
Classify colloids based on physical state of dispersed phase and dispersion medium.
Answer:

S.No.	Dispersed Phase	Dispersion Medium	Name	Examples
1.	Solid	Solid	Solid Sol	Alloys, gems, coloured glass
2.	Solid	Liquid	•Sol	Paints, inks, eggs white
3.	Solid	Gas	Aerosol	Smoke, dust
4.	Liquid	Solid	Gel	Curd, Cheese, Jelly
5.	Liquid	Liquid	Emulsion	Milk, Butter, oil in water
6.	Liquid	Gas	Aerosol	Mist, fog, clouds
7.	Gas	Solid	Solid foam	Cake, bread
8.	Gas	Liquid	Foam ‘	Soap lather, Aerated water

Question 4.
Write the methods of separation for the following:
Answer:

Separation of insoluble solids from liquids
Filtration and Decantation
The separation of fine and tiny particles of solid which do not settle at the bottom.
Centrifugation
Separation of soluble solids from liquids
Evaporation and crystallization
Separation of miscible liquids which do not differ much in their boiling points
Fractional distillation
Separation of two immiscible liquids
Separating funnel
Separation of different fractions of petroleum
Fractional distillation with fractionating column
Separation of mixture containing volatile and non-volatile solids.
Sublimation.

Question 5.
Write the differences between mixture and compounds.
Answer:

S. No.	MIXTURE	COMPOUND	Name	Examples
1.	Mixture can be separated into its constituents by physical process.	Compounds can be separated into its constituents by chemical process.	Solid Sol	Alloys, gems, coloured glass
2.	Mixture shows the properties of its constituents.	The properties of a compound are entirely different from its constituent elements .	Sol	Paints, inks, eggs white
3.	Energy in the form of heat and light is neither given out nor absorbed in.	Energy in the form of heat and light is given out or absorbed.	Aerosol	Smoke, dust
4.	The composition or proportion of a mixture does not have a definite formula.	The composition of a compound is fixed. The constituents have a fixed ratio by mass.	Gel .	Curd, Cheese, Jelly
5.	A mixture does not have fixed boiling point or melting point.	A compound has a fixed boiling or melting point.	Emulsion	Milk, Butter, oil in water

Bio Zoo Circulatory System

2020-09-30T10:41:00.002+05:30

Short Questions

Question 1: Why is circulatory system also known as transport system ?
Answer: Circulatory system is also called transport system because it transports food, water, hormones,
enzymes, electrolytes, antibodies and respiratory gases to or away from the body tissues.

Question 2: Write about origin and functions of Red Blood Corpuscles.
Answer: Origin: R.B.Cs. or erythrocytes are minute biconcave disc-like structures, flat in the centre and thick and round at periphery in blood formed in red bone marrow of the long bones and bregot bone.
Function: They help in the transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide to the different parts of body.

Question 3: Complete the following table:

Components	Origin	Function	Approx. No. (mm³)	Life span
RBCs
WBCs
Platelets

Answer:

Components	Origin	Function	Approx. No. (mm³)	Life span
RBCs	Bone marrow	Carry O₂ to the different parts of body	4.8 million-5.5 million	120 days
WBCs	Bone marrow	Develop immunity	7,000	Two weeks
Platelets	Large bone marrow cells	Initiate blood clotting	250,000	2-3 days

Question 4: Define the following terms Diapedesis.
Answer: The process in which the leucocytes or white blood cells squeeze out through the walls of blood capillaries at the site of injury to fight against pathogens.

Question 5: State any five functions of blood.
Answer: (i) It transports oxygen from lungs to body tissues.
(ii) It transports carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs partly in combination with haemoglobin and partly as solution in blood plasma.
(iii) It transports digested food to different organs of the body which is utilized by cells.
(iv) It helps in keeping the temperature of the body uniform by distributing heat.
(v) It forms a clot wherever there is a cut in a blood vessel. The clot not only prevents further loss of blood but also prevents the entry of disease germs.

Question 6: The table below is designed to indicate the transport of certain substances in our body. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers:

Answer: (i) Oxygen, (ii). Whole body, Lungs, (iii) Liver, Kidney
(iv) Liver, (v) Hormones, Endocrine glands, (vi) Tissues.

Question 7: Why are capillaries thin walled ?
Answer: The capillaries are thin walled, because they help in the exchange of gases and diffusion of materials into the cells. This diffusion is possible due to the thinness of its walls.

Question 8: Describe the role of lymph.
Answer: (i) Transport of nutrients and oxygen to the cells and tissues.
(ii) Removal of CO₂ and nitrogenous wastes from the tissues and carry them to the blood.
(iii) It absorbs fatty acids and glycerol through lacteals.
(iv) It destroys harmful pathogens by its lymphocytes.
(v) It maintains body temperature.
(vi) It regulates protein level in the tissue fluid.

Question 9: Name the blood vessels entering the heart and leaving the heart.
Answer: Blood Vessels entering the heart: The right atrium receives two large vessels :
(i) Anterior vena cava (ii) Posterior vena cava
Blood Vessels leaving the heart: Arising from the ventricle are two large blood vessels :
(i) The pulmonary artery (ii) The aorta
The coronary arteries arising from the base of aorta.

Question 10: Name the Blood vessels entering liver and kidney and Blood vessels leaving liver and kidney.
Answer: (a) Blood vessels entering liver:
(i) Hepatic artery (from aorta into liver).
(ii) Hepatic portal vein (from stomach and intestine into liver).
(b) Blood vessel entering kidney:
Renal artery (from aorta into kidney).
(c) Blood vessel leaving liver:
Hepatic vein (from liver into posterior vena cava)
(d) Blood vessel leaving kidney:
Renal vein (from kidney into posterior vena cava).

Question 11: What does the term ‘double circulation’ mean ?
Answer: Double circulation means that the blood flows twice in the heart before it completes one full round-the short pulmonary (lung) circulation and the long systemic (general body) circulation.
For this reason the blood circulation in human body is also called double circulation.

Question 12: In what ways does the blood entering the kidney differ from that leaving the kidney ?
Answer: The blood entering the kidneys contains excretory substances such as urea, uric acid, etc. These substances are removed from the blood in the kidneys and the blood is free from the waste : products of metabolism when it leaves the kidneys.

Question 13: What is blood pressure ? How is it measured ?
Answer: The blood flowing through the arteries exert some pressure on its walls. This pressure is known as blood pressure. It is measured by an instrument named as sphygmomanometer.

Question 14: What is the value of systolic B. P. and diastolic B. P. of a normal human adult ?
Answer: Systolic B. P. is 100-140.
Diastolic B. P. is 60-80.

Question 15: Write short note on Tissue Fluid.
Answer: Tissue Fluid or Intercellular Fluid: As the blood flows in the capillaries of the tissues, the plasma and the leucocytes Teak out’Through their walls. This fluid bathes the cells and is called the tissue fluid or the intercellular or extracellular fluid. It is from this fluid that the cells absorb oxygen and other required substances, and in turn, give out CO₂ and other wastes back into it.

Question 16: The table below is designed to indicate the major arteries emerging from the aorta and supplying blood to different organs.
Fill in the blanks with suitable answers.

Answer: (i) Renal, (ii) Gonads (testis, ovary), (iii) Right sub-Calvin,
(iv) Diaphragm, (v) Hepatic, (vi) Inter coastal.

Question 17: Describe in brief die cardiac cycle.
Answer: Cardiac Cycle : It is the sequential phenomenon of contraction and relaxation of heart. The action potential causes atria and then ventricles to undergo contraction (systole) followed by their relaxation (diastole). Systole forces blood to move from the atria to the ventricles and to the pulmonary artery and the aorta, then. The heart beats 72 times in a minute. So several cardiac cycles are done per minute. The duration of cardiac cycle is 0-8 seconds. Two heart sounds are heard by stethoscope during each cardiac cycle.

Question 18: When are the sounds ‘LUBB’ and ‘DUB’ produced during heart beat ?
Answer: The first sound ‘LUBB’ is produced when the atrio-ventricular valves get closed sharply at the start of ventricular systole. The second sound ‘DUB’ is produced at the beginning of ventricular diastole when the semilunar valves, at the roots of aorta and pulmonary artery get closed.

Question 19: What is the Rh-factor.
Answer: The Rh-factor was first discovered in the Rhesus monkey. It was found that Rh (rhesus) antigens were causing many of the transfusion failures that were unexplained by A-B-O system. There are at least eight different Rh antigens so far. The person bearing Rh-factor is Rh^+ve and person who does not possess this factor is Rh^-ve.

Give Reasons

Question 1: Why is circulatory system also known as transport system ?
Answer: The circulatory system is also known as transport system because it carries various substances from one organ to another.

Question 2: Why do people have a common belief that the heart is located on the left side of the chest ?
Answer: The narrow end of the roughly triangular heart is pointed to the left side and during working the contraction of the heart is most powerful at this end giving a feeling of the heart being on the left side. Actually it is right in the centre between the two lungs and above the diaphragm.

Question 3: Veins have valves at intervals in their inner lining whereas the arteries do not have valves. Explain.
Answer: In arteries blood flows with pressure but in veins the pressure falls considerably and the back flow of blood is prevented by the semilunar valves.

Question 4: Why is SA node called pace maker of the heart.
Answer: The SA node is called the pace-maker of the heart because the wave of contraction which conducts heart beat originates in it.

Question 5: Why is it necessary to know the blood groups before giving transfusion of blood ?
Answer: In blood transfusion, it is necessary that the kind or the type of blood to be transfused should be matched with the type of blood of the receiving person. Otherwise, the RBC of the donor blood will stick to each other and block the passage of blood vessels of the receiver leading to death. Hence, it is necessary to know the blood groups before transfusion of blood.

Question 6: Can the blood dot inside the blood vessels. Give reason in support of your answer.
Answer: The blood inside the blood vessels does not dot because there is no free thromboplastin available to convert into active prothrombin into active thrombin.

Question 7: Why does the number of leucocytes increase during infection ?
Answer: The number of leucocytes increase during infection to fulfill the defence demand of the body.

Differentiate

Question 1: Blood and Lymph.
Answer:

Blood	Lymph
(i) Blood contains plasma, RBCs, WBCs and platelets.	Lymph contains only the soluble parts of plasma.
(ii) It contains albumin, globulin and fibrinogen.	It does not contain these substances.
(iii) It is a opaque red coloured fluid of alkaline reaction.	It is a colourless fluid resembling blood in other respects.

Question 2: Arteries and Veins.
Answer:

Arteries	Veins
(i) These carry blood from the heart to different organs of the body.	These collect blood from different organs of the body.
(ii) These contain oxygenated blood (Pulmonary artery contains deoxygenated blood)	These contain deoxygenated blood. (Pulmonary vein contains oxygenated bloods).
(iii) Blood flows rapidly with jerks under pressure.	Blood flows slowly at a constant slow speed.
(iv) The walls are thick and elastic.	The walls are thin and non-elastic.
(v) Valves are absent.	Valves are present.

Question 3: Red blood cells and White blood cells.
Answer:

RBCs	WBCs
(i) These are minute biconcave disc like structures, flat in centre, thick and round at the periphery and nuclei are absent in mature RBCs.	These are amoeboid and can produce pseudopodia and have a nucleus.
(ii) These contain a respiratory pigment haemoglobin.	Haemoglobin is not present.
(iii) RBCs help in transport of oxygen and CO₂.	WBCs help in protection of the body against infections from the germs.
(iv) The number of RBCs in adult male is 5 million per cu. millimeter.	Their number is usually about 4000-8000 per cubic millimeter.
(vi) Their average life span is about 120 days.	Their average life span is about two weeks.

Question 4: Open circulatory system and Closed circulatory system.
Answer:

Open circulatory system	Closed circulatory system
(i) Blood may flow in vessels but also remains in direct contact with tissues.	Blood flows in definite vessels known as arteries and veins.
(ii) Blood spaces or sinuses are present.	Blood spaces or sinuses are absent.
(iii) Haemocoel is present.	Haemocoel is absent.
(iv) Found in insects, e.g., cockroach, housefly, etc.	Found in annelids and higher vertebrates.

Question 5: Diastole and Systole.
Answer:

Diastole	Systole
It is the condition of the heart when the chambers relax.	It is the condition of the heart when the chambers of the heart contract.
It is the condition when the blood enters the chamber, e,g., when left atrium relaxes, blood enters from the pulmonary vein under low pressure.	It is the condition when the blood is pumped out of the heart, e.g., when the left ventricle contracts, the blood is pumped to the body under high pressure.

Question 6: Blood plasma and Serum.
Answer:

Blood plasma	Serum
It is transparent fluid part of blood that contains blood corpuscles, fibrinogen and prothrombin.	It is a transparent fluid secreted from blood clot that do no contain blood corpuscles, fibrinogen and prothrombin.

Diagram Based Questions

Question 1: Given alongside is a diagram of the external features of the heart.
(i) Name the parts ‘1’ to ‘7’.
(ii) What happens if the coronary artery gets an internal clot ?
(iii) Which type of blood does part ‘5’ carry ?
(iv) Mention one structural difference between part ‘5’ and ‘4’.
Answer: (i) 1. Aorta, 2. Left atrium, 3. Left ventricle, 4. Dorsal aorta, 5. Inferior vena cava, 6.Superior vena cava, 7. Pulmonary artery.
(ii) If the coronary artery gets an internal clot, the corresponding part of the heart does not get its blood supply. This will result in loss of contraction or even death of the cardiac cells resulting in a heart attack or coronary arrest which may prove to be fatal.
(iii) Part ‘5’ which is the inferior vena cava carries deoxygenated blood which is rich in CO₂ and metabolic wastes.
(iv) Part ‘5’ is more muscular and lumen is narrow while part ‘4’ is less muscular and lumen is wider.

Question 2: Given below is the simplified pathway of the circulatory system :
(i) Name the blood vessels marked 1 to 8.
(ii) Name the chamber of the heart which:
(a) Receives blood from ‘1’.
(b) Pumps blood into blood vessel ‘8’.
(iii) Mention two structural differences between blood vessels ‘7’ and ‘2’.
Answer: (i) 1. Pulmonary vein, 2. Dorsal aorta, 3. Hepatic portal vein, 4. Renal artery, 5. Iliac vein, 6. Hepatic vein, 7. Inferior vena-cava, 8. Pulmonary artery.
(ii) (a) Left auricle.
(b) Right ventricle.
(iii) (a) The inferior vena cava arises from iliac veins coming from the hind limbs, while the dorsal aorta arises from the left ventricle and continues behind as the abdominal aorta.
(b) The deoxygenated blood is collected by the inferior vena cava, while the branches of the dorsal aorta supplies oxygenated blood to the body parts.

Question 3: Given below is a schematic representation of the circulatory system in man. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Label the parts 1 to 4 indicated in the diagram.
(ii) Give one difference between the parts 1 and 2 based on:
(a) their structure
(b) the nature of blood flowing through them.
(iii) What is the specific name of the type of blood circulation that takes place between the heart and the lungs ?
(iv) Name the valve found at the beginning of the part labeled 3.
Answer: (i) 1. Right auricle
2. Left ventricle
3. Aorta
4. Body organs
(ii)

Right Auricle	Left Ventricle
The wall of right auricle is thinner and smooth.	The wall of left ventricle is thicker and rough.
The deoxygenated blood flows.	The oxygenated blood flows.

(iii) Pulmonary circulation.
(iv) Aortic semilunar valve.

Question 4: Given alongside is a highly diagrammatic sketch of the internal structure of the human heart: (i) Name the parts numbered 1-11. (ii) What is the main difference in the quality of blood contained in parts 6 and 7 ?
Answer: (i) 1. Anterior or superior vena cava
2. Pulmonary vein.
3. Mitral or bicuspid valve.
4. Dorsal aorta.
5. Semilurlar aortic valve.
6. Left ventricle.
7. Right ventricle
8. Pulmonary semilunar valve.
9. Pulmonary artery.
10. Tricuspid valve.
11. Right atrium.
(ii) Part 6 contains oxygenated blood whereas part 7 contains deoxygenated blood.

Question 5: The diagram below represents the simplified pathway of the circulation of blood. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Name the blood vessels labeled 1 and 2.
(ii) State the function of blood vessels labeled 5 and 8.
(iii) What is the importance of the blood vessel labeled 6 ?
(iv) Which blood vessel will contain a high amount of glucose and amino acids after a meal ?
(v) Draw a diagram of the different blood cells as seen in a smear of human blood.
Answer: (i) (1) Anterior vena cava.
(2) Aorta
(ii) (5) Carries oxygenated blood to the liver.
(8) Brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts of the body to heart.
(iii) It brings all the digested food and deoxygenated blood from parts of alimentary canal to liver.
(iv) Blood vessel number 6.
(v)

Question 6: The figures given below are cross-sections of blood vessels.
(i) Identify the blood vessels A, B and C.
(ii) Name the parts labeled 1-4.
(iii) Mention two structural differences between A and B.
(iv) Name the type of blood A that flows (a) through A, (b) through B.
(v) In which of the above vessels referred to in (iv) above does exchange of gases actually take place ?
Answer: (i) (A) Artery, (B) Vein, (C) Capillary.
(ii) 1. Connective tissue
2. Lumen.
3. Tunica media.
4. Tunica intima/Endothelium.
(iii) Two structural differences between arteries and veins are :
(a) Arteries are thick-walled and veins are thin walled.
(b) There are no valves in arteries while valves are present in veins.
(iv) (a) Oxygenated blood flows through A.
(b) Deoxygenated blood flows through B.
(v) The exchange of gases takes place in C capillaries.

Question 7: Given below is a simple diagram of the circulation of blood in a mammal showing the main blood vessels, the heart, lungs and body tissues. The blood vessel labeled 6 contains deoxygenated blood and 2 the valve leading to it has three semi-lunar pockets.
(i) Name the blood vessels of organs marked by number 1 to 8.
(ii) What do you mean by the term ‘double circulation’ of blood in mammals ?
(iii) What is diastole ?
Answer: (i) 1. Veins from tissues.
2. Superior vena cava
3. Aorta
4. Right ventricle
5. Left ventricle
6. Pulmonary Artery
7. Pulmonary vein
8. Lungs.
(ii) The heart is said to have double circulation because the blood passes through the heart twice.
(a) It first leaves t.rough the right ventricle, goes to the lungs and then returns to the left auricle of heart (pulmonary circulation).
(b) It leaves through the leftyentricle, circulates through the body, and again returns to the right auricle of heart (systemic circulation).
(iii) Diastole is the phase of relaxation of the heart muscles during which the heart chambers fill with blood and the supply of blood to the cardiac muscle is improved.

Question 8: The diagram given below represents the human heart in one phase of its activity. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
(i) Name the phase.
(ii) Which parts of the heart are contracting in this phase ? Give a reason to support your answer.
(iii) Name the part numbered 1 to 6.
(iv) What type of blood flows through the parts marked ‘1’ and ‘2’?
(v) How many valves are closed in this phase?
Answer: (i) Ventricular systole.
(ii) Both ventricles are contracting in this phase, because both bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed in order to prevent the back flow of blood into auricles and the semilunar valves are open.
(iii) 1. Pulmonary artery,
2. Aorta,
3. Pulmonary vein,
4. Left auricle,
5. Bicuspid valve (mitral valve),
6. Right ventricle.
(iv) ‘1’—carnes deoxygenated blood. ‘2’—carries oxygenated blood.
(v) Two (Bicuspid and Tricuspid) valves.

Question 9: The figure below represents die internal structure of a mammalian heart and the associated blood vessels.
(i) (a) Name each of the structures labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8.
(b) State the function of each of the structures 5, 6, 7 and 8.
(ii) (a) State the function of heart as an entire organ.
(b) Why are the walls of the left ventricle more muscular than the right ?
Answer: (i) (a) 1. Right auricle,
2. Left ventricle,
3. Pulmonary artery,
4. Pulmonary vein,
5. Inferior vena cava,
6. Aorta,
7. Pulmonary semilunar valve,
8. Tricuspid valve.
(b) 5 — carry deoxygenated blood from the body parts to the right auricle of the heart.
6 — distributes blood all over the body.
7 — prevents the back flow of the blood into the ventricles.
8 — prevents the reverse flow of the blood from right ventricle into the right auricle,
(ii) (a) The heart makes the blood to circulate all over the body.
(b) The walls of left ventricle are more muscular because they have to pump blood to a larger distance than the right so that walls have to withstand a high pressure.

Question 10: The diagrams given below show the cross section of two kinds of blood vessels:
(i) Identify the blood vessels A and B. In each case give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Name the parts numbered 1 and 2.
(iii) When are the sounds “LUBB” and “DUB” produced during a heartbeat ?
(iv) Name the blood vessel that
(a) begins and ends in capillaries.
(b) supplies blood to the walls of the heart.
Answer: (i) A—Artery, B—Vein, because in A lumen is narrow, in B lumen is wide.
(ii) 1 —> Endothelium, 2 —> Lumen.
(iii) Lubb is produced when ventricles contract and atrio-ventricular valves get closed at the beginning of ventricular systole.
Dub is produced by the closure of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(iv) (a) Portal system
(b) Coronary arteries

Question 11: The diagram given below represents the human heart in one phase of its functional activities. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Name the phase.
(ii) Label the parts 1, 2 and 3
(iii) Which part of the heart is contracting in this phase ? Give a reason to support your answer.
Answer: (i) Atrial systole.
(ii) (1) Left pulmonary artery
(2) Superior vena cava
(3) Aorta.
(iii) Simultaneous contraction of both the auricles. Because the cuspid valves are open, allowing blood to flow into ventricles.

Question 12: The diagram shows different types of blood cells, Name them.
Answer: (A) Red blood cells (B) RBC in section (C) Basophil (D) Neutrophil (E) Lymphocyte (F) Monocyte (G) Eosinophil (H) Platelets.

Question 13: The diagram below represents a certain category of blood vessels showing the role of a special structure in their walls :
(i) Name the kind of blood vessels shown.
(ii) What is the structure shown inside the blood vessels ?
(iii) What is the role of these structures ?
(iv) Are these structures present in any other kind of blood vessel ? If so, name it.
(v) Towards which side of the figure (Top or Bottom) is the heart located ?
Answer: (i) Veins.
(ii) Pocket valves.
(iii) These structures maintain the flow of blood in one direction only by preventing its back¬flow.
(iv) Yes. These are present in lymph vessels.
(v) The heart is located towards the top side of the figure.

Question 14: The diagram represents the ‘closed system’ or ‘double circulation’ of blood in mammals.
Justify the above statement.
State two structural and two functional differences between the arteries and veins.
State the changes in the composition of blood as it passes through the following organs :
(a) Lungs (b) Gut (c) Liver (d) Kidneys.
Answer: Double circulation or closed system : In human beings, the heart has double circulation as the blood passes through the heart twice.
(1) It first leaves the heart (right ventricle) and goes to lungs and then returns to the heart (left auricle).
(2) From the left auricle it circulates through the entire body and again returns to the heart (right auricle).
See Answer to Question 11, differentiate between.
(a) In lungs, the blood releases carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen.
Hence before passing through the lungs it contains more CO₂ while it contains more oxygen after it has passed through the lungs.
(b) When blood passes through the gut, it absorbs digested food materials i.e., it contain more carbohydrates, proteins, fats, water, ions and vitamins.
(c) As the blood passes through liver, it contains more urea another waste materials.
(d) As the blood passes through kidneys, it contains less urea and other waste materials.

Sketch and Label the Diagram

Question 1: Draw the diagrams external features of heart.
Answer:
Question 2: Position of valves in human heart.
Answer:
Question 3: Draw well labeled diagrams of part Artery and Superior vena cava to show the structural.
Answer: (i) Artery
(ii) Superior vena cava

Explain the Terms

Question:
1. Blood Pressure
2. Pulse rate
3. Double Circulation
4. Hepatic Portal System
5. Diapedesis
6. Haemopoiesis
7. Phagocytosis
8. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
9. Pace maker
Answer: 1. When the blood flows in the artery it exerts a pressure on the elastic wall of the artery which is called blood pressure. It is greater during systole (contraction) than during diastole (relaxation) of the heart. In a normal adult the blood pressure is 120/80 where systolic is 120 and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg (mercury).
2. Pulse rate indicates the rate at which the heart beats. Each heartbeat results from the contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole) of the heart. Both the auricles contract at a time and pour the blood into the main artery (dorsal aorta). The systole and diastole take 0.8 secs., which is 75 beats per minute.
3. In mammals the heart produces two separate circulations, the pulmonary to the lungs and systemic to the rest of the body. These two separate circulations are jointly called double circulation. From the right ventricle deoxygenated blood goes to lung for purification and
comes back to left auricle through pulmonary vein after purification which is known as pulmonary circulation,. Distribution of blood from left ventricle to different parts of the body and back to hearts as deoxygenated blood is known as systemic circulation.
4. Systems of veins carrying blood capillaries of intestine to liver in mammals is called hepatic portal system. The blood from the intestine carries digested carbohydrates and proteins, i.e., glucose and amino acids to the liver which converts them into glycogen and urea respectively.
5. The passage of White Blood Corpuscles through unruptured wall of blood vessels is known as diapedesis. It also helps in engulfing the germs and also protects the body from getting infected.
6. Formation of blood corpuscles like WBC and RBC by the bone marrow and lymph nodes is called haemopoiesis. Bone marrow and lymph nodes are called haemopoietic tissues.
7. When WBC engulfs the damaged tissues bacteria and germs, the phenomenon is called phagocytosis.
8. Electrocardiogram is the recorded report of an electrocardiograph which is produced by the heart muscle during the cardiac cycle of contraction and relaxation.
9. The tissue present on the wall of the right auricle where initiation of heart beat starts is known as a pace maker.

Name the Following

Question:
1. The study of blood vascular system including arteries, veins and heart.
2. Number of chambers present in the human heart.
3. Name the muscles which made up the wall of the heart.
4. Layer, which surrounds the heart.
5. The blood vessel leaving the left ventricle of the mammalian heart.
6. The valve present between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
7. The blood vessel supplying blood to the kidney.
8. The blood vessel that begins and ends in capillaries.
9. The blood vessels which have valves in them.
10. The fine blood vessels in the tissues through which exchange of materials occurs
11. The number of RBCs in men.
12. The instrument by which RBC are counted is called.
13. Oxygen is transported by the blood in the form of
14. The enzyme which converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
15. The blood plasma from which fibrinogen has been removed.
16. By which the human body is protected from invading bacteria.
Answer:
1. Angiology
2. Four
3. Cardiac muscles
4. Pericardium
5. Dorsal aorta
6. Bicuspid valve
7. Renal artery
8. Hepatic portal vein
9. Veins
10. Capillaries
11. 5,000,000/mm³
12. Haemocytometer
13. Oxyhaemoglobin
14. Thrombokinase
15. Serum
16. W.B.C

Give Technical Terms

Question:
1. What is the approximate weight of heart of a man ?
2. An unstable bright red compound formed between haemoglobin and oxygen to carry the oxygen to the body cells.
3. An artery which carries de-oxygenated blood.
4. Name the vein in the human body which carries oxygenated blood.
5. Name the metallic element present in red blood cells.
6. A fluid that transports fatty acids and glycerols.
7. The phase of cardiac cycle in which the auricles contract.
8. The respiratory pigment contained in human blood.
9. The blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the liver.
10. Name an instrument which is used to hear heart sounds.
11. The mineral element essential for the clotting of blood.
12. The soluble protein present in blood plasma responsible for blood clotting.
13. The process by which leucocytes engulf and destroy bacteria.
14. WBCs squeeze through the walls of the capillaries into the tissue.
15. The artificial method of filtering the blood or removing the wastes from the blood.
Answer:
1. 300 gm (approx.)
2. Oxyhaemoglobin
3. Pulmonary artery
4. Pulmonary vein
5. Iron 6. Lymph
7. Atrial systole
8. Haemoglobin
9. Hepatic artery
10. Stethoscope
11. Calcium
12. Prothrombin
13. Phagocytosis
14. Diapedesis
15. Dialysis

Fill in the Blanks

Complete the following sentences with appropriate words :
1. The iron pigment Haemoglobin gives red colour to the blood.
2. The Heart is the most powerful organ in the circulatory system.
3. The average heartbeat rate is 72 beats per minute in human being.
4. In man (human), heart has Four chambers.
5. The erythrocytes contain an iron-rich pigment called Haemoglobin.
6. Non-coagulation of blood is called Haemophilia.
7. When oxygen is in fairly high concentration, the haemoglobin quickly combines with it and forms an unstable compound known as Oxyhaemoglobin.
8. The element required for blood clotting is Calcium.
9. Thrombocyte helps in blood clotting.
10. The three distinct types of blood vessels are Arteries, veins and the capillaries.
11. The site of production of W.B.Cs in the embryo is Red bone marrow.
12. The Spleen is referred to as the graveyard of red blood corpuscles and the bone marrow referred to as the cradle of red blood corpuscles.
13. The red blood corpuscles are Biconcave and disc shaped cells without nucleus.
14. The fluid in the space between the tissue cell is called Tissue fluid/interstitial fluid.
15. The foundations of physiology were laid by the physician William Harvey.
16. Beside food, oxygen and waste materials, circulatory system transports Hormones to various parts of the body.
17. Arteries are the blood vessels which usually carry oxygenated blood.
18. The chamber of heart which pumps blood into aorta is Left ventricle.
19. Arteries are Thick walled and the veins are thin walled vessels.
20. The blood vessel which transports blood from heart to an organ is called Artery.
21. The sequence of one systole followed by one diastole is termed as the Cardiac cycle.
22. The membranous covering of the heart is Pericardium.
23. The heart is made up of special muscles, the Cardiac muscles.
24. The blood vessel that begins and ends in capillaries is the Portal vein.
25. The blood vessel leaving the left ventricle of the mammalian heart is the Left aorta.

True & False

Mention, if the following statements are True or False. If false rewrite the wrong statement in its correct form:
1. The heart of a normal human adult beats more than one lakh times per day. (True)
2. W.B.C. contains haemoglobin. (False, RBC contains haemoglobin.)
3. R.B.Cs are of several kinds whereas WBCs are of one kind. (False, RBCs are of one kind whereas WBCs are of several kinds.)
4. Leucocytes show amoeboid movement. (True)
5. The average life of red blood cells in our body is about 120 hours. (False, The average life of a red blood cell in our body is about 120 days.)
6. Serum is an immunological preparation of blood (without cells and fibrinogen) containing antibodies and antitoxins against specific diseases. (True)
7. Blood group AB is universal donor. (False, Blood group O is a universal donor.)
8. The walls of auricles are thicker than those of ventricles. (False, The walls of auricles are thinner than those of ventricles.)

State the Location

Name	Location
Hepatic portal vein	It is located between alimentary canal and liver.
Tonsils	They are located in the posterior wall of nasopharynx.
Spleen	It is located just beneath the stomach.
Sino-auricular node	It is a special kind of muscle located in the heart.
Bicuspid value	It is located in between the left auricle (atrium) and left ventricle left auricle.
Pulmonary vein	Arises from lungs and pours blood into the left auricle.
Semilunar valves of the heart	Located in the arteries leaving the heart.
Bundle of His	Arises from atrio ventricular node, moves along inter-ventricular septum to the apex of ventricle and then radiates upwards.

State the Function

Write the functional activity of the following structures:

Name	Function
Pulmonary vein	Brings oxygenated blood from lungs to the heart for circulation throughout the body.
Thrombocytes	Helps in clotting of blood.
Semilunar valves of the heart.	They preyent the back flow of blood from the pulmonary artery and aorta into the heart.
Bundle of His	They carry the wave of excitation from atrio ventricular node to the.ventricles.
Coronary artery	It carries blood to the muscles of heart..
Bicuspid valve	It prevents the reverse flow of blood from the left ventricle into the left auricle.
Haemoglobin	It is the respiratory pigment, helps to carry O2 to the body parts.
Vitamin K	Helps in clotting of blood.
Pericardium	It protects the heart.
Pulmonary artery	To Transports deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
Lymph	It transports fatty acids and glycerol, it also protects the body against microorganisms.
W.B.C.	To fight against micro organism by producing antibodies.
R.B.C.	To transports oxygen to the body parts.
Platelets	Helps in bloods clotting.
Tricuspid valve	It prevents the reverse flow of blood from the right ventricle into the left auricle.
Chordae tendinae	To keep the cuspid valves in position.
Vena cava	To carry deoxygenated blood from the body parts to the right auricle of the heart.

Choose the Odd One Out

1. Human heart, Fish heart, Reptile heart, Toad heart. (Heart Fish)
2. Artery, Vein, Portal vein, Lacteal. (Lacteal)
3. RBC, ATP, WBC, Platelets. (ATP)
4. Purkinje fibres, A. V. node, A. V. valve, S. A. node. (A.V. Values)
5. Mitral valve, Tricuspid valve, Semilunar valve, Venous valve. (Venous Value)
6. Systolic pressure, Diastolic pressure, Stethoscope, Sphygmomanometer. (Stethescope)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The function of WBC is:
(a) To distribute heat (b) To protect enzymes
(c) To cause blood clotting (d) To destroy bacteria

3. The chief function of lymph nodes in mammaJs is to:
(a) Produce WBC’s (b) Produce hormones
(c) Destroy old RBC’s (d) Destroy pathogens

2. Agranulocytes are:
(a) Lymphocytes, monocytes (b) Lymphocytes, basophils
(c) Eosinophils, basophils (d) Eosinophils, monocytes

4 What will happen if the spleen of a man is removed?
(a) W.B.C. production will be lowered
(b) Removal of dead RBC will not take place
(c) Antibody production will be decreased
(d) R.B.C. production will be stopped

5. Which protein is used in preventing dotting of blood?
(a) Albumin (b) Heparin
(c) Fibrinogeri (d) Globulin

6. The beating of the heart of man is hearl on the left side, because:
(a) The left ventride is towards the left side
(b) Both the ventricles are towards the left side
(c) Contraction of heart is powerful on left side.
(d) The dorsal aorta is on the left side

7. Arteries are:
(a) Thin walled and blood flows under diminished pressure
(b) Thick walled and blood flows under high pressure
(c) Thin walled and blood flows under low pressure
(d) Thick walled and blood flows under diminished pressure

8. What is blood pressure?
(a) The pressure of blood on the heart muscles
(b) The pressure of blood exerted on the walls of arteries and veins
(c) The pressure of blood on the walls of veins only
(d) The pressure of blood on the walls of arteries only

9. Erythroblastosis foetalis can occur when:
(a) Man Rh^+ve and woman Rh^+ve (b) Man Rh^+ve and woman Rh^+ve
(c) Man Rh^+veand woman Rh^+ve (d) Man Rh^+ve and woman Rh^+ve

10. Blood pressure is measured by:
(a) Electrocardiogram (ECG) (b) Stethoscope
(c) Sphygmomanometer (d) Pulse rate

Match the Column

Column ‘II’ is a list of items related to ideas in Column ‘I’. Match the term in Column ‘II’ with the suitable idea given in Column ‘I’.

Column I	Column II
(i) Superior vena cava	(a) Collect deoxygenated blood from the wall of the heart.
(ii) Inferior vena cava	(b) Carry oxygenated blood to heart muscle.
(iii) Pulmonary vein	(c) Collects deoxygenated blood from upper part.
(iv) Coronary veins	(d) Collects deoxygenated blood from lower parts.
(v) Coronary artery	(e) Brings oxygenated blood from lungs.
(vi) Aorta	(f) Large artery
(vii) Heart attack	(g) Large vein
(viii) Blood Pressure	(h) Oxygenated blood
(ix) Tricuspid valve	(i) Sphygmomanometer
(x) Bicuspid valve	(j) Allows blood flow from right auricle to right ventricle.
(xi) Contraction and relaxation of heart	(k) Blocking of coronary arteries.
	(l) Cardiac muscle.
	(m) Allows blood flow from left auricle to left ventricle.
	(n) Allows blood flow from right ventricle of pulmonary aorta.

Answer: (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (e) (iv) (a) (v) (b) (vi) (c) (vii) (c) (viii) (a) (ix) (b) (x) (e) (xi) (d)

Maths Trigonometry

2020-09-30T10:08:00.002+05:30

Determine the Following

Question 2. Without using tables evaluate

Question 4. Without using trigonometric tables, evaluate

Question 9. From trigonometric tables, write the values of:

Question 10. The string of a kite is 150 m long and it makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Find the height of the kite from the ground.

Question 11. Solve the following equations:

Question 12. Using trigonometric tables evaluate the following:

Prove the Following

Figure Based Questions

Question 1. In figures, find the length CF.

Question 2. With reference to the figure given alongside, a man stands on the ground at a point A, which is on the same horizontal plane as B, the foot of a vertical pole BC. The height of the pole is 10 m. The man’s eye is 2 m above the ground. He observes the angle of elevation at C, the top of the pole as x°, where tan x° = 2/5.

Question 3. From the top of a tower 60 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of pole are observed to be 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the pole.

Question 4. In triangle ABC, AB = 12 cm, LB = 58°, the perpendicular from A to BC meets it at D. The bisector of angle ABC meets AD at E. Calculate:
(i) The length of BD;
(ii) The length of ED.
Give your answers correct to one decimal place.

Question 5. From the top of a light house 100 m high the angles of depression of two ships on opposite sides of it are 48° and 36° respectively. Find the distance between the two ships to the nearest metre.

Concept Based Questions

Question 2. From a light house, the angles of depression of two ships on opposite sides of the light house were observed to be 30° and 45°. If the height of the light house is 90 metres and the line joining the two ships passes through the foot of the light house, find the distance between the two ships, correct to two decimal places.

Question 3. A man on the deck of a ship is 10 m above water level. He observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a cliff is 42° and the angle of depression of the base is 20°. Calculate the distance of the cliff from the ship and the height of the cliff.

Question 4. A man observes the angle of elevation of the top of a building to be 30°. He walks towards it in a horizontal line through its base. On covering 60 m the angle of elevation changes to 60°. Find the height of the building correct to the nearest metre.

Question 5. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is surmounted by a flagstaff of height 7 metres. At a point in a plane the angle of elevation of the bottom and the top of the flagstaff are respectively 30° and 60°. Find the height of the tower.

Question 6. A pole being broken by the wind the top struck the ground at an angle of 30° and at a distance of 8m from the foot of the pole. Find the whole height of the pole.

Question 7. The shadow of a vertical tower on a level ground increases by 10 m when the altitude of the sun changes from 45° to 30°. Find the height of the tower, correct to two decimal places.

Question 8. A man on the top of vertical observation tower observes a car moving at a uniform speed coming directly towards it. If it takes 12 minutes for the angle of depression to change from 30° to 45°, how soon after this will the car reach the observation tower ? (Give your answer correct to nearest seconds).

Question 9. Two men on either side of a temple 75 m high observed the angle of elevation of the top of the temple to be 30° and 60° respectively. Find the distance between the two men.

Question 10. An aeroplane when 3,000 meters high passes vertically above another aeroplane at an instance when their angles of elevation at the some observation point are 60° and 45° respectively. How many meters higher is the one than the other.

Question 11. From two points A and B on the same side of a building, the angles of elevation of the top of the building are 30° and 60° respectively. If the height of the building is 10 m, find the distance between A and B correct to two decimal places.

Question 12. A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 10 m above water level. He observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the hill as 30°. Calculate the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of hill.

Question 14. Vertical tower is 20m high. A man standing at some distance from the tower knows that the cosine of the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 0.53. How far is he standing from the foot of the tower ?

Question 15. Two person standing on the same side of a tower in a straight line with it measure the angle of elevation of the top of the tower as 25° and 50° respectively. If the height of the tower is 70 m find the distance between the two person.

Question 16. As observed from the top of a 80 m tall lighthouse, the angles of depression of two ships on the same side of the light house in horizontal line with its base are 30° and 40° respectively. Find the distance between the two ships. Give your answer correct to the nearest metre.

Question 17. An aeroplane at an altitude of 250 m observes the angle of depression of two Boats on the opposite banks of a river to be 45° and 60° respectively. Find the width of the river. Write the answer correct to the nearest whole number.
Solution: Let the width of the river CD be x,

Question 19. (i) The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200 metres above a lake is 30° and the angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is 60°. Find the height of the cloud.
(ii) If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h meters above a lake is a*and the angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is |i. Prove that the height of the cloud is

Question 20. From the top of a hill, the angles of depression of two consecutive kilometer stones, due east are found to be 30° and 45° respectively. Find the distance of the two stones from the foot of the hill.

Question 21. A man standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of a tree on the opposite bank is 60°. When he moves 50 m., away from the bank, he finds the angle of elevation to be 30°. Calculate:

The Prime Minister and The council of Ministers

2020-09-28T18:46:00.001+05:30
Very Short Questions
Question 1: Who is known as the ‘Keystone of the Cabinet arch’?
Answer: Prime Minister is known as the ‘Keystone of the Cabinet arch’.
Question 2: Who appoints the Prime Minister?
Answer: President appoints the Prime Minister.
Question 3: Who is the Head of the Union Council of Ministers?
Answer: Prime Minister.
Question 4: How the Prime Minister is elected?
Answer: The leader of the political party securing absolute majority in the Lok Sabha is appointed by the President as the Prime Minister.
Question 5: Who is the real executive head and give reasons to support your answer?
Answer: The Prime Minister is the real executive head. He/She is the leader of the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. He picks up the members of the Council of Ministers and distributes portfolios among them. He conducts and presides over the meetings and proceedings of the Cabinet.
Question 6: What is the term of office of the Prime Minister?
Answer: The term of the Prime Minister is 5 years. But, the Prime Minister is directly responsible to the Lok Sabha and can remain in office so long as he enjoys the majority support in the House of People-Lok Sabha.
Question 7: Mention one way by which the authority of the Prime Minister can be checked?
Answer: If the Prime Minister fails to carry out obligations or makes detrimental choices, then the members of the House pass a Motion of No-Confidence. This deems him ‘not fit’ to hold the position anymore. Thus, the authority of the Prime Minister can be checked.
Question 8: How is the Council of Ministers appointed?
Answer: The Council of Ministers is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Question 9: To which house is the Council of Ministers responsible?
Answer: Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Question 10: What does the Ministers do before joining the Council of Ministers?
Answer: The Ministers have to administer an oath of secrecy before joining the Council of Ministers.
Question 11: Who administers the Oath of office to the Council of Ministers?
Answer: The President of India administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers.
Question 12: Shri Chapman Lai is appointed as Council of Minister, but he is not the member of either House of Parliament. What will he do?
Answer: Shri Chaman Lai has to seek the membership of Parliament within six months or resign before the expiry of the period.
Question 13: Under what provision can a non-member of the Legislature be made a Minister?
Answer: A non-member of Legislature can be made a Minister but in that case he must be elected to the Parliament within six months from the date of his appointment, otherwise he will have to resign from his post as a Minister.
Question 14: Name the three categories of the Council of Ministers.
Or
Mention the different categories of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers.
Answer: Three categories of the Council of Ministers are:
(i) Cabinet Ministers (ii) Ministers of States (iii) Deputy Ministers.
Question 15: What happens when.a Motion of No-Confidence against the Council of Ministers is passed in Lok Sabha?
Answer: When a Motion of No-Confidence against the Council of Ministers is passed in Lok Sabha all the Ministers have to resign because Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
Question 16: Discuss in brief about the formation of Cabinet.
Answer: The Prime Minister and 35 senior most ministers of the Government form the cabinet. The Cabinet is a collective decision-making body of the Government of India and functions from the secretariat of New Delhi.
Question 17: What is meant by the term Cabinet in a State?
Answer: Cabinet is a small and cohesive group consisting of fifteen to eighteen senior members who hold important portfolios such as defence, home affairs, finance, Parliamentary affairs, Foreign affairs, agriculture, industries, etc.
Question 18: Who gives the important portfolios?
Answer: The Cabinet Ministers give the important portfolios like defence, home affairs, finance, Parliamentary affairs, etc.
Question 19: Which body formulates the Foreign Policy of India?
Answer: The Cabinet.
Question 20: Who prepares the Annual Budget?
Answer: The Annual Budget is prepared by the Finance Minister.
Question 21: Who serves as a link between the Legislature and the Executive?
Answer: The Cabinet serves as a link between the Legislature and the Executive.
Question 22: What is Coalition Government?
Answer: If a single party fails to win an absolute majority in the Parliament, (i.e. 50% seats), then different political parties join hands & thus form a Coalition Government.
Question 23: Why the Ministers are required to take the oath of secrecy?
Answer: The Ministers are required to take the oath of secrecy before entering upon their office because it imposes a Constitutional obligation upon them not to disclose any Cabinet secret.
Question 24: What is the role of Cabinet in proclamation of emergency?
Answer: The President cannot proclaim national emergency unless the Cabinet recommends it to the President in writing that such a proclamation should be made.
Question 25: Discuss the role of Cabinet in maintaining control over appointments.
Answer: All important appointments such as those of Governors, and other appointments to the key positions must be mentioned in the Cabinet before they are made public.
Short Questions – I
Question 1: What are Cabinet Committees?
Answer: The Prime Minister functions with the help of various specialized committees such as Defence Committee, Planning Committee, etc. These are called Cabinet Committees and composed of experts and play a vital role in decision making bodies.
Question 2: Write two important functions of the Cabinet Ministers.
Answer: The two important functions of the Cabinet Ministers are:
(i) They are the policy makers and decision makers.
(ii) They determines India’s foreign policy with other countries.
Question 3: Mention two Legislative functions of the Cabinet.
Answer: In the Parliamentary system Cabinet has an important role in the field of Legislation. It
performs the following Legislative functions:
(i) The Cabinet guides the Parliament for action.
(ii) It recommends to the President, the promulgation of ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
Question 4: What are the diplomatic functions of Cabinet?
Answer: The diplomatic functions of the Cabinet are:
(i) The Cabinet finally approves the appointment of Ambassadors.
(ii) It determines India’s foreign policy with other countries.
(iii) It formulates the provisions of the Treaties and Agreements with other countries.
Question 5: Mention three different ways, how loss of confidence in the Council of Ministers can be
displayed by the Lok Sabha?
Answer: The loss of confidence in the Council of Ministers can be displayed:
(i) By voting a cut in budget. (ii) By passing an adjournment motion.
(iii) By passing an amendment to a bill against the wishes of the Government.
Question 6: What do you understand by Individual Responsibility?
Answer: The principle of Individual Responsibility in the Constitution implies that each Minister is responsible for his personal conduct, departmental lapses and departure from the official policy. Under the circumstances arising out of these causes, the concerned Minister has to resign.
Question 7: What is the basic principle of Collective Responsibility?
Or
What do you understand by the term ‘Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers’?
Or
Explain the term ‘Collective Responsibility’.
Answer: The principle of Collective Responsibility implies that the ministers are answerable for all decisions taken by the Cabinet. They cannot publicly criticize or show disagreement with the Cabinet decisions. If they cannot define these decisions they have to resign or liable to dismissal.
Question 8: The Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister sink and swim together. Explain the statement.
Answer: The Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister sink and swim together as they are collectively responsible to the Lolc Sabha. If a No-Confidence Motion is passed, the whole
Council of Ministers has to resign or if the Prime Minister resigns, the Council of Ministers dissolved.
Short Questions – II
Question 1: Mention three important functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer: (i) The Prime Minister presides at the Cabinet meetings. He decides the agenda of the meetings.
(ii) The Prime Minister co-ordinates the working of various departments. He plays a special role in co-ordinating the policy of the Union.
(iii) The Constitution imposes a duty on the Prime Minister to keep the President informed regarding the affairs of the Union.
Question 2: What is the role of the Cabinet secretariat?
Answer: The Cabinet has a secretariat with a Secretary General as its head. It plays an important co-ordination role in the decision making at the highest level. It operates under the supervision and direction of the Prime Minister. It prepares the agenda of the Cabinet meeting, prepares minutes of the meeting, and arranges follow-up action for the implementation of the decision taken in the meeting.
Question 3: Mention the administrative functions of Cabinet.
Answer: Administrative functions of Cabinet:
(i) The Cabinet formulates both external and domestic policies of the Government such as defence, economic policies, security needs, President’s Rule in State, formation of new States, industrial policy and imports.
(ii) Once the policy is made by the Cabinet, the Ministers concerned carry it out either by administrative action or by drafting a Bill and piloting it through the Legislature.
(iii) It co-ordinates the working of various departments for the smooth implementation of policy.
Question 4: Discuss the role of cabinet in financial matters.
Answer: Control of Finance:
(i) The Cabinet is responsible for the expenditure of the government, for presenting the demand for grants and also for raising necessary income by various means including taxation.
(ii) The Finance Minister after thorough discussion and with the co-operation of other Ministers, prepares the budget for the coming financial year.
(iii) It is the responsibility of the Finance Minister to present the budget in its final shape before the Lok Sabha.
Question 5: What is the difference between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet in the Central Executive?
Answer: (i) The Council of Ministers consists of all categories of Ministers. On the other hand the cabinet is a smaller group consisting of some 25 senior Ministers.
(ii) In the day to day working of the Government the Council of Ministers as a whole rarely meets. The Cabinet on the other hand meet as frequently as possible.
(iii) The Council of Ministers as a whole rarely meets, it is the Cabinet Ministers who are consulted by the Prime Minister for information and advice which he needs. The Cabinet is an inner body within the Council of Ministers and exercises all powers on its behalf.
Long Questions
Question 1: Mention the various categories of Ministers.
Answer: There are three categories of Ministers:
(i) Cabinet Ministers: They are the senior and experienced Ministers, usually influential leaders as well. Each Cabinet Minister is in charge of one or more Government Ministries or Departments for example, Finance, Foreign Affairs, Home, Education, etc.
(ii) Ministers of State: They are generally junior colleagues of the Cabinet Ministers and are mostly fresh entrants still learning the art of governance. However, experienced and influential leaders are also appointed as Ministers of State. They also answer questions in the Parliament on behalf of the Minister or on their own behalf.
(iii) Deputy Ministers: They are junior-most Ministers and are attached to such ministries where the work load is very heavy. They assist the Senior Ministers in charge of particular department. They answer the questions in the Parliament on behalf of the Ministers.
Question 2: Discuss the salient features of Cabinet system.
Answer: Some of the significant features of the Cabinet system in India are as follows:
(i) Exclusion of the President: Though all the executive actions are taken in the name of the President, yet the real power and responsibility in this regard is that of the council of Ministers.
(ii) Leadership of the Prime Minister: Prime Minister is the leader of the Cabinet and the
whole Council of Ministers. He picks-up the members of the Council of Ministers and distributes portfolios among them. The Prime Minister conducts the meetings and preceding of the Cabinet and presides over such meetings. The moment the Prime Minister resigns on political grounds the whole Council of Ministers is automatically dissolved.
(iii) Unity or Solidarity of the Cabinet: Since the whole Council of Ministers usually belong to one political party and has same objectives and ideals before it and their common leader is Prime Minister, they have to act as their single unit. At the meeting of the Cabinet the ministers express their views freely and may disagree with the majority.
(iv) Collective Responsibility: The Council of Ministers is a team and the Prime Minister is its captain. The principle of collective responsibility also implies that the Ministers are answerable for all decisions taken by the Cabinet. They cannot publicly criticize or show disagreement with the Cabinet decisions. If they cannot defend these decisions they have to resign or are liable to dismissal.
(v) Individual Responsibility: There is no provision in the Constitution for the individual responsibility of the Ministers. However, it is equally important. The principle of individual responsibility implies that each Minister is responsible for his personal conduct, departmental
lapses and departure from the official policy. Under the circumstances arising out of these reasons, the Minister concerned, has to resign.
Question 3: What are the Legislative functions performed by the Cabinet?
Answer: The Cabinet plays a pivotal role in the Government. It has a wide range of powers and shoulder responsibilities covering executive, legislative and financial field.
Legislative Functions: In the Parliamentary system the Cabinet has an important role in the field of legislation. It is regarded as an instrument which links executive wing of Government to the legislative. It performs the following legislative functions:
(i) The Cabinet guides the Parliament for action.
(ii) It prepares the legislative programme of the Parliament.
(iii) It prepares the drafts of Bills and initiates them in the Parliament.
(iv) It fixes dates for holding the sessions of Parliament.
(v) It recommends to the President the promulgation of ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
(vi) It can move Constitutional Amendments.
(vii) It decides the dissolution of the Parliament.
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