Free Reasoning Online practice Tests

Free Online Reasoning test Containing Questions on cube

2012-11-25T17:04:00.005-08:00

Free Online Reasoning test Containing Questions on cube
Logical reasoning questions and answers on cube

A solid cube of each side 10 cm, has been painted red, blue and black on pairs of opposite faces. It is then cut into cubical blocks of each side 2 cm. Answer the following questions.

(a) How many cubes have no face painted?

(a) 12

(b) 10

(d) 14

(e) 27

Ans. (E)

(b) How many cubes have only one face painted?

(a) 54

(b) 36

(d) 12

(e) 18

Ans. (A)

(a) 18

(b) 24

(d) 25

(e) 8

Ans. (C)

(d) How many cubes have three faces painted?

(a) 0

(b) 8

(d) 10

(e) 9

Ans. (B)

(e) How many cubes have three faces painted with different colours?

(a) 0

(b) 4

(d) 12

(e) 16

Ans. (D)

(f) How many cubes have two faces painted red and black and all other faces unpainted?

(a) 36

(b) 24

(d) 8

(e) 0

Ans. (C)

(g) How many cubes have only one face painted red and all other faces unpainted?

(a) 18

(b) 27

(d) 36

(e) 12

Ans. (A)

(h) How many cubes have two faces black?

(a) 27

(b) 9

(d) 1

(e) 0

Ans. (E)

(i) How many cubes have one face painted blue and one face painted red?

(a) 18

(b) 12

(d) 9

(e) 0

Ans. (B)

(j) How many cubes are there in all?

(a) 250

(b) 240

(d) 200

(e) 64

Ans. (C)

Practice reasoning Questions Set For RRB Exam

2012-11-12T15:57:00.001-08:00

Practice reasoning Questions Set For RRB Exam

RRB Solved Sample Question Paper of Reasoning
RRB sample test Questions

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet’?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Ans. (4)

2. D is sister of F, M is brother of F. K is brother of D and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?

(1) Son

(2) Daughter

(3) Son or daughter

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

3. The positions of how many digits in the number 839614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Ans. (1)

4. In a certain bode ‘STAGE’ is written as ‘4@©9’ and ‘EARN’ is written as 9©87. How is ‘NEST’ written in that code?

(1) 497@

(2) 794@

(3) @©79

(4) 79@©

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

5. In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code

(1) DQBERSH

(2) FSDCTUJ

(3) DQBETUJ

(4) FSDCRSH

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

Q(6-10 )In following questions some symbols have been used to indicate relationship between elements as given below

‘P© Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than or equal to Q

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion( ss/are definitely’ true?

6. Statements:

R%T, T © K, K $ M, M @ V

Conclusions: I. M © T

II. R©K

III. K $ V

(1) None is true

(2) Only I and II are true

(3) Only II and III are true

(4) Only I and III are true

(5) All I, II and III are true

Ans. (3)

7. Statements:

W $ N, N © R, R @ K, K % F

Conclusions: I. F * R

II. R $ W

III.N © K

(1) None is true

(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only III is true

(5) Only I and III are true

Ans. (1)

8. Statements:

F @ M, M % W, W $ R, R © V

Conclusions: I. V $ M

II. F $ W

III. R © F

(1) None is true

(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only III is true

(5) Only I and III are true

Ans. (1)

9. Statements:

B $ D, D@ M, M % K, K©R

Conclusions: I. R $ M

II. K @ D

III. B $ M

(1) Only I and II are true

(2) Only I and III are true

(3) Only II and III are true

(4) All I, II and III are true

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

10. Statements:

N @ W, W * K, K ©V, V $ F

Conclusions: I. K * N

II. K©N

III. F©W

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true

(3) Only III is true

(4) Only either I or II is true

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

Directions (11—15) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S. T, V. W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. S is second to the right of V who is third to the right of T. Q is second to the left of T and fourth to the right of Z.W is third to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of T.

11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which Is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) ZRV

(2) SPQ

(3) VZP

(4) TWR

(5) QWT

Ans. (5)

12. Who is to the immediate left of W?

(1) Q

(2) T

(3) S

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

13. Who Is Second to the left of R?

(1) T

(2) Q

(3) W

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

14. Who is fourth to the left of P?

(1) R

(2) Z

(3) W

(5) Data inadequate

Ans. (4)

15. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?

(1) SQ

(2) TW

(3) ZV

(4) PS

(5) QW

Ans. (2)

16. Statements:

All dogs are birds.

Some birds are trees.

No house is tree.

Conclusions:

I. Some houses are dogs.

II. Some birds are dogs.

III. Some trees are dogs.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only III follows

(3) Only II follows

(4) Only II and III follow

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

17. Statements:

All goats are tigers.

Some tigers are horses.

All horses are jackals.

Conclusions:

I. Some jackals are tigers.

II. Some jackals are goats.

III. Some horses are goats.

(1) None follows

(2) Only I follows

(3) Only I and II follow

(4) Only II and III follow

(5) All follow

Ans. (2)

18. Statements:

Some pens are tables.

All tables are inks.

Some inks are apples.

Conclusions:

I. Some apples are pens.

H. Some apples are tables.

Ill. Some inks are pens.

(1) None follows

(2) Only I follows

(3) Only II follows

(4) Only III follows

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

19. Statements:

All fruits are vegetables.

All pens are vegetables.

All vegetables are rains.

Conclusions:

I. All fruits are rains.

II. All pens are rains.

III. Some rains are vegetables.

(1) None follows

(2) Only I and II follow

(3) Only II and III follow

(4) Only I and III follow

(5) All follow

Ans. (5)

20. Statements:

Some flowers are skies.

Some skies are room.

Some rooms are windows.

Conclusions:

I. Some windows are skies.

II. Some rooms are flowers.

III. No sky is window.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only either I or II follows

(3) Only either II or III follows

(4) Only either I or III follows

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

Critical ReCritical Reasoning test Management Aptitude test MAT Questions

2011-08-26T08:22:00.000-07:00

Critical Reasoning test Management Aptitude test MAT Questions For Free
Free Exam Questions based on previous MAT Questions

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: In each of the following questions, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions. Mark the answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows;
2. if only conclusion II follows;
3. if either I or II follows; and
4. if neither! nor II follows.

1. Statement: Morning walks are good for health.

Conclusions: I. All healthy people go for morning walks.
II. Evening walks are harmful.
Ans. (4)

2. Statement: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it.

Conclusions: I. Your life will b dull if you don’t face a problem.
II. To escape from problems, you should always have some solutions with you.
Ans. (4)

3. Statement: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.

Conclusions: I. Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity.
II. People cannot eat vegetables.
Ans. (4)

4. Statement: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.

Conclusions: I. Political freedom and democracy. go hand in hand.
II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy.
Ans. (2)

5. Statement: Parents are prepared to pay any price for an elite education to their children.

Conclusions: I. All parents these days are very well off.
II. Parents have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good schooling.
Ans. (2)

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: A statement is followed by two arguments I and ii. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Mark answer as

1. if only argument I is strong;
2. if only argument Ills strong;
3. if either 1 or II is strong; and
4. if neither I nor Ii is strong.

6. Statement: Should telecasting feature films be stopped?

Arguments: 1. Yes. Young children arc misguided by the feature films
11. No. This is the only way to educate the masses.
Ans. (2)

7. Statement: Should school education be made free in India?

Arguments: I. Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II. No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
Ans. (1)

8. Statement: Should India stop missile development?

Arguments: I. Yes, The U.S.A. desires so.
II. No. The nation must always remain up-to-date in its defense preparedness.
Ans. (2)

9. Statement: Should we scrap the ‘Public Distribution System’ in India?

Arguments: I. Yes, Protectivism is over, everyone must get the bread on his/her own.
11. No. The poor do not get any benefit because of corruption.
Ans. (1)

10. Statement: Can pollution be controlled?

Arguments: I. Yes, if everyone realises the hazard it may create and cooperates to get rid of it, pollution may be controlled.
II. No. The crowded highways, factories and industries and an ever growing population eager to acquire more and more land for constructing houses are beyond control.
Ans. (4)

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: A statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and 111. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true. Decide which course(s) of action logically follow(s) for pursuing from the given options marked (1), (2), (‘3,) and (4,).

11. Statement: In one of the worst accidents in railway level crossing fifty people died when a bus carrying them collided on to a running train.

Courses of action: I, The train driver should immediately be suspended.
II. The driver of the bus should be tried in court for negligence on his part.
III. The railway authority should be asked to man all its level crossings.
1. None follows
2. Only and II follow
3. Only III follows
4. Only II and III follow
Ans. (3)

12. Statement: There was a spurt in criminal activities in the city during the recent
festival season.
Courses of action: I. The police should immediately investigate into the causes of this
increase.
II. In future the police should take adequate precaution to avoid
recurrence of such situation during the festival season.
III. The known criminals should be arrested before any such season.
1. None follows
2. Only I and II follow
3. Only II and III follow
4. All follow
Ans. (2)

13. Statement: A mass mortality of shrimps in ponds on the entire Andhra coast has recently been reported due to the presence of a virus.

Courses of action:
I. The Water of the ponds affected should immediately be treated for identifying the nature of the virus.
II. The catching of shrimps from the ponds should temporarily be stopped.
III. The fishermen should be asked to watch for the onset of such phenomenon in nature.
1. Only I follows
2. Only I and II follow
3. All follow
4. Only II and III follow
Ans. (2)

14. Statement: The world will have to feed more than 10 billion people in the next century of whom half will be in Asia and will eat rice as their staple.

Courses of Action
I. More funds should immediately be of action: allocated for rice research to help ensure adequate supplies.
II. The people in Asia should be encouraged to change their food habit.
III. Rice should be grown in countries outside Asia to meet the demand.
1. Only I and 11 follow
2. Only II and III follow
3. All follow
4. None follows
Ans. (1)

15. Statement: If the faculty members also join the strike, there is going to be a serious
problem.

Courses of Action:
I. The faculty members should be persuaded not to go on strike.
II. Those faculty members who join the strike should be suspended.
III. The management should not worry about such small things.
1. None follows
2. Only I follows
3. Only I and 11 follow
4. Only II and III follow
Ans. (2)

DIRECTIONS for question 16 to 19: Study the information given below answer these questions.

There are four friends A, B, C, D. One of them is a cricketer and studies Chemistry and Biology. A and B play football. Both football players study Maths. D is a boxer. One football player also studies Physics. The boxer studies Maths and Accounts. All the friends study two subjects each and play one game each.

16. Who is the cricketer?
l. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Ans. (3)

17. Who studies Accounts and plays football?
1. A alone
2. B alone
3. D
4. A or B
Ans. (4)

18. Who studies Physics?
1. A or B
2. A alone
3. B alone
4. D
Ans. (1)

19. How many games are played and subjects studied by the four friends?
1. 1 game and 4 subjects
2. 2 games and 3 subjects
3. 3 games and 4 subjects
4. 3 games and 5 subjects
Ans. (4)

DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 24: A statement is followed by three assumptions marked I, II, III. Check whether these assumptions are implicit in the statement or not. Possible combinations of assumptions are given against option (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the appropriate one.

20. Statement: “Buy pure and natural honey of company X” - an advertisement in
a newspaper.

Assumptions: I. Artificial honey can be pre pared.
II. People do not mind paying more for pure and, natural honey.
III. No other company supplies pure honey.
1. Only 1 is implicit
2. Only and II are implicit
3. Only I and Ill are implicit
4. All are implicit
Ans. (1)

21. Statement: “Fly with us and experience the pleasure of flying” an advertisement by an airlines.

Assumptions: I. More passengers may be attracted to travel by the airline after reading the advertisement.
II. People generally may prefer an enjoyable flight.
III. Other airlines may not be of faring the same facilities.
1. None is implicit
2. Only I is implicit
3. Only II is implicit
4. None of these
Ans. (4)

22. Statement: “We do not want you to see our product in newspaper, visit bur shop
to get a full view” an advertisement.

Assumptions: I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name
in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
1. None is implicit
2. Only I and II are implicit
3. Only II and III are implicit
4. All are implicit
Ans. (3)

23. Statement: “Use Riya cold cream for fair complexion” — an advertisement.

Assumptions: I. People like to use cream for fair complexion.
II. People are easily fooled.
III. People respond to advertisements.
1. Only I is implicit
2. Only I and II are implicit
3. Only III implicit
4. Only I and III are implicit
Ans. (4)

24. Statement: “Smoking is injurious to health” - a warning printed on the cigarette
packets.

Assumptions: I. People read printed matter on a cigarette packet.
II. People take careful note of a warning.
III. Non-smoking promotes health.
I. Only I is implicit
2. Only I and II are implicit
3. Only III implicit
4. All are implicit
Ans. (1)

25. In a certain code, ‘247’ means ‘spread red carpet’; ‘236’ means ‘dust one carpet’ and ‘234’ means ‘one red carpet’. Which digit in that code means
‘dust’?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6
Ans. (4)

Free Online Practice paper Reasoning for BHEL Engineer Supervisor

2011-08-05T23:46:00.000-07:00

Free Online Practice paper Reasoning for BHEL Engineer Supervisor
BHEL Engineer Supervisor model test paper Reasoning
Reasoning Solved objective questions with answers for BHEL Jobs
1. Pointing to a photograph, Anil said, “She is the daughter of my grand father’s only son.” How is Anil related to the girl in the photograph?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)

2. Rajan is the brother of Sachin and Manik is the father of Rajan. Jagat is the brother of Priya and Priya is the daughter of Sachin. Who is the uncle of Jagat?
(a) Rajan
(b) Sachin
(c) Manik
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)

3. A is the father of C and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A. If C is the sister of D, how is B related to E?
(a) Daughter
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Husband
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)

4. If (i) P + Q means P ‘is the husband of’ Q
(ii) P ÷ Q means P ‘is the sister of’ Q (iii) P x Q means P ‘is the son of’ Q, then which of the following shows that P is the daughter of Q?
(a) R x Q - P
(b) Q + R + P
(c) S x Q + R ÷ P
(d) P ÷ S x Q
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)

Directions (Questions 5 to 10): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below each question.

5. (a) Elephant
(b) Cat
(c) Mosquito
(d) Tiger
(e) Whale
(i) (a), (c), (e), (d), (b)
(ii) (b), (e), (a), (d), (c)
(iii) (c), (b), (d), (a), (e)
(iv) (e), (c), (a), (b), (d)
Ans. (iii)

6. (a) Protect
(b) Pressure
(c) Relief
(d) Rain
(e) Flood
(i) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e)
(ii) (b), (d), (e), (a), (c)
(iii) (b), (e), (d), (a), (c)
(iv) (c), (b), (d), (e), (a)
Ans. (ii)

7. (a) Punishment
(b) Prison
(c) Arrest
(d) Crime
(e) Jugement
(i) (e), (a), (b), (c), (d)
(ii) (d), (c), (e), (b), (a)
(iii) (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)
(iv) (b), (c), (a), (d), (e)
Ans. (iii)

8. (a) Rainbow
(b) Rain
(c) Sun
(d) Happy
(e) Child
(i) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
(ii) (b), (c), (a), (e), (d)
(iii) (d), (b), (c), (e), (a)
(iv) (d), (e), (a), (b), (c)
Ans. (ii)

9. (a) Key
(b) Door
(c) Lock
(d) Room
(e) Switch on
(i) (e), (a), (b), (d), (c)
(ii) (d), (b), (a), (e), (c)
(iii) (a), (b), (c), (e), (d)
(iv) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
Ans. (iv)

10. (a) Windows
(b) Walls
(c) Floor
(d) Foundation
(e) Roof
(f) Room
(i) (d), (e), (c), (b), (a), (f)
(ii) (d), (c), (e), (f), (b), (a)
(iii) (d), (b), (a), (e), (c), (f)
(iv) (d), (a), (e), (f), (b), (c)
Ans. (iii)

11. A pen always has
(a) Tube
(b) Cap
(c) Holder
(d) Ink
(e) Nib
Ans. (e)

12. A book always has
(a) Chapters
(b) Pages
(c) Contents
(d) Pictures
(e) Illustrations
Ans. (b)

Directions (Questions 13 to 17): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) P, Q, R, S, T and U are traveling in a bus.
(ii) There are two reporters, two technicians, one photographer and one writer in the group.
(iii) The photographer P is married to S who is a reporter.
(iv) The writer is married to Q who is of the same profession as that of U.
(v) There are two married couples and nobody in the group has same profession.
(vi) U is brother of R.

13. Which of the following is a pair of technicians?
(a) RS
(b) SU
(c) PT
(d) QU
Ans. (d)

14. Which of the following is a pair of reporters?
(a) PQ
(b) RT
(c) ST
(d) SU
Ans. (c)

15. How is R related to U?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister
(c) Uncle
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (d)

16. Which of the following pair is a couple?
(a) PQ
(b) QR
(c) QS
(d) PT
Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following is a pair of husbands?
(a) PQ
(b) PR
(c) QS
(d) Can’t be determined
Ans. (d)

Fill the blanks to complete the series

18. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9... 12, 21.
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
(e) 15
Ans. (d)

19. 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26,…..
(a) 35
(b) 32
(c) 30
(d) 28
(e) 25
Ans. (a)

20. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30,………
(a) 32
(b) 60
(c) 58
(d) 56
(e) 62
Ans. (b)

reasoning Sample Questions for AFCAT exam

2011-08-05T22:19:00.001-07:00

reasoning Sample Questions for AFCAT exam
afcat papers Model test paper reasoning
Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) Reasoning Model Solved Questions
1. Pointing to a man, a1woman said: “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother
(b) Daughter
(c) Sister
(d) Grand Mother
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)

2. Pointing to a man in the photograph, Ashmita said, “His mother’s only daughter is my mother.” How is Ashmita related to that man?
(a) Nephew
(b) Sister
(c) Wife
(d) Niece
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (d)

3. If Kunal says, “John’s mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is Kunal related to John?
(a) Brother
(b) Father
(c) Grand Father
(d) Can’t be found
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)

Questions 4 to 6.
(i) A is the son of B
(ii) C, who is the sister of B has a son D and a daughter E
(iii) F is the maternal uncle of D.

4. How is A related to D?
(a) Cousin
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)

5. How is E related to F?
(a) Sister
(b) Niece
(c) Niece
(d) Wife
(e) Mother
Ans. (c)

6. How many nephews does F have?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Ans. (c)

7. How many numbers from 1 to 50 are there each of which is not only exactly divisible by 4 but also contain 4 as a digit in it?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) 3
Ans. (a)

8. In a chess tournament each of the seven players will play every other player exactly once. How many matches will be played during the tournament?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 14
(d) 13
(e) 18
Ans. (b)

9. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with?
(a) 0
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 7
(e) 17
Ans. (c)

Directions (Questions 10 and 11): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
The sum of the income of A and B is more than of C and D together. The sum of the income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D.

10. Whose income is the highest?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Can’t say
Ans. (b)

11. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A earns more than B
(b) B earns more than D
(c) C earns more than D
(d) B earns more than C
(e) All are correct
Ans. (a)

Directions (Questions 12 to 16): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below each question.

12. (a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Universe
(c) Tirupathi
(d) World
(e) India
(i) (a), (e), (b), (c), (d)
(ii) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(iii) (c), (a), (e), (d), (b)
(iv) (e), (d), (b), (a), (c)
Ans. (iii)

13. (a) District
(b) Village
(c) State
(d) Town
(e) Country
(i) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
(ii) (b), (c), (d), (a), (e)
(iii) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(iv) (c), (b), (a), (d), (e)
Ans. (iii)

14. (a) Income
(b) Status
(c) Education
(d) Well-being
(e) Job
(i) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)
(ii) (a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
(iii) (c), (a), (e), (b), (d)
(iv) (c), (e), (a), (b), (d)
Ans. (iv)

15. (a) Curd
(b) Grass
(c) Butter
(d) Milk
(e) Cow
(i) (e), (b), (d), (a), (c)
(ii) (e), (b), (c), (d), (a)
(iii) (d), (b), (e), (c), (a)
(iv) (b), (e), (d), (c), (a)
Ans. (ii)

16. (a) Child
(b) Job
(c) Marriage
(d) Infant
(e) Education
(i) (a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
(ii) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(iii) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e)
(iv) (d), (a), (e), (b), (c)
Ans. (iv)

Directions(Q 17-18): Choose the best alternative as the answer.

2. A disease always has
(a) Cure
(b) Medicine
(c) Cause
(d) Germs
(e) Patient
Ans. (c)
3. A man has always
(a) Teeth
(b) Feet
(c) Eyes
(d) Hands
(e) Heart
Ans. (e)

Directions (Questions 19 to 23): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) There is a group of five persons—A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist one is an industrialist and one is an advocate.
(iii) Three of them—A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them—B and the journalist prefer coffee to tea.
(iv) The industrialist and D and A are friends to one another but two of these prefer coffee to tea.
(v) The horticulturist is C’s brother.

19. Who is a horticulturist?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans. (a)

20. Who is an industrialist?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) B
(d) D
(e) A
Ans. (c)

21. Which of the following groups includes a person who likes tea but is not an advocate?
(a) ACE
(b) DE
(c) BCE
(d) BD
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)

22. Who is a physicist?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
(e) B
Ans. (d)

23. Which of the above statements is superfluous?
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii)
(d) (v)
(e)None
Ans. (e)

Directions (Q. 24-25): In the following questions which one is different from rest of the three?

24. (a) Advice
(b) Counsel
(c) Direct
(d) Suggest
Ans. (c)

25. (a) Mansion
(b) Villa
(c) Garage
(d) Apartment
Ans. (a)

Reasoning Solved objective test for AFCAT

2011-08-04T07:29:00.000-07:00

Reasoning Solved objective test for AFCAT
AFCAT Reasoning Solved Sample Question Paper
afcat papers Model test paper reasoning Practice test
1. Moon: Satellite: Earth:?
(a) Sun
(b) Planet
(c) Solar system
(d) Asteroid
Ans. (b)

Choose one number which is similar to the numbers in the given set of three numbers.

2. Given set: 363, 489, 579
(a) 562
(b) 471
(c) 382
(d) 281
Ans. (b)

3. Given set: 992, 733, 845
(a) 114
(b) 326
(c) 425
(d) 947
Ans. (c)

4. Given set: 282, 354, 444
(a) 453
(b) 417
(c) 336
(d) 255
Ans. (a)

5. Given set: 134, 246, 358
(a) 372
(b) 460
(c) 572
(d) 684
Ans. (b)

6. Given set: 235, 347, 527
(a) 935
(b) 436
(c) 835
(d) 909
(d)

7. Mahesh walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?
(a) 20m
(b) 30m
(c) 50m
(d) 60m
(e) 75m
Ans. (d)

8. A rat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 and again turns to left, runs 5 m and turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now which direction is the rat facing?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) North-east
(e) South
Ans. (c)

9. A watch reads 9:00 o’clock and I found that the hour hand is pointing South-east. In what direction, the minute hand of my watch is at that time?
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) North-east
(e) South-west
Ans. (e)

10. One evening before sunset two friends Sumit and Mohit were talking to each other face to face. If Mohit’s shadow was exactly to his right side, which direction was nmit facing?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) West
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)

11. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards North-east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1:30 p.m?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
(e) North-west
Ans. (c)

12. While facing East, Rohit turns to his left and walks 10 meters, then he turns left and walks 10 meters. Now he turns 450 towards his right and goes straight to cover 25 meters. In which direction is he from his starting point?
(a) North-east
(b) North-west
(c) South-west
(d) South-east
(e) East
Ans. (b)

Complete the series.
13. 8, 9, 11, 14, 18, 23…
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 32
(d) 33
(e) 29
Ans. (e)

14. 54, 165, 276, 387,.
(a) 498
(b) 496
(c) 497
(d) 501
(e) 509
Ans. (a)

15. 11, 23, 48, 99, 202...
(a) 409
(b) 408
(c) 407
(d) 406
(e) 405
Ans. (a)

16. 5, 7, 10, 15, 22,……..
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 38
(d) 34
(e) 35
Ans. (e)

17. 2, 10, 26, 50, 82,…….
(a) 110
(b) 112
(c) 120
(d) 122
(e) 126
Ans. (d)

18. 7, 15, 29, 59, 117,…….
(a) 230
(b) 231
(c) 233
(d) 234
(e) 235
Ans. (e)

19. 10, 19, 40, 77, 158,…..
(a) 311
(b) 307
(c) 301
(d) 299
(e) 297
Ans. (a)

20. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210,….
(a) 240
(b) 290
(c) 336
(d) 504
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)

Practice paper For SSC SI And ASI jobs Exam General Intelligence and Reasoning

2011-08-04T07:24:00.000-07:00

Practice paper For SSC SI And ASI jobs Exam General Intelligence and Reasoning
SSC Sub inspector /ASI Practice Paper
SSC inspector, SI, intelligence officers sample paper.
Complete the series.

1. 13, 24, 46, 90, 178
(a) 354
(b) 266
(c) 364
(d) 344
(e) 314
Ans. (a)

2. 11,12,20,47
(a) 91
(b) 101
(c) 111
(d) 121
(e) 124
Ans. (c)

3. 23, 48, 99, 203, 413,
(a) 927
(b) 837
(c) 937
(d) 437
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)

4. 2, 12, 30, 56, 90,
(a) 110
(b) 121
(c) 132
(d) 143
(e) 156
Ans. (c)

5. 98, 72, 14,
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4
(e) 2
Ans. (d)

6. Suresh walks 20 meters North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he gains turns left and walks 15 m. In which directions and how many meters away is he from his original position?
(a) 15 m; West
(b) 30 m; East
(c) 30 m; West
(d) 45 m; East
(e) 30 m; South
Ans. (d)

7. From his house, Lokesh went 15 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 10 kms. Then, he turned South and covered 5 kms. Finally turning to East, he covered 10kms. In which direction is he from his house?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
(e) North-east
Ans. (c)

8. Ankit, Bansi, Rohan and Sohan are friends. They play cards. Ankit and Bansi become partners. Sohan faces North. If Ankit faces towards West, then who faces towards South?
(a) Bansi
(b) Rohan
(c) Sohan
(d) Data is inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)

9. After walking 6 kms, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 kms, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 kms. In the end, I was moving towards the North. From which direction did I start my journey?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
(e) South-east
Ans. (b)

10. In a certain code language ‘526’ means ‘sky is blue’; ‘24’ means ‘blue colour’ and ‘436’ means ‘colour is fun’. Which of the following digit stands for ‘fun’?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans. (c)

11. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and ‘9a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the following means ‘Enmity’ in that language?
(a) 3a
(b) 7c
(c) 8b
(d) 9a
Ans. (c)

12. If ‘tee see pee’ means ‘Drink fruit juice’; ‘see kee lee’ means ‘Juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘He is intelligent’, which word in that language means ‘sweet’?
(a) see
(b) kee
(c) lee
(d) pee
Ans. (b)

13. If rat is called dog, dog is called mangoose, mangoose is called lion, lion is called snake and snake is called an elephant, which is reared as pet?
(a) Rat
(b) Dog
(c) Mongoose
(d) Lion
Ans. (c)

14. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you decode
ACCEPT?
(a) 455978
(b) 547978
(c) 554978
(d) 735961
Ans. (a)

15. If PALAM could be given the code number 43, what code number can be given to SANTACRUZ?
(a) 75
(b) 85
(c) 120
(d) 123
Ans. (d)

16. If in a certain language CARROM is coded as BZQQNL, which word will be coded as HOUSE?
(a) IPVTF
(b) GNTRD
(c) INVRF
(d) GPTID
Ans. (a)

17. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded
as GBNPVT
(a) FAMOSU
(b) FAMOUS
(c) FASOUM
(d) FOSAUM
Ans. (b)

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

18. ACE : FHJ : OQS:?
(a) PRT
(b) RTU
(c)TVX
(d) UWY
Ans. (c)

19. ESIK: FILO :: FHJL:?
(a) GJMP
(b) GMJP
(c) JGMP
(d) JGPM
Ans. (a)
Choose the set of numbers from the four alternatives which is similar to the given set.

20. Given set: (6, 13, 22)
(a) (6, 13, 27)
(b) (10, 16, 28)
(c) (11, 18, 27)
(d) (13, 19, 27)
Ans. (c)

21. Given set: (9, 15, 21)
(a) (10, 14, 16)
(b) (7, 21, 28)
(c) (5, 10, 25)
(d) (4, 8, 12)
Ans. (d)

choose a word from the given alternatives that belongs to the same group of three related words.

22. Violet: Orange : Yellow :
(a) Purple
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Pink
Ans. (b)

23. Basic : Pascal: Fortran
(a) Cyclotrone
(b) Computer
(c) Cobol
(d)Bhopal
Ans. (c)

24. In a certain code language,
(A) ‘pit na som’ means ‘bring me water’;
(B) ‘na jo tod’ means ‘water is life’;
(C) ‘jo un kot’ means ‘Life and death’.
Which of the following represents ‘is’ in that language?
(a) jo
(b) na
(c) tod
(d) lin
Ans. (c)

25. In a certain code language, ‘324’ means ‘Light is bright’, ‘629’ means ‘Girl is beautiful’ and ‘4758’ means ‘I prefer bright cloths’. Which digit means ‘Light’ in that language?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(d) 7
(c) 4
Ans. (a)

Reasoning Objective Questions For BHEL Engineers Jobs exam Prepare For BHEL

2011-08-04T00:18:00.000-07:00

Reasoning Objective Questions For BHEL Engineers Jobs exam
BHEL Engineer Trainee Exam preperation test
BHEL Engineer Trainees Sample Questions reasoning
Prepare For BHEL
1. If 3 + 2 = 7, 4 + 3 = 13, then 6 + 5 = ?
(a) 17
(b) 18
(c) 15
(d) 16
(e) 20
Ans. (d)

Directions: In each of the following questions, a group of letters is given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Below are given four alternatives containing combinations of these numbers. Select that combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly form a meaningful word.
2. T L P N A E
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
(b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1, 6
(c) 4, 5, 3, 6, 2, 1
(d) 4, 6, 1, 3, 5, 2
Ans. (a)
3. R M N B U E
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 2, 6, 3, 4, 1, 5
(b) 4, 6, 3, 2, 1, 5
(c) 3, 5, 2, 4, 6, 1
(d) 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3
Ans. (c)
4. E H R A S P
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 5, 2, 4, 6, 1, 3
(b) 6, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
(c) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5
Ans. (b)

5. E O C D L I
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
(b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 1
(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 6, 5, 1
Ans. (d)

6. R T E O D P
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2
(b) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5
(c) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2
(d) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Ans. (c)

Directions: Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

7. 1. Select
2. Seldom
3. Send
4. Selfish
5. Seller
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
(b) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
(d) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(c) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
Ans. (c)
8. 1. Credential
2. Creed
3. Crease
4. Cremate
5. Credible
(a) 1, 2 , 3, 4, 5
(b) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
(c) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
Ans. (d)

9. 1. Brook
2. Bandit
3. Boisterous
4. Baffle
5. Bright
(a) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
(c) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
Ans. (d)

Directions : Find which one word cannot be made from the letters of the given word.
10. CARPENTER
(a) NECTAR
(b) CARPET
(c) PAINTER
(d) REPENT
Ans. (d)

11. CHOREOGRAPHY
(a) OGRE
(b) PHOTOGRAPHY
(c) GRAPH
(d) GEOGRAPHY
Ans. (b)
Directions: Choose one word which can be formed from the letters of the word given.
12. CHOCOLATE
(a) TELL
(b) HEALTH
(c) LATE
(d) COOLER
Ans. (c)

13. How many independent words can ‘HEARTLESS’ be divided into without
changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Ans. (b)

14. From the word ‘LAPROSCOPY’, how many independent words can be made without
changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans. (b)

15. Which letter in the word ‘SELFRIGHTEOUSNESS’ does not change its position when the letters are reversed?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) H
(d) T
Ans. (d)
16. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LANGUISH’ which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) Nil
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
Ans. (c)
17. How many pairs of letters in the word ‘BRIGHTER’ have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (c)
18. lf the positions of the first and sixth letters of the word ‘BENEFICIAL’ are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and seventh letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from right end after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) E
(c) F
(d) N
Ans. (d)
19. If the last four letters of’ the word ‘CONCENTRATION’ are written in reverse order followed by next two in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and then followed by the first four in the reverse order, counting from the end which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement?
(a) N
(b) T
(c) E
(d) R
Ans. (c)
20. Select from the given diagrams, the one that illustrates the relationship among the given three classes: Judge, Thief Criminal.

Ans. (b)

Verbal Reasoning Dissimilar in Group Questions solved paper

2011-07-15T05:40:00.000-07:00

Verbal Reasoning Dissimilar in Group Questions solved paper
Fully solved Verbal Reasoning questions and answers
Verbal Reasoning Papers for For UPSC, Bank PO, CLERICAL

1. WORD CLASSIFICATION
Directions: In the following questions 1—11, four of the following five are alike a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. (a) Mist
(b) Cloud
(c) Rain
(d) Vapour
(e) Fog
Ans. (c)
2. (a) He-goat
(b) He-buffalo
(c) Cow
(d) Bull
(e) Horse
Ans. (c)
3. (a) Butter
(b) Curd
(c) Ice-cream
(d) Cheese
(e) Juice
Ans. (e)
4. (a) Cave
(b) Shanty
(c) Hut
(d) Nest
(e) Palace
Ans. (a)
5. (a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Orange
(e) Pink
Ans. (e)
6. (a) Court
(b) Rink
(c) Stadium
(d) Field
(e) Farm
Ans. (e)
7. (a) Haryana
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamilnadu
(e) Maharashtra
Ans. (a)
8. (a) Apple
(b) Orange
(c)Carrot
(d) Guava
(e) Tomato
Ans. (b)
9. (a) Carbon
(b) Copper
(c) Silver
(d) Gold
(e) Platinum
Ans. (a)
10. (a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
(e) Canada
Ans. (c)
11. (a) Actor
(b) Dancer
(c) Musician
(d) Poet
(e) Artist
Ans. (e)
II. ALPHABET CLASSIFICATION

Note: Students may take the help of the alphabets/ Numbers.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Directions: In each of the following questions, five groups of letters are given. Four of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
12. (a) JOT
(b) OUT
(c) FED
(d) DIN
(e) DOG
Ans. (b)
13. (a) DE
(b) PQ
(c) TU
(d) MO
(e) FG
Ans. (d)
14. (a) VT
(b) MO
(c) PR
(d) DF
(e) FG
Ans. (e)
15. (a) BD
(b) MP
(c) NQ
(d) HK
(e) TW
Ans. (a)
16. (a) HGF
(b) XWV
(c) NML
(d) OPQ
(e) UTS
Ans. (d)
17. (a) XW
(b) FG
(c) ML
(d) P0
(e) TS
Ans. (b)
18. (a) BCD
(b) NPR
(c) KLM
(d) RQP
(e) HGF
Ans. (b)
19. (a) KP
(b) MN
(c) HR
(d) GT
(e) EV
Ans. (c)

20. (a) BEH
(b) CFI
(c) DGJ
(d) EHL
(e) FIL
Ans. (d)
21. (a) RTW
(b) QOM
(c) 1KG
(d) 1KM
(e) BDF
Ans. (a)
22. (a) VWY
(b) QRT
(c) LMO
(d) JKL
(e) DEG
Ans. (d)
23. (a) PRT
(b) MOQ
(c) GEC
(d) TVX
(e) SUW
Ans. (c)
24. (a) EBA
(b) XUT
(c) TQP
(d) JFE
(e) YVU
Ans. (d)
25. (a) BHE
(b) DJG
(c) SYV
(d) JPM
(e) PUS
Ans. (e)

Reasoning and mental Aptitude Sample Paper

2011-06-23T16:45:00.000-07:00

Reasoning and mental Aptitude Sample Paper
Sample Papers Series REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE
Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper.

1. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but six, all pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. How many birds had he in all?
(a) 9
(b) 18
(c) 27
(d) 36
Ans. (a)

2. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly, is
(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 42
(d) 46
Ans. (b)
3. Between two ends of a bookshelf in your study are displayed five of your favorite puzzle books. If you decide to arrange these five books in every possible combination and move just one book every minute, how long would it take you to do so?
(a) One hour Two hours
(b) Two hours
(c) Three hours
(d) Four hours
Ans. (b)
4. A father is, at present, three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son. Find the age of his son.
(a) 12 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 20 years
Ans. (b)
5. If A stands for +, B stands for -, C stands for Х, then what is the value of (10 C 4) A (4 C 4) B 6?
(a) 60
(b) 56
(c) 50
(d) 20
Ans. (c)
6. If + stands for ‘division’, Х stands for ‘addition’, - stands for ‘multiplication’ and ÷ stands for ‘subtraction’, then which of the following equations is correct?
(a) 36 Х 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20
(b) 36 ÷ 6 + 3 Х 5 – 3 = 45
(c) 36 + 6 - 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 34
(d) 36 - 6 + 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 74
Ans. (d)
Directions: In each of the following questions if the interchanges are made in signs and numbers, which one of the four equations would be correct?
7. Given interchanges: Signs: - and ÷ and numbers 4 and 8
(a) 6 – 8 ÷ 4 = - 1
(b) 8 – 6 ÷ 4 = 1
(c) 4 ÷ 8 – 2 = 6
(d) 4 – 8 ÷ 6 = 2
Ans. (c)
8. Given interchanges: Signs: ÷ and + and numbers 4 and 2
(a) 4 + 2 ÷ 1 = 3/2
(b) 2 + 4 ÷ 3 = 6
(c) 4 + 2 ÷ 3 = 3
(d) 2 + 4 ÷ 5 = 8
Ans. (a)
9. Given interchanges: Signs: Х and + and numbers 2 and 8
(a) 8 Х 2 + 9 = 19
(b) 2 Х 8 + 10 = 13
(c) 2 + 8 Х 6 = 22
(d) 8 Х 2 + 6 = 19
Ans. (c)
10. Given interchanges: Signs: - and + and numbers 8 and 4
(a) 4 + 8 – 1 = 5
(b) 4 – 8 + 5 = 9
(c) 4 + 8 – 5 = 10
(d) 4 – 8 + 12 = 1
Ans. (a)

11. If 3 + 8 = 17; 5 – 2 = 23; 6 Х 2 = 72; then 8 ÷ 4 = ?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 16
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
12. If 3 Х 4 = 14; 5 Х 6 = 33; 7 Х 8 = 60, then 8 Х 9 = ?
(a) 77
(b) 89
(c) 98
(d) 79
(e) 72
Ans. (a)
13. In a class of 60, the number of girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are nine girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 23
Ans. (c)
14. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes at the second place.
(a) Music
(b) Mint
(c) Mink
(d) Murder
(e) Multiple
Ans. (b)
15. If a meaningful word can be formed by re-arranging the letters USCALA, the last letter of the word so formed is the answer. Which one is that?
(a) C
(b) S
(c) A
(d) L
(e) U
Ans. (d)
Hint : ANS: CASUAL

Reasoning Model Paper

2011-06-09T23:23:00.000-07:00

Reasoning Model Paper
Verbal Reasoning Sample Paper
1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MASTE using each letter only once in each word

(1)None

(2) One

(3)Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

‘

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1)78

(2) 48

(3) 72

(4)54

(5) 42

3. In a certain cede SAFER is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. How is FEDS written in that code ?

(1)3#©5

(2) 3@%5

(3)3#%5

(4) 3#%2

(5)None of these

4.. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is the woman related to Nirmal

(1)Wife

(2)Sister-in-law

(3)Sister

(4)Data inadequate

(5)None of these

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(1)Sweet

(2) Cake

(3)Pastry

(4) Bread.

(5) Biscuit

6. In a certain code CONFUSED is written as EMNBEFTV. How is SECLUDED written in that code

(1) RDBKEFEV

(2) KBDRCDCT

(3) KBDREFEV

(4) MDFTCDCT

(5) None of these

7. What should come next in the following letter series ?

Z XVT R P N U YW T J S Q O

(1)M

(2)K

(3)N

(4)J

(5)None of these

8. Flow many such digits are there in the number 9254716 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order

(1)None

(2) One

(3)Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

9. In a certain code language’ bring the board’ is written as ka na di pa’ and ‘white and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code ?

(l)ka

(2) pa

(3) ka or pa

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

10. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight, F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and W but not as heavy 35 K. Who among them is the third heaviest among them ?

(1) B (2)F

• (4)W

(3) None of these

Directions (Q. 11 to 16) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

Y 4 8 A @ D F 3 # R N 1 M © W

P % J 2 E 5 Z * 6 Q B 7 $ H U 9 I K

11. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement P

(1)1

(2)D

(3)Z

(4)$

(5)None of these

12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group

(1)D#A

(2)JWE

(3)562

(4) $9B

(5)RM3

13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?

(1)None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol P

(1)None

(2) One

(3)Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

15. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?

8@D #N1 W%J 5*6

(1) 7HU

(2) 7$U

(3) 7#9

(4) B$#

(5) None of these

16. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?

(1)W

(2)P

(3)6

(4)J

(5)None of these

Directions (Q. 17 to 22) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, II and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is correct.

17. Statements

All belts are rollers.

Some rollers are wheels.

All wheels are mats.

Some mats are cars.

Conclusions

I. Some mats are rollers.

II. Some mats are belts.

III. Some cars are rollers.

IV Some rollers are belts.

(1) Only I and II follow

(2) Only I, III and IV follow

(3) Only I and IV follow

(4) Only II, III and IV follow

(5) None of these

18. Statements

Some tyres are rains.

Some rains are flowers.

All flowers are jungles.

All jungles are tubes.

Conclusions

I. Some jungles are tyres.

II. Some tubes are rains.

III. Some jungles are rains.

IV. Some tubes are flowers.

(1) Only I, II and III follow

(2) Only II, III and IV follow

(3) Only I, III and IV follow

(4) All follow

(5) None of these

19. Statements

All desks are chairs.

All chairs axe tables.

All tables are boxes.

All boxes are trunks.

Conclusions

I. Some trunks are tables.

II. All chairs are boxes.

III. Some boxes are desks.

P All desks are trunks.

(1) Only I ,II and III follow

(2) Only I, II and IV follow

(3) Only II, III and IV follow

(4) All follow

(5) None of these

20. Statements

Some birds are goats.

Some goats are horses.

Some horses are lions.

Some lions are tigers.

Conclusions

I. Some tigers are goats.

II. No tiger is goat.

III. Some lions are birds.

IV No lion is bird.

(1) Only either I or II follows

(2) Only either III or IV follows

(3) Only either I or II and either III or IV follow

(4) Only I and III follow

(5) None of these

21. Statements :

All papers are bottles.

All bottles are cups.

Some cups are jugs.

Some jugs are plates.

Conclusions

I. Some plates are cups.

II. Some plates are bottles.

III. Some cups are papers.

IV Some bottles are papers. ‘

(1) Only III and IV follow

(2) Only I and II follow

(3) Only I and III follow

(4) Only II and IV follow

(5) None of these

22. Statements

All bulbs are wires.

No wire is cable.

Some cables are brushes.

Alt brushes are paints.

Conclusions

I. Some paints are cables.

II. Some wires are bulbs.

III. Some brushes are wires.

IV Some cables are bulbs.

(1) None follows

(2) Only I & II follow

(3) Only II follows

(4) Only III follows

(5) Only TV follows

Directions (Q. 23 to 28) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Letter

R DA E J M K T B U I P W H F

Digit/Symbol Code:

4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % © 7@3 9 #

Conditions

(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as +.

(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.

(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter, is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.

23. HIFMJU

(1)©7#1*9

(2) 97#l*9

(3)©7#l*©

(4) +7#1*+

(5)None of these

24. AKTRBW

(1) 3264%5 (2) 3264%3

(3) 324%65 (4) 5264%3

(5) None of these

25. EBPDRI

(1) 7%@847

(2) 7%@84$

(3)$°/o@847

(4) $%8@47

(5) None of these

26. BKAJIM

(1) %25*71 (2) 125*7%

(3) O/o25*7% (4) 15*271

(5) None of these

27. UKPDMA

(1) 52@815 (2) ©2@815

(3) ©2@81C (4) ©@2815

(5) None of these

28. METUFB

(1) %$6©#1 (2) 1$6©#1

(3) %$6©#°/o (4) l$60#%

(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 29 to 34) : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84

Step I south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84

Step II south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65

Step III south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65

Step T : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65

Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65

Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32

and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

29. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Two (4) Five

(5) None of these

30. Input: any how 49 24 far wide 34 69

Which of the following steps will be the last but one

(1) VI (2) VII

(3) V (4) VIII

(5) None of these

31. Step II of an input is: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42

Which of the following is definitely the input

(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74

(2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42

(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

32. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81

Which of the following will be step IV

(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now

(2) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now

(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12

(4) There will be no such step

(5) None of these

33. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24

Which of the following steps will be the last

(1) V (2)VI

(3) IV (4) VII

(5) None of these

34. Input: shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal.

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(1) Three

(2) Four

(3) Six

(4) Five

(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 35 to 40) : In the following questions, the symbols ©, @, $, % and * are used with following meanings as illustrated below

‘P @Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

In each question four statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely True.

35. Statements

M © D, D * K, K @ R , R * F

Conclusions

1. F©K

II. D * F

III. M © R

IV D * R

(1) None is true

(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only III is true

(5) Only IV is true

36. Statements

B%K, K$ T, T* F ,H© F

Conclusions

I B$T

II©B

III H © K

IV. F © B

(1) Only either I or II is true

(2) Only III is true

(3) Only IV is true

(4) Only III and IV are true

(5) Only either I or II are true

37. Statementj

W * B, B@ F, F © R, R $ M

Conclusions

I W*F

II. M * B

III R * B

IV. M* W

(1) Only and IV are true

(2) Only II and III are true

(3) Only I and III are true

(4) Only II and IV are true

(5) None of these

38. Statements

E@ K, K $ T’, T © N,.B % N

Conclusions

I T%E

II K©N

III. B * T

IV. B * E

(I) Only I, II and III are true

(2) Only II, III and IV are true

(3) Only I, III and IV are true

(4) All are true

(5) None of these

39. Statements -

Z $ B, B % M, M © F, F @ R

Conclusions

I Z*M

II. F * B

III R*M

IV. M @ Z

(1) Only I and II are true

(2) Only I, III and IV are true

(3) Only III and IV are true

(4) Only either I or IV and III are true

(5) None of these

40. Statements

H@T , T $ N, F © N, B%F

Conclusions

I F@H

II F©T

III:B * T

IV B % H

(1) None is true

(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only III and IV are true

(5) Only II and III are true

Answers
1 4
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 1
6 3
7 1
8 2
9 3
10 4
11 3
12 2
13 5
14 3
15 1
16 4
17 3
18 2
19 4
20 3
21 1
22 2
23 4
24 1
25 3
26 5
27 2
28 3
29 2
30 3
31 4
32 4
33 2
34 4
35 1
36 5
37 2
38 3
39 3
40 3

Reasoning practice test COAL INDIA EXAM

2011-06-09T23:22:00.000-07:00

Reasoning practice test COAL INDIA EXAM
MCQ Reasoning For COAL India jobs
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favorite subject from English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.
Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography.
R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX
T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi.
The one who likes Science studies in X Standard.
S studies in iv Standard.
W likes Sanskrit.
P does not study in R Standard.
The one who likes Geography studies in V Standard

1. In which standard does W study?
(1)VIII
(2)IX
(3)X
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

2. Which subject does P like
(l) Geography
(2) Mathematics
(3) English
(4) History
(5) None of these

3 Which subject does S like
(1) History
(2 Geography
(3) Mathematics
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

4. In which standard does P study?
(i)IV
(2) V
(3)IX
(4)X
(5) None of these

5. Which of the following combinations of student-standard- subject is correct ?
(1)T – VIII – Mathematics
(2)W – VII -Sanskrit
(3)Q – VII -Geography
(4)V – X – Science
(5)None of these

Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below

Following are the conditions for selecting Systems Manager in an organization
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate engineer in IT, Computer Science, Electronics with at least 60 percent marks.
(ii) be at least thirty years and not more than forty years as on 1.9.2009.
(iii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the written examination.
(iv) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the selection interview.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the systems department of an organisation. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions
EXCEPT—
(a) at (1) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in ME IT or Computer Science, the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(b) at (v) above, but has past qualification experience of at least five years as Deputy Systems Manager, the case is to be referred to the GM- Systems.

In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything else other than the information provided for each candidate. All these cases are given to you as on 1.9.2009. Mark answer
(1) if the candidate is to be selected.
(2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(3) if the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(4) if the case is to be referred to GM-Systems.
(5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.

6. Samir Ghosh was born on 25th May 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in BE-IT in the year 1999. Since then he is working in the systems department of an organization. He has secured 50 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview

7. Navin Prakash has secured 62 percent marks in BE-Computer Science. He has been working in the systems department of an organisation since July 1999 after completion of BE. He was born on 4th April 1974. He has secured 55 percent marks in selection interview and 45 percent marks in the written exam

8. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Manager in an organization for the past seven years after completing her BE in IT with 70 percent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in selection interview and 55 percent marks in the written examination. She was born on 12th November, 1978.
9. Ashok Malhotra,was born on 19th March 1977. He has secured 56 percent marks in both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 58 percent marks in BE-IT and 72 percent marks in ME-IT He has been working in the systems department of an organization for the past eleven years after completing ME-IT

10. Gemma D’Souza was born on15th December 1972. She has secured 60 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview. She has been working as Deputy Systems Manager for the last six years in an organization after completing her BE-Electronics with 75 percent

Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are eight students each having a different height.
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than E
(v) C is shorter than G.
(vi) G is not as tall as F.
11. Which of the following is definitely false ?
(1) G is shorter than F
(2) C is shorter than F
(3) F is taller than C
(4) B is taller than E
(5) All are true

12. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely true
(1) C and J are of same height
(2) J is shorter than D
(3) J is shorter than H
(4) J is taller than A
(5) None of these

13. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in descending order of height ?
(1) B
(2) F
(3)G
(4) B or G
(5) Cannot be determined

14. How many of them are definitely shorter than F
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions ?
(1) (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (ii) and (v) only
(5) All are necessary to answer the above question

Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(1) if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(4) if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
(5) if the inference is “definitely false” i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

A recent report that satellite data shows groundwater levels in northern India depleting by as much as a foot per year over the, past decade, is a matter of concern. The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbulent water future and veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustainable practices. Besides, the poor monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India calls for sustained policy focus on the water economy. A whole series of glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, there’s far too much reliance on groundwater. For another, our water infrastructure for storage and supply is sorely inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs like power have perversely incentivised cultivation of water intensive crops like paddy in traditionally wheat growing areas.

16. India has failed to take measures to recharge groundwater adequately in northern part.
17. Wheat cultivation in India requires comparatively more water than paddy.
18. Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
19. India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
20. Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus preserve balance.

Directions (Qs. 21 to 27) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument(s) is/are “strong” and select your answer accordingly.
21. Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the requirement?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help Government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of
electricity.
II.No, every citizen has right to consume electricity as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity
III. No, the Government does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only I and II are strong
(4) Only II and III are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong

22. Should the Government order closure of all educational institutions for a month to avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral infection
Arguments
I. No, closure of educational institution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.

II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls, markets, playgrounds etc. in mote numbers and spread the disease, as they will have lot of spare time at theft disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence they should remain in doors.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only us strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong

23. Should the Government ban export of all types of food grains the next one year to tide over unpredicted drought situation in country
Arguments
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to its citizen during the year.
II. No, the Government does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exports.
III. Yes, the Government should not allow the exporters to export food grains and procure all the foodgrains held by such exports and make it available for home consumption.
(I) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these

24. Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in Uniformity in the education system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation. Certificates being given by differ universities in the county.
III. No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
(I) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) Only II and III are strong

25. Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC be allowed to take admission in degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination ?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete theft education without a break of one year.
II. Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
III. No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only either II or III and I are strong
(5) None of these

26. Effect
At least twenty schoolchildren were seriously injured while going for a school picnic during the weekend.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect
(1) The teacher accompanying the school children fell ill during the journey
(2) The bus in which the children were travelling met with an accident while taking turn on the main highway.
(3) The driver of the bus in which the children were travelling did not report after the break at the halting place on their journey.
(4) The school authority banned all school picnics for the next six months with immediate effect
(5) None of these

27.Cause
Government has recently decided to hike the procurement price of paddy for the rabi crops.
Which of the following will be a possible effect of the above cause
(1) The farmers may be encouraged to cultivate paddy for the rabi season.
(2) The farmers may switch over to other cash crops in their paddy fields.
(3)There was a drop in production of paddy during Kharif season.
(4)Government may not increase the procurement price of paddy during the next Kharif
season.
(5)Government will buy paddy from the open market during the next few months.

28. Statement
Many patients suffering from malaria were administered anti malarial drug for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their condition deteriorated after four days.

Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above statement
(1) Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered were needed to be given additional doses as they reported relapse of symptoms.
(2) The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional malarial drugs.
(3) Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
(4)Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial drugs.
(5) None of these

29. Statement
The cost of manufacturing cars in state A is thirty percent less than the cost of manufacturing cars in state B. Even after transportation fee for the differential distances of states A and B and the interstate taxes, it is cheaper to manufacture cars in state B than state A for selling these cars in Stare C.
Which of the following supports the conclusion drawn in the above statement?
(1) The cost of transportation from state A to state C is mote than thirty percent of the production cost
(2) The production costs of cars in state B are lower in comparison to state A
(3) Only Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state A
(4) Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state B
(5) The total of transportation cost of cars from state B to state C and entry tax of cars at state C is less than thirty percent of the production cost of cars in state B
.
30. Statement
Many people are of the opinion that use of cell phones in offices for personal use should totally be banned. It has been found in a research study that there was significant drop in output of employees in the organisation where use of cell phones was liberally allowed vis-a-vis those organizations where use of cell phones is banned for making personal calls.
Which of the following contradicts the findings of stated in the above statement?
(1) People spend more, time on talking while using cell phone for personal calls.
(2)Use of cell phones has become common in all the organisations.
(3) In the organisation where employees were allowed to use cell phones for making personal calls the employees are found to be more motivated to carry out their duties than those working in other organizations.
(4) Many organisations who provide cell phones to their employees for making official calls advise them to refrain from making personal calls during office hours
(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 31 to 37) In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
31. Statement
The members belonging to two local clubs occasionally fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
Courses of action
I. The local police station should immediately deploy police personnel round the clock on, the main road.
II Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind bars.
III. The local administration should disband the management of the two clubs
with immediate effect.
(1)Only I and II follow
(2)Only II and III follow
(3)Only I and I follow
(4)All I, II and III follow
(5)None of these

32. Statement
Many students of the local school fell ill for the fourth time in a row in the last six months after consuming food prepared by the school canteen.
Courses of action
I. The school management should immediately terminate the contract of the canteen and ask for compensation.
II. The school management should advise all the students not to eat food articles from the canteen.
III. The owner of the canteen should immediately be arrested for negligence.
(1) None follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only TI and III follow

33. Statement
Many school buses have fitted CNG Kit without observing the safety guideline properly. This results into some instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action
I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG Kit.
II. The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses fitted with CNG Kit.
III. The Government should issue a notification banning school buses for use of CNG Kit.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these

34. Statement
A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted into unpredicted rainfall causing flood like situation in the entire area. Large number of people were caught unaware and were stranded on the road.
Courses of action
I. The local administration should immediately put in place an action plan for avoiding such situation in future.
II. The local administration should immediately deploy personnel to help the stranded people, to move to safer places.
III. The local administration should advise all the citizens not to venture out on the road till situation improves.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5). All I, II and III follow
35. Statement
It is reported that during the last fortnight there has been three cases of near miss situation involving two aircrafts over the busy city airport. In all these cases both the aircrafts came perilously close to each other and could avoid confusion as the pilots acted just in time.

Courses of action
I The pilots of all the six aircrafts involved in these incidents should immediately be de-rostered.
II. Some flights should be diverted to other airports for the next few months to decongest the sky over the city airport.
III. Air traffic controllers of the city airport should be sent for refresher courses in batches to prepare themselves to handle such pressure situation.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these

36. A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class. D did not enter along with A or F but entered before C. B did not enter before C but entered along with A. E was not the last to enter:
Which of ,the following is definitely true ?
(1) C entered the class only after D
(2) D entered the class only after E
(3) B entered the class after A
(4) A entered the class after D
(5) None of these

37. D is brother of K. M is sister of K. T is father of R who is brother of M. F is mother of K. At least how many sons does T and F have ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

38. Statement
In a move that could provide some respite to ailing airline companies, the Government is looking at allowing them to import jet fuel on their own.
Which of the following can be definitely concluded from the above statement
(1) Airline companies in the past have imported jet fuel
(2) The price of imported jet fuel is less than the price of jet fuel available in the local market.
(3) Central Government will lose huge amount of money if jet fuel is imported.
(4) Airline companies are making considerable profit in the recent months.
(5) None of these

39. Statement
Some of the country’s largest food beverage and pharma companies may be forced to import sugar directly as the Government plans to improve stock limits on industrial consumers to ease the shortage in grocery shops and cool down prices that are at a 28-month high.

Which of the following substantiates the views expressed in the above statement ?
(1) Food, pharma and beverage companies were not allowed in the past to import
sugar.
(2)Sugar prices have been fluctuating for the past seven months.
(3)Government does not have authority to restrict purchase of sugar from the open
market.
(4)Import of sugar for commercial use will help lowering down the sugar price in the retail market
(5)None of these

40. Statement
A recent review reported that India’s fashion industry has been severely affected due to a slump in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods, besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well as international markets.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
(1) India’s fashion industry has been growing till last year
(2) Government has helped India’s fashion industry to grow in the past
(3) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the sentiments of international market
(4) Share of fashion goods manufactured by India is negligible in the international market
(5) None of these

Answers :
1 Ans 2
2 Ans 1
3 Ans 3
4 Ans 5
5 Ans 4
6 Ans 1
7 Ans 1
8 Ans 2
9 Ans 3
10 Ans 4
11 Ans 5
12 Ans 2
13 Ans 1
14 Ans 2
15 Ans 5
16 Ans 1
17 Ans 5
18 Ans 3
19 Ans 4
20 Ans 2
21 Ans 3
22 Ans 2
23 Ans 5
24 Ans 4
25 Ans 1
26 Ans 2
27 Ans 1
28 Ans 3
29 Ans 5
30 Ans 3
31 Ans 1
32 Ans 4
33 Ans 1
34 Ans 4
35 Ans 3
36 Ans 4
37 Ans 4
38 Ans 2
39 Ans 4
40 Ans 4

Verbal Reasoning solved online test

2011-06-09T22:29:00.000-07:00

Verbal Reasoning solved online test
Free Verbal Reasoning Online Practice Test
Test of Verbal Reasoning Solved Questions

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans. (C)

2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans. (B)

3. The position of how many digits in the dumber 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans. (C)

4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?

(A) 8% 51

(B) 85% 8

(C) 8@ 51

(D) 8% 31

(E) None of these

Ans. (A)

5. In a certain code language ‘how many books’ is written as ‘sa da na’ and ‘many more days’ is written as ‘ka pa da’. How is ‘books’ written in that code language?

(A) sa

(B) na

(C) sa or na

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (C)

6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as ‘PKBNXSHQ’. How is SANCTION written in that code?

(A) TBODMNHS

(B) DOBTMNHS

(C) TBODSHNM

(D) DOBTOPJU

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

(A) 1

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 9

(E) None of these

Ans. (A)

8. ‘BE’ is related to ‘GJ’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to……..?

(A) UY

(B) UX

(C) UZ

(D) VY

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

9. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest marks?

(A) P

(B) T

(C) R

(0) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (C)

10. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, ‘she is the daughter of my grandmother’s only child’. how is the girl related to Nidhi?

(A) Sister

(B) Self

(C) Cousin sister

(D) Data Inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W’s position from the right end of the row?

(A) Eleventh

(B) Tenth

(C) Twelfth

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

Directions—(Q. 12—14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow— Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organized on one of these days. Play D was organized before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organized on Saturday. Play C was not organized on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organized. Play A was organized on

12.On which day was play B organized?

(A) Thursday

(B) Friday

(C) Wednesday

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

13. On which day no play was organized?

(A) Monday

(B) Wednesday

(C) Thursday

(D) Data inadequate

(F) None of these

Ans. (A)

14. Which play was organized on Wednesday?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) D

(D) Data Inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (C)

15. If’ ‘÷’ means ‘+‘; ‘x’ means ‘- ‘, ‘ + ‘ means x’ and - means +then 24-4 ÷ 6 x 3+ 4 =?

(A) 36

(B) 24

(C) 8

(D) 4

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

16. What should come next in the following number series?

9 8 7 6 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 9 8

(A) 7

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 5

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?.

(A) Q

(B) K

(C) P

(D) B

(E) None of these

Ans. (C)

18. Meena correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after eighteenth May but before twenty second May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father’s birthday?

(A) Twentieth

(B) Nineteenth

(C) Eighteenth

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

Directions—(Q. 19—20) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—

(i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.

(ii) ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.

(iii)’ P — Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.

(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.

19. Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of ‘T’?

(A) M ÷ K + T

(B) M x K + T

(C) M x K – T

(D) M ÷ K – T

(E) None of these

Ans. (C)

20. Which of the following means ‘H’ is paternal grandfather of ‘T’?

(A) H ÷ J ÷ T

(B) T x K + H

(C) H ÷ J x T

(D) H – J + T

(E) None of these

Ans. (A)

Directions—(Q. 21-25) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below –

832 965 748 259 614

21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?

(A) 2

(B) 5

(C) 8

(D) 9

(E) 4

Ans. (E)

22. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the highest number?

(A) 11

(B) 15

(C) 10

(D) 7

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?

(A) 5

(B) 1

(C) 6

(D) 4

(E) 3

Ans. (A)

24.If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?

(A) 8

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 5

Ans. (E)

25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?

(A) 6

(B) 4

(C) 1

(D) 7

Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 26—31) In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

26. Statements:

All stones are poles.

All poles are desks.

Some desks are nets.

All nets are days.

Conclusions:

I. Some nets are stones.

II Some desks are stones.

III. Some days are desks.

(A) Only I and II follow

(B) Only I and III follow

(C) Only II and Ill follow

(D) All I, II and III follow

(E) None of these

Ans. (C)

27. Statements:

Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years.

All years are buses. All buses are trains.

Conclusions:

1. Some trains are weeks.

ll. Some buses are weeks.

III Some trains are months.

(A) Only I and II follow

(B) Only II and III follow

(C) Only I and III follow

(D) All I, II and III follow

(E) None of these

Ans. (A)

28. Statements:

Some stations are rails.

All rails are rivers.

All rivers are papers.

Some papers are cards.

Conclusions:

I. Some cards are stations.

II. Some rivers are stations.

III. Some cards are rivers.

(A) None follows

(B) Only I follows

(C) Only II follows

(D) Only III follows

(E) Only II and III follow

Ans. (C)

29. Statements:

All windows are roofs.

All roofs are glasses.

Some glasses are plates.

Some plates are carpets.

Conclusions:

I. Some plates are windows.

II Some glasses are windows.

III. Some carpets are roofs.

(A) None follows

(B) Only I follows

(C) Only II follows

(D) Only III follows

(E) Only I and II follow

Ans. (C)

30. Statements:

All trees are jungles.

All jungles are houses.

All houses are buildings.

All buildings are villages.

Conclusions:

I. Some villages are houses.

II Some buildings are jungles

III. Some houses are trees.

(A) Only I and II follow

(B) Only II and III follow

(C) Only I and III follow

(D) All II and III follow

(E) None of these

Ans. (D)

31. Statements:

Some books are calendars.

No calendar is pa per.

All papers are pencils

Some pencils are chairs.

Conclusions:

I. Some chairs are books.

II. No chair is book.

III. Some pencils are calendars.

(A) None follows

(B) Only either I or II follows

(C) Only either I or II and III follows

(D) Only III follows

(E) Only II follows

Ans. (B)

Directions—(Q. 32—37) Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below— M 5% P U 2 A $ 4 3 Z E K 1 9 Q R I @ D 7 F Ô 8 W N 6 # V (C) J * Y

32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the tight end of the above arrangement?

(A) N

(B) $

(C) 4

(D) W

(E) None of these

Ans. (A)

33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?

(A) U

(B) D

(C) E

(D) C

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans. (C)

35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans. (C)

36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(A) P5A

(B) 4AE

(C) Q1K

(D) F8@

(E) VN*

Ans. (E)

37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?

(A) E

(B) K

(C) Z

(D) D

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

Directions—(Q. 38—43) In each question below is given a group digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of Digits / Symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Digit / Symbol:

5@ 3 © 98 % b142$ # 76 *

Letter Code:

PIMAEGFJHBDNRQTU

Conditions:

(i) If the first unit is a symbol arid the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.

(ii) If the first unit is an even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.

(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the symbol.

(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.

38. 9 @ 374 %

(A) EIMQBF

(B) FBQMIE

(C) ZIMQBZ

(D) FIMQBF

(E) None of these

Ans. (D)

39. 29 © $ # 1

(A) HEANRD

(B) DEANRH

(C) DEANRD

(D) HEANRH

(E) None of these

Ans. (A)

40. * 479 @ C

(A) UBQEIA

(B) ZBQEIA

(C ZBQEIZ

(D) ABQEIU

(E) None of these

Ans. (C)

41. % 286 $ 3

(A) FDCTNF

(B) FDCTNM

(C) FCDTNM

(D) ZDGTNZ

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

42. 54 # * @ 6

(A) PBURIT

(B) BTMAEB

(C) ZTMAEB

(D) NTMAEB

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

43. $ 63 © 94

(A) NTMAEN

(B) BTMAEB

(C) ZTMAFB

(D) NTMAEB

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

44. Who is to the immediate left of D?

(A) H

(B) C

(C) C

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

45. Who is second to the right of E?

(A) B

(B) C

(C) H

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (A)

46. Who is third to the left of B?

(A) E

(B) H

(C) F

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans. (E)

47. What is the position of C with respect to A?

(A) Third to the left

(B) Third to the right

(C) Fifth to the left

(D) Fourth to the right

(E) Fifth to the right

Ans. (D)

48. In which of following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?

(A) BGC

(B) EFB

(C) DAH

(D) AEF

(E) GCD

Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 49—50)

In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and U are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’

‘P U Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P’ is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

49. Statements:

D # K, K @ T, T $ M, M % J

Conclusions:

I. J @ T

II. J % T

III.D @ T

(A) Only I is true

(B) Only II is true

(C) Only either I or II is true

(D) Only III is true

(E) Only either I or II and III are true

Ans. (E)

50. Statements:

R @ N © D, D $ J, J # B

Conclusions:

I. R @ J

II. J @ N

III. B @) D

(A) None is true

(B) Only I is true

(C) Only II is true

(D)Only III is true

(E) Only I and III are true

Ans. (C)

Free Reasoning Questions for BEL Graduate Engineers Exam

2011-06-09T22:27:00.001-07:00

Free Reasoning Questions for BEL Graduate Engineers Exam
BEL graduate engineer Sample practice paper Reasoning
Directions: ( 1-2): The sentence given below has been called ‘statement’ (A) and the second sentence given below it has been called ‘Reason’ (R). Find out which ones of the following choices (in Qs. I and Qs. 2) are correct.

1. Statement (A): Robert Clive defeated Slraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plassey.
Reason (R): The army of Clive was the best and it followed the best strategic policy.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct
Ans. (a)

2. Statement (A): The Hoyesala sculptures have highly detailed descriptions and ornamentation.
Reason (R): Hoyesala sculptures are soft; these have been created in a Chloristic Schism
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect hut R is correct
Ans. (c)

3. State which are of the actions would be most suitable in the situation that has been described below.
Situation: The incessant rains, which have been continuing for the past several days, have created the problem of deluge; that is because the river bed is full of silt and mud.
Actions:
I. The people living close to the river should be transferred to a safer place.
II. People should be given information about the imminent danger on radio/television
III. Immediately after the reduction of water level of the river, the silt and mud should be removed from the river bed.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) None of these follows
(d) All of these follow
Ans. (d)

Directions: (Qs. Nos. 4 to 6): In each of the question given below, two or three Statements have been given. Below each of these Statements, two Conclusions, marked as (A) and (B), have been given. You should assume the given Statement to be true, even if these may seem to be different from the commonly known facts and then, decide which one of the Conclusions can be logically drawn from the statements by ignoring the commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) If only Conclusion (A) follows
(b) If only Conclusion (B) follows
(c) If either Conclusion (A) or Conclusion (B) follows
(d) If neither Conclusion (A) nor Conclusion (B) follows.

4. Statements:
I. Some kites are horses.
II. All the horses are dogs.
Conclusions:
(A) All the dogs are horses
(B) Some horses are dogs
Ans. (b)

5. Statements:
I. All papers arc pencils.
II. All pencils are erasers.
Conclusions:
(A) Some erasers are papers
(B) Some pencils are not papers
Ans. (d)

6. Statements:
I. All the elements are birds.
II. All the birds are cows.
Conclusions:
(A) Some cows are birds.
(B) Some elephants are cows.
Ans. (d)

Directions (Qs. Nos. 7 to 12): In the questions given below one or more than one Conclusions have been given after some Statements. Select that alternative in which, the drawn conclusions are correct.

7. Statements:
I. All the offices remain closed on Saturdays
II. Raju is an assistant in the office.
Conclusions:
(a) Raju will not go to the office
(b) Raju goes to the office on Saturdays because he is an assistant
(c) Raju is an assistant in a government’ office
(d) Raju does not go to his office on Saturdays
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)

8. Statements:
I. No pen is hen.
II. Some hens are healthy.
Conclusions:
(A) No pen is healthy
(B) No healthy thing is pen
The correct conclusion are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)

9. Statements:
I. All the students passed the examination.
II. Some students are girls.
Conclusions:
A. Some boys passed the examination
B. All the girl students failed in the examination
C. None of the boys passed the examination
D. None of the girl students failed in the examination
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (c)

10. Statements:
I. All the servants are masters.
II. All the masters are cruel.
Conclusions:
A. All servants are cruel
B. All the cruel persons are servants.
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow.
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)

11. Statements:
I. No liquor is in sweet.
II. Some liquors are fragrant.
Conclusions:
(A) No sweet thing is fragrant
(B) No fragrant thing is sweet
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)

12. Statements:
I. All the bats are balls.
II. No ball is wicket.
Conclusions:
(A) No bat is wicket
(B) All wickets are bats
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows.
Ans. (a)

13. AK, EO, IS, ?, QA, UE
(a) LV
(b) MW
(c) NX
(d) LW
Ans. (b)

14. Five students participated in an examination for getting scholarship. Sudha got more marks than Pooja. Kavita got less marks than Suma but more marks than Sudha. Mamta got marks in between the marks of Pooja and Sudha. Who got the least marks in the examination?
(a) Kavita
(b) Pooja
(c) Mamta
(d) Suma
Ans. (b)

15. Statements: Soldiers serve their country.
Conclusions:
(a) Those who serve their country, are soldiers
(b) Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers
(c) Generally, men serve their country
(d) Some men, who are soldiers, serve their country
Ans. (d)

16. Statements: Most of the students have exceptional abilities.
Conclusions:
(a) Some students have exceptional abilities
(b) There is no student who is not exceptional
(c) There are some students who have less than average abilities
(d) All the students have exceptional abilities
Ans. (c)

17. If ‘+‘ means ‘divide’, ‘—‘ means ‘equal’, ‘x’ means add’, ÷ means “is greater than”, ‘=‘ means “is less than”, ‘>‘ means ‘multiply’ and ‘<‘means ‘subtract’, then which one of the following choices is correct? (a) 5 + 2 x 1 = 3 + 4 > 1
(b) 5>2 x 1—3 > 4 < 1 (c) 5 x 2 < 1—3 < 4 x 1 (d) 5 < 2 x 1—3 > 4 x 1
Ans. (c)

18. In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash moved two places to his left, then he came at seventh place from the left. What was his place in the row from the right before this change?
(a) Twelfth
(b) Tenth
(c) Fourteenth
(d) Eighth
Ans. (b)

19. If the 11th day of a month is Saturday, which of the following days will occur five times in that month?
(a) Sunday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Saturday
(d) Friday
Ans. (d)

20. If South-West becomes North-East become?
(a) West
(b) South-West
(c) South
(d) North-West
Ans. (a)

21. I am facing north which of the following sequence of turnings will NOT lead me to face west?
(a) Left, Left; Right, Right; Right, Right, .Right
(b) Right, Right; Right, Right; Left, Right, Left
(c) Right, Right; Left, Right; Right, Left, Left
(d) Right, Left; Left, Right; Right, Left, Left
Ans. (c)

22. If 425 = 22, 648 = 52 and 741 = 11; what is 538=?
(a) 33
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 15
Ans. (c)

23. There is a common property shared by all the four numbers given below. Four clues are given to find out the common property. Find out which clue helps you to identify the common property
Numbers: 5730, 4724, 6312, 8316
Clues:
(a) All the four digits.
(b) First two digits
(c) First two and the last two digits
(d) First and third and second and fourth digits
Ans. (c)

24. Find out the missing member in the sequence:
Red, Blue,…….. Yellow
(a) Green
(b) Orange
(c) Yellow
(d) Indigo
Ans. (a)

25. In a queue to 70 persons at the fee counter of a college Mohan’s position from the window is 54th .How many persons are behind him?
(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 16
(d) 18
Ans. (c)

Mental Ability Free Sample Paper

2011-06-09T22:27:00.000-07:00

Mental Ability Free Sample Paper
Mental Ability and Reasoning: Mental Ability Sample Paper
Directions (1-4) :In each of the following questions a statement is followed by two assumptions (a) and (b).
Mark answer
(A) if only assumption (a) is implicit
(B) if only assumption (b) is implicit
(C) if both (a) and (b) are implicit
(D) if neither (a) nor (b) is implicit

1. Statement: Ram is the tallest among all the students of Class – x. Assumptions :
(a) The heights of all the students of Class X are known.
(b) No comparison is possible with the students of other classes as there is no information about their heights.
Ans:-A

2. Statement “If you are intelligent we will make you a student of engineering. If not, we will make you intelligent-An advertisement. Assumptions:
(a) All youth want to take admission in engineering course.
(b) Any one who wants to take admission in engineering course, he/she can do so.
Ans:-D

3. Statement: ‘To stop the train pull chain. There is a fine of Rs. 250 for improper use” Assumptions : (a) If chain is pulled the train stops automatically.
(b) Chain can be pulled for improper use.
Ans:-C

4. Statement : It was my fault to depend upon Shyam for financial help.
Assumptions: (a) Financial condition of Shyam is not good.
(b) If one needs financial help then Shyam is not reliable.
Ans:-D

Directions (5-6) Study the following number sequence and answer the questions that follow:
5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6

5. How many odd numbers are the above sequence are immediately
Followed by an odd number?
(A)More than4
(B)2
(C)3
(D)4
Ans:-A

6. How many odd numbers are, there in the sequence which are immediately preceded and also immediately followed by an even number?
(A)5
(B)2
(C)3
(D) 4
Ans:-D

Directions In following letter series some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the Correct alternative;

7. ba-.b-aab-a-b
(A) babb
(B) abab
(C) abba
(D) baba
Ans:-C

8. There are four ways and you are coming from south. The way from south takes you away from the coffee house. It you go to straight it will take you to college. In which direction is the temple?.
(A)North
(B)West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans:-B

9. What will the next digit.
17, 24, 34, 31, 38, 68
(A) 45
(B), 53
(C)61,
(D)35
Ans:-A

Directions—(Q. 10—14): Find word from the given alternatives which is dissimilar from other words.

10. (A) John F. Kennedy
(B) Abraham Lincoln
(C) George Washington
(D) Gerald Ford
Ans. (D)

11. (A) gun
(B) Pistol
(C) Dagger
(D) Atom bomb
Ans. (C)

12. (A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (D)

13. (A) sword
(B) Needle
(C) Knife
(D) Scissors
Ans. (B)

14. (A) ship
(B) Shikara
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Boat
Ans. (C)

Directions for Questions 15 to 20: Of the six men of the literature X, Y, Z, U, V and W being considered here one belonged to the seventeenth century, two to the nineteenth century and three to the twentieth century. Four were great poets, three great novelists and four great dramatists. One of them wrote poetry oi4y while another wrote dramas only. Two contributed to Bengali literature, one to Hindi, two o Marathi and one to Tamil. The seventeenth century writer wrote dramas only and contributed to Bengali literature. The twentieth century Bengali writer contributed to all the above three forms. Both the Marathi writers belonged to the nineteenth century. One of them contributed to both poetry and novel, while the other wrote poetry only. The Hindi writer belonged to the twentieth century and contributed to poetry and drama. X belonged to the twentieth century. Y wrote poetry as well as novel but no drama, Z contributed to Hindi literature. U was a Marai1i poet of the nineteenth century who did not contribute to any other form of literature, V belonged to the seventeenth century and W contributed to novel and drama.
Now answer the following questions based on the above informations:

15. Which writer other than U contributed to Marathi literature?
(A) X
(B) Z
(C) Y
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

16. Which writer contributed to all the three forms of literature?
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)

17. To which form of literature did V contribute?
(A) Poetry
(B) Novel
(C) Drama
(D) All of these
Ans. (C)

18. To which language did Y contribute in the paragraph?
(A) Bengali
(B) Hindi
(C) Tamil
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

19. To which language did W contribute?
(A) Bengali
(B) Hindi
(C) Tamil
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

20. Which two of the following belonged to the twentieth century? -
(A) Y, Z
(B) Z, W
(C) V, W
(D) Y, W
Ans. (B)

Reasoning Model Sample Paper For BANK PO Exams

2011-06-09T22:24:00.000-07:00

Reasoning Model Sample Paper For BANK PO Exams
Reasoning Questions for Bank P.O Exams Bank Probationary Examination
Reasoning Sample Paper For bank po exam- Bank Exam Preparation
PO test For bank jobs
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

2. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘5 @9 #’ and NAME is written as ‘# 6%3’. How is MODE written in that code?
(A)%653
(B) %@63
(C), %5@3
(D) %@53
(E) None of these
3. How m meaningful English words Scan be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word?
(A)None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. if ‘R’ denotes ‘—‘, ‘Q’ denotes ‘X’, ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes
‘ +‘, then
42 ‘W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 =?
(A) -22
(B) —168
(C) 22
(D) 28
(E) None of these
5, In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is
SOULFUL written in that code?
(A) VPTKKTE
(B) VPTKETK
(C) TPVKKTE
(D) TNRKMVG
(F) None of these
6. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 95 metre
(B)50 metre
(C)70 metre
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
8. What should come next in the following letter series
P Q R S T A B C D E P Q R S A B
C D E P Q R S A B C D P Q
(A)R
(B)T
(C)A
(D)B
(E) None of these
9. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’; ‘can you come here’ is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language?
(A) ja
(B) na
(C) pa
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

10. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
CEA, IKG, OQM,?
(A)STW
(B) WUS
(C)SWU
(D) UWS
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11—15)Four statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from statements disregarding known facts.
11. Statements:
Some trains are cars.
All cars are branches.
All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions:
I. Some dresses are cars.
II. Some nets are trains.
III. Some branches are trains.
IV. Some dresses are trains.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and IV follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
12. Statements:
All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips
III. Some boards are papers.
IV. Some roads are clips.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only I ,II and Ill follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
13. Statements:
Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks.
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions:
I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites
(A) Only I and III follow
(B)Only I, II and III follow
(C)Only III and IV follow
(D)Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these

14. Statements:
All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings
III. No window is stone
IV. Some rings are stones.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(ID) Only either I or III follows
(E) Only either I or III and II follow
15. Statements:
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions
I. Some buses are tyres.
II. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.

(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only IV follows
Directions—(Q. 16—20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of C.
16. Who is to the immediate right of F?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

17. Who is third to the right of K?
(A) F
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

18. What is F’s position with respect to B?
(A)Second to the left
(B)Third to the right
(C)Fourth to the right
(D)Third to the left
(E)Fifth to the right
19. Who is fourth to the left of C?
(A)C
(B)A
(C)D
(D)K
(E) Data inadequate
20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons?
(A)GFB
(B) BGH
(C)ADC
(D) KEC
(E)EGF

Directions_.(Q. 21—25) In the following questions, the symbols 0, C), ©, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q,
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q,
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/ are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
21. Statements;
D? T ,T@R, R © M, M % K
Conclusions:

I R@D
II R%D
III K*T
IV. M?T

(A) Only either I or II is true
(B) Only III and IV are true
(C) Only either I or II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and IV are true
(E) Only either I or II and III and IV are true

22. Statements
J @ F, F? N, N % H, H © G
Conclusions:
I G*N
II. N©J
III F*J
IV. J?G

(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only I ,II and III are true
(C) Only II, III and IV are true
(D) All I, II, III and IV are true
(E) None of these

Conclusions
L R*D
H. V*R
I D@M
IV. M%D
23. Statements:
R * K, K % D, D @ V,V ? M
Conclusions
I R*D
II. V*R
III D@M
IV. M%D
(A) None is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only IV is true
(D) Only either III or IV is true
(E) Only either III or IV and II are true

24. Statements
B © T, T * R, R % F, F @K

Conclusions
I B%R
II F*T
III R%K
IV. K*T

(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only IV is true

25.Statements:
F % N, N © W, W ?Y, Y * T
Conclusions:
I. F%W
IL T%N
III N%Y
IV. T%W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only I and IV are true
(C) Only II and III are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26—30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.

Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (I), (II) and (III). You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

26. Statement : Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.

II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence gene ration of electricity needs to be augmented.

III No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries.

(A) None is strong

(B) Only I is strong

(C) Only II is strong

(D) Only III is strong

(E) Only either I or II is strong

27. Statement : Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night?

Arguments:

I. No, this way the work will never get completed.

II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity.

III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.

(A) None is strong

(B) Only I is strong

(C) Only III is strong

(D) Only II and HI are strong

(E) Only I and II are strong

28. Statement: Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central or state universities in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised.

II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.

III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions.

(A) Only l and II are strong

(B) Only II and III are strong

(C)Only I and III are strong

(D) All I II and III are strong

(E) None of these

29. Statement: Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?

Arguments:

I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.

II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.

III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.

(A) Only I and II are strong

(B)Only II and III are strong

(C) Only I and III are strong

(D) All I,II and III are strong

(E) None of these

30. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India?

Arguments:

I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.

II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.

III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings.

(A) Only II is strong

(B) Only III is strong

(C) Only I and III are strong

(D) Only I is strong

(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 31—35) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement:

The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification.

II. Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable time.

III. The Govt’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private

(A) Only I and II are implicit

(B) Only II and III are implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only I and III are implicit

(E) None of these

32. Statement :

Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.

II. Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activites.

III. People at large may reject the Govt.’s appeal and continue using paper as before.

(A) Only I is implicit

(B) Only II is implicit

(C) Only I and II are implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) None of these

33 Statement :

The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focussed towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.

II. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.

III. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only I is implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) Only I and II are implicit

34. Statement Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces.

II. People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience.

III. The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement of residents of the locality outside their dwellings.

(A)None is implicit

(B) Only I is implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) Only II and III are implicit

35. Statement :The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of flight operations before leaving their homes as the fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport.

II. The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.

III Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal. -

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only I is implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) Only I and III are implicit

Directions—.(Q. 36—40) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Give answers

(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.

(C) If the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

(D) If the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.

(E) If the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks—gross Non- Performing Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008—is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclical downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, appear viable—till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable I It is now well established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macroeconomic fundamentals lead to excessive expansion of credit. It incentivizes banks to take on more risk in search of higher returns and to misprice risk.

36. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors.

37. Bank’s NPAs occur only due to economic factors.

38. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of rise in NPAs.

39. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable.

40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and follow up of credit given by banks.

Directions—(Q. 41—45) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank

The Candidate Must :

(i) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XII.

(ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in Graduation in any discipline.

(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in post-graduate degree diploma in

Management/Economics / Statistics.

(iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010.

(v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank.

(vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written examination.

(vii) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in Personal Interview.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except

(a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or JCWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.

(b) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the written examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.

In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answers :

(A) If the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.

(B) If the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.

(C) If the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.

(D) If the candidate is to be selected

(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.

41. Shoan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 percent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982.

42. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68 per cent marks in HSC and 58

per cent marks in B.Com. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.

43. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February, 1975.

44. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in Std. XII and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has secured 58 per cent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 per cent marks in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent marks in personal interview.

45. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August, 1979. She has secured 70 per cent marks in the written examination and 38 per cent marks in the personal interview.

Answers:
1 E
2 D
3 C
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 D
11 B
12 E
13 C
14 E
15 A
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 A
20 E
21 E
22 E
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 C
27 D
28 B
29 B
30 C
31 B
32 C
33 C
34 C
35 E
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 A
40 D
41 A
42 D
43 E
44 B
45 C

Free general Aptitude test including Reasoning

2011-06-09T22:21:00.000-07:00

Free general Aptitude test including Reasoning
Free General Aptitude Test Containing Objective Questions
1. The thief made a clean breast of his crime. The phrase ‘made a clean breast of’ means
(A) cleaned his chest
(B) fought for
(C) faced bravely
(D) confessed without hiding anything
2. The mother of the victim left………. in her efforts to get the culprit convicted.
The blank can be filled by.
(A) resigned to her fate
(B) home
(C) no stone unturned
(D) right

3. Complete the following proverb
“Rome was not built in a
(A) day
(B) week
(C) month
(D) year

4. ‘Phobia’ means
(A) hobby
(B) payment made before using a service
(B) study of something
C) fear of something
(D) craze
5. ‘Post-Paid’ means
(A) a post office term
(B) payment made before using a service
(C) payment made after using a service
(D) payment made at the time of using the service

6. Complete the phrase : “As faithful as a
(A) cat
(B) donkey
(C) dog
(D) fox

7. A doctor who specializes in the treatment of children is called?
(A)pedestrain
(B)pediatrician
(C)pedologist
(D) pedigree

8 The police are ………………….the theft in the office. The blank can be filled by.
(A) instigating
(B)interrogating
(C)investigating
(D)introspecting

9.The Supervisor needs a ……..of scissors for opening the envelope.
(A)pair
(B) pear
(C)pare
(D) twin

10. The collective noun for a group of elephants is?
(A)group
(B) gang
(C)pack
(D) herd

11. How many minutes before 12 Noon is it when it is 10:35 a.m.?
(A)86
(B) 87
(C)85
(D) 84

12. Statements:
All scientists are fools.
All fools are intelligent.
Conclusions:
I. All scientists are intelligent.
II. All intelligent people are scientists.
III. All intelligent people are fools.
IV. Some intelligent people would be scientists.
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only IV is correct
(C) Only I and IV are correct
(D) Only II and IV are correct

13. Ramesh walked 10 metres towards north, took a left turn and walked 75 metres, again took a left turn and walked 100 metres and stopped walking.
What direction was he facing when he stopped walking?
(A) north
(B) south
(C) north-west
(D) south-east
14. Pick the odd one out
(A)fruit
(B) flower
(C)leaf
(D) petal
15. Pick the odd one out
(A)cuckoo
(B) crow
(C)bat
(D) parrot
16. Pick the odd one out
(A)gold
(B) copper
(C)silver
(D) brass
17. Identify the city which is the odd one out?
(A) Patna
(B) Ranchi
(C) Raipur
(D) Jamshedpur

18.The leading producer of tin in the world is?
(A) Bolivia
(B) Brazil
(C)Indonesia
(D) Malaysia

19. Which is the odd one out in the following?
(A) Triangle
(C) Circle
(B) Rectangle
(D) Sphere

20. If we are viewing an angle of 3° through a magnifying glass capable of magnifying 3 times, how big would the angle look?
(A)9°
(B) 30°
(C)6°
(D) 12°

21. 300 bananas were purchased at As. 128 a hundred. What should be the selling price per dozen, if a profit of Rs. 66 is to be made?
(A)Rs. 15
(B) Rs.18
(C)Rs. 20
(D) Rs 21

22. Choose the correct algebraic statement for the following
“A number is equal to 3 less than three times another number.”
(A) y=3x—3
(B) y=3x/3
(C) y=3x+5
(D) 3y=3x—3

23. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 18 (remainder 0)?
(A) 245678
(B) 2456789
(C) 2445678
(D) 2455678

24. A 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm brick weights 64 kg. What would be the weight of a brick of size 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm?

(A)32 kg
(B)8 kg
(C)16kg
(D) 1 kg

25. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 6.30 p.m.?
(A)0°
(B)15°
(C)30°
(D)195°

26. Mr. Dhoni has 5 pairs Of white gloves and 5 pairs of black gloves, which he keeps in a box. If he picks 3 gloves at random, what is the probability that he will get a matching pair?
(A)0.5
(B) 0.75
(C)0.9
(D)1

27. If the length and breadth of a room are 48 feet and 24 feet respectively, and the space diagonal (one corner on ceiling to opposite corner on floor) is 56 feet, what is the height of the room?
(A)l4 feet
(B) 15 feet
(C)16 feet
(D) l7 feet

28. What is the next number in the following sequence?
0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34
(A)50
(B) 55
(C)53
(D) 51

29. ‘34’ is related to 12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to?
(A)95
(B) 54
(C)45
(D) 17

30.If 20 x X = 20 + X, what is the
value of X?
(A) 19/20
(B)18/20
(C) 18/19
(D)20/19

31. Which neighboring country of India embraced democracy recently to become the world’s youngest democracy?
(A)Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka
32. Which of the following took over the Anglo Dutch Steel Company Corus?
(A) Arcelor Mittal
(B) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(C) Tata Steel
(D) Jindal Steel
33. For International payments Indian currency is linked to?
(A) Gold Standard
(B) International Oil Price
(C) American Dollars
(D) Pound Sterling
34. Which organization, headed by Indian environmentalist Dr. A. K. Pachauri has been awarded
Nobel Peace Prize in 2007?
(A) International Global Warming
(B) International Environment Panel
(C) International Panel on Pollution Control
(D) International Panel on Climate change

35. Which day is observed as the World Habitat Day?
(A) March27
(B) September 30
(C) October 5
(0) October 2

36. Which game will be played for the first time in 2010 Asian Games?
(A) Twenty-20 Cricket
(B) Kabaddi
(C) Kho-Kho
(D) Gilli Danda

37. Reserve Bank of India is a?
(A) Private Bank
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Foreign Bank
(D) Central Bank

38.Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of origin?
(A) Brahmaputra and Indus
(B) Brahmaputra and Ganga
(C) Godavari and Krishna
(0) Indus and Gangs

39. What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
(A) It helps in early harvesting
(B) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
(C) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
(D) It ensures maximum utilization of land

40.All of the following rivers flow into or join the Ganges on its left side except?
(A)Gomti
(B) Gandak
(C)Son
(0) Kosi
41. As the height above sea level increases, the temperature?
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) First decreases and then increases
(D) Change of height has no effect on temperature
42. Which of the two planets listed below are closer to the sun than the earth?
(A) Mercury and Mars
(B) Mercury and Venus
(C) Venus and Mars
(D) Jupiter and Saturn

43. Which of the following countries is not in the continent of Asia?
(A)Lebanon
(B) Libya
(C)Japan
(D) Singapore

44.The land masses of India and Sri Lanka are connected by which of the following straits?
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Bering Strait
(C) Malacca Strait
(D) Palk Strait

45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Manipur—Imphal
(B) Meghalaya—Shillong
(C) Mizoram—Agartala
(0) Nagaland—Kohima

46. From North to South, the correct sequence of the following sea ports is?
(A) Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakapatnam, Paradip
(B) Paradip, Chennai, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin
(C) Paradip, Vishakapatnarn, Tuticorin, Chennai
(D) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin
47. The International Date Line is located in the?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

48. Which Bank has recently changed its name to Axis Bank?
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) Citi Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) UTI Bank

49. What is the expanded form of MICA?
(A) Magnetic ink Character Recognition
(B) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
(C) Magnetic Inline Character Reader
(D) Magnetic Inline Code Reader

50. Which sector contributes most towards the GDP of India?
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Railway
(C) Cotton Textile industry
(D) Service Sector

Answers:
1 D
2 C
3 A
4 C
5 C
6 C
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 D
11 C
12 C
13 B
14 A
15 C
16 D
17 D
18 D
19 D
20 B
21 B
22 A
23 C
24 D
25 B
26 D
27 C
28 B
29 C
30 D
31 A
32 C
33 C
34 D
35 C
36 C
37 D
38 A
39 C
40 C
41 A
42 B
43 B
44 D
45 C
46 D
47 A
48 D
49 A
50 D

Central Police Forces (CPF) reasoning practice test

2011-06-09T05:15:00.000-07:00

Central Police Forces (CPF) reasoning practice test
Central Police Force CPF Model Paper Sample Paper
1. Which of the following fish is bread exclusively in the cold regions of India?
1 Catla
2. Tinca
3. Bhekti
4. Trout
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (3)

2. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman of Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (1)

3. Two persons start walking at a steady pace of 3km/hour from a road intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with ach other. What will be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes?
(1)3km
(2)2km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 1 km
Ans. (4)

4. Who among the following became the Prime Minister India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V. P. Singh
4. Chandrasekhar
5. P. V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 5
(3) 2 only
(4) 4 only
Ans. (4)

5. In the sequence 462, 420, 380, X, 306, X stands for:
(1) 352
(2) 342
(3) 332
(4) 322
Ans. (2)

6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(1) glass
(2) vacuum
(3) water
4) air
Ans. (4)

7. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(1) Amnion
(2) Allantois
(3) Chorion
(4) Yolk sac
Ans. (1)

8. E.T.A is terrorist organization in:
(1) Cyprus
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) Spain
(4) South Africa
Ans. (4)

9, Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(1) The sea is near to the place In, the East, West and South directions
(2) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the: Geographic Equator
(3) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(4) Outer Space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena
Ans. (3)

10. Match List-I with List-II and the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Nuclear) List-II (States Power Station)
A. Kota 1. U. P
B. Tarapur 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara 3. Maharashtra
D. Narora 4. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (2)

Directions: (Q. 11-20): The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements. carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of R
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

11. Assertion (A): Upanis1adas were compiled towards the end of the Vedic periods
Reason (R): The Upanishadic thought centers, round the idea of soul (Atman), no sacrifice.
Ans. (1)

12. Assertion (A): Chandragupta instigated revolt against Greek Satraps.
Reason (R): Chandragupta had visited the camp to Alexander.
Ans. (2)

13 Assertion (A) : A lock of Einstein’s hair if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring?
Ans. (3)

14. Assertion (A): In ancient India, the states of women, Idealized in literature and art, underwent steady deterioration through the ages.
Reason (R): Though monogamy. was the ideal, polygamy was often the practice among the higher classes of society.
Ans. (2)

15. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. reemerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R): With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India
gradua1ly began to rely on the U.S.A. for its defense requirements.
Ans. (3)

16. Assertion. (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in, the Ganga plain.
Reason (R): The moisture- bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.
Ans. (3)

17. Assertion (A): The sign of Krishnadeva Raya ‘s the period of Vijayanagar greatest success when Its army was always victorious
Reason (R): Krishnadeva Raya’s army and navy were trained by Portuguese Generals appointed by him.
Ans. (3)

18. Assertion (A): General Dyer fired at Jallianwala Bagh crowd without any warning and till the ammunition was exhausted.
Reason (R): This shooting was not only to boost the morale of the army, but also to strike terror in Punjab.
Ans. (1)

19. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured In the elections of the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majr1ty vote system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
Ans. (1)

20. Assertion (A): Nizamuddin Auliya approved the conduct of a Sufi in releasing his woman slave and allowing her to return to her Hindu parent.
Reason (R): This was strictly in. accordance with the Muslim law.
Ans. (3)

21. Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct?
1. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the sectors
2. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies
3. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement
4. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) l and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)

22. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)

23. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is
(1) 2 km
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)

24. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(1) Center’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(2) Center’s control of the State In financial matters
(3) Center’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(4) Center’s control of the State in the Planning process
Ans. (2)

25. The main constituents of pearl are:
(1) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(2) aragonite and conchiolin
(3) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(4) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
Ans. (1)

26. The acceleration due to gravity of a castrophic earthquake will be
(1) > 550 cm/sec2
(2) > 750 cm/sec2
(3) > 950 cm/sec2
(4) > 980 cm/sec2
Ans. (3)

27. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:
(1) lack of antigen in his blood
(2) lack of antibodies in his blood
(3) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(4) presence of antibodies in his blood
Ans. (2)

28. Which one of the following polymers is wide1y used for making bullet proof material?
(1) Polyvinyl chloride
(2) Polyamides
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polycarbonates
Ans. (2)

29. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)

30. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Dev Samaj’?
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Sivanaryan Agnihotri
(4) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Ans. (3)

31. The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
(1) Navjiwan
(2) India Gazette
(3) Afrikaner
(4) Indian Opinion
Ans. (4)

32. In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role?
(1) Bijolia Movement
(2) Dandi March
(3) Textile Mill Workers Strike at Ahmedabad
(4) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. (4)

33. What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Layer and M.N. Roy?
(1) All of them were leading members of the International Communist movement
(2) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were ministers in the Provisional Government of Press India established by a group of revolutionaries at Kabul
(3) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(4) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on Lord Hardinge
Ans. (3)

34 Which one of the following important trade centers of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi?
(1) Tagara
(2) Sripura
(3) Tripuri
(4) Tamralipti
Ans. (1)

35. Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest annual growth rate of population?
(1) South Asia
(2) South-East Asia
(3) Central Asia
(4) West Asia
Ans. (1)

36. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave mirror
(4) Concave lens
Ans. (4)

37. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
(1) China
(2) Malaysia
(3) Cambodia
(4) Laos
Ans. (2)

38. The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It is not 1 and it is less than 6.What is it?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Ans. (3)

39. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?
(1) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(2) 2.2 km, 0.20km
(3) 2.8 km. 0.25 km
(4) 3.3 km, 0.3 km
Ans. (4)

40. The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in:
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Turkey
(3) Mongolia
(4) Persia
Ans. (3)

41. The first to start a joint stock to trade with India were the:
(1) Portuguese
(2) Dutch
(3) French
(4) Danish
Ans. (2)

42. Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857?
(1) Sanyasi Rebellion
(2) Santhal Rebellion
(3) Indigo Disturbances
(4) Pabna Disturbances
Ans. (3)

43. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are:
(1) Buddhist
(2) Buddhist and Jain
(3) Hindu and Jam
(4) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans. (4)

44. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development?
(1) Dharma-Artha-Kama -Moksha
(2) Brahmana – Kshatriya –Vaishya – Shudra
(3) Brahmacharya- Grihastashrama -Vanaprastha- Sanyasa
(4) Indra- Surya –Rudra –Marut
Ans. (2)

45. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(1) Stamp Duties
(2) Passenger and goods tax
(3) Estate Duty
(4) Taxes on Newspaper
Ans. (1)

46. l0 % of 2O + 20 % of 10 =?
(1) 10 % of 20
(2) 20 % of 10
(3) 1 % of 200
(4) 2 % of 200
Ans. (4)

47. Which of the following are correctly matched?

A
Establishment of Manufacturing
B
Year C
Place
1 Setting up of the first cotton mill
2. Manufacture of the first machine made paper
3. Setting up of the first cement factory 1854
1870
1904 Bombay
Near Calcutta Madras

Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1and 3
Ans. (3)

48. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(1) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(2) ‘Exit Poll’ and Opinion Poll are one and the same
(3) Exit Poll is a device through which result of voting can be most exactly predicted
(4) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commission to prevent impersonation
Ans. (3)

49. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by the U.N. has:
(1) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(2) reduced the powers of the General Assembly made
(3) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly.
(4) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security
Ans. (4)

50. Which one of the following soil types of India is restored infertile by the presence of
excess iron?
(1) Desert sand
(2) Alluvial
(3) Podzolic
(4) Lateritic
Ans. (4)

Reasoning For bank PO Exams

2011-06-09T05:14:00.000-07:00

Reasoning For bank PO Exams
Test of Reasoning: Bank PO Exam SOlved paper
1. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is shorter than D but taller than B who is taller than C and A is taller than E. If all are standing according to their heights and we start counting from the tallest who would be fourth?

(1) C

(2) B

(3) E

(4) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient.

Ans. (2)

2. A man is facing. south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180? in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is:

(1) North-east

(2) North-west

(3) South-east

(4) South-west

Ans. (4)

3. Among five friends:

Mangla is taller to Neela but as tall as Pushpa.

Asha is taller to Sapna but not as tall as Neela. In this group who is the shortest?

(1) Mangla

(2) Sapna

(3) Pushpa

(4) Asha

Ans. (2)

4. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of income of B and D. The highest income is of:

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Ans. (2)

5. In a class of 60 students. where the girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kama1, the number of boys in rank after him is:

(1) 3

(2) 7

(3) 12

(4) 13

Ans. (3)

6. If X and Y are brothers Z is sister of X, P is brother of Q, and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P?

(1) Z

(2) X

(3)Q

(4) Y

Ans. (2)

7. A set of figures carrying certain numbers is given

. Assuming that the numbers in each figure follow a similar pattern, the missing number is:

(1) 19

(2) 23

(3) 25

(4) 31

Ans. (4)

8. Same positions of dice are shown below:

What is the number opposite to 4?

(1) 6

(2) 5

(3) 2

(4) 1

Ans. (4)

Directions: (9-13): A management company is to form a 5 member group to undertake a new project. The team must contain two finance expert, one accountant and two marketing experts. A, B and C can work as finance experts C, D and E can work as accountants. F, G and H can work as marketing experts. A and C prefer to work with each other on the same group. E prefers to work only if F works.

9. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected?

(1) A, B, C, D, F

(2) A, C, D, E, F

(3) A, B, C, F, G

(4) B, C, D F, G

Ans. (1)

10. If A is chosen as a member of the team and all preferences are respected, which one of the following must be true?

(1) C must work as finance expert

(2) Any of the three marketing experts can be included

(3) Neither D nor E can be included

(4) F must be included

Ans. (2)

11. Which choice of members is impossible if all preferences are respected?

(1) A and B as finance experts, C as accountant

(2) B and C as finance experts

(3) G and H as marketing experts

(4) A and C as finance experts, F and H as marketing experts

Ans. (2)

12. How many different groups are possible if all preferences are respected?

(1) 5

(2) 8

(3) 9

(4) 13

Ans. (1)

13. Which person/persons must be chosen as part of any group if all preferences are respected?

l. A

2. E

3. F

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) 1 only

(2) 1 and 2 only

(3) 3 only

(4) 2 and 3

Ans. (1)

Directions (14-18): Read the following seven statements to solve the next five Items.

(i) Five boys B1 B2 B3 B4 and B5 and five girls G1 G2 G3 G4 and G5 are sitting on ten chairs (not necessarily in that order). The boys are in the odd numbered seats starting from the left while, each girl sits to the right of her friend amongst the boys.

(ii) B4 is G4’s friend

(iii) G5 is not at the right end of the row and her friend is not at the left end of the row.

(iv) B3 is one seat from the right end of the row.

(v) G5’s friend is seated next to the right of G2.

(vi) B2 and his friend occupy the middle pairs of seats.

(vii) G4 sits next to B2

14. G3’s friend may be

(1) B1 or B2

(2) B1, B3 or B5

(3) B1, B2 or B3

(4) B2 or B5

Ans. (2)

15. Which of the following lists five persons who are sitting adjacent to one another, from left to right?

(1) B2, 2 B1, G5 B

(2) B4, 04. 02., Q5

(3) G2, B2, G4. B4, G1 or G3

(4) B4, G5, 82. G2,131 or B5

Ans. (4)

16. In order to determine the position of G2, it is necessary to use how many of the seven statements given above?

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Ans. (4)

17. Which of the following could be determined exactly if the position of either B1 or B5 were given?

(1) The identity of B1’s friend or B5’s friend but, not both

(2) Only the identity of B1’s friend

(3) Only the identity of B5’s friend

(4) Who is sitting to B4’s left

Ans. (1)

18. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the available information?

1. Who occupies the seat farthest to the left ?

2. Who occupies the seat farthest to the right?

3. Which other girls are nearest toG2?

Which the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 1 only

(3) 2 only

(4) 2 and 3

Ans. (1)

Directions (18-21): Each face of cube is painted with a different colour a carries a different number (from 1 to 6)

(i) The face with the number 1 is opposite to the face with the number 4, while the face with the number 2 is opposite to the face with the number 6.

(ii) The orange face has number 1.

(iii) The face opposite to the orange face is black and has number 4.

(iv) When the orange face is facing an observer, the top face is pink and has number 3 on it.

(v) When the grey face is placed facing the observer the number 1 is on the top, number 2 is on the right side and the left face is blue-colored.

(vi) White and blue colours are on opposite faces.

18. Which of the following colours are on the four faces adjacent to the grey-colored face?

(1) White, Blue, Black, Pink

(2) White, Orange, Black, Blue

(3) Blue, Black, Pink, White

(4) Cannot be determined

Ans. (2)

19. Number 6 is carried by the face having which colour?

(1) Blue

(2) Pink

(3) Grey

(4) White

Ans. (1)

20. When the orange face is facing the observer and the number 2 is on his right, which one of the following numbers will be at the top?

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Ans. (3)

21. Colours comprising which one of the following pairs are not opposite to each other?

(1) Orange – Black

(2) White – Blue

(3) Pink – Grey

(4) Black - White

Ans. (4)

22. There are five friends — P. Q, R, S and T. P is younger to Q, T is younger to R and S. both P is as old as R, P is younger to as many as those who are younger to S.

Who among the five friends is the eldest?

(1) S

(2) Q

(3) R

(4) Cannot be ascertained with the given data

Ans. (2)

23. A, B, C, D, and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R. S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city.

Further, it is given

1. B and. C do not belong to

2. B and E do not belong to P and R

3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T.

4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) C belongs to P

(2) D belongs to R

(3) A belongs to Q

(4) B belongs to S

Ans. (4)

24. Q is the son of P. S is the son of Q. U is the mother of R. T is the spouse of Q. P is the father of R but R is not his son. V is the spouse of R.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) S is the grandson of P

(2) S is the grandson of U

(3) V is the son-in-law of P

(4) V is the son of U

Ans. (4)

25. Along chain having 100 identical steel links is to be pulled from its two ends by a force of 3000 newtons. The chain is elongated by adding another 50 links to it.

Which one of the following is the correct statement?

(1) The force induced in each link will be equal to 20 newtons .

(2) The force induced In each link will be equal to 30 newtons

(3) The force induced in each link will be equal to 3000 newtons

(4) The force induced in each link cannot be determined unless its dimensions are

given

Ans. (3)

Mental Aptitude MCQ

2011-06-09T05:13:00.000-07:00

Mental Aptitude MCQ
Mental Ability Test Free objective test
1. Metro Rail was launched in December 2002 in New Delhi between which two Stations?

(a) Shahadra – Tis Hazari

(b) I.S.B.T -Shahadra

(c) Centra1 Secretariat- I.S.B.T.

(d) Tis Hazari -Central Secretariat

Ans. (a)

2. Which is the Capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli?

(a) Kavaratti

(b) Port Blair

(c) Daman

(d) Silvassa

Ans. (b)

3. Durand Line is the International Boundary between—

(a) India and Pakistan

(b) Pakistan and Afghanistan

(c) India and China

(d) U.S.A. and Mexico

Ans. (b)

4. Panchatantra was written by—

(a) Jaidev

(b) Ved Vyas

(c) Bhavbhuti

(d) Vishnu Sharma

Ans. (d)

5. The headquarter of North Western Railway zone is—

(a) Jabalpur

(b) Bikaner

(c) Jaipur

(d) New Delhi

Ans. (c)

6. J&K leader , Sri Mufti Mohammad Sayeed belongs to which political party?

(a) People’s Democratic Party

(b) Congress

(c) Jammu Kashmir

(d) All Party Hurriyat Conference

Ans. (a)

7. Famous Indian Cartoonist, who died in December, 2002 was—

(a) R.K. Laxman

(b) Pran

(c) Abu Abraham

(d) Sudhir Dar

Ans. (a)

8. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is standing between F and C, A is standing between E and D, F is standing to the left of D. Who is standing between A and F.

(a) A

(b) C

(c) D

(d) E

Ans. (c)

9. P walks forward 10 m and then walks 10 m right. Again turning to the left and again he walks 5, 15 and 15m respectively.

At present time how far is he standing from his starting place?

(a) 20 m

(b) 23 m

(c) 10 m

(d) 5 m

Ans. (d)

10. Which name will come at last in telephone directory?

(a) Sita

(b) Sikand

(c) Sarveshwar

(d) Shyam

Ans. (a)

11. If in word ‘DISTURBANCE’ first letter is interchanged with last letter, second with tenth and others according to this rule are changed then in new word which 1ette will come after ‘T’?

(a) I

(b) S

(c) U

(d) N

Ans. (b)

12. In .a class of 49 students Ramesh’s rank is 18th. What is his rank from bottom?

(a) 18

(b) 19

(c) 31

(d) 32

Ans. (d)

13. In the numbers from 100 to 1000 how, many times digit ‘1’ comes at tens place?

(a) 9

(b) 900

(c) 10

(d) 90

Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 14—16): Six slabs of a cube is coloured as black, brown, red and white and blue that

1. Red is in front of black

2. Green is in between red and black

3. Blue is near to white

4. Brown is near to blue

5. Red is in bottom

Ans. (a)

14. .Which colour is, in front of brown?

(a) White

(b) Red

(c) Green

(d) Blue

Ans. (d)

15. Which colour is in front of green?

(a) Black

(b) White

(c) Brown

(d) Blue

Ans. (d)

16. Which three colours of the following meet on the corner of cube?

(a) Red, Black, Green

(b) Black, White, Blue

(c) White, Green, Red

(d) Brown, White, Blue

Ans. (b)

17. Kailash indicating to an old ‘man told, “His son is my Son’s uncle.” How is Kailash related to that old man?

(a) Brother

(b) Uncle

(c) Son

(d) Grandfather

Ans. (c)

18. If X is the brother of the son of” Y’s son, how is X related to Y?

(a) Son

(b) Brother

(c) Nephew

(d) Grandson

Ans. (d)

19. If x means ÷ , means x, ÷ means + and + means —, then value of

(3—15÷l9) x 8+6?

(a) 8

(b) 4

(c) 2

(d) – 1

Ans. (c)

20. Arrange the fol1owing in a logical order.

(1) Col1eege

(2) Child

(3) Salary

(4) School

(5) Employment

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(b) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

(c) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2

(d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

Ans. (b)

21. Day after tomorrow is my birthday. On the same day next week is a festival. Today is. Sunday. What will be the day just after festival?

(a) Tuesday

(b) Sunday

(c) Wednesday

(d) Thursday

Ans. (c)

Directions (Q. 22—26): Find the missing terms.(?) in the series.

22. 3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 127

(a) 30

(c) 47

(b) 31

(d) 52

Ans. (b0

23. 0, ?, 8, 15, 24

(a) 3

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 5

Ans. (a)

24. 6, 12, 21,?, 48

(a) 38

(b) 40

(c) 45

(d) 33

Ans. (d)

25. 7, 11, 13, 17,?, 23, 25

(a) 19

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 18

Ans. (a)

26. 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, 48?

(a) 58

(b) 62

(c) 64

(d) 66

Ans. (b)

Directions (Q. 27—31): Find the odd one:

27. Bear, kola-drink, Soda water, Milk

(a) Bear

(b) Kola-drink

(c) Soda, water

(d) Milk

Ans. (d)

28. Snake, Lizard, Whale fish, Crocodile

(a) Snake

(b) Lizard

(c) Whale

(d) Crocodile

Ans. (b)

29. Ranchi, Bhopal, Nagpur, Bangalore

(a) Ranchi

(b) Bhopal

(c) Nagpur

(d) Bangalore

Ans. (c)

30. 1236, 2346, 3456, 4566, 5686

(a) 2346

(b) 5686

(c) 4566

(d) 1236

Ans. (b)

31. Fingers, Palms, Wrist, Knee

(a) Fingers

(b) Palms

(c) Wrist

(d) Knee

Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 32—36): Three words have been given in the following questions. First two words to the left : : is related in a way. Find that word from the given alternatives who in relation as same to the right of

32. Carpenter : Saw : Tailor ?

(a) Cloth

(b) Needle

(c) Sewing

(d) Measurement

Ans. (b)

33. Butter : Milk : Book ?

(a) Paper

(c) Printing

(b) Chapter

(d) Writer

Ans. (b)

34. Court : Justice : School :

(a) Teacher

(b) Headmaster

(c) Student

(d) Education

Ans. (d)

35. Laugh : Enjoyment : Weep: ?

(a) Baby

(b) Punishment

(c) Remorse

(d) Grief

Ans. (d)

36. Patrolling : Safety : Insurance:?

(a) Money

(b) Protection

(c) Policy

(d) Finance

Ans. (b)

37. Study the trend in columns and identify the missing (?) number

6 8 15

3 2 5

4 3 ?

8 12 9

(a) 2

(b) 11

(c) 3

(d) 6

Ans. (c)

38. If in a code language PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL as 93596, then how ACCEPT will he written in that language?

(a) 455978

(b) 544978

(c) 554978

(d) 733961

Ans. (a)

39. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, then what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?

(a) 10

(b) 9

(c) 8

(d) 6

Ans. (b)

40. If in a language eraser is called box, box is called pencil, pencil is called sharpener and sharpener is called bag, then With what a child will write n that language?

(a) Eraser

(b) Box

(c) Pencil

(d Sharpener

Ans. (d)

41. If in language finger is called toe, toe is called foot, foot is called thumb, thumb is called ankle, ankle is called palm and palm is called knee, then in that language, what an illiterate man will put to mark his signature?

(a) Thumb

(b Ankle

(c) Knee

(d) Toe

Ans. (b)

Directions (Q. 42—46): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow :

1. Five friends P, Q, R, . S and T traveled to five different cities

Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi,

Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.

2. The person who traveled to Delhi did not travel by boat.

3. R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.

4. S traveled by boat whereas T traveled by train.

5. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

42. Which of the following combinations of persons and mode of transport is not correct?

(a) P-Bus

(b) Q-Aeroplane

(c) R-Car

(d T-Boat

Ans. (d)

43. Which of the following destinations is correct for ‘S’?

(a) Chennai

(b) Calcutta

(c) Delhi

(d) Data inadequate

Ans. (a)

44. Which of the following combination place and mode of transport is not correct?

(a) Delhi-Bus

(b) Calcutta-Aeroplane

(c) Hyderabad-Bus

(d) Bangalore-Car

Ans. (a)

45. The person travelling to Delhi went by which transport?

(a) Bus

(b) Train

(c) Aeroplane

(d) Car

Ans. (b)

46. Who travelled to Delhi?

(a) P

(b) S

(c) T

(d) Data inadequate

Ans. (c)

47. A person travels by his bicycle a distance of 50 km. He travels with the speed of 12.5 km/hr. After every 12.5 km., he takes a rest for 20 minutes. How much time will he take to complete the distance?

(a) 4 hours 20 minutes

(b) 5 hours 20 minutes

(c) 5 hours

(d) 6 hours

Ans. (c)

48. A and B walks on a circular path whose circumference is 35 km. They started walking from same place in the same direction with a uniform speed of ‘A’ is 4 km. per hour and speed of ‘B’ is 5 km. per hour. After how much time will they meet again?

(a) 15 hours

(b) 21 hours

(c) 35 hours

(d) 42 hours

Ans. (c)

49. Radius of a wheel is 6.5 m. How many spin will it take to complete the distance of 11 km?

(a) 28000

(b) 7000

(c) 4000

(d) 5500

Ans. (b)

50. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km. per hour?

(a) 7.2

(b) 3.6

(c) 10

(d) 8.4

Ans. (a)

Free Online Mental Aptitude test

2011-06-09T05:12:00.000-07:00

Free Online Mental Aptitude test
IQ and Aptitude Tests For Exams

1. Ashok starts to walk from the point P. He went 10 km towards North and 6 km toward

South. After this he went 3 km towards East. How far is he now from P?

(A) 4 km

(B) 5 km

(C) 7 km

(D) 3 km

Ans. (B)

2. Complete the following series after choosing the correct option—

c b a a – b a – a c c – a a b b a a a –c b a

(A) cabc

(B) babc

(C) bacc

(D) abcb

Ans. (B)

3. If it was Friday on 15th Aug. 2003, which day of the week will be on 15th Aug. 2005?

(A) Saturday

(B) Sunday

(C) Monday

(D) Thursday

Ans. (C)

4. In the following sequence there are how many such ‘6’ which are preceded by 8 and

followed by 3?

7 8 6 3 2 7 1 8 6 8 9 8 6 1 8 6 3 1 8

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Ans. (B)

5. What is the value of—

T + K – M ?

(A) S

(B) R

(C) Q

(D) P

Ans. (B)

6. In a class of 50 students, 36 students study Mathematics and 28 study Biology. The number of students studying both Mathematics and Biology will be—

(A) 22

(B) 14

(C) 30

(D) 12

Ans. (B)

7. If a man writes ‘QDGFHS’ for ‘TIGHER’, then in this way what will be write for

‘MONKEY’?

(A) XDHNMK

(B) YDJMLK

(C) XDJMNL

(D) XCHNMK

Ans. (C)

8. What is necessary for a nursing home?

(A) Nurse

(B) Ambulance

(C) Doctor

(D) Medicine

Ans. (C)

9. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =?

(A) 21

(B) 12

(C) 18

(D) 35

Ans. (C)

10. In a code if

Se ker he = hot good tea

Pek cha ker = good thunder pure

Nep cha he = fresh pure tea

Then in the same code how ‘thunder tea’ will be written?

(A) Pek he

(B) Cha he

(C) Pek ker

(D) Cha ker

Ans. (A)

11. The word formed in same sequence with the letter of the word ‘INFOMATION’ is—

(A) NATION -

(B) FORMAT

(C) RATIONAL

(D) ONION

Ans. (B)

12. Choose the correct number from the options?

015 : 00015: : 103:?

(A) 0103

(B) 0O103

(C) 1003

(D) 1030

Ans. (B)

13. Which one of the following will be seen same in the mirror?

(A) AUNUA

(B) OVCACV

(C) SVWVS

(D) TMAMT

Ans. (D)

14. What is the angle between the two hands of clock when it is 7 : 30?

(A) 45°

(B) 35°

(C) 325°

(D) 30°

Ans. (A)

15. A clock shows nine-half when seen in the mirror. What is the actual time?

(A) 3:30

(B) 2:30

(C) 6:10

(D) 1:30

Ans. (B)

16. A boy used in a picture Blue colour for Red, Red for Yellow, Yellow for Green and Green for Blue. What will be the colour of leaves?

(A) Green

(B) Blue

(C) Red

(D) Yellow

Ans. (D)

17. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

1. Leaves 2. Branch

3. Flower 4. Tree

5. Fruit

(A) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

(C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

(D) 4, 2, 1,3, 5

Ans. (D)

18. If ‘+‘ means ‘x’, ‘—‘ means ‘÷‘, ‘x’ means f—’, and ‘÷‘ means ‘+‘, then what is the value of—

9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 x 9

(A) 65

(B) 39

(C) 27

(D) 11

Ans. (A)

19. If ‘P’ means ‘+‘, ‘Q’ means ‘—‘, ‘R means ‘x’ and ‘S’ means ‘÷‘ which of the following equation is not correct?

(A) 1 R 5 = 16 Q 15 P 4

(B) 14 P S 10 = 7 R 2 Q 12

(C) 11 R 10 S 10 = 16 P 2 Q 7

(D) 3 Q 9 P 6 = 8 R 3 Q 24

Ans. (B)

20. In an examination if a student looses mark for the wrong answer and gets 1 mark for the correct answer. If he got 30 marks for solving54 questions, then how many questions were correct?

(A) 30

(B) 36

(C) 40

(D) 42

Ans. (B)

21. In a colony, each of the 20% families have two TV sets, 30% of the rest families have three TV sets. Each of the remaining families has one TV set. Which of the following statement is true’?

(A) 80% families have at least one TV set

(B) 50% families have two TV sets (C) 56% families have one TV set

(D) 30% families have three TV sets

Ans. (C)

22. Arrange the following words according to dictionary—

1. Bird 2. Bilk

3. Bill 4. Billion

5. Birth

Code:

(A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

(C) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

(D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5

Ans. (B)

23. If S — T means ‘5’ is the wife of ‘T’, S + T means ‘S’ is the daughter of ‘T’ and S ÷ T means ‘S’ is the son of ‘T’. What will M + J + K means?

(A) ‘K’ is the father of ‘M’

(B) ‘M’ is the grand-daughter of ‘K’

(C) ‘J’ is wife of ‘K’

(D) ‘K’ and ‘M’ are brothers

Ans. (B)

24. S x T means ‘S’ is brother of ‘T’ and S + T means ‘S’ is father of ‘T’, which of the following shows ‘0’ is the cousin of ‘R’ ?

(A) R x T + O

(B) R + T x O

(C) R x O x T

(D) None of these

Ans. (D)

25. If ‘P + Q’ means P is the husband of Q, P ÷ Q means ‘P’ is the sister of Q, and ‘P x Q’ means ‘P’ is son of Q, which of the following shows ‘A’ is daughter of ‘B’ ?

(A) A ÷ D x B

(B) D x B + C ÷A

(C) B ÷ C x A

(D) C x B ÷A

Ans. (A)

Free reasoning objective type questions

2011-06-09T05:09:00.000-07:00

Free reasoning objective type questions
Free online practice objective Questions for exams: Reasoning
1. If HARD is coded as 1357 and SOFT is

coded as 2468, what do the figures 21448 stand for?

(A) SHOP

(B) SCHOOL

(C) SHOOT

(D) SHOOL

Ans: C

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)215
(B) 143
(C)247
(D) 91

Ans : A

3. If MNPQWXFG stand for the word LOVE, how would you encode the word HATE?

(A) FGBCVUFG

(B) FGBCUVCD

(C) IJBGVUFG

(D) IJBCUVFG

Ans: D

4. In a row of thirty five children, M is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children between M and R. What is R’s position from the left end of the row?

(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) Data inadequate

Ans : D

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Platinum
(D) Diamond

Ans : D

6. If SEND-MONEY is coded as QCLB-KMLCW, how would you encode ‘MOST-

SECRET’?

Write the first and last letters only.

(A) R,K

(B) O,V

(C) K,R

(D) V,U

Ans: B

7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RBAE using each letter only once in each word?
(A)Three

(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three

Ans : A

8. If TOUR is coded as 1234 CLEAR is coded as 56784 and SPARE is coded as 90847, how you encode the word SCULPTURE?

(A) 953601347

(B) 935601437

(C) 567903417

(D) None of these

Ans: A

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three

Ans : D

10. If A is coded 2, B is coded as 4 and C is coded 6,

what does the following number stand for?

12 10 10 8

(A) PEEP

(B) FEED

(C) DOOR

(D) DEAF

Ans: b

11. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?

(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three

Ans : D

12. If Sister is coded as 535301, Uncle is coded as 84670 and Boy is coded as 129, how will you encode the word ‘SON’?

(A) 923

(B) 524

(C) 342

(D) 872

Ans: b

13. Jn a certain code language ‘over and above’ is written as ‘da pa ta’ and ‘old and beautiful’ is written as ‘sa na pa’. How is ‘over’ written in that code language?
(A)da
(B) ta
(C)na
(D)da or ta

Ans : D

14. If SLEEP is coded as XMKKB, SPEAR is coded as X8KOY and PULL is coded as BEMM then how would you encode the word PLEASURE?

(A) XYKBMOFK

(B) BMKOXEYK

(C) KOXFYKBM

(D) BKMOXEKY

Ans: B

Directions—(Q. 15-17) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below—
832 719 654 967 481
15.If the positions of the second and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the first and the second digits of the third highest number?
(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 15

Ans : A

16. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the second highest number?
(A) 144

(B) 133
(C) 385
(D) 182

Ans : A

17. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the lowest number?
(A) 8
(B)11
(C) 15
(D)12

Directions—(Q. 18-24) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I ,II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements:
All chairs are keys.
All keys are balloons.
Some balloons are mirrors.
Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III Some mirrors are balloons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow

Ans : D

19. Statements:
Some drums are posters.
All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets.
All tablets are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows

Ans : B

20. Statements:
Some boxes are toys.
Some toys are nails.
Some nails are stores.
Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these

Ans : C

21. Statements:
All doors are windows. No window is house.
Some houses are buildings.
All buildings are skies.
Conclusions:
I. Some skies are doors.
II. Some skies are houses.
III. Some buildings are doors.

(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow

Ans : B

22. Statements:
All rivers are wails.
All walls are stones.
All stones are clothes.
All clothes are frees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are stones.
II Some clothes are rivers.
III. All walls are clothes.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(B) None of these

Ans : D

23. Statements:
Some letters are glasses. Some glasses are plates.
All plates are buses. All buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are letters.
II. Some cars are glasses.
III. Some buses are glasses.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow

Ans : D

24. Statements:
All books are pens.
Some pens are ropes.
All ropes are discs.
Some discs are bricks.
Conclusions:
I. Some bricks are ropes.
II. Some discs are books.
III. Some bricks are pens.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(B) Only II and III follow

Ans : A

25. If the word BOY is coded as ACNPXZ, what does the coded word RTNPMO stand for?

(A) SON

(B) CUT

(C) PEN

(D) DOG

Ans: A

26. In a certain code CROWNED is written as PSDVEFO. How is
STREAMS written in that code?
(A) SUTDBNT
(B) TUSDTNB
(C) SUTFTNB
(D) None of these

Ans : D

27. If the word GASP is coded as KMRO and CROW is coded as AXYZ then how would

you encode the word SPARROW?

(A) TRCTTOY

(B) ROMXYZY

(C) ROMXXYZ

(D) VSDUURZ

Ans: c

28. If 8514 stands for HEAD, 3945 stands for RIDE and 057 stands for BEG then what

does stand for GRADE?

(A) 13754

(B) 41357

(C) 14735

(D) 73145

Ans: d

29. If INDUS is coded as 03865 and TENNIS is coded as 243305 then STUDENT will be coded as:

(A) 5268432
(B) 5642832

(C) 5628342

(D) 5648324

Ans: a

30. ‘DEAN’ is related to ‘NDAE’ and ‘ROAD’ is related to ‘DRAO’ in the same way as ‘SOME’ is related to
(A)ESMO
(B) BOMS
(C)EMOS
(D) MSEO

Ans : A

31. If COW is coded as 358, WORD is coded as

8571 and DRAW is code das 1708 then how

would you encode the word COWARD?

(A) 358017

(B) 358071

(C) 358077

(D) 507381

Ans: B

32. Among P, Q, T, A and B each having a different height, T is taller than P and B but shorter than A and Q. P is not the shortest. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) None of these

Ans : D

33. Mohan correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is before twentieth January but after sixteenth January whereas his sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after eighteenth January but before twenty-third January. On which date in January is definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Eighteenth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Twentieth
(D) Data inadequate

Ans : B

34. If SON is coded as TUPQOP, what will be

the first and last letters of the coded word of

FATHER?

(A)GH

(B) G T

(C) D E

(D) P Q

Ans: b

Directions—(Q. 35—431) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B 4 @ D A © 7 9 F % 2 R 5 H 6 E
* N $ 1 U W 3 P T 8 & v # Y I

35. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twenty- first from the left end of the above arrangement?
(A)R
(B)1
(C)5
(DNone of these

Ans : D

36. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the right end?
(A)W
(B)6
(C)*
(D)R

Ans : D

37. How many such consonants are there in the above e arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a vowel?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two

Ans : C

38. In which of the following com binations the first element is in between the second and the third elements in the above arrange
ment? -
(A)2%F
(B) 9©7
(C)5H6
(D) *EN

Ans : D

39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)562
(B) WPU
(C)©9D
(D) &#T
(E)U3$

Ans : B

40. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Ans : C

41. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Ans : C

42. If LINE CLEAR is coded as OKQGFN HCU, what will be the first and last letters of the word for which the letters ZKUGS CUVXTH stand for?

(A) W E

(B) Z F

(C)YG

(D) Z H

Ans: A

43. In a certain code TRAIN is written as ‘39*7%’ and MEAL is written as ‘4$*@
How is ITEM written in that code?
(A)7$34
(B) 73$4
(C)79$4
(D) 73*4

Ans : B

44. If each consonant in the word TOLERANT is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel in the word is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the new set of letters are arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement?
(A) M
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) K

Ans : B

45. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on till the positions of the seventh and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third to the right of 3 after the rearrange ent?
(A)9
(B)7
(C)8
(D)2

Ans : A

46. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than W and lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
(A) R
(B) W
(C) R or W
(D) Data inadequate

Ans : C

47. lf ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, ‘P’, denotes ‘x’,‘W’ denotes ‘+’ and
‘V’ denotes‘-‘then14W16R4V3P5=?
(A) 15
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3

Ans : D
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A VY

(B) EB
(C) TQ
(D) IF

Ans : A

49. In a row of thirty children, M is sixth to the right of R who is twelfth from the left end. What is M’s position from the right end of the row ?
(A) Twelfth
(B) Thirteenth
(C) Fourteenth
(D) Data inadequate

Ans : B

50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 169
(B) 441
(C) 361
(D) 529

Ans : B

Free online Reasoning For Bank Exams

2011-06-07T19:00:00.000-07:00

Free online Reasoning For Bank Exams
Free Bank Po Online Practice Test :Reasoning
Bank Exam Solved Question Paper :Reasoning

1. If the given letters are represented by the numerals below them,

R T S U V A B C D E

8 5 2 0 6 7 9 1 3 4

Then, 408927 =?

(A) EURSBA

(B) ESRBSA

(C) EURBSA

(D) ESRBAS

Ans. (C)

2. If 45 x 3747; 57 x 6458 and 94 x 2746.

What is 84 x 36?

(a) 62

(b) 48

(c) 54

(d) 57

Ans. (b)

3. Which of the following operations when done in the same order in which they occur will not result in the same number with which one starts?

(a) + 2 x 7—4 ÷ 2 x 3 – 10 + 3 — 8

(b) —12 + 4 x 3 ÷ 6 x 5 —15 + 7 x 5 + 10

(c) + 3 x 4 – 8 ÷ 2 x 10 — 3 + 8 — 25

(d) —15 + 19 x 5 + 4 + 7x 2—28 + 4

Ans. (d)

4. The following information A, B, C, D, E, F and G are supplied about the players in a college. To answer the question. “How many play Hockey and Volleyball?” Which information is superfluous, that is not essentially required?

Information:

I. 40 players in a college play Hockey, Volleyball and Football.

II. 18 of them play two or more games.

III. 5 play all the three games.

IV. The number of players who Volleyball and Football is half of the number who play Hockey and Football.

V. Equal number of players plays only Football and Hockey.

VI. Four play Hockey and Football.

VII. Ten play only Hockey.

(a) I, V, VII

(b) II, VI, VII

(c) III, IV, VII

(d) I, III, V

Ans. (b)

Directions: Given below is a statement called “Assertion” (A) which is followed by another statement called “Reason” (R). Find out which of the following answer-choice is correct about them?

5. (a) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

(b) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’

(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’

Assertion (A): Hindi should be the official language of India

Reason (R): Majority of people living in India are Hindus.

Ans. (c)

6. (a) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

(b) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A’

(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’

Assertion (A): There is population explosion in India

Reason (R): India has failed to check the fertility rate

Ans. (d)

7. Indicate which of the following actions the most appropriate in the situation is given below:

Situation: Two-three students in the class of a sincere and devoted teacher frequently disturb him in the class while teaching. He is fed up with them.

Courses of Action:

(a) He tells the students of the class that he will not hold the classes if the disturbing students continue doing that

(b) He suspends the disturbing students from attending his class in the interest of the whole class

(c) He talks to the disturbing students to find

out what makes them behave that way and what could become about them

(d) He reports against them to the Principal with are commendation to take strong action against them

Ans. (c)

8. In the following argument indicate whether the conclusion drawn is

(a) Valid

(b) Invalid

(c) Doubtful

(d) Long-drawn one

Argument: A is taller than B, B is shorter than K, K is equal to S. So, S is taller than B.

Ans. (a)

9. A statement is followed by two inferences A’ and ‘B’. Indicate how the statement implies the inferences by selecting one of the following answer-choices;

(a) Only ‘A’ is implied

(b) Only ‘B’ is implied

(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are implied

(d) Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ is implied

Statement: All ideals and values are not practical.

Inferences: (A) Some ideals and values are practical.

(B) Some ideals and values are not practical.

Ans. (c)

10. Given below are two statements I and II followed by two conclusions ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Considering the statements to be true even if in contradictors with known facts, indicate your answer by choosing one of the alternatives given below the conclusions how they can be inferred:

Statements: (I) To be alive one needs sufficient oxygen.

(II) Hilly stations have less oxygen in the air.

Conclusions: (A) One should take oxygen plant with him while visiting

the hilly station.

(B) No one should go to the hilly station.

(a) Only (A) can be inferred

(b) Only (B) can be inferred

(c) (A) and (B) both can be inferred

(d) Neither (A) nor (B) can be inferred

Ans. (a)

Directions: Given below are two statements ‘A’ and ‘B ‘followed by two inferences (I) and (II) drawn on the basis of principles of formal logic. Indicate which of the following answer choices is correct in each question.

11. Statements: (A) Only graduates are eligible for this post.

(B) Most rickshaw-pullers are graduates.

Inferences: (I) Some rickshaw-pullers are eligible for this post.

(II) All those eligible for this post are graduates.

(a) Only inference I is correct

(b) Only inference II is correct

(c) Both inferences I and II are correct

(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct

Ans. (c)

12. Statements: (A) All grapes are oranges.

(B) Some apples are not oranges.

Inferences: (I) All apples are grapes.

(II) Some apples are grapes.

(a) Only inference I is correct

(b) Only inference II is correct

(c) Both inferences I and II are correct

(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct

Ans. (d)

13. Statements: (A) All horses are donkeys.

(B) All donkeys are monkeys.

Inferences: (I) All horses are monkeys.

(II) All monkeys are horses.

(a) Only inference I is correct

(b) Only inference II is correct

(c) Both inference I and II are correct

(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct

Ans. (d)

Directions: Given below is one statement followed by two inferences (A) and (B) drawn on the basis of principles of formal logic. Indicate which of the following answer choices is correct in each question.

14. Statement: No man is infallible.

Inference: (A) All men are fallible.

(B) No infallible persona are men.

(a) Only inference (A) is correct

(b) Only inference (B) is correct

(c) Both inferences (A) and (B) are correct

(d) Neither inference (A) nor inference (B) is correct

Ans. (b)

15. Statement: Hardly a cattle lay eggs.

Inference: (A) A few Cattle lay eggs

(B) No cattle lay eggs.

Ans. (b)

16. Statement: All those committing crimes will he punished.

Inference: (A) No criminal will be excused at any cost.

(B) A few of those who commit crime are liable to punishment.

Ans. (a)

17. Whom would you like to appoint us a teacher in your school?

(a) A good scholarly person of submissive personality

(b) A disciple loving teacher of authoritarian attitude

(c) An enthusiastic person of moderate knowledge

(d) One who poses to be a good scholar in the class

Ans. (c)

18. Complete the series by choosing the best alternative given

Series: 6, 12, 20, 30, P

(a) 36

(b) 32

(d) 49

(c) 42

Ans. (c)

19. “A single shelf of a good European Library is worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia.” This statement is

(a) Factual

(b) Logical

(c) Opinion

(d) Reactionary

Ans. (D)

20. If the Statements I and II are true, which of the two conclusions, A and B follows?

Statements I: Some of those who pass this examination shall become teachers.

II. All teachers are well paid

Conclusion: A: All those who pass this examination shall be well paid

B: Some of those who pass this examination shall not be well paid

Choose from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Both A and B

(d) None of A and B

Ans. (A)

21. If ‘X loves Y’ is true, what can be inferred about ‘Y loves X’? It is

(a) True

(b) False

(c) May be true

(d) None of the above

Ans. (C)

20. ‘Honesty is the best policy’ because

(a) God rewards those who follow this maxim

(b) It leads to recognition in the society

(c) It facilitates cohesiveness in society

(d) It leads to material prosperity and spiritual awakening

Ans. (C)

21.The argument ‘I think therefore I am’ presupposes that

(a) All thinking beings exist

(b) All existing beings think

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

Ans. (C)

22. If ‘No politician is dishonest’ is false, then the statement ‘Some politicians are dishonest’ shall be

(a) True

(b) False

(c) May be true

(d) None of the above

Ans. (B)

23. Which one of the following statements follows from the statement ‘Only goods trains stop at this station’?

(a) Some goods trains stop at this station

(b) All goods trains stop at this station

(c) Some goods trains do not stop at this station

(d) All trains that stop at this station are goods trains

Ans. (D)

24. Consider the following statements:

(1) The sunset is beautiful

(2) Mahatma Gandhi believed in non-violence

(3) Do not tell the world what you can do, just do it

(4) Those who own a car, are rich. Which one of the following is correct?

Fact Opinion Advice Assumption

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 2 1 3 4

Ans. (A)

25. Education and Socio-economic development are

(a) related in a direct proportion

(b) related in an indirect proportion

(c) sometimes related and sometimes not related

(d) not related

Ans. (A)

26. Bats are mammals because bats suckle their young and

(a) All those who suckle their young are mammals

(b) All mammals suckle their young

(c) Some of those who suckle their young are mammals

(d) All the above

Ans. (B)

27. Which one of the following is the most forceful argument to support the statement that ‘Women must be given fifty per cent reservation in Parliament’?

(a) Women constitute fifty per cent of the population

(b) Women have so far been marginalized in public and political life

(c) This will facilitate the optimum use of the available human resources

(d) This will fulfill the constitutional requirement of not discriminating on the basis of

sex

Ans. (B)

28. Read the following statements:

A. Only students working for adult literacy are members of the National Service Scheme

(NSS).

B. Many adult literacy workers are members of NGO’s

C. Some NSS members have been called for a meeting

Which of the following conclusions is acceptable from the above?

(a) All adult literacy workers have been called for the meeting

(b) All NGO’s work for adult literacy

(c) All students work with NGO’s

(d) All those called for the meeting are students

Ans. (d)

29. Evaluate the following statements in terms of whether each is a fact, opinion, prejudice or advice.

A Women arc not suitable for Police Service

B. In democracy. no party should be in power for too long

C. Have proper rest, even during the Examination time

D. Obesity is a risk factor for coronary heart disease

Which of the following is the correct alternative?

Opinion Prejudice Fact Advice

(a) B C D A

(b) B A D C

(c) C A D B

(d) B D C A

Ans. (b)

30. Child labour can best he eradicated if the following is done for the concerned children

(a) Schools are opened and free lunch is provided

(b) Employment is provided to parents and tree education given to children

(c) Appropriate laws are enacted and enforced

(d) Employers of child labourers are punished and children are sent to school

Ans. (b)

31. Considering the proposition given below to he true, indicate which of the following conclusions can he drawn validly:

Proposition: No teacher is on time for the class

Conclusions:

(a) No persons who are on time for their classes arc teachers

(b) Some teachers arc not late for their classes

(c) Most teachers come to their classes on time

(d) Few teachers come on time for their classes

Ans. (d)

32. Given below are two Statements—I and II followed by two conclusions—A and B. Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below:

Statements: I. Some teachers are women.

II. No teacher is absent.

Conclusions: A. There is no male teachers.

B. All women teachers are present.

(a) Only A is true

(b) Only B is true

(c) Both A and B are true

(d) Neither A nor B is true

Ans. (d)

33. Find out which alternative statement can be inferred from the given information. Given Information: To listen effectively we have to guard against the tendency to skip over ideas which we may not like to hear”

(A) Skipping over the unwanted ideas increases the speed of listening.

(B) Some people tend to skip over unwanted ideas

(C) Selective skipping leads to effective listening

(D) One should not have likes and dislikes for information while listening to it.

Ans. (D)

34. Four inferences from the statement given below are indicated. Find out which inference is possible from the given statement:

“People in Armenia speak ‘Zymonic’”.

(A) Zymonic is spoken only in Armenia

(B) Some people in Georgia also speak Zymonic

(C) No one in Armenia speaks language other than Zymonic

(D) Some in Armenia speak languages other than Zymonic

Ans. (C)

35. Rage and Irritation are related in the same way as:

(A) Anger and Fear

(B) Joy and Delight

(C) Laughter and Smile

(D) Elation and Pride

Ans. (B)

36. To study the relationship of family size with income, a researcher classifies his population into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each slab. Which technique of sampling does he adopt?

(A) Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Random Sampling

(C) Cluster Sampling

(D) Systematic Sampling

Ans. (B)

37. Read the statement given below:

“English is an invaluable asset in international communication.” Mark the correct one

(A) If the statement is a fact

(B) If the statement is an advice

(C) If the statement is an opinion

(D) If the statement is a prejudice

Ans. (C)

38. Four children are abused by a fifth one. All these four children react differently to the abuse and the ways in which they react are listed below. Which one of the reactions shows the maximum emotional maturity?

(A) Retorts with another abuse

(B) Runs away from the scene

(C) Keeps silent

(D) Gives a turn to the situation with humor

Ans. (C)

39. Read the statement given below:

“Supersonic jets have made the world too small”, Mark in the response sheet.

(A) If it is a fact

(B) If it is a value

(C) If it is an opinion which is not a value

(D) If it is a value judgment

Ans. (A)

40. For a proposition to be true it is necessary that it should have all of the following characteristics except

(A) It must be objective

(B) It must be in tune with accepted beliefs

(C) It must be consistent

(D) It must be testable

Ans. (D)

41. Read the passage given below. Then answer the question based on the passage:

I went to the market and bought a skirt, a bat, a table, a video and a cassette, the bat costs half the costs of the table, the cassette costs twice the bat, the video’s price is thrice the costs of the cassette and the skirt costs double the price of the cassette. Which article costs more than table, but less than video?

(A) Cassette

(B) Skirt

(C) Table

(D) Video

Ans. (B)

42. Find out which alternative statement can be inferred from the given information.

Given information:

“Listening is an activity, it begins with concentration”.

(A) Listening improves concentration

(B) Listening follows concentration

(C) Listening starts concentration

(D) Sometime it is possible to listen without concentration

Ans. (B)

43. The last day of a month is Saturday. Which of the following days could occur five times in the month?

(A) Tuesday

(B) Wednesday

(C) Thursday

(D) Sunday

Ans. (C)

44.P is the grandchild of Q, S is the wife of R. Which of the following informations would help to infer that S is the aunt of P?

(A) Q is the father of R

(B) R is the son-in-law of Q

(C) R is the brother of P’s father

(D) P is the daughter of Q’s daughter

Ans. (C)

45. The words are arranged in some order. Which sequence follows a rule?

(A) Blue, red, violet, green

(B) Green, violet, red, blue

(C) Red, blue, green, violet

(D) Violet, red, blue, green

Ans. (B)

46. Many words can be produced from the given word. They are grouped into four clusters. One of the clusters contains a word that cannot be produced from the given word. Which is that cluster?

Given word: FRAGRANCE

Clusters:

(A) GRACE, FARE, RAN

(B) FAR, RAGE, RARE

(C) FRANCE, GLANCE, CAR

(D) ARE, CAN, RAG

Ans. (C)

47. If A means “not equal to” (), B means “greater than” (>), C means “not less then” D means “is equal to” (=),E means “is not greater than and F means “is less than” (<), then according to the given basic statement (4x F5y) and (5yE 3s), which one of the following conclusions is correct?

(a) 4x B 3s

(b) 4x D 3s

(c) 4x A 3s

(d) 4x C 3s

Ans. (c)

48. If 2 *+ ** = 92, then which are of the following is the value of the star symbol (*)?

(a) 8—7

(b) 9—6

(c) 7—5

(d) 10—4

Ans. (d)

49. Fill in the missing number in the arrangement. They are arranged on the basis of a principle:

5 7 9

9 6 4

36 36 ?

(a) 40

(b) 32

(c) 36

(d) 42

Ans. (b)

50. A clock always has

(a) Battery

(b) Numbers

(c) Alarm

(d) Needles

(e) Frame

Ans. (d)

Free reasoning practice test

2011-06-01T08:03:00.000-07:00

Free reasoning practice test
Free Verbal Reasoning Practice Test
Free Logical Reasoning Online Practice Test
1. On the eve of Diwali festival, a group of 12 friends greeted every other friend by sending greeting cards. Find the number of cards purchased by the group.
(a) 156
(b) 144
(c) 132
(d) 72
(e) 66
Ans. (c)
2. At the end of a business conference, the ten people present all shake hands with each other once. How many handshakes will there be altogether?
(a) 20
(b) 45
(c) 55
(d) 90
Ans. (b)
3. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every 15 soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is:
(a) 85
(b) 80
(c) 75
(d) 7
Ans. (c)
4. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all, how many did he solve correctly?
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 24
(d) 18
Ans. (b)
5. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In city Y, 10 men leave the bus and five women enter. Now, number of men and women is equal. How many passengers entered the bus in the beginning?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 36
(d) 45
Ans. (d)
6. If L denotes Х, M denotes ÷, P denotes + and Q denotes -, then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?
(a) 13/6
(b) -1/6
(c) 141/2
(d) 10
Ans. (d)
7. If Х means ‘addition’, - means ‘division’, ÷ means ‘subtraction’ and + means ‘multiplication’, then which of the following equations is correct?
(a) 16 Х 5 ÷ 10 + 4 = 19
(b) 16 + 5 ÷ 10 Х 4 – 3 = 9
(c) 16 + 5 - 10 Х 4 ÷ 3 = 9
(d) 16 - 5 Х 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 12
Ans. (c)
8. 2 Х 3 + 6 – 12 ÷ 4 = 17
(a) Х and +
(b) + and –
(c) + and ÷
(d) – and ÷
9. 12 ÷ 2 – 6 Х 3 + 8 = 16
(a) ÷ and Х
(b) – and +
(c) Х and +
(d) ÷ and Х
Ans. (b)
Directions: In each of the following questions if the interchanges are made in signs and numbers, which one of the four equations would be correct?
10. Given interchanges: Signs: + and Х and numbers 4 and 5
(a) 5 Х 4 + 20 = 40
(b) 5 Х 4 + 20 = 85
(c) 5 Х 4 + 20 = 104
(d) 5 Х 4 + 20 = 95
Ans. (c)
11. Given interchanges: Signs: ÷ and + and numbers 6 and 3
(a) 3 + 6 ÷ 2 = 5
(b) 6 ÷ 3 + 2 = 8
(c) 3 + 6 ÷ 5 = 7
(d) 3 ÷ 6 + 1 = 6
Ans. (c)
12. Given interchanges: Signs: ÷ and + and numbers 9 and 3
(a) 3 + 9 ÷ 4 = 8
(b) 3 ÷ 3 + 9 = 13
(c) 3 + 9 ÷ 2 = 5
(d) 3 + 9 ÷ 9 = 2
Ans. (c)
13. If 43 = 158; 35 = 824; 42 = 153, then 32 = ?
(a) 84
(b) 83
(c) 85
(d) 94
(e) 113
Ans. (b)
14. If 3 * 7 = 58; 5 * 6 = 61; 3 * 2 = 13, then 5 * 4 = ?
(a) 39
(b) 41
(c) 81
(d) 90
(e) 54
Ans. (b)
15. If 84 Ѳ 72 = 45; 63 Ѳ 41 = 33; 25 Ѳ 52 = 33, then 94 Ѳ 82 = ?
(a) 45
(b) 59
(c) 56
(d) 65
(e) 89
Ans. (c)
16. In the following series, how many such odd numbers are there which are divisible by 3 or 5, then followed by odd numbers and then also followed by even numbers?
12, 19, 21, 3, 25, 18, 35, 20, 22, 21, 45, 46, 47, 48, 9, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56.
(a) Nil
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
Ans. (c)
17. In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for Go, 4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence were to continue, which instruction will come next?
4 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3 1 4 5 3 1 2 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3
(a) Wait
(b) Sit
(c) Run
(d) Stop
Ans. (c)
18. Mohan and Ramesh are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class of 41 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?
(a) 30th and 34th
(b) 34th and 30th
(c) 35th and 31st
(d) 36th and 32nd
Ans. (c)
19. In a row of girls, Kashish in fifth from the left and Mona is sixth, from the right. When they interchange their place among themselves Kashish becomes thirteenth from the left. Then what will be Mona’s position from the right?
(a) 4th
(b) 8th
(c) l4th
(d) 15th
Ans. (c)

20. Suraj went to movies nine days ago. He goes to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the week is today?
(a) Thursday
(b) Saturday
(c) Sunday
(d) Tuesday
Ans. (b)

Free Reasoning mcq test for Insurance AO Exams

2011-05-21T23:08:00.001-07:00

Free Reasoning mcq test for Insurance AO Exams
Solved Sample Paper AO Exam
AAO and Administrative Officers Written Test Preperation :Reasoning
1. In which group the members do not share at all a common property?
(a) 5372, 3275, 2357, 7325
(b) 4663, 3657, 5634, 6435
(c) 3462, 4713, 8304, 4623
(d) 4783, 5876, 3425, 7254
Ans:- ( b )

2. A start with 20 and carry on certain arithmetic operations in sequence. Which of the following sequence of operations will not help to arrive at the same 20
(a) + 4 ÷ l x 7 — l
(b) x 3 + 4 ÷ 16 x 5
(c) — 7 x 2 – 2 + 7
(d) + 8 ÷ 14 x 12 — 3
Ans:- (d )

3. Introducing a visitor the lady Principal of a college said, ‘His wife is the only daughter of my father”. How is that visitor related to the lady principal?
(a) As brother
(b) As father in law
(c) As husband
(d) As maternal uncle
Ans:- (c )

4. If x means ÷,- means x; ÷ means +, and + means -, then the value of the expression (3 — 15 ÷ 11) x 8 + 6 will be
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 0
(d) 1
Ans:- ( d )

5. I am facing South, which of the following sequences of turnings will result in facing me the same direction
(a) left, right, left, right, left, left, right, right
(b) left, left, right, right, left, right, left, left
(c) right, right, right, left, left, left, right, right
(d) right, left, left, right, left, left, right, left
Ans:- (a )

6. Which of the following pairs of months will have the same calendar.
(a) January-October
(b) April-November
(c) July-October
(d) March-August
Ans:- (d )
7. If 879 = 8, 625 = 3 and 586 = 9, what is 785?
(a) 7
(b) 0
(c) 9
(d) 6
Ans:- (b )

8. Find out the number that does not have the same property shared by others.
(a) 6385
(b) 7496
(c) 3658
(d) 4659
Ans:- (d )

Directions (Qs. Nos. 9 to 11) Find out the number that comes next and complete the series.
9. 9, 25, 49, 81, 121………
(a) 144 (b) 81
(c) 156 (d)169
Ans:- ( d )

10. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6………..
(a) zero (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 11
Ans:- (a )

11. 1, 2, 5………
(a)10 (b)9
(c)8 (d)15
Ans:- ( a )

12. If 5 x 4 = 15, 7 x 8 = 49 and 6 x 5 = 24, what will 8 x 4 be
(a) 24
(b) 64
(c) 28
(d) 30
Ans:- ( a )

Directions (Qs. Nos. 13 to 14) : There exists some relationship between the terms to the left of the Sign ::, as between the terms to its right. Identify the missing term.

13. ADE : FGJ : : KNO : ?
(a) PQT (b) PQR
(c) STQ (d) PRS
Ans:- ( a )

14. ABC : ZYX : : CBA : ?
(a) ZXY (b) BCA
(c) XYZ (d) XZY
Ans:- ( c )

Directions: Two objects or events are related in some way. You have to pick out only that option which has the same type of relationship as stated in Qs. Nos. 15 to 16.
15. Free and forest
(a) Ocean and ships
(b) Books and letters
(C) Books and library
(d) Boys and teacher
Ans:- (c )

16. Pulp and paper
(a) Yarn and fabric
(b) Iron and wood,
(c) Wood and furniture.
(d) (a) and (c)
Ans:- ( d )

17. Five books are kept on each other. E is at A, C is below B. If A is above B and D is below C, then which is at the top?
(a)E
(b)D
(c)B
(d)A
Ans:- (a )

18 In a row of boys, Subhash is 14th from the left, now he changes his position in such a way that 3 more boys from his right stand to his left and he becomes 10th from his left. How many boys are there in the row ?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 23
(d) 20
Ans:- ( d )

19. What will be the angle between two hands of a clock at 8.30?
(a) 600
(b) 45°
(c) 750
(d) 350
Ans:- ( c )

20. How many Tuesday are posi1ble if the last day of the month is Wednesday?
(a) 4 only
(b) 5 and 4 both
(c) 5 only
(d) 3 only
Ans:- ( b )

21. In a group of five person A, B C, D and E one plays tennis, one plays chçss and one hockey. A and D are unmarried women and play no game..
There is a couple among them where B is husband of C? No women play either chess or Hockey. B is the brother of C and he neither plays tennis nor chess. Who plays hockey here
(a)A
(b)B
(c)C
(d)E
Ans:- ( b )

Directions (Qs. Nos. 22 to 26) : in each one of the questions given below, one Statement and two Assumptions have been given. The Assumptions follow the Statement and have been shown against serial Numbers I and II Any accepted and assimilative fact is called
Assumption. You have to keep the Statement and the two Assumptions in full view. Decide. which one of these Assumptions is inherent in the Statement given before them.

22. Statement: Poor people of India prefer to use jaggery (gur) The government has decided to stop the distribution of sugar through the Public Distribution System (PDS) and thus, decontrol it.
Assumptions:
1. All the poor people get jaggery (gur) at reasonable rates and quite easily.
II. The public Distribution System (PDS) has lost its utility.
(a) Only Assumption I .is inherent b) Only Assumption II is inherent
(c) Either Assumption I or Assumption II is inherent
(d) Both Assumption I and Assumption 11 are inherent
Ans:- ( d )

23. Statement : Till the time the country ‘X’ does not achieve full Literacy, it cannot achieve its target of development.
Assumptions:
I. It is possible to achieve 100 per cent literacy in country ‘X’
II. Development is not possible without a proper mission
(a) Only Assumption I is inherent
(b) Only Assumption 11 is inherent
(c) Either Assumption I or Assumption II is inherent
(d) Both Assumption I and Assumption II are inherent
Ans:- ( c )

24. Statement: Many species of animals, which are found on our earth, have not been scientifically studied till date; and if we do not execute this task now, many species may be become extinct.
Assumptions:
I. It is possible that all types of life may soon come to an end of the earth
II. It is desired and also possible to study the species of many animals
(a) Only Assumption I is inherent
(b) Only Assumption II is inherent
(c) Either Assumption I or Assumption II is inherent
(d) Both Assumption I and Assumption 11 are inherent
Ans:- ( b )

25. Statement: Believe me, I have read it in the daily newspaper ‘A’.
Assumptions:
I. Daily newspaper ‘A’ gives reliable information/news.
II. I am telling exactly the same thing, which was given in the daily newspaper ‘A’.
(a) Only Assumption us inherent
(b) Only Assumption Ii is inherent
(c) Either Assumption I or Assumption His inherent
(d) Both Assumption I and Assumption II are inherent
Ans:- (d )

26. Statement: In order to eliminate the ailmente of the human race, herbs and plants can be used quite safely.
Assumptions:
I. Herbs can plants cannot be used to eliminate the ailments of animals
II. The therapy of treatment by herbs and plants is becoming popular
(a) Only Assumption I is in herent
(b) Only Assumption II is inherent
(c) Eiter Assumption I or Assumption ii is inherent
(d) Neither Assumption I nor Assumption II are inherent.
Ans:- ( d )

27. Facing towards South, Neha walked 50 metres. She then turned to her right and walked 30 metres. She again turned right and walked 50 metres. How far was she from his original point and in which direction she is now?
(a) 30 metes and in the East
(b) 30 metres and in the West
(c) 50 metres and in the West
(d) 30 metres and in the North
Ans:- ( d)

28. Six boys are standing in a row. D is to the left of F. C is between A and B but not near to B. B is to the right of E and a neighbour of D. Who are on the extremes?
(a) C and D
(b) A and F
(c) F and C
(d) E and B
Ans:- (b )

29. in a month there are five Saturdays. The first day of the mo would be
(a) Sunday
(b) Friday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Monday
Ans:- ( b)

30. If ABC = 144, which of the following cannot be the value of C
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) zero
(d) 2
Ans:- (c )