Ham Radio Study

Handiham Open General Audio Lectures

2007-06-06T15:04:00.001-05:00

Hurry! Handi-Ham Open General Continues for only two more weeks

Take our "Open General" audio lecture course! These 27 audio lectures are designed to help you earn your General Class ticket. Originally recorded to teach blind Handi-Ham members, they refer to requesting "diagram-free exams". If you are not blind, you will be responsible for all the questions in the General pool. The lectures are for the pool that is valid until July 1, 2007.

If you use this resource, please consider supporting the non-profit Courage Handi-Ham System with a tax-deductible gift.

A list of streaming lecture links follows:

Please feel free to use these Handiham Online Audio lectures. As a public service, we are opening the current General up for everyone as the new pool lectures will be starting soon and the old ones are good to June 30, but you need to study and listen in turbo mode! These are streaming audio links to the 27 audio lectures for the pool that is good through June 30, 2007.

http://www.handiham.org/audio/general_class_welcome.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/01_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/02_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/03_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/04_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/05_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/06_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/07_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/08_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/09_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/10_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/11_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/12_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/13_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/14_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/15_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/16_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/17_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/18_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/19_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/20_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/21_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/22_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/23_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/24_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/25_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/26_gen.m3u
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/general/27_gen.m3u

Happy Studying!

73,
Patrick Tice
wa0tda@arrl.net
Handiham Manager

Extra Class Pool 4

2006-01-18T14:00:00.000-06:00

E4D Noise suppression: vehicular system noise; electronic motor noise; static;
line noise

E4D01 (A)
What is one of the most significant problems associated with reception in HF
transceivers?
A. Ignition noise
B. Doppler shift
C. Radar interference
D. Mechanical vibrations

E4D02 (A)
What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile
transceiver?
A. Follow the vehicle manufacturer's recommended procedures
B. Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other
C. Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces
D. Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring

E4D03 (C)
Where should ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a mobile
transceiver?
A. In the resistive high-voltage cable
B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor
C. In the primary and secondary ignition leads
D. In the antenna lead to the transceiver

E4D04 (B)
How can alternator whine be minimized?
A. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest possible
path
B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the shortest
possible path
C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's DC power lead to
the vehicle's electrical system
D. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead

E4D05 (D)
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be
suppressed?
A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by
installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
B. By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path and
installing a blocking capacitor in both leads
C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a
low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by
installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads

E4D06 (B)
How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
A. Install a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor
B. Install a brute-force, AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
C. Install a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D. Use a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the
motor

E4D07 (B)
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
A. Sunspots
B. Thunderstorms
C. Airplanes
D. Meteor showers

E4D08 (C)
How can it be determined if line-noise interference is being generated within
your home?
A. By checking the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer
B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a
battery-operated radio
D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer

E4D09 (A)
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter?
A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B. An electrical-sparking signal
C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency

E4D10 (B)
Which of the following types of equipment would be least useful in locating
power line noise?
A. An AM receiver with a directional antenna
B. An FM receiver with a directional antenna
C. A hand-held RF sniffer
D. An ultrasonic transducer, amplifier and parabolic reflector

Extra Class Pool 3

2005-12-17T08:53:00.000-06:00

E4C Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase noise, desensitization,
capture effect, intercept point, noise floor, dynamic range {blocking and IMD},
image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio); intermodulation and cross-
modulation interference

E4C01 (D)
What is the effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a
receiver?
A.  It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signals
B.  It reduces the receiver sensitivity
C.  It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic
range
D.  It allows strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception
of weak signals

E4C02 (A)
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong
signal near the received frequency?
A.  Desensitization
B.  Quieting
C.  Cross-modulation interference
D.  Squelch gain rollback

E4C03 (B)
Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
A.  Audio gain adjusted too low
B.  Strong adjacent-channel signals
C.  Audio bias adjusted too high
D.  Squelch gain adjusted too low

E4C04 (A)
Which of the following is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced?
A.  Improve the shielding between the receiver and the transmitter causing the
problem
B.  Increase the transmitter audio gain
C.  Decrease the receiver squelch level
D.  Increase the receiver bandwidth

E4C05 (C)
What is the FM capture effect?
A.  All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
B.  All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
C.  The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal
D.  The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal

E4C06 (C)
What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM
phone signal?
A.  Desensitization
B.  Cross-modulation interference
C.  Capture effect
D.  Frequency discrimination

E4C07 (D)
What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?
A.  The weakest signal that can be detected under noisy atmospheric conditions
B.  The amount of phase noise generated by the receiver local oscillator
C.  The minimum level of noise that will overload the receiver RF amplifier
stage
D.  The weakest signal that can be detected above the receiver internal noise

E4C08 (B)
What is the blocking dynamic range for a receiver that has an 8-dB noise figure
and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz when the blocking level (1-dB compression point)
is -20 dBm?
A.  -119 dBm
B.  119 dB
C.  146 dB
D.  -146 dBm

E4C09 (C)
What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver?
A.  The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to which the
receiver can be tuned
B.  The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver, referenced to
one milliwatt
C.  The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest tolerable
signal without causing audible distortion products
D.  The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the highest-frequency
signal detectable without moving the frequency control

E4C10 (A)
What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications
receiver?
A.  Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong
adjacent signals
B.  Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to
recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted
C.  Cross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to
operate the speaker
D.  Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest
received signals

E4C11 (B)
If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring?
A.  The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the responsiveness of the receiver
S-meter to all signals
B.  The minimum discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal that the
receiver can detect
C.  The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest signal the receiver
can detect without overloading
D.  The maximum detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highest frequency
range of the receiver

E4C12 (B)
How does intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters usually
occur?
A.  When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from
airplanes passing overhead
B.  When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their
final amplifiers
C.  When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or
both of their final amplifiers
D.  When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes
passing overhead

E4C13 (B)
How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters in close
proximity often be reduced or eliminated?
A.  By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
B.  By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line
to the transmitter and duplexer
C.  By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
D.  By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line

E4C14 (A)
If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal
whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most
likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?
A.  146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B.  146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C.  146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
D.  73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz

E4C15 (D)
If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of their final
amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the
original signals are generated, what is this called?
A.  Amplifier desensitization
B.  Neutralization
C.  Adjacent channel interference
D.  Intermodulation interference

E4C16 (D)
What is cross-modulation interference?
A.  Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type
B.  Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp
C.  Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal
D.  Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired
signal

E4C17 (C)
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
A.  Too little gain
B.  Lack of neutralizaton
C.  Nonlinear circuits or devices
D.  Positive feedback

E4C18 (D)
What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver?
A.  Dynamic range and third-order intercept
B.  Cost and availability
C.  Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
D.  Bandwidth and noise figure

E4C19 (A)
What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver?
A.  The noise floor of the receiver
B.  The power-supply output ripple
C.  The two-tone intermodulation distortion
D.  The input impedance to the detector

E4C20 (C)
Selectivity can be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications
receiver by using what means?
A.  An audio filter
B.  An additional RF amplifier stage
C.  A preselector
D.  An additional IF amplifier stage

E4C21 (B)
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an amateur RTTY
receiver?
A.  100 Hz
B.  300 Hz
C.  6000 Hz
D.  2400 Hz

E4C22 (B)
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband
phone receiver?
A.  1 kHz
B.  2.4 kHz
C.  4.2 kHz
D.  4.8 kHz

E4C23 (D)
What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF
section of a receiver?
A.  Output-offset overshoot
B.  Filter ringing
C.  Thermal-noise distortion
D.  Undesired signals will reach the audio stage

E4C24 (A)
How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the
bandwidth of a received signal?
A.  It should be slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth
B.  It should be approximately half the received-signal bandwidth
C.  It should be approximately twice the received-signal bandwidth
D.  It should be approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth

E4C25 (D)
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF section of an FM phone
receiver?
A.  1 kHz
B.  2.4 kHz
C.  4.2 kHz
D.  15 kHz

E4C26 (B)
In a receiver, if the third-order intermodulation products have a power of-70
dBm when using two test tones at -30 dBm, what is the third-order intercept
point?
A.  -20 dBm
B.  -10 dBm
C.  0 dBm
D  +10 dBm

E4C27 (D)
In a receiver, if the second-order intermodulation products have a power of-70
dBm when using two test tones at -30 dBm, what is the second-order intercept
point?
A.  -20 dBm
B.  -10 dBm
C.  0 dBm
D.  +10 dBm

Extra Class Pool 2

2005-12-02T17:27:00.000-06:00

SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]
E4A Test equipment: spectrum analyzers (interpreting spectrum analyzer displays;
transmitter output spectrum), logic probes (indications of high and low states
in digital circuits; indications of pulse conditions in digital circuits)

E4A01 (C)
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain
oscilloscope?
A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope
displays electrical signals
B. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an oscilloscope
displays signals in the frequency domain
C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an
oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays
audio frequencies

E4A02 (D)
What parameter does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
A. Amplitude
B. Voltage
C. Resonance
D. Frequency

E4A03 (A)
What parameter does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
A. Amplitude
B. Duration
C. Frequency
D. Time

E4A04 (A)
Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio
transmitter?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A wattmeter
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer

E4A05 (B)
Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products in
an SSB transmission?
A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer

E4A06 (C)
Which of the following is NOT something that could be determined with a spectrum
analyzer?
A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter
duplexer
B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
C. The speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive when
being used for packet radio
D. The spectral output of a transmitter

E4A07 (B)
What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the output from a
VHF transmitter?
A. There are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display the same
information
B. It displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal
C. It displays a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
D. It costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such
measurements

E4A08 (D)
What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring the
status of a logic circuit?
A. It has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter
B. It can be used to test analog and digital circuits
C. It can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter
D. It is smaller and shows a simplified readout

E4A09 (C)
Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low digital voltage
states?
A. An ohmmeter
B. An electroscope
C. A logic probe
D. A Wheatstone bridge

E4A10 (D)
What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit?
A. A short-circuit fault
B. An open-circuit fault
C. The resistance between logic modules
D. The high and low logic states

E4A11 (A)
Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions
in a digital logic circuit?
A. A logic probe
B. An ohmmeter
C. An electroscope
D. A Wheatstone bridge

E4A12 (B)
Which of the following procedures should you follow when connecting a spectrum
analyzer to a transmitter output?
A. Use high quality coaxial lines
B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
C. Use a signal divider
D. Match the antenna to the load

E4B Frequency measurement devices (i.e., frequency counter, oscilloscope
Lissajous figures, dip meter); meter performance limitations; oscilloscope
performance limitations; frequency counter performance limitations

E4B01 (B)
What is a frequency standard?
A. A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operations
B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies

E4B02 (B)
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a frequency
counter?
A. Phase comparator slew rate, speed of the logic and time base stability
B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability
C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base
reactance
D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and
temperature coefficient of the logic

E4B03 (C)
How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?
A. By using slower digital logic
B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base
D. By using faster digital logic

E4B04 (C)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 165.2 Hz
B. 14.652 kHz
C. 146.52 Hz
D. 1.4652 MHz

E4B05 (A)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 14.652 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 1.4652 Hz
D. 1.4652 kHz

E4B06 (D)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000
Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the
reading?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz

E4B07 (D)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 43.21 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 432.1 Hz

E4B08 (A)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could
differ from the reading?
A. 43.21 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 432.1 Hz
D. 0.2 MHz

E4B09 (C)
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 432,100,000
Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the
reading?
A. 10 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 4321 Hz
D. 432.1 Hz

E4B10 (C)
If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope and a 150
Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of Lissajous figure will be
displayed on the screen?
A. A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loops vertically
B. A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high
C. A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops vertically
D. An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high

E4B11 (C)
What is a dip-meter?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An SWR meter
C. A device consisting of a variable frequency LC oscillator and an indicator
showing the metered feedback current
D. A marker generator

E4B12 (D)
What does a dip-meter do?
A. It accurately indicates signal strength
B. It measures frequency accurately
C. It measures transmitter output power accurately
D. It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a nearby circuit

E4B13 (B)
How does a dip-meter function?
A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector coil
B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current
C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
D. Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q

E4B14 (D)
What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?
A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of
modulation
B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation
C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance
D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned
circuit resonant frequency

E4B15 (A)
For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with the LC circuit
being checked?
A. As loosely as possible
B. As tightly as possible
C. First loosely, then tightly
D. With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked

E4B16 (A)
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of an
oscilloscope?
A. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity and bandwidth of
the deflection amplifiers
B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage
C. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltage increments
D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments

E4B17 (B)
What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with a tuned circuit
being checked?
A. Harmonics are generated
B. A less accurate reading results
C. Cross modulation occurs
D. Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4B18 (B)
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a
D'Arsonval-type meter?
A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter size
B. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance
C. Coil impedance, electromagnetic voltage and movement mass
D. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current

E4B19 (D)
How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved?
A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base
B. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical
sweep rate
C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency
response
D. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency
response

Extra Class Pool 1

2005-11-11T15:58:00.000-06:00

The Extra Class study is for those users who already hold a General or Advanced amateur radio license. We will cover the beginner license pool, the Technician Class, at a later date.

The entire Extra pool of over 800 questions can be found at ARRLweb:

http://www.arrl.org/arrlvec/2002_Extra_Pool3.txt

In our audio podcast, we read only the correct answer to each question. This is intended to improve comprehension for our blind users. The questions contained within this pool must be used in all Extra class examinations beginning July 1, 2002, and is intended to be used up through June 30, 2008. The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following each question number [eg, in E1A01 (B), position B contains the correct answer text].

We invite you to study along with us using the ARRL Extra Class License Manual, available through www.arrl.org.

Here is our audio link:
http://www.handiham.org/audio/chu/extra/pool/01-el4.mp3

SUBELEMENT E1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [7 Exam Questions -- 7 Groups]
E1A Operating standards: frequency privileges for Extra class amateurs; emission
standards; message forwarding; frequency sharing between ITU Regions; FCC
modification of station license; 30-meter band sharing; stations aboard ships or
aircraft; telemetry; telecommand of an amateur station; authorized telecommand
transmissions

E1A01 (B) [97.301(b)]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra Class control operators?
A. 3525-3775 kHz
B. 3500-3525 kHz
C. 3700-3750 kHz
D. 3500-3550 kHz

E1A02 (C) [97.301(b)]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra class control operators?
A. 3775-3800 kHz
B. 3800-3850 kHz
C. 3750-3775 kHz
D. 3800-3825 kHz

E1A03 (A) [97.301(b)]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra class control operators?
A. 7000-7025 kHz
B. 7000-7050 kHz
C. 7025-7050 kHz
D. 7100-7150 kHz

E1A04 (D) [97.301(b)]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra Class control operators?
A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz

E1A05 (C) [97.301(b)]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to
Amateur Extra Class control operators?
A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz

E1A06 (A) [97.301(b)]
Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized to only control
operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
A. 80, 75, 40, 20 and 15 meters
B. 80, 40, and 20 meters
C. 75, 40, 30 and 10 meters
D. 160, 80, 40 and 20 meters

E1A07 (B) [97.301(b)]
Within the 20-meter band, what is the amount of spectrum authorized to only
control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
A. 25 kHz
B. 50 kHz
C. None
D. 25 MHz

E1A08 (A) [97.301(b)]
Which frequency bands contain two segments authorized to only control operators
holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license, CEPT radio-amateur Class 1
license or Class 1 IARP?
A. 80/75, 20 and 15 meters
B. 40, 30 and 20 meters
C. 30, 20 and 17 meters
D. 30, 20 and 12 meters

E1A09 (D) [97.307(c)]
What must an amateur station licensee do if a spurious emission from the station
causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station?
A. Pay a fine each time it happens
B. Submit a written explanation to the FCC
C. Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once
D. Eliminate or reduce the interference

[E1A10 - This question has been formally withdrawn by the QPC. It will not be used on tests.]
E1A10 (A) [97.307(d)]
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a
transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power of 5
watts or greater on an amateur service HF band?
A. The lesser of 50 milliwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental
emission
B. 60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission
C. 10 microwatts
D. The lesser of 25 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental
emission

[E1A11 - This question has been formally withdrawn by the QPC. It will not be used on tests.]
E1A11 (A) [97.307(d)]
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a
transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power less
than 5 watts on an amateur service HF band?
A. 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission
B. 60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission
C. 10 microwatts
D. 25 microwatts

E1A12 (A) [97.307(e)]
What is the maximum mean power permitted to any spurious emission from a
transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power greater
than 25 watts on an amateur service VHF band?
A. 60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission
B. 40 dB below the mean power of fundamental emission
C. 10 microwatts
D. 25 microwatts

E1A13 (A) [97.307(e)]
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a
transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on an amateur service VHF band?
A. The lesser of 25 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental
emission
B. The lesser of 50 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental
emission
C. 20 microwatts
D. 50 microwatts

E1A14 (B) [97.219(b), (d)]
If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system inadvertently
forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is accountable for the
rules violation?
A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station and conditionally the first
forwarding station
C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating
the source from which they accept communications

E1A15 (A) [97.219(c)]
If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a communication
that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you should take?
A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with
FCC rules
C. Notify the nearest FCC Enforcement Bureau office
D. Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1A16 (A) [97.303]
For each ITU Region, how is each frequency band allocated internationally to the
amateur service designated?
A. Primary service or secondary service
B. Primary service
C. Secondary service
D. Co-secondary service

E1A17 (D) [97.27]
Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license?
A. To relieve crowding in certain bands
B. To better prepare for a time of national emergency
C. To enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport
D. To promote the public interest, convenience and necessity

E1A18 (A) [97.303(d)]
What are the sharing requirements for an amateur station transmitting in the 30-
meter band?
A. It must not cause harmful interference to stations in the fixed service
authorized by other nations
B. There are no sharing requirements
C. Stations in the fixed service authorized by other nations must not cause
harmful interference to amateur stations in the same country
D. Stations in the fixed service authorized by other nations must not cause
harmful interference to amateur stations in another country

E1A19 (A) [97.11(a)]
If an amateur station is installed on board a ship and is separate from the ship
radio installation, what condition must be met before the station may transmit?
A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship
B. Its antenna must be separate from the main ship antennas, transmitting only
when the main radios are not in use
C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship
power supply
D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine endorsement on his or her amateur
operator license

E1A20 (A) [97.3(a)(45)]
What is the definition of the term telemetry?
A. A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring
instrument
B. A two-way interactive transmission
C. A two-way single channel transmission of data
D. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a
device at a distance

E1A21 (D) [97.3(a)(43)]
What is the definition of the term telecommand?
A. A one way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring
instrument
B. A two-way interactive transmission
C. A two-way single channel transmission of data
D. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a
device at a distance

E1A22 (D) [97.211(b)]
When may an amateur station transmit special codes intended to obscure the
meaning of messages?
A. Never under any circumstances
B. Only when a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the FCC
C. Only when an Amateur Extra Class operator is the station control operator
D. When sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation

E1B Station restrictions: restrictions on station locations; restricted
operation; teacher as control operator; station antenna structures; definition
and operation of remote control and automatic control; control link

E1B01 (A) [97.13(a)]
Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an
amateur station apparatus or antenna structure?
A. The land may have environmental importance; or it is significant in American
history, architecture or culture
B. The location's political or societal importance
C. The location's geographical or horticultural importance
D. The location's international importance, requiring consultation with one or
more foreign governments before installation

E1B02 (A) [97.13(b)]
Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur station
be located without concern for protecting the facility from harmful
interference?
A. 1 mile
B. 3 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 30 miles

E1B03 (C) [97.13(a)]
What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an officially
designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the
National Register of Historical Places?
A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

E1B04 (D) [97.121(a )]
If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic
broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what
frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted?
A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station
B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz
C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz
D. On the frequency or frequencies used when the interference occurs

E1B05 (C) [97.113(c)]
When may an amateur operator accept compensation for serving as the control
operator of an amateur station used in a classroom?
A. Only when the amateur operator does not accept pay during periods of time
when the amateur station is used
B. Only when the classroom is in a correctional institution
C. Only when the amateur operator is paid as an incident of a teaching position
during periods of time when the station is used by that teacher as a part of
classroom instruction at an educational institution
D. Only when the station is restricted to making contacts with similar stations
at other educational institutions

E1B06 (B) [97.113(c)]
Who may accept compensation for serving as a control operator in a classroom at
an educational institution?
A. Any licensed amateur operator
B. Only an amateur operator accepting such pay as an incident of a teaching
position during times when the station is used by that teacher as a part of
classroom instruction
C. Only teachers at correctional institutions
D. Only students at educational or correctional institutions

E1B07 (B)[97.15(a)
If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what height
restrictions apply?
A. The structure must not extend more than 200 feet above average height of
terrain
B. The structure must be no higher than 200 feet above the ground level at its
site
C. There are no height restrictions since the structure would not be a hazard
to aircraft in a valley or canyon
D. The structure must not extend more than 200 feet above the top of the valley
or canyon

E1B08 (D) [97.15b]
What limits must local authorities observe when legislating height and dimension
restrictions for an amateur station antenna structure?
A. FAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna structures
located near airports
B. FCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur antenna
structures
C. State and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not allowed
D. Such regulation must reasonably accommodate amateur service communications
and must constitute the minimum practicable regulation to accomplish the state
or local authorities legitimate purpose

E1B09 (A) [97.15a]
If you are installing an amateur radio station antenna at a site within 5 miles
from a public use airport, what additional rules apply?
A. You must evaluate the height of your antenna based on the FCC Part 17
regulations
B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 200 feet
in height
C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the Environmental
Protection Agency before construction begins
D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1B10 (D) [97.3a38]
What is meant by a remotely controlled station?
A. A station operated away from its regular home location
B. Control of a station from a point located other than at the station
transmitter
C. A station operating under automatic control
D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link

E1B11 (A) [97.109(d), 201(d), 97.203(d), 97.205(d)]
Which of the following amateur stations may not be operated under automatic
control?
A. Remote control of model aircraft
B. Beacon station
C. Auxiliary station
D. Repeater station

E1B12 (A) [97.3(a)(6), 97.109(d)]
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator
does not have to be present at the control point
B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to
be present at the control point at all times
D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled
station

E1B13 (B) [97.3(a)(6), 97.109(d)]
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic
control differ from one under local control?
A. Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present
at the control point
C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a
control point

E1B14 (C) [97.3(a)(38)]
What is a control link?
A. A device that automatically controls an unattended station
B. An automatically operated link between two stations
C. The means of control between a control point and a remotely controlled
station
D. A device that limits the time of a station's transmission

E1B15 (D) [97.3(a)(38)]
What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control
point and a remotely controlled station?
A. A tone link
B. A wire control
C. A remote control
D. A control link

E1C Reciprocal operating: reciprocal operating authority; purpose of reciprocal
agreement rules; alien control operator privileges; identification (Note: This
includes CEPT and IARP)

E1C01 (A) [97.5(c),(d), (e), 97.107]
What is an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation?
A. An FCC authorization to the holder of an amateur license issued by certain
foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US
B. An FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a foreign nation
except Canada
C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle third-party
traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation
D. An FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of third-party
traffic between amateurs of the two nations

E1C02 (B) [97.107]
Who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC
regulates the amateur service?
A. Anyone holding a valid amateur service license issued by a foreign
government
B. Any non-US citizen holding an amateur service license issued by their
government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement
C. Anyone holding a valid amateur service license issued by a foreign
government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement
D. Any non-US citizen holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign
government, as long as the person is a citizen of that country

E1C03 (C) [97.107]
What are the frequency privileges authorized for alien reciprocal operation?
A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur operator license
B. Those that the alien has in his or her own country
C. Those authorized to the alien by his country of citizenship, but not to
exceed those authorized to Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Those approved by the International Amateur Radio Union

E1C04 (D) [97.119(g)]
What indicator must a Canadian amateur station include with the assigned call
sign in the station identification announcement when operating in the US?
A. No indicator is required
B. The grid-square locator number for the location of the station must be
included after the call sign
C. The permit number and the call-letter district number of the station
location must be included before the Canadian-assigned call sign
D. The letter-numeral indicating the station location after the Canadian call
sign and the closest city and state once during the communication

E1C05 (A) [97.107]
When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur service license be authorized
for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur
service?
A. Never; US citizens are not eligible for alien reciprocal operation
B. When the US citizen also holds citizenship in the foreign country
C. When the US citizen was born in the foreign country
D. When the US citizen has no current FCC amateur service license

E1C06 (A) [97.107]
Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur operator from being
authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the
amateur service?
A. Not being a citizen of the country that issued the amateur service license
B. Having citizenship in their own country but not US citizenship
C. Holding only an amateur license issued by their own country but holding no
FCC amateur service license grant
D. Holding an amateur service license issued by their own country authorizing
privileges beyond Amateur Extra Class operator privileges

E1C07 (B) [97.107(a)]
What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a Canadian
amateur service license may reciprocal operate in the US?
A. A written FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation
B. No special document is required
C. The citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian license
D. The citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License Grant without
Examination to operate for a period longer than 10 days

E1C08 (C) [97.107(b)]
What operating privileges does a properly licensed alien amateur have in the US,
if the US and the alien amateur's home country have a multilateral or bilateral
reciprocal operating agreement?
A. All privileges of their home license
B. All privileges of an Amateur Extra Class operator license
C. Those authorized by their home license, not to exceed the operating
privileges of an Amateur Extra Class operator license
D. Those granted by the home license that match US privileges authorized to
amateur operators in ITU Region 1

E1C09 (D) [97.5(c)]
From which locations may a licensed alien amateur operator be the control
operator of an amateur station?
A. Only locations within the boundaries of the 50 United States
B. Only locations listed as the primary station location on an FCC amateur
service license
C. Only locations on ground within the US and its territories; no shipboard or
aeronautical mobile operation is permitted
D. Any location where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC

E1C10 (A) [97.5(d)]
Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC licensed US citizen
to operate in many European countries and alien amateurs from many European
countries to operate in the US?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU agreement
D. All of these choices are correct

E1C11 (B) [97.5(e)]
Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating arrangements allow an
FCC licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to
operate in each other's countries?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU agreement
D. All of these choices are correct

E1C12 (D) [97.119(g)]
What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own call sign,
does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under an FCC
authorization for alien reciprocal operation?
A. No additional operation is required
B. The gird-square locator closest to his or her present location is included
before the call
C. The serial number of the permit and the call-letter district number of the
station location is included before the call
D. The letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US included before
their call and the closest city and state given once during the communication

E1D Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES): definition; purpose; station
registration; station license required; control operator requirements; control
operator privileges; frequencies available; limitations on use of RACES
frequencies; points of communication for RACES operation; permissible
communications

E1D01 (B) [97.3(a)(37)]
What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
A. A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for
communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services
B. A radio service using amateur stations for civil defense communications
during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies
C. A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the
public
D. A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio
operators for emergency communications

E1D02 (A) [97.3(a)(37)]
What is the purpose of RACES?
A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies
B. To provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races
C. To provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races
D. To provide routine and emergency military communications

E1D03 (C) [97.407(a)]
With what organization must an amateur station be registered before
participating in RACES?
A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
B. The US Department of Defense
C. A civil defense organization
D. The FCC Enforcement Bureau

E1D04 (C) [97.407(a)]
Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
A. Only those licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a station licensed to a Technician
class operator
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense
organization for the area served
D. Any FCC licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate
Radio System (MARS)

E1D05 (A) [97.407(b)]
What frequencies are authorized normally to an amateur station participating in
RACES?
A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator
B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1D06 (B) [97.407(b)]
What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES
during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?
A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator
B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C. Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1D07 (D) [97.407(b)]
What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?
A. Only those authorized to the civil defense organization
B. Only those authorized to federal government communications
C. Only the top 25 kHz of each amateur service band
D. All frequencies authorized to the amateur service

E1D08 (A) [97.407(b)]
What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies
available for RACES operation?
A. An emergency during which the President's War Emergency Powers are invoked
B. An emergency in only one of the United States would limit RACES operations
to a single HF band
C. An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations to a
single VHF band
D. An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life

E1D09 (C) [97.407(a)]
Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?
A. Anyone holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license other than Novice
B. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator licensee
C. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur operator license and is certified by
a civil defense organization
D. Any person certified as a RACES radio operator by a civil defense
organization and who hold an FCC issued GMRS license

E1D10 (B) [97.407(c), (d)]
With which stations may amateur stations participating in RACES communicate?
A. Any amateur station
B. Amateur stations participating in RACES and specific other stations
authorized by the responsible civil defense official
C. Any amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications Service
D. Any Citizens Band station that is also registered in RACES

E1D11 (C) [97.407(e)]
What communications are permissible in RACES?
A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency
B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications
C. National defense or immediate safety of people and property and
communications authorized by the area civil defense organization
D. National defense and security or immediate safety of people and property
communications authorized by the President

E1E Amateur Satellite Service: definition; purpose; station license required for
space station; frequencies available; telecommand operation: definition;
eligibility; telecommand station (definition); space telecommand station;
special provisions; telemetry: definition; special provisions; space station:
definition; eligibility; special provisions; authorized frequencies (space
station); notification requirements; earth operation: definition; eligibility;
authorized frequencies (Earth station)

E1E01 (C) [97.3(a)(3)]
What is the amateur-satellite service?
A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self-
training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C. A service using amateur stations on satellites for the purpose of self-
training, intercommunication and technical investigations
D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for
weather information gathering

E1E02 (A) [97.3(a)(40)]
What is a space station in the amateur-satellite service?
A. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
B. An amateur station designed for communications with other amateur stations
by means of Earth satellites
C. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or
terminate functions of an Earth station
D. An amateur station designed for communications with other amateur stations
by reflecting signals off objects in space

E1E03 (A) [97.3(a)(44)]
What is a telecommand station in the amateur-satellite service?
A. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or
terminate functions of a space station
B. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with
other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of
upper atmosphere data from space

E1E04 (A) [97.3(a)(16)]
What is an earth station in the amateur-satellite service?
A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications
with Amateur stations by means of objects in space
B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of
upper atmosphere data from space
D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E05 (D) [97.207]
Which of the following types of communications may space stations transmit?
A. Automatic retransmission of signals from Earth stations and other space
stations
B. One-way communications
C. Telemetry consisting of specially coded messages
D. All of these choices are correct

E1E06 (D) [97.207 (a)]
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as a space station?
A. Any except those of Technician Class operators
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station

E1E07 (A) [97.207(b)]
What special provision must a space station incorporate in order to comply with
space station requirements?
A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions
by telecommand whenever so ordered by the FCC
B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a
change is ordered by NASA
D. The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft

E1E08 (D) [97.207(g)(1)]
When must the licensee of a space station give the FCC International Bureau the
first written pre-space notification?
A. Any time before initiating the launch countdown for the spacecraft
B. No less than 3 months after initiating construction of the space station
C. No less that 12 months before launch of the space station platform
D. No less than 27 months prior to initiating space station transmissions

E1E09 (A) [97.207]
Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
B. Only 40 m, 20 m, 17m, 15 m and 10 m bands
C. 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
D. All HF bands

E1E10 (A) [97.207]
Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
A. 2 meters
B. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
C. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
D. 6 meters and 2 meters

E1E11 (A) [97.207]
Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?
A. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
B. 70 cm
C. 70 cm and 33 cm
D. 33 cm and 13 cm

E1E12 (B) [97.211 (a)]
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
D. All of these choices are correct

E1E13 (A) [97.211 (b)]
What unique privilege is afforded a telecommand station?
A. A telecommand station may transmit command messages to the space station
using codes intended to obscure their meaning
B. A telecommand station may transmit music to the space station
C. A telecommand station may transmit with a PEP output of 5000 watts
D. A telecommand station is not required to transmit its call sign at the end
of the communication

E1E14 (C) [97.207 (f)]
What is the term for space-to-Earth transmissions used to communicate the
results of measurements made by a space station?
A. Data transmission
B. Frame check sequence
C. Telemetry
D. Space-to-Earth telemetry indicator (SETI) transmissions

E1E15 (D) [97.209 (a)]
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with
the FCC International Bureau
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator
license held by the control operator

E1F Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs): definition; VEC qualifications; VEC
agreement; scheduling examinations; coordinating VEs; reimbursement for
expenses; accrediting VEs; question pools; Volunteer Examiners (VEs):
definition; requirements; accreditation; reimbursement for expenses; VE conduct;
preparing an examination; examination elements; definition of code and written
elements; preparation responsibility; examination requirements; examination
credit; examination procedure; examination administration; temporary operating
authority

E1F01 (D) [97.507 (a), (b), (c),97.523]
Who may prepare an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
A. The VEC Question Pool Committee, which selects questions from the
appropriate VEC question pool
B. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
C. An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
D. An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from the
appropriate VEC question pool

E1F02 (C) [97.507(b)]
Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US amateur
license examinations?
A. In the instructions that each VEC give to their VEs
B. In an FCC-maintained question pool
C. In the VEC-maintained question pool
D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1F03 (A) [97.523]
Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur
license examination questions must be taken?
A. All of the VECs
B. The VE team
C. The VE question pool team
D. The FCC Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

E1F04 (C) [97.507(a)(1)]
Who must select from the VEC question pool the set of questions that are
administered in an Element 3 examination?
A. Only a VE holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant
B. The VEC coordinating the examination session
C. A VE holding an FCC-issued Amateur Extra or Advanced Class operator license
grant
D. The FCC Enforcement Bureau

[E1F05 - This question has been formally withdrawn by the QPC. It will not be used on tests.]
E1F05 (B) [97.507(a)(2)]
Who must select from the VEC question pool the set of questions that are
administered in an Element 2 examination?
A. The VEC coordinating the examination session
B. A VE holding an FCC-issued Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra
Class operator license grant
C. Only a VE holding an Amateur Extra or Advanced Class operator license grant
D. The FCC Office of Engineering and Technology

E1F06 (C) [97.503(a)]
What is the purpose of an amateur operator telegraphy examination?
A. It determines the examinee's level of commitment to the amateur service
B. All of these choices are correct
C. It proves that the examinee has the ability to send correctly by hand and to
receive correctly by ear texts in the International Morse Code
D. It helps preserve the proud tradition of radiotelegraphy skill in the
amateur service

E1F07 (A) [97.503(b)]
What is the purpose of an Element 4 examination?
A. It proves the examinee has the qualifications necessary to perform properly
the duties of an Amateur Extra Class operator
B. It proves the examinee is qualified as an electronics technician
C. It proves the examinee is an electronics expert
D. It proves that the examinee is an expert radio operator

E1F08 (C) [97.521]
What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator?
A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license
examinations
B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license
examinations
C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
coordinate amateur operator license examinations
D. The person that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE
session manager

E1F09 (B) [97.3(a)(48)]
What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer
examiners to administer amateur license examinations
B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator
license examinations
C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee
D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer
amateur operator license examinations

E1F10 (A) [97.509(a)]
What is a VE Team?
A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur
operator license
B. The VEC staff
C. One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
D. A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations

E1F11 (C) [97.509(b)(4)]
Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited?
A. Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license
B. Persons less than 21 years of age
C. Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license
suspended or revoked
D. Persons who are employees of the federal government

E1F12 (D) [97.509(b)(1), 97.525]
What is the VE accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically
accredited as a VE when the license is granted
B. The amateur operator must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC
Enforcement Bureau
C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team
D. Each VEC ensures that its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC
requirements to serve as VEs

E1F13 (A) [97.509(c)]
Where must the VE team be stationed while administering an examination?
A. All administering VEs must be present and observing the examinees throughout
the entire examination
B. The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the
examinees to concentrate on the exam material
C. The VEs may be elsewhere provided at least one VE is present and is
observing the examinees throughout the entire examination
D. The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that
examination was administered properly

E1F14 (C) [97.509(c)]
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an
amateur operator license examination session?
A. The VEC coordinating the session
B. The FCC
C. The administering VEs
D. The VE session manager

E1F15 (B) [97.509(c)]
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's
instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in
termination of the examination
B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session

E1F16 (A) [97.509(k)]
What special procedures must a VE team follow for an examinee with a physical
disability?
A. A special procedure that accommodates the disability
B. A special procedure specified by the coordinating VEC
C. A special procedure specified by a physician
D. None; the VE team does not have to provide special procedures

E1F17 (A) [97.509(d)]
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
A. The VE's close relatives as listed in the FCC rules
B. Acquaintances of the VE
C. Friends of the VE
D. There are no restrictions as to whom a VE may administer an examination

E1F18 (A) [97.509(e)]
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an
examination?
A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of
the VE's amateur operator license grant
B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
D. All of these choices are correct

E1F19 (C) [97.509(h)]
What must the VE team do with your test papers when you have finished this
examination?
A. The VE team must collect them for grading at a later date
B. The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading
C. The VE team must collect and grade them immediately
D. The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading

E1F20 (D) [97.519(b)]
What action must the coordinating VEC complete within 10 days of collecting the
information from an examination session?
A. Screen collected information
B. Resolve all discrepancies and verify that the VEs' certifications are
properly completed
C. For qualified examinees, forward electronically all required data to the FCC
D. All of these choices are correct

E1F21 (D) [97.509(i)]
What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all
examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
A. Photocopy all examination documents and forwards them to the FCC for
processing
B. Notify the FCC that the examinee is eligible for a license grant
C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
D. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant
and that they have complied with the VE requirements

E1F22 (A) [97.509(j)]
What must the VE team do if the examinee does not score a passing grade on the
examination?
A. Return the application document to the examinee and inform the examinee of
the grade
B. Return the application document to the examinee
C. Inform the examinee that he or she did not pass
D. Explain how the incorrect questions should have been answered

E1F23 (A) [97.519(d)(3)]
What are the consequences of failing to appear for readministration of an
examination when so directed by the FCC?
A. The licensee's license will be cancelled and a new license will be issued
that is consistent with examination elements not invalidated
B. The licensee must pay a monetary fine
C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur
operator license grant
D. The person may be sentenced to incarceration

E1F24 (A) [97.527]
What are the types of out-of-pocket expenses for which the FCC rules authorize a
VE and VEC to accept reimbursement?
A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an
amateur radio license
B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
C. None; a VE must never accept any type of reimbursement
D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training
materials

E1F25 (A) [97.509(e), 97.527]
How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing,
administering and coordinating an examination?
A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses
B. Up to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours spent
providing the services
C. Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually
D. As much as the examinee is willing to donate

E1F26 (C) [97.505(a)(6)]
What amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a valid
Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)?
A. Only the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed with in the
previous 365 days
B. Only the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed within
the previous 365 days
C. Each element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed within the previous 365
days
D. None

E1F27 (C) [97.301(e)]
For what period of time does a Technician class licensee, who has just been
issued a CSCE for having passed a 5 WPM Morse code examination, have authority
to operate on the Novice/Technician HF subbands?
A. 365 days from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE
B. 1 year from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE
C. Indefinitely, so long as the Technician license remains valid
D. 5 years plus a 5-year grace period from the examination date as indicated on
the CSCE

E1F28 (A) [97.505(a)(6)]
What period of time does a Technician class licensee, who has just been issued a
CSCE for having passed a 5 WPM Morse code examination, have in order to use this
credit toward a license upgrade?
A. 365 days from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE
B. 15 months from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE
C. There is no time limit, so long as the Technician license remains valid
D. 5 years plus a 5-year grace period from the examination date as indicated on
the CSCE

E1G Certification of external RF power amplifiers and external RF power
amplifier kits; Line A; National Radio Quiet Zone; business communications;
definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary station operation

E1G01 (B) [97.315(c)]
What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as
certificated for use in the amateur service?
A. An RF amplifier of that model may be used in any radio service
B. That particular RF amplifier model may be marketed for use in the amateur
service
C. All similar models of RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be
marketed
D. All models of RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed

E1G02 (B)[97.317(a)(3)]
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external
RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of Certification?
A. It must have a time-delay to prevent it from operating continuously for more
than ten minutes
B. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with at least
50W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified)
C. It must not be capable of modification without voiding the warranty
D. It must exhibit no more than 6dB of gain over its entire operating range

E1G03 (A) [97.315(b)(5)]
Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power amplifier
capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to
another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require
certification of RF power amplifiers
D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was
certificated by that country's government

E1G04 (A) [97.3(a)(32)]
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes Line A?
A. A line roughly parallel to, and south of, the US-Canadian border
B. A line roughly parallel to, and west of, the US Atlantic coastline
C. A line roughly parallel to, and north of, the US-Mexican border and Gulf
coastline
D. A line roughly parallel to, and east of, the US Pacific coastline

E1G05 (D) [97.303(f)(1)]
Amateur stations may not transmit in which frequency segment if they are located
north of Line A?
A. 21.225-21.300 MHz
B. 53-54 MHz
C. 222-223 MHz
D. 420-430 MHz

E1G06 (C) [97.3 (a)(32)]
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
C. An Area in Maryland, West Virginia and Virginia surrounding the National
Radio Astronomy Observatory
D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E1G07 (A) [97.203(e)]
What type of automatically controlled amateur station must not be established in
the National Radio Quiet Zone before the licensee gives written notification to
the National Radio Astronomy Observatory?
A. Beacon station
B. Auxiliary station
C. Repeater station
D. Earth station

E1G08 (D) [97.113(a)(2)]
When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing
communication services to another party?
A. When the repeater is operating under portable power
B. When the repeater is operating under local control
C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
D. Under no circumstances

E1G09 (D) [97.113(a)(3)]
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government
agency
C. When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in
the communications

E1G10 (A) [97.113]
Which of the following types of amateur operator-to-amateur operator
communication are prohibited?
A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as
otherwise provided in the rules
B. Communication that has a political content
C. Communication that has a religious content
D. Communication in a language other English

E1G11 (C) [97.3(c)(8)]
What is the term for emissions using bandwidth-expansion modulation?
A. RTTY
B. Image
C. Spread spectrum
D. Pulse

E1G12 (D) [97.311(a)]
FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to
communicate under which of the following conditions?
A. When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC
B. When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications
C. When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any
communication
D. All of these choices are correct

E1G13 (C) [97.311(d)]
Under any circumstance, what is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur
station transmitting emission type SS communications?
A. 1 W
B. 1.5 W
C. 100 W
D. 1.5 kW

E1G14 (D) [97.109(c)]
What of the following is a use for an auxiliary station?
A. To provide a point-to-point communications uplink between a control point
and its associated remotely controlled station
B. To provide a point-to-point communications downlink between a remotely
controlled station and its control point
C. To provide a point-to-point control link between a control point and its
associated remotely controlled station
D. All of these choices are correct

Introduction to Ham Radio Study

2005-11-11T15:30:00.000-06:00

Ham Radio Study is a podcast intended to promote study leading to the amateur radio license issued by the FCC in the United States. It is specifically designed for people with disabilities or sensory impairments, such as blindness.

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