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Rbi news

2012-06-30T20:50:00.001-07:00

रिजर्व बैंक के जरिए सरकारी बांडों में विदेशी संस्थागत निवेशकों की निवेश सीमा 20 अरब डॉलर और विदेशी वाणिज्यिक उधारी की सीमा बढ़ाकर 10 अरब डॉलर किए जाने का उद्योग संगठनों ने स्वागत किया है।

हालांकि, उद्योग संगठन फिक्की को बड़े पैमाने पर मजबूत कदम उठाए जाने की उम्मीद थी। संगठन ने नीतिगत सुधार से संबंधित उपायों की घोषणा होने का अनुमान भी लगाया था। ताकि, आर्थिक माहौल तेजी से सकारात्मक बन सके।

फिक्की के अध्यक्ष आरवी कनोरिया ने कहा कि मौजूदा समय की मांग के मुताबिक भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था के विकास और सुधार के लिए उपयुक्त नीतिगत उपायों का उल्लेख संगठन के 12 सूत्रीय एजेंडे में भी किया जा चुका है। यह उम्मीद है कि सरकार और आरबीआई इन सुझावों पर गौर करेंगे और बिना समय गवाएं इस पर अमल भी किया जाएगा।

दूसरी ओर, एसोचैम ने रुपये में गिरावट को रोकने के लिए आरबीआई के जरिए उठाए गए कदमों को सराहा है। उद्योग संगठन के महासचिव डीएस रावत का कहना है कि अर्थव्यवस्था में सुधार के लिए आरबीआई के पास सीमित विकल्प है। लेकिन, केंद्रीय बैंक के निर्णय से नकदी प्रवाह बढ़ाने के साथ रुपये की कमजोरी दूर करने में भी मदद मिलेगी।

रावत ने कहा कि विदेशी निवेश को उदार बनाने से देश में ज्यादा कोष इकट्ठा हो सकेगा। संगठन ने आरबीआई को देश में इक्विटी निवेश बढ़ाने की सलाह भी दी है। इसे एक्सचेंज दर को स्थिर करने में विशेष सहायता मिलेगी।

भारतीय स्टेट बैंक ने सावधि जमा की ब्याज दरों में बढ़ोतरी की

2012-06-30T20:46:00.003-07:00

भारतीय स्टेट बैंक ने सावधि जमा की ब्याज दरों में बढ़ोतरी की है। तीन से पांच वर्ष की सावधि जमा पर अब 0.25 प्रतिशत अधिक यानी 9 प्रतिशत की दर से ब्याज दिया जाएगा। यह दर 15 लाख रुपये से कम की जमा राशि के लिए होगी। नई दरें एक जुलाई से प्रभावी होंगी।

एसबीआई का यह कदम हैरान करने वाला माना जा रहा है क्योंकि बैंक ने इस महीने के शुरू में जमा पर ब्याज दरें 0.25 फीसदी तक कम की थीं। एसबीआई इसके पहले निर्यातकों के लिए ऋण दरों में कटौती की घोषणा कर चुका है। एसबीआई की ओर से यह घोषणाएं ऐसे समय की गई हैं जबकि कर्ज में बड़ी पूंजी फंसे होने के कारण निवेशक बैंक मोर्गन स्टेनली ने एसबीआई की अंडरपरफॉर्मर रेटिंग को बरकरार रखा है।

बैंक के वरिष्ठ अधिकारियों का मानना है कि विकास को गति देने के लिए लोन के लिए ब्याज दरें घटानी होंगी और यह तभी संभव है, जबकि जमा पर ब्याज दरों पर लगाम कसी जा सकेगी। प्रतिस्पर्धा के चलते जमा पर ब्याज दरों में पिछले कुछ समय में इजाफा हुआ है। मालूम हो कि ड्यूश बैंक और लक्ष्मी विलास बैंकों ने भी पिछले सप्ताह जमा पर ब्याज दरों में इजाफा किया था। वहीं, यूनियन बैंक ऑफ इंडिया ने शनिवार को छोटे और मझोले उद्योगों के लिए कर्ज के लिए ब्याज दरों में 1 फीसदी की कटौती की है।

Indian currency

2012-06-02T21:35:00.002-07:00

What is the Indian currency called?

The Indian currency is called the Indian Rupee (INR) and the coins are called paise. One Rupee consists of 100 paise.

What are the present denominations of banknotes in India?

At present, banknotes in India are issued in the denomination of Rs.10, Rs.20, Rs.50, Rs.100, Rs.500 and Rs.1000. These notes are called banknotes as they are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (Reserve Bank). The printing of notes in the denominations of Re.1, Rs. 2 and Rs.5 has been discontinued as these denominations have been coinised. However, such banknotes issued earlier can still be found in circulation and these banknotes continue to be legal tender.

Can banknotes and coins be issued only in these denominations?

Not necessarily. The Reserve Bank can also issue banknotes in the denominations of five thousand rupees and ten thousand rupees, or any other denomination that the Central Government may specify. There cannot, though, be banknotes in denominations higher than ten thousand rupees in terms of the current provisions of the Reserve Bank of India of Act, 1934. Coins can be issued up to the denomination of Rs.1000.

Demonetization of higher denomination banknotes.

Rs. 1000 and Rs.10000 banknotes, which were then in circulation were demonetized in January 1946, primarily to curb unaccounted money. The higher denomination banknotes in Rs.1000, Rs.5000 and Rs.10000 were reintroduced in the year 1954, and these banknotes (Rs.1000, Rs.5000 and Rs.10000) were again demonetized in January 1978.

What are the present available denominations of coins in circulation in India?

Presently 25 paise, 50 paise, one rupee, two rupees and five rupee coins are being issued. Coins up to 50 paise are called ‘small coins’ and coins of Rupee one and above are called ‘Rupee Coins’. Though the coins in the denomination of 1 paise, 2 paise, 3 paise, 5 paise, 10 paise and 20 paise may still be in circulation, due to lack of demand these coins are not being issued.

RBI’s role

2012-06-02T21:33:00.000-07:00

1. What is RBI’s role with regard to conduct of Government’s banking transaction?

In terms of Section 20 of the RBI Act 1934, RBI has the obligation to undertake the receipts and payments of the Central Government and to carry out the exchange, remittance and other banking operations, including the management of the public debt of the Union. Further, as per Section 21 of the said Act, RBI has the right to transact Government business of the Union in India.

State Government transactions are carried out by RBI in terms of the agreement entered into with the State Governments in terms of section 21 A of the Act. As of now, such agreements exist between RBI and all the State Governments except Government of Sikkim.

2. How does Reserve Bank of India discharge its statutory obligation of being ‘Banker to Government’?

Reserve Bank of India maintains the Principal Accounts of Central as well as State Governments at its Central Accounts Section, Nagpur. It has put in place a well structured arrangement for revenue collection as well as payments on behalf of Government across the country. A network comprising the Public Accounts Departments of RBI and branches of Agency Banks appointed under Section 45 of the RBI Act carry out the Govt. transactions. At present all the public sector banks and three private sector banks viz. ICICI Bank Ltd., HDFC Bank Ltd. and Axis Bank Ltd. act as RBI’s agents. Only authorised branches of Agency banks can conduct Govt. business.

3. How payment into Government account is made?

All monies for credit to Government account like taxes or other remittances can be made by filling the prescribed challans of the Government/Department concerned. These challans along with the requisite amount (by way of cash, cheque or DD) are required to be tendered with the authorised bank branches.

4. When is the receipted challan for payment made into Government Account made available?

The receipted challans in case of cash tender are generally handed over to the remitter immediately across the counter. In case of payments made by cheque/DD, the receipted challan is issued only on realization of the instruments based on the clearing cycle of the local Clearing House. In all such cases, a paper token is issued to the depositor indicating the date on which the receipted challan will be ready for delivery. The receipted challan will have to be collected within 15 days from the date indicated on the paper token by surrendering the paper token.

5. What if the paper token is misplaced / lost?

In case of loss of original token, on a specific request and on payment of prescribed fees, the receipted challan is issued.

6. What if the Receipted Challan is misplaced?

No duplicate challan is issued under any circumstances. Instead, a ‘Certificate of Credit’ is issued on specific request with the requisite particulars and payment of prescribed fee.

7. What is the remedy if the cheque issued by Government is misplaced or lost in transit?

The payee of the cheque has to approach the cheque issuing authority and apply for a duplicate cheque explaining the circumstances under which the original cheque was lost or misplaced. After satisfying himself, the drawer may issue a letter to the payee bank requesting it to record STOP payment against the lost cheque. The bank thereafter checks whether the cheque is already paid. If not paid, it records ‘STOP PAYMENT’ order till the expiry of the validity of the cheque and issues a ‘NON PAYMENT CERTIFICATE’.

8. Are Agency banks compensated for conduct of Central/State Government business?

The accredited banks are paid remuneration by RBI for conduct of State/Central Government transactions. Such remuneration is called Agency Commission. The rates of agency commission applicable at present (from 1.7.2005) are as under:

1.	Receipts	:	Rs. 45 per transaction
2.	Pension Payments	:	Rs. 60 per transaction
3.	Payments other than pension	:	9 Paise per Rs.100/- turnover

On-line Tax Accounting System (OLTAS) for Direct Taxes

9. What is OLTAS?

It is a system introduced in April, 2004 for collection, accounting and reporting of the receipts and payments of Direct Taxes on-line through a network of bank branches. The tax payers’ data flow from banks directly to Tax Information Network (TIN) maintained by National Securities Depository Ltd.

10. What are the major changes envisaged?

Under OLTAS, only a Single Copy Challan is used with a tear off portion for the Tax Payer. The three new single copy challan in use are as under:

A common single copy Challan No. ITNS 280 for payment of Income Tax on Companies (Corporation Tax) and Income Tax (other than Companies).

Challan No. ITNS 281 for depositing Tax Deducted at Source/Tax collected at source (TDS/TCS). It has two major Heads i.e. (a) 0020 for company deductees and (b) 0021 for non-company deductees.

Challan No. ITNS 282 for payment of Hotel Receipts Tax, Gift-Tax, Estate Duty, Expenditure Tax, Wealth Tax, Securities Transaction Tax and Other miscellaneous direct taxes.

11. Does a tax-payer get his copy of the challan?

No. He only gets the tear-off portion from the challan from the bank after getting it duly stamped by the bank with a uniqueChallan Identification Number (CIN).

12. What is CIN?

It is Challan Identification Number. It is a unique number containing the following information:

(i) 7 digits BSR Code of the bank branch where tax is deposited
(ii) Date of presentation of the challan (DD/MM/YY)
(iii) Serial number of Challan in that branch on that day (5 digits)

The CIN has to be quoted in the Income Tax Return as a proof of payment. CIN is also to be quoted in any further enquiry.

13. How to obtain the new Challans?

The Challans are available on the website http://www.incometaxindia.gov.in. Challans are also available at the local Income Tax Offices and also with private vendors.

14. What would happen if theacknowledgement counterfoil is misplaced?

Approach the bank where tax was deposited. The branch will issue a certificate after following certain procedures which contains payment particulars including CIN.

15. Can the Tax payer pay Direct/Indirect taxes through internet?

Yes. Most of the banks are providing the facility to their customers.

16. Where can a tax-payer get the detailed procedure on OLTAS?

Please visit http://www.incometaxindia.gov.in.

17. What is the new procedure for payment of direct taxes at banks?

The authorised bank branches accept Direct Taxes by cash or cheque/demand draft drawn on the same branch or on other banks/branches with Single Challan. The bank immediately returns the tear off portion of the challan duly stamped with a unique Challan Identification Number (CIN) when the payment is made in cash. In the case of challans presented with cheque/demand draft drawn on other banks/branches, tear-off portion of the challan will be released to the tax-payer only after the realisation of the cheque/demand draft but tax shall be deemed to have been paid on the date of tender.

18. How does the new system benefit the taxpayer?

The new system is of immense benefit to the common taxpayer. Now a single copy simplified Challan has to be filled up replacing the earlier quadruplicate Challan. Secondly, it would be possible to obtain an acknowledgement for taxes paid at your own bank branch immediately. Further, the acknowledgement counterfoil with the rubber stamp containing the Challan Identification Number (CIN) assures that the payment is properly accounted for. The Tax payer can view the details of tax paid by him by logging on to http://tinnsdl.com and typing the unique CIN given by the bank. (For more details please visit NSDL Home page www.nsdl.co.in). Tax-payer is no longer required to attach copies/acknowledgement of challan with the Return. He should only mention the CIN details in the Income-tax Returns.

19. Can the tax-payer still use the old forms?

No. Tax is accepted only with the new prescribed challan forms

SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper

2012-05-24T02:21:00.003-07:00

SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper

1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these

2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these

3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL coded in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these

4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these

5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983

6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these

7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these

8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these

9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these

10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these

11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
(d) 77123 (e) None of these

12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these

13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN, How are the following figures coded in that language ?

Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these

15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN

16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM

17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII

18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN

19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU

20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these

21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.

22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE coded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these

23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 written in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.

24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 written in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.

25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI be coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.

ANSWER SHEET

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d

Answers With Explantion :-

1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7. So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, & L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as 918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded as 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So, MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as 76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is coded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7 , therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 35791, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI is coded as 3894781.

Carbon Tax:

2012-05-14T05:37:00.003-07:00

Carbon Tax:

A carbon tax is an environmental tax levied on the carbon content of fuels.
It is a form of carbon pricing. Carbon is present in every hydrocarbon fuel (coal, petroleum, and natural gas) and is released as carbon dioxide (CO₂) when they are burnt.
CO₂ is a heat-trapping ”greenhouse” gas(GHGs).
Scientists have pointed to the potential effects on the climate system of releasing GHGs into the atmosphere.Since GHG emissions caused by the combustion of fossil fuels are closely related to the carbon content of the respective fuels, a tax on these emissions can be levied by taxing the carbon content of fossil fuels at any point in the product cycle of the fuel.
Carbon taxes offer a potentially cost-effective means of reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
From an economic perspective, carbon taxes are a type of Pigovian tax.
They help to address the problem of emitters of greenhouse gases not facing the full (social) costs of their actions.
Carbon taxes are aregressive tax, in that they disproportionately affect low-income groups. The regressive nature of carbon taxes can be addressed by using tax revenues to favour low-income groups.

Important days

2012-05-09T19:59:00.003-07:00

Important days

Pravasi bharatiya divas- 9 january

World laughter day - 10 jan

national youth day -12 jan

army day - 15 jan

msrtyr's day or world leprosy eradication day - 30 jan

central excise day - 24 feb

national day -28 feb

world forestry day - 21 march

world water day - 22 march

commonwealth day - 11 march

international women's day - 8 march

world consumer right day - 15 march

world TB day - 24 march

national maritime day - 5 april

wold health day - 7 april

world heritage day - 18 april

earth day - 22 april

international labour day -- 1 may

press freedom day -- 3 may

world red cross day-8 may

Banks CMD

2012-05-09T19:54:00.004-07:00

1-Allahabad Bank -J.P.Dua

3-Bank Of Baroda - Md malya

4-Bank Of India - Alok Kumar Mishr

5-bank Of Maharastra - Anup Shanker Bhattacharya

6-Canara Bank - S Raman

7-central bank Of India -M V tannksale

8-Corporation Bank -Ajay Kumar

9-Dena Bank -Nupur Mitra

10-Indian Bank -Tm Bahsin

11-Indian Overseas bank-M narendra

12-Oriental bank Of Commerce-SL Bansal

13-Punjab n Sind Bank -Devendra pal Singh

14-Syndicate Bank -Madhukant singhvi

15-UCO Bank -Arun Kaul

16-Union Bnak Of India -D Sarkar

17-United bank Of India -Bhasker Sen

18-Vijaya Bank -Hsu kamat

19-PNB -Kr kamat

Sports Questions

2012-05-02T02:30:00.003-07:00

Sports Questions

1. Who is Paradorn Srichaphan?a. A Sri Lankan cricketer
b. A Thai tennis player
c. An Indonesian badminton player
d. A Malaysian golfer
Ans : C

2. Annika Sorenstam, a famous sportsperson, is known as a professional
a. chess player
b. golfer
c. swimmer
d. table tennis player
Ans : B

3. Consider the following sportspersons:I. Aarthie Ramaswamy
II. Sania MIrza
III. Sheetal Goutam.

Who of these is/are tennis players?
a. I and only
b. II only
c. II and III
d. III only
Ans : B

4. Who won the men's singles title at the World Table Tennis Championship in the year 2003?a. Joo Se-Hyuk
b. Kalinikos Kreanga
c. Kong Linghui
d. Werner Schlager
Ans : D

5. The first one-day Cricket World Cup tournament was held ina. Australia
b. England
c. New Zealand
d. West Indies
Ans : B

6. The 70th Senior National Billiards Championship was won by
a. Ashok Kumar
b. Alok Kumar
c. B. Bhaskar
d. Pankaj Advani
Ans : B

7. The 2004 Duleep Trophy was won bya. North Zone
b. South Zone
c. East Zone
d. Karnataka
Ans : A

8. In March 2004, who among the following players become the second bowler in Test cricket history to take 500 wickets?
a. Mutthiah Muralitharan
b. Shane Warne
c. Glen McGrath
d. Anil Kumble
Ans : B

9. Which city hosted the First Afro-Asian games?a. Lucknow
b. Hyderabad
c. Allahabad
d. Chennai
Ans : B

10. The 2010 Commonwealth games will be held ina. India
b. UK
c. Canada
d. Pakistan
Ans : A

11. The winner of the 2003 US Open men's Single Tennis Championship isa. Andy Roddick
b. Roger Federer
c. Carlos Moya
d. Juan Carlos Ferrero
Ans : A

12. Which of the following countries won the 2003 Asia Cup Hockey Championship?a. Pakistan
b. Japan
c. South Korea
d. India
Ans : D

13. Which game is Ian Thorpe associated witha. Badminton
b. Chess
c. Swimming
d. Squash
Ans : C

14. Who is the first India to take a hat trick in an international testa. Kapil Dev
b. Jasu Patel
c. Harbhajan Singh
d. B.S. Chandrasekhar
Ans : C

15. Who won the 'All-England Open Badminton Championship 2001'a. Prakash Padukone
b. Chen Hong
c. Peter Gade
d. Pullela Gopichand
Ans : D

16. Makers of which tyres sponsor Indian ace Narain Karthikeyana. JK
b. MRF
c. Dunlop
d. Modi
Ans : B

17. Hamburg Masters Hockey Trophy 2003 was won bya. India
b. Australia
c. Germany
d. Pakistan
Ans : A

18. Sania Mirza of India won the Girls Wimbledon Doubles Championship 2003 partnering witha. Sunitha Rao
b. Isha Lakhani
c. Sanaa Bhambri
d. Alisa Kleybanova
Ans : D

19. In which sport is the grand champion accorded the title of 'Yokozuna'
Ans : Sumo Wrestling

20. Which sporting organisation was formed at a house in Balaram Ghosh Street, North Calcutta, in August 1889

Ans : Mohun Bagan

21. 'Lona' is a term associated with the sport
Ans : Kabadi

22. In the Volleyball game the number of players on each side is
Ans : Six

23. Sports Research Institute is located at
a. Patiala
b. Delhi
c. Cochin
d. Poona
Ans : A

24. Durand Cup is associated with
Ans : Football

25. American open is associated with
Ans : Tennis

26. Australian open is associated with

Ans : Tennis

27. French Open is associated with which sport
Ans : Tennis

28. Santhosh Trophy is associated with which game
Ans : Football

29. Ã¢â‚¬ËœJockeyÃ¢â‚¬â„¢ is a term associated with
a. Golf
b. Horse Racing
c. Boxing
d. Billiards
Ans : B

30. The number of rings in Olympics flag is
Ans : 5

31. The place in which the first Asian games were held at
Ans : New Delhi

32. In cricket, the length of the pitch between the wickets is
Ans : 22 yards (20.12 m)

33. The first ever National Youth Games (under-19) were held in January 2004 at
Ans : Bangalore

34. National Sports day is observed on August 29th. It is the birth day of
Ans : Dhyanchand

35. Which country will host the Commonwealth Games in 2010
Ans : India

36. Who won the Renji Trophy in 2004
Ans : Mumbai

37. Who is the first Indian woman to win a medal in the World Athletic meet
Ans : Anju Boby Gerorge

38. Who was known as Ã¢â‚¬ËœThe Flying SikhÃ¢â‚¬â„¢

Ans : Milka Singh

39. The first Indian to win the World Champion title in Chess
Ans : Viswanathan Anand

40. Who among the following footballers has been selected as the European player of the year 2005
a. Zenedine Zidane
b. Ronaldinho
c. Ronaldo
d. Ariel Ortega
Ans : B

41. When was the first Commonwealth games held
Ans : 1930

42. Who is the first Indian to join the FormulaÃ¢â‚¬â€œ1 league

Ans : Narain Karthikeyan

43. Which of the following teams won the Ranji Trophy cricket championship for the first timea. Kerala
b. Bengal
c. Delhi
d. Uttar Pradesh
Ans : D

44. Who among the following became the first cricketer in 24 years to receive BBCÃ¢â‚¬â„¢s Sports Personality of the Year Award
a. Brian Lara
b. Andrew Flintoff
c. Jacques Kallis
d. Shane Warne
Ans : B

45. The first cricket bowler to achieve 500 wickets in One-day internationals is
Ans : Wasim Akram

46. Wasim Akram of Pakistan is associated with
a. Politics
b. Martial law
c. Nuclear tests
d. Cricket
Ans : D

47. Bull fighting is the national game of which country
Ans : Spain

48. The 2004 Olympic games was held in
Ans : Athens, Greece

49. Kerala defeated which team in Santhosh trophy final 2001
Ans : Goa

50. Merdeka Cup is associated with
Ans : Football

General English Model Test

2012-05-02T02:27:00.003-07:00

a General English Model Test

1. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
We have benefited from / the discoveries bequeathed at us / by
(a) (b)
scientists of the last century / No error.
(c) (d)
B

2. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
He was beside / himself with rage / when he saw the mess(a) (b) (c)
/ No error
d)

D

3. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
Her clothes / were bespattered / by mud. / No error(a) (b) (c) (d)

C

4. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
He showed a flagrant disregard for anyone else's feelings.(a) disregard at
(b) disregard over
(c) disregard with
(d) No improvement.

D

5. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
Looked over from that point of view, his decision is easier to understand.(a) Looked with (
b) Looked at
(c) Looked for
(d) No improvement.

B

6. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
The negotiations will call for considerable dexterity(a) will call considerable
(b) will call at considerable
(c) will call with considerable
(d) No improvement.

D

7. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
Bogus social workers have been preying over old people living alone.
(a) preying with
(b) preying at
(c) preying on
(d) No improvement.

C

8. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
The building is a prime example of 1960s architecture.
(a) primary
(b) paramount
(c) primitive
(d) No improvement

D

9. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
The whole family rallied round when mother was ill(a) rallied over
(b) rallied at
(c) rallied with
(d) No improvement.

D

10. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
Gangs of youth went at the rampage in the city yesterday.(a) with the rampage
(b) on the rampage
(c) over the rampage
(d) No improvement.

B

11. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
You must atone with your sins before you expect any pardon.(a) atone at
(b) atone to
(c) atone for
(d) No improvement.

C

12. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
Each furniture on display in this hall is on sale.(a) Each of the furniture
(b) Each piece of furniture
(c) Each one of the furniture
(d) No improvement

B

13. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
The child should that he might attract attention.(a) to attract attention
(b) in attracting attention
(c) that he may attract attention
(d) No improvement.

A

14. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
He insisted on he was innocent.(a) insistent on that
(b) insisted that
(c) insisted with
(d) No improvement.

B

15. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
If you are living near a market you should be ready to bear the disturbances caused by traffic.(a) to bear upon
(b) to bear with
(c) to bear in
(d) No improvement.

B

16. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
The company goes to great lengths to ensure that employees can be comfortable in their work environment.(a) should enjoy comfort
(b) will be comfortable
(c) are comfortable
(d) No improvement

C

17. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
Whatever my students come across new words, I ask them to look for them in the dictionary.(a) to look it up
(b) to look them up
(c) to look at them
(d) No improvement

B

18. Following sentence is given with three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the bold part, indicate your response. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d).
The tension between us had eased a little.(a) eased off
(b) eased up
(c) eased over
(d) No improvement

B

19. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
He has a reputation for being a .... critic.(a) forthcoming
(b) forthwith
(c) forthright
(d) fortified

C

20. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
The building had a/an ....... air of sadness about it.(a) temperate
(b) integral
(c) tangible
(d) intangible

C

21. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
The train was ...... delayed by the accident.(a) inevitably
(b) invariably
(c) inexactly
(d) inexhaustibly

A

22. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
Some students are ....... and want to take only the courses for which they see immediate value.(a) reclusive
(b) pragmatic
(c) ambivalent
(d) consistent

B

23. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
The young man was quickly promoted when his employers saw how ..... he was.(a) indolent
(b) cursory
(c) assiduous
(d) indigent

D

24. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
I have no ..... motive in offering this advice; I seek no personal advantage.(a) magnanimous
(b) implied
(c) altruistic
(d) ulterior

D

25. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
It is imperative that the Government initiates swift action on such a critical recommendation if its intention of tackling the menace of spurious drugs is to carry some ...... with the general public.(a) credibility
(b) credulity
(c) credulousness
(d) creditableness

A

26. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
The new office block is a/an ...... on the landscape.(a) humiliation
(b) ugliness
(c) excrescence
(d) oddity

D

27. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
Putin's overwhelming victory clearly shows that what the Russian wants is a strong leader who will ..... Mother Russia to her former pride and glory.(a) restate
(b) restore
(c) rescue
(d) retrieve

B

28. Following sentence has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
Medical ethics ....... a doctor to have a love affair with a patient.(a) censure
(b) forbid
(c) contraindicate
(d) disallow

B

29. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
The concept of deathP : that it has been reduced
Q : as an inevitability
R : is so ancient
S : to a cliche
The proper sequence should be :
(a) SPRQ (b) QRPS (c) SRPQ (d) QPRS

B

30. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
The unfortunate realityP : as a result of this decline England is
Q : peripheral sport in England and
R : is cricket is today a
S : peripheral to world cricket.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) SQPR (b) RPQS (c) SPQR (d) RQPS

D

31. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
Like most people,P : all of their behaviour
Q : entrepreneurs are complex
R : can explain
S : and no one theory
The proper sequence should be :
(a) QPRS (b) RSQP (c) QSRP (d) RPQS

C

32. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Today
P : in a fishbowl
Q : where any action may be the subject of media scrutiny
R : managers at most large organisations
S : realise that they operate
The proper sequence should be :
(a) RSPQ (b) QPSR (c) RPSQ (d) QSPR

A

33. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. IfP : no amount of experience could alter them
Q : they could be fixed at birth and
R : completely dictated by heredity
S : personality characteristics were
The proper sequence should be :
(a) QRSP (b) SPQR (c) QPSR (d) SRQP

D

34. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
The specificP : ability requirements of the job
Q : depend on the
R : required for adequate job performance
S : intellectual or physical abilities
The sequence should be :
(a) PQRS (b) SRQP (c) PRQS (d) SQRP

B

35. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
The expenditure on developmental activities
P : has drastically cut down
Q : has been possible
R : on non-developmental activities
S : because the government
The proper sequence should be :

(a) PSQR (b) QRPS (c) PRQS (d) QSPR

D

36. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
The mostP : anyone is about
Q : difficult question doing the rounds
R : an early resumption of talks
S : now is how optimistic
The proper sequence should be :
(a) PRQS (b) QSPR (c) PSQR (d) QRPS

B

37. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
The government guidelinesP : to moneylenders as there are no records of the debt
Q : of suicide victims who were in debt
R : therefore do not allow
S : the giant of compensation to families
The proper sequence should be :
(a) PSQP (b) PQRS (c) RQSP (d) PSQR

A

38. In The following some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
In the distanceP : with fresh snow
Q : the first mountain range
R : and through a gap.
S : rises a mist of light clouds
The proper sequence should be :
(a) SQRP (b) PRQS (c) SRQP (d) PQRS

C

39. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
He was sitting next to her.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

C

40. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as
(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
I shall tell you more about it in my next.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A

41. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
What next ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

B

42. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as
(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
I shall see you next Monday.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A

43. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
The earth revolves round the sun.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

D

44. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as
(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
HE came round to their belief.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

C

45. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
A square peg in a round hole.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A

46. In the given sentence the single underlined word is used as different parts of speech in English Grammar. Mark the answer as
(a) if the underlined word is used as Adjective.
(b) if the underlined word is used as Noun.
(c) if the underlined word is used as Adverb.
(d) if the underlined word is used as Preposition.
The evening was a round of pleasures.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

B

47. Sentences given when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
I. Participation involves more than the formal sharing of decisions.
II. Through anticipation, individuals or organisations consider trends and make plans, shielding institutions from trauma of learning by shock.
III. Innovative learning involves both anticipation and participation.
IV. It is an attitude characterised by co-operation, dialogue and empathy.

(a) II, III, IV, I (b) I, II, III, IV (c) III, II, I, IV (d) IV, I, II, III

C

48. Sentences given when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
I. Such a system will help identify and groom executives for positions of strategists.
II. Evaluation of performance is more often than not done for the purpose of reward or punishment for past performance.
III. They must become an integral part of the executive system.
IV. Even where the evaluation system is for one's promotion to assume higher responsibilities it rarely includes terms that are a key for playing the role of strategists effectively, e.g., the skills of playing the role of change agent and creative problem solving.

(a) IV, III, I, II (b) IV, III, II, I (c) III, IV, II, I (d) II, IV, III, I

D

49. Sentences given when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
I. In the past, the customized tailoring units were localised to the township or city and catered exclusively to domestic demand.
II. Traditionally, Indians preferred custom-made clothing and the concept of ready-to-wear is a relatively recent one.
III. Consumer awareness of styling issues and the convenience afforded by ready-to-wear helped the RMG industry, make small inroads into the domestic market in the 1980s.
IV. The customized tailoring outfits have always been a major source of clothing for domestic market.

(a) II, III, IV, I (b) II, IV, I, III (c) III, IV, II, I (d) IV, II, I, III

B

50. There are four statements, of which one is incorrect. choose
the incorrect one.
(a) Somnabulism is act of sleep walking.
(b) When someone finds his metier he gets his true vocation.
(c) A maverick is an unorthodox or an independent mine person.
(d) Matins are evening prayers.

English Antonyms

2012-05-02T02:25:00.000-07:00

English Antonyms

1. Dwarf
Giant

2. Destructive
Constructive

3. Centrifugal (away from center)
Centripetal

4. Confident
Diffident

5. Dependent
Independent

6. Dilute
Concentrate, Thicken

7. Deliberate (careful, intentional)
Inadvertent, Unintentional

8. DawnDusk

9. Broad (very wide)
Narrow

10. ConfessDeny

11. Ebb (to diminish or lessen in intensity)Flow

12. CompulsoryOptional

13. DomesticWild

14. CreateDestroy, Annihilate

15. DiseaseHealth

16. ComedyTragedy

17. Defensive (serving to protect)Offensive (aggressive)

18. DepositWithdraw

19. DepartureArrival

20. Crude (in an unprocessed state or condition)Refined

21. DryWet

22. DeathLife

23. Cheerful (happy and optimistic)Cheerless, Gloomy

24. Deduction (a conclusion reached by applying the rules of logic to a premise)
Induction (logic conclusion based on evidence)

25. CheapExpensive, Costly

26. CommonRare

27. Emigrant (somebody who moves to another country)Immigrant (somebody coming to settle in a country)

28. DifficultEasy

29. Defendant (accused party)Plaintiff (somebody who begins a lawsuit against another person (defendant) in a civil court)

30. Condemn(consider somebody guilty)
Acquit, Approve, Commend

31. BuySell

32. DiminishIncrease

33. CreditDebit

34. Egoism (making personal welfare and interests your primary or only concern, sometimes at the expense of others)
Altruism (an attitude or way of behaving marked by unselfish concern for the welfare of others)

35. DemocracyAutocracy

36. Debtor (somebody or something that owes)Creditor (somebody owed money)

37. Clergy (the body of people ordained for religious service, especially in the Christian Church)Laity (the followers of a religion who are not clergy)

38. ColdHot

39. Bright (illuminated, intelligent)
Dim, Dull

40. Deficit (the amount by which expenditures exceed income or budget)Surplus

41. Convex (a surface that curves outward rather than inward)Concave

42. Elevation
Depression

43. Diligent (persistent and hard-working)Lazy, Idle

44. CleverStupid

45. DarkLight

46. Concord(friendly relations, or peace, music pleasing combination of sounds)
Discord (disagreement or strife between people, things, or situations, unpleasant musical sounds)

47. Carnal (relating to physical needs)Spiritual

48. Deflate (let air out)Inflate

49. EarlyLate

50. DeepShallow

Bank Clerk Numerical Ability

2012-04-14T08:51:00.004-07:00

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these

52. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
54. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11
(5) 1951.01
58. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
59. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these
62. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
65.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
66. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546
(5) None of these
67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
68.
(1) 43
(2) 45
(3) 47
(4) 49
(5) 51
69.
(1) 1444
(2) 1442
(3) 1448
(4) 1456
(5) 1460
70.
(1) 25
(2) 64
(3) 8
(4) 7.5
(5) None of these
71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239
(5) 242
72.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
73.
(1) 1511
(2) 1531
(3) 1515
(4) 1553
(5) 1521
74. 484 of + 366 of = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668
(4) 848
(5) 666
75. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743
(5) Rs. 4.347
78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these
82. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175
83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216
(2) Rs.108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53
(5) 62
85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56
(5) None of these
86. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
5989 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139
90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these
91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891
(5) None of these
92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 108
(5) 112
93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144
(5) 150
95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20
96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3)
(4)
(5)
98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these
100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?

(1) 126
(2) 124
(3) 130
(4) 132
(5) 136
ANSWERS
51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)

SBI Bank Clerk Reasoning Mock paper

2012-04-14T08:48:00.000-07:00

1.Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to
(a) Sanitation

(b) Treatment

(d) Doctor

Ans (a) Lack of second results in the first

2. Aflatoxin is related to Food poisoning in the same way as Histamine is related to

(a) Allergy

(b) Headache

(d) Inhabited

Ans (a) First causes the second

3. Ostrich is related to Antelope in the same way as Egret is related to

(a) Cow

(b) Buffalo

(d) Zebra

Ans (b) Both live together to derive benefits from each other

4. Hong Kong is related to China in the same way as Vatican is related to..?…

(a) Canada

(b) Mexico

(d) Rome

Ans (d) Hong Kong is a city in china. Similarly, Vatican is a city in Rome

5. Forfeit related to Surrender in the same way as Remit is related to

(a) Perceive

(b) Confiscate

(d) Refrain

Ans (d) The words in each pair are synonyms

Directions (questins 6 to 10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.

6. What does ‘Ne’ stands for in the code language?

I. ‘Na Ni Nok Ne’ means ‘I will tell you’ and ‘Ni Nok Ne Nam’ means ‘he will tell you’ in that code language.

II. ‘Ni Ne Mo Nam’ means ‘will he call you’ and ‘Ne Mok Sac Ni’ means ‘how will you go’ in that code language.

Ans (d)

7. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?

I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.

II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q, Q being taller than P but not the tallest.

Ans (c)

8. Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?

I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.

II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book before it reached E.

Ans (d)

9. Who is paternal uncle of Pavan?

I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother Smrithi.

II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mother of Ganga, who is sister of Pavan.

Ans (b)

10. What is Milan’s rank in the class of 44 students?

I. Ramesh, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 6 ranks, Shyam being 7 ranks ahead of Milan.

II. Suketu is 26 ranks ahead of Milan and Shyamala is 6 ranks behind Milan while Savita stands exactly in the middle of Shyamala and Suketu in ranks, her rank being 17.

Ans (c)

Directions (questions 11 to 15): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.

(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.

(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.

(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

11. Which of the following statements may be false?

(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F

(b) D is 3rd to the left of E

(d) B is 3rd to the left of C

(e) None of these

Ans (d)

12. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) C and E are neighbors

(b) E is to the immediate left of F

(d) A is to the immediate left of D

(e) None of these

Ans (d)

13. Who is at the extreme right?

(a) Data inadequate

(b) G

(d) E

(e) None of these

Ans (a)

14. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?

(a) A, C and D, C

(b) A, B and E, G

(d) C, F and C, E

(e) None of these

Ans (c)

15. What is the position of F?

(a) Immediate to the right of E.

(b) Third to the left of G

(d) 5th to the right of B

(e) None of these

Ans (e)

16. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.

(a) ISLOJ

(b) LUOQM

(d) FPILG

(e) NXQTO

Ans (b)

17. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?

5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3

(a) 4

(b) 6

(d) 5

(e) None of these

Ans (a)

18. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?

19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E

(a) 8

(b) 9

(d) 7

(e) None of these

Ans (e)

Directions (questions19 to 20): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

19. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?

(a) EDVDRJSI

(b) EFUFRHSI

(d) EDUFRJSI

(e) None of these

Ans (c)

20. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?

(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO

(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO

(d) CONFFDERATION

(e) None of these

Ans (b)

21. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement?

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

(a) G

(b) H

(d) W

(e) none of these

Ans (a)

22. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?

(a) five

(b) one

(d) Two

(e) Three

Ans (a)

23. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT

(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ

(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP

(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF

Ans (d)

24.
Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?

(a) IB

(b) LF

(d) FL

(e) TL

Ans (c)

25. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?

(a) RWLGPF

(b) EOFKUQ

(d) RWLEPD

(e) RWLEND

Ans (e)

PO Reasoning sample

2012-04-14T08:45:00.003-07:00

Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.

(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.

(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.

(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

1. Which of the following statements may be false?

(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F

(b) D is 3rd to the left of E

(d) B is 3rd to the left of C

(e) None of these

Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) C and E are neighbors

(b) E is to the immediate left of F

(d) A is to the immediate left of D

(e) None of these

Ans (d)

3. Who is at the extreme right?

(a) Data inadequate

(b) G

(d) E

(e) None of these

Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?

(a) A, C and D, C

(b) A, B and E, G

(d) C, F and C, E

(e) None of these

Ans (c)

5. What is the position of F?

(a) Immediate to the right of E.

(b) Third to the left of G

(d) 5th to the right of B

(e) None of these

Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different.

(a) ISLOJ

(b) LUOQM

(d) FPILG

(e) NXQTO

Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?

5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3

(a) 4

(b) 6

(d) 5

(e) None of these

Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?

19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E

(a) 8

(b) 9

(d) 7

(e) None of these

Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?

(a) EDVDRJSI

(b) EFUFRHSI

(d) EDUFRJSI

(e) None of these

Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?

(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO

(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO

(d) CONFFDERATION

(e) None of these

Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

(a) G

(b) H

(d) W

(e) none of these

Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?

(a) five

(b) one

(d) Two

(e) Three

Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT

(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ

(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP

(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF

Ans (d)

14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?

(a) IB

(b) LF

(d) FL

(e) TL

Ans (c)

15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?

(a) RWLGPF

(b) EOFKUQ

(d) RWLEPD

(e) RWLEND

Ans (e)

16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.

(a) ANUMAY

(b) IHSOK

(d) ADAMRAN

(e)None of these

Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.

(a) Night

(b) Negative

(d) Near

(e) None of these

Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office.

(a) 30

(b) 20

(d) 50

(e) None of these

Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.

(a) one day

(b) two days

(d) four days

(e) None of these

Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.

(a) 4 feet

(b) 5 feet

(d) 25 feet

(e) None of these

Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.

21. ENCOURAGE

(a) ANGER

(b) GREEN

(d) COURAGE

(d) None of these

Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

22. CONCENTRATE

(a) CENTRE

(b) CONCERN

(d) REASON

(e) None of these

Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT

(a) STAIN

(b) TRAIN

(d) TRACE

(e) None of these

Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC

(a) MENACE

(b) GAIN

(d) GAME

(e) None of these

Ans (a)

25. ENTHUSIASM

(a) MITE

(b) ASSIST

(d) SENT

(e) None of these

Ans (b)

Exam Shooter's For Banks Part one

2012-04-12T08:40:00.002-07:00

Exam Shooter's For Banks
Who took over as the 19th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard	M. P. Muralidharan Bird
India has declared itself free from	Bird Flu (H5N1
The “7th North-East Business Summit” was held in ------ on January 06,2012.	New Delhi
Who has been declared the' AIFF Player of the Year' 2011	Sunil Chhetri
The scheme of Adarsh Station has been introduced from the year	2009
Which company is India's biggest oil marketer	Indian Oil
Which company is India's largest drug maker	Ranbaxy
Reliance KG-D6 gas fields are located in which state	Andhra Pradesh
In which year Competition Commission of India was established	2003
Former ChiefMinister and Parliamentarian S. Bangarappa passed away	Karnataka
. Great Himalayan National Park is located in which state	Himachal Pradesh
Who will be the event managers of the DefExpo-2012	FICCI
Which day was proclaimed "International Mother Language Day" by UNESCO	21st February
Juno Award is given for excellence in the field of	Music

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper

2012-04-05T21:02:00.004-07:00

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2009English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 20-9-2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a great Palace by the sea, there once dwelt a very rich old lord, who had only one little grand daughter, whose face he had never seen in all her life. He hated her bitterly, because at her birth his daughter died; and when the old nurse brought him the baby, he swore, that he would never look on her face as long as she lived. So he turned his back, and sat by his window looking out over the sea, shedding tears for his lost daughter. Meanwhile, his grand daughter grew up with no one to care for her, or clothe her. An old nurse would sometimes give her a dish of scraps from the kitchen, or an torn dress from the rag-bag. Soon she became known as “Tattercoats”, amongst all as she always wore torn out dresses. And so she grew up, with little to eat or wear, spending her days in the fields and lanes, with only a herd of parrots for a companion.

One day, people told each other that the King was travelling to their town and was to give a great party to all the lords and ladies of the country, where the Prince, his only son, was to choose a wife. Tattercoats had heard of the event in the town. She was excited as she had never been to a party. However, she was heartbroken when she soon realized that her grandfather would never take her to the party.

The parrots listened to her story and proposed that they should go together into the town but she looked sorrowfully down at her rags and bare feet. She said that in such attire, the king’s men would never let her enter the town. She sat under a tree crying and sobbing. Just then a handsome young man, splendidly dressed, rode up and stopped to ask the way to the town as he had lost it and had been wandering in the area for a long time without a clue about the directions. Tattercoats explained the way to the town to him. The young man was charmed by her beauty and simplicity but soon realized that she was upset. On asking the reason the parrots told him the whole story. The young man felt sad for Tattercoats. He returned the next day with a beautiful gown and jewels and gave her so that she could wear these to the king’s party. Tattercoats looked astonished and refused to accept the expensive gifts. The young man however insisted that she must accept these as a token of thanks for helping him finding the way to the town when he was lost.

Finally when night came, the hall in the castle was full of light and music and the lords and ladies were dancing before the King. Soon Tattercoats entered, followed by the flock of chirpy parrots. She walked straight up the party hall while the ladies whispered, the lords laughed, and the King seated at the far end stared in amazement. But as they came in front of the throne, a young man rose from beside the King and came to greet her. Much to Tattercoat’s surprise he was the same young man whom she had told the way to the town. Taking her by the hand he turned to the King.

“Father !” he said, for he was the Prince himself, “I have made my choice, and here is my bride, the loveliest girl in all the land, and the sweetest as well !” The king was proud of his son’s decision and as he rose to greet his daughter-in-law, the trumpets sounded loudly in honour of the new Princess.

The couple lived happily ever after. The parrot herd continued to be the best companion of the princess. Her grandfather, however, bound by his vow could never see his granddaughter – Tattercoats – the princess in his entire life.

1. What did the handsome young man ask Tattercoats on his way to the town ?
(A) He asked her to accompany him to the town.
(B) He asked her to accept the gifts he had brought for her.
(C) He promised her that the prince would choose her as his wife during the party.
(D) He asked for the directions to the town as he had lost his way.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. What was the King’s intention in throwing a party in the town ?
(A) To please the rich landlords and ladies of the town.
(B) So that his only son could select a wife for himself.
(C) He was happy that his son had chosen Tattercoats as his wife.
(D) He wanted to visit the town as he had never visited it before.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. Why did Tattercoats cry even when the parrots offered to accompany her to the King’s party ?
(A) She did not have good clothes and shoes to wear for the occasion.
(B) She feared that her grandfather would punish her for attending the party.
(C) She had lost her way to the town on her way to the town.
(D) The lords and the ladies at the party had made fun of her appearance.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The rich landlord finally forgave her granddaughter.
(B) Tattercoats always had a comfortable childhood since her grandfather was a wealthy landlord.
(C) A prince had asked Tattercoats for the way to the town.
(D) Tattercoats was never able to attend the party held by the King.
(E) All are true
Ans : (C)

5. What did the young man do when Tattercoats refused to accept the gifts ?
(A) He had to take the gifts back.
(B) He was impressed by her self respect and decided to marry her.
(C) He said that unless she accepts the gifts she would not be able to attend the party.
(D) He promised to buy more expensive gifts for her.
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. Why did the rich landlord swear never to see his granddaughter’s face ?
(A) He was upset that she had married the prince against his wish.
(B) He always wanted a grandson and not a granddaughter.
(C) He held her responsible for the death of his daughter.
(D) He was upset with her since she did not take good care of him.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. How did the King react to his son’s decision to marry Tattercoats ?
(A) He was upset since his son had chosen her over the rich and wealthy ladies present in the party.
(B) He was very happy with his son’s decision and gladly welcomed Tattercoats.
(C) He was unhappy with the marriage as he had sworn never to see Tattercoats’s face in his life.
(D) He stared in amazement and laughed at his son’s choice.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following best describes Tattercoats ?
(A) Shrewed
(B) Manipulative
(C) Opportunist
(D) Clever
(E) Beautiful
Ans : (E)

9. Why did the rich landlord’s granddaughter become known as Tattercoats ?
(A) She was named so by her parents.
(B) Her grandfather named her so as he hated her and wanted her to be mocked around by the people
(C) She liked to play around with parrots who were her only companions
(D) She was always dressed in old and torn out clothes.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following statements regarding the prince is true ?
(A) He wanted to marry a rich and wealthy lady.
(B) He did not allow Tattercoats to attend the party hosted by the king.
(C) He made a joke of Tattercoats’ attire and condition
(D) A herd of parrots were his only friends in the whole world
(E) None of the above statements is true
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. BITTERLY
(A) Tastelessly
(B) Intensely
(C) Rudely
(D) Eagerly
(E) Purposefully
Ans : (B)

12. ASTONISHED
(A) Happy
(B) Shocked
(C) Embarrassed
(D) Surprised
(E) Frightened
Ans : (D)

13. VOW
(A) Pledge
(B) Sacrifice
(C) Assurance
(D) Declaration
(E) Announcement
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14 –15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. SPLENDIDLY(A) Wisely
(B) Unfairly
(C) Rudely
(D) Reluctantly
(E) Unimpressively
Ans : (E)

15. CHARMED
(A) Offended
(B) Stunned
(C) Repulsed
(D) Jealous
(E) Outraged
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. They asked him (A) / how did he received (B) / the wound but he (C) / refused to answer. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

17. Babar was not only (A) / a great soldier, (B) / but also a (C) / very wisest ruler. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. Weather permitting, (A) / there will be a (B) / garden party on (C) / the farm house tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. As the airplane was (A) / ready for takeoff, (B) / the passengers and the crew (C) / fastened themselves’ seatbelts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

20. The teacher admires Rahul (A) / as he has always (B) / admired students which (C) / speak the truth. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Instead of running (A) / as fast as possible (B) / he could not (C) / win the race. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

22. The meeting was not (A) / of much help (B) / as there was too much talk (C) / and little work. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. Reema is the tallest (A) / of my two daughters (B) / eventhough she is (C) / 5 years younger. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

24. The walls of the house (A) / are made of stone (B) / whereas the floor (C) / is made of wood. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

25. His son has make (A) / much progress in life (B) / owing to his (C) / hard work and determination. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following Six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(a) It can be done in many simple ways such as turning off the taps, fixing leaks on time and reusing used water etc.
(b) Only 1% of all the water on the Earth is usable.
(c) With such growth rate it is important that we conserve water, use it wisely and not waste it.
(d) The rest is either salt water or permanently frozen.
(e) If everyone makes efforts to follow these simple ways, the water crisis would be solved to a great extent.
(f) As population grows, more and more people are using this limited resource.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (e)
(D) (d)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions Six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer.

31. (a) IS
(b) LIVING
(c) HE
(d) GREATEST
(e) POET
(f) THE
(A) CAFBDE
(B) CAFEDB
(C) CAFDBE
(D) FDBEAC
(E) FDBCEA
Ans : (C)

32. (a) CAR
(b) YOURS
(c) IS
(d) THAN
(e) MY
(f) FASTER
(A) EACFBD
(B) BACFDE
(C) BACFED
(D) EAFCDB
(E) EACFDB
Ans : (E)

33. (a) A
(b) HONOUR
(c) HE
(d) OF
(e) IS
(f) MAN
(A) AFDBCE
(B) CEAFDB
(C) AFDBEC
(D) CEAFBD
(E) CEFADB
Ans : (B)

34. (a) YOUNGER
(b) DOCTOR
(c) IS
(d) MY
(e) A
(f) SISTER
(A) DAFCEB
(B) EABCDF
(C) EABDCF
(D) DAFECB
(E) DABCDF
Ans : (A)

35. (a) SUPPORTED
(b) HE
(c) CLAIMS
(d) FRIEND’S
(e) HIS
(f) FULLY
(A) BFADEC
(B) BFAEDC
(C) EDCBFA
(D) EDBCFA
(E) BFACDE
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. Although (A) it was the first time the King had lead his troupes (B) to the battle, he showed (C) remarkable (D) courage. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

37. As the dinner was ready (A) the hosts requested (B) everyone to procede (C) to the dining (D) hall. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

38. The police stopped (A) him and asked for the lisence (B) which he unfortunately (C) did not carry while going (D) for the drive. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

39. His father thought (A) that he had moe potential (B) to become (C) an engineer then (D) a doctor. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

40. The doctors at the hospital says (A) that he will be absolutely (B) fine within a week’s time, given (C) that he follows their advice. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day in the King’s Court, Birbal happened to have an argument with Akbar. The casual argument soon became very hot. Akbar, being a very sensitive king, got very angry and …(41)… Birbal to get out of his Palace and also his kingdom. Birbal had to …(42)… the King’s order and left the court immediately. After a couple of days, Akbar couldn’t stop …(43)… about Birbal. He …(44)… him very much and wanted to bring him back to the court. But, Birbal was missing and could not be …(45)… anywhere. Soon Akbar got an idea and made an …(46)… to the kingdom saying “I would reward 1,000 gold coins to the person who can walk in the Sun with half shade on him.”

The very next day a villager came to the court. It was a hot sunny day and the villager was holding a String Cot above his head. He came to Akbar and said “Oh’ King ! I walked in the sun and by holding this string cot over my head, I have half shade on me. So, please …(47)… over my reward” At once Akbar understood that it must be the plan of Birbal. He asked the villager who taught him this idea. The Villager …(48)… that it was Birbal’s …(49)…. On hearing this Akbar was very happy. He requested Birbal to come back to the palace and they had a happy …(50)….

41. (A) proposed
(B) requested
(C) invited
(D) ordered
(E) arrange
Ans : (D)

42. (A) defy
(B) obey
(C) adhere
(D) comply
(E) deny
Ans : (B)

43. (A) missing
(B) disappointing
(C) hating
(D) consider
(E) thinking
Ans : (E)

44. (A) missed
(B) hated
(C) avoided
(D) ignored
(E) scolded
Ans : (A)

45. (A) met
(B) placed
(C) gathered
(D) found
(E) familiarized
Ans : (D)

46. (A) appeal
(B) order
(C) announcement
(D) enquiry
(E) suggestion
Ans : (C)

47. (A) give
(B) hand
(C) provide
(D) supply
(E) deliver
Ans : (B)

48. (A) confessed
(B) pleaded
(C) appealed
(D) ashamed
(E) appreciated
Ans : (A)

49. (A) conspiracy
(B) indication
(C) fraud
(D) trap
(E) suggestion
Ans : (E)

50. (A) unite
(B) joining
(C) recovery
(D) reunion
(E) retrieval
Ans : (D)

Abbreviations

2012-04-05T20:51:00.000-07:00

List of Abbreviations
A
A.A. — Automobile Association
A.A.F. — Auxiliary Air Force
A.A.P.S.O. — Afro-Asian People’s Solidarity Organization
A.A.R.R.O. — Afro-Asian Rural Reconstruction Organization
A.A.S.F. — Asian Amateur Swimming Federation

A.B.C. (Warfare) — Atomic, Biological and Chemical (Warfare)
A.B.U. — Asian Pacific-Broadcasting Union
a/c. — Account
A.C. — Alternating Current; Ashoka Chakra
A.C.U. — Asian Clearing Union
A.D. — Anno Domini; of the Christian Era
A.D.B. — Asian Development Bank
A.D.E. — Aeronautical Development Establishment
A.D.G.E.S. — Air Defence Ground Environment System
A.E.C. — Atomic Energy Commission
A.G.F. — Asian Games Federation
A.G.O.C. — Asian Games Organizing Committee
A.H.Q. — Air Head Quarters; Army Head Quarters
A.I.C.C. — All India Congress Committee
A.I.D. — Agency for International Development
A.I.I.M.S. — All India Institute of Medical Sciences
A.I.L.T.A. — All India Lawn Tennis Association
A.I.N.E.F. — All India Newspapers Employee’s Federation
A.I.O.E. — All India Organization of Employers
A.I.T.U.C. — All India Trade Union Congress
A.M. — Ante meridiem; (before noon)
A.M.C. — Army Medical Corps
A.M.I.E. — Associate Member of the Institute of Engineers
A.N.C. — African National Council
A.N.Z.U.S. — Australia, Newzealand and U.S. (Council)
A.O.P.E.C. — Arab Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries.
A.P.C. — Agricultural Prices Commission
A.P.H.L.C. — All Parties Hill Leaders’ Conference
A.R.F. — ASEAN Regional Forum
A.S.E.A.N. — Association of South East Asian Nations
A.S.W. — Anti-Submarine Warfare
A.S.R.B. — Agricultural Services Recruitment Board
A.T.S. — Applications Technology Satellite; Anti-Tetanus Serum
A.V.A.R.D. — Association of Voluntary Agencies for Rural Development
A.V.S.M. — Ati Vishist Seva Medal

B
B.A. — Bachelor of Arts; British Academy
B.A.R.C. — Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
B.B.C. — British Broadcasting Corporation
B.C. — Before Christ
B.C.C.L. — Bharat Coking Coal Limited
B.C.G. — Bacillus Calmette Guerin—(Anti-Tuberculosis Vaccine)
BENELUX — Belgium, Netherlands and Luxemburg—(a CustomsUnion)
B.I.S. — Bank of International Settlements
B.N.P. — Bangla Desh Nationalist Party
B.O.A.C. — British Overseas Airways Corporation
B.P.E. — Bureau of Public Enterprises
B.R.L. — Bharat Refineries Limited
B.S.F. — Border Security Force
B.S.S. — Bharat Sewak Samaj; Bangladesh Sangbad Sangstha (News Agency)
B.Th.U. — British Thermal Unit
C
CAMELS — Capital Adequacy, Asset Quality, Management, Earnings,
Liquidity and Systems & Control
C.A.R.E. — Co-operative for American Relief Everywhere
C.A.S. — Chief of Army Staff; Chief of Air Staff
CASTASIA — Conference on the Application of Science and Technology in
Asia
CAZRI — Central Arid Zone Research Institute

C.B.I. — Central Bureau of Investigation; Central Bank of India
C.C.I. — Cricket Club of India; Cement Corporation of India
CENTO — Central Treaty Organization
C.F.R.I. — Central Fuel Research Institute
C.G.S. — Chief of the General Staff
CHASNUPP — Chasma Nuclear Power Plant
C.I.A. — Central Intelligence Agency (of U.S.A.)
C.I.A.T. — Centro International the Agriculture Tropical
C.I.D. — Criminal Investigation Department
C. in C. — Commander-in-Chief
C.I.L. — Coal India Limited
C.I.T.U. — Centre of Indian Trade Unions
C.I.W.T.C. — Central Inland Water Transport Corporation
C.L.R.C. — Central Land Reforms Committee
C.M.A.L. — Coal Mines Authority (of India) Limited
C.N.S. — Chief of Naval Staff
C.O.F.E.P.O.S.A. — Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of
Smuggling Activities Act
C.M.P.D.I.L. — Central Mines Planning and Design Institute Ltd.
C.P.I. — Communist Party of India
C.S.I.R. — Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
C.W.F. — Consumer Welfare Fund

D
D.A. — Dearness Allowance; Daily Allowance
D.A.E. — Department of Atomic Energy
D.A.V.P. — Directorate of Audio Visual Publicity
D.C. — Direct Current; Deputy Commissioner
D.C.L. — Doctor of Civil Law
D.D.A. — Delhi Development Authority
D.D.T. — Dichloro-Diphenyl Trichloro-ethane
D.L.O. — Dead Letter Office, District Livestock Officer
D.M. — District Magistrate
D.M.K. — Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
D.N.A. — De-oxyribonucleio acid
D.P.S.A. — Deep Penetration Strike Aircraft
D.Sc. — Doctor of Science
D.R.D.O. — Defence Research and Development Organization

E
E.A.R.C. — Economic Administration Reforms Commission
E.C.A. — European Co-operation Administration; Economic Co-operation
Administration
E.C.A.F.E. — Economic Commission for Asia and Far East
E.C.I.L. — Electronics Corporation of India Limited
E.C.M. — European Common Market
ECOSOC — Economic and Social Council (U.N.)
E.C.U. — European Currency Unit
E.E.C. — European Economic Community
E.E.G. — Electro-encephalography
E.F.T.A. — European Free Trade Association
e.g. — Exempli-gratia (for example)
E.G.I. — Editors Guild of India
E. & O.E. — Errors and Omissions Excepted ex-officio By virtue of
one’s office
E.R.D.A. — Energy Research and Development Administration
E.R.T.S. — Earth Resources Technology Satellite
E.S.A. — European Space Agency
E.S.C.A.P. — Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific
E.S.R.O. — European Space Research Organization
EURATOM — European Atomic Energy Community
E.V.M. — Electronic Voting Machine
E.W.S. — Economically Weaker Sections
F
F.A.C.T. — Fertilizers and Chemicals Travancore Ltd.
F.A.O. — Food and Agriculture Organization
F.B.I. — Federal Bureau of Investigation
F.C.I. — Food Corporation of India; Fertilizer Corporation of India

F.I.C.C.I. — Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry
F.E.R.A. — Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
F.I.S.I. — Friends of India Society International
F.R.G. — Federal Republic of Germany
F.R.I. — Forest Research Institute
F.P.S. — Foot-Pound-Second (System)
F.R.C.P. — Fellow of the Royal College of Physicians
F.R.C.S. — Fellow of the Royal College of Surgeons
F.T.I.I. — Film and Television Institute of India

G
G.A.T.T. — General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
G.D.R. — German Democratic Republic (East Germany)
G.I.S.T. — Global Institute of Science and Technology
G.M.T. — Greenwich Mean Time
G.N.P. — Gross National Product
G.S.I. — Geological Survey of India
G.S.T.P. — Global System of Trade Preferences
H
H.A.C. — Hindustan Aluminium Corporation
H.A.D.P. — Hill Area Development Project
H.A.L. — Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
H.O.T. — Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
H.E.S.H. — High Explosive Squash Head (Anti-tank shell)
H.L.C. — Humanitarian Law Commission
H.M.T. — Hindustan Machine Tools
H.U.D.C.O. — Housing and Urban Development Corporation
I
I.A.A.I. — International Airport Authority of India
I.A.D.F. — International Agricultural Development Fund
I.A.E.C. — International Atomic Energy Commission
I.A.R.I. — Indian Agricultural Research Institute
I.A.S. — Indian Administrative Service
I.A.T.A. — International Air Transport Association
I.B.R.D. — International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
I.B.W.L. — Indian Board of Wild Life
I.C.A.O. — International Civil Aviation Organization
I.C.A.R. — Indian Council of Agricultural Research
I.C.A.R.D.A. — International Centre for Agricultural Research in Dry
Areas
I.C.F.T.U. — International Confederation of Free Trade Unions
I.C.G.E.B. — International Centre for Genetic Egineering and
Biotechnology
I.C.I.C.I — Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
I.C.J. — International Court of Justice
I.C.D.S. — Integrated Child Development Services
I.C.M.R. — Indian Council of Medical Research
I.C.R.I.S.A.T. — International Crop Research Institute for Semi Arid
Tropics
I.D.P.L. — Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited
I.D.A. — International Development Association
I.E.A. — International Energy Agency
I.F.W.J. — Indian Federation of Working Journalists
I.G.N.C.A. — Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts
I.L.O. — International Labour Organization
I.L.P.I.C. — Industrial Licensing Policy Inquiry Committee
I.M.F. — International Monetary Fund
I.M.C.O. — Inter-governmental Maritime Consultative Organization
I.N.S.A. — Indian Natural Science Academy
I.N.R.W.F. — Indian National Railway Workers’ Federation
I.N.M.A.S. — Institute of Nuclear Medicine and Allied Sciences
I.O.C. — International Olympic Committee
I.P.A. — Integrated Programme of Action (for Regional Co-operation
between seven South Asian Countries)
I.R.D.A. — Insurance Regulatory Development Authority
I.R.D.P. — Integrated Rural Development Programme
I.R.R.I. — International Rice Research Institute
I.S.R.O. — Indian Space Research Organization
I.S.S.P. — Indian Scientific Satellite Project
I.T.D.C. — Indian Tourism Development Corporation
I.T.E.S. — Information Technology Enabled Services
I.T.U. — International Tele-Communication Union
I.V.R.I. — Indian Veterinary Research Institute
I.W.Y. — International Women’s Year
I.Y.C. — International Year of Child
I.Y.D.P. — International Year for Disabled Persons
J
JAL — Japan Air Lines
J.C.O. — Junior Commissioned Officer
J.R.C. — Joint Research Centre
K
KANU — Kenya African National Union

K.M.L.P. — Kisan Mazdoor Lok Paksh
K.M.T. — Kuomintang (Chinese Nationalist Party)
L
L.B.W. — Leg Before Wicket (in Cricket)
L.S.D. — Lysergic acid Diethylamide
M
M.A.M.C. — Mining and Allied Machinery Corporation
M.C.A. — Monetary Compensatory Account
M.C.C. — Marylebone Cricket Club (of England)
M.F.A.L.A. — Marginal Farmers and Agricultural Labourers Agency
M.I.C. — Monopolies Inquiries Commission
M.I.P. — Moon Impact Probe
M.L.A. — Member of the Legislative Assembly
M.L.C. — Member of the Legislative Council
M.M.T.C. — Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation
M.N.F. — Mizo National Front
M.P. — Member of Parliament
M.R.C.P. — Member of the Royal College of Physicians
MRTPC — Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission
M.S.A.R. — Macau Special Administrative Region
M.V.C. — Maha Vir Chakra
N
N.A.B. — National Apex Body
NABARD — National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development
N.A.E.P. — National Adult Education Programme
NAFEN — Near and Far East News (Agency)
NASA — National Aeronautics and Space Administration (of U.S.A.)
N.A.S.M. — National Agricultural Science Museum
NATO — North Atlantic Treaty Organization
N.A.Y.E. — National Alliance of Young Entrepreneurs
N.B.C.C. — National Building Construction Corporation
N.B.P.G.R. — National Bureau of Plant Genetic Research
NCAER — National Council of Applied Economic Research
N.C.C.F. — National Consumer Co-operative Federation
NCERT — National Council of Educational Research and Training
N.C.E.P. — National Committee on Environmental Planning
N.C.D.C. — National Coal Development Corporation
N.C.R. — National Capital Region
NCST — National Committee on Science and Technology
NDA — National Defence Academy
N.F.D.C. — National Film Development Corporation
NIDC — National Industrial Development Corporation
N.I.N. — National Institute of Nutrition
NMDC — National Mineral Development Corporation
N.M.L. — National Metallurgical Laboratory
N.N.D.P. — Naga National Democratic Party
N.P.T. (Nuclear) — Non-Proliferation Treaty
N.R.C.P.B. — National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology
NRSA — National Remote Sensing Agency
N.S.U.I. — National Students Union of India
N.T.C. — National Taxtile Corporation
N.T.P.C. — National Thermal Power Corporation
O
O.A.S. — Organization of American States
O.A.S.I.S. — Old Age Social and Income Security
O.A.U. — Organization of African Unity
O.E.C.D. — Organization of Economic Co-operation and Development
O.I.C. — Organization of Islamic Conference
O.I.L. — Oil India Limited
O.N.G.C. — Oil and Natural Gas Commission
O.P.E.C. — Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
P
P.A.C. — Public Accounts Committee; Provincial Armed Constabulary
PAFNA — Pan-African News Agency
P.C.C. — Pradesh Congress Committee
P.D.F. — Progressive Democratic Front
P.E.C. — Projects and Equipment Corporation (of India Ltd.)
P.E.T.A. — People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals

P.I.B. — Press Information Bureau, Public Investment Board
P.I.N.C. — Postal Index Number Code
P.N.E. — Peaceful Nuclear Explosion
P.O.W. — Prisoner of War
P.S.C. — Public Service Commission
P.T.A. — Pilotless Target Aircraft
P.U.C.L. — People’s Union for Civil Liberties
P.V.C. — Param Vir Chakra
Q
Q.E.D. — Quod Erat Demonstrandum (which was to be proved or
demonstrated)
R
R.A.F. — Rapid Action Force
R.B.I. — Reserve Bank of India
R.E.C. — Rural Electrification Corporation
R.G.C.B. — Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology
R.G.C.O.V.A.S. — Rajiv Gandhi College of Veterinary and Animal
Sciences.
R.S.C.B. — Railway Sports Control Board
R.S.V.P. — Respondez s’il vous plait (Fr.) reply if you please
S
S.A.A.R.C. — South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
S.A.B.A. — South African Black Alliance
SAIL — Steel Authority of India Limited
SALT — Strategic Arms Limitation Talks
S.C. — Security Council/Supreme Court
SCOPE — Standing Conference of Public Enterprises
S.D.R. — Special Drawing Rights
S.E.A.T.O. — South-East Asia Treaty Organization
S.F.A.L.A. — Small Farmers and Agricultural Labourers Agency
S.F.D.A. — Small Farmers Development Agency
S.G.F.I. — School Games Federation of India
S.E.W.A. — Self Employed Women’s Association
SIDBI — Small Industries Development Bank of India
S.I.T.A. — Studies in Information Technology Applications
SITE — Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
S.L.V. — Satellite Launch Vehicle
S.P.C.A. — Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
S.T.P.I. — Software Technology Parks of India
SUNFED — Special United Nations Fund for Economic Development
S.W.A.P.O. — South-West African People’s Organization
SWIFT — Society for World-wide Financial Telecommunications
T
T.D.A. — Trade Development Authority
TERLS — Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station
TELEX — Teleprinter Exchange
T.T.F.I. — Table Tennis Federation of India
TRYSEM — Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment
TTZ — Taj Trapezium Zone
T.V.A. — Tennese Valley Authority
T.W.A. — Trans World Airlines
U
U.A.E. — United Arab Emirates
U.A.R. — United Arab Republic
U.F.O. — Unidentified Flying Objects
U.L.S.D. — Ultra Low Sulphur Diesel
U.L.S.P. — Ultra Low Sulphur Petrol

U.N.C.T.A.D. — United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
U.N.D.P. — United Nations Development Programme
U.N.E.F. — United Nations Emergency Force
U.N.E.P. — United Nations Environment Programme
U.N.E.S.C.O. — United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organization
U.N.F.I.P — United Nations Fund for International Partnerships
U.N.H.C.R. — United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
U.N.I. — United News of India
U.N.I.C.E.F. — United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund
U.N.I.D.O. — United Nations International Development Organization
U.N.I.T.C. — United Nations International Trade Centre
UNLF — Uganda National Liberation Front
U.N.O. — United Nations Organization
U.N.P. — United National Party (Sri Lanka)
U.P.S.C. — Union Public Service Commission
U.S.I.M.E.T.P. — United States International Military Education
Training Programme
U.S.S.R. — Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
U.T.I. — Unit Trust of India
V
V.C. — Vice Chancellor; Victoria Cross
V.P.P. — Value Payable Post
V.S.S.C. — Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (at Thumba)
W
W.E.D. — World Environment Day
W.I.P.O — World Intellectual Property Organisation
W.F.P. — World Food Programme
W.F.T.U. — World Federation of Trade Unions
W.H.O. — World Health Organization
W.M.O. — World Meteorological Organization
W.T.O. — World Trade Organization
X
X.M.L. — Extensible Mark up Language
Y
Y.M.C.A. — Young Men’s Christian Association
Y.W.C.A. — Young Women’s Christian Association
Z
Z.S. — Zoological Society

Reasoning For Rbi (Sample Questions)

2012-04-05T20:49:00.002-07:00

Reasoning :

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these

5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these

6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel

10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these

11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9

12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P

Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.

17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.

18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.

19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.

20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.

21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.

22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.

Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y

23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these

24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these

28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I

Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these

31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these

32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these

33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these

34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these

35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these

36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J

38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N

39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T

40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B

41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F

42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H

43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V

Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate

47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate

48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first number.

50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these

51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these

52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these

53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these

54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these

55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the previous year.

57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.

58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.

59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.

60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food
habits.

Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (B) In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time after shifting one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded part of the designs form after rotating 90° anticlockwise in the two designs and forms after rotating 90° clockwise in a simple square design with this also.
62. (D) In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design ‘<’ forms after rotating 45° and 90° anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design ‘^’ forms after rotating 90° and 180° anticlockwise respectively.
63. (E)
64. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and one curved line is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and is also missing 1 and 2 respectively from back side.
65. (C) In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then one side anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side each time then forward side respectively.
66. (E) In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then this design shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These designs rotate 90° clockwise each time with this change also.
67. (B)
68. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal lines reverse in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left respectively.
69. (B) In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and shifting one side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side. So these sequences continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next side anticlockwise after reversing from outside to inside.
70. (E) 71. (A)
72. (C) In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left corner beome on the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines respectively.
73. (B)
74. (E) In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from upper left corner. These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two lines after forming upto lower left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars form on the place of circles from back side.
75. (D) In each subsequent figure the ‘square’ forms one side clockwise first and then half side anticlockwise respectively. Similarly, the ‘circle’ shifts half side, one side, one and half side, two side and two and half side anticlockwise respectively in each subsequent figure also.

Before The Interview

2012-04-04T08:44:00.000-07:00

Before The Interview

Be prepared:

>	Do the necessary background research on the company (i.e. its mission, values, organizational culture, products/services, etc)
>	Ensure that you have the pertinent interview details (i.e. the date, time and venue for the interview, the interviewer’s full name, the correct pronunciation and his or her title)
>	Prepare the necessary documents to bring along for the interview. These documents would include extra copies of your resume, educational certificates, your identity card/passport, photographs, etc.

Know yourself :

>	Assess your strengths and weaknesses, vis-à-vis the requirements of the position that you are applying for, so that you can market your job fit effectively during the interview.
>	Be prepared to share on your career aspirations, motivation and other interests to demonstrate that you are a well-balanced individual

Be proactive :

>	Prepare some questions to pose at the end of the interview to show your interest in the company.

At The Interview

Don’t be late :

>	Plan to arrive at least 15 minutes before the interview

Dress appropriately :

>	Always wear neat and clean clothing
>	Check your breath, teeth and appearance before entering the interview
>	Avoid any dressing that would distract the interviewer, such as loud colours, heavy make-up, gaudy accessories/nail polish, tight /see-through clothing, etc

Be professional :

>	Offer a firm handshake
>	Sit only when offered a seat
>	Sit upright
>	Maintain eye contact with your interviewer (s), as this conveys your sincerity and commitment.
>	Speak with a well-modulated voice that conveys an appropriate level of enthusiasm
>	Avoid unnecessary derogatory comments about your present or previous employers/colleagues.

Be sincere and confident, not overbearing :

>	Avoid appearing desperate or overly confident for the position.
>	Smile, and show your enthusiasm and interest in the position.
>	Listen attentively to the interviewer.
>	Answer questions truthfully and sincerely.

Think before you speak :

>	Only ask the questions that will steer the conversation in your favor (e.g. if you wish to highlight certain experience/skills that are relevant to the position you have applied for)
>	Give clear and concise answers to the questions posed to you
>	Watch for non-verbal cues from the interviewers.
>	Know the intent behind the interviewers’ questions. Ultimately the interviewers need to assess your suitability for the job and your fit with the organization.
>	Do not be too aggressive in enquiring on the salaries, benefits, etc, on the first interview. If the interviewer asks for your financial expectations, you may indicate your last-drawn salary but you should stress that you value career opportunities over a specific salary. Alternatively, you can enquire what salary range the job falls in, to give you a better sense of how to position your financial expectations.

After The Interview

>	Thank the interviewer for his time and consideration.
>	Enquire about the next step in the process.
>	If you are interested in the position, indicate your interest to the interviewer. Do not be discouraged if no immediate commitment is made, as the interviewer may need to interview more candidates before making a decision, or may be testing your reaction.
>	Send a Thank You letter immediately after every job interview, to indicate your interest and commitment to the position.

Important Days in Our History

2012-04-04T08:42:00.002-07:00

Important Days in Our History

Important Days

January 9 NRI Day
January 10 World Laughter Day
January 12 National Youth Day
January 15 Army Day
January 26 India's Republic Day, International Customs Day
January 30 Martyrs' Day; World Leprosy Eradication Day

2nd Sunday of February World Marriage Day
February 24 Central Excise Day
February 28 National Science Day
Second Monday March Commonwealth Day
March 8 International Women's Day; Intl. literacy Day
March 15 World Disabled Day; World Consumer Rights Day
March 18 Ordnance Factories Day (India)
March 21 World Forestry Day; International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination
March 22 World Day for Water
March 23 World Meteorological Day
March 24 World TB Day
April 5 International Day for Mine Awareness; National Maritime Day
April 7 World Health Day
April 17 World Haemophilia Day
April 18 World Heritage Day
April 21 Secretaries' Day
April 22 Earth Day
April 23 World Book and Copyright Day
May 1 Workers' Day (International Labour Day)
May 3 Press Freedom Day; World Asthma Day
May 2nd Sunday Mother's Day
May 4 Coal Miners' Day
May 8 World Red Cross Day
May 9 World Thalassaemia Day
May 11 National Technology Day
May 12 World Hypertension Day; International Nurses Day
May 15 International Day of the Family
May 17 World Telecommunication Day
May 24 Commonwealth Day
May 31 Anti-tobacco Day
June 4 International Day of Innocent Children Victims of Aggression
June 5 World Environment Day
June 3rd Sunday Father's Day
June 14 World Blood Donor Day
June 26 International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking
July 1 Doctor's Day
July 6 World Zoonoses Day
July 11 World Population Day
August 3 Internatioal Friendship Day
August 6 Hiroshima Day
August 8 World Senior Citizen's Day
August 9 Quit India Day, Nagasaki Day
August 15 Indian Independence Day
August 18 IntI. Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples
August 19 Photography Day
August 29 National Sports Day
September 2 Coconut Day
September 5 Teachers' Day; Sanskrit Day
September 8 World Literacy Day (UNESCO)
September 15 Engineers' Day
September 16 World Ozone Day
September 21 Alzheimer's Day; Day for Peace & Non-violence (UN)
September 22 Rose Day (Welfare of cancer patients)
September 26 Day of the Deaf
September 27 World Tourism Day
October 1 International Day for the Elderly
October 2 Gandhi Jayanthi
October 3 World Habitat Day
October 4 World Animal Welfare Day
October 8 Indian Air Force Day
October 9 World Post Office Day
October 10 National Post Day
October 2nd Thursday World Sight Day
October 13 UN International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction
October 14 World Standards Day
October 15 World White Cane Day (guiding the blind)
October 16 World Food Day
October 24 UN Day; World Development Information Day
October 30 World Thrift Day
November 9 Legal Services Day
November 14 Children's Day; Diabetes Day
November 17 National Epilepsy Day
November 20 Africa Industrialisation Day
November 29 International Day of Solidarity with Palestinian People
December 1 World AIDS Day
December 3 World Day of the Handicapped
December 4 Indian Navy Day
December 7 Indian Armed Forces Flag Day
December 10 Human Rights Day; IntI. Children's Day of Broadcasting
December 18 Minorities Rights Day (India)
December 23 Kisan Divas (Farmer's Day) (India)

Sports Terms & Measurements

2012-04-04T08:40:00.003-07:00

Sports Terms & Measurements

Sports Terms

Atheletics–Relay, Photofinish, Track, Lane, Hurdles, Shotput, Discuss Throw, Hammar Throw, Triple Jump, High Jump, Cross Country, etc.

Badminton–Shuttle cock, Service court, Fore hand, Back Hand, Smash, Hit, Drop, Net, Love, Double fault, etc.

Baseball–Pinching, Home run, Base runner, Throw, Perfect game, Strike, Put out, etc.

Basketball–Free throw, Technical foul, Common foul, Under head, Over head, etc.

Bridge–Master point, Perfect deals, Gland slam, Dummy, Trump, etc.

Billiards & Snooker–Pull, Cue, Hit, Object ball, Break shot, Scoring, Cushion billiards, etc.

Boxing–Knock. out, Round, Ring Stoppage, Punch, Upper-cut, Kidney punch, Timing, Foot work, etc.

Chess–E. L. O. rating, international master, Grand master, Gambit, Kings Indian Defence,
etc.

Cycling–Sprint, Time trial, Point race, Trackrace, etc.

Cricket–Toss, Run, Wicket, Pitch, Stump, Bails, Crease, Pavalion, Gloves, Wicket Keeper,
Over, Maiden over, Followon, Rubber, Ashes, Catch, Bowled, Stump out, Run out, L. B. W; Hit Wicket, Not out, No ball, Wide ball, Dead ball, Over Throw, Bye, Leg by, Cover drive, Late cut, Hook, Glance, Stroke, Spot, Pull, Sixer, Followthrough, Turn, Googley, Spin, Yorker, Bouncer, Hat trick, Round the wicket, Over the wicket, Seamer, Boundry line, Slip,
Square leg, Runner. Cover, Gully, Long on, Silly point, Midwicket, Mid on, Forward short leg, Deep/mid-wicket, etc.

Horseriding–Three day Event, Show jumping, Presses, Faults, etc.

Football–Goal, Kick, Head, Penalty kick, Dribble, Off side, Hat trick, Foul, Left out, Right out, Stopper, Defender, Move, Sideback, Pass, Baseline, Rebound, Comer bick, etc.

Gymnastics–Parellel bar, Horizontal bar, Floor exercise, Uneven bar, Push up, Sit up. etc.

Judo–Cocoa, Blue, white, Green belt, etc.

Hockey–Bully Sudden death, Short corner, Hat trick, Goal, Penalty Corner, Penalty stroke,
Pushin, Cut, Dribble, Scoop, Centre forward, Half back, Astroturf, Left in, Left out, Off-side, Tie breaker, Carried, Stick, Striking circle, Under cutting, etc.

Swimming–Freestyle, Breast stroke, Back stroke, Butterfly, Lane, Pool, Crawl, etc.

Polo–Polo-Bunker, Chukker, Mallet, etc.

Tennis–Service, Grandslam, Advantage, Deuce, Game Point, Breakpoint; Smash, Shot, Grass Court. Break, Drop shot, Netplay, Baseline, etc.

Shooting–Rapidfire Pistol, Standard rifle, Air rifle, Free pistol, Range, Bull's eye, etc.

Table Tennis–Volley, Late service, Half volley, Back hand, Drive spin, Chop, etc.

Weight Lifting–Snatch, Jerk, etc.

Volleyball–Deuce, Spikers, Booster, Smash, Sidearm, Panetration, etc.

Wrestling–Free style, Hal Nelson, Point, Heave, etc.

Standard Measurements in Sports

BASEBALL

Home plate to pitcher's box 60 feet 6 inches.
Plate to second base 127 feet 3 3/8 inches.
Distance from base to base (home plate included) 90 feet.
Size of bases 15 inches by 15 inches.
Pitcher's plate 24 inches by 6 inches.
Batter's box 4 feet by 6 feet.
Home plate Five-sided, 17 inches by 8 1/2 inches by 8 1/2 inches by 12 inches by 12 inches, cut to a point at rear.
Home plate to backstop Not less than 60 feet (recommended).
Weight of ball Not less than 5 ounces nor more than 5 1/4 ounces.
Circumference of ball Not less than 9 inches nor more than 9 1/4 inches.
Bat Must be one piece of solid wood, round, not over 2 3/4 inches in diameter at thickest part, nor more than 42 inches in length.

BASKETBALL

(National Collegiate A.A. Men's Rules)
Playing court College: 94 feet long by 50 feet wide (ideal dimensions). High School: 84 feet long by 50 feet wide (ideal dimensions).
Baskets Rings 18 inches in inside diameter, with white cord 12-mesh nets, 15 to 18 inches in length. Each ring is made of metal, is not more than 5/8 of an inch in diameter, and is bright orange in color.
Height of basket 10 feet (upper edge).
Weight of ball Not less than 20 ounces nor more than 22.
Circumference of ball Not greater than 30 inches and not less than 29 1/2.
Free-throw line 15 feet from the face of the backboard, 2 inches wide.
Three-point field goal line 19 feet, 9 inches from the center of the basket. In the National Basketball Association, the distance is 22 feet.

SOCCER

Playing field Minimum 100 yards long by 50 yards wide; maximum: 130 yards long by 100 yards wide. International matches: Minimum 110 yards long by 70 yards wide; Maximum: 120 yards long by 80 yards wide. Longer boundary lines are called touchlines or sidelines, and shorter boundary lines are called goal lines.
Goal area Two lines drawn at right angles to a goal line, 6 yards from the inside of each goalpost. Lines extend into playing field for 6 yards, and are joined by a line drawn parallel with the goal line.
Goals Distance between posts is 8 yards. Distance from crossbar to the ground is 8 feet. Width and depth of bars not to exceed 5 inches.
Weight of ball Not more than 16 ounces nor less than 14.
Circumference of ball Not greater than 28 inches nor less than 27.
Penalty area Two lines drawn at right angles to the goal line, 18 yards from the inside of each goalpost. Lines extend into playing field for 18 yards and are joined by a line drawn parallel with the goal line.
Center circle Radius of 10 yards. Center at midpoint of halfway line.
Flagposts Not less than 5 feet high, and not less than 1 yard outside the touchline.
Corner arc Quarter circle with a radius of 1 yard from each corner flagpost drawn inside playing field.

BOWLING

Lane dimensions Overall length 62 feet 10 3/16 inches, measuring from foul line to pit (not including tail plank), with ± 1/2 inch tolerance permitted. Foul line to center of No. 1 pinspot 60 feet, with ± 1/2 inches with a tolerance of ± 1/2 inch permitted. Approach, not less than 15 feet. Gutters, 9 5/16 inches wide with plus 3/16 inch or minus 5/16 inch tolerances permitted.
Ball Circumference, not more than 27.002 inches. Weight, 16 pounds maximum.

BOXING

Ring Professional matches take place in an area not less than 18 nor more than 24 feet square including apron. It is enclosed by four covered ropes, each not less than one inch in diameter. The floor has a 2-inch padding of Ensolite (or equivalent) underneath ring cover that extends at least 6 inches beyond the roped area in the case of elevated rings. For USA Boxing or Olympic-style boxing, not less than 16 nor more than 20 feet square within the ropes. The floor must extend beyond the ring ropes not less than 2 feet. The ring posts shall be connected to the four ring ropes with the extension not shorter than 18 inches and must be properly padded.
Gloves In professional fights, not less than 8-ounce gloves generally are used. USA Boxing, 10 ounces for boxers 106 pounds through 156 pounds; 12-ounce for boxers 165 pounds through 201+ pounds; for international competition, 8 ounces for lighter classes, 10 ounces for heavier divisions.
Headguards Mandatory in Olympic-style boxing.

FOOTBALL

Length of field 120 yards (including 10 yards of end zone at each end).
Width of field 53 1/3 yards (160 feet).
Height of goal posts At least 30 feet.
Height of crossbar 10 feet.
Width of goal posts
(above crossbar) 18 feet 6 inches, inside to inside.
Length of ball 10 7/8 to 11 7/16 inches (long axis).
Circumference of ball 20 3/4 to 21 1/4 inches (middle); 27 3/4 to 28 1/2 inches (long axis).

GOLF

Specifications of ball Broadened to require that the ball be designed to perform as if it were spherically symmetrical. The weight of the ball shall not be greater than 1.620 ounces avoirdupois, and the size shall not be less than 1.680 inches in diameter.
Velocity of ball Not greater than 250 feet per second when tested on USGA apparatus, with 2 percent tolerance.
Hole 4 1/4 inches in diameter and at least 4 inches deep.
Clubs 14 is the maximum number permitted.
Overall distance standard A brand of ball shall not exceed a distance of 280 yards plus 6% when tested on USGA apparatus under specified conditions, on an outdoor range at USGA Headquarters.

HOCKEY

Size of rink 200 feet long by 85 feet wide surrounded by a wooden wall not less than 40 inches and not more than 48 inches above level of ice.
Size of goal 6 feet wide by 4 feet in height.
Puck 1 inch thick and 3 inches in diameter, made of vulcanized rubber; weight 5 1/2 to 6 ounces.
Length of stick Not more than 60 inches from heel to end of shaft nor more than 12 1/2 inches from heel to end of blade. Blade should not be more than 3 inches in width but not less than 2 inches—except goal keeper's stick, which shall not exceed 3 1/2 inches in width except at the heel, where it must not exceed 4 1/2 inches, nor shall the goalkeeper's stick exceed 15 1/2 inches from the heel to the end of the blade.

TENNIS

Size of court 120 feet long by 60 feet wide, with rectangle marked off at 78 feet long by 27 feet wide (singles) and 78 feet long by 36 feet wide (doubles).
Height of net 3 feet in center, gradually rising to reach 3-foot 6-inch posts at a point 3 feet outside each side of court.
Ball Shall be more than 2 1/2 inches and less than 2 5/8 inches in diameter and weigh more than 2 ounces and less than 2 1/6 ounces.
Service line 21 feet from net.

Reasoning

2012-04-04T08:37:00.000-07:00

Reasoning : Solved Paper (Bank Exam)

1. In a certain code SOUTHERN is written as UVPTMQDG. How is MARIGOLD written in that code?
(A) JSBCNFKS
(B) JSBNHPME
(C) JSBNCKNF
(D) NBSKCJNF
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Volcano
(C) Storm
(D) Hurricane
(E) Cyclone
Ans : (B)

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EVAPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)

4. How many meaningful four letter English words can be formed with the letters ITED using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 5–6) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 kms. towards North. It takes a right turn and runs 15 kms. It now runs 6 kms. after taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 kms. and stops at point Q.

5. How far is point Q with respect to point P ?
(A) 16 km
(B) 25 km
(C) 4 km
(D) 0 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it stopped at point Q ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
(E) North-West
Ans : (D)

7. If each of the consonants of the word PURCHASED is substituted by the letter preceding it and each vowel is substituted by the letter following it, which of the following letters would have the same letter on either sides ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) F
(D) Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. If all the letters in the word NEIGHBOURS are rearranged as they appear in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

9. Asha ranks 16th from the top and 15th from the bottom in an examination. How many students are there in the class ?
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 32
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. Five students participated in an examination and each scored different marks. Nidhi scored higher than Mamta. Kavita scored lower than Prashant but higher than Nidhi. Anil’s score was between Mamta and Nidhi. Which of the following pairs represents the highest and the lowest scorers respectively ?
(A) Nidhi, Kavita
(B) Kavita, Mamta
(C) Anil, Kavita
(D) Prashant, Mamta
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digit/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given
below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :E R J L N A Q D P U B F I K T H
Digit/Symbol :
* 2 © 9 6 # 5 1 % $ £ 4 @ 7 3 8
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is followed by a vowel and the last letter is preceded by a consonant, the last letter is to be coded as the code for vowel following the first letter.
(ii) If there are no vowels in the group of letters the codes for the fifth letter from the right and the fifth letter from the left are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the group of letters contains more than one vowel, the codes for both the vowels are to be interchanged.

11. PNEBJI
(A) %6@£©*
(B) %6*@£©
(C) %6*£©@
(D) @%£©6*
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. FABLNK
(A) #4£96#
(B) £4#96#
(C) 4#£96#
(D) 49#6#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. LPKNJB
(A) 9%£67©
(B) 9©76%£
(C) 9%76©£
(D) 96©7%£
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. DTQKNH
(A) 135768
(B) 137568
(C) 138765
(D) 165783
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

15. TNAPUB
(A) 36%$#£
(B) 36#%$£
(C) 63#%$£
(D) 36$%#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16-20) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements :
Some jeeps are trains.
All trains are buses.
Some boats are jeeps.
Some scooters are buses.
Conclusions :I. Some scooters are trains.
II. Some bots are buses.
III. Some jeeps are scooters.
IV. All buses are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Statements :
All teachers are engineers.
All engineers are cooks.
Some cooks are merchants.
All merchants are poets.
Conclusions :
I. Some cooks are teachers.
II. Some merchants are engineers.
III. All cooks are engineers.
IV. Some cooks are poets.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
Some hammers are nails.
All nails are screws.
All screws are nuts.
Conclusions :I. All nuts are screws.
II. Some nuts are tools.
III. Some hammers are screws.
IV. All nuts are nails.
(A) All follow
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. Statements :All pens are bags.
All bags are glasses.
No glass is a spoon.
All spoons are books.
Conclusions :I. Some glasses are pens.
II. Some books are bags.
III. No spoon is a pen.
IV. No bag is a book.
(A) Only II and III follow
(B) Only I, III and either II or IV follow
(C) Either II or IV follows
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. Statements :
All petals are flowers.
All thorns are flowers.
Some leaves are thorns.
Some stems are flowers.
Conclusions :
I. Some petals are leaves.
II. All leaves are flowers.
III. Some stems are petals.
IV. No petal is a leaf.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and either I or IV follow
(D) Only either I or IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow—
129 642 921 476 308

21. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the second digit of the lowest number is added to third digit of the highest number after adding 4 to each number ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. If the digits in each of the five numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers will not change ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (C)

23. Based upon the given set of numbers, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 647
(B) 264
(C) 912
(D) 192
(E) 380
Ans : (E)

24. If in each number, the digits are arranged in ascending order, what will be sum of middle digits of each of the numbers ?
(A) 14
(B) 12
(C) 26
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which will be the second lowest number ?
(A) 129
(B) 642
(C) 921
(D) 476
(E) 308
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26-30) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arranement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
@ B D S 3 W A * V 6 9 Q J % H 8 U N I 2 T 4 # 7 5 $ K

26. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based upon their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) BD3
(B) %HU
(C) *V9
(D) T45
(E) S3A
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the 17th from the right and 19th from the left end ?
(A) %
(B) H
(C) J
(D) #
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
* 6 Q 9 J H % 8 N U I T ?
(A) N
(B) 4
(C) #
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. How many consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31-35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. F sits to the immediate right of D and third to the left of A. G sits third to the left of D who does not sit next to E. B sits next to G but not next to D. C does not sit next to either D or A.

31. Who sits to the immediate left of a ?
(A) E
(B) F
(C) G
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. What is the position of H with respect to C ?
(A) Second to the left
(B) First to the right
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the right
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following pairs sits between G and D ?
(A) AC
(B) CF
(C) HB
(D) FA
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of which of the following (excluding A) would not change ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Four of the following are alike based upon their seating arrangement around the circle, which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) FH
(B) GE
(C) CD
(D) BG
(E) EF
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 36-40) Read the following information carefully and answers the questions which follow—
‘A × B’ means ‘A is brother of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.
‘A + B’ means ‘A is son of B’.

36. How is T related to P in the expression ‘P + Q – R ÷ T’ ?
(A) Maternal grandmother
(B) Maternal grandfather
(C) Paternal grandmother
(D) Grandson
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following means ‘P is sister of S’ ?
(A) P + Q ÷ R – S
(B) P + Q ÷ R ×S
(C) P × Q – R + S
(D) P ÷ Q + R × S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. How is P related to S in the expression ‘S ×R + Q ÷ P’ ?
(A) Father
(B) Grandson
(C) Son
(D) Grandfather
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. How is R related to P in the expression ‘P + Q ×R – T’ ?
(A) Niece
(B) Paternal Uncle
(C) Paternal Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. How is S related to P in the expression ‘P – Q ÷ R ×S’ ?
(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41-45) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answers—
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If either argument I or II is strong.
(D) If neither argument I nor II is strong.
(E) If both arguments I and II are strong.

41. Statement : Should the number of holidays given to Govt. employees be reduced to only five in a year ?
Arguments :I. Yes, such holidays subsequently reduce working hours, thus adversely affecting the economy of nation.
II. No, employees require intermittent rest from hectic work schedule.
Ans : (B)

42. Statement : Should all correspondence courses at graduate level be stopped ?
Arguments :
I. No, correspondence courses help needy students to persue studies and earn at the same time.
II. Yes, quality education is not possible without teachers and classrooms.
Ans : (E)

43. Statement : Should only nuclear power be used to generate electricity ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help reduce air pollution to a great extent.
II. No, Radioactive material used in nuclear plants is unsafe for large scale use.
Ans : (B)

44. Statement : Should the Govt. remove all the slums in major cities ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, slums are a nuisance to the people living in big cities.
II. No inhabitants of slums are also citizens of the country and they contribute towards the growth of the nation.
Ans : (D)

45. Statement : Should cricket replace hockey as the national sport of India.
Arguments :I. Yes, the performance of hockey team has been dismal since last few years.
II. No, cricket is the national sport of Australia and no two countries must have the same national sport.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46-50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers—

(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

46. On which month of the year was Divya born ?
I. Her mother correctly remembers that Divya was born after June and before September.
II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after March and before August.
Ans : (E)

47. What is the code for ‘those’ if in a certain language ‘those lovely red roses’ is written as ‘pe so la ti’ ?
I. ‘ni jo ke pe’ means ‘stopped at red light’.
II. ‘ba di ti ga’ means ‘roses are very pretty and ‘fo hi la’ means ‘lovely day outside’.
Ans : (E)

48. What is Sumit’s rank from the top in a class of 50 students ?
I. Ajay is 6 ranks below Sumit and is twenty-ninth from the bottom.
II. Ashu is 4 ranks above Sumit and is thirty-fifth from the bottom.
Ans : (C)

49. How many sisters does Mala have ?
I. The only brother of Mala’s father has only one niece.
II. The son of the husband of Mala’s mother has two siblings.
Ans : (D)

50. Who among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A if all the four are sitting in a straight line facing North ?
I. A does not sit next to D who does not sit next on the extreme right.
II. None sit to the left of A and on the right of B, while only one person sits between C and B.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes – A, B and C. There are three girls among the seven students who study in each of the three institutes. Two of the seven students study BCA, two study medicine and one each studies Aviation Technology, Journalism and MBA. R studies in the same college as P who studies MBA in college B. No girl studies journalism or MBA. T studies BCA in college A and his brother W studies Aviation Technology in college C. S studies journalism in the same college as Q. Neither R nor Z study BCA. The girl who studies BCA does not study in college C.

51. Which of the following pairs of students study medicine ?
(A) QZ
(B) WZ
(C) PZ
(D) SZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

52. In which college does Q study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

53. In which of the colleges do three of them study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) A and B
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

54. What is the field of study of Z ?
(A) Aviation Technology
(B) BCA
(C) MBA
(D) Medicines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

55. Which of the following three represents girls ?
(A) SQR
(B) QRZ
(C) SQZ
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

For a recruitment process in an organization, the candidates need to possess the following qualifications/criteria.
(i) A graduate in science with atleast 60% marks.
(ii) An age of atleast 25 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.7.2008.
(iii) Have a post-qualification work experience of atleast 2 years.
(iv) Should have secured 55% marks in the selection process.

However, if the candidates fulfills above mentioned criteria except—
(a) At (i) if the candidate is not a graduate in Science but has a post graduation degree with minimum of 60% marks, he/she should be referred to the HRManager of the organization.
(b) At (iii) if the candidate fulfils all the eligibility criteria but of postqualification work experience but has secured 75% marks in the selection process, he/she may be referred to the Director of the organization.

Based on the above information study carefully whether following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All the cases are given to you as on 1.7.2008.
Mark answers—

(A) If the candidate is to be selected.
(B) If the candidates is not to be selected.
(C) If the candidate may be referred to the HR-Manager.
(D) If the candidate may be referred to the Director.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take the decision.

56. Shruti Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a top organization. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process. Born on 5.10.1981, she had completed her Bachelor’s degree in Physics in 2004 and secured 66% marks in it.
Ans : (A)

57. Pradeep Kumar has 6 years of post qualification work experience. His date of birth is 12.4.1972. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process. He has completed graduation in Science and scored 76% in it.
Ans : (A)

58. Zaheer Ahmed has completed graduation and post graduate in Economics from Bhopal in 1999 and has secureds 51% and 68% marks respectively. His date of birth is 26.11.1976. He has been working as an executive in a reputed firm since 2003 till date. He has secured 56% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)

59. Harpreet Kaur has done graduation in Physics and is a post graduate in Science and has secured 57% and 65% marks respectively. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process, and has a post qualification work experience of 3 years.
Ans : (E)

60. Deepak Agarwal has completed graduation and post graduation in Geography with 68% and has secured 57% marks in the selection process. His date of birth is 11.11.1979.
Ans : (E)

61. Varun Arora has secured 79% marks in the selection process. He has completed his degree in B.Sc securing 67% marks in it. His date of birth is 9.3.1975, and has a post qualification work experience of one year.
Ans : (D)

62. Varsha Nath’s date of birth is 6.2.1979. She has done her graduation and post-graduation in Commerce and secured 59% and 62% marks respectively. She has a post qualification work experience as a senior executive of 3 years and has secured 59% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)

63. Asha Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a reputed firm. She has done graduation in Botany scoring 71% marks in it. Born on 22.1.1973, she has secured 53% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)

64. Nitesh Burman has done Grduation in Chemistry and has secured 69% in it. His date of birth is 9.12.1981. He has ranked first in the selection process and has secured 82% marks in it. He has four months of post qualification work experience.
Ans : (D)

65. Tanya Shetty has been working in a leading organization since the completion of post graduation in 1990. She was born on 1.5.1968. She is a graduate and a post graduate in Science and has secured more than 60% at both graduate as well as post graduate level. She has secured 71% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)

66. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ODME using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

67. How many such digits are there in the number 84315269 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one tthat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 35
(C) 15
(D) 21
(E) 27
Ans : (A)

69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Earth
(D) Uranus
(E) Moon
Ans : (E)

70. If only each of the consonants in the word GROUNDS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end ?
(A) O
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

71. What should come next in the following letter series ?
A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I
(A) J
(B) K
(C) A
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

72. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFORM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

73. In a certain code BOARD is written as ‘53798’ and TRAIN is written as ‘29714’. How is BAIT written in that code ?
(A) 5714
(B) 5412
(C) 5712
(D) 5912
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

74. ‘BE’ is related to ‘FI’ and ‘LO’ is related to ‘PS’ in the same way as ‘RU’ is related to ……….
(A) VY
(B) WZ
(C) VZ
(D) VX
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

75. Mohan walked 20 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 10 metres, then he took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again he took a right turn and walked 10 metres. How far is he now from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metres
(B) 30 metres
(C) 40 metres
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

How to Pass an Interview

2012-04-04T08:32:00.000-07:00

How to Pass an Interview - 10 Tips

Even the smartest and most qualified job seekers need to prepare for job interviews. Why, you ask? Interviewing is a learned skill, and there are no second chances to make a great first impression. So study these 10 strategies to enhance your interview IQ

Practice Good Nonverbal Communication
It's about demonstrating confidence: standing straight, making eye contact and connecting with a good, firm handshake. That first impression can be a great beginning -- or quick ending -- to your interview.

Dress for the Job or Company
Today's casual dress codes do not give you permission to dress as "they" do when you interview. It is important to look professional and well-groomed. Whether you wear a suit or something less formal depends on the company culture and the position you are seeking. If possible, call to find out about the company dress code before the interview.

Listen
From the very beginning of the interview, your interviewer is giving you information, either directly or indirectly. If you are not hearing it, you are missing a major opportunity. Good communication skills include listening and letting the person know you heard what was said. Observe your interviewer, and match that style and pace.

Don't Talk Too Much
Telling the interviewer more than he needs to know could be a fatal mistake. When you have not prepared ahead of time, you may tend to ramble, sometimes talking yourself right out of the job. Prepare for the interview by reading through the job posting, matching your skills with the position's requirements and relating only that information.

Don't Be Too FamiliarThe interview is a professional meeting to talk business. This is not about making a new friend. Your level of familiarity should mimic the interviewer's demeanor. It is important to bring energy and enthusiasm to the interview and to ask questions, but do not overstep your place as a candidate looking for a job.

Use Appropriate Language
It's a given that you should use professional language during the interview. Be aware of any inappropriate slang words or references to age, race, religion, politics or sexual orientation -- these topics could send you out the door very quickly.

Don't Be CockyAttitude plays a key role in your interview success. There is a fine balance between confidence, professionalism and modesty. Even if you're putting on a performance to demonstrate your ability, overconfidence is as bad, if not worse, as being too reserved.

Take Care to Answer the Questions
When an interviewer asks for an example of a time when you did something, he is seeking a sample of your past behavior. If you fail to relate a specific example, you not only don't answer the question, but you also miss an opportunity to prove your ability and talk about your skills.

Ask Questions
When asked if they have any questions, most candidates answer, "No." Wrong answer. It is extremely important to ask questions to demonstrate an interest in what goes on in the company. Asking questions also gives you the opportunity to find out if this is the right place for you. The best questions come from listening to what is asked during the interview and asking for additional information.

Don't Appear Desperate
When you interview with the "please, please hire me" approach, you appear desperate and less confident. Maintain the three C's during the interview: cool, calm and confident. You know you can do the job; make sure the interviewer believes you can, too.

Bank P.O. Computers Objective Questions

2012-04-04T08:28:00.002-07:00

Bank P.O. Exam

1. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called—
(1) Metasearch engines
(2) Webcrawlers
(3) Spiders
(4) Hits
(5) None of these

2. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system include—
(1) use-case, class, and state diagrams
(2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams
(3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams
(4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams
(5) None of these

3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the—
(1) database is structured
(2) database is well-designed
(3) database has no data
(4) database is relatively small
(5) database is relatively large

4. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hardware?
(1) Bootstrap memory
(2) Volatile memory
(3) Exteranl mass memory
(4) Static memory
(5) Random access memory

5. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP
(4) PING
(5) PONG

6. What is Internet 2?
(1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
(3) A new standard for Internet browsers
(4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology
(5) None of these

7. The term, "hypertext", means—
(1) Non-sequential writing
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these

8. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
(1) Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy.
(2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information.
(3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there.
(4) Use the wayback machine.
(5) None of these

9. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher
(2) Warded
(3) Device
(4) Tumbler
(5) Typelock

10. A……………..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(1) system virus
(2) trojan horse virus
(3) file virus
(4) macro virus
(5) None of these

11. Carbon credit is meant for—
(1) Deforestation
(2) Protection of environment
(3) Rural infrastructure
(4) Diamond trading
(5) Precision farming

12. Acetic acid is present in—
(1) Vinegar
(2) Curd
(3) Lime
(4) Fish
(5) Rancid butter

13. Deep litter and cage systems are associated with—
(1) Dairy development
(2) Pig farming
(3) Poultry growing
(4) Quali farming
(5) Sheep rearing

14. When milk is churned, the cream is separated due to—
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Centrifugal force
(3) Frictional force
(4) Electro magnetic effect
(5) None of the above

15. Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peace—
(1) Dr Norman E. Borlaug
(2) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Dr Hargovind Khorana
(4) Dr Chandrasekhar
(5) Dr Watson

16. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged under—
(1) WTO
(2) Food Bill
(3) AEZ
(4) Essential commodities Act
(5) Warehouse Bill

17. Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd is—
(1) Oxidation
(2) Dehydration
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Fermentation
(5) Hydration

18. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations of—
(1) Committee on Financial Inclusion
(2) Vaidyanathan Committee
(3) Forward Market Commission
(4) Working Group on Agriculture
(5) National Commission on Farmers

19. The Head Quarters of CFTRI—the leading institute for research on various food products is located at—
(1) Mysore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Gurgaon
(5) Jammu

20. Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storages—
(1) Neon
(2) Freon
(3) Crypton
(4) Argon
(5) Ice

21. Who among the following is the author of the novel ‘Two Lives’?
(1) Salman Rushdie
(2) Vikram Seth
(3) Arundhati Roy
(4) Ruskin Bond
(5) Dhruv Sawhney

22. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(1) Vijay Shankar
(2) T.N. Seshan
(3) Wajahat Habibullah
(4) Mathew Varghese
(5) M.H. Baig

23. On which of the following dates is World AIDS Day observed?
(1) December 9
(2) December 1
(3) November 30
(4) October 24
(5) December 30

24. Which of the following is India’s first indigenous animation film?
(1) Hanuman
(2) Ramayana
(3) Harry Potter
(4) Mughal-e-Azam
(5) Ram Sita

25. Who among the following has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashimir?
(1) Mufti Mohammed Sayeed
(2) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(3) Omar Abdullah
(4) M.H. Baig
(5) T. N. Seshan

ANSWERS:
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (5) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

Current Affairs Quiz February 2012

2012-03-31T07:51:00.000-07:00

Current Affairs Quiz February 2012

The World’s Youngest MCP and CCNA, who has exceptionally highest IQ in the world ?
Vishalini 11 year old Indian girl Vishalini, Born in Thirunelveli, a small city of Tamil Nadu.
What value of overseas inflow was injected into Indian markets in January 2012?Rs.26,000 crore (US$5.08 billion)
Which guidelines have SEBI notified allowing companies to reduce promoter shareholding through private placement?Institutional Placement Programme (IPP)
Expand SAR.Specific Absorption Rate
Who was awarded ‘Pride of India’ award by the Indian-American community in Washington?
Mallikarjun Kharge
Who is World’s shortest man ?72-year-old Chandra Bahadur Dangi of Nepal
Which bollywood actor was honoured with a Green Globe award for outstanding effort to fight climate change?Abhishek Bachchan
Name the singer who has been appointed as anti-tobacco campaign ambassador.Playback Singer Shann
What award was conferred to Amul company in the manufacturing category recently?Green Globe Foundation award
Who will be the only Indian driver in the Formula One for 2012 season after signing to continue with Hispania Racing (HRT)?Narain Karthikeyan
In which country have UN declared end of famine?Somalia
Which social networking site turned 8 recently?Facebook
Which 3-day youth festival is back after a gap of 7 years in Jaipur?Ghoomar
In which currency is India set to pay for 45% of Iran oil imports?Rupee
India-born biologist who bags world’s 1st major international award Gunnerus Sustainability Award from the Royal Norwegian Society of Sciences and Letters (DKNVS)?Kamal Bawa
What sum of amount is National Housing Bank set to receive from World Bank which would help in its refinancing programme?$300 million(Rs.1,500 crore)
Name the newly elected President of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)?R.V.Kanoria
Name the electronics retailer bought by Flipkart for $25 million.Letsbuy
Name the site launched by an Italian computer science professor who hopes it will be a challenge to the US technology giant Google.Volunia (www.volunia.com)
Which bank is set to launch India’s first Infrastructure Debt Fund (IDF)?IDBI bank
Why zebras have black and white stripes (recently solved mystery)?To keep blood-sucking files away
Which economist is named for US Humanities medal?Amartya Sen
Who won the women’s doubles event at the Pattaya Open 2012?Sania Mirza and Anastasia Rodionova
Who was honoured with a posthumous Grammy award for his contributions to the music industry in area other than performance?Steve Jobs
Name the renowned Urdu poet who passed away after battling lung cancer recently.Akhlaq Mohammad Khan 'Shahryar'
Which country has been ranked as the world’s richest country in the list compiled by US magazine Forbes?Qatar
Which country did India beat to qualify for London Olympics men’s hockey 2012?France
Which west Asian country approved for new constitution recently?Syria
Which model of Nokia phone has been built with 41-megapixel sensor camera?Nokia 808 Pureview camera phone
Which company signed a long-term agreement to supply 250 MW power to Bangladesh Power Development Board?NTPC