Lakshya Geography

UGC NET Previous Years Questions Paper (Paper 1 + Paper 2) with Answer June 2005- 2018

2019-03-05T14:39:00.002+05:30

UGC NET
Paper 1 Question Paper

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Paper 2 Question Paper (Geography)

1. NTA UGC NET Dec 2018 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

2. CBSE UGC NET JULY 2018 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

3. CBSE UGC NET Nov 2017 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

4. CBSE UGC NET Nov 2017 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY

5. CBSE UGC NET JAN 2017 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

6. CBSE UGC NET JAN 2017 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY

7. CBSE UGC NET JULY 2016 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

8. CBSE UGC NET JULY PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY

Previous years questions of Geomorphology paper Part 1 (Total 60 Questions) for NTA UGC NET

2019-01-08T21:37:00.001+05:30

This is the 1st part of Previous years questions of Geomorphology paper (DEC 2018 to DEC 2015).

This part contains only 60 questions of geomorphology from past years papers which were asked.

Section/Paper: Geomorphology (Part 1)

NTA UGC NET DEC 2018 (P 2)

Q. 1 Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code given below

List I

(Name of Author)

(a) Steers

(b) Von Richthofen

(d) Thornbury

List II

(Name of Book)

(i) Geomorphology

(ii) The Unstable Earth

(iii) Principles of Geomorphology

(iv) Spirit and Purpose of Geography

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (C)-(i), (d)-(iv)

3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: 1

Q. 2. Conrad discontinuity is found between

1. Upper mantle and Lower mantle

2. Outer and Inner core

3. Sial and Sima

4. Sima and Nife

Answer: 3

Q. 3 The upper part of the mantle upon which the crust of the Earth floats is known as

1. Hydrosphere

2. Mesosphere

3. Asthenosphere

4. Barysphere

Answer:3

Q. 4 Which one of the following groups of topographical features is the product of erosional process?

1. Moraine, Barchan, Pinnacle, Wave-built platform

2. Cirque, Arete, Playa, Stack

3. Eskers, Fiords, V-shaped valley, Seifs

4. Levees, Stalagmites, Monadnocks, Drumlins

Answer: 2

Q. 5 Which of the following groups of scholars stressed on the role of lateral erosion by streams in the formation of pediments?

1. Paige, Blackwelder, Johnson

2. Paige, Johnson, Lawson

3. McGee, Paige, Blackwelder

4. McGee, Blackwelder, Johnson

Answer: 1

Q.6 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R), Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below

Assertion (A): Plate margins and volcanic zones are closely related with each other.

Reason (R): Most of the volcanic zones are located along convergent plate boundaries.

Code:

1. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

2. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

4. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: 3

Q. 7 Which of the following features is formed due to tectonic forces ?

1. Hanging valley

2. Rift valley

3. Blind valley

4. U-shaped valley

Answer: 2

Q. 8 The Two Cycle Theory on the origin of limestone caverns was proposed by

1. Davis

2 Gardner

3. Malott

4. Swinerton

Answer: 1

CBSE UGC NET JULY 2018 (P-2)

Q.9. The concept of geosyncline was propounded by:

(1) Holmes

(2) James Hutton

(3) Hall and Dana

(4) J.W. Powell

Answer: 3

Q.10. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between the:

(1) Crust and mantle

(2) Mantle and core

(3) Upper Core and Lower Core

(4) Upper Mantle and Lower Mantle

Answer: 2

Q.11. The concept of panplan was propagated by:

(1) C.A. Cotton

(2) Von Ricthofen

(3) Crickmay

(4) Alfred Von Wegener

Answer: 3

Q. 12. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is termed as:

(1) Strike

(2) Dip

(3) Anticline

(4) Free face

Answer: 1

Q.13. Peternoster Lakes are:

(1) Lakes formed on glacialstair ways

(2) Lakes having volcanic origin

(3) Lakes formed by a shallow stretch of water caused by sea erosion

(4) Cresent shaped lakes formed due to cut-off of a river meander

Answer-1

Q.14. “The present is the key to the past.” This phase is related to the concept of:

(1) Isostasy

(2) Diastrophism

(3) Plate tectonics

(4) Uniformatarianism

Answer- 4

Q.15. Which one of the following types of plate boundaries and motions are exemplified by the San Andreas Faultr of California?

(1) Transform boundary with Sinistral motion

(2) Transform boundary with dextral motion

(3) Divergent boundary with sinistral motion

(4) Convergent boundary with dextral motion

Answer- 2

Q.16. In which of the following directions the Nazca Plate is moving?

(1) East

(2) West

(3) South

(4) North

Answer- 1

Q.17. Which one of the following sequences is the correct one in a littoral zone from land to sea?

(1) Backshore, Foreshore, Nearshore, Offshore

(2) Foreshore, Backshore, Nearshore, Offshore

(3) Offshore, Nearshore, Foreshore, Backshore

(4) Nearshore, Offshore, Backshore, Foreshore

Answer- 1

Q.18. Which one of the following phenomena plays a vital role in the dispersion of majestic dinosaurs?

(1) Volcanic eruption

(2) Zonal faulting

(3) Global cooling

(4) Continental drift

Answer- 4

Q.19. The Hydraulic Slope Theory was propunded by:

(1) R.E. Horton

(2) Darwin

(3) Penck

(4) Mallot

Answer- 1

CBSE UGC NET NOV 2017 (P 2)

Q.20. 'Mohorovicic discontinuity' marks the boundary between:

(1) Crust and upper Mantle

(2) Core and the Mantle

(3) Continental shelf and Ocean crust

(4) Asthenosphere and lithosphere

Ans- 1

Q.21. The process in which one plate slides beneath another is known as:

(1) advection

(2) subduction

(3) convergence

(4) convection

Ans- 2

Q.22. San Andreas fault is a:

(1) transform fault

(2) converging fault

(3) spreading fault

(4) submergent fault

Ans- 1

Q.23. Which one of the following is a fluvial Glacial deposit?

(1) pediplain

(2) kame terrace

(3) floodplain

(4) loess plains

Ans- 2

CBSE UGC NET NOV 2017 (P 3)

Q.24. The concept of Pediplain is associated with:

(1) W. M. Davis

(2) L. C. King

(3) W. Penck

(4) C. A. Cotton

Answer: 2

Q.25. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is known as:

(1) Anticline

(2) Dip

(3) Syncline

(4) Strike

Answer: 4

Q.26. Who stated that the slope profiles are convex, plane or concave according to the circumstances of the uplifting action?

(1) Penck

(2) Davis

(3) Johnson

(4) Wood

Answer: 1

Q.27. The premise that the present day processes have been operating throughout geological time is the principle of:

(1) Isostasy

(2) Diastrophism

(3) Uniformitarianism

(4) Catastrophism

Answer: 3

Q.28. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Scholar)

(A) Hall and Dana

(B) Hutton

(D) Jeffrey

List-II

(Theory)

(i) Sea floor Spreading

(ii) Thermal Contraction Theory

(iii) Theory of Geosyncline

(iv) Doctrine of Uniformitarianism

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) i ii iv iii

(2) ii i iii iv

(3) iv ii i iii

(4) iii iv i ii

Answer- 4

Q.29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer. From the code given below:

Assertion (A): There is close relationship between volcanic activities and plate margins.

Reason (R): A vast majority of the world’ s volcanoes are associated with the convergent plate margins

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 1

Q.30. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Topography)

(A) Glacial

(B) Marine

(D) Aeolian

List-II

(Landforms)

(i) Alluvial fan

(ii) Yardangs

(iii) Arate

(iv) Tombolo

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1) ii i iii iv

2) iv ii i iii

3) iii iv ii i

4) iii iv i ii

Answer- 4

Q.31. Match List –I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Author)

(A) J. A. Steers

(B) S. W. Wooldridge

(D) Thornbury

List-II

(Book)

(i) Morphological Analysis of Landforms

(ii) Principles of Geomorphology

(iii) Unstable Earth

(iv) Spirit and Purpose of Geography

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: 4

Q.32. Match List –I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below

List-I

(Plate name)

(A) Indo-Australian Plan

(B) Cocos plate

(D) Nazca plate

List-II

(Direction of movement)

(i) East

(ii) West

(iii) North

(iv) North - West

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: 2

CBSE UGC NET JAN 2017 (P 2)

Q.33. Which one of the following mountains is formed due to convergence of one oceanic and one continental plate?

1. Ural

2. Alps

3. Andes

4. Appalachian

Answer: 3

Q.34. Which one of the following process is responsible for the weathering of rocks in a Karst region?

1. Hydrolysis

2. Carbonation

3. Oxidation

4. Scree formation

Answer: 2

Q.35. Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I

(River)

I. Nile

II. Mississippi

III. Ganga

IV. Tiber

List II

(Type of delta)

A. Estuarine

B. Arcuate

C. Birdfoot

D. Cuspate

Codes:

I II III IV

1. B D C A

2. D B A C

3. A D B C

4. B C A D

Answer: 4

Q.36. The term panplane refers to:

1. A level surface formed by wind erosion

2. A plain formed by joining of floodplains

3. A level surface formed by the fluvial cycle at the old stage.

4. A level plain formed by human intervention

Answer: 2

Q.37. The statement “The present is the key to the past” was made by:

1. Walter penck

2. W. M Davis

3. Huntington

4. James Hutton

Answer: 4

CBSE UGC NET JAN 2017 (P 3)

Q.38. Ria is an example of –

(1) Neutral shore

(2) Compound shore

(3) Emerged upland shore

(4) Submerged upland shore

Answer: 4

Q.39. The comprehensive theory of geosyncline was put forward by

(1) Hall and Dana

(2) E. Haug

(3) J. A. Steers

(4) J. W. Evans

Answer: 1

Q.40. Match List-I with List–II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

(Shape and Alignment of Dunes)

I. Longitudinal

II. Transverse

III. Parabolic

IV. Complex

List-II

(Specific names of Dunes)

A. Reversing

B. Coastal

C. Seif

D. Barchan

Codes:

I II III IV

1. C D B A

2. A B C D

3. B A D C

4. D C A B

Answer: 1

Q.41. Match List-I with List–II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

(Theories of Cavern formation)

I. Two cycle theory

II. Water table theory

III. Static water zone theory

IV. Invasion theory

List-II

(Scholars)

A. Swinnerton

B. Gardner

C. Malott

D. Davis

Codes:

I II III IV

1. C B A D

2. D A B C

3. B C A D

4. D B C A

Answer: 2

Q.42. Lateral planation theory of pediment formation was proposed by

(1) McGee

(2) Gilbert

(3) Lawson

(4) Davis

Answer: 2

Q.43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Hawaii Island is a region of volcanic activity.

Reason (R): Convergent plate margins are sites of volcanic eruptions.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 2

Q.44. Match List-I with List–II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

(Nature of the change)

I Desertification in the semi-arid area

II Gully development in a valley bottom

III Increasing coast erosion

IV. Greater river-flood intensity

List-II

(Possible anthropogenic causes)

A. Effect of groynes up the coast

B. Overgrazing

C. Runoff from a new road

D. Urbanisation

Codes:

I II III IV

1. B C D A

2. B C A D

3. C B A D

4. D C B A

Answer: 2

CBSE UGC NET JULY 2016 (P 2)

Q.45. Normal Cycle of Erosion is associated with

(1) Glacial Erosion

(2) Fluvial Erosion

(3) Marine Erosion

(4) Wind Erosion

Answer: 2

Q.46. The drainage pattern which is not controlled by the parent structure on which is flows in termed as

(1) Consequent

(2) Subsequent

(3) Insequent

(4) Resequent

Answer: 3

Q.47. Which one of the followings is not a glacio-fluvial depositional feature?

(1) Drumlin

(2) Esker

(3) Horn

(4) Kame

Answer: 3

Q.48. The unconsolidated rock material deposited by surface wash at the base of a cliff is called

(1) Alluvium

(2) Colluvium

(3) Moraines

(4) Silt

Answer: 2

Q.49. Which one of the following soils is commonly known as ‘self-mulching soil’?

(1) Grey soil

(2) Red soil

(3) Brown soil

(4) Black soil

Answer: 4

CBSE UGC NET JULY 2016 (P 3)

Q.50. Lateral planation theory of Pediment formation was proposed by

(1) Lawson

(2) Gilbert

(3) Mc Gee

(4) Davis

Answer- 2

Q.51. Most of the details of the World’s topography belongs to

(1) Paleozoic Era

(2) Mesozoic Era

(3) Cenozoic Era

(4) Protozoic Era

Answer- 3

Q.52. The concept of Base level of Erosion was proposed by

(1) Malolt

(2) Powell

(3) Davis

(4) Johnson

Answer- 2

Q.53. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) : The velocity of moving ice increases with steepness of slope of the area and thickness of glacial ice.

Reason (R) : The velocity decreases to the sides owing to lesser depth of ice and friction against the valley walls and the bottom floor.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer- 2

Q.54. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) : In the Pacific Islands Volcanic eruptions are effusive type.

Reason (R) : Less viscous lava erupts quietly.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer- 1

Q.55. Guttenberg discontinuity is found between the

(1) Mantle and Core

(2) Crust and Mantle

(3) Upper mantle and lower mantle

(4) Upper core and lower core

Answer- 1

Q.56. Which of the following groups of scholars stressed the role of lateral planation by stream in the formation of pediments?

(1) Paige, Black welder, Mc Gee

(2) Black welder, Johnson, Paige

(3) Mc Gee, Paige, Johnson

(4) Paige, Johnson, Lawson

Answer- 2

Q.57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below.

List – I

(Theory of Cavern formation)

I. Two Cycle Theory

II. Water Table Theory

III. Static Water Zone Theory

IV. Invasion Theory

List – II

(Scholars)

A. Davis

B. Gardner

C. Malot

D. Swinnerton

Codes:

I II III IV

(1) C B D A

(2) A D B C

(3) D B C A

(4) B C A D

Answer- 2

CBSE UGC NET DEC 2015 (P 2)

Q.58. Which one of the following is unrelated to the denudational action of mass movement?

(1) Basal sapping

(2) Exfoliation

(3) Landslide

(4) Mud flow

Answer: 2

Q.59. Which of the following features are unrelated with mountain glaciation? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

(a) Cirque

(b) Tarn

(d) Fiords

Codes:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) only

Answer: 4

Q.60. Match List –I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

(Book title)

(a) Morphology of the Earth

(b) Principles of Physical Geology

(d) Principles of Geomorphology

List-II

(Author)

(i) A. Holmes

(ii) Sparks

(iii) W.D Thornbury

(iv) L.C. King

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: 2

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Nov 2017 Paper 2 Geography UGC NET

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Nov 2017 P 2 Geography

This is the official Question Paper and Answer Key for the exam conducted on November 2017

Q: 1. ‘Mohorovicic discontinuity’ marks the boundary between:

(1) Continental Shelf and Ocean crust

(2) Asthenosphere and lithosphere

(3) Crust and the upper mantle

(4) Core and the mantle

Answer: 3

Q: 2. The process in which one plate slides beneath another is known as:

(1) Advection

(2) Subduction

(3) Convergence

(4) Convection

Answer: 2

Q: 3. San Andreas fault is a:

(1) Transform fault

(2) Converging fault

(3) Spreading fault

(4) Submergent fault

Answer: 1

Q: 4. Which one of the following is a fluvio-glacial deposit?

(1) Pediplain

(2) Kame terrace

(3) Floodplain

(4) Loess plains

Answer: 2

Q: 5. Who among the following scholars has given the subsidence theory relating to coral-reefs?

(1) Dally

(2) Davis

(3) Dutton

(4) Darwin

Answer: 4

Q: 6. Which one of the following ranges of percentage of increase of CO2 in the atmosphere since 1750 is correct?

(1) 5-10%

(2) 10-15%

(3) 15-30%

(4) More than 30%

Answer: 4

Q: 7. Give below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The shift of ITCZ is greater over sea than over land.

Reason (R): The land surface gets more heated than water bodies.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 4

Q. 8. The UVI (Ultra Violet Index) was developed in:

(1) 1950s

(2) 1990s

(3) 2000s

(4) 2010s

Answer: 2

Q: 9. Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Gasses)

(A) N2

(B) Ar

(D) CO2

List-II

(% of Gasses in Atmosphere)

(i) 0.934%

(ii) 0.039%

(iii) 78%

(iv) 21%

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answer: 3

Q: 10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The subpolar low of the southern Hemisphere is nearly continuous.

Reason (R): The land mass is less in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 1

Q: 11. Which one of the following regions is with high ocean water salinity?

(1) Equatorial

(2) Polar

(3) Subtropical

(4) Subpolar

Answer: 3

Q: 12. Which one of the following is responsible for the greatest movements of all the tides?

(1) Size of the Ocean

(2) Shape of the continents

(3) Gravitational attraction

(4) Salinity of the Ocean

Answer: 1

Q: 13. Which one of the following percentages of distance from earth surface is correct for ‘perigee’ of Moon than ‘apogee’?

(1) 2%

(2) 5%

(3) 8%

(4) 12%

Answer: 4

Q: 14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The western sides of oceans are always warmer than the eastern margins.

Reason (R): The movement of major ocean currents is in the western sides.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 1

Q: 15. Which one of the following terms is appropriate for the mixing zone of two biomes?

(1) Environment

(2) Ecology

(3) Ecosound

(4) Ecotones

Answer: 4

Q: 16. Who among the following defined Geography as human ecology?

(1) Hartshorne

(2) Schaefer

(3) Barrows

(4) Richthofen

Answer: 3

Q: 17. Who among the following defined geography as discovery of predictive patterns during quantitative revolution period?

(1) Haggett

(2) Bunge

(3) Harvey

(4) Chorley

Answer: 2

Q. 18 who among the following correlated color of ocean water and salinity?

(1) Al Masudi

(2) Al Maqdisi

(3) Ibn Khaldun

(4) Ibn -Sina

Answer: 1

Q. 19 Which pair does not match correctly?

(1) P. Haggett – Geography a modern synthesis

(2) G. P. Marsh- Explanation in Geography

(3) P. E. James – All possible worlds

(4) Abler, Adams and Gould – Spatial organizations

Answer: 2

Q: 20. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: Table Contain Shows the Ideology And Proponent

List-I

(Ideology)

(A) Probabilism

(B) Stop-and-go determinism

(D) Modern Geography

List-II

(Proponent)

(i) Humboldt

(ii) Ritter

(iii) Griffith Taylor

(iv) O. H. K. Spate

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: 3

Q: 21. Which one of the following total fertility rate is required to maintain the world’s existing population?

(1) 3.4

(2) 2.1

(3) 1.2

(4) 4.2

Answer: 2

Q: 22. Which of the following characteristics are required for any area to be called an urban area according to census of India?

(A) Any place with municipality, corporation, cantonment or notified town area

(B) At least 70% of male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities

(D) Density of population of 100 persons per square kilometer

Code:

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (A), (B) and (C)

(3) (A) and (C)

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

Answer: 3

Q: 23. Which one of the following is not included in the Ravenstein’s Laws of migration?

(1) Most migrants proceeds step by step

(2) Most migrants go for short distance

(3) Most migrants move from Urban to Rural area

(4) Most migrant are adults

Answer: 3

Q: 24. Which one of the following is correct statement for Patna city in Bihar and Kolkata city in west Bengal?

(1) Edge City

(2) World City

(3) Post Industrial City

(4) Primate City

Answer: 4

Q: 25. Which one of the following principles denotes K-4 of Christaller’s Model of central places?

(1) Market

(2) Administrative

(3) Transport

(4) Economic

Answer: 3

Q: 26. Among the following, who developed the formula Σd2n for calculating crop combination?

(1) Doi

(2) J. C. Weaver

(3) Pownall

(4) Rafiullah

Answer: 2

Q: 27. Transportation cost does not play a major role in the location of textile industry because:

(1) Cotton is a weight loosing material

(2) Cotton is a weight gaining material

(3) Cotton is a pure material more or less equal to the finished material

(4) Weight loss in cotton during manufacturing is high

Answer: 3

Q: 28. Which of the following occupation is classified as a secondary activity?

(1) Carpenter

(2) Coal mixer

(3) School teacher

(4) Farmer

Answer: 1

Q: 29. Which of the following does not fall under intensive subsistence rice cultivation?

(1) South East Asia

(2) Southern China and Japan

(3) Nile valley and delta

(4) Coastal and delta areas of India

Answer: 3

Q: 30. Which one of the following group of activities are appropriately labelled for Goal-collar worker?

(1) Increasing the value of commodities by changing their form

(2) Financial, health, entertainment, education, information and data processing services; middle

management administrative services; government bureaucrats

(3) Chief executive officers and other top management executives in both government and private

service

(4) Exchanging services and ideas by telecommunication and satisfying the needs of people by changing their location

Answer: 3

Q: 31. The concept of Lebensraum became popular in the discipline of political geography after the publication of:

(1) Political Geography: World Economy, Nation-State and Locality

(2) Politische Geographic

(3) Geographical Pivot of History

(4) Making Political Geography

Answer: 2

Q: 32. Who propounded the ‘Theory of Heartland’ in political geography?

(1) Smith

(2) Spykman

(3) Mackinder

(4) Haushofer

Answer: 3

Q: 33. Cephalic index, used, used to classify human races is calculated as:

(1) Ratio between the length and breadth of the nose

(2) Ratio between the flatness and length of the head

(3) Ratio between the breadth and length of the head

(4) Ratio between the length of the head and weight of the human body

Answer: 3

Q: 34. Which of the following statements is not true about a state?

(1) It always has a social or cultural base

(2) It has a territorial base

(3) It claims internal sovereignty

(4) It claims sovereignty in external relations

Answer: 1

Q: 35. Who coined the term Geopolitics?

(1) Mackinder

(2) Haushofer

(3) Kjellen

(4) Spykman

Answer: 3

Q: 36. Which one of the following writers quoted “merely packing together of existing Sectoral or departmental plans does not automatically make an integrated plan. A plan becomes integrated only when backward and forward linkages are thoroughly analysed and interlinked in the area of planning are clearly specified”?

(1) S. N. Bhattacharya

(2) R. P. Mishra

(3) L. K. Sen

(4) M. L. Dantwala

Answer: 4

Q: 37. Which one of the following regions does not constitute the Damodar Valley Region?

(1) Deltaic Plain of west Bengal

(2) Deltaic plain of Padma river

(3) Chhotanagpur plateau

(4) Palamu Plateau

Answer: 2

Q: 38. Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Level of Planning)

(A) State

(B) District

(D) Panchayat

List-II

(Scale of desired map)

(i) Large

(ii) Cadastral

(iii) Medium

(iv) Small

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: 4

Q: 39. Which one of the following proposed the definition of regional planning: “Regional planning is the process of formulating and classifying social objectives in the ordering of activities in supra-urban space”?

(1) Charles L. Leven

(2) Antoni Kuklinski

(3) H. W. Richardson

(4) John Friedmann

Answer: 4

Q: 40. Which one of the following does not belong to the exploitive model of urban structure propounded by william bunge?

(1) City of superfluity

(2) City of Death

(3) Central Business District

(4) City of need

Answer: 3

Q: 41. National Highway No. 48 in India passes through which of the places?

(1) Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai

(2) Pune, Goa, Coimbatore

(3) Agra, Bhopal, Mumbai

(4) Pune, Surat, Ahmedabad

Answer: 4

Q: 42. In which one of the following states of India the maximum Teak forest is found?

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Bihar

(3) Uttar Pradesh

(4) Karnataka

Answer: 1

Q: 43. Which one of the following passes connects Arunachal Pradesh with Tibet?

(1) Banihal Pass

(2) Chang La Pass

(3) Bomdila Pass

(4) Aghil Pass

Answer: 3

Q: 44. The decadal growth rate of Indian population between 2001 and 2011 census was:

(1) 16.64%

(2) 17.64%

(3) 18.64%

(4) 19.64%

Answer: 2

Q: 45. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Population growth rate (2001 - 2011) was high for Bihar as compared to uttar pradesh.

Reason (R): Growth rate of population is the outcome of births minus deaths of a place.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 3

Q: 46. Which one of the following is the correct sequence (in the ascending order) of EMR spectral bands?

(1) Blue – Green – Red – Ultra Violet

(2) Ultra Violet -Blue – Green – Red

(3) Ultra Violet - Red - Blue – Green

(4) Green – Red – Blue –Ultra Violet

Answer: 2

Q: 47. Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below: Table Contain Shows the Maps and Diagrams and its Aspect

List-I

(Maps and Diagrams)

(A) Isopleth Maps

(B) Dot maps

(D) Star Diagram

List-II

(Aspect)

(i) Natural Grouping

(ii) Population Distribution

(iii) Wind Direction

(iv) Changes over space which are relatively gradual

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: 1

Q: 48. Which one of the following group of colors is called primary colors?

(1) White, red and green

(2) Blue, green and red

(3) Yellow, violet and indigo

(4) Green, blue and black

Answer: 2

Q: 49. Consider the following line symbols:

(A) Isobars

(B) Contours

(D) Isochrones

Which of the above depicts relief? Select the correct answer using depicts relief? Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

Answer: 3

Q: 50. Which one of the following terms is used to measure the extreme peak in a nor distribution?

(1) Skewed

(2) Mesokurtic

(3) Leptokurtic

(4) Platykurtic

Answer: 3

Important mcq's on Cartography (Scale and Types, Uses)

2019-01-05T02:07:00.000+05:30

SCALE AND TYPES, USES

Important for all competitive exams like: UGC NET, SET, SSC, SLST, PCS etc..

Choose the correct answers:

Q. 1. The_____ may be defined as the representation of the earth's pattern as a whole or a part of it

(a) Scale

(b) Diagram

(d) Map projection

Answer: c

Q. 2. The amount of information to be represented on the map depends on

(a) Scale

(b) Projection

(d) All of the above

Answer: d

Q. 3. For the first time, over 3000 years ago the _____ prepared feasible maps, showing particularly boundaries with a view of making proper assessment of revenue.

(a) Egyptians

(b) Greeks

(d) Indians

Answer: d

Q. 4. The method of mapping depends on the

(a) Size of the area

(b) Degree of accuracy aimed at

(d) All of the above

Answer: d

Q. 5. It is essential to pay more regard to which of the following two things while classifying maps into different categories?

(a) Amount of information and projection

(b) Scale and purpose

(d) Projection and conventional signs

Answer: b

Q. 6. The term cadastral is derived from the ______ word cadestre meaning register of territorial property.

(a) Greeks

(b) British

(c ) German

(d) French

Answer: d

Q. 7. Which of the following maps are drawn to register the ownership of landed property by demarcating the boundaries of fields and building etc.?

(a) Cadastral maps

(b) Topographical maps

(d) Chorographical maps

Answer: a

Q. 8. The word ‘Map’ derived from Mappa of

(a) Greek word

(b) German word

(d) French word

Answer: c

Q. 9. "Maps are the graphic representations of the surface of the earth" who stated that

(a) Erwin Raisz

(b) Finch and Trewartha

(d) R. Ogilvic Buchanan

Answer: b

Q. 10. The cadastral maps, topographical maps and the city plans come under the category of

(a) Large scale maps

(b) Small scale maps

(d) All of the above

Answer: a

Q. 11. Which of the following are the examples of small scale maps?

(a) Wall maps

(b) City plans

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer: d

Q.12. Which of the following maps are especially prepared by the government to realize revenue and tax?

(a) Wall maps

(b) Topographical maps

(d) Atlas maps

Answer: c

Q. 13. Village maps drawn on scale 1:3960 (16"=1 Mile) to 1: 1980 (32"- 1 mile) in India are the examples of

(a) City plans

(b) Cadastral maps

(d) Topographical maps

Answer: b

Q. 14. The British Ordnance series prepared on 1:2400 or 25 inch scale and 6 inch scale is included in the

(a) Cadastral map

(b) Wall map

(d) Atlas map

Answer: a

Q. 15. 'A Topographical Map is on a sufficiently large scale to enable the individual features shown on the map to be identified on the ground by their shape and position' who stated that?

(a) R.L. Singh

(b) Finch and Trewartha

(d) Survey of India

Answer: d

Q. 16. The scale of topographical maps varies in general from

(a) 3 inch to the mile to 3/4 inch to the mile

(b) 2 inch to the mile to 2/4 inch to the mile

(d) 16 inch to the mile to 32 inch to the mile

Answer: c

Q. 17. The maps drawn on the scale 1"=4 mile or 1:250,000 or less than it, are called as

(a) Topographical maps

(b) Geographical maps

(d) Atlas maps

Answer: b

Q. 18. Wall maps are actually

(a) Geographical maps

(b) Atlas maps

(d) Cadastral maps

Answer: a

Q. 19. The scale of wall maps, prepared by Survey of India is between

(a) 1: 10,000,000 to 1: 2,000,000

(b) 1: 26,000,000 to 1: 2,900,000

(d) 1: 15,000,000 to 1: 2,500,000

Answer: d

Q. 20. The size of the Indian map drawn on a scale 1: 15000000 is

(a) 36 x 30 cm

(b) 38x30 cm

(d) 34x30 cm

Answer: c

Q. 21. Atlas maps are generally prepared on scale less than

(a) 1: 2,000,000

(b) 1: 1,500,000

(d) 1: 3,000,000

Answer: a

Q. 22. The Times Survey Atlas of the World has been prepared on a scale of

(a) 1: 2,000,000

(b) 1: 1,000,000

(d) 1: 4,000,000

Answer: b

Q. 23. The size of the road map of India prepared on a scale of 1: 2,500,000 is

(a) 158x121 cm

(b) 156x121 cm

(d) 152x121 cm

Answer: d

Q. 24. The English version of National Atlas of India is prepared on a scale of

(a) 1 : 5,000,000

(b) 1 : 2,000,000

(d) 1: 1,500,000

Answer: c

Q. 25. In Oxford Atlas, world's maps are drawn on a scale of

(a) 1:10 million

(b) 1:115 million

(d) 1:125 million

Answer: a

Q. 26. In Oxford Atlas, the different parts of Europe are drawn on a scale of 1.2 million and the maps of India and Middle-East are drawn on a scale of

(a) 1:25 million

(b) 1:20 million

(d) 1:10 million

Answer: d

Q. 27. The Representative Fraction (R.F.) 1:24 million is used for continents in Oxford Atlas and for India it is

(a) 1:16 million

(b) 1:18 million

(d) 1:22 million

Answer: b

Q. 28. In which of the following maps, the actual height of a region from the sea level is denoted by contour lines?

(a) General relief map

(b) Land-form map

(d) Flatland-ratio map

Answer: a

Q. 29. In which of the following maps, main stress is given on the determination of topographical features and relief?

(a) Geological

(b) Planimetric

(d) Thematic

Answer: c

Q. 30. In which of the following maps supremacy is given to cultural and economic features instead of topographical features?

(a) Hypsometric maps

(b) Cadastral maps

(d) Planimetric maps

Answer: d

Q. 31. When different objects are shown by various colours, the map is known as

(a) Choro-schematic

(b) Chorochromatic

(d) Choropleth

Answer: b

Q. 32. The one-in-a million map is also known as "International map" and the proposal for its acceptance as such was made by Prof. Penk at the International Geographical congress held at Berne in

(a) 1891

(b) 1881

(d) 1919

Answer: a

Q. 33. Which of the following map is also known as chorographical map?

(a) Cadastral map

(b) Wall map

(d) Planimetric map

Answer: c

Q. 34. Which of the following maps is also known as Morphographic map?

(a) Landslope map

(b) Landform map

(d) Isogonic map

Answer: b

Q. 35. In which of the following maps average slope and relative relief are shown simultaneously

(a) Topographic map

(b) Planimetric map

(d) Morphographic map

Answer: a

Q. 36. In which of the following maps, the distribution of cultivable land is shown from the point of view of slope?

(a) Landform map

(b) Landslope map

(d) Isogonic map

Answer: c

Q. 37. Which of the following is not an example of economic map?

(a) Land use map

(b) Transport map

(d) Vegetation map

Answer: d

Q. 38. Which of the following map not comes under the category of physical map?

(a) Mineral map

(b) Astronomical map

(d) Vegetation map

Answer: a

Q. 39. The distribution of the elements of natural environment is denoted by

(a) Geographical map

(b) Physical map

(d) Hypsometric map

Answer: b

Q. 40. In which of the following sciences maps occupy the most important place?

(a) Oceanography

(b) Pedology

(d) Military science

Answer: d

Paper 1 22 Dec 2018 official Question Paper and Answer key

2019-01-04T11:23:00.000+05:30

PAPER 1- 22 DECEMBER 2018 NTA UGC NET (2nd Shift)

This is the official Question Paper and Answer key for the exam conducted on 22 December 2018.

Q. 1 Which among the following reflects the best quality of teaching in a classroom?

1. Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom

2. Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom

3. Through full attendance in the classroom

4. Through observation of silence by the students in classroom

Answer: 2

Q. 2 Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate. Which among the following is most difficult to develop among the students?

1. Control over emotions

2. Concept formulation

3. Using / selecting appropriate language

4. Voice modulation

Answer: 1

Q.3 Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are:

(a) History

(b) Randomization

(d) Instrumentation

(e) Experimental mortality

(f) matching

Code:

1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

2. (b), (c), (d) and (f)

3. (a) , (c), (d) and (e)

4. (d), (e), (f) and (b)

Answer: 3

Q.4 Which among the following is best advantage of choice based credit system?

1. Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education

2. Improving classroom attendance

3. Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time

4. Reducing examination anxiety among students

Answer: 1

Q.5. Among the following which one is not an instructional material?

1. Audio podcast

2. YouTube video

3. Printed study guide

4. Overhead projector

Answer: 4

Q.6 The four major operations in scientific research are:

(a) Demonstration of co-variance

(b) Elimination of spurious relations

(d) self-education

(e) Operationalization of personal choice

(f) Theorization

Code:

1. (a) , (b) , (c) and (d)

2. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

3. (a), (b), (c) and (f)

4. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

Answer: 3

Q.7 A variable that is manipulated is known as:

1. Dependent variable

2. Control variable

3. Independent variable

4. Confounding variable

Answer: 3

Q.8 which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students
Experiment and analyse?

1. History

2. Languages

3. Economics

4. Science

Answer: 4

Q.9 The components of a research design are:

(a) Comparison

(b) control

(d) manipulation

(e) Non representativeness

(f) generalization

Code:

1. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)

2. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)

3. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)

4. (a) , (b) , (d) and (f)

Answer: 4

Q.10 Formulation of a research problem depends upon:

(a) What is the object behind the researcher’s choice?

(b) What are the specific questions?

(d) What negative factors to research upon?

(e) Reasons for unlimiting the study.

(f) Construction of hypotheses.

Code:

1. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)

2. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)

3. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)

4. (a) , (b) , (c) and (f)

Answer: 4

Comprehension:

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 11 to 15:

Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the region. It is gratifying to see how Asean – India relations have grown during the past 25 years. In 1991, when the Cold War ended and India began its economic liberalization, Singapore saw an opportunity to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural links with the Asian region. Singapore pushed for India to become a full Asean dialogue partner in 1995 and join the EAS in 1995 and since then, Asean – India ties have strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms for co-operation exist, including seven ministerial dialogues and the Annual Leader Summit. However, there is scope for more and it is a must. For instance, there are tremendous opportunities in enhancing physical and digital connectivity between India and Asean. Asean is committed to strengthening land , air and sea linkages with India. These linkages will enhance people-to-people flows, as well as boost business , investment and tourism. The India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway will connect India’s Northeast to mainland Southeast Asia. While one can fly directly between India and several Asean countries, there is still much room to expand air links to support growing business and tourism. Beyond physical linkages, digital connectivity Is the new frontier in the Fourth Industrial Revolution. India has made great progress in innovation, Start-ups and digital inclusion. There are opportunities to apply initiatives such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and FinTech are two other areas potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore can serve as a springboard to launch these ideas to Southeast Asia and beyond. India’s role in Asean should be anchored by growing economic ties with Singapore. The economic integration involving 16 countries with one-third of global GDP and trade will create an integrated Asian market.

Q.11 The areas of collaboration between India and Asian are:

(a) FinTech

(b) Aadhaar

(d) Digital backwardness

(e) Trilateral highways

(f) Fourth industrial revolution

Code:

1. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

2. (a, (b), (c) and (d)

3. (a) , (c), (e) and (f)

4. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 2

Q.12 Who can be India’s Launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage?

1. Southwest Asia

2. Thailand

3. Singapore

4. Myanmar

Answer: 3

Q.13 What is needed to encourage tourism between India and Asian?

1. Waterways

2. Innovation

3. Air links

4. Start-ups

Answer: 3

Q.14 What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger ties with India?

1. Historical past

2. End of cold war

3. geo-political equations

4. Economic liberalization in India

Answer: 4

Q.15 The commitment of Asian with India is:

1. Offer political platforms

2. More and more dialogues

3. Improving transport links

4. Hold leadership summits

Answer: 3

Q.16 Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s). [Taking the premises individually or jointly]

Premises:

(a) All judges are lawyers.

(b) No doctors are lawyers.

Conclusions:

(1) No lawyers are doctors.

(2) No doctor are judges

(3) All lawyers are judges.

(4) Some doctor are judges.

Code:

1. (1) and (3)

2. (1) and (2)

3. (1) and (4)

4. (2) and (3)

Answer: 2

Q.17.

Assertion (A): Teacher communication is central to classroom management.

Reason (R): Teacher communication behaviors should not be used to regulate the classroom behavior of students.

1. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

2. Both (A) and (R) are true.

3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

4. (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: 4

Q.18 The next term in the series 0, 1, 9, 36, 100, ______ is :

1. 216

2. 164

3. 196

4. 225

Answer: 4

Q.19. Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to:

(a) External sympathy

(b) Justification

(d) De-motivation

(e) Supportive listening

(f) Confrontational empathy

Code:

1. (b), (c) and (d)

2. (d), (e) and (f)

3. (a), (b) and (c)

4. (c), (d) and (e)

Answer: 1

Q.20 Under which of the conditions an argument may be valid ? select the correct answer from the code given below:

Statements:

(a) when its conclusion and premises are true

(b) Even when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false

1. (c) alone

2. (a) and (b)

3. (a) and (c)

4. (a) alone

Answer: 2

Q.21 Truth and falsity are attributes of:

1. Debates

2. Propositions

3. Opinions

4. Arguments

Answer: 2

Q.22. Jenifer’s father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is Helen related to Jenifer?

1. Daughter-in-law

2. Sister

3. Sister-in-law

4. Mother

Answer: 3

Q.23 Non-verbal communication is considered:

1. Formal

2. Culture-free

3. Informal

4. Precise3

Answer: 3

Q.24. the rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as _____ agents of students.

1. Influencing

2. Non-official

3. Academic

4. Official

Answer: 1

Q.25 Choose the word which is different from the rest:

1. Mount Kilimanjaro

2. Shivalik Hills

3. Aravali Hills

4. Nilgiri Hills

Answer: 1

Q.26. In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in:

1. Passive adaptation

2. Quick adaptation

3. Stimulation

4. Over-stimulation

Answer: 4

Q.27. Among the following, there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can be false together. Select the code that represents them.

Statements:

(a) All poets are dreamers.

(b) No poets are dreamers.

(d) Some poets are not dreamers.

Code:

1. (a) and (b)

2. (b) and (d)

3. (a) and (d)

4. (c) and (d)

Answer: 1

Q.28. Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition – “all animals are wild”?

1. No non-animals are wild.

2. Some animals are not wild.

3. No animals are wild.

4. Some animals are wild.

Answer: 4

Q.29. If ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will be:

1. AIVX

2. AIUS

3. AIST

4. AVCD

Answer: 2

Q.30 The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV, ______ IS:

1. XYZ

2. WYZ

3. WXY

4. YZA

Answer: 1

Comprehension:

Data on % of villages not electrified in 6 states is given below (in the year 2000)

State	% of villages not electrified
A	25%
B	45%
C	20%
D	60%
E	55%
F	30%

Answer the following three questions:

Q.31 Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D?

1. State A

2. State C

3. State B

4. State D

Answer: 2

Q.32 How many States have atleast 50% or more electrified villages?

1. 3

2. 2

3. 4

4. 1

Answer: 3

Q.33. In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010, the total number of villages had increased to 20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet to be electrified.

The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in state D has thus_______.

1. Not enough dat

2. Gone up

3. Come down

4. Cannot be computed

Answer: 3

Q.34 If the total population of state was 5 lakhs while the population in state B was 2 lakhs, the number of people below education index will be:

1. Cannot be calculated

2. Higher in State A

3. Equal in State A and B

4. Higher in State B

Answer: 2

Q.35 If the population for state F is 2.6 lakhs ,what is the population below education index?

1. 51000 lakhs

2. 3900 lakhs

3. 0.39 lakhs

4. 49000 lakhs

Answer: 3

Q.36. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established in which year?

1. 1998

2. 2007

3. 2000

4. 2005

Answer: 4

Q.37. the University Grants Commission has a scheme for “Human Rights and Values in Education”. Under this scheme, which statement is incorrect among the following for ‘Human Rights and Duties Education’ component

1. To encourage research activities

2. To sensitize the citizens so that the norms and values of human rights are realized.

3. To establish value and wellness centers in schools

4. To develop interaction between society and educational institutions.

Answer: 3

Q.38. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason(s)?

(a) Thermal difference between land and water.

(b) Variations in altitude between continents and oceans.

(d) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coastal region.

Code:

1. (a) and (b) only

2. (b) and (c) only

3. (a) only

4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 3

Q.39 Which of the following was launched in 2013 with the purpose to provide strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions?

1. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan

2. All India Council for Technical Education

3. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

Answer: 3

Q.40. A small text file stored on user’s computer by some websites in order to recognize and keep track of user’s preferences is called:

1. Cookie

2. Report

3. Log

4. History

Answer: 1

Q.41. Natural vegetation of an area needs to be preserved for the future, mainly for the purpose of:

1. Providing habitat for birds

2. Preventing soil erosion

3. Providing material for breeding new species

4. Study by scientists

Answer: 3

Q.42 In which year Education Commission under the Chairmanshop of Dr. D.s. Kothari was set up?

1. 1960

2. 1955

3. 1952

4. 1964

Answer: 4

Q.43 A source of renewable power which can be developed with minimum cost is :

1. Wind mills

2. Tidal power

3. Biomass power

4. Geothermal energy

Answer: 3

Q.44. In a computer, if 8 bits are used to specify address in memory , the total number of addresses will be :

1. 8

2. 256

3. 216

4. 512

Answer: 2

Q.45 In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated?

1. Rajasthan

2. Gujarat

3. Punjab

4. Kerala

Answer: 4

Q.46 _________ denotes an error in a computer program.

1. Bug

2. Virus

3. Spam

4. Bit

Answer: 1

Q.47. Which of the following are audio file formats?

(a) .wav (b) .aac (c) .wmv (d) .fiv

Code:

1. (b) and (c)

2. (a) and (b)

3. (a) and (d)

4. (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

Q.48 The output quality of a printer is measured by:

1. Dots per cm

2. Dots per inch

3. Dots per mm

4. Digits per inch

Answer: 2

Q.49 The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28 December 1953 by whom among the following?

1. Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

3. Mrs. Indira Gandhi

4. Dr. S. Radhakrishan

Answer: 1

Q.50 How much carbon is being added to the atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels?

1. 6-9 billion tons

2. 9-12 billion tons

3. 4-6 billion tons

4. 2-6 billion tons

Answer: 1

PAPER 1 18 DEC 2018 NTA UGC NET

2019-01-03T11:07:00.001+05:30

PAPER 1- DECEMBER 2018 NTA UGC NET (2nd Shift)

This is the official Question Paper and Answer key for the exam conducted on 18 December 2018.

Q. 1 Which of the following statements best reflect the meaning and characteristics of research? Select from the code to give your answer.

(a) Research means challenging the status quo.

(b) Research is an endeavour to collect facts and information.

(d) Research means proving one's assertions and beliefs.

(e) Research is a careful review of reported studies.

(f) Research is a critical and passionate search for knowledge.

Code

1. (a), (c) and (f)

2. (a), (b) and (c)

3. (a), (e) and (f)

4. (b), (d) and (e)

Answer: 1

Q.2 Which devices from the list given below will form part of formative evaluation? Give your answer by selecting from the code.

(a) Conducting a quiz session

(b) Giving multiple-choice type questions in post-instructional sessions

(d) Providing corrective feedback during discussions

(e) Encouraging opportunity for metacognitive thinking

(f) Grading students' performance on a five-point scale

Code:

1. (a), (d) and (e)

2. (a), (b) and (c)

3. (d), (e) and (f)

4. (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 1

Q.3 The paradigm of research which focuses on the development of professional expertise of the researcher-practitioner is called:

1. Action research

2 Applied research

3. Qualitative research

4. Pure research

Answer: 1

Q.4 Identify the stage/steps of research in which ethical considerations become relevant. Choose from the code to give your answer.

(a) Identifying and defining research question

(b) Postulating relationships among variables to advance a solution.

(d) Defining the population and sampling procedure,

(e) Data analysis and procedure employed

(f) Reporting procedure of findings/results.

Code

1. (c), (e) and (f)

2. (b), (c) and (d)

3. (b), (c) and (f)

4. (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: 1

Q. 5 From The following list of learner characteristics identify those which will be helpful in ensuring effectiveness of teaching. Select your answer from the code.

(a) Extent to which learner obeys the school rules

(b) Learner’s level of motivation

(d) Learner’s interest in sports and games

(e) Prior experience of the learner

(f) Interpersonal relations of learners

Code

1. (b), (e) and (f)

2. (a), (c) and (e)

3. (c), (d) and (e)

4. (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: 1

Q. 6 For organizing an effective teaching-learning system which of the following combinations of statements would reflect the most appropriate concern? Select from the code to indicate your answer

(a) Determining what will be the intended learning Outcome.

(b) Deciding as to what strategy and tactics will be used.

(d) Determining the evaluation tool to be used.

(e) Deciding the size of the classroom.

(f) Assessing the prior academic experience of the learner.

Code:

1. (a), (c), (d) and (e)

2. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

3. (a), (b), (d) and (f)

4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 3

Q.7 In order to promote direct learning which of the following methods would be best suited?

1. Discussion session

2. Project method

3. Team teaching method

4. Lecture with examples

Answer: 2

Q. 8 In the two sets given below, Set- I specifies the mothexis of research while Set II describes the critical feature associated with a method of research. Match the two and select from the code to indicate your answer

Set I

(Research methods)

(a) Experimental method

(b) Ex post facto method

(d) Ethnographic method

Set II

(Critical features associated)

(i) Generalizing to the population from a large sample

(ii) Establishing the patterns of events which have happened, through primary and secondary sources

(iii) Studying shared behaviour patterns

(iv) Establishing, cause and effect through control

(v) Probing into the causal factors from the observed effects

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

4. (iv) (v) (ii) (iii)

Answer: 4

Q. 9 In the two sets given below, Set I provides the format of presentation and Set II gives the distinct features to go with them. Match the two sets and set from the code to indicate your answer.

Set - I

(Format of presentation)

(a) Thesis/ dissertation

(b) Research paper

(d) Seminar

Set II

(Distinctive features)

(i) Based on free-wheeling of ideas

(ii) Target oriented group based reflection

(iii) Reflective deliberations based on specific themes

(iv) Presentation on a summary of research done

(v) Systematic prescribed format

Code

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (ii) (i) (ii) (v)

2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

3. (i) (ii) (iii) (v)

4. (v) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: 4

Q.10 Below are given a number of key behaviours as well as helpful behaviours of effectiveness of teaching based on research evidence. Identify these which are key behaviours and indicate your answer key seleting from the code.

(a) Structuring through comments by the teacher in respect of what is to come.

(b) Questioning through content and process level questions.

(d) Probing which implies statements to encourage students to elaborate.

(e) Engagement rate devoted to leaming when students are actually on task.

(f) Rate at which students understand and correctly comprehend assignments and exercises.

Code

1. (c), (e) and (f)

2. (b), (c) and (d)

3. (a), (d) and (f)

4. (a), (d) and (e)

Answer: 1

Comprehension:

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 11 to 15.

One of the findings of the research into successful leadership is the fact that respect is always a two-way stret. No matter how powerful you are, no matter what your experience, skills, and accomplishments, you will not be respected by others if you consistently treat them disrespectfully, Friendliness- that is treating others politely and showing interest them is a way of showing your respect for other people, and in return they respect you. If as a manager you are respected, your preventive maintenance strategy will be accepted as a sincere attempt to resolve problems rather than a mean-spirited attempt to cause problems.

As important as friendliness is, I want to make sure you are not mislead into believing that friendliness will replace or correct poor managemnet. I have seen effective managers who didn't use this friendliness element but could have been more eefective if they did use it. I have seen very friendly managers who were ineffective because they were not doing effective management things. In other words, managers who intervene effectively in a friendly way are always more effective than managers who intervene effectively in a friendly way. Maintaining a friendly relationship is another part of maintaining work performance. It also helps you avoid having people try to hurt you because they don't like you. It might save your life.

Sub Question No: 11

Q.11 What is reported in respect of successful leadership?

1. Respect depends on the accomplishments of the leader.

2. Respect depends on the skills of the leadership.

3. Respect comes out of respect.

4. Respect depends on experience of the leadership.

Answer: 3

Sub Question No: 12

Q. 12 The preventive maintenance strategy used by a respected manager will mean to the subordinates:

1. An attempt to resolve problems

2. An attempt to become sincere

3. An attempt to become mean-spirited

4. An attempt to cause problems

Answer: 1

Sub Question No: 13

Q.13 The central idea of the passage is

1. Friendliness avoids chances of feeling hurt.

2. Friendliness is necessary for management.

3. Friendliness improves work-ethos.

4. Friendliness is a negative factor for management.

Answer: 3

Sub Question No: 14

Q.14 According to the passage friendliness in management terms implies:

1. Making management effective

2. Replacing poor management

3. Correcting ineffective management

4. Making management ineffective

Answer: 1

Sub Question No: 15

Q.15 The passage highlights which of the following feature of a successful leadership?

1. Dependence of the leader

2. Reciprocity of the leader

3. Independence of the leader

4. Least concern for relationship by the leader.

Answer: 2

Q.16 In terms of the relationship indicated below, which word will correctly pair to replace the question mark (?)?

________ : play : : sing : song

1. Scene

2. Act

3. Field

4. Theatre

Answer: 2

Q.17 In conveying the same meanings, which of the following is incongruous?

1. Prosper

2. Thrive

3. Excite

4. Flourish

Answer: 3

Q.18 Which of the following is a powerful determinant for effective assertive communication whether written or spoken?

1. I' messages

2 'You' messages

3. They' messages

4. 'We' messages

Answer: 1

Q.19 In the sequence of numbers 2, 8, 26, 62, 122, 212, x, ……, the term x is:

1. 248

2. 332

3. 338

4. 302

Answer: 3

Q.20 Given below is a statement followed by three assumptions made from it. Which assumptions are implicit in the context of the given statement? Select the correct answer from the side given below.

Statement :

'Smoking is injurious to health'.- A warning printed on the cigarette packets.

Assumptions:

(a) People read printed matter on a cigarette packet.

(b) People make careful note of a warning.

Code:

1. Only (a) and (b)

2. Only (a)

3. Only (b) and (c)

4. Only (b)

Answer: 4

Q.21 Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them (taken singly or given below together). Which conclusions are validly drawn? Select the correct answer from the code given below.

Premises:

(i) All politicians are honest persons.

(ii) All honest persons are fair

Conclusions:

(a) Some honest persons are politicians

(b) No honest person is politicians

(d) All fair persons are politics

Code:

1. (b) and (d) only

2. (a), (b) and (d) only

3. (b) and (c) only

4. (a) and (c) only

Answer: 4

Q. 22 The number of marble slabs of size 20 cm X 30 cm required to pave the floor of a square room of side 3 meters is 3

1. 225

2. 100

3.150

4. 25

Answer: 3

Q. 23 Mr. Rajesh, his sister, his son, and his daughter are fond of golf and often play together. The following statements are true for all the four:

(a) The best player's twin and worst player are of the opposite sex

(b) The best player and the worst player are of the same age.

Assuming that both twins are members of the group of four, who is the best player?

1. Daughter of Mr. Rajesh

2. Mr. Rajesh

3. Sister of Mr. Rajesh

4. Son of Mr. Rajesh

Answer: 1

Q. 24 A teacher decides to form six groups of students and assigns a sub-theme to each group for discussion and reporting. Which kind of communication model will best describe his/her strategy in this regard?

1. Interactional model

2. Horizontal model

3. Linear model

4. Transactional model

Answer: 4

Q.25 Five persons Amit, Anil, Ajay, Atul and Anand live in a five storey building on different floors. Amit live above Ajay but below Anand. Atul lives above Ajay but below Amit. Anil lives below Anand but above Atul. In which floor does Anil live?

1. Either third floor or fourth floor

2. Second floor

3 Fourth floor

4. Third floor

Answer: 1

Q. 26 In a certain code, LIFE is written as KMHJEGDF. How is WORD written in that code?

1. XVPNSQEC

2. VXNPQSCE

3. XVPNSQCE

4. VXNPQSEC

Answer: 2

Q.27 ₹ 9000 were divided among a certain number of persons. Had there been 20 more persons, each would have got ₹ 160 less. The original number of persons was:

1. 55

2. 30

3. 45

4. 25

Answer: 4

Q. 28 Which of the following constitute the paralanguage in communication ? Select from the code to indicate your answer.

(a) Pitch of the voice

(b) Internal noise

(d) Use f pauses

(e) Rate and volume of speech

Code

1. (a), (b) and (c)

2. (b), (c) and (d)

3. (a), (c) and (e)

4. (a), (d) and (e)

Answer:4

Q. 29 In communicating in a classroom situation which one of the following approaches will be considered most appropriate?

1. Empathetic and pragmatic

2. Assertive and conformist

3. Technical and domineering

4. Personal and emulative

Answer: 1

Q. 30 Which of the following would influence the effectiveness of communication in classroom instrution in a critical way?

1. Academic intelligence and personality characteristics of the teacher

2. Teaching aids used by the teacher while making presentations

3. Teaching style preferred by the teacher while transacting

4. Subject knowledge of the teacher

Answer: 1

Comprehension

Consider the following two tables (I and II) in which table I shows the percentage of students who joined and successfully completed Ph.d programme from the Universities A to G and Table II shows the number of foreign Ph.D students enrolled in the University C. These percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 855 Ph.D students in the University C and a total of 5700 students successfully completed the Ph.D programme from all the seven Universities together.

In accordance with the tables I and II, answer tha questions that follow Questions (31 – 35):

Q.31 Which University has the highest percentage of students who successfully completed the Ph.D programme out of the students who joined that University?

1. E

2. F

3. B

4. C

Answer: 4

Q. 32 In case, there are 21 African students in University E, then approximately, what is their percentage in that University?

1. 4 %

2. 2 %

3. 3 %

4. 5 %

Answer: 3

Q.33 The number of students who completed the Ph.D programme from Universities A and D together exceeds the number of students who joined the Universities C and E together, by:

1. 304

2. 369

3. 278

4. 399

Answer: 4

Q.34 What percentage of students in University C is that of foreign students?

1. 30%

2. 25%

3. 15%

4. 20%

Answer: 4

Q.35 What is the ratio of students who successfully completed the Ph.D programme to the students who joined in the University G?

1. 6 :11

2. 9 :17

3. 3 : 4

4. 1 : 2

Answer: 4

Q.36 for promoting Human Values through programmes of the the University system in India, which of the following activities have great potential?

1. Mentoring by senior faculty members

2. Lectures by experts

3. Inviting dignitaries/heads from national level organisations

4. Association of NGOs

Answer: 1

Q. 37 The gap between those individuals in a society who are computer literate and have access to information resources like the Internet and those who do not, is referred to as the_________.

1. Digital divide

2. ICT divide

3. Information overload

4. Terabyte divide

Answer: 1

Q.38 Which of the following statements are indicative the vision of Blue-Revolution?

For your answer select from the code:

(a) Proactive development of Botanical Gardens.

(b) Creating an enabling environment for the full potential of fisheries in the country.

(d) Encouraging scientific research in forestry to increase the vegetative cover.

(e) Promoting integrated developemnt of fieshries of the country.

(f) Undertaking research in new areas like marine finfish.

Code:

1. (c), (d) and (e)

2. (b), (c) and (e)

3. (b), (c) and (a)

4. (a), (d) and (f)

Answer: 2

Q. 39 Which of the following statements correctly describe the functional/status of the National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration a deemed to be University?

(a) Capacity building and research in planning and management of education.

(b) Eucational Planning and Administration

(d) A Statutory Institute of Educational Planning and Administration

1. (a) and (c)

2. (b) and (d)

3. (a) and (d)

4. (a) and (b)

Answer: 2

Q. 40 In the context of a School/University which of the following aspects of environmrnt determine the academic ethos?

1. Well-equipped lecture halls

2. Attractive physical campus

3. Patterns of human relations as evident in workplace

4. Latest lab equipments

Answer: 3

Q. 41 Which of the following bodies/units in a University has a statutory function to perform?

1. Research Degree Committee

2. Finance Committee

3. Board of Management

4. Board of Studies

Answer: 3

Q. 42 Which organisation in India overseas the functioning and quality aspect of teacher education programme?

1. University Grants Commission (UGC)

2. Association of Indian Universities (AlU)

3. National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

4. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

Answer: 4

Q. 43 In the two sets given below. Set I specifies H₂S level in a water sample, while Set II provides observations. Match the wet and illicit your water from the code given below:

Set I

(H2S level in Water Sample)

(a) No H₂S is produced

(b) H₂S is produced and is small in quantity

(d) H₂S is produced and is high in quantity pollution

Set II

(Observation)

(i) Dark black- high water pollution

(ii) No colour- clean water

(iii) Light black- low water

(iv) Black – moderate water

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: 2

Q. 44 Which of the following provisions are directly covered in the Environment Protection Act, 1986?

1. Protection and conservation forests and matters connected therewith.

2. Protection and safety of wild animals, birds and plants and for matters connected ther with

3. Prevention and control of water pollution

4. Protection and improvement of quality of environemnt and preventing, controlling and abating environmental pollution

Answer: 4

Q. 45 Mohan tells his friends, Sohan (sohan@gmail.com), Rohan (rohan@yahoo.com) and John (john @gmail.com), date of his birthday party through an email as shown below:

To : Sohan@gmail.com

Cc : rohan@yahoo.com

Bcc : john@gmail.com

Subject : My Birthday Party is on 15/01/2019

Hello all,

Call me if you can come.

Mohan

1. Sohan knows that Rohan receives the email.

2. John knows that both Sohan and Rohan receive the email.

3. Rohan known that John receives the email.

4. Sohan known that the birthday party will be held on 15/01/2019.

Answer: 3

Q. 46 Using a word processing software, an image on page two of a document is to be repeated on page four of the same document. Which of the following would enable this to happen?

1. Cut and Paste

2. Format and Replace

3. Find and Replace

4. Copy and Paste

Answer: 4

Q. 47 Which of the following activity /programme in a University aims at Value Education in a holistic frame?

1. National Cadet Corps (NCC)

2. Inter-University Competitions

3. Fine Arts and Musical Concerts

4. Yoga Education and Wellness Centres

Answer: 4

Q. 48 There are two sets given below. Set-I specifies the IT related acronyms, while Set- II indicates their functions. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set- I

(Acronyms)

(a) CPU

(b) RAM

(d) LCD

Set II

(Functions)

(i) Type of technology used on a flat-screen monitor.

(ii) Controls all the functions performed by the computer’s other components.

(iii) Temporary storage, also known as primary storage.

(iv) Permanent storage that is not erased when the computer’s power is turned off

Code

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

2. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: 4

Q. 49 Below are given two sets. Set- I mentions the types of pollution, while Set- II indicates their source. Match the two sets and select your answer from the code.

Set- I

(Pollution Type)

(a) Air

(b) Land

(d) Noise

Set- II

(Source)

(i) Point and non-point sources such as discharges from industries etc.

(ii) Industries, thermal power plants and motor vehicles emissions.

(iii) Roadway, aircraft, industrial as well as high intensity sonar

(iv) Over use of chemical fertilizers.

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: 1

Q. 50 In computer terminology, which of the following best describes a device driver?

1. Hardware that allows interaction between peripheral devices and the operating system.

2. Hardware that allows the user to control the operating system.

3. Software that allows the user to control the operating system.

4. Sofware that allows interaction between peripheral devices and the operating system.

Answer: 4

Previous Years Questions from 1999-2017 on Physiography of India total 40 questions For WBCS

2018-12-27T14:37:00.003+05:30

WBCS-1999

1. Which one of the following is the largest glacier of India?

(a) Zemu

(b) Gangotri

(d) Siachen

Answer: d

2. Barren Island is in

(a) Lakshadweep

(b) Nicobar Island

(d) Palk strait

Answer: b

3. The Northern limit of the Deccan plateau is

(a) Southern limit of the Ganga Plains

(b) Tropic of Cancer

(d) Narmada-Son furrow

Answer: a

4. Lakshadweep Islands are Delhi

(a) Coral Islands

(b) Oceanic Islands

(d) Elevated part of Submarine ledge

Answer: a

5. The oldest mountain Aravalli ranges between

(a) Rajasthan and Delhi

(b) Udaipur and Jaipur

(d) Rajasthan and Punjab

Answer: c

6. Total length of the coastline of India is

(a) 5600 km

(b) 4500 km

(d) 6000 km

Answer: d

7. The name Marusthali is given to

(a) Deccan trap

(b) Thar desert

(d) Karnataka plateau

Answer: b

Thar Desert

8. Highest peak of Peninsular India is

(a) Kalsubai

(b) Anamudi

(d) Mahabaleshwar

Answer: b

WBCS-2004

9. Which one of the following is the longest glacier of India?

(a) Siachen

(b) Zemu

(d) Pindari

Answer: a

10. Which is the highest peak of Peninsular India?

(a) Doddabetta

(b) Anamudi

(d) Chikalda

Answer: b

WBCS-2005

11. Baltora glacier is located in

(a) Kailash range

(b) karakoram range

(d) Ladakh range

Answer: b

12. The Siwaliks are called-in Arunachal Pradesh

(a) Dhundwa

(b) Dhang

(d) Jaskar

Answer: b

13. The Fedchenko, Biafo and Hispar are names of Himalayan

(a) Glaciers

(b) Lakes

(d) Trees

Answer: a

14. The Patkai bum forms the boundary between

(a) Arunachal Pradesh and Mayanmar

(b) Manipur and Nagaland

(d) Meghalaya and Nagaland

Answer: a

15. The Decan Lava region was formed during

(a) Cretaceous Period

(b) Triassic Period

(d) Cambrian Period

Answer: a

16. Adams bridge forms a link between

(a) India and Srilanka

(b) Hyderabad and secunderabad

(d) Araballi and Satpura

Answer: a

WBCS-2006

17. Kathiawar peninsula is one of the physiographic unit of

(a) West coastal plain

(b) Plateau of peninsular India

(d) Kachcha Peninsula.

Answer: d

18. Lakshadweep is built up of

(a) Submarine Mountains

(b) Coral

(d) Extinct volcano

Answer: b

19. Varanasi is located in

(a) Lower Ganga plain

(b) Middle Ganga plain

(d) Ganga-sutlej interfluence

Answer: c

WBCS-2007

20. The Palghat gap serves communication inland from this port to Madras

(a) Goa

(b) Mangalore

(d) Cochin

Answer: d

WBCS-2008

21. Sand dunes form a major topographic feature of

(a) Eastern Rajasthan

(b) Western Rajasthan

(d) Gujarat

Answer: b

22. The Himalayas were uplifted from the

(a) Indian Ocean

(b) Hercynian Geosyncline

(d) None of the above

Answer: c

23. The Aravallis is represent an ancient

(a) Fold Mountain

(b) Horst

(d) Block mountain

Answer: a

WBCS-2009

24. Chotanagpur Plateau is made up of

(a) Old igneous and metamorphic rocks

(b) Sedimentary rocks

(d) Lava flows

Answer: a

25. Himalayas are,

(a) Young fold mountains

(b) Residual mountains

(d) Block mountain

Answer: a

26. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Deccan Plateau slopes towards the West.

(b) Height of WN Ghats increases from North to South

(d) The N/WN part of the Deccan Plateau is made up of lava flows.

Answer: a

27. Coastline of which of the following states is known as the Coromandel Coast?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Kerala

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: d

28. Which of the following pair is correct?

(a) Maharastra Paradip

(b) T.N. Mangalore

(d) Karnataka Tuticorin

Answer: c

WBCS-2010

29. The Himalayas are

(a) Fold Mountains

(b) Block Mountains

(d) Residual Hills

Answer: a

30. In India variety of corals are found around

(a) Lakshadweep

(b) Daman & Diu

(d) Narmada estuary

Answer: a

WBCS-2011

31. Which of the following has the oldest rock in India?

(a) Himalayas

(b) Indo-Gangetic Plain

(d) Siwaliks.

Answer: c

WBCS-2012

32. The Pir Panjal Range is located in the structurally, the Great Himalaya is an autochthonous zone

(a) Greater Himalaya

(b) Trans Himalayan

(d) Siwaliks

Answer: c

33. The Western side of the Western Ghats is a

(a) Cliff

(b) Autochronous

(d) Rocky Outlier

Answer: a

WBCS-2013

34. Loktak lake is located in the State of

(a) Jammu & Kashmir

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Manipur

Answer: d

WBCS-2015

35. The Indian Peninsula is surrounded by water on

(a) South and East

(b) South and West

(d) East and West

Answer: c

36. Tamil Nadu is the only state with more than one major port because

(a) The state has the longest coastline

(b) The depth of water is high

(d) The coast is not very rocky

Answer: b

WBCS-2016

37. Shillong plateau is also known as "Meghalaya’'. It was named by

(a) O.H.K. Spate

(b) S. P. Chatterjee

(d) R. L. Singh

Answer: b

38. Which one of the following is the junction point of the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats?

(a) Javadi Hills

(b) Anaimalai Hills

(d) Shevaroy Hills

Answer: c

WBCS-2017

39. The Western Ghats is an important mountain system of the west coast of India. The word 'Ghat'means

(a) Port

(b) Stair

(d) Gap or pass

Answer: d

40. India's share of total land area in the world is about

(a) 2.4 per cent

(b) 2.8 per cent

(d) 3.6 per cent

Answer: a

WBSET PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

2018-12-23T06:30:00.000+05:30

Available at NETSETCORNER.COM CLICK HERE

WBSET 2018 OFFICIAL ANSWER KEY OF PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY X & Y SERIES

2018-12-22T23:42:00.000+05:30

Date 21/12/2018

Place: Kolkata

Recently West Bengal College Service Commission publish official answer key of West Bengal State Eligibility Test which was held on 02 december of 2018 at various centres of west bengal.

In this post you will get the official answer key of wbset paper 2 geography subject. In this post you will get both X and Y series answer key which was published by West Bengal College Service Commission in 21 december 2018.

Here in this post you also will get a separate lectures for both the series.

Here is the official answer key of GEOGRAPHY (13) - PAPER -II : X SERIES, you will get both image as well as pdf file of this answer key

At first Image file

X series answer key of geography 2018

PDF file of X series answer key of geography 2018
Download (360kb)

Video Lectures Link X series:

Here is the official answer key of GEOGRAPHY (13) - PAPER -II : Y SERIES, you will get both image as well as pdf file of this answer key

At first Image file

Y series answer key of geography 2018

PDF file of Y series answer key of geography 2018
Download (340kb)

Video Lectures Link Y series:

We hope that this post will be beneficial for you.

N.B: Post will be update as per requirement.

CBSE UGC NET JULY 2018 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

2018-07-10T10:38:00.000+05:30

CBSE UGC NET JULY 2018 PAPER 2 GEOGRAPHY

1. The concept of geosyncline was propounded by:

(1) Holmes

(2) James Hutton

(3) Hall and Dana

(4) J.W. Powell

Answer- 3

2. The term ‘Cosmography’ was coined and divided into ‘Uranography’ and Geography by:

(1) Ritter

(2) Peschal

(3) Humboldt

(4) Verinious

Answer- 3

3. Ice Cryatal Theory related to precipitation was postulated by:

(1) Muir

(2) Darwin

(3) Bergeron

(4) Boven

Answer- 3

4. The subsidence theory related to the coral reef was propounded by:

(1) Davis

(2) Darwin

(3) Dally

(4) Dana

Answer- 2

5. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between the:

(1) Crust and mantle

(2) Mantle and core

(3) Upper Core and Lower Core

(4) Upper Mantle and Lower Mantle

Answer- 2

6. The concept of panplan was propagated by:

(1) C.A. Cotton

(2) Von Ricthofen

(3) Crickmay

(4) Alfred Von Wegener

Answer- 3

7. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is termed as:

(1) Strike

(2) Dip

(3) Anticline

(4) Free face

Answer- 1

8. Which of the following scholars is the proponent of the turbidity current theory on origin of submarine canyons?

(1) Salin

(2) Gregory

(3) Daly

(4) Harry Hen

Answer- 3

9. Peternoster Lakes are:

(1) Lakes formed on glacialstair ways

(2) Lakes having volcanic origin

(3) Lakes formed by a shallow stretch of water caused by sea erosion

(4) Cresent shaped lakes formed due to cut-off of a river meander

Answer-1

10. “The present is the key to the past.” This phase is related to the concept of:

(1) Isostasy

(2) Diastrophism

(3) Plate tectonics

(4) Uniformatarianism

Answer- 4

11. Which one of the following instrument is used for determination of degree of stability or instability of an air parcel?

(1) Viscometer

(2) Radiosondes

(3) SONAR

(4) pH meter

Answer- 2

12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Antartica is constantly snow-covered but receives less than 8cm annual precipitatiuon.

Reason (R): Constant speedy wind blow in Antarctica.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer- 2

13. Which one of the following types of plate boundaries and motions are exemplified by the San Andreas Faultr of California?

(1) Transform boundary with Sinistral motion

(2) Transform boundary with dextral motion

(3) Divergent boundary with sinistral motion

(4) Convergent boundary with dextral motion

Answer- 2

14. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Thornthwait’s Temperature Provinces)

(a) Mesothermal

(b) Microthermal

(d) Tundra

List-II

(T/E Index Values)

(i) 16-31

(ii) 1-15

(iii) 64-127

(iv) 32-63

Code:

a b c d

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iv ii i iii

Answer- 3

15. Which one of the following latitudes s known as the ‘Calms of Cancer’?

(1) 66 ½⁰S

(2) 66 ½⁰N

(3) 25^oN

(4) 25⁰ S

Answer- 3

16. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Instrument)

(a) Sling psychrometer

(b) Pedometer

(d) Pycnometer

List-II

(Measured entity)

(i) Soil density

(ii) Radiant energy

(iii) Relative Humidity

(iv) Dsitance

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii iv I ii

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) i ii iv iii

Answer- 2

17. The American climotologist C.W.Thornthwaite revised the scheme of the classification of world climates in which one of the following years?

(1) 1931

(2) 1934

(3) 1941

(4) 1948

Answer- 4

18. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Force)

(a) Coriolis

(b) Tidal

(d) Resisting

List-II

(Source)

(i) Earth’s gravity

(ii) Topographic differences

(iii) Static state

(iv) Earth’s rotation

Code:

a b c d

(1) iv ii iii i

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iv i iii ii

(4) iv i ii iii

Answer- 4

19. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Process)

(a) Decomposition

(d) Photosynthesis

List-II

(Outcome)

(i) CO2

(ii) O2

(iii) CH4

(iv) Water Vapour

Code:

a b c d

(1) i iv ii iii

(2) iv iii i ii

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iii iv ii i

Answer- 3

20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The monsoon of southern and eastern Asia driven by the location and size of the Asian landmass and its proxmity to the Indian Ocean.

Reason (R): The wind and pressure patterns in the upper air circulation are associated with generation of monsoonal flows.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer- 2

21. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Ocean Trench)

(a) Tonga
(b) Kuril Kamchatka

(c)Philippine

(d) Romanche

List-II
(Depth in meters)

(i) 7760

(ii) 10540

(iii) 10880

(iv) 10500

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) iv iii i ii

(4) ii i iv iii

Answer- 4

22. Which one of the followings is the main source for a vast reservoir of relatively inert nitrogen in homosphere?

(1) Volcanc activities

(2) Fossil fuel burning

(3) Acid rain

(4) Global warming

Answer- 1

23. In which of the following directions the Nazca Plate is moving?

(1)East

(2) West

(3) South

(4) North

Answer- 1

24. Which one of the following sequences is the correct one in a littoral zone from land to sea?

(1) Backshore, Foreshore, Nearshore, Offshore

(2) Foreshore, Backshore, Nearshore, Offshore

(3) Offshore, Nearshore, Foreshore, Backshore

(4) Nearshore, Offshore, Backshore, Foreshore

Answer- 1

25. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): In low latitudes, sea water in the deep cold zone does not freeze.

Reason (R): The deep sea water does not remain under intense pressure because of its high salinity.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer- 3

26. Which one of the followings is the correct average range of worldwide variations is sea water salinity?

(1) 34% to 37%

(2) 27% to 29%

(3) 37% to 39%

(4) 21% to 26%

Answer- 1

27. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Energy flow shifts from production to respiration in the entrophic stage, qith oxygen demand exceeding oxygen availability.

Reason (R): Stratospheric ozone layer depletion causes skin diseases.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer- 2

28. Which one of the following groups of natural elements in living matters make up more than 99% of Earth’s biomass?

(1) H, O, C

(2) N, CA, K

(3) H, CA, N

(4) S, H, Na

Answer- 1

29. Which one of the following phenomena plays a vital role in the dispersion of majestic dinosaurs?

(1) Volcanic eruption

(2) Zonal faulting

(3) Global cooling

(4) Continental drift

Answer- 4

30. The U.N. Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro during June 3- 14, 1992 was chaired by:

(1) Geogre W. Bush

(2) Maurine F.Strong

(3) Tony Blair

(4) Rachel Carson

Answer- 2

31. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Emitter)

(a) Decaying plants

(b) Volcanoes

(d) Forest fires

List-II
(Emitted Products)
(i) Carbon monoxide
(ii) Salt spray
(iii) Hydrogen sulphide
(iv) Sulfur oxides

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii iv i ii

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) iii ii iv i

(4) ii iii i iv

Answer- 2

32. Who among the following scholars laid down the foundation of dichotomy of general versus special geography?

(1) Immanuel Kant

(2) Sebastian Munster

(3) Bernhard Varenius

(4) Peter Apian

Answer- 3

33. Which of the following pairs does not match?

Authors Book

(1) Al – Masudi Router and Realms

(2) Al – Balaki Kitabul Ashkal

(3) Al – Biruni Kitab – al- Hind

(4) Ibn – Khaldun Muqaddimah

Answer- 1

34. The Hydraulic Slope Theory was propunded by:

(1) R.E. Horton

(2) Darwin

(3) Penck

(4) Mallot

Answer- 1

35. Who among the following scholars emphasized on the Behavioural Approach in Geography?

(1) Johnston

(2) Kirk

(3) Burton

(4) Gregory

Answer- 2

36. Which one of the following in the correct sequences of German geographers contributing to the developemnt of geographical thought?

(1) Ratzel – Troll – Hettner - Peschel

(2) Peschel – Hettner - Ratzel - Troll

(3) Peschel – Ratzel – Hettner - Troll

(4) Troll- Hettner – Peschel – Ratzel

Answer- 3

37. ‘The same environment carries different meanings to people with different ways of living and culture’. This statement is related to which one of the following concepts?

(1) Probablism

(2) Determinism

(3) Possibilism

(4) Stop and Go Determinism

Answer- 3

38. Which school of thought first developed the idea of possiblism?

(1) Russian School

(2) German School

(3) British School

(4) French School

Answer- 4

39. “The dominant idea of all geographical progress is that of terrestrial unity”. This statement is attributed to:

(1) Friedrich Ratzel

(2) Vidal de la Blache

(3) Richard Hartshorne

(4) Jean Brunhes

Answer- 2

40. Which one among the following perspectives was responsible for redicap transformation in the sprit and purpose of geography?

(1) Structuralism

(2) Post - modernism

(3) Humanism

(4) Quantification

Answer- 4

41. Which one of the following states in India recored the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?

(1) Uttarakhand

(2) Tamil Nadu

(3) West Bengal

(4) Himachal Pradesh

Answer- 3

42. Which one of the following countries recorded highest pop[ulation density as per U.N. Demographic Year Book, 2010?

(1) India

(2) Japan

(3) Bangladesh

(4) Pakistan

Answer- 3

43. Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the threshold according to Central Place Model?

(1) Point at which consumer movement is minimum

(2) Distance far which consumer will travel for a service

(3) Minimum number of people needed to support a service

(4) Economic base of a centre

Answer- 3

44. Which one of the following groups of states in Indian recorded Sex Ratio higher than 950 according to year 2011 census?

(1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Telengana

(2) Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra

(3) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh

(4) Haryana, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

Answer- 1

45. Which one of the following Models is explained by the given figure below?

(1) Weber’s Model

(2) Central Place Model

(3) Von Thunen Model

(4) Gravity Model

Answer-2

46. Which one of the following code is correctly depicting the pattern of distribution of population among cities by ‘d’ curve in the given graph?

Code:

(1) Primate

(2 Stepped order

(3) Binary

(4) Rank Size Rule

Answer-3

47. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) ii iii iv i

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) iv iii ii i

Answer-2

48. Which one of the following statements indicates to the potential use of a service at a location according to Gravity Model?

(1) Direct relationship to both population size and distance

(2) Inverse relationship to both population size and distance

(3) Direct relationship to both population size and inverse relationship to distance

(4) Direct relationship to distance and inverse relationship to population

Answer-3

49. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Demographic terms)

(a) Cohart

(b) Natural increase

(d) Dependency ratio

List-II

(Explanation)
(i) birth rate minus deah rate

(ii) A population group unified by a specific common characteristic

(iii) Average number of children that a women will bear through her child bearing years

(iv) Measure in terms of number of dependants against productive age groups

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii iv ii i

(2) ii i iii iv

(3) i iv iii ii

(4) iv ii i iii

Answer- 2

50. Which one of the following groups of states of India recorded more than one fourth of total population of the country in the census year 2011?

(1) Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Punjab

(2) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka

(3) Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab

(4) Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana

Answer-2

51. Among the following scholars, who introduced the concept of ‘Least-Transport-Cost Location’ using the frame of ‘Location triangle’.

(1) W.Isard

(2) M.K Bandman

(3) D.M. Smith

(4) A. Weber

Answer-4

52. . Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Economy)

(a) Subsistence Economy

(b) Commercial Economy

(d) Extensive Subsistence Economy

List-II
(Features)

(i) Market competition as primary force shaping the production patterns

(ii) Self-sufficiency, low production and low population density

(iii) Self-sufficiency, high production and high population density

(iv) Little exchange of goods and only limited need for markets

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) ii iii i iv

(2) iv i iii ii

(3) iii ii iv i

(4) i iv iii ii

Answer- 2

53. Which one of the following code is correct showing number of vertices, edges, and diameter for the given network?

Vertices Edges Diameter

(1) 10 7 5

(2) 10 10 7

(3) 10 5 6

(4) 10 8 7

Answer- 2

54. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Whitlessey’ Agricultural Religions)

(a) Commercial Dairy Farming

(b) Commercial Grain Farming

(d) Commericial Plantations

List-II
(Name of Countries)
(i) Argentina
(ii) Sri Lanka
(iii) New Zealand
(iv) Mangolia

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii i iv ii

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) ii iv i iii

Answer-1

55. Which one of the following factors most dominants in the selections of high- tech firms of Silicon Valley in California?

(1) Cheap labour

(2) Access to the market

(3) High speed transportation

(4) Agglomeration economy

Answer-4

56. The Rimmer model for the development of land transport system in less developed economics was proposd in which of the following years?

(1) 1975

(2) 1976

(3) 1977

(4) 1978

Answer-3

57. The formula P1= Y/Yn / T/Tn where P1= Agricultural Productivity Index; Y= Total production of selected crops in unit area; Yn= Total production of same selected crops at national level; T= Total cropped area of the unit; Tn = Total cropped area at national scale.

Who applied this formula for measuring agricultural productivity levels?

(1) Bhatia

(2) Enyedi

(3) Weaver

(4) Shafi

Answer- 2

58. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Countires)

(a) Liberia

(b) Guinea

(d) Niger

List-II
(Mineral Reserve)
(i) Argentina
(ii) Sri Lanka
(iii) New Zealand
(iv) Mangolia

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) i iv iii ii

(3) ii i iv iii

(4) iii ii i iv

Answer-2

59. Which one of the following conditions Alfred Weber introduced in his concept of ‘Locational Triangle’?

(1) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are found universally

(2) ‘R1’ is fixed but ‘R2’ is found everywhere and both are pure

(3) Both ‘R1’ and R2 are fixed and pure

(4) Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are fixed and gross

(Where: ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are two raw materials)

Answer- 4

60. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Sectors of the Economy)

(a) Primary

(b) Secondary

(d) Quaternary

List-II
(Activities)
(i) Research endavours
(ii) Train services
(iii) Pearl culture
(iv) Spinning cotton year

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) ii i iv iii

(4) iv iii i ii

Answer-2

61. In which one of the following book/work did Mackinder in 1919 renamed his theory of ‘pivot area’ as ‘Heartland’?

(1) World war and geography

(2) The Democratic ideals and Reality

(3) The round world and the winning of the peace

(4) Foreign Affairs

Answer-2

62. The Organic Theory of state was propounded by:

(1) Ratzel

(2) Mackinder

(3) Isaiah Bowman

(4) Haushoffer

Answer-1

63. The book ‘Geography of Peace’ is authored written by:

(1) Mahan

(2) Spykman

(3) Haushoffer

(4) Ratzel

Answer-2

64. Which of the following catagories does Chile belong to its physical shape?

(1) Compact and elongated

(2) Elongated

(3) Fragmented and elongated

(4) Fragmented

Answer-2

65. Whose works epitomized the relationship or political geography with foreign policy?

(1) Adolf Hitler

(2) Friedrich Ratzel

(3) Mackinder

(4) Karl Haushofer

Answer-4

66. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Country)

(a) Luxembourg

(b) Algeria

(d) Kazakistan

List-II
(Official Language)
(i) Arabic
(ii) Russian
(iii) French
(iv) Spanish

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i iii ii iv

(2) ii iv iii i

(3) iii i iv ii

(4) iv ii i iii

Answer-3

67. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Names of Books)

(a) Human Universals

(b) The Social Conquest of the Earth

(d) Coevolution

List-II
(Names of Authors)
(i) W.H. Durham
(ii) Donald E. Brown
(iii) Edward O-Wilson
(iv) Peter J. Richerson

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) ii iii iv i

(4) iii iv i ii

Answer-3

68. In India how many are the oficially recognised languages?

(1) 20

(2) 21

(3) 22

(4) 23

Answer-3

69. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Religious Community)

(a) Christian

(b) Buddhist

(d)Jains

List-II
(Population Share (%), 2011)
(i) 1.7
(ii) 0.4
(iii) 2.3
(iv) 0.7

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) ii i iv iii

Answer-3

70. Which of the following characteristic features are possessed by the nordic race of India?

(1) Long stature and round face

(2) Medium stature and round face

(3) Medium stature and long face

(4) Long stature and long face

Answer-4

71. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the selection indicators for conducting any study of development process?

(1) Either input or output indicators must be selected

(2) Negative and positive indicators must not be clubbed with each other

(3) Indicators must emerge out of the concept of development defined in the study.

(4) Indicators of income and expenditure can be clubbed together

Answer-1

72. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Name of City)

(a) Kanchipuram

(b) Jaisalmer

(d) Bhilai

List-II
(Period of being planned)
(i) Post-Independence
(ii) Colonial
(iii) Medieval
(iv) Ancient

Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iv iii ii i

Answer-4

73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The partition of India in 1947 provided an impetus for town planning activities in the country.

Reason (R): Resettlement of displaced persons and providing them employment opportunities crated a big opportunity before the town planners to construct new town and make provision of amenities and facilities n existing towna especially in north Indian states.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer-1

74. Which one of the following criteria was used to demarcate 15 agroclimatic regions, which were accepted by the Planning Commission of India (mow NITI Aayog) to initiate regional approach to agricultural planning during the eighth Five-Yar Plane?

(1) Climate, soil charateristics, and rainfall

(2) Climate, soil charateristics and water availability

(3) Climate, soil charateristics, rainfall and water availability

(4) Climate, cropping pattern, rainfall and water availability

Answer-3

75. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Name of scholars developed scheme for delineation of planning regions)

(a)Bhat and Prakasarao

(b) P. Sengupta

(d) V. Nath

List-II
(Period of being planned)
(i) 42
(ii) 35
(iii) 48
(iv) 51

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iv i ii iii

Answer- 4

76. Which one of the following criteria was used to delineate the National Capital Region for planning purpose?

(1) Functional unity and Physiographic characteristics

(2) Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and demographic charateristics

(3) Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and distance from New Delhi

(4) Functional unity, Physiographic and demographic and Administrative contiguity

Answer-4

77. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Dimension of developemnt)

(a) Economic

(b) Social

(d) Ecological and Environmental

List-II
(Indicator of development)
(i) Percentage of reclaimed land to total waste land
(ii) Percentage of minority voters to total minority electors
(iii) Percentage of female literates to total female population
(iv) Agriculture production per hectare

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iv iii ii i

Answer-4

78. Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of developmnt?

(1) Development is a continuous process

(2) Development is a multi- faceted processd

(3) Development stands for growth without change

(4) Meaning of development change in time and space.

Answer-3

79. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A perspective plan may also be termed as long term plan

(2) Perspective plans are prepared for a period of 20-25 years

(3) A perspective plan do not ensure flexiblity

(4) Perspective plan ensure spatial integraton of plans at different hierarchical levels.

Code:

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) (a) and (b) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Answer-4

80. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code giver below:

Statements:

(a) Summation of ranks method is best suited to measure development levels, when data used are highly skewed

(b) Summation of ranks method is quite simple and easy to handle

(d) Use of Principal Component Analysis method should be avoiuded if inter-correlation among different components of development weak or doubtful

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (a) and (b) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(4) (b) and (d) are correct

Answer-1

81. Which one of the following countries holds the first rank in commercial dairy farming?

(1) USA

(2) India

(3) China

(4) Pakistan

Answer-1

82. Which one of the following years the modern cotton textile mill was first of all established in Maharashtra?

(1) 1850

(2) 1854

(3) 1858

(4) 1862

Answer-2

83. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Name of Dams)

(a) Mayurkashi

(b) Mettur

(d) Hirakud

List-II
(States)
(i) Tamil Nadu
(ii) Andhra Pradesh
(iii) Odisha
(iv) West Bengal

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iv i ii iii

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) iii ii iv i

Answer-1

84. Which one of the following dates is correct for the normal withdrawl of south-west monsoon from Indian Territory?

(1) September, 1

(2) September, 5

(3) September, 10

(4) September, 15

Answer-1

85. Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh is known for which one of the following are deposits?

(1) Bauxite

(2) Anthracite

(3) Magnetite

(4) Muscovite

Answer-3

86. Who among the following architect-planner prepared Master Plan for Chandigrah City?

(1) Charles Correa

(2) Frank Lloyd Wright

(3) Edwin Lutyens

(4) Le-Corbusier

Answer- 4

87. Jharkhand ranks third after which one of the following group of states in the availability of coal reserves in India?

(1) West Bengal and Chhatisgarh

(2) Odisha and Chhatisgarh

(3) Odisha and West Bengal

(4) Chhatisgarh and Karnataka

Answer-2

88. Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is fasmous for:

(1) Engineering and Machine tools

(2) Wool Textiles

(3) Automobiler and Autocomponents

(4) Dairy products

Answer-3

89. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(States)

(a) Haryana

(b) Karnataka

(d) Punjab

List-II
(Per Capitya SGDP in, 000; 2015-16)
(i) 156
(ii) 115
(iii) 180
(iv) 146

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iv i ii iii

Answer-3

90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): India has not been able to bridge its trade deficity.

Reason (R): India’s exports in terms of value has been declining.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer-3

91. Match the List-I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(Map Type)

(a) Chorochromatic

(b) Choroschematic

(d) Isopleth

List-II
(Information Content)
(i) Showing regional variation in distribution by shades
(ii) areal distribution by Tints
(iii) showing imaginary lines joining places of equal value
(iv) areal distribution by symbols

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i iv ii iii

(2) iv i iii ii

(3) ii iv i ii

(4) iv ii iii i

Answer-3

92. On a topographical map of 1:50,000 scale the contour interval is given as 10 meters. Place ‘A’ is situated on a contour of 200 m MSL and another place ‘B’ is located on a contour of 240m MSL. The distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ on the map is 4.0 cms. The corrct gradiant between ‘A’ and ‘B’ therefore would be:

(1) 1/30

(2) 1/40

(3) 1/50

(4) 1/60

Answer-3

93. Which one of the following code is correct Rn value of the given distribution of 6 settlements of an area of gentle topography?

(1) 0.95

(2) 1.45

(3) 1.63

(4) 1.86

Answer-1

94. Which one of the following organisatons looks after the receiving and processing of remote sensing data in India?

(1) SHAR Centre

(2) SDS Centre

(3) LPS Centre

(4) NRSC

Answer-4

95. Which one of the following is correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?

(1) Blue-Green-Red-Ultraviolet

(2) Red-Blue-Green-Ultraviolet

(3) Ultraviolet-Blue-Green-Red

(4) Ultraviolet-Green-Blue-Red

Answer-3

96. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Radars are consideredactive sensors.

Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer-2

97. A set of sample of 20 places of mean annual rainfall were randomly selected from a normally distributed universe that has mean rainfall of 320 cm. The sample mean was recorded 250cm with standard of 150 cm. Which one of the following significance tests is correct for the selected samples?

(1) Z - test

(2) X² - test

(3) F - Test

(4) t – test

Answer-4

98. In a frequency distribution of X series having 6 integers wth missing one, X_i, among them, the parameters of calculating mean, X, are as fx = 370 (excluding frequency of missing X_i which is f_i=10) sigma f=58 (includin g frequency of missing integer) and X = 7,586. Which one of the following inters is approximately correct for missing X_i?

(1) 6

(2) 7

(3) 8

(4) 9

Answer-2

99. Which one of the following equations represents a true mathematical characteristics of mean?

(1) Sigma (X-Xbar) = minimum

(2) Sigma (X-Xbar) = 0

(3) Sigma (X-Xbar) = maximum

(4) Sigma (X-Xbar) = infinite

Answer-2

100. Which one of the following scales is correctly measure the rank-siz distribution of settlemnets?

(1) Nomin al

(2) Ordinal

(3) Interval

(4) Ratio

Answer-4

INTERIOR OF THE EARTH WITH MCQ'S

2018-02-14T18:05:00.001+05:30

Click on the download button for PDF (798.5 KB)

INTERIOR OF THE EARTH

MCQ'S ON COASTAL REGIONS OF INDIA

2018-02-13T09:07:00.000+05:30

MCQ's on Coast and Coastal regions of India

1. Which of the following coast is a part of Eastern Coast of India?
a) Konkan Coast
b) Malabar Coast
c) Coromandel Coast
d) Southern Coast

Ans- C

2. Which of the following coast extends from the delta of Krishna to the delta of Ganges?
a) Kakinada Coast
b) Coromandel Coast
c) Southern Coast
d) Malabar Coast
Ans- A

3. Which of the following ports is located on Coromandel Coast?
a) Vishakhapatnam
b) Kalingapattnam
c) Bimalipattnam
d) Nagapattinam
Ans- d

4.Navalakhi port is located on_______ Coast.
a) Konkan
b) Kathiawar
c) Malabar d
) Coromandel
Ans- b

5. Marmgoa Port is located on
a) Konkan Coast
b) Malabar Coast
c) Kathiawar Coast
d) Southern Coast
Ans- A.

6. Which of the following is a submerged coast? a
) Malabar Coast
b) Konkan Coast
c) Southern Coast
d) Kakinada Coast
Ans- C

7. In Andaman Islands there are
a) 301 islands in total
b) 305 islands in total
c) 307 islands in total
d) 309 islands in total
Ans- B

8. India's Southern most point which is located on 6°30' and is 20 km from Great Nicobar is-
a) Kamorata
b) Car Nicobar
c) Indira Point
d) Tankadri
Ans- C

IMPORTANT SHORT NOTES OF GEOGRAPHICAL THOUGHT PART-1

2018-02-10T00:16:00.000+05:30

Important Short Notes of Geographical Thought Part-1

Ø After the Jews and Christians it was the Phoenicians who contributed to the advancement of geographical knowledge.

Ø Phoenicians were the first repositories of geographical knowledge.

Ø Homer believed the earth to be a place of circular form surrounded on all sides by the Ocean River.

Ø Homer described the four winds coming from the four different directions as Bores, Eurus, Notus and Zephyrus.

Ø Thales and Anaximander are generally recognised as the founder of mathematical geography.

Ø Hecataeus is known as the father of geography.

Hecataeus

Ø Hecataeus gives a general survey of the world in his work-Ges-Periodos.

Ø The land situated to the north of Euxine (present Ukraine) had many Greek colonies.

Ø Caspian Sea also known as Hyrcanian during the times of Hecataeus.

Ø Herodotus did not have a clear idea and could not fix the northern limit of Europe.

Ø Herodotus is the first geographer who regarded the Caspian as an inland sea.

Caspian Sea

Ø Herodotus was the first scholar who divided the world and mass into three continents, namely Europe, Asia, and Libya (Africa).

Ø This Scythian people as conceived by Herodotus were divided into several tribes.

Ø Herodotus gave a good account of the Royal Road joining the city of Sardis to Susa.

Sardis to Susa, Royal Road

Ø Herodotus knowledge of Asia was mainly confined to the Persian Empire which sprawled over the whole of Western Asia with the exception of the Arabian Peninsula.

Ø Eratosthenes may be regarded as the first scientific geographer.

Ø Eratosthenes is famous for the correct measurement of the length of equator with the help of an indigenous Apparatus known as gnomon.

Ø Eratosthenes also attempted to determine the distance of the sun and the Moon from the Earth.

Ø Hipparchus was a Greek astronomer and method mathematician who discovered the precession of the equinoxes, calculated the length of the year to within six and half minutes.

Ø Posidonius was an important Greek history and geography who lived shortly before the time of Christ.

Ø Aristotle agreed with the calculation of his predecessors stating that the circumference of the earth is 40,00,000 stadia.

Ø Aristotle explained the phenomenon of expansion of land in shallow sea and the formation of delta.

N.B- Post improvement continue, time to time.

INTERIOR OF THE EARTH WITH MCQ'S

2018-02-09T15:20:00.000+05:30

Available at netsetcorner: Interior of the Earth full Notes

MCQ'S ON THE INTERIOR OF THE EARTH

2018-02-09T00:10:00.001+05:30

MCQ'S ON THE INTERIOR OF THE EARTH

1) Density of the core is highest because-

a) due to heavy pressure of overlying rocks

b) due to heavy temperature of overlying rocks

c) due to heavy density of overlying rocks

d) none of the above

Ans- a

2) The average density of the earth is-

a) 2.3 gm/cm³

b) 5.5 gm/cm³

c) 17.2 gm/cm³

d) 6.5 gm/cm³

Ans- b

3) Who discovered the core-

a) Harold Jeffreys

b) R.D Oldham

c) Inge Lehman

d) none of the above

Ans- b

4) The inner core is solid first proved by-

a) Inge Lehman

b) Suess

c) Cavendish

d) R.D Oldham

Ans- a

5) The source of the Earth's magnetic field is-

a) outer mantle

b) liquid outer core

c) lower crust

d) outer crust

Ans- b

6) On the basis of the satellite data the average density of the core of the earth is-

a) 13 g cm3

b) 12 g cm3

c) 11 g cm3

d) 10 g cm3

Ans-c

7) The core of the earth is made of the mixture of-

a) Silica and nickel

b) Nickel magnesium

c) Silica and magnesium

d) Nickel and iron

Ans-D

8) In the tectonically active areas, temperature remains ________at the depth of 43 km from the surface of the earth.

a) 900° C

b) 1000° C

c) 1100 °C

d) 1200° C

Ans-b

9) In the tectonically stable areas, temperature at the depth of 40 km from the surface remains at-

a) 500° C

b) 550° C

c) 600° C

d) 650° C

Ans- a

10) The asthenosphere is-

a) Totally moltel

b) Partially moltel

c) Totally solid

d) Partially solid

Ans-b

11) Which waves cannot pass through liquid materials?

a) Primary waves

b) Secondary waves

c) Surface waves

d) All of the above

Ans-b

12) Pg - SG waves were discovered by-

a) Jeffrey's

b) Conard

c) Wegener

d) Daly

Ans-a

13) Lithosphere is mostly composed of-

a) Amphibolite

b) Granite

c) Basalt

d) Peridotite

Ans-b

14) Who has recognised two major layers in the earth?

a) Daly

b) Suess

c) Harold Jaffrey

d) Arthur Holmes

Ans- d

15) On the basis of velocity, seismic waves are divided into_______sets of waves-

a) six

b) five

c) four

d) three

Ans-.d

WHAT ARE THE BEST WEBSITES WHICH PROVIDES FREE AND PREMIUM ONLINE COURSES (MOOC)?

2018-02-07T22:57:00.001+05:30

What are the best websites which provides free and Premium online courses(MOOC)?

There are numerous websites in the giant reservoirs of world wide web which provides online courses ,among those some websites are free and some comes with premium. All the sites have different specialization and it's fully depends on what your specific needs are and why do you think you want to take this courses? In which field you are interested in and How this particular course will be suited for your career?

So, here are the list of some famous online course websites-

NovoEd | iVersity | Futurelearn |

Coursera

This site provides the top rated courses by the experts of prestigious universities across the globe like Illinois, Stanford, Duke, Johns Hopkins, Michigan Universities and so on. Here the candidates have to pay a little amount for continuing a course.The important thing provided by coursera is that they provide a financial aid for the students who are keen interest in learning but financially weak.

EDx:

EDx provides 400+ online MOOC courses from the world's best universities and is founded by Harvard University and The Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT).

Udemy :

Udemy is the leading MOOC courses provider in the world, currently it has provided 65,000+ courses with 20 million students worldwide and is founded in 2009 by Kevin Johnson.

Udacity:

Udacity provides MOOC courses along with nanodegrees with partnership with giant industry of Google, Facebook and others. In India, it's headquarter in Bangalore. I think it is more beneficial for the students related to information technology.

Alison:

The online learning platform Alison provides a wide range of different courses in the fields of IT, Language, Science, Health, Humanities, Math, Marketing, Lifestyle etc. It has more than 1.1 million learners across 195 countries over 1,000 courses. Here, the candidates have pay a little amount for verified certificate.

Ecoursem:
This learning platform focus on variety of topics i.e.free certificate courses, free audio books, free language courses, free downloadable courses, free self-paced course and others.The contents fall into some core categories—Self Development, Self Education, Health, Lifestyle, Relationship and Motivation and founded by Shawn Farabi.

Open2Study:
Open2study is the association of the Open Australian Universities. This online platform provides online courses which is absolutely free. But the most important things is that candidates have to secure atleast 60% marks for earning a certificate for that they have to go through 4 assessments. All Candidates will receive a certificates only after the fully completion of the course for this the candidate have to devote 2 to 3 hours per weeks and the duration of maximum courses is about 4 weeks.

Saylor:
Saylor provides online courses free for people anywhere.They offer 100 full length courses at the college and University level according to the candidates own pace and fully in academic in level.

iVersity :
iVersity is a Berlin based online learning platform and their contents is designed for higher education. Here in iVersity, courses are free and open for everyone and it's very easy the candidates just enroll and participate.

NovoEd:

NovoED is founded by Stanford University Professor Amin Saberi and PhD student Farnaz Ronaghi.This also provides a wide range of subjects courses of university program, professional education, corporate training etc. and it is a profit educational technology company.

If you have an enough time and also have a keen interest to expend the horizons of knowledge then you can take any courses. Remember, the only thing you put, is your interest and enthusiasms according to your own pace and thus the MOOC courses are based on the concept of 3A i.e. ANYONE, ANYTIME AND ANYWHERE.

GEOGRAPHY AS AN INTORDUCTION

2018-01-23T14:59:00.000+05:30

Geography as an Introduction

Geography- A Multidimensional Discipline

Geography – the mother of science, not only deals with the earth`s surface but the universe also. It deals with all possible ways of life. Geography is highly interdisciplinary.

Geography is the study of earth`s landscapes, peoples, places and environments. It is quite simply discuss about the world we live. Geography is in the broadest sense, an education for life and for living.

Simply we can say that Geography is the science of the surface of the earth and it habitants.

It is one of the oldest and most diverse field of study, so it offers an introduction to a unique of eventual careers. Bergman and Renwick explain that “Geography is the study of the interaction of all physical and human phenomenon at individual place and how interaction among places form patterns and organize space” in the book namely “Introduction to Geography-People, Place and Environment”.

Geography as an important subject which tries to study about the physical as well as manmade aspects of the earth and also studies the spatial variation on the earth’s surface. It is the major discipline that is concerned with the identification, analysis and interpretation of spatial distribution of phenomena and their areal associations as they occur on the surface of the earth.

Some Definitions according to scholar's:

Richard Hartshorne:

“To provide accurate orderly and rational description and interpretation of variable character of earth surface.”

Gregg Wassmandorf, 1995:

“Geography is the study of the patterns and processes of human (built) and environmental (natural) landscapes comprise real (objective) and perceived (subjective) space.”

Stamp:

“Geography is the description of surface of the earth, spatial differences and their relationship”

INTRODUCTION

According to Greek Scholar Eratosthenes-the word geography has been derived from two Greek words GEO-means ‘Earth’ and GRAPHIA-means ‘Descriptions’.

We in geography focus our attention to study the earth surface as the home of man. Ackerman in 1965 defined geography as “the study of spatial distribution and space relation of the earth surface”.

Following are the major concepts which have been emerged from the definitions of geography by different scholars:-
Earth Surface
Location
Aerial differentiation
Spatial Organization
Spatial distribution
Ecological regions
Man- nature interaction
Cultural appraisal of the earth
Time and Scale
Cause and effect relation

However, we specially focus on the followings:-
Earth Surface
Aerial differentiation
Spatial interaction
Cultural appraisal
Socio-economic condition
Cause-effect relation
Unity in diversity

GEOGRAPHICAL THOUGHT MCQ'S

2018-01-20T15:33:00.000+05:30

Geographical Thought MCQ'S

NOV 2017

1. Who among the following defined Geography as human ecology?

(1) Hartshorne

(2) Schaefer

(3) Barrows

(4) Richthofen

Answer: 3

POLITICAL GEOGRAPHY MCQ'S

2018-01-19T21:53:00.000+05:30

Political Geography UGC NET

NOV 2017

1. Which one of the following principles denotes K-4 of Christaller’s Model of Central Places?

1) Market

2) Administrative

3) Transport

4) Economic

Answer: 3

2. Whose portrayals epitomised the relationship of Political Geography to foreign policy?

1) Adolf Hitler

2) Winston Churchill

3) Karl Haushofer

4) Isaiah Bowman

Answer: 3

OCEANOGRAPHY MCQ'S

2018-01-19T21:50:00.001+05:30

OCEANOGRAPHY MCQ'S UGC NET

2017 NOV

1. Who among the following scholars has given the subsidence theory relating to coral-reefs?

(1) Dally

(2) Davis

(3) Dutton

(4) Darwin

Answer: 4

HUMAN GEOGRAPHY MCQ'S

2018-01-19T21:44:00.002+05:30

HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
MCQ'S UGC NET

1. Which one of the following is not included in the Ravenstein’s Laws of migration?

(1) Most migrants proceeds step by step

(2) Most migrants go for short distance

(3) Most migrants move from Urban to Rural area

(4) Most migrant are adults

Answer: 3

GEOMORPHOLOGY MCQ'S UGC NET

2018-01-19T21:42:00.001+05:30

GEOMORPHOLOGY MCQ'S

NET NOV 2017

1. ‘Mohorovicic discontinuity’ marks the boundary between:

(1) Continental Shelf and Ocean crust

(2) Asthenosphere and lithosphere

(3) Crust and the upper mantle

(4) Core and the mantle

Answer: 3

ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY MCQ'S UGC NET

2018-01-19T21:39:00.000+05:30

Economic geography MCQ'S (Agricultural & Industrial Geography)
MCQ's

1. Among the following, who developed the formula Σd2n for calculating crop combination?

(1) Doi

(2) J. C. Weaver

(3) Pownall

(4) Rafiullah

Answer: 2

CLIMATOLOGY MCQ'S UGC NET

2018-01-19T21:33:00.001+05:30

CLIMATOLOGY

NOV 2017
Climatology MCQ'S

1. Which one of the following ranges of percentage of increase of CO2 in the atmosphere since 1750 is correct? (NOV 17)

(1) 5-10%

(2) 10-15%

(3) 15-30%

(4) More than 30%

Answer: 4