Making School A Little Easier

Biology Review and Vocabulary Part 4

2012-01-01T21:39:00.002-08:00

arbuscular mycorrhizae- A distinct type of endomycorrhiza formed by glomeromycete fungi, in which the tips of the fungal hyphae that invade the plant roots branch into tiny treelike structures called arbuscles.

asci-A saclike spore capsule located at the tip of the ascocarp in dikaryotic hyphae; defining feature of the Ascomycota division of fungi.

ascocarps-The macroscopic fruiting body of a sac fungus.

ascomycetes-Member of the phylum Ascomycetes. Sac fungi range in size and complexity from unicellular yeasts to minute leafspot fungi to elaborate cup fungi and morels. About half of the sac fungi live with algae in the mutualistic associations called lichens.

basidiocarps-Elaborate fruiting body of a dikaryotic mycelium of a club fungus

basidiomycetes-The common name for members of the phylum Basidiomycota. The name comes from the club-like shape of the basidium.

basidium- A reproductive appendage that produces sexual spores on the gills of mushrooms. The fungal division Basidiomycota is named for this structure.

chitin-A structural polysaccharide of an amino sugar found in many fungi and in the exoskeletons of all arthropods.

coenocytic-Referring to a multinucleated condition resulting from the repeated division of nuclei without cytoplasmic division.

conidia-A naked, asexual spore produced at the ends of hyphae in ascomycetes.

dikaryotic-Referring to a mycelium with two haploid nuclei per cell, one from each parent.

ectomycorrhizal fungi-A type of mycorrhiza in which the mycelium forms a dense sheath, or mantle, over the surface of the root. Hyphae extend from the mantle into the soil, greatly increasing the surface area for water and mineral absorption.

endomycorrhizal fungi-A type of mycorrhiza that, unlike ectomycorrhizae, does not have a dense mantle ensheathing the root. Instead, microscopic fungal hyphae extend from the root into the soil.

exoenzymes-A powerful hydrolytic enzyme secreted by a fungus outside its body to digest food.

glomeromycetes-Member of the fungal phylum Glomeromycota, characterized by forming a distinct branching form of endomycorrhizae (symbiotic relationships with plant roots) called arbuscular mycorrhizae.

haustoria- In symbiotic fungi, specialized hyphae that can penetrate the tissues of host organisms.

heterokaryon-A mycelium formed by the fusion of two hyphae that have genetically different nuclei.

hyphae-A filament that collectively makes up the body of a fungus.

karyogamy-The fusion of nuclei of two cells, as part of syngamy.

mold-A rapidly growing fungus that reproduces asexually by producing spores.

mycorrhizae-Mutualistic associations of plant roots and fungi.

myscosis-The general term for a fungal infection.

opisthokonts-Member of the clade Opisthokonta, organisms that descended from an ancestor with a posterior flagellum, including fungi, animals, and certain protists

pheromones-In animals and fungi, a small, volatile chemical that functions in communication and that in animals acts much like a hormone in influencing physiology and behavior.

plasmogamy-The fusion of the cytoplasm of cells from two individuals; occurs as one stage of syngamy.

sac fungi-Member of the phylum Ascomycetes. Sac fungi range in size and complexity from unicellular yeasts to minute leafspot fungi to elaborate cup fungi and morels. About half of the sac fungi live with algae in the mutualistic associations called lichens.

Seta- the elongated stalk of a bryophyte sporophyte such as in moss

soredia-Small clusters of lichen hyphae with embedded algae.

yeast-Single-celled fungi that inhabit liquid or moist habitats and reproduce asexually by simple cell division or by the pinching of small buds off a parent cell.

deuteromycetes- .(imperfect fungus) Traditional classification for a fungus with no known sexual stage. When a sexual stage for a so-called deuteromycete is discovered, the species is assigned to a phylum. Also called an imperfect fungus.

zoospores-Flagellated spore occurring in chytrid fungi.

zygomycetes-Member of the fungal phylum Zygomycota, characterized by forming a sturdy structure called a zygosporangium during sexual reproduction

zygosporangium-in zygomycete fungi, a sturdy multinucleate structure in which karyogamy and meiosis occur.

Biology Review and Vocabulary Part 3

2012-01-01T21:39:00.000-08:00

Anthers-in an angiosperm the terminal pollen sac of a stamen where pollen grains with male gametes form

basal angiosperms- the most primitive lineages of flowering plants including amborella, water lilies and star anise and relatives

carpels – the ovule producing reproductive organ of a flower consisting of the stigma, style and ovary

conifers –a member of the largest gymnosperm. Most conifers are cone bearing trees such as pines and firs

cotyledons-a seed leaf of an angiosperm embryo. Some species have one cotyledon others have two

cross pollination -In angiosperms, the transfer of pollen from an anther of a flower on one plant to the stigma of a flower on another plant of the same species

dicots-A term traditionally used to refer to flowering plants that have two embryonic seed leaves, or cotyledons. Recent molecular evidence indicates that dicots do not form a clade (see eudicots

double fertilization-A mechanism of fertilization in angiosperms, in which two sperm cells unite with two cells in the embryo sac to form the zygote and endosperm.

embryo sac-The female gametophyte of angiosperms, formed from the growth and division of the megaspore into a multicellular structure with eight haploid nuclei.

endosperms -A nutrient-rich tissue formed by the union of a sperm cell with two polar nuclei during double fertilization, which provides nourishment to the developing embryo in angiosperm seeds.

eudicots -A clade consisting of the vast majority of flowering plants that have two embryonic seed leaves, or cotyledons.

filament -The stalk of a stamen.

flowers -In an angiosperm, a short stem with up to four sets of modified leaves, bearing structures that function in sexual reproduction.

fruit -A mature ovary of a flower that protects dormant seeds and aids in their dispersa

integuments Layer of sporophyte tissue that contributes to the structure of an ovule of a seed plant.

magnoliids -A flowering plant clade that evolved later than basal angiosperms but before monocots and eudicots. Extant examples are magnolias, laurels, and black pepper plants.

micropyle -A pore in the integument(s) of an ovule

monocots -A clade consisting of flowering plants that have one embryonic seed leaf, or cotyledon.

Ovary-(1) In flowers, the portion of a carpel in which the egg-containing ovules develop. (2) In animals, the structure that produces female gametes and reproductive hormones.

pericarp -The thickened wall of a fruit.

petals -A modified leaf of a flowering plant. Petals are the often colorful parts of a flower that advertise it to insects and other pollinators

pistil –a single carpel or a group of fused carpels

pollen grains-The structures that contain the male gametophyte of seed plants.

pollination -The transfer of pollen to the part of a seed plant containing the ovules, a process that is a prerequisite for fertilization.

pro-gymnosperms-

receptacle-The base of a flower; the site of attachment of the floral organs to the stem.

seed -An adaptation for terrestrial plants consisting of an embryo packaged along with a store of food within a resistant coat.

sepals -A modified leaf in angiosperms that helps enclose and protect a flower bud before it opens.

stamen-The pollen-producing male reproductive organ of a flower, consisting of an anther and filament.

stigma -The sticky part of a flower’s carpel, which traps pollen grains

style-The stalk of a flower’s carpel, with the ovary at the base and the stigma at the top

Biology Review and Vocabulary Part 2

2012-01-01T21:38:00.002-08:00

Anaerobic Respiration-The use of inorganic molecules other than oxygen to accept electrons at the "downhill" end of electron transport chains.

Biofilms- A surface-coating colony of prokaryotes that engage in metabolic cooperation.

Bioremediation- The use of living organisms to detoxify and restore polluted and degraded ecosystems.

Capsule-The sporangium of a bryophyte (moss, liverwort,or hornwort).

Chemoautotrophs- An organism that must obtain both energy and carbon by consuming organic molecules. Commensalism- A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits but the other is neither helped nor harmed. Decomposers- Any of the saprobic fungi and prokaryotes that absorb nutrients from non-living organic material such as corpses, fallen plant materials, and the wastes of living organisms, and convert them into inorganic forms.

Endospore- A thick-coated, resistant cell produced within a bacterial cell exposed to harsh conditions.

Endotoxins- A toxic component of the outer membrane of certain gram-negative bacteria that is released only when the bacteria die.

Exotoxins- A toxic protein that is secreted by a prokaryote and that produces specific symptoms even in the absence of the prokaryote.

Extreme Halophiles-A prokaryote that lives in a highly saline environment, such as the Great Salt Lake or the Dead Sea.

Extreme Thermophiles-A prokaryote that thrives in hot environments (often 60~80°C or hotter)

Extremophiles - A prokaryote that lives in an extreme environment. Extremophiles include methanogens, extreme halophiles, and extreme thermophiles.

Facultative Anaerobes- An organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present but that switches to fermentation under anaerobic conditions.

Fimbriae- A short, hairlike prokaryotic appendage that functions in adherence to the substrate or to other cells. Gram-negative- Describing the group of bacteria with a cell wall that is structurally more complex and contains less peptidoglycan than that of gram- positive bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria are often more toxic than gram-positive bacteria.

Gram-positive- Describing the group of bacteria with a cell wall that is structurally less complex and contains more peptidoglycan than that of gram-negative bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria are usually less toxic than gram- negative bacteria.

Gram Stain- A staining method that distinguishes between two different kinds of bacterial cell wall.

Host-The larger participant in a symbiotic relationship, serving as home and feeding ground to the symbiont. Methanogens- A microorganism that obtains energy by using carbon dioxide to oxidize hydrogen, producing methane as a waste product. Mutualism- A symbiotic relationship in which both participants benefit.

Nitrogen Fixation- The assimilation of atmospheric nitrogen by certain prokaryotes into nitrogenous compounds that can be directly used by plants.

Nucleoid Region- The region in a prokaryotic cell consisting of a concentrated mass of DNA.

Obligate Aerobes- An organism that required oxygen for cellular respiration and cannot live without it.

Obligate Anaerobes- An organism that cannot use oxygen and is poisoned by it.

Parasite-An organism that benefits by living in or on another organism at the expense of the host.

Parasitism- A symbiotic relationship in which the symbiont benefits at the expense of the host by living either within the host or outside the host.

Peptidoglycan- A type of polymer in bacterial cell walls consisting of modified sugars cross-linked by short polypeptides.

Photoautotrophs- An organism that harnesses light energy to drive the synthesis of organic compounds from carbon dioxide.

Pili-A long, hair-like prokaryotic appendage that functions in adherence or in the transfer of DNA during conjugation. Plasmids- A small ring of DNA that carries accessory genes separate from those of a bacterial chromosomes; also found in some eukaryotes, yeast.

Symbiont- The smaller participant in a symbiotic relationship, living in or on the host.

Symbiosis- An ecological relationship between organisms of two different species that live together in direct contact. Taxis-Movement toward or away from a stimulus.

Alternation of generation-A life cycle in which there is both a multicellular diploid form, the sporophyte, and a multicelluular haploid form, the gametophyte; characteristic of plants and some algae.

Amoeba-A protist grade characterized by the presence of pseudopodia.

Apicomplexans- A parasitic protozoan. Some apicomplexans cause human disease.

Blades-A leaflike structure of a seaweed that provides most of the surface area for photosynthesis.

Brown Algae- A phaeophyte; a marine, multicellular, autotrophic protist that is the most common type of seaweed. Brown algae include the kelps.

Cellular Slime Molds-A type of protist that has unicellular amoeboid cells and aggregated reproductive bodies in its life cycle.

Ciliates-A type of protozoan that moves by means of cilia.

Diatoms-A unicellular photosynthetic alga with a unique, glassy cell wall containing silica.

Euglenid- A protist, such as Euglena or its relatives, characterized by an anterior pocket, or chamber, from which one or two flagella emerge.

Foraminifera’s (Forams)-An aquatic protist that secretes a hardened shell containing calcium carbonate and extends pseudopodia through pores in the shell.

Golden Algae- A chrysophyte; a typically unicellular, biflagellated alga with yellow and brown catenoid pigments. Green Algae- A unicellular, colonial, or multicellular photosynthetic protist that has grass-green chloroplasts. Green algae are closely related to true plants.

Heteromorphic- Referring to a condition in the life cycle of all living plants and certain algae in which the sporophyte and gametophyte differ in morphology.

Kinetoplastid- A protist, such as Typanosoma, which has a single large mitochondrion that houses extranuclear DNA. Mixotrophs- An organism that is capable of both photosynthesis and heterotrophy.

Oomycetes- A protist with flagellated cells, such as a water mold, white rust, or drowny mildew that acquired nutrition mainly as a decomposer or plant parasite.

Parabasalids- A protist such as a trichomonad, with modified mitochondria.

Plamodial Slime Molds-A type of protist that has amoeboid cells, flagellated cells, and a plasmodial feeding stage in its life cycle.

Plasmodium- A single mass of cytoplasm containing many diploid nuclei that forms during the life cycle of some slime molds.

Protists-An informal term applied to any eukaryote that is not a plant, animal, or fungus. Most protists are unicellular, though some are colonial or multicellular.

Pseudopodia- A cellular extension of amoeboid cells used in moving and feeding.

Radiolarians- A protist, usually marine, with a shell generally made of silica and pseudopodia that radiate from the central body.

Red Algae- A photosynthetic marine protist that contains the accessory pigment.

Secondary Endosymbiosis-A process in eukaryotic evolution in which a heterothrophic eukaryotic cell engulfed a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell, which survived in a symbiotic relationship inside the heterothrophic cell.

Sporozoite- A tiny infectious cell that represents a stage in the apicomplexan life cycle.

Stipe-A stemlike structure of a seaweed.

Tests-The hardened shell of some protists, including forams and rediolarians, or the rigid endoskeleton of a sea urchin or sand dollar.

thallus-A seaweed body that is plantlike but lacks true roots, stems and leaves.

Biology Review and Vocabulary Part 1

2012-01-01T21:38:00.000-08:00

1.Which characteristic below is shared by plants, fungi, and animals? (Concept 32.1)All are multicellular eukaryotes.

2.Animals probably evolved from colonial protists. How do animals differ from these protist ancestors? (Concept 32.1)Animals have more specialized cells.

3During the development of most animals, cleavage leads to _____. (Concept 32.1)the formation of a blastula

4.Which example below is a common feature of all animals? (Concept 32.1)a homeobox-containing family of genes called Hox genes

5Which example below is not a current hypothesis regarding the Cambrian explosion? (Concept 32.2)An increase in atmospheric CO2 led to an explosion of plants and life-forms that fed on them.

6.Which of the following occurred during the Mesozoic era? (Concept 32.2)

The tetrapod body plan became modified for powered flight in birds.

7.Symmetry is one of the most basic characteristics of animals. The group that has a different symmetry from the other four groups listed here is the _____. jellies

8.Which of the following is associated with bilateral symmetry? cephalization

9.Cephalization" refers to having _____.a head

10.Unlike other animals, sponges _____.lack true tissues

11.Which of the following is not a characteristic of cnidarians? mesoderm

12.Ectoderm can give rise to _____; mesoderm can give rise to _____; endoderm can give rise to _____. the central nervous system ... muscle ... the lining of the digestive tube

13.All animals with bilateral symmetry have _____ germ tissue layer(s). (Concept 32.3)

three

14.A true coelom is _____. (Concept 32.3)a body cavity lined with mesoderm

5.One of the primary developmental/anatomical characteristics distinguishing the major animal phyla is the condition of the body cavity. A pseudocoelomate animal is one in which the body cavity is _____.

bounded partly by mesoderm

16.The difference between pseudocoelomates and coelomates is that pseudocoelomates _____, whereas coelomates _____. (Concept 32.3)

have a body cavity partially lined with tissue derived from mesoderm ... have a body cavity completely lined with tissue derived from mesoderm

17.he presence of a coelom is advantageous because _____. (Concept 32.3)

it allows room for the development and movement of internal organs

18.Which example below is not a major feature of animal body plans? type of eye

19The zygotes of many protostomes undergo _____ development and _____ cleavage. (Concept determinate ... spiral

20.An animal with a true coelom that has _____ cleavage must be a _____. (Concept 32.3)

radial ... deuterostome

21.Which of the following is not a difference between protostomes and deuterostomes? (Concept 32.3)

22.Protostomous animals are those in which the _____. (Concept 32.3)cell fate is determined early during embryonic development

23.n the text you studied two phylogenetic hypotheses regarding the relationships of the animal phyla. The tree that is based on molecular evidence differs from the tree based on morphological evidence in that it _____. (Concept 32.4)divides protostomes into two taxa

24.One of the two taxa that molecular studies divide the protostomes into is called Ecdysozoa. What characteristic is this taxon named for? (Concept 32.4)

the secretion of stiff external skeletons that must be shed to allow for growth

Sponges feed by _____. filtering small particles from water

2.Sponges lack _____. (Concept 33.1)all of the above

3.Some digestion in sponges takes place in the _____. amoebocytes

4.Which characteristic is not true of sponges All of the above are characteristics of sponges.

5.Which one of following features is characteristic of the poriferan (sponge) body plan or life history? motile larvae

6.Some cnidarians go through both a motile and a sessile (attached) stage during their life cycle. The attached stage is called a(n) _____. polyp

7.Through what means do coral animals capture their food? (Concept 33.2)tentacles that trap food particles

8._____ are members of the phylum _____ and feed by _____. (Concept 33.2)

Corals ... Cnidaria ... using stinging cells to capture small animals that venture too close to them

9.Jellies and corals are members of the same _____, all members of which _____. (Concept 33.2)

phylum ... have special stinging cells on their tentacles

10.The choanocyte of a sponge and the nematocyst of a cnidarian both function in _____. (Concept 33.2)obtaining food

11.Which of the following statements does not describe the phylum Cnidaria? (Concept 33.2)

This phylum has more species than any other phylum.

12.Tapeworms are highly specialized worms that make their living as endoparasites. To which of the following phyla and classes do the tapeworms belong? phylum Platyhelminthes, class Cestoidea

13.Which of the following classes is (are) totally parasitic? (Concept 33.3)Cestoidea and Trematoda

14.The proglottids of a tapeworm contain an elaborate _____ system. (Concept 33.3)

reproductive

Some species of rotifers undergo parthenogenesis, which means that _____. (Concept 33.8)

the species consists of only females that produce more females from unfertilized eggs

16.Consider the following list of animals: giant squid, earthworm, largemouth bass, snail, tapeworm, coral, and starfish. The two that belong to the same phylum are the _____, and their phylum is _____. giant squid and snail ... Mollusca

17.An active marine predator is found possessing these characteristics: a series of tentacles (modified from the foot), a highly developed nervous system, and elaborate eyes. To which of the following animal classes does this organism most likely belong?

Cephalopoda

18.Cephalopods are the only molluscs _____.with a closed circulatory system

19.Annelids _____.all of the above

20.Earthworms are most closely related to _____. (Concept 33.5)leeches

21.The excretory organs of earthworms are called _____. metanephridia

22.During reproduction by the oligochaete earthworm Lumbricus _____. hermaphroditic individuals exchange sperm

23.Which one of the following is not a feature of polychaete worms (phylum Annelida, class Polychaeta)? a water vascular system

24.Leeches are members of the phylum _____. (Concept 33.5)Annelida

25.Which choice includes three different phyla of organisms commonly known as "worms"?

Platyhelminthes, Annelida, Nematoda

26.Animals such as _____ are the simplest animals to have _____.

roundworms ... a complete digestive tract

27.An unidentified species of animal displays the following characteristics: bilateral symmetry, determinate embryonic cleavage, a complete digestive system, an open circulatory system, and distinct body segmentation. To which one of the following animal phyla does this species most likely belong? Arthropoda

28.The arthropods superficially resemble earthworms in that both groups _____, yet the two are distinctly different because arthropods, but not earthworms, _____.

have prominently segmented bodies ... have jointed appendages

29.A major characteristic of arthropods is _____. a chitinous exoskeleton

30In insects, gas exchange is accomplished by _____. (Concept 33.7)

a tracheal system

31.Sowbugs are really crustaceans, not insects. Therefore, a sowbug does not have _____.

three pairs of legs

32.he majority of animal species are _____. insects

33.In arthropods, molting is necessary because _____. the chitinous exoskeleton cannot grow

34.Complete metamorphosis _____. eatures a larval stage that looks different from the adult

35.Which of the following animals are most closely related to spiders? scorpions

36.The water vascular system of a sea star functions in _____. movement of the tube feet

37.Which one of the following statements about the phylum Echinodermata is false?

Echinoderms have true radial symmetry as adults.

38What is one visible feature that makes it easy to identify sea cucumbers as echinoderms? They have five rows of tube feet.

1.If an animal has segments, bilateral symmetry, pharyngeal clefts, a post-anal tail, and deuterostomic development, it must be a member of the phylum _____. Chordata

2.A _____ is a chordate but not a vertebrate. lancelet

3.Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly? Gnathostomata ... hagfish

4.A lamprey, a shark, a lizard, and a rabbit share all the following characteristics except _____. hinged jaws

5.Some sharks are viviparous, which means that _____.the young develop within the female's body

6.The gill flap, or operculum, was an important adaptation for fish because it helps with _____.

maintaining a supply of oxygen

7.A feature of bony fish not found in sharks is _____. a swim bladder

8.The first vertebrates to live on land were _____. amphibians

9.The development that freed vertebrates from water for reproduction and allowed them to radiate into diverse terrestrial environments was the _____. amniotic egg

10.Which of the following characteristics is not shared by extant birds and extant reptiles?

endothermic metabolism

11.All mammals _____. nourish their offspring through mammary glands

12.The opossum is an example of a(n) _____ mammal. marsupial

13.Primates are distinguished from other mammals by _____. opposable thumbs, nails, and good depth perception

14.Humans and the slender loris share many traits that probably evolved in our early primate ancestors, including _____. a thumb that is relatively mobile and separate from the fingers

15Humans, apes, and monkeys are classified together as _____. anthropoids

16.If you were to observe a monkey in a zoo, which characteristic would indicate a New World origin for that monkey species? use of the tail to hang from a tree limb

17.Included among the modern genera of apes are ______. gibbons, orangutans, gorillas, chimpanzees, and bonobos

18.Which of the following traits distinguishes hominids from apes?

bipedalism (upright walking)

19.Which of the following correctly lists probable ancestors of modern humans from the oldest to the most recent? (Concept 34.8)Australopithecus, Homo habilis, Homo erectus

20._____ arose very early in hominid evolution; _____ evolved more recently.Upright posture ... large brains

21.The first species in the genus Homo known to make tools is (was) _____.Homo habilis

22.What was the earliest hominid to have an enlarged brain (relative to body size)? Homo habilis

23.Analysis of mitochondrial DNA and Y chromosomes of modern humans has led most researchers to agree that _____.modern humans emerged from Africa

Psychology Study Guide

2011-12-26T15:11:00.000-08:00

Which of the following emotions has been shown in research to have considerable cross-culture agreement?
Answer
A. fear.

__________ psychologists study the physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes that people experience throughout their lives.
Answer
D.
Developmental

Which of the following types of changes are of interest to a developmental psychologist?
D.
Physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes

A(n) __________ refers to a group of people who lived during the same time period.
Answer
B.
cohort

Xiao is gathering research on the number of meals people eat. He gathers data about the number of daily meals eaten by
25 people at each of the following ages – 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, and 70 years – over the course of one week, and looks for developmental differences. What type of research design is Xiao using?
Answer
B.
Cross-sectional

When attempting to understand developmental transitions that people face throughout their life span, which of the following research designs would be most informative?
Answer
B.
Longitudinal designs

The major issue of __________ explores how development is influenced by both genetics and life experiences.
A. Nature/nurture

Bonus question: Which existed first, the chicken or the egg?
B.
The egg

Which of the following is true concerning the nature–nurture debate?
Answer
B.
Most researchers are either pro-nature or pro-nurture when describing the causes of human behavior.

According to the discrete emotions theory, emotions are ________.
Answer
None of the above

Which of the following emotions would be most difficult to read from facial expression alone?
Answer
A.
Envy

Cultural guidelines that can regulate expression of emotion are called
D.
display rules.

When Rose arrived, she was smiling but with no drooping of eyelids or crinkling in the corners of her
eyes. She is probably showing a(n)
B.
fake emotion.

Larry comes home to find his house on fire. Which of his following statements best represents the
James-Lange theory?
Answer
D.
“I am afraid because I am shaking.”

According to the ________, seeing a crocodile in the swamp would lead simultaneously to both the emotion fear and running away at the same time. However, the ________ would suggest that people are afraid because they run away.
C.
Cannon-Bard theory of emotion; James-Lange theory of emotion

Among the major principles guiding attraction and relationship formation, ________ plays a more important role when a relationship moves to deeper levels.
C. reciprocity

The tendency to overestimate people's fragility and underestimate their resilience is known as
Answer
A.
clinician's illusion.

Stress is a(n) _________ while a stressor is a(n) _________.
Answer
D.
response; stimulus

Corticosteroids are stress hormones that
Answer
activate the body and prepare it to respond to stressful circumstances.

Which of the following statements is true?
Hassles are minor annoyances or nuisances that tax one's ability to cope.

Many people believe that difficult events such as divorce are caused by stress, and yet they fail to consider the possibility that these events may actually BE the cause of stress. In fact, the relationship may go both ways at the same time! Which concept from this chapter is demonstrated by this uncertain relationship?
Answer
A.
Correlation vs. causation

________ is the mental shortcut we use to judge the likelihood of an event and the ease with which it comes to mind.
B.
The availability heuristic

Jabba the Hutt follows the latest diet fad. This diet requires him to restrict his caloric intake to 1,000 calories a day for several weeks. What kind of diet is this known as?
Crash diet

Which of the following would NOT be useful to help promote a healthy lifestyle?
Reduce unnecessary exercise

More Musical Instruments and Definitions

2011-12-26T14:55:00.000-08:00

Tambura - drone instrument- essential part of every classical concert
-Tambura player generally sits behind the main artist so that they may hear the drone constantly and has to be played by a reliable person such as the soloist's wife or apprentice
- consists of a long unfretted neck which has tuning pegs
-number of string varies from 4 to 6
-strings are plucked continuously with the middle and forefinger of the right hand in a regular pattern

Veena - exclusive to Sound India (Carnatic)- chordophone -
-consists of a hollow resonator carved from a single block of wood which continues as long fretted neck to which is attached a smaller resonator
-neck is curved backwards and at the end is a carved head of a mythological animal
-4 main strings and 3 Tala strings
- gamakas - are used by pulling the string or tala strings which are plucked upwards. The main strings are plucked downwards.

Mridangam- classical drum of South India (Carnatic) and is used an an accompaniment for vocal, instrumental and dance performances
-made of a single block of wood
- barrel shaped double headed drum, right head is smaller than the left
-right head made of 3 layers and tuned to the tonic
-left hand made of 2 layers
-the larger the mridangam, the lower the pitch

Tabla - pair of drums contrasting in sizes and timbres - most common and popular drum in North Indian Music
-contrived from the Arabic word "tabl" which means drum
-membranophone
-extensive use of fingers an palms to create a variety of different sounds
-invented in India
-smaller drum - dominant hand
-larger drum - other hand
-smaller right drum is called the tabla and the larger left drum is called the bayan (bass drum)
- Both drums have a center blackspot made of iron dust or manganese dust.

Raga- more than just a scale of a mode. Verses in the old treatises of music describe a Raga as that which gives pleasure to the mind of the listener
-Every Rage has its own definite characteristics which make it easy for a discerning listen to recognize
- based on a scale of 5, 6 or 7 notes, the Raga has special features such as melodic ornamentations (gamakas) and microtones (srutis)
- Vadi is the most important note in the Rage
- Sann Vadi is the 2nd most important note
-there are Ragas for different times of the day, occasions and seasons
-In the north the time theory of certain rags being sung only at particular times of the day is still prevalent
- the south Indian raga system is based on the Melakarta system

Melakarta System - system of 72 complete parent scales from which Ragas are derived from
- the number of ragas that can be derived from this system is in excess of twenty thousand.

Gharana - refers to a school of music, a family of musicians or a musical lineage connected with the names of a particular place of person
- the characteristic style of gharana is its special style of presentation the result of the special and extraordinary creativity and innovation of a highly talented musician.
- the emergence of the gharana system in our music and its growing importance in the 18th and 19th century had its own impact upon their revolution of raga

Sama'i - 10 beat metre
-composition form based on a 10/8 rhythm witha short section on 6/8 before it returns to 10/8 to complete the piece

Instruments of North Indian Music (Hindustani)
Sitar - one of the most popular stringed instruments in North India
-long neck with 20 metal frets and 6-7 main strings and 13 sympathetic strings, below the maine ones which are tuned to the notes of the rage being played
-chordophone

Sarod-
-orginally came from Afghanistan and was developed during the the 19th Century
- fretless and has 25 strings of which fifteen are sympathetic strings
- a metal gourd attached to the top ends act as resonators

Origins of Indian Music

2011-12-26T13:53:00.001-08:00

-Very Difficult to notate every detail in indian music
- highly developed rhythmic and melodic structure
- Guru -master of his craft or instrument, teacher
- shishya- student
- music originally passed on by oral tradition from on generation to another
- only real way to learn complicated music
- Indian music has its origins in the Vedas (4000BC-1000BC)

Vedas- the most sacred texts which contain about a thousand hymns
- used to preserve poetry, invocations, and mythology, in the form of sacrificial chants dedicated to the Gods.
- text was preserved and passed down by oral tradition
-literature of the Vedas is divided into four parts:
Rig Veda, Sama Veda, Yajur Veda and Atharra Veda.
Rig Veda- oldest veda, Hinduism
- recited in three tones: one main tone and two accents, one higher and the
other lower called Udatta and Anudatta, respectively, done to accentuate the
words since the test was of primary importance.
Yajun Veda - mainly consists of sacrifical formulas
- two main notes with two accents forming the 1st concept of the tetrachord
(four notes)
Sama Veda - laid foundation for Indian music
- 3 more notes were added to original tetrachord resulting in the 1st full scaled
of 7 notes
- importance of the octave
Atharra Veda - collection of formulas that deal with black magic and spells

The Ancient Period => Vedas => Upanishads
- Upanishads - laid the foundation on which philosophies and religions of India are based
- Jati System - what the Raga system is based on
- Natyashastsa- treatise written by Bharata in 300 B.C
- most authoritative and ancient work on the classical science of music and
dance
Matanga- started a scientific classification of scales which was the bases for the later development of the 72 Melakarta system (parent scales)

Nanada - further defined Ragas giving them their 22 names and the microtomes

Medieval Period
Sangeeta Rathakara - another treatise by the great composer and Musician Sarangadeva, deals with classification of Ragas according to the various seasons and different times of the day.
-12th and 13th centuries northern India endured a series of invasion by Muslim rulers from Asia Minor on a crusade to spread Islam throughout the region. Following these invasions, Indian music developed 2 distintive systems: North Indian music (Hindustani) and Sotuth Indian Music (Carnatic)
-Hindustani - influences of Islam together with other cultural, social and political forces
-Karnatic or Carnatic - South Indian music that continued to develop without external influence (traditional)
2 Musical Forms
- Abhyasa Gama - intended for practice as to acquire technical skills
- Sabha Gama- intended for performances before an audience in a concert situation
- all forms have texts
Alap - opening section of a typical North Indian classical performance
-form of melodic improvisation that introduces and develops a raga
Tala - rhythmic pattern of any composition. Timing starts when drum enters (usually a tabla for Hindustani music or a mridangam for Carnatic music
- does not have a fixed tempo and can be played at different speeds.

Musical Instruments of the Arab World

2011-12-26T13:50:00.000-08:00

Musical Instruments of the Arab World
- reflects the unity and the diversity within the music itself
- before World War I, it gradually expanded into an orchestra that contained these Arab instruments and others borrowed from the West:
'Ud- (chordophone)- typical of Egypt. Pear shaped, short-necked, fretless
instrument. It has 5 double course strings made of nylon. It is derived from the
Arabic word meaning "wood". Ziryab added the fifth pair of strings to the 'ud.
- Plucked with an eagle's feather or a piece of plastic
- tuned to G' A' D G C
- suitable for both solo players and ensembles
- known as the the "prince of enchantment" (amir altarab) because of its warm
timbre and microtonal flexibility

Qanun- (chordophone) West Asian. flat zither - type instrument, trapezoidal in shape.

- derived from Arabic word, "Kanun" which means rule, principle and mode

- it has 26 triple courses of strings that are made from nylon or gut and metal wound silk

-plucked with a short horn - pleetra placed between the tip of each index finger and a small metal ring

Nay-(aerophone)West Asia. open-ended, obliquely bown flute, made from reed, not bamboo.

- exhibits a breathy tone

- wide range of almost 2.5 (2 1/2) octaves

- capable of producing dynamic and tonal inflections

- urban instrument

- connected with Sufism

- very ancient instrument appearing in wall paintings in Egyptian pyramids and instruments themselves were found in excavations site in Iraq.

Western Violin - has been fully adopted in the Arab world

- ideal in matters of timing and playing technique

Riqq-(west asia) also called the daff- small tambourine

- has 5 sets of heavy, beaten and molded brass cymbals speaced evenly around the frame

Tablah- Hindustani - also called the darbukkah - vase shaped hand drum

Urban Music of Iraq

- all above instruments are used in addition to the two others which are locally important

- santur

- jawzah - four string spike diddle whose sound box is part of a coconut shell covered in skin

- in urban tradition of Nort Africa, other instruments are essential

Andalusian 'ud of Tunistia - felted neck, four double coarses of strings

- rebab- small boat shaped fiddle whose appearance is somewhat similar to that of the medieval Rebec.

- long thin neck with strings

- united range

- almost heart shaped body made of wood

- chordophone

- West Asia

Levant and Iraq

Bedouin rababah- quadrilateral sound box covered with skin and a single string made from horsehair

- customarily played the sha'ir, or poet singer, to accompany heroic and love songs

- played with horse hair bow

-capable of side range of dynamic accents and ornaments

Mihbaj- (idiophone)- a wood cobble grindes consisting of about a foot tall base and a two foot pestle.

- served the double purpose of being a household item and a percussive instrument

-symbol of affluence, social statues and hospitality

Tabl- large double sided drum

Rayyis - the leading instrumentalist

Sajat - small brass finger cymbals

Asian Music History - Ethnomusicology

2011-12-26T11:08:00.000-08:00

Contact With Assimilated Cultures
- early centuries of Islam - growth of Cosmopolitan cultural confess in Syria under the Umayyads (661-750) and in Iraq under the Abbasids (750-909)
- Ethnic blending= Arabian Music + Syria, Mesopotamia, Byzantium, and Persia music= New Arab Music
- old elements that remained - singing of poetical lyric in Arabic
-new elements - performance techniques, new aspects of information and new musical instruments
Quynat - female slave singers prevalent during early decades

2nd Process- Introduction of scholar of the Islamic world to ancient greek treaties - 9th century
- provided musical nomenclature, most of which was indicated by the names of the singers and the employed when playing the 'ud.
-Abu Nasr Al-Farabi- wrote the the grand treatise on music which discusses sciences of sound, tetrachord, octave species, musical instruments, composition

3rd process Contact with the Medieval West
- Affecting Arab Music- contact between the Islamic Near East and Europe at a time of the Crusades in the 11th, 12th and 13th Centuries and during the Islamic occupation of Spain
Influence in Instruments:
- rebec
- anafil - natural trumpet
-Great influence on Arab Music from Moorish Spain
- development of literary musical form that utilized romantic subject matter and featured strophic texts with refrains
Contrast to qasida-classical arab which followed a continous flow of lines as c
couplet

4th major process
- hegemony of the ottomon turks over syria,palenstine,iraq,the coasts of arabia and much of north africa
-gradual assimilation and exchange
-arab music and turkish music
-Alatiyyan - male instrumentalists entertained male audiences
Awalim - "learned females" entertained female audiences
-instruments - 'ud
nay - flute
Instruments introduced into the Arab World
-Sama'i
- Bashraq

5th Process Contact with the Modern West
- fifth process and most recent - contact between Arab music and the Modern West following the Napoleonic conquest of Egypt (1798-1801) and the subsequent cultural and political interaction among the 19th centuries
- importation of military concepts into Egypt and military school (in which Western instruments and musical notation were employed) from influences of the West.
-Cairo Opera House built - symbol of Westernization in the Muslim World - built by Khedine Isma'il
- European protestant missionaries
- piano, accordion, and mouth organ were becoming common household instruments in Egypt
- continuation and growth of musical theaters

Unifying Traits of Arab Music
- traits contributing to unity in Arab music are numerous
- intimate connection between the music and the Arabic language

Arab Melody
-series of individual pitches are occurring after another in order that the compostire order of pitches constitutes a recognizable entity. It contains unique intervals which give it a distinct quality derived from the maqam.
-absence of complex polyphony - phenomenon that distinguishes music of this part of the world.

Arab Music
-exhibits complexity in melody which is connected with modality known under maqam
- Maqam- based on a theoretical scale, specific notes of emphasize, and typical pattern of melodic movement (plural - maqamat)
-Iqa - Arab rhythm - modal conception and organization of melody.
-Plural Iqa'at - modes employed in various metric composition
- These modes are rendered on percussion instruments within the ensemble including the:
-tablah - vase shaped hand drum
- riqq- small tambourine
- influencing the nature of phrasing and patterns of accentuations
- Iqa consists primarily of rests and beats distinguished by timbre

Egyptian Tradition
- Dumm- deep sound produced by hitting closer to the central position of the drum
- Takk- high pitched clasp sound produced by beating or tapping near the rim of the instrument
- Mutub- main male vocalist
- Within a compound form, which predominate in Arab music, individual pieces may vary in style, improvised as precomposed, featuring a solo singer or chorus, metric

Musical Unity Of Instruments of Contemporary Arabs
- gamen, 'ud, nay, and Western violin are found in most Arab orchestras
- bowed instruments often accompany the solo voice
- social and religious life and music
- Quranic chanting - religious expression in Islam is the prevalent religion of the Arab world. It is non-metric solo performed and based on the Islamic princples of recitation.
-It is half spoken, half sung - declamatory
- Adhan - Islamic call to prayer heard from the minaret
-Muezin - person who calls people to prayer
through composed- each line or stanza is improvised

Modern Electronic Media
- rise of wide scale commercial recording around 1904.
- appearance of musical film in Egypt in 1932
-public radio stations come years later
-Ughniyyah - prevalent song category featuring a solo singer and an elaborate orchestra equipped with both Western and traditional Arab instruments

Musical Instruments of the Arab World
- reflects the unity and the diversity within the music itself
- before World War I, it gradually expanded into an orchestra that contained these Arab instruments and others borrowed from the West:
'Ud- (chordophone)- typical of Egypt. Pear shaped, short-necked, fretless
instrument. It has 5 double course strings made of nylon. It is derived from the
Arabic word meaning "wood". Ziryab added the fifth pair of strings to the 'ud.
- Plucked with an eagle's feather or a piece of plastic
- tuned to G' A' D G C
- suitable for both solo players and ensembles
- known as the the "prince of enchantment" (amir altarab) because of its warm
timbre and microtonal flexibility

Sociology

2011-12-21T11:20:00.001-08:00

What place has the individual in Durkheim's thought?

According to Durkheim, the individual is a small part in the larger unit of society. He states that all societies have social solidarity and cohesion and that the group of members that make up society are completely dependent on others. The society that we live in is external to us and places constraints on us. Therefore any individuality that we think that we may have is actually a result of the society we live in. Durkheim says "the individual is then, a creation of organic solidarity in the sense that a creature with individuality is truly only conceivable and possible within a certain kind of society...The society creates the individual, not the other way around." With this statement he is demonstrating that the individual is only a product of the society they live in. They are in other words only a small part of the puzzle that cannot be studied as a unit but only when part of the larger picture.

Why does Durkheim put so much emphasis on non-contractual elements of contract?

He wants to emphasize that there is no such thing as individuality. He shows this by proving that even contracts and other social organizations have some sort of moral framework that if not stated explicitly, have some underlying assumptions. He says that there had to be a society that precedes the individual in order for there to be a framework of morality to base these contracts on. On page 57 Durkheim says, " Non contractual elements in contact oppose the idea that the actions of an individual can antedate the existence of society- this contract or capacity to perform actions presupposes the existence of a social framework." With this statement he opposes Rousseau's opinion that individuals form their own contractual arrangements which later creates the society.

Computer Science Basics

2011-12-20T20:53:00.000-08:00

1) Application software is used to ____.

a. facilitate communications

b. assist with graphics and multimedia projects

c. support home, personal, and educational tasks

d. all of the above

ANS: D

2)____ is mass-produced, copyrighted retail software that meets the needs of a variety of users, not just a single user or company.

a. Packaged software c. Freeware

b. Custom software d. Public-domain software

ANS: A

3)____ performs functions specific to a business or industry.

a. Freeware c. Custom software

b. Packaged software

ANS: C d. Shareware

4)Each time a user starts a computer, the operating system is ____ (copied) from the computer’s hard disk into memory.

a. printed c. loaded

b. Scrolled

ANS: C d. Saved

5)____ software serves as the interface between the user, the application software, and the computer’s hardware.

a. System c. Maintenance

b. Management d. Operational

ANS: A

6)A(n) ____ is a rectangular area of the screen that displays data and information.

a. frame c. workspace

b. box d. Window

ANS: D

7)____ software is software that allows users to organize data in rows and columns and perform calculations on the data.

a. Database c. Spreadsheet

b. PIM d. PDA

ANS: C

8)A(n) ____ is the intersection of a column and row in a worksheet.

a. link c. nexus

b. cell d. grid

ANS: B

9)A(n) ____ is a predefined formula that performs common calculations such as adding the values in a group of cells.

a. algorithm c. problem set

b. function d. label

ANS: B

10)In a database, each row, called a ____, contains data about a given person, product, object, or event.

a. record c. form

b. cell d. field

ANS: A

11)Using database software, you can ____.

a. add, change, and delete data c. create forms and reports

b. sort and retrieve data d. all of the above

ANS: D

12)Two popular ____ are Microsoft Office 2007 and Apple iWork.

a. personal information managers c. clip art/image galleries

b. software suites d. application service providers

ANS: B

13)____ is ideal for the production of high-quality color documents such as textbooks, corporate newsletters, marketing literature, product catalogs, and annual reports.

a. Professional DTP software c. Professional CAD software

b. Word processing software d. Web page authoring software

ANS: A

14)The programs within a software suite (for personal use) use a ____.

a. different interface and have completely different features

b. different interface but share some common features

c. similar interface but have completely different features

d. similar interface and share some common features

ANS: D

15)A(n) ____ protects a computer by identifying and removing any viruses found in memory, on media, or in files.

a. antivirus program c. pop-up blocker

b. anti-spam program d. Web filter

ANS: A

16)A(n) ____ utility shrinks the size of a file(s).

a. concatenation c. FTP

b. file compression d. integrated

ANS: B

17)A computer ____ is a small piece of semi-conducting material, usually silicon, on which integrated circuits are etched.

a. plug c. chip

b. port d. roster

ANS: C

18)In the machine cycle steps, ____ is the process of obtaining a program instruction or data item from memory.

a. fetching c. executing

b. decoding d. storing

ANS: A

19)____ is the most widely used coding scheme used to represent data.

a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)

b. Unicode

c. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC)

d. Multicode

ANS: A

20)____ is a coding scheme capable of representing almost all of the world’s current written languages, as well as classic and historical languages.

a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)

b. Unicode

c. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC)

d. Multicode

ANS: B

21)Each byte resides temporarily in a location in memory, called a(n) ____.

a. address c. register

b. location d. keycode

ANS: A

22)Memory stores ____.

a. the operating system and other system software

b. application programs that carry out a specific task

c. the data being processed and the resulting information

d. all of the above

ANS: D

23)____ is the most common type of volatile memory.

a. ROM c. CMOS

b. Flash memory

ANS: D

d. RAM

24)____ is built directly into a processor chip and usually has a very small capacity.

a. L1 cache c. L3 cache

b. L2 cache

ANS: A

d. L4 cache

25)____ is a cache separate from the processor chip on the motherboard.

a. L1 cache c. L3 cache

b. L2 cache d. L4 cache

ANS: C

26)____ cache is a type of cache that helps speed the processes of a computer because it stores frequently used instructions and data.

a. Programmable c. Read-only

b. Real-time

ANS: D

d. Memory

27)____ time is the amount of time it takes the processor to read data, instructions, and information from memory.

a. Access c. Processing

b. Meter d. Connection

ANS: A

28)A(n) ____ is the point at which a peripheral attaches to or communicates with the system unit so it can send data or receive information from the computer.

a. signal receptor c. port

b. analog d. baseline

ANS: C

29)Unlike a serial port, a(n) ____ port is an interface that connects devices by transferring more than one bit at a time.

a. parallel c. IEEE

b. USB d. FireWire

ANS: A

30)Two types of system software are ____.

a. application software and utility programs c. operating systems and utility programs

b. Web browsers and application software d. operating systems and Web browsers

31)A(n) ____ system is a set of programs containing instructions that coordinate all the activities among computer hardware resources.

a. operating c. management

b. disk-based d. Platform

ANS: A

32)A cross-platform program is one that runs ____.

a. only on one operating system c. the same on multiple operating systems

b. differently on every operating system d. differently on one operating system

ANS: C

33)The operating system that a computer uses sometimes is called the ____.

a. base c. index

b. platform d. boot system

ANS: B

34)With Windows Vista, a warm boot can be performed by ____.

a. pressing the power button on the computer

b. clicking a button on the task bar, then a Start menu button, then a Lock menu button, then a command on the Lock button menu

c. pressing the restart button on the computer

d. all of the above

ANS: B

____

35)____ is the process of starting or restarting a computer.

a. Launching c. Booting

b. Loading d. Keying

ANS: C

36)In a ____ like the one shown in Figure, a user types commands or presses special keys on the keyboard (such as function keys or key combinations) to enter data and instructions.

a. command-line interface c. performance-monitor interface

b. menu-driven interface d. graphical user interface (GUI)

ANS: A

37)A(n) ____ drive is the drive from which a personal computer starts.

a. origin c. archive

b. initiating d. Boot

ANS: D

38)With a ____, users interact with menus and visual images such as icons, buttons, and other objects to issue commands.

a. command-line interface c. performance-monitor interface

b. menu-driven interface d. graphical user interface (GUI)

ANS: D

39)Networks, servers, mainframes, and supercomputers allow hundreds to thousands of users to connect at the same time, and thus are ____.

a. single user c. multiuser

b. single processing d. multiprocessing

ANS: C

40)A(n) ____ operating system enables two or more users to run programs simultaneously.

a. multiplied c. engaged

b. multiuser d. rasterized

ANS: B

41)A(n) ____ operating system supports two or more processors running programs at the same time.

a. virtual c. multiprocessing

b. indexed d. fault-tolerant

ANS: C

42)A(n) ____ computer is a computer that continues to operate when one of its components fails, ensuring that no data is lost.

a. failsafe c. immune

b. antivirus d. fault-tolerant

ANS: D

43)With ____ memory, the operating system allocates a portion of a storage medium, usually the hard disk, to function as additional RAM.

a. virtual c. device

b. performance d. managed

ANS: A

44) If a new device, such as a printer or scanner, is attached to a computer, its ____ must be installed before the device can be used.

a. driver c. manager

b. platform d. kernel

ANS: A

45)A(n) ____ is a small program that tells the operating system how to communicate with a specific device.

a. driver c. utility

b. monitor d. OS

ANS: A

46)A performance ____ is a program that assesses and reports information about various computer resources and devices.

a. roster c. reporter

b. monitor d. manager

ANS: B

47) A(n) ____ is a type of system software that allows a user to perform maintenance-type tasks, usually related to managing a computer, its devices, or its programs.

a. driver c. utility

b. scanner d. defragmenter

ANS: C

48)A file ____ is a utility that performs functions related to file management.

a. monitor c. scanner

b. controller d. Manager

ANS: D

49)____ a disk, or reorganizing it so the files are stored in contiguous sectors, speeds up disk access and thus the performance of the entire computer.

a. Formatting c. Spooling

b. Defragmenting d. Compressing

ANS: B

50)A disk ____ is a utility that searches for and removes unnecessary files.

a. scanner c. detective

b. doctor d. archiver

ANS: A

51)Many backup programs ____, or shrink the size of, files during the backup process.

a. restore c. fragment

b. register d. compress

ANS: D

52)A(n) ____ utility is a utility that compiles technical information about a computer’s hardware and certain system software programs and then prepares a report outlining any identified problems.

a. symbian c. diagnostic

b. operational d. analytic

ANS: C

53)The term, computer ____, describes a potentially damaging computer program that affects, or infects, a computer negatively by altering the way the computer works without the user’s knowledge or permission.

a. hotspot c. virus

b. file compression utility d. file conversion utility

ANS: C

54)____ is software that acts without a user’s knowledge and deliberately alters a computer’s operations.

a. Malware c. System software

b. A utility program d. A diagnostic program

ANS: A

55) ____ is a program placed on a computer without the user’s knowledge or consent that secretly collects information about the user, often related to Web browsing habits.

a. Spyware c. Spam

b. A pop-up ad d. A filter

ANS: A

56)____ is a program that removes or blocks certain items from being displayed.

a. Spyware c. Spam

b. A pop-up ad d. A filter

ANS: D

57)Compressed files, sometimes called ____.

a. ripped files, usually have a .rip extension

b. tipped files, usually have a .tip extension

c. slipped files, usually have a .slip extension

d. zipped files, usually have a .zip extension

ANS: D

58) ____ can serve as sending and receiving devices in a communications system.

a. Mainframe computers and servers

b. Desktop computers and notebook computers

c. Tablet PCs and PDAs

d. All of the above

ANS: D

59)A(n) ____ device is a device that accepts the transmission of data, instructions, or information.

a. sending c. initiating

b. receiving d. transceiving

ANS: B

60)A type of communications device that connects a communications channel to a sending or receiving device is a ____.

a. modem c. PDA

b. server d. all of the above

ANS: A

61)A(n) ____ is a LAN that uses no physical wires.

a. ELAN c. WLAN

b. PLAN d. MAN

ANS: C

62)A ____ is a network that connects computers and devices in a limited geographical area, such as a home, school computer laboratory, or office building.

a. local area network (LAN) c. wide area network (WAN)

b. metropolitan area network (MAN) d. variable area network (VAN)

ANS: A

63)Each computer or device on a local area network, called a ____, often shares resources such as printers, large hard disks, and programs.

a. hub c. token

b. server d. node

ANS: D

64)A ____ is a high-speed network that connects networks in an area such as a city or town and handles the bulk of communications activity across that region.

a. local area network (LAN) c. wide area network (WAN)

b. metropolitan area network (MAN) d. variable area network (VAN)

ANS: B

65)The design of computers, devices, and media in a network, sometimes called the ____, is categorized as either client/server or peer-to-peer.

a. network topology c. network standard

b. network architecture d. network protocol

ANS: B

66)The risk to a bus network is that ____.

a. devices attached or detached at any point on the bus disrupt the rest of the network

b. the failure of one device usually affects the rest of the network

c. the bus itself might become inoperable

d. all of the above

ANS: C

67)A ____ network is a network topology that consists of a single central cable, to which all computers and other devices connect.

a. bus c. ring

b. token ring d. star

68)On a ____, all of the computers and devices (nodes) on the network connect to a central device.

a. bus network c. star network

b. ring network d. token ring network

ANS: C

69)Computers process _____.

a. data into information c. data into instructions

b. information into data d. instructions into data

ANS: A

70)_____ is/are the steps that tell the computer how to perform a particular task.

a. Data c. Instructions

b. Information d. Documentation

ANS: C

Sexual Studies Class and Women Genders

2011-12-20T20:48:00.000-08:00

Difference between:

public vs. private space

Public space is commonly shared and created for open usage throughout the community, whereas private space is individually or corporately owned. The public setting is socially constructed which creates a behavior influence and is privately ruled because of limitations imposed and supported by the law. Generally, everyone has a right to access and use public space, as opposed to private space which has restrictions.

Ex: Lawrence vs. Texas

In Lawrence vs. Texas, two gay men say the state of Texas deprived them of privacy rights and equal protection under the law when they were arrested in 1998. A neighbor had reported a "weapons disturbance" at the home of John G. Lawrence, and when police arrived they only found two men having sex, also called sodomy. Lawrence and the other man were held overnight in jail and later fined $200 each for violating the state’s Homosexual Conduct law. The neighbor was only convicted of filing a false police report.

Since public space is socially constructed, there are still certain behaviors that aren’t accepted in society with open arms such as men dress dressing in skirts which is considered a feminine article of clothing. It isn’t illegal, but it would make you a target of discrimination in a public setting as opposed to a private setting such as your apartment room where you could where whatever you wish without being judged. In lecture, we were shown a picture of marc Jacobs, the designer, wearing a skirt but because he’s famous and well protected no one can touch him The average male would have no such protection.

gender and sex

"Sex" refers to the biological and physiological characteristics that define men and women.

"Gender" refers to the socially constructed roles, behaviors, and attributes that a given society considers appropriate for men and women.

To put it another way:

"Male" and "female" are sex categories, while "masculine" and "feminine" are gender categories.

Ex: Throwing like a Girl by Iris Marion Young

Girls are suppose to emanate femininity, which includes not being too active and refraining from everything that may be "too dangerous" for her. They are taught to grow into their feminine gender roles which correspond to their sex. The gender roles they are assigned are the reason women don’t throw as efficiently as males, not their sex. They are biologically as capable as males.

Example of difference between sex and gender characteristics:

Sex-Women menstruate while men do not. (Biological)

Gender- In most of the world, women do more housework than men. (Societal)

LGB identities and queer politics

Queer politics is meant to go against the general notion of one's sexual orientation being their sole identity ( LGB IDENTITIES). Queer politics is a response by being anti-identity, anti-assimilationist, and against normalcy. It is a critique of identity. Essentially, Queer politics states that, "This is not what I am, but what I do."

Marxist feminism:

Feminist theory, which focuses on the dismantling of capitalism as a way of liberating women. Marxist feminism states that private property, which gives rise to economic inequality, dependence, and ultimately unhealthy social relations between men and women, is the root of women's oppression in the current social context.

Women's subordination is seen as a form of class oppression, which is maintained (like racism) because it serves the interests of capital and the ruling class.

Ex: in “The Master’s tool will never dismantle the master’s house, Audrey Lorde complains about the problem of capitalism between not only women and men but between classes of women themselves. “If white American feminist theory need not deal with the differences between us, and the resulting difference in our oppressions, then how do you deal with the fact that the women who clean your houses and tend your children while you attend conferences on feminist theory are, for the most part, poor women and women of color? What is the theory behind racist feminism?”

A modern example of this is still capitalism, which keeps growing and different classes of women and men are becoming more distinguishable from each other.

Radical feminists assert that their society is a patriarchy in which men are the primary oppressors of women. Radical feminists seek to abolish patriarchy. Radical feminism posits the theory that, due to patriarchy, women have come to be viewed as the "other" to the male norm and as such have been systematically oppressed and marginalized. They also believe that the way to deal with patriarchy and oppression of all kinds is to address the underlying causes of these problems through revolution.

An example of radical feminism is the Redstockings manifesto created by the Redstockings, a radical feminists group founded in N.Y. in 1969, and it called for women to unite to achieve liberation from men as the agents of oppression. The Redstockings and their manifesto rejected economic, racial, and class privileges and demanded an end to the exploitative structure of male-dominated society.

Liberal feminism asserts the equality of men and women through political and legal reform. It is an individualistic form of feminist theory, which focuses on women’s ability to show and maintain their equality through their own actions and choices. Liberal feminism looks at the personal interactions of men and women as the starting ground from which to transform society into a more gender-equitable place. It corresponds to choice feminism and third wave feminists.

Examples of liberal feminism are all four essays on choice feminism, which show the positive and mostly negatives of such a movement. Choice feminism’s positive aspect is that it brings many different races, class, and gender together because it appeals to everyone. It calls for an end to judgment on the choices women make and that they

should be free to make their own decisions as long as they keep in mind the political implications of them. However, movements like this often cause feminism to remain stagnant or even move toward more oppression, and possible reason behind this movement is fear of politics and rejection.

Socialist feminism

Socialist feminism is a marriage between Marxism and radical feminism, with Marxism the dominant partner. Marxists and socialists often call themselves "radical," but they use the term to refer to a completely different "root" of society: the economic system.

Ex: This type of feminist theory is supported by Hirshmann. She argues that “It is when men exclusively make the money, and women are exclusively in charge of affective production, that power distortions occur within families and in relationships to feed and reinforce systematic gender oppression. Realigning those power imbalances is necessary to effect change that will establish freedom for women.”

Modern ex: Marxist feminists today are still looking at domestic labour as well as wage work, and ﬁghting for equality and against capitalism that always put men on top and women inferior.

Prejudice and Institutionalized discrimination

Prejudice is unreasonable feelings, opinions, or attitudes, especially of a hostile nature, regarding a racial, religious, or national group. An example of prejudice from the readings is Borderlands/La Frontera in which Angela Anzaldua describes the prejudice against her people of Mexican and native American decent, or Chicanos. They are treated very inferiorly, shaming them, and making them lose sense of who they are.

Institutionalized discrimination refers to the unfair, indirect treatment of an individual embedded in the operating procedures, policies, laws, or objectives of large organizations such as the governments and Corporations, financial institutions (banks, investment firms, money markets), public institutions (schools, police forces, healthcare centers), and other larger entities. An example of this is Plessy v. Ferguson, which allowed for separate facilities for whites and colored under the doctrine of “separate but equal”. This is stating that as a race, blacks were somehow below their white counterparts.

relationship between:

race and gender

A form of intersectionality that interacts with each other on multiple and often simultaneous levels, contributing to systematic social inequality and discrimination. Race and gender do not act independent of one another. Instead, these forms of oppression interrelate, creating strong oppression of an individual.

An example of this from the readings is black women as domestic labor workers mentioned in the book Women, Race, & Class by Angela Davis. Race and gender intersected to produce a particular kind of segregation. After slavery was made unconstitutional and slaves everywhere were freed, they rejoiced but many realized they did not know where to go. Female former slaves often returned to work for households not by force of former white owners but by a need to survive. They demanded pay but for the most part, they never were. White people thought blacks were not only inferior to them but that they were dirty and promiscuous. Being “a promiscuous, inferior race” and female on top of it caused black women to be sexually violated and raped by the male household owners. Black men were also sexualized. Being a male and black back then also made you a target of lynching.

Class and gender

Class relations are organized through gender relations. Depending on one’s occupation, either the male or the female can hold a higher position in society. Generally in this patriarchal society, however, females occupy a lower status due to social inequalities. Females are located in a lower level of the stratification system as males occupy a higher position. Females are usually reduced to a dependent position (e.g. housewife) or a subservient position (e.g. as a lesser wage earner).

According to the book Women, Race and Class, in pre-industrial society, as women participated more in earning wages and providing for the household, they had more power because their labor or goods they produced were highly depended on. As technology and modes of production increased, they became more domesticated towards the home, a result of capitalist patriarchal exploitation. This means they became a form of free labor around the home out of loyalty, fear, obligation or simply having no choice.

A modern example, mentioned in Hirshmann’s essay Choice Feminism, of class and gender intersecting to make women inferior to men economically and socially is the burden resulting from dual income taxes, also known as the “marriage penalty”. The current tax code is a holdover from policies established in the 1930s and 1940s when the majority of married women were stay-at-home mothers. The code was altered to favor that arrangement, and taxed dual income couples more heavily than single-income couples. Given that the former also needs to buy services like childcare and housework, and probably faces higher food costs due to time constraints, the marginal utility of the wife’s additional income often made the family worse off economically. The clear message to her was: stay home and take care of your family. Even more ironic is the fact that the more equal the

spouses are in their earnings, the harsher the tax penalty.

Essentialism

Essentialism is defined as the practice of regarding something as a presumed human trait,

or as having innate existence or universal validity rather than as being a social, ideological, or intellectual construct. Also, essentialism is a philosophical term which holds that there are necessary properties of things and that these are logically prior to the existence of the individuals which instantiate them.

Example: Fausto Sterling’s Sexing the Body

The book talks about essentialism within the aspects of nature vs nurture, sex vs gender, and homosexual vs. heterosexual. Nature holds the essentialist argument for example that homosexuality is a human trait a person is born with and therefore inevitably grow up to be. Nurture is the opposite, arguing that homosexuality occurs through environmental conditions, social relations, and life experiences that nurture a person to that sexual preference.

Transgender

Transgender was intended as an umbrella term. It originated to classify a group of people who occasionally cross-dressed to the opposite sex, and who didn't want to undergo surgery, but who wanted to change their gender. Transgender is a general term applied to a variety of individuals, behaviors, and groups involving tendencies to vary from culturally conventional gender roles. Transgender is the state of one's "gender identity" (self-identification as woman, man, neither or both) not matching one's "assigned sex". "Transgender" does not imply any specific form of sexual orientation. Some may consider conventional sexual orientation labels inadequate or inapplicable to them.

In “A Certain Kind of Freedom: Power and Truth about Bodies”, transgender people and the issues they are faced with come to light in these four essays. They have it even tougher than gays and feminists because they refuse to hide their gender queerness in society like the gay movement does.

“Intersex” is a general term used for a variety of conditions in which a person is born with a reproductive or sexual anatomy that doesn’t seem to fit the typical definitions of female or male. Intersex anatomy doesn’t always show up at birth. Some people live and die with intersex anatomy without anyone (including themselves) ever knowing. Nature doesn’t decide where the category of “male” ends and the category of “intersex” begins, or where the category of “intersex” ends and the category of “female” begins. Humans decide.

Ex: Maria Patiño was Spain’s best female hurdler. In 1985, at the Kobe World University Games, she had forgotten her Certificate of Femininity and was retested. The karotype analysis showed that she was a woman with Androgen-Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS). She had no uterus or testes and her test result was revealed to the press. She was barred from competition, she lost her medals, the running times were erased, she lost her scholarship, here fiancé and was ejected from the national team.

Modern ex: Today the ISNA (Intersex society of North America) works to build a world free of shame, secrecy, and unwanted genital surgeries for anyone born with what someone believes to be non-standard sexual anatomy.

Suffrage

Women’s suffrage was the right of women to vote and to run for office. The expression was also used for the economic and political reform movement aimed at extending these rights to women, and without any restrictions or qualifications such as property ownership, payment of tax, or marital status. Woman suffrage in the U.S. was achieved gradually, at state and local levels, during the 19th Century and early 20th Century, culminating in 1920 with the passage of the 19^th Amendment to the United States Constitution.

Ex: A great deal of history on this movement was expressed through the realistic fictional point of view of Elizabeth Cady Stanton whom was a strong leader of the women’s suffrage movement. In the book, her character expresses the oppression she felt as a women that drove her to start the movement, the criticisms of her husband, the love for her closest friend Susan b Anthony, and the obstacles that came along the way.

Abolition

Abolitionism was the movement to end slavery. Britain banned the importation of African slaves in its colonies in 1807, and the United States followed in 1808. Britain abolished slavery throughout the British Empire with the Slavery Abolition Act 1833. The French colonies abolished it 15 years later and the United States abolished it in 1865 with the 13th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

Ex: Frederick Douglas, mentioned in both Women, Race, and Class and Sex Wars, played a crucial role in the fight for an end to slavery. After escaping from slavery himself, he became a leader of the abolitionist movement, gaining note for his impressive oratory and insightful antislavery writing. He stood as a living counter-example to slaveholders' arguments that slaves did not have the intellectual capacity to function as independent American citizens.

Temperance Movement

Temperance was an organized American movement that began in the mid-1800s to urge prohibition of the manufacture and consumption of all alcoholic beverages. By 1855 support for prohibition resulted in thirty-one states making alcohol illegal to some degree. By the 1870s, the temperance movement had strong ties to the growing women's movement, members of which believed alcohol to be directly responsible for much of the nation's moral decline, as well as related to issues of ill health, poverty, and the spread of crime.

Ex: Anthony Comstock for example seemed to be a supporter of the temperance movement because he was appalled by the moral decay he perceived around him, evidenced by the rampant drinking, gambling, solicitation of prostitution, and consumption of "dirty books" by his fellow boarders. He considered consumption of alcohol a sin.

Equal Rights Amendment

The Equal Rights Amendment was one of the defining struggles of the century. It was an attempt to ensure that the rights of the U.S. Constitution would be applied equally to females as well as males. It was first presented in 1923 in Congress but it failed to pass. The fundamental principle of the ERA is the law must focus on individuals and particular attributes and not on classification of sex. The ERA did not seek to give women newer rights, its purpose was to have women and men stand equal before the law and eliminate special treatment based on sex. Women who supported it at that time wanted to be identified as individuals, not a group. The Equal Rights Amendment, despite having achieved ratification in 35 of the 38 states needed, was narrowly defeated mainly because of opposition from religious groups, housewives, and evangelicals.

A strong reason behind its defeat was discussed in one of our lectures. A female conservative republican by the name of Phyllis Schlafly became the most outspoken opponent of the Equal Rights Amendment during the 1970s as the organizer of the "Stop the ERA". It was because it was led by a women herself that made the opposition so untouchable. Some of her arguments included that “the ERA would lead to women being drafted by the military and to public unisex bathrooms”.

CEDAW

The Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimination Against Women was ratified in 1979 and went into effect in 1981. This UN initiative is often described as an international Bill of Rights for women. The convention defines what constitutes discrimination against women and outlines an agenda for action to end discrimination. The US did NOT ratify CEDAW, some countries that have include : UK, DRC, Cuba, France Zimbabwe. One of the reasons given by opponents of Cedaw, which was discussed in lecture, is that the international community would supercede federal law in power and result in unwise laws and “frivolous” lawsuits. But in fact, the treaty would not authorize any lawsuit not already allowed under U.S. law because it is not self-executing.

Answers to the Chemistry Questions Below

2011-12-20T20:35:00.001-08:00

1.	B
2.	B
3.	D
4.	B
5.	B
6.	B
7.	C
8.	A
9.	B
10.	E
11.	B
12.	D
13.	D
14.	B
15.	D
16.	C
17.	E
18.	D

Renewable Resources, Ores, Etc.

2011-12-19T13:43:00.001-08:00

Mt. Everest, the tallest mountain in the world, is located on the continent of ____________.
Correct Answer:
Asia

A hot body of rock is more likely to exhibit ____________ than is a cold body of rock.
Correct Answer:
ductile behavior

A body of rock under high pressure is more likely to exhibit ____________ than is a body of rock at low pressure.
Correct Answer:
ductile behavior

A body of rock to which a sudden, rapid stress has been applied is more likely to exhibit ____________ than is a body of rock subjected to a gradually applied stress
Correct Answer:
brittle behavior

Earthquakes only occur ____________ the brittle/ductile transition depth.
Correct Answer:
above

Force per unit area is termed ____________.
Correct Answer:
stress

The distinction between joints and faults is that ____________.
Correct Answer:
faults are fractures along which displacement has occurred; displacement does not occur along joints

A joint always occurs as a single, isolated plane within a rock.
Correct Answer:
false

Most fault surfaces, like joints, are roughly planar in orientation.
Correct Answer:
true

Motion along all faults is either strike-slip or dip-slip; combinations of these two types of displacement are never found together in a single fault.
Correct Answer:
false

Normal, reverse, and thrust are all examples of ____________ faults.
Correct Answer:
dip-slip

Right-lateral and left-lateral are both examples of ____________ faults.
Correct Answer:
strike-slip

The central portion of high curvature on a fold is termed the fold ____________.
Correct Answer:
hinge

The balance between the weight of a mountain range and the buoyancy provided by the underlying mantle is termed ____________.
Correct Answer:
isostatic equilibrium

In a ____________ fault, the fault plane is less than 30 ° from horizontal and the hanging-wall block moves upward relative to the footwall block.
Correct Answer:
thrust

In a ____________ fault, the fault plane is greater than 30 ° from horizontal and the hanging-wall block moves upward relative to the footwall block.
Correct Answer:
reverse

In a ____________ fault, the fault plane is nonvertical and the hanging-wall block moves downward relative to the footwall block.
Correct Answer:
normal

The sides of a fold where curvature is at a minimum are termed ____________.
Correct Answer:
limbs

On a geologic map, if the contacts between sedimentary rock units form a series of parallel lines, with the youngest unit in the center, the underlying structure is a(n) ____________.
Correct Answer:
syncline

On a geologic map, if the contacts between sedimentary rock units form a bull’s eye pattern of concentric circles, with the youngest unit in the center, the underlying structure is a(n) ____________.
Correct Answer:
basin

The youngest geologic unit visible in the cross section is the ____________.
Correct Answer:
conglomerate

The marble rind surrounding the granite pluton must be younger than the limestone according to the principle of ____________.
Correct Answer:
baked contacts

Concerning relative ages of the shale and sandstone, ____________.
Correct Answer:
the sandstone must be older, according to the principle of superposition

Basaltic clasts within the basal layers of the conglomerate imply which of the following statements? (Choose the most correct answer.)
Correct Answer:
B and C are equally correct.

Basaltic clasts within the conglomerate have been radiometrically dated to million years ago (Eocene Epoch of the Tertiary Period). Is this a reliable age for the conglomerate?
Correct Answer:
No, this age is likely too old.

Contact #3 is both a ____________ at various points.
Correct Answer:
disconformity and a nonconformity

James Hutton, the “father of geology,” put forth the principle of ____________.
Correct Answer:
uniformitarianism

In an undisturbed sequence of sedimentary rocks, younger layers overlay older layers, according to the principle of ____________.
Correct Answer:
superposition

Which of the following geologic principles is a direct result of gravity?
Correct Answer:
original horizontality

Relative ages expressed on the geologic time scale primarily resulted from the study of ____________.
Correct Answer:
fossil content and spatial relationships among sedimentary rocks

Numerical ages for boundaries between time units on the geologic time scale primarily resulted from the study of ____________, in conjunction with relative age data.
Correct Answer:
radiometric dating of igneous rocks

Which method of correlation is more reliable for determining age equivalence among bodies of rock that are physically isolated by vast distances?
Correct Answer:
fossil correlation

Which eon of geologic time is represented by rocks containing abundant shelly fossils?
Correct Answer:
Phanerozoic

Which proportion of a radioactive isotope is expected to remain in an unaltered (unreacted) state after the passage of three half-lives?
Correct Answer:
one-eighth

Precisely speaking, a measured radiometric age for a mineral crystal within an igneous rock denotes the amount of time that has passed since the ____________.
Correct Answer:
temperature of the crystal became equal to the closure temperature for the mineral

Numerical ages for recent geologic events can sometimes be determined by the study of ____________.
Correct Answer:
all of the above

Which statement best summarizes the development of the geologic time scale
Correct Answer:
Relative ages for sedimentary strata were known well before accurate numerical dates for these rocks could be provided.

If horizontal sedimentary strata overlie tilted strata (and no fault is present), the surface between the horizontal and tilted strata must be a(n) ____________.
Correct Answer:
angular unconformity

In an unweathered sample of igneous rock, the ratio of an unstable isotope to its stable daughter isotope is / . If no daughters were present at the time the rock cooled below closure temperature, and the half-life of the reaction is million years, how old is the rock?
Correct Answer:
million years

Which of the following always varies among multiple isotopes of a single element?
Correct Answer:
atomic mass number

The Hadean is a time in Earth history when ____________.
Correct Answer:
Earth’s interior was so hot that a solid outer crust, if present, was likely being extensively remelted

The Himalayas were produced by the collision of ____________ with southern Asia during the Cenozoic.
Correct Answer:
India

The oldest terrestrial insect fossils are found in rocks from the ____________ period.
Correct Answer:
Devonian

Dinosaurs first appeared during the ____________ period.
Correct Answer:
Triassic

A shield is ____________.
Correct Answer:
a low-lying region where Precambrian rocks crop out

A cratonic platform is ____________.
Correct Answer:
a low-lying region where Precambrian rocks are covered by Phanerozoic sedimentary strata

Geographically, a shield and surrounding platform together are ____________.
Correct Answer:
synonymous with “craton”

The late Paleozoic Hercynian orogen is an event related to the____________.
Correct Answer:
assembly of the supercontinent Pangaea

The earliest forests containing woody trees appeared during the ____________. late Proterozoic
Correct Answer:
middle Paleozoic (in the Devonian Period)

Permian, Triassic, and Jurassic forests were dominated by large ____________.
Correct Answer:
conifers and cycads

An iridium-rich layer of clay, glass spherules, and shocked quartz grains strongly suggests that the K-T boundary extinctions were at least in part caused by ____________.
Correct Answer:
the impact of a bolide (meteoroid or comet)

The Chicxulub crater is located on which continent?
Correct Answer:
North America

Convergence along the western margin of North America during the Cenozoic gave way to rifting forces which created the characteristic topography of the ____________.
Correct Answer:
Basin and Range Province

Once an ancient mountain range is destroyed by erosion, it leaves no detectable record, and therefore geologists can never learn of its past existence.
Correct Answer:
false

Through geologic time, continents have drifted over the surface of Earth, but each continent has always been about as large as it is today.
Correct Answer:
false

Regions on the continents that are experiencing warm climates today have generally experienced colder climates in the past, and vice versa.
Correct Answer:
true

Earth became internally differentiated, with a metallic core distinct from the rocky mantle, during the ____________
Correct Answer:
Hadean Eon

Stromatolites are layered structures produced by the activity of ____________.
Correct Answer:
cyanobacteria

Banded-iron formations were abundantly produced during the ____________.
Correct Answer:
Proterozoic Eon

Which of the following lists contains only fossil fuels?
Correct Answer:
coal, oil, natural gas

A permeable and porous rock, regardless of lithology, is a good candidate to serve as a ____________ in an oil-producing scenario.
Correct Answer:
reservoir rock

Which fossil fuel—oil or natural gas—is found at greater depths within Earth, and why?
Correct Answer:
gas, because it is more stable at high temperatures

Permeability is a measure of ____________.
Correct Answer:
how well the pores within rock are connected

If a drilled well encounters both oil and natural gas, ____________.
Correct Answer:
the gas will naturally be floating on top of the oil

Shale, salt, and fine-grained limestone that is not fractured are all good candidates to serve as ____________ within an oil field.
Correct Answer:
a seal rock

Coal is the altered remains of ancient ____________.
Correct Answer:
plants

Which sequence of coal ranks is ordered from lowest to highest?
Correct Answer:
lignite, bituminous, anthracite

Congress has proposed storing nuclear waste beneath ____________.
Correct Answer:
Yucca Mountain, Nevada

Coal layers buried under less than m of sediment are usually mined with which technique
Correct Answer:
strip mining

Which ores are most commonly concentrated in magmatic deposits?
Correct Answer:
sulfides

MVT (Mississippi-Valley Type) deposits are secondary enrichments primarily of ____________.
Correct Answer:
lead and zinc

The stereotypical gold rush prospector panning for gold in a stream bed is exploiting ____________.
Correct Answer:
placer deposits

Open pits on the surface of Earth, constructed to extract stone for building purposes are called ____________.
Correct Answer:
quarries

Which mineral resources are considered renewable?
No mineral resources are renewable.

Most important mineral resources, including ores, can be expected to last for the next 1000 years.
Correct Answer:
false

Setting The Stage For Learning About The Earth

2011-12-14T16:17:00.000-08:00

(These Answers Should Be Used as a Basis For Yours)
Exercise 1.1 Submergence Rate Along the Maine Coast
The rate of submergence is the total change in elevation of the pier 2 meters divided by the total amount of time involved 300 years and is therefore .67 cm/yr

Exercise 1.4 Sources of Heat for Earth Processes
A. The sand should be hot since the sun has been heating up the sand throughout the day.
i. When you dig your feet into the sand you should feel cooler sand since the sun's penetration into the earth is limited.
ii. This suggests that the Sun can only penetrate into the Earth up until a certain depth.
iii.Based on this conclusion, one can assume that the Sun is not responsible for the Earth's internal heat since, we have heat hundreds of kilometers within the Earth and this can not be explained with the Sun's ray.
B. The geothermal gradient supports this conclusion because the deeper you get into the Earth the hotter it will get.

Exercise 1.6 The Challenge of Perspective and Visualizing Scale
A.
i. This flea is .0397 inches long
ii. The dog is 1000 times larger than the flea.
iii.The bar scale representing the flea is 1.35 cm long or .53inches
iv.The Bar would have to be 1,350cm long
B.
i. The earth is 640,000 larger than the geologist
ii.the drawing of the earth would have to be 281.6km long or 174.99 miles long.

Exercise 1.7 Moving Along
A. 8766 hours
i. 942,000,000km or 585,358,800miles
ii. its takes 8766 hours
iii. 107,460.64km/h or 66,776.04mph
iv. 1.074 x 10^5 or 6.676 x 10^4
B. 1674.67 km/hr or 1040.64mph
C. The person standing in between the equator and the pole will be moving at a slower rate since the circumference of the earth is smaller compared to that on the equator meaning the earth has less distance to travel in a 24 hr time span.
D.
i. it would take 20000 sodium atoms 2 x 10^4
ii. the period is 4 orders of magnitude bigger than the atom.

Exercise 1.8 Scaling Down Features to Visualize Them
A. The U.K would have to be scaled down by six orders to make it fit on paper of 20cm long.

Exercise 1.9 Picturing Geologic Time
A.4.75 x 10^3 inches or 7.49 x 10^-2 miles or 1.21 x 10^-1 km
B. 5.28 x 10^4 years would represented by one second
3.173 x 10^6 years would be represented per minute.
1.9 x 10^8 years per hour
C.It would take 1.0x10^8 days to save a million
i. you would save $10,000 in a million yrs
you would save $10 million in a billion years

Exercise 1.10 Rates of Mountain and Ocean Formation
A.
i. 1 meter high in 1000 yrs, 10,000 meters high in 10,000,000 years and 50,000 meters high in 50 million yrs.
ii. 1.96 x 10^-7 km/yr or 1.96 x10^-4m/yr or 1.96 x 10^-1mm/yr
iii.1.47m/yr or 1466.67mm/yr
iv. it would take 44,000,000 to erode

Exercise 1.11 Thinking about Pressure in the Earth
B.the lithostatic pressure at 8km would be 2.75kb.

Up From The Inferno 2 - Volcano

2011-12-14T05:54:00.000-08:00

Question 1
A 7.2 magnitude earthquake:
Correct Answer:
would have almost 33,000 times the energy release of a 4.2 quake.

Question 2
Which statement is true?
Correct Answer:
Governments are supportive of the worldwide seismic network because it can detect nuclear bomb tests as well as natural earthquakes.

Question 3
A tsunami:
Correct Answer:
may be just a broad, gentle swelling out at sea but grows as it approaches shore.

Question 4
This diagram:
Correct Answer:
shows a displacement of 18 feet.

Question 5
Earthquake prediction is not highly reliable, but geologists do know:
Correct Answer:
more earthquakes happen along plate boundaries than happen at intraplate locations.

Question 6
Which statement is true? Liquefaction:
Correct Answer:
all of the above are true.

Question 7
On the diagram shown:
Correct Answer:
Block X is the hanging wall.

Question 8
Which statement is true?
Correct Answer:
R- and L-waves are surface seismic waves.

Question 9
The locations of major earthquakes and volcanic eruptions:
Correct Answer:
are usually along the boundaries of crustal plates.

Question 10
Which statement concerning tsunami events is false?
Correct Answer:
The velocity of a tsumani wave increases when the wave moves from open ocean into shallower water.

Question 11
Identify the false statement: The Richter scale:
Correct Answer:
measures the size of a quake in terms of the damage it does (its intensity).

Question 12
Identify the false statement.
Correct Answer:
Earthquake magnitude scales all run from one (minimum amplitude) to ten (maximum amplitude).

Question 13
Identify the false statement.
Correct Answer:
Earthquakes never have hypocenters (foci) deeper than about 100 km (60 miles).

Question 14
Which of the following is not a good technique for building earthquake-resistant structures?
Correct Answer:
Use concrete-block rather than wood-frame construction.

Question 15
Identify the false statement. Long-term earthquake predictions:
Correct Answer:
are statements of the likelihood of an earthquake happening in some particular area within the next thousand years.

Question 16
Interpret the travel-time curve shown. How many minutes between the arrival of the first P-wave and the arrival of the first S-wave?
Correct Answer:
7

Question 17
Interpret the travel-time curve shown. Which line on the graph represents the S-wave?
Correct Answer:
upper line A

Question 18
Interpret the travel-time curve shown. How far away is the earthquake epicenter?
Correct Answer:
350 mi

Question 19
Interpret the travel-time curve shown. What time did the earthquake occur?
Correct Answer:
4:16 P.M.

Question 20
Which of the following earthquake phenomena is the least likely to actually injure or kill humans?
Correct Answer:
ground shaking

Question 21
Identify the false statement. Short-term earthquake prediction:
Correct Answer:
depends heavily on studying precursor phenomena like changes in water level in wells, gases, electrical conduction of rock, and animal behavior.

Question 22
Identify the false statement. The tsunami event of Dec. 26, 2004:
Correct Answer:
could have resulted in an even greater death toll but for the timely warnings issued immediately after the quake.

Question 23
The reading XIX is logical for a moderate-sized quake on the Mercalli intensity scale, which runs from X to XXX.
Correct Answer: False

Question 24
Plotting the hypocenters (foci) of earthquakes, showing their progression from shallow to intermediate to deep as you move eastward across South America, is really drawing the profile of a subducting ocean plate.
Correct Answer: True

Question 25
Roughly 80% of the earthquake energy released on Earth comes in the continental collision zone where the Himalayas are still growing; the remaining 20% is scattered at random locations worldwide.
Correct Answer: False

Question 26
Although the risk is small, disastrous earthquakes can happen in regions that are not seismic zones.
Correct Answer: True

Question 27
It takes less energy to activate an old fault than to create a comparably sized new one, so old faults must still be treated as areas of weakness vulnerable to earthquakes.
Correct Answer: True

Question 28
If a rock undergoes enough stress to produce elastic strain, an earthquake always happens.
Correct Answer: False

Question 29
Friction occurs between sliding surfaces because no surface can be perfectly smooth; all contain small bumps or protrusions.
Correct Answer: True

Question 30
The New Madrid, Missouri, quakes of 1811-12 and the Charleston, South Carolina, quake of 1886 were both large intraplate quakes.
Correct Answer: True

Question 31
Intermediate and deep-focus quakes occur in the Wadati-Benioff zones of divergent plate boundaries.
Correct Answer: False

Question 32
Rayleigh seismic waves cause Earth's surface to move vertically; Love seismic waves cause the ground to ripple back and forth, creating a snake-like movement of the surface.
Correct Answer: True

Question 33
Because intraplate earthquakes are infrequent and tend to have shallow hypocenters, they have had little effect on human society.
Correct Answer: False

A BIOGRAPHY OF THE EARTH

2011-12-13T21:20:00.000-08:00

Question 1
Which of the following is not useful in identifying mountain belts that have eroded away and therefore are not obvious topographic features?
Correct Answer:
shocked quartz

Question 2
Identify the false statement. There is very little rock record for Earth's first 600 million years because:
Correct Answer:
the surface then was one huge ocean basin filled with hot water and nothing else.

Question 3
Which geologic time interval saw the first continents, the first life, and possibly the first plates?
Correct Answer:
Archean

Question 4
Which of the following has nothing to do with fossils?
Correct Answer:
Rodinia

Question 5
Which of the following statements is false? The first life forms:
Correct Answer:
probably occurred in oxygen-rich, shallow, warm ocean waters.

Question 6
Which of the following is not one of the smaller continents formed by the break up of Pannotia?
Correct Answer:
Laramide

Question 7
Which of the following are fossil plants?
Correct Answer:
gymnosperms and angiosperms

Question 8
Which of the following has nothing to do with the K-T (Cretaceous-Tertiary) boundary?
Correct Answer:
Thomas Huxley

Question 9
Which of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer:
Human ancestors first appeared in the late Mesozoic.

Question 10
This common, cheap, and useful form of limestone consists of microscopic marine algae shells and shrimp feces. Thick Cretaceous-age deposits of it are common in Europe.
Correct Answer:
chalk

Question 11
Identify the false statement. Internal differentiation:
Correct Answer:
"stirred" Earth's interior and thus hastened Earth's cooling.

Question 12
Which of the following was NOT a component of Earth's Hadean atmosphere?
Correct Answer:
oxygen

Question 13
Identify the false statement.
Correct Answer:
80% of Earth's continental crust existed by the end of the Hadean eon.

Question 14
Identify the false statement. During the Pleistocene ice age:
Correct Answer:
continental glaciers covered all of North America.

Question 15
Identify the false statement.
Correct Answer:
Atmospheric oxygen and nitrogen react to form the nitrogen oxide that protects land life from harmful ultraviolet rays.

Question 16
Geologists believe the impact of a 10-km wide meteorite 65 million years ago:
Correct Answer:
all of the above are true statements.

Question 17
Rodinia, Pannotia, Grenville, and Pangaea are all names of supercontinents.
Correct Answer: False

Question 18
Banded-iron formations (BIFs) are forming today along mid-ocean ridges.
Correct Answer: False

Question 19
Gymnosperms (naked-seed plants like conifers) were widespread in the late Paleozoic; angiosperms (flowering plants) gained dominance in the late Mesozoic.
Correct Answer: True

Question 20
Theoretically "snowball Earth" of the late Proterozoic eon would have stayed ice-covered forever were it not for greenhouse warming caused by carbon monoxide from volcanoes.
Correct Answer: False

Question 21
It wasn't until the late Mesozoic that vascular plants with woody tissues, seeds, and veins shared the land with spiders, scorpions, insects, and crustaceans, while jawed fish cruised the oceans and the first amphibians left water to visit land.
Correct Answer: False

Question 22
The Paleozoic era, like the Mesozoic era, may have ended with mass extinction of life forms due to a huge meteor impact.
Correct Answer: True

Question 23
The continents that comprised Pangaea came together in the early Paleozoic, but began to split apart soon afterward, during the late Paleozoic.
Correct Answer: False

Question 24
During the Hadean the Earth kept getting hotter due to meteorite impact and compression; radioactive elements didn’t yet exist to contribute heat energy.
Correct Answer: False

DEEP TIME

2011-12-13T21:10:00.000-08:00

Question 1
Uniformitarianism:
Correct Answer: is illustrated by scientists' seeing pillow lava form only under water, then theorizing that pillow lava found high in the mountains today did nevertheless form under water.

Question 2
Which of the following shows four time divisions listed from oldest to youngest?
Correct Answer: Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic

Question 3
Choose the proper listing of names to fit the following three descriptions: Age of Mammals, Age of Dinosaurs, and longest geologic time period.
Correct Answer: Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Precambrian

Question 4
Which of the following is not a method to determine numerical age?
Correct Answer: cross-cutting relations

Question 5
Which of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer: An unconformity is a break in the rock record that indicates the area was under water for millions of years.

Question 6
Which of the following statements is false? The principle of:
Correct Answer: inclusions says rock containing inclusions is older than the inclusions.

Question 7
A rock is given a radiometric date of 300,000,000 years, with an uncertainty of measurement of 1%. This means the rock's age:
Correct Answer: is anything between 297,000,000 and 303,000,000 years old.

Question 8
An area of slightly dipping sedimentary rock layers has large inclusions and is intruded by an igneous dike. Apply the basic principles for determining relative ages and identify the false statementary
Correct Answer: The inclusions are younger than the sedimentary rock they are in.

Question 9
Identify the false statement.
Correct Answer: Charles Lyell correctly explained how fossils form and formulated some of the basic principles of relative dating.

Question 10
Identify the false statement. Radiometric dating:
Correct Answer: can be used only if there's some uranium present in the rock.

Question 11
A radioactive isotope of the element potassium decays to produce argon. If the ratio of argon to potassium is found to be 7:1, how many half-lives have occurred?
Correct Answer: 3 half-lives

Question 12
Charcoal (burned wood) that was used to make prehistoric drawings on cave walls in France was scraped off and analyzed. The results were 4 mg carbon 14 (parent isotope) and 60 mg nitrogen (daughter isotope). The half-life of carbon 14 is 5,730 years. How old are the cave drawings?
Correct Answer: 22,920 years

Question 13
On the diagram shown, several surfaces between rock layers are identified by letters. Choose the answer below that correctly identifies the unconformities.
Correct Answer: C and E

Question 14
Identify the false statement. William Smith’s observations:
Correct Answer: noted that a fossil species could disappear, then reappear in much younger strata.

Question 15
In 1815, William Smith correlated strata from many locations and plotted it on paper to show the spatial distribution of rock units on Earth’s surface. This document was the first modern:
Correct Answer: geologic map.

Question 16
A disconformity is a type of unconformity in which sedimentary rocks overlie either igneous or metamorphic rocks.
Correct Answer: False

Question 17
If you equate all Earth history to one calendar year, all recorded human history occupies the week from Christmas to New Year's Eve.
Correct Answer: False

Question 18
It's not possible to say just when an individual radioactive atom will decay, but it is possible to say when half of an existing quantity of radioactive material will be gone.
Correct Answer: True

Question 19
Correlation matches up rock layers across distances on the basis of similar sequences of rock layers and similar fossils in the layers.
Correct Answer: True

Question 20
The boundary surface between two stratigraphic formations is called a key bed.
Correct Answer: False

Question 21
Numerical (or absolute) dating is just a comparison of age; relative dating assigns numbers.
Correct Answer: False

Question 22
The first half-life period of carbon-14 is 5,730 years; the second half-life period of carbon-14 is half of this, and the number of years is cut in half for each succeeding half-life period.
Correct Answer: False

Question 23
Eighteenth- and nineteenth-century scientists tried to determine Earth's age by analyzing the thickness of sediments, the saltiness of oceans, and Earth's temperature, but crucial flaws in these techniques gave incorrect ages.
Correct Answer: True

Question 24
The largest subdivision of time on the geologic column are eras, which are broken down into smaller units called eons, then periods, then epochs.
Correct Answer: False

Question 25
4.57 billion-year-old moon rock and meteorites are the oldest rocks found in our solar system, leading geologists to conclude this is the approximate age of the Earth.
Correct Answer: True

Crustal Deformation

2011-12-13T17:03:00.001-08:00

Question 1
Which term has nothing to do with true mountains?
Correct Answer: cratonic platform

Question 2
Which of the following conditions will tend to make rocks change by ductile deformation rather than by brittle deformation?
Correct Answer: slowly applied stress

Question 3
Pick out the true statement. The San Andreas Fault:
Correct Answer: is a right-lateral strike-slip fault.

Question 4
If you see small angular fragments of shattered rock along a linear boundary between two masses of rock, you must be looking at:
Correct Answer: fault breccia

Question 5
Faulting in the Basin and Range Province of Nevada, Utah, and Arizona:
Correct Answer: all of the above are true statements.

Question 6
Which of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer:Mountains continue to get higher as long as the rate of erosion equals the rate of uplift.

Question 7
Which of the following statements is false? Mountains:
Correct Answer: are randomly distributed over Earth's surface.

Question 8
Deformation:
Correct Answer: all of the above are true statements.

Question 9
Which of the following statements is false? This diagram shows:
Correct Answer: that dip-slip motion has occurred along the fault trace.

Question 10
Which of the following statements is false? The African Rift Valley:
Correct Answer: is produced by compressional stress.

Question 11
Mountains don't get infinitely high or exist forever because:
Correct Answer: all of the above are true statements.

Question 12
A shield:
Correct Answer:all of the above are true statements.

Question 13
You're looking at a fault trace in the field. You observe a polished surface, with linear grooves on it, and fine powder along it. In more technical terms, what are you seeing?Correct Answer: slickensides, slip lineations, and fault gouge

Question 14
Identify the false statement:
Correct Answer:If you walk from the outer edge of a dome in toward its center, you cross progressively younger rock layers.

Question 15
Identify the false statement. Brittle deformation:
Correct Answer:produces folds and faults.

Question 16
What type of fault does the diagram show?
Correct Answer: dip-slip fault, normal

Question 17
Identify the structure that makes this pattern of rock layers on the ground surface: parallel stripes, showing bilateral symmetry across a mid-line (hinge), with rock getting older as you move outward from the hinge.
Correct Answer:syncline

Question 18
Which of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer: A thrust fault is a reverse fault with an extremely high dip (close to 90°).

Question 19
Tension produces shear strain.
Correct Answer: False

Question 20
A horizontal line on Earth's surface has a plunge of 90°.
Correct Answer: False

Question 21
Joints may get filled with quartz or calcite from groundwater and are then called joint sets.
Correct Answer : False

Question 22
Even today geologists can only theorize about shifting continents and uplifting mountains there's no way they can detect such small annual movement.
Correct Answer: False

Question 23
Faulting in a thrust-fault system shortens the crust, since slivers of Earth get pushed over each other like overlapping shingles.
Correct Answer: True

Question 24
A clinometer is an instrument used to detect gravity anomalies caused by mountain ranges.
Correct Answer: False

Question 25
Typical continental crust is 35-40 km thick under mountains it is thinner, only 15-20 km thick.
Correct Answer: False

Question 26
When the buoyancy force pushing up on lithosphere equals the gravitational force pulling down on it, the situation is said to show isostatic equilibrium.
Correct Answer: True

Question 27
An asymmetric ridge formed along a tilted rock layer is called a craton.
Correct Answer:False

Question 28
Exhumation exposes metamorphosed rocks and plutons that once were deep inside mountains.
Correct Answer: True

Question 29
The Himalayas, Alps, and Appalachian Mountains are all examples of convergent boundary mountains.
Correct Answer: False

Question 30
Stress is the change in shape produced by strain.
Correct Answer:False

METAMORPHISM

2011-12-12T21:17:00.001-08:00

What is the protolith of marble?

Correct Answer: limestone

Question 2

Identify the false statement. Hydrothermal fluids:

Correct Answer: change a rock's chemical composition, a process known as exhumation.

Question 3

Which of the following statements is false? A metamorphic rock:

Correct Answer: cannot be formed below 1200 °C.

Question 4

Which of the following statements is false? Extremely high heat of metamorphism:

Correct Answer: is necessary to elongate the large clasts in conglomerate to make flattened-clast conglomerate (metaconglomerate).

Question 5

Mylonite:

Correct Answer: all of the above are true statements.

Question 6

Pick out the rock that is nonfoliated.

Correct Answer: hornfels

Question 7

Quartzite:

Correct Answer:is basically a solid mass of interlocking quartz crystals.

Question 8

Which of the following statements is false? Metamorphic facies:

Correct Answer: are identical to metamorphic mineral assemblages.

Question 9

Which of the following statements about metamorphic rocks and their characteristic environments is true?

Correct Answer: Slate, phyllite, schist, and gneiss are found in areas of continental collision.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is false? Shields:

Correct Answer: are composed of extensive areas of sedimentary layers laid down on lava flows.

Question 11

Which is not a common process by which metamorphic rocks are formed?

Correct Answer: schistosity

Question 12

Mountain building due to convergent-margin tectonics and to continental collision:

Correct Answer: all of the above are true.

Question 13

Recrystallization occurs because thermal energy causes atoms to vibrate rapidly, break existing chemical bonds, and migrate to new positions on the crystal lattice where they are more stable under the hotter conditions.

Correct Answer: True

Question 14

Roofers use the rock schist to shingle roofs because its foliation, called schistosity, causes it to break in convenient size.

Correct Answer: False

Question 15

Schist may form from a variety of protoliths that contain atoms necessary to make mica.

Correct Answer: True

Question 16

Foliation and folding in metamorphic rock like gneiss happen slowly, over hundreds of thousands of years, as huge masses of softened rock flow slowly and at differential speeds within the mass.

Correct Answer: True

Question 17

Quartzite is a favorite material of sculptors because of its uniform texture, wide range of colors, and relative softness.

Correct Answer: False

Question 18

Metamorphic zones are regions between isograds named after the index minerals that occur within them.

Correct Answer: True

Question 19

Blueschist is a common metamorphic rock of continental shields.

Correct Answer: False

Question 20

Metamorphic aureoles typically contain nonfoliated rock like hornfels, because the pluton intrusion provides heat but not the shearing stress necessary for foliation.

Correct Answer: True

Question 21

In the United States you can see Precambrian metamorphic rocks in places where rivers have sliced deeply into Earth's surface, such as in the Grand Canyon.

Correct Answer: True

Question 22

When geologists say metamorphic grade, they're referring to the amount of metamorphic change, which depends primarily on the temperature involved; when they say facies, they mean the mineral assemblage (mineral contents) of the rock.

Correct Answer: True

Question 23

Dynamothermal metamorphism (regional metamorphism) produces nonfoliated metamorphic rocks in the depths of mountain ranges which erosion eventually exposes as “mountain roots” hundreds of kilometers wide and thousands of kilometers long.

Correct Answer: False

even more chemistry problems

2011-12-12T18:16:00.000-08:00

1) Which molecule listed below has a nonpolar covalent bond?
a) H2
b) NaCl
c) H2O
d) all of the above

2) Which of the following is most likely to have an ionic bond?
a) HF

b) BaCl2
c) N2
d) NH3

3) What is the bond angle in CCl4?
a) 104
b) 180
c) 120
d) 109.5

5) Use VSEPR theory to predict the electron pair geometry and the molecular geometry for SO2 molecule.
a) The electron-pair geometry is tetrahedral, the molecular geometry is linear
b) The electron-pair geometry is trigonal planar, the molecular geometry is bent
c) The electron-pair geometry is linear, the molecular geometry is linear
d) The electron-pair geometry is trigonal planar, the molecular geometry is trigonal planar

6) How many moles of ions you can have in 100 mL of 0.6 M silver carbonate solution.
a) 0.06
b) 0.12
c) 0.18
d) 6.023x1023

7) How many lone pair electrons are on the oxygen atom in H2O?
a) 2
b) 0
c) 3
d) 4

8) What is the initial volume (L) of a system initially at 744 mmHg that is compressed to a final volume of 2.60 L and has a final pressure of 1.20 atm.
a) 0.004 L
b) 2.10 L
c) 0.169 L
d) 3.21 L

9) Consider the following reaction:
CH4 (g)+ Cl2 (g)→CCl4 (g)+ HCl(g)
What volume of CCl4 will be formed at STP if 1.20 moles CH4 are allowed to react with 1.60 moles Cl2?
a) 8.96 L
b) 56 L
c) 1.78 x 10-2 L d) 26.88 L

10) Calculate the molarity of a KCl solution made by dissolving 52.5g of KCl in 250 mL water.

a) 2.8M
b) 5.6M
c) 0.0028 M
d) 0.28 M

11) The titration of 25.0 mL of 0.125 M H2SO4 solution required 27.07 mL of KOH to reach the endpoint. What is the concentration of the KOH?
a) 0.115 M
b) 0.230 M
c) 0.169 M
d) 0.0848 M

12) You mix 60.0 mL of 1.0 M silver nitrate with 25.0 mL of 0.80 M sodium chloride. What mass of the precipitate should form?
a) 2.9g
b) 5.8g
c) 8.7g
d) 9.6g

13) What best describes the type of intermolecular forces would you expect to find in a sample of CBr4?
a) H-bonding
b) dipole-dipole
c) ionic
d) london dispersion

14) Which of the following substances has the biggest dispersion forces?
a) Kr
b) Cl2
c) Ne
d) O3

15) Which one would you expect to have the higher melting point?
a) CaO
b) CS2
c) Can not be determined
d) They are the same

16) Which of the following will have a low vapor pressure?
a) CH3OCH3
b) CH3OH
c) O2
d) all of them

17) What is the volume of 28.0 g nitrogen gas at STP?
a) 44.8
b) 11.2
c) 22.4
d) none of the above

How many liters of water can be made from 55 grams of oxygen gas and 35 g of hydrogen gas at a pressure of 12.4 atm and a temperature of 850 C?
a) 4L
b) 2L
c) 8L
d) 12L

19) What is the molar mass of a gas if 0.250 g of the gas occupies 215 mL at 618 mmHg and 30.0°C?
a) 3.5 g/mol
b) 17.5 g/mol
c) 35.7 g/mol
d) 71g/mol

20) What type of compound is carbon monoxide? a) polar
b) ionic
c) nonpolar
d) all of the above

22) How many mL of the 0.025 M HCl solution you need to prepare 0.1 L of the 0.0125 M HCl solution?
a) 0.05
b) 0.2
c) 20
d) 50

even more chemistry

2011-12-12T17:57:00.000-08:00

1. Consider the reaction: 2HgO(s) ⇄ 2Hg(l) + O2(g)
which of following will shift the equilibrium toward the reactants? I) more solid HgO is added;
II) decreasing the pressure;
III) more O2 is added

I and III
II only
I, II and III
III only

NO2(g) + CO(g) ⇄

2. Consider the reaction:
A 1L vessel at 400C contains the equilibrium concentrations [NO] = 0.1 M, [CO2]= 0.02 M, [NO2] = 0.01 M, and [CO] = 0.1M. What is the value of the equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction?
a. 0.5
b. 5
c. 1
d. 2

3. Determine the pH of a 5.5 ×10−2M solution of H2SO4.
a. 1.25
b. 0.95
c. 7.00
d. 6.48

4. Which of the following mixtures can produce a buffer?

CH3COOH, CH3COONa
H++OH−
HCl + NaOH
all of the above

5. The pH of a solution changes from 5.1 to 8.1.This indicates that the [OH−] of the solution has:

increased by 3 M
decreased by 3 M
increased by a factor of 1000
decreased by a factor of 100

6. If the pH of HNO3 solution is 2.45, what is the molarity of this solution?

3.5 × 10−3M
2.45 × 10−5 M
2.81×102M
Can’t be calculated

7. Consider the dissociation of hydrofluoric in water. What is the conjugate base to the acid?
a. F-

H2O+
H3O
Can’t be determined

8. A solution with a hydronium concentration of a 10-6 M is:

basic
acidic
neutral
None of the above

9. Which of the following is a strong acid?

Nitrous acid
Acetic acid
Sulfuric acid
water

10. What is the pH of a 1x10-4M KOH solution?
a. 4.00
b. 10.00
c. 6.00

d. 7.00

14. A solution with [H+] = 5 x10-11 M would have a pH ------and would be considered -------

between 1 and 2; acidic
between 10 and 11; basic
2; basic
2; acidic

15. The titration of 25.0 mL of 0.125 M H2SO4 solution required 27.07 mL of KOH to reach
the endpoint. What is the concentration of the KOH? a) 0.115 M
b) 0.230 M
c) 0.169 M
d) 0.0848 M

More Chemistry

2011-12-12T17:41:00.000-08:00

1) Which element has the following configuration [Ar] 4s23d10?
a) P
b) Zn
c) Cl
d) Au

3) Which of the following exhibits the correct orders for both increasing atomic radius and increasing ionization energy, respectively?

S, O, F and F, O, S
F, O, S and S, O, F
F, S, O and O, S, F
S, F, O and S, F, O

6) How many atoms of hydrogen are contained in 1.0 mole of CH4?
a) 6.02 x 1023 atoms
b) 2.4 x 1024 atoms
c) 3.01 x 1024 atoms
d) 4 atoms

7) What is the percent of iron by mass in a pure sample of Fe3O4?
a) 72%
b) 28 %
c) 30%
d) 0.72 %

8) A compound is 56.8 % C, 6.56 % H, 8.28 % N and 28.4% O. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
a) C8H11NO3
b) C4H11NO6
c) C5H5NO3
d) C4H5N2O3

9) Calculate the number of moles in 4.56 g of ethanol (CH3CH2OH):
a) 0.1 moles
b) 10 moles
c) 2 moles
d) 6.022 x 1023 moles

10) If 39.0 g of C6H6 reacts with excess chlorine and produces 30.0 g of C6H5Cl in the reaction:
C6H6 + Cl2 => C6H5Cl + HClWhat is the percent yield of C6H5Cl?
a) 13.2 %
b) 76.9 %
c) 50%
d) 53.4 %

11) Consider the reaction:
CaCN2 + H2O => CaCO3 + NH3
How much CaCO3 is produced if 47.50 moles NH3 are produced?

a) 2375 g
b) 4750 g
c) 23.8 g
d) 0.238 g

12) What mass of O2 is required to produce 14.5 g of CO2 if the reaction has a 65.0 % yield?
CH4 + O2 => CO2 + H2O

a) 21.2 g
b) 16.2 g
c) 13.7 g
d) 32.4 g

13) The empirical formula of styrene is CH; its molecular formula mass is 104.1g/mol. What is the molecular formula of styrene?
a) C2H4
b) C8H8
c) C6H6
d) C10H12

14) When 125.0 g of ethylene (C2H4) burns in oxygen. How many grams of CO2 are formed?
a) 392.9 g
b) 250.0 g
c) 57.50 g
d) 327.0 g

15) 15 g sample lithium, is reacted with 15 g of fluorine gas to form lithium fluoride. After the reaction is complete, how many moles of lithium fluoride are obtained?
a) 2.16 moles
b) 0.79 moles
c) 1.37 moles
d) 0.039 moles

17) Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?
a) CH4 + 2 O2 --> CO2 + 2 H2O
b) NaOH + HNO3 --> NaNO3 + HOH
c) Pb + O2 --> PbO2
d) Na2CO3 --> Na2O + CO2

19) Which species in the reaction below undergoes reduction? Sn(s) + 2 HCl(aq) => SnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
a. Sn
b. Hydrogen
c. SnCl2
d. H2

20) What type of reaction is the following?
AgNO3 + BaCl2 => AgCl + Ba(NO3)2

Single displacement
Double displacement
c. Synthesis
d. Redox

Chemistry

2011-12-12T17:24:00.000-08:00

1) A factor of 1.0 x 10-6 corresponds to the prefix:

a) pico
b) femto
c) micro
d) nano

2) Express 0.082051 in scientific notation:

a) 8.2051 x 10-3
b) 8.2051 x 10-1
c) 8.2051 x 102
d) 8.2051 x 10-2

3) A temperature of 65 F is equal to:

a) 18  C
b) 19  C
c) 54  C
d) 65  C

4) What name would you give to a compound consisting of three fluorine atoms and one aluminum atom?
a) aluminum fluorine
b) dibflourine aluminide
c) aluminum fluoride
d) aluminum (III) fluoride

5) Which of the following is the correct name for N2O3 :
a) dinitrogen trioxide
b) nitrogen (III) oxide
c) nitrogen trioxide
d) dinitrogen oxide

6) What is the correct formula for Cobalt (II) chloride?
a) CoCl
b) Co2Cl
c) CoCl2
d) CCl

7) How many protons and electrons are present in the Fe2+ ion?
a) 26p, 27e
b) 26p, 28e
c) 26p, 24e
d) 24p, 22e

8) Choose that pair of names and formulas that do not match:
a) SnCl4 : tin(IV) chloride
b) Fe2(SO4)3 : iron(III) sulfate
c) SnO : tin(II) oxide
d) Cu2O : copper(II) oxide

9) An experiment calls for 22.6 g bromine (d = 3.12 g/cm3). What volume in mL should be used?
a. 70.5
b. 7.24 x 103 c. 7.24
d. 7.05 x103

10) Express the number 9067.7 in scientific notation to 4 significant figures.
a. 9.067 × 103
b. 9.068 × 103
c. 906.7 × 101
d. 90.67 × 102

11) The measurement 3.2 × 10−3 g could also be written as:
a. 3.2 kg
b. 3.2 mg
c. 3.2 g
d. None of these

12) Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant figures.
a. 13 m
b. 12.68 m
c. 10 m
d. 12.7 m

13) What is the answer with the proper significant figures for the following equation? (2 × 1.2) + (367 ÷ 1.6) + (3.6 × 102) =
a. 591.775 b. 591.8
c. 592
d. 5.9 × 102

14) For the conversion of 0.073 gallons to milliliters, the conversion factors are 4 quarts per gallon, 1.057 quarts per liter, and 1×10−3 liter per milliliter. The correctly expressed answer is:
a. 3.09 × 102 mL
b. 3.62 × 10−2 mL
c. 2.76 × 102 mL
d. 2.8 × 102 mL

15) Which of the following would be expected to have chemical properties similar to those of sulfur?
a. F
b. Se
c. P d. Ar

16) What ion would you expect P to form? Would the P atom lose or gain electrons in this process?
a. P5− ; lose 5 electrons ;
b. P3+ ; gain 3 electrons
c. P3+ ; lose 3 electrons ;
d. P3− ; gain 3 electrons

17) What is the sum of the coefficients for the following reaction when is properly balanced:

a. 12Mg3N2 + H2O → Mg(OH)2 + NH3

b. 6
c. 11
d. none of the above

18) What is the compound CaCl2 called?
a. calcium (II) chloride
b. calcium (I) chloride
c. calcium dichloride
d. calcium chloride

19) Name the binary molecular compound SCl2.
a. sulfur dichloride
b. silicon dichlorate
c. selenium dichloride
d. sulfur chlorate
20) Choose the formula for the compound nitrous acid.
a. HN
b. H2NO2
c. HNO4
d. HNO2

21) Pick the name and formula that do NOT match.
a. HBrO4 : perbromic acid
b. HCN : hydrocyanic acid
c. H2CrO4 : chromic acid
d. H2PO4 : phosphoric acid

22) Which elements would be classified as metals?
a. Aluminum, Boron, and Carbon
b. Calcium and Iron
c. Sodium, Oxygen and Neon
d. none of the above

23) Which one of the following combination is wrong?
a. iron(II) sulfide : FeS
b. sodium sulfate : Na2SO4
c. sodium nitrate : NaNO3
d. nitrogen chloride : NCl3

24) Some liquids flow more slowly than others because the particles
a. stick together more.
b. are arranged in an irregular pattern.
C. are larger.
d. are irregularly shaped.

25) The number 8.3140 written in scientific notation becomes:
a. 8.3140 × 101
b. 8.314 × 10−1
c. 8.3140 × 100
d. 83.14 × 10−2

1.	Which has the greater N–O bond length, NO₂^– or NO₃^–?
	A)	NO₂^–
	B)	NO₃^–
	C)	The bond lengths are the same.
	D)	More information is needed.
	E)	None of these (A-D).

3.	The energy sequence of the molecular orbitals in OF is s₂_ss₂_s^s_2pp_2pp_2p^s_2p^* . The cation OF¹⁺ is predicted by simple molecular orbital theory to be __________ and _____________.
	A)	unstable, diamagnetic
	B)	unstable, paramagnetic
	C)	stable, diamagnetic
	D)	stable, paramagnetic

4.	The head-on, out of phase, overlap of atomic p-orbitals in this fashion: yields the molecular orbital
	A)	s
	B)	s*
	C)	p
	D)	p*

5.	Consider a hypothetical molecule with the skeleton structure N-O-N. In the most reasonable of the possible Lewis structures, the molecule has ______, and is likely to be ______.
	A)	two double bonds, stable
	B)	two double bonds, unstable
	C)	a single bond and a triple bond, stable
	D)	a single bond and a triple bond, unstable

6.	Which of the molecules below would you expect to have the highest boiling point? I II III IV ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
	A)	I
	B)	II
	C)	III
	D)	IV
	E)	II and IV

1.	B
2.	B
3.	D
4.	B
5.	B
6.	B
7.	C
8.	A
9.	B
10.	E
11.	B
12.	D
13.	D
14.	B
15.	D
16.	C
17.	E
18.	D

7.	What is the hybridization of the nitrogen atom that is single-bonded to nitrogen and two hydrogen atoms (#1)?
	A)	sp
	B)	sp²
	C)	sp³
	D)	dsp³
	E)	d²sp³

8.	What is the hybridization of the carbon atom that is single bonded to hydrogen and triple bonded to carbon (#3)?
	A)	sp
	B)	sp²
	C)	sp³
	D)	dsp³
	E)	d²sp³

11.	Which of these molecules show resonance?
	A)	I, II
	B)	II, IV
	C)	II, V
	D)	III, IV
	E)	III, V

12.	How many of the molecules have no dipole moment?
	A)	1
	B)	2
	C)	3
	D)	4
	E)	They are all polar.

13.	In the molecular ion OF^-1, the lone pair electrons on the fluorine are in
	A)	p orbitals
	B)	sp orbitals
	C)	sp² orbitals
	D)	sp³ orbitals

14.	Which of the following ionic compounds has the smallest lattice energy (i.e., the lattice energy least favorable to a stable lattice)?
	A)	LiF
	B)	CsI
	C)	NaCl
	D)	BaO
	E)	MgO

15.	The molecule H-N=N-H is __________ and the molecular cation H₂N=O⁺ is _________.
	A)	linear, planar
	B)	planar, nonplanar
	C)	nonplanar, planar
	D)	planar, planar
	E)	linear, nonplanar

16.	The in-phase sideways overlap of atomic p-orbitals leads to this molecular orbital:
	A)	s
	B)	s*
	C)	p
	D)	p*

17.	Consider the molecule ClF₅. The electronic geometry is __________ and the molecular geometry is __________.
	A)	pentagonal, octahedral
	B)	trigonal bipyramidal, trigonal bipyramidal
	C)	octahedral, tetrahedral
	D)	tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal
	E)	octahedral, square pyramidal

I.	BH₃
II.	NO₂^-1
III.	SF₆
IV.	SO₃
V.	PCl₅

1.	B
2.	B
3.	D
4.	B
5.	B
6.	B
7.	C
8.	A
9.	B
10.	E
11.	B
12.	D
13.	D
14.	B
15.	D
16.	C
17.	E
18.	D

18.	Which of the following has the smallest radius?
	A)	F^–
	B)	Ne
	C)	O^2–
	D)	Mg²⁺
	E)	Na⁺

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1.	B
2.	B
3.	D
4.	B
5.	B
6.	B
7.	C
8.	A
9.	B
10.	E
11.	B
12.	D
13.	D
14.	B
15.	D
16.	C
17.	E
18.	D