The MCQ Hub

Business Analytics & Intelligence - Set 6

2021-04-15T19:30:00.005+05:30

1] Data transformation is further divided into how many steps?

i. 2 ii. 4

iii. 3 iv. None of these

ANSWER : A

2] Which step of data transformation maps data elements from the source data system to the destination data system and captures any transformation that must occur:

i. Data mapping ii. Cell mapping

iii. Code generation iv. None of these

ANSWER : A

3] _______ step takes the data element mapping specification and creates an executable program that can be run on a computer system

i. Code generation ii. Map generation

iii. Data mapping iv. None of these

ANSWER : A

4] What reduces the number of values for a given continuous attribute by dividing the range of the attribute into intervals:

i. Data Reduction ii. Data Discretization

iii. Data Integration iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

5] A concept hierarchy for a given numeric attribute defines a ____________ of the attribute:

i. Discretization ii. Normalization

iii. Standardization iv. All of these

ANSWER : A

6] Concept hierarchies often can be generated automatically or dynamically refined based on which of the data distribution.

i. Predictive analysis ii. Statistical analysis

iii. Both i and ii iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

7] Which data discretization technique defines “If the process starts by first finding one or a few points (called split points or cut points) to split the entire attribute range, and then repeats this recursively on the resulting intervals”.

i. Top-Down ii. Bottom-Up

iii. Left-Right iv. Right-Left

ANSWER : A

8] Which data discretization technique defines “Starts by considering all of the continuous values as potential split- points, removes some by merging neighborhood values to form intervals, and then recursively applies this process to the resulting intervals”

i. Top-Down ii. Bottom-Up

iii. Left-Right iv. Right-Left

ANSWER : B

9] The sorted values after discretization are distributed into a number of buckets, or bins, and then replacing each bin value by either the bin _________.

i. Mean ii. Median

iii. Both i or ii iv. Mode

ANSWER : C

10] Which of the following is not a binning method:

i. Equal width partitioning ii. Equal depth partitioning

iii. Equal height partitioning iv. None of these

ANSWER : C

11] Concept hierarchies facilitate __________ in data warehouses to view data in multiple granularity:

i. Drilling and Rolling ii. Slicing and dicing

iii. Sampling iv. All of these

ANSWER : A

12] The _______________ is the process of realizing a problem, establishing and evaluating planning criteria, creating alternatives, implementing alternatives, and monitoring progress of the alternatives.

i. Model Planning ii. Model Building

iii. Mapping iv. None of these

ANSWER : A

13] The very similar rational decision-making model, as it is called in organizational behavior, is a process for making __________ decisions.

i. Logically sound ii. Efficient

iii. Accurate iv. Complex

ANSWER : A

14] Rational decision making is a __________ process for making logically sound decisions that aims to follow the orderly path from problem identification through solution.

i. Single Step ii. Multi Step

iii. Hybrid iv. Systematic

ANSWER : B

15] Building models are scale models of structures and are commonly used in

i. Model railroading ii. Wargaming

iii. Diorama making iv. All of these

ANSWER : D

16] In which phase the team builds and executes models based on the work done in the model planning phase.

i. Model Planning ii. Model Building

iii. Data Preparation iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

17] In which phase does the team explores the data to learn about the relationships between variables and subsequently selects key variables and the most suitable models.

i. Model Building ii. Operationalizing

iii. Model Planning iv. Discovery

ANSWER : C

18] In which phase does the team, in collaboration with major stakeholders, determines if the results of the project are a success or a failure based on the criteria developed in Phase 1

i. Communicate results ii. Operationalize

iii. Discovery iv. None of these

ANSWER : A

19] State true or false:

To communicate the findings effectively, these need to be understandable to clients who may know little about market research and who may even be unfamiliar with the specific market research project.

i. True ii. False

ANSWER : A

20] During this stage the team delivers final reports, briefings, code, and technical documents. In addition, the team may run a pilot project to implement the models in a production environment.

i. Communicate results ii. Operationalize

iii. Discovery iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

Business Analytics & Intelligence - Set 5

2021-04-15T19:25:00.004+05:30

1] How many phases does a data analytics life cycle contain?

i. 4 ii. 3

iii.6 iv. 5

ANSWER : C

2] In which phase of the data analytics life cycle, we define the business problem as an analytics challenge?

i. Model Planning ii. Data Discovery

iii. Operationalization iv. Data Preparation

ANSWER : B

3] ________ describes any type of processing performed on raw data to prepare it for another processing procedure.

i. Data Modeling ii. Data Processing

iii. Data Transformation iv. Data Pre-Processing

ANSWER : D

4] Which task in Data Preparation fills in missing values, smooth’s noisy data, removes outliers, and resolves inconsistencies.

i. Data Cleaning ii. Data Transformation

iii. Data Integration iv. Data reduction

ANSWER : A

5] Integration of multiple databases, data cubes, or files is done in:

i. Data Transformation ii. Data discretization

iii. Data Cleaning iv. None of these

ANSWER : D

6] What is performed in Data transformation:

i. Normalization ii. Aggregation

iii. Both i and ii iv. None of these

ANSWER : C

7] Which of the following is not a form of Data Preprocessing:

i. Data Cleaning ii. Data Integration

iii. Data Validation iv. Data Reduction

ANSWER : C

8] State true or false:

Data discretization is a part of data reduction but with particular importance, especially for numerical data.

i. True ii. False

ANSWER : A

9] Whose applications use visual tools such as geographical maps, pivot-tables, and heat-maps to make the process of finding patterns:

i. Data Modeling ii. Data Discovery

iii. Data Integration iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

10] What are the characteristics of dirty data:

i. Incomplete ii. Noisy

iii. Inconsistent iv. All of the above

ANSWER : D

11] Which of the following are standardization techniques:

i. Decimal Scaling method ii. Min-Max method

iii. Z-index method iv. All of these

ANSWER : D

12] Let income range $12,000 to $98,000 normalized to [0.0, 1.0]. Then $73,000 is mapped to(use min-max normalization):

i. 0.716 ii. 0.512

iii. 0.235 iv. 0.872

ANSWER : A

13] State true or false:

Data cleansing differs from data validation in that validation almost invariably means data is rejected from the system at entry and is performed at entry time, rather than on batches of data.

i. True ii. False

ANSWER : A

14] ____ involves combining data residing in different sources and providing users with a unified view of these data.

i. Data Discretization ii. Data Integration

iii. Data Reduction iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

15] Which of the following are Data Integration tools:

i. Alteryx ii. Analytics Canvas

iii. Rapid Miner Studio iv. All of these

ANSWER : D

16] Which of the following does not come in the three main criteria to determine whether a data reduction technique should be used:

i. Efficiency ii. Complexity

iii. Accuracy iv. Simplicity

ANSWER : B

17] Discovery is

i. It is hidden within a database and can only be recovered if one is given certain clues (an example IS encrypted information).

ii. The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data.

iii. An extremely complex molecule that occurs in human chromosomes and that carries genetic information in the form of genes.

iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

18] ______ which selects a representative subset from a large population of data.

i. Sampling ii. Transforming

iii. Feature Extraction iv. None of these

ANSWER : A

19] It is a process which pulls out specified data that is significant in some particular context:

i. Sampling ii. Feature Extraction

iii. Both I and II iv. None of these

ANSWER : B

20] What becomes increasingly important in cases of merging systems of two companies or consolidating applications within one company to provide a unified view of the company's data assets.

i. Data Modeling ii. Model Building

iii. Data Integration iv. All of these.

ANSWER : C

Business Analytics & Intelligence - Set 4

2021-04-14T19:30:00.003+05:30

1] Which are cons of data visualization?

A. It conveys a lot of information in a small space.

B. It makes your report more visually appealing.

C. visual data is distorted or excessively used.

D. None Of the above

ANSWER : C

2] Which of the intricate techniques is not used for data visualization?

A. Bullet Graphs

B. Bubble Clouds

C. Fever Maps

D. Heat Maps

ANSWER : C

3] Which one of the following is most basic and commonly used techniques?

A. Line charts

B. Scatter plots

C. Population pyramids

D. Area charts

ANSWER : A

4] Which is used to query and edit graphical settings?

A. anova()

B. par()

C. plot()

D. cum()

ANSWER : B

5] Which of the following method make vector of repeated values?

A. rep()

B. data()

C. view()

D. read()

ANSWER : B

6] Who calls the lower level functions lm.fit?

A. lm()

B. col.max

C. par

D. histo

ANSWER : A

7] Which of the following lists names of variables in a data.frame?

A. par()

B. names()

C. barchart()

D. quantile()

ANSWER : D

8] Which of the following statement is true?

A. Scientific visualization, sometimes referred to in shorthand as SciVis

B. Healthcare professionals frequently use choropleth maps to visualize important health data.

C. Candlestick charts are used as trading tools and help finance professionals analyze price movements over time

D. All of the above

ANSWER : D

9] ______ is used for density plots?

A. par

B. lm

C. kde

D. C

ANSWER : C

10] Which of the following method make vector of repeated values?

a) rep()

b) data()

c) view()

d) read()

ANSWER : B

11] Which of the following finds the position of a quantile in a dataset?

a) quantile()

b) barplot()

c) barchart()

d) rep()

ANSWER : A

12] Which of the following function cross-tabulate tables using formulas?

a) table

b) stem

c) xtabs

d) read

ANSWER : D

13] Which of the following groups find the correlation matrix?

a) factor.model

b) col.max(x)

c) stem

d) which.max(x)

ANSWER : A

14] which of the following statement make a mosaic plot?

a) histogram()

b) mosaicplot()

c) bar()

d) which.max(x)

ANSWER : B

15] Which of the following compute proportions from a contingency table?

a) par()

b) prop.table()

c) anova()

d) mosaicplot()

ANSWER : B

16] Which of the following is lattice command for producing a scatterplot?

a) plot()

b) lm()

c) xyplot()

d) anova()

ANSWER : C

17] Which of the following builds empirical cumulative distribution function?

a) ecdf()

b) cum

c) cumsum

d) lm()

ANSWER : A

18] Which of the following is used to view dataset in a spreadsheet-type format ?

a) Disp()

b) View()

c) Seq()

d) lm()

ANSWER : B

19] _______ function carries out a chi-square test.

a) chisq.test()

b) t.test()

c) prop.test()

d) fisher.test()

ANSWER : A

20] Which of the following adds marginal sums to an existing table?

a) par()

b) prop.table()

c) addmargins()

d) quantile()

ANSWER : B

Business Analytics & Intelligence - Set 3

2021-04-14T19:23:00.002+05:30

1] Business intelligence (BI) is a broad category of application programs which includes

a) Decision support

b) Data mining

c) OLAP

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : D

2] OLAP stands for

a) Online analytical processing

b) Online analysis processing

c) Online transaction processing

d) Online aggregate processing

ANSWER : A

3] Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called ________ data.

a) Multidimensional

b) Single dimensional

c) Measured

d) Dimensional

ANSWER : A

4] The generalization of cross-tab which is represented visually is _____ which is also called as data cube.

a) Two dimensional cube

b) Multidimensional cube

c) N-dimensional cube

d) Cuboid

ANSWER : A

5] The process of viewing the cross-tab (Single dimensional) with a fixed value of one

attribute is

a) Slicing

b) Dicing

c) Pivoting

d) Both Slicing and Dicing

ANSWER : A

6] The operation of moving from finer-granularity data to a coarser granularity (by means of aggregation) is called a

a) Rollup

b) Drill down

c) Dicing

d) Pivoting

ANSWER : A

7] In SQL the cross-tabs are created using

a) Slice

b) Dice

c) Pivot

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : A

8] What do data warehouses support?

a) OLAP

b) OLTP

c) OLAP and OLTP

d) Operational databases

ANSWER : A

9] Which one of the following is the right syntax for DECODE?

a) DECODE (search, expression, result [, search, result]... [, default])

b) DECODE (expression, result [, search, result]... [, default], search)

c) DECODE (search, result [, search, result]... [, default], expression)

d) DECODE (expression, search, result [, search, result]... [, default])

ANSWER : D

10] What is true about Data Visualization?

A. Data Visualization is used to communicate information clearly and efficiently to users by the usage of information graphics such as tables and charts.

B. Data Visualization helps users in analyzing a large amount of data in a simpler way.

C. Data Visualization makes complex data more accessible, understandable, and usable.

D. All of the above

ANSWER : D

11] Data can be visualized using?

A. graphs

B. charts

C. maps

D. All of the above

ANSWER : D

12] Data visualization is also an element of the broader .

A. deliver presentation architecture

B. data presentation architecture

C. dataset presentation architecture

D. data process architecture

ANSWER : B

13] Which method shows hierarchical data in a nested format?

A. Treemaps

B. Scatter plots

C. Population pyramids

D. Area charts

ANSWER : A

14] Which is used to inference for 1 proportion using normal approx?

A. fisher.test()

B. chisq.test()

C. Lm.test()

D. prop.test()

ANSWER : D

15] Which is used to find the factor congruence coefficients?

A. factor.mosaicplot

B. factor.xyplot

C. factor.congruence

D. factor.cumsum

ANSWER : C

16] Which of the following is tool for checking normality?

A. qqline()

B. qline()

C. anova()

D. lm()

ANSWER : A

17] Which of the following is false?

A. data visualization include the ability to absorb information quickly

B. Data visualization is another form of visual art

C. Data visualization decrease the insights and take slower decisions

D. None Of the above

ANSWER : C

18] Common use cases for data visualization include?

A. Politics

B. Sales and marketing

C. Healthcare

D. All of the above

ANSWER : D

19] Which of the following plots are often used for checking randomness in time series?

A. Autocausation

B. Autorank

C. Autocorrelation

D. None of the above

ANSWER : C

20] Which are pros of data visualization?

A. It can be accessed quickly by a wider audience.

B. It can misrepresent information

C. It can be distracting

D. None Of the above

ANSWER : A

Business Analytics & Intelligence - Set 2

2021-04-14T19:12:00.006+05:30

1] A written report is more formal than an oral report.

a) True

b) False

ANSWER : A

2] Which of these is usually written in a form of a memorandum?

a) Informal reports

b) Formal reports

c) Professional reports

d) Business reports

ANSWER : A

3] Which of these is not a formal report?

a) Informational

b) Informal

c) Interpretative

d) Routine

ANSWER : B

4] Into which of these types are formal reports not classified?

a) Informational

b) Interpretative

c) Oral

d) Routine

ANSWER : C

5] Which of these reports provide information without any evaluation?

a) Informational

b) Interpretative

c) Routine

d) Progress

ANSWER : A

6] ______ report provides rational findings.

a) Informative

b) Interpretative

c) Routine

d) Progress

ANSWER : B

7] Interpretative reports are also known as _______

a) recommendation reports

b) routine reports

c) progress reports

d) informal reports

ANSWER : A

8] Which of these reports are written for recording information?

a) Informational

b) Interpretative

c) Routine

d) Recommendation

ANSWER : C

9] Which of these is not mentioned in a progress report?

a) Name of project

b) Right choice of instruments

c) Nature of work

d) Amount of work left

ANSWER : B

10] Which of these reports involves the checking of a piece of equipment to see if it’s still in

working condition?

a) Progress report

b) Laboratory report

c) Inspection report

d) Inventory report

ANSWER : C

11] To which of these people is the report not very crucial?

a) Engineers

b) Scientists

c) Teachers

d) Business executives

ANSWER : C

12] Which of these reports is raised annually?

a) Inventory reports

b) Confidential reports

c) Laboratory reports

d) Inspection reports

ANSWER : B

13] Which of these is not a part of a report?

a) Front matter

b) Gender

c) Front cover

d) Title page

ANSWER : B

14] Which of these is not a parameter of a report?

a) Ability to acquire additional information

b) Quality of additional information acquired

c) Ability to arrive at subjective evaluation

d) Ability to provide worthwhile recommendations

ANSWER : C

15] Which of these is not a parameter in a report?

a) Extent of information

b) Quality of information

c) Age of writer

d) Ability to acquire information

ANSWER : C

16] A report may be used for reading or hearing.

a) True

b) False

ANSWER : A

17] Which of these must be avoided in a technical report?

a) Facts

b) Logical conclusion

c) Objective evaluation

d) Subjective evaluation

ANSWER : D

18] Which of these must never be a basis for a technical report?

a) Facts

b) Tests

c) Personal prejudices

d) Experiments

ANSWER : C

19] A technical report establishes a

a) illogical conclusion

b) logical conclusion

c) personal prejudice

d) misplaced learning

ANSWER : B

20] A technical report reduces to writing the facts of a particular situation.

a) True

b) False

ANSWER : A

Business Analytics & Intelligence - Set 1

2021-04-14T19:01:00.005+05:30

1] Business intelligence (BI) is a broad category of application programs which includes

a) Decision support

b) Data mining

c) OLAP

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : D

2] Point out the correct statement.

a) OLAP is an umbrella term that refers to an assortment of software applications for analyzing an organization’s raw data for intelligent decision making

b) Business intelligence equips enterprises to gain business advantage from data

c) BI makes an organization agile thereby giving it a lower edge in today’s evolving market condition

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : B

3] BI can catalyze a business’s success in terms of

a) Distinguish the products and services that drive revenues

b) Rank customers and locations based on profitability

c) Ranks customers and locations based on probability

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : D

4] Which of the following areas are affected by BI?

a) Revenue

b) CRM

c) Sales

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : B

5] Point out the wrong statement.

a) Data is factual information for analysis

b) BI is a category of database software that provides an interface to help users quickly and interactively scrutinize the results in a variety of dimensions of the data

c) Customer relationship management (CRM) entails all aspects of interaction that a company has with its customer

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : B

6] _________ is a performance management tool that recapitulates an organization’s performance from several standpoints on a single page.

a) Balanced Scorecard

b) Data Cube

c) Dashboard

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : A

7] _________ is a system where operations like data extraction, transformation and loading operations are executed.

a) Data staging

b) Data integration

c) ETL

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : A

8] _________ is a category of applications and technologies for presenting and analyzing corporate and external data.

a) Data warehouse

b) MIS

c) EIS

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : C

9] Which of the following is the process of basing an organization’s actions and decisions on

actual measured results of performance?

a) Institutional performance management

b) Gap analysis

c) Slice and Dice

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : A

10] Which of the following does not form part of BI Stack in SQL Server?

a) SSRS

b) SSIS

c) SSAS

d) OBIEE

ANSWER : D

11] The hardware unit which is used to monitor computer processing is

(A) ROM

(B) Mouse

(D) Console

ANSWER : D

12] In which of the following environment, data is held in a temporary computer file?

(A) Batch processing

(B) Online processing

(D) None of these

ANSWER : C

13] The task of proving that a given program works correctly is

(A) Check pointing

(B) Program verification

(D) Program tracing

ANSWER : B

14] The program that controls the execution of application programs and acts as an interface between user of a computer and computer hardware, is called

(A) Operating System

(B) Compiler

(D) Linker

ANSWER : A

15] Computing systems can be effective in generating strategic information because

(A) They require managers to clarify their thinking about their plans and future possibilities

(B) Future can be predicted from the pattern of the past

(D) All of these

ANSWER : A

16] The difference between raw data and information is

(A) Addition of intellect

(B) Addition of processing

(D) All of these

ANSWER : C

17] Batch system customarily requires

(A) Collection of transmission for single-shot processing

(B) Transferal of programs from one micro computer to another

(D) Direct on- line input of file data

ANSWER : A

18] The range concept of a spread sheet is its ability to

(A) Calculate random portions of that spread

(B) Print only selected portions of that spread sheet

(D) Merge two spread sheets in similar areas

ANSWER : C

19] A microcomputer consists of at least an input unit, an output unit, microprocessor unit, and a

(A) Stabilizer

(B) Memory unit

(D) Network

ANSWER : B

20] A program to detect overall system malfunction is

(A) System diagnostics

(B) System software

(D) Utilities

ANSWER : A

Software Design and Modeling U-2 (Set -2)

2021-04-11T19:45:00.000+05:30

1] Select from the following ________ has to be reverse-engineereD.

A. visibility
B. relationship
C. target
D. constraints
E. All of these

ANSWER : C

2] Which of the following diagram is used to model the distribution of objects?

A. Object Diagram
B. Activity Diagram
C. State Chart Diagram
D. Interaction Diagram

ANSWER : A

3] _________select from the following in which engineering and reverse engineering can be applicable

A. tagged values
B. stereotypes
C. class diagram
D. adornments
E. Both a and b

ANSWER : C

4] Which one is used to display a set of objects and their relationships?

A. Object diagram
B. Class diagram
C. Use case diagram
D. Activity diagram
E. All of the above

ANSWER : A

5] Select the structure that is model by the Objects diagram

A.  object
B. class
C. Use Case
D. activity
E. Both A and B

ANSWER : A

6] Use case description consists of the following…

A. Actors
B. Number and Use case name
C. Need and stakeholder
D. Both a and b
E. All of the above

ANSWER : E

7] Select the true statement from the following.

A. The first condition is has guaranteed to be true if the activity finishes
B. The next or post-condition is guaranteed to be true if the activity begins
C. Trigger is an event that is used to give a start to a use case to begin.
D. Both a and b

ANSWER : C

8] Select the true statement for the use case description format.

A. Underline text indicates to another use case
B. Extensions section utilize a complex numbering scheme
C. Indentation is used in a line to bring extensions easy to read
D. Both a and b
E. All of the above

ANSWER : E

9] Select the interaction that the use case description has.

A. Product and Actor
B. Use case
C. Actor
D. Product

ANSWER : A

10] Select the steps that are needed in use case driven iterative development?

A. At each loop step, one or many use cases are chosen for execution
B. Iteration must be followed till the system is properly ended
C. Iterative development formed system work gradually through analysis, design, coding, testing, and evaluation
D. Both a and b
E. All of these

ANSWER : E

11] Select the methods used by the use case to write a description.

A. Actors in a use case are mostly stakeholders
B. Preconditions always be true in advance statement start
C. Requires a list should be checked when writing each use case
D. Both A and C
E. All of the mentioned

ANSWER : E

12] Select the true in context to extensions.

A. The flow specifies the extensions
B. The alternatives are known as an extension because they extend the activity flow in various direction through the branch point
C. Both a and b
D. All of the above
E. None of these

ANSWER : D

13] A different alternative must consists of?

A. Different Actors
B. Different Use cases
C. Different Overall product functionality
D. All of the mentioned

ANSWER : D

14] ________ diagrams are used to illustrate data structures, and the static snapshots instances of the things found in the class diagrams.

A.use case 
B.Object 
C.Collaboration 
D.Sequence

ANSWER : B

15] Choose the ________ which has to be reverse engineereD.

A. target 
B. relationship 
C. visibility 
D. constraints

ANSWER : A

16] Forward engineering of an ________ is theoretically possible but programmatically o limited value.

A. object diagram 
B. activity diagram 
C. class diagram 
D. interaction diagram

ANSWER : A

17] Class diagrams are not useful to ________

A. model simple collaborations 
B. model the vocabulary of a system 
C. model simple interactions 
D. model a logical database schema

ANSWER : C

18] Which of the following diagram is used to model the distribution of objects?

A. Object Diagram 
B. Activity Diagram 
C. State Chart Diagram 
D. Interaction Diagram

ANSWER : A

19] The Use case Description Heuristics includes which of these?

A. Fill in the use case template from top to bottom
B. Write simple declarative sentences in active voice
C. Avoid sequence of steps by the actors and product
D. All of the mentioned

ANSWER : D

20] ________ represents one static frame in the dynamic storyboarD.

A. Object diagram 
B. Activity diagram 
C. Class diagram 
D. Interaction diagram

ANSWER : A

Software Design and Modeling U-2 (Set -1)

2021-04-11T19:33:00.006+05:30

1] Use case descriptions consist of interaction_____

A. Use case

B. product

C. Actor

D. Product & Actor

ANSWER : D

2]Which of these statements are truly acceptable?

A. A precondition is an assertion guaranteed to be true when the operation finishes

B. A post-condition is an assertion guaranteed to be true when the activity or operation begins

C. An event which causes a use case to begin is trigger

D. None of the mentioned

ANSWER : C

3] What are the types of prototypes?

A. Horizontal prototypes

B. Vertical Prototypes

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

ANSWER : C

4] Diagrams which are used to distribute files, libraries, and tables across topology of hardware are called

A. deployment diagrams

B. use case diagrams

C. sequence diagrams

D. collaboration diagrams

ANSWER : A

5] How many views of the software can be represented through the Unified Modeling Language UML)?

A. Four

B. Five

C. Nine

D. None of the above

ANSWER : B

6] Which of the following views represents the interaction of the user with the software but tells nothing about the internal working of the software?

A. Use case diagram

B. Activity diagra

C. Class diagram

D. All of the above

ANSWER : A

7] What are the notations for the Use case Diagrams?

A. Use case

B. Actor

C. Prototype

D. Use case and Actor

ANSWER : D

8] Which among the following can be heuristic for Use case diagram?

A. The product can be made actor

B. Never name actors with noun phrases

C. Name Use cases with verb phrases

D. All of the mentioned

ANSWER : C

9] Which of the following statements is true, iThere are 5 views that are represented through the Unified Modelling Language UML). iiThese 5 views in UML are represented through 9 UML diagrams.

A. Only i is true

B. Only ii is true

C. Both i and ii are true

D. None of them is true

ANSWER : C

10] UML diagram that shows the interaction between users and system, is known as

A. Activity diagram

B. E-R diagram

C. Use case diagram

D. Class diagram

ANSWER : C

11] UML diagram that specifies sequences/ steps of operations to be performed

A. Activity diagram

B. Use case diagram

C. Class diagram

D. E-R case diagram

ANSWER : B

12] Which of the following statement is true?

A. Use case diagram is a dynamic model of interaction between actors and product in a use case

B. Use case Description is a static model of use case supported by a product

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

ANSWER : D

13] A UML diagram that facilitates requirements gathering and interacts between system and external users, is called as

A. Flowchart diagram

B. Sequence diagram

C. Use case diagram

D. Data flow diagram

ANSWER : C

14] Select the diagram that is used to model the vocabulary of a system.

A. Object Diagram

B. Activity Diagram

C. Both a and b

D. Interaction Diagram

E. Class diagram

ANSWER : E

15] Select which one is model static data structures.

A. Object diagrams

B. Class diagrams

C. Activity diagrams

D. Interaction diagrams

E. All of the above

ANSWER : B

16] Select the engineering From the following ________that is theoretically feasible but programmatically o restricted value.

A. class diagram

B. activity diagram

C. object diagram

D. interaction diagram

E. Both a and c

ANSWER : C

17] Select where the class diagrams are not convenient

A. simple interactions model

B. the vocabulary of a system model

C. simple collaborations model

D. logical database schema model

E. All of the above

ANSWER :C

18] Select from the following which is used to show one static frame in the dynamic storyboarD.

A. Class diagram

B. Activity diagram

C. Object diagram

D. Interaction diagram

ANSWER : C

19] Select the diagrams that are used to explain data structures, and the static snapshots parts of the things place in the class diagrams.

A. use case

B. Collaboration

C. Object

D. Sequence

E. None of these

ANSWER : C

20] Select the view which is shown by object Object diagram.

A. logical

B. dynamic

C. static

D. process

E. All of these

ANSWER : C

Software Design and Modeling U-1 (Set -3)

2021-04-11T12:40:00.001+05:30

1] Which of the following diagram view the whole system as a block box?

A. Class diagram

B. Activity diagram

C. Use case diagram

D. Interaction diagram

ANSWER: A

2] In an Activity Diagram, transitions belongs to ________

A. trigger oriented transitions

B. self transitions

C. internal transitions

D. completion transitions

ANSWER: C

3] which of the following is NOT present in an Activity Diagram?

A. Action States

B. Objects

C. Events

D. Notes

ANSWER: C

4] Executable non atomic computations are called as ________

A. action states

B. activity states

C. transitions

D. simple states

ANSWER: D

5] Activity diagram is a special kind of ________

A. use case diagram

B. state chart diagram

C. interaction diagram

D. component diagram

ANSWER: C

6] Executable atomic computations are called as ________

A. action states

B. activity states

C. composite states

D. concurrent states

ANSWER: B

7] ________is a path from one activity state to the next activity state.

A. Action state

B. Activity state

C. Transition

D. Fork

ANSWER: B

8] Objects placed in an Activity Diagram are connected to the activity or transition using ________ relationship.

A. association

B. generalization

C. dependency

D. realization

ANSWER: A

9] ________is used to represent concurrent flows in an Activity Diagram.

A. Slide bar

B. Synchronization bar

C. Swim lane

D. Branch

ANSWER: C

10] In an Activity Diagram, organizing the activities into groups is called ________

A. forking

B. joining

C. swimlane

D. synchronization

ANSWER: A

11] The behavior of a system is modeled using ________

A. class diagram

B. activity diagram

C. use case diagram

D. interaction diagram

ANSWER : B

12] Which of the following diagrams is used to model business workflows?

A. Deployment diagram

B. Activity diagram

C. Use Case diagram

D. Interaction diagram

ANSWER : B

13] The scenario of a use case is graphically represented using ________

A. deployment diagram

B. sequence diagram

C. use case diagram

D. interaction diagram

ANSWER : B

14] ________ identify high-level services provided by the system.

A. Classes

B. Activities

C. Use Cases

D. Components

ANSWER : C

15]Use case scenario is a specific sequence of ________

A. relationships n

B. use cases

C. classes

D. actions

ANSWER : D

16] A collaboration is the of ________ a use case.

A. generalization

B. realization

C. inheritance

D. association

ANSWER : B

17] Uses cases are represented as ________ within the system rectangle.

A. ellipses

B. circles

C. rhombus

D. rectangle

ANSWER : A

18] An ________ connects the initiating actor to the use case (ending at the use case).

A. Arrow

B. Line

C. Arc

D. Scribble

ANSWER : A

19] Animation of a model against the execution of a deployed system is an example of ________

A. business engineering

B. forward engineering

C. reverse engineering

D. temporal engineering

ANSWER : B

20] Forward Engineering is possible for an Activity Diagram especially if the context of the diagram is ________

A. an operation

B. a workflow

C. a class

D. a use case

ANSWER : A

Software Design and Modeling U-1 (Set -2)

2021-04-11T12:34:00.007+05:30

1]The behavior of a system is modeled using ________

A. class diagram

B. activity diagram

C. use case diagram

D. interaction diagram

ANSWER : B

2]Which of the following diagrams is used to model business workflows?

A. Deployment diagram

B. Activity diagram

C. Use Case diagram

D. Interaction diagram

ANSWER : B

3]The scenario of a use case is graphically represented using ________

A. deployment diagram

B. sequence diagram

C. use case diagram

D. interaction diagram

ANSWER : B

4] ________identify high-level services provided by the system.

A. Classes

B. Activities

C. Use Cases

D. Components

ANSWER : C

5] Use case scenario is a specific sequence of ________

A. relationships n

B. use cases

C. classes

D. actions

ANSWER : D

6] A collaboration is the of ________ a use case.

A. generalization

B. realization

C. inheritance

D. association

ANSWER : B

7] Uses cases are represented as ________ within the system rectangle.

A. ellipses

B. circles

C. rhombus

D. rectangle

ANSWER : A

8] An ________ connects the initiating actor to the use case (ending at the use case).

A. Arrow

B. Line

C. Arc

D. Scribble

ANSWER : A

9] Animation of a model against the execution of a deployed system is an example of ________

A. business engineering

B. forward engineering

C. reverse engineering

D. temporal engineering

ANSWER : C

10] Forward Engineering is possible for an Activity Diagram especially if the context of the diagram is ________

A. an operation

B. a workflow

C. a class

D. a use case

ANSWER : A

11] Realization of a use case is specified by ________

A. a collaboration

B. a component

C. a node

D. an activity

ANSWER : A

12] ________relationship between use cases means that the base use case explicitly incorporates the behavior of another use case at a location specified in the base.

A. Exclude

B. Extend

C. Include

D. Abstract

ANSWER : C

13] ________captures the intended behavior of a system.

A. use Case

B. Component

C. Class

D. Interface

ANSWER : C

14] Forward Engineering is the process of translating ________

A. Model to Model

B. Code to Model

C. Model to Code

D. Code to Code

ANSWER : A

15] The names of use cases are generally given as ________

A. noun phrases

B. verb phrases

C. adjectives

D. adverbs

ANSWER : C

16] Actors are connected to use cases only by ________

A. association relationship

B. generalization relationship

C. realization relationship

D. dependency relationship

ANSWER : B

17] ________represents a role that plays within a system.

A. Use case

B. Component

C. Actor

D. Activity

ANSWER : A

18] The behavior of a use case is specified by ________

A. flow of events

B. classes

C. components

D. nodes

ANSWER : C

19] ________uses the services of the system under design to fulfill the goals.

A. Primary actor

B. Supporting actor

C. Offstage actor

D. Secondary actor

ANSWER : A

20] ________state "what must always" be true beginning a scenario in the use case.

A. pre-conditions

B. primary conditions

C. post-conditions

D. secondary conditions

ANSWER : A

Software Design and Modeling U-1 (Set -1)

2021-04-11T12:26:00.007+05:30

1] Abstraction has ______ types.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

ANSWER: D

2] To hide the internal implementation of an object we use …

A. inheritance

B. encapsulation

C. polymorphism

D. none of these

ANSWER: B

3] The vertcal dimension of a sequence diagram shows

A. abstract

B. line

C. time

D. messages

ANSWER: C

4] CRC approach and noun phrase approach are used to identify …

A. classes

B. colaborators

C. use cases

D. object

ANSWER: A

5] Abstraction provide an operation named as …

A. encapsulation

B. call back

C. turndown

D. inheritance

ANSWER: B

6] To distinguish between active and non-active object which property is applied?

A. abstraction

B. polymorphism

C. concurrency

D. aggregation

ANSWER: C

7] The time oriented diagram include …

A. sequence

B. classes

C. activity

D. none of these

ANSWER: A

8] Aggregation is …

A. set of relationship

B. composed of relationship

C. part of relationship

D. all of these

ANSWER: B

9] Cohesion and coupling are represented by using …

A. structure part

B. structure effect

C. dependence matrix

D. all of these

ANSWER: C

10] Refinement is a process of

A. inheritance

B. collaboration

C. elaboration

D. polymorphism

ANSWER: C

11] SMI stands for

A. software maturity index

B. system maturity information

C. software model index

D. none of these

ANSWER: A

12] Group of functionally related objects is …

A. concatenation

B. cohesion

C. coupling

D. all of these

ANSWER: B

13] In a sequence diagram, the _____ indicates when an object sends or receives a message.

A. command line

B. focus

C. request link

D. lifeline

ANSWER: C

14] When arranging actors and objects on a sequence diagram, it is nice to list them _____.

A. in order in which they participate in the sequence across the top of the diagram A ___ describes information about an object.

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

ANSWER: A

15] The two types of interaction diagrams are ____, and ____ diagrams.

A. sequence

B. communication

C. Both

D. None

ANSWER: C

16] Looping in an activity diagram is best represented using what?

A. Looping in an activity diagram is best represented by Synchronizaton bars.

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

ANSWER: A

17] A decision point within an activity diagram may be shown with an activity symbol.

A. True

B. False

C. Both

D. None

ANSWER: A

18] A___ is an instantiation of a class.

A. Object

B. Class

C. Both

D. None

ANSWER: A

19] On an activity diagram the arrows represent what?

A. In activity diagram the arrows represent the flow of activities.

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

ANSWER: A

20] The focus in a sequence diagram is on _____.

A. time ordering of messages being passed between objects

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

ANSWER: A

Fundamentals Of Data Structure MCQ'S SET-5

2021-04-11T11:56:00.001+05:30

1] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void f(char *k)

{

k++;

k[2] = 'm';

}

void main()

{

char s[] = "hello";

f(s);

printf("%c\n", *s);

}

a) h

b) e

c) m

d) o

ANSWER: A

2] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

char s[] = "hello";

s++;

printf("%c\n", *s);

}

a) Compile time error

b) h

c) e

d) o

ANSWER: A

3] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct student

{

char *c;

};

void main()

{

struct student m;

struct student *s = &m;

s->c = "hello";

printf("%s", s->c);

}

a) hello

b) Run time error

c) Nothing

d) Depends on compiler

ANSWER: A

4] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct student

{

char *c;

};

void main()

{

struct student *s;

s->c = "hello";

printf("%s", s->c);

}

a) hello
b) Segmentation fault
c) Run time error
d) Nothing

ANSWER: B

5] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct student

{

char *c;

};

void main()

{

struct student m;

struct student *s = &m;

s->c = "hello";

printf("%s", m.c);

}

a) Run time error

b) Nothing

c) hello

d) Varies

ANSWER: C

6] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct student

{

char *c;

};

void main()

{

struct student m;

struct student *s = &m;

(*s).c = "hello";

printf("%s", m.c);

}

a) Run time error

b) Nothing

c) Varies

d) hello

ANSWER: D

7] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct student

{

char *c;

};

void main()

{

struct student n;

struct student *s = &n;

(*s).c = "hello";

printf("%p\n%p\n", s, &n);

}

a) Different address

b) Run time error

c) Nothing

d) Same address

ANSWER: D

8] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct p

{

int x[2];

};

struct q

{

int *x;

};

int main()

{

struct p p1 = {1, 2};

struct q *ptr1;

ptr1->x = (struct q*)&p1.x;

printf("%d\n", ptr1->x[1]);

}

a) Compile time error

b) Segmentation fault/code crash

c) 2

d) 1

ANSWER: B

9] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct p

{

int x[2];

};

struct q

{

int *x;

};

int main()

{

struct p p1 = {1, 2};

struct q *ptr1;

ptr1->x = (struct q*)&p1.x;

printf("%d\n", ptr1->x[1]);

}

a) Compile time error

b) Segmentation fault/code crash

c) 2

d) 1

ANSWER: B

10] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct p

{

int x;

int y;

};

int main()

{

struct p p1[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6};

struct p *ptr1 = p1;

printf("%d %d\n", ptr1->x, (ptr1 + 2)->x);

}

a) 1 5

b) 1 3

c) Compile time error

d) 1 4

ANSWER: A

11] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

struct p

{

int x;

char y;

};

int main(){

struct p p1[] = {1, 92, 3, 94, 5, 96};

struct p *ptr1 = p1;

int x = (sizeof(p1) / sizeof(struct p));

printf("%d %d\n", ptr1->x, (ptr1 + x - 1)->x);

}

a) Compile time error

b) Undefined behaviour

c) 1 3

d) 1 5

ANSWER: D

12] What is the output of this C code (considering sizeof char is 1 and pointer is 4)?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

char *a[2] = {"hello", "hi"};

printf("%d", sizeof(a));

return 0;

}

a) 9

b) 4

c) 8

d) 10

ANSWER: A

13] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

char a[2][6] = {"hello", "hi"};

printf("%d", sizeof(a));

return 0;

}

a) 9

b) 12

c) 8

d) 10

ANSWER: B

14] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

char a[2][6] = {"hello", "hi"};

printf("%d", sizeof(a));

return 0;

}

a) 9

b) 12

c) 8

d) 10

ANSWER: C

15] Advantage of a multi-dimension array over pointer array.

a) Pre-defined size.

b) Input can be taken from user.

c) Faster Access.

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER: D

16] Which of the following operation is possible using a pointer char?(Assuming declaration char *a;)

a) Input via %s

b) Generation of multidimensional array

c) Changing address to point at another location

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER: C

17] Comment on the following two operations?

int *a[] = {{1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 3, 4}}; //- 1
int b[4][4] = {{1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 3, 4}};//- 2

a) 1 will work, 2 will not

b) 1 and 2, both will work

c) 1 won’t work, 2 will work

d) Neither of them will work

ANSWER: C

18] Comment on the following two operations?

int *a[] = {{1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 3, 4}}; //- 1
int b[][] = {{1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 3, 4}}; //- 2

a) 1 works, 2 doesn’t

b) 2 works, 1 doesn’t

c) Both of them work

d) Neither of them work

ANSWER: D

19] Comment on the following two operations?

int *a[] = {{1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 3, 4}}; //- 1
int b[][] = {{1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 3, 4}}; //- 2

a) 1 works, 2 doesn’t

b) 2 works, 1 doesn’t

c) Both of them work

d) Neither of them work

ANSWER: B

20] Which of the following syntax is correct for command-line arguments?

a) int main(int var, char *varg[])

b) int main(char *argv[], int argc)

c) int main()
    {
        int argv, char *argc[];
    }

d) Both (a) and (b)

ANSWER: A

Fundamentals Of Data Structure MCQ'S SET-4

2021-04-10T13:04:00.001+05:30

1] Which is an indirection operator among the following?

a) &

b) *

c) ->

d) .

ANSWER: B

2] Which of the following does not initialize ptr to null (assuming variable declaration of a as int a=0;?

a) int *ptr = &a;

b) int *ptr = &a – &a;

c) int *ptr = a – a;

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER: A

3] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int x = 0;

void main()

{

int *ptr = &x;

printf("%p\n", ptr);

x++;

printf("%p\n ", ptr);

}

a) Same address

b) Different address

c) Compile time error

d) Varies

ANSWER: A

4] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int x = 0;

void main()

{

int *const ptr = &x;

printf("%p\n", ptr);

ptr++;

printf("%p\n ", ptr);

}

a) 0 1

b) Compile time error

c) 0xbfd605e8 0xbfd605ec

d) 0xbfd605e8 0xbfd605e8

ANSWER: B

5] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int x = 0;

int *ptr = &x;

printf("%p\n", ptr);

ptr++;

printf("%p\n ", ptr);

}

a) 0xbfd605e8 0xbfd605ec

b) 0xbfd605e8 0cbfd60520

c) 0xbfd605e8 0xbfd605e9

d) Run time error

ANSWER: A

6] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int x = 0;

int *ptr = &5;

printf("%p\n", ptr);

}

a) 5

b) Address of 5

c) Nothing

d) Compile time error

ANSWER: D

7] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int k = 5;

int *p = &k;

int **m = &p;

**m = 6;

printf("%d\n", k);

}

a) 5

b) Compile time error

c) 6

d) Junk

ANSWER: C

8] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int a[3] = {1, 2, 3};

int *p = a;

int *r = &p;

printf("%d", (**r));

}

a) 1

b) Compile time error

c) Address of a

d) Junk value

ANSWER: B

9] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int a[3] = {1, 2, 3};

int *p = a;

int **r = &p;

printf("%p %p", *r, a);

}

a) Different address is printed
b) 1 2
c) Same address is printed.
d) 1 1

ANSWER: C

10] How many number of pointer (*) does C have against a pointer variable declaration?

a) 7

b) 127

c) 255

d) No limits.

ANSWER: D

11] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a = 1, b = 2, c = 3;

int *ptr1 = &a, *ptr2 = &b, *ptr3 = &c;

int **sptr = &ptr1; //-Ref

*sptr = ptr2;

}

a) ptr1 points to a

b) ptr1 points to b

c) sptr points to ptr2

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER: B

12] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int a[3] = {1, 2, 3};

int *p = a;

int **r = &p;

printf("%p %p", *r, a);

}

a) Different address is printed

b) 1 2

c) Same address is printed.

d) 1 1

ANSWER: C

13] What substitution should be made to //-Ref such that ptr1 points to variable C?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a = 1, b = 2, c = 3;

int *ptr1 = &a;

int **sptr = &ptr1;

//-Ref

}

a) *sptr = &c;

b) **sptr = &c;

c) *ptr1 = &c;

d) None of the mentioned.

ANSWER: A

14] Which of the following declaration throw run-time error?

a) int **c = &c;

b) int **c = &*c;

c) int **c = **c;

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER: D

15] Comment on the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a = 10;

int **c -= &&a;

}

a) You cannot apply any arithmetic operand to a pointer.

b) We don’t have address of an address operator

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the mentioned.

ANSWER: B

16] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int a[3] = {1, 2, 3};

int *p = a;

int *r = &p;

printf("%d", (**r));

}

a) 1

b) Compile time error

c) Address of a

d) Junk value

ANSWER: B

17] Comment on the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

char *str = "This" //Line 1

char *ptr = "Program\n"; //Line 2

str = ptr; //Line 3

printf("%s, %s\n", str, ptr); //Line 4

}

a) Memory holding “this” is cleared at line 3

b) Memory holding “this” loses its reference at line 3

c) You cannot assign pointer like in Line 3

d) Output will be This, Program

ANSWER: B

18] What type initialization is needed for the segment “ptr[3] = ’3′;” to work?

a) char *ptr = “Hello!”;

b) char ptr[] = “Hello!”;

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER: B

19] The syntax for constant pointer to address (i.e., fixed pointer address) is:

a) const <type> * <name>

b) <type> * const <name>

c) <type> const * <name>

d) Both (a) and (c)

ANSWER: B

20] Comment on the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int add(int a, int b)

{

return a + b;

}

int main()

{

int (*fn_ptr)(int, int);

fn_ptr = add;

printf("The sum of two numbers is: %d", (int)fn_ptr(2, 3));

}

a) Compile time error, declaration of a function inside main.

b) Compile time error, no definition of function fn_ptr.

c) Compile time error, illegal application of statement fn_ptr = add.

d) No Run time error, output is 5.

ANSWER: D

Fundamentals of Data Structure MCQ's Set-3

2021-04-09T23:20:00.003+05:30

1] The value of eof is

a) -1

b) 1

c) 0

d) 10

ANSWER : A

2] Choose correct declaration

a) int main(intargc,char *argv) {}

b) int main(intargc,char *argv[]){}

c) int main(int *argc,char *argv){}

d) int main(){int *argc,char *argv}

ANSWER : D

3] How to call a function without using the function name to send parameters?

a) typedefs

b) Function pointer

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : B

4] Which of the following is the correct syntax to pass a Function Pointer as an argument ?

a) void pass(int (*fptr)(int, float, char)){}

b) void pass(*fptr(int, float, char)){}

c) void pass(int (*fptr)){}

d) void pass(*fptr){}

ANSWER : A

5] Which of the following is not possible in C?

a) Array of function pointer

b) Returning a function pointer

c) Comparison of function pointer

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : D

6] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void first()

{

printf("Hello World");

}

void main()

{

void *ptr() = first;

ptr++

ptr();

}

a) Illegal application of ++ to void data type

b) pointer function initialized like a variable

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : C

7] Identify invalid expression

a) &274

b) &(a+b)

c) &(a*b)

d) all of the above

ANSWER : D

8] Pointers are supported in

a) C

b) Fortron

c) Pascal

d) Both b&c

ANSWER : D

9] Number of argument use in malloc is

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

ANSWER : A

10] The no. Of argument use in realloc is

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

ANSWER : C

11] The function is use in dynamic deallocation is

a) Destroy()

b) Delet()

c) Free()

d) Remove()

ANSWER : C

12] The function call realloc(ptr,0) is

a) Same as free (ptr)

b) Used to set the value of ptr to be 0

c) the value of in the address represented by ptr

d) Invalid

ANSWER : A

13] Pointers can be used to achieve

a) Call by function

b) Call by reference

c) Call by name

d) Call y procedure

ANSWER : B

14]) The declaration of float *a[5] is

a) An ordinary array

b) A pointer to an array

c) An array to an pointer

d) Pointer to an array

ANSWER : C

15] The declaration int (*p)[8];

a) An array of pointer

b) A pointer to an array

c) Pointer to function

d) Function returning pointer

ANSWER : B

16] The oprators used in pointr is

a) * and /

b) & and *

c) & and |

d) – and >

ANSWER : B

17] Refer the given code snippet

main()
{
       int a[5]={-2,-1,3,4,5}
       int *b;
        b=&a[2];
     }

Then value of b[-1] is:

a) 4

b) 3

c) -1

d) -2

ANSWER : C

18] Identify invalid pointer oprator

a) &

b) >>

c) *

d) None of these

ANSWER : B

19] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int mul(int a, int b, int c)

{

return a * b * c;

}

void main()

{

int (*function_pointer)(int, int, int);

function_pointer = mul;

printf("The product of three numbers is:%d",

function_pointer(2, 3, 4));

}

a) The product of three numbers is:24

b) Run time error

c) Nothing

d) Varies

ANSWER : A

20] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void f(int (*x)(int));

int myfoo(int);

int (*fooptr)(int);

int ((*foo(int)))(int);

int main()

{

fooptr = foo(0);

fooptr(10);

}

int ((*foo(int i)))(int)

{

return myfoo;

}

int myfoo(int i)

{

printf("%d\n", i + 1);

}

a) 10

b) 11

c) Compile time error

d) Undefined behavior

ANSWER : B

Business Analytics & Intelligence(Unit-5) Set 2

2021-04-09T22:33:00.002+05:30

21.Tactical level gives information about

(a)defining strategies

(b)analysis and analytics

(c)monitoring of business performance

(d)monitoring of activities and process

ans-c

22.Operation level gives information about

(a)defining strategies

(b)analysis and analytics

(c)monitoring of business performance

(d)monitoring of activities and process

ans-d

23.Management level gives information about

(a)defining strategies

(b)analysis and analytics

(c)monitoring of business performance

(d)monitoring of activities and process

ans-b

24.Strategic level gives information about

(a)defining strategies

(b)analysis and analytics

(c)monitoring of business performance

(d)monitoring of activities and process

ans-a

25.KPI in BAI stands for

(a)key performance indicator

(b)key process indicator

(c)key performance induction

(d)None

ans- a

26._________ are most commonly used to monitor and manage processes and activities, ensuring monitoring changes in real time.

a) Balanced Scorecard

b) Data Cube

c) Dashboard

d) All of the mentioned

ans-c

27.ERP stands for

(a)Entertainment Resource Planning

(b)Enterprise Resource Process

(c)Enterprise Resource Planning

(d)Enterprise Relationship Planning

ans-c

28.Commonly used banking business intelligence software includes:

(a)Microsoft Power BI

(b)Tableau

(c)Tibco Spotfire

(d)Domo

(e)All of the above

ans-e

30.Which BI tool is in demand?

(a)QlikView

(b)Tableau

(c)Domo

(d)None

ans-a

31.one of the following is not part of Lewin’s three step approach to change?

A. Freezing

B. Unfreezing

C. Changing behavior

D. Initiating change

E. All of these

ans- D

32. One of the following term for a radical rethinking of the nature of the business?

A. Paradigm shift

B. Revolutionary change

C. Both A and B

D. Transformational change

E. All of these

ans- A

33. _____technique used to predict future behavior and anticipate the consequences of change.

A. predictive modeling

B. disaster recovery

C. predictive technology

D. Digital Silhouettes

E. Both A and B

ans- A

34.The first step in a Stage-gate process is____.

A. Generate ideas and concepts

B. Demonstrate a plan

C. Initiate learning

D. Develop a product

E. All of these

ans-A

35.IS stands for_____.

A. Internal services

B. Information systems

C. International sales

D. Intelligent strategy

E. None of these

ans- B

36.______is not a aggregate function.

A. With

B. Sum

C. Avg

D. Min

E. None of these

ans- A

37. What is true about data mining?

A. Data Mining is defined as the procedure of extracting information from huge sets of data

B. Data mining also involves other processes such as Data Cleaning, Data Integration, Data Transformation

C. Data mining is the procedure of mining knowledge from data.

D. All of the above

ans-D

38.How many categories of functions involved in Data Mining?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

ans-A

39."Efficiency and scalability of data mining algorithms" issues comes under?

A. Mining Methodology and User Interaction Issues

B. Performance Issues

C. Diverse Data Types Issues

D. None of the above

ans-B

40.Data Mining System Classification consists of?

A. Database Technology

B. Machine Learning

C. Information Science

D. All of the above

ans-D

PLSQL MCQ's Set 2

2021-04-09T22:21:00.002+05:30

16.You need to drop a table from within a stored procedure. How do you implement this?

A. You cannot drop a table from a stored procedure.

B. Use the DROP command in the procedure to drop the table.

C. Use the DBMS_DDL packaged routines in the procedure to drop the table.

D. Use the DBMS_SQL packaged routines in the procedure to drop the table.

E. Use the DBMS_DROP packaged routines in the procedure to drop the table.

Answer: D

17.Which data dictionary views gives you the names and the source code of all the procedures that you have created?

A. USER_SOURCE

B. USER_OBJECTS

C. USER_PROCEDURES

D. USER_SUBPROGRAMS

Answer: A

18.Examine this package

CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BB_PACK IS

V_MAX_TEAM_SALARY NUMBER(12,2);

PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER(V_ID IN NUMBER, V_LAST_NAME) VARCHAR2(V_SALARY NUMBER);

END BB_PACK;

CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY BB_PACK IS

V_PLAYER_AVG NUMBER(4,3); PROCEDURE UPD_PLAYER_STAT

V_ID IN NUMBER, V_AB IN NUMBER DEFAULT4, V_HITS IN NUMBER) IS

BEGIN

UPDATE PLAYER_BAT_STAT

SET ADD_BAT=ADD_BATS+V_AB, HITS=HITS+V_HITS

WHERE PLAYER_ID=V_ID; COMMIT; VALIDATE_PLAYER_STAT(V_ID); END UPD_PLAYER_STAT;

PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER

(V_ID IN NUMBER, V_LAST_NAME, VARCHAR2, V_SALARY IN NUMBER); IS

BEGIN

INSERT INTO PLAYER (ID, LAST_NAME, SALARY) VALUES(V_ID, V_LAST_NAME, V_SALARY); UPD_PLAYER_STAT(V_ID,0,0);

END ADD_PLAYER;

END BB_PACK;

Which kind of packaged variables is V_MAX_TEAM_SALARY?

A. PRIVATE

B. PUBLIC

C. IN

D. OUT

Answer: B

19.Examine this trigger.

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER UPD_TEAM_SALARY AFTER INSERT OR UPDATE OR DELETE ON PLAYER FOR EACH ROW

BEGIN UPDATE TEAM

SET TOT_SALARY=TOT_SALARY+:NEW SALARY. WHERE ID=:NEW:TEAM_ID;

You will be adding additional coat later but for now you want the current block to fire when updated the salary column.

Which solution should you use to verify that the user is performing an update on the salary column?

A. ROW_UPDATE(‘SALARY’)

B. UPDATING(‘SALARY’)

C. CHANGING(‘SALARY’)

D. COLUMN_UPDATE(‘SALARY’)

Answer: B

20.Examine this package

CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE discounts IS G_ID NUMBER:=7839;

DISCOUNT_RATE NUMBER O. 00;

PROCEDURE DISPLAY_PRICE (V_PRICE NUMBER); END DISCOUNTS;

CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY discounts IS

PROCEDURE DISPLAY_PRICE (V_PRICE_NUMBER) IS

BEGIN DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(‘DISCOUNTED||2_4 (V_PRICE*NVL(DISCOUNT_RATE, 1)))

END DISPLAY_PRICE;

BEGIN DISCOUNT_RATE;=0. 10; END DISCOUNTS;

Which statement is true?

A. The value of DISCOUNT_RATE always remain 0. 00 in a session.

B. The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0. 10 each time the package are invoked in a session.

C. The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 1 each time the procedure DISPLAY_PRICE is invoked.

D. The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0. 10 when the package is invoked for first time in a session.

Answer: B

21.Examine this function:

CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_budget (v_studio_id IN NUMBER)

RUTURN number

IS BEGIN

END;

v_yearly_budget NUMEBER;

SELECT yearly_budget INTO v_yearly_budget FROM studio

WHERE id = v_studio_id;

To compile this function successfully, what additional code must be added to the executable section?

A. RETURN;

B. RETURN get_budget;

C. OUT v_yearly_budget;

D. RETURN v_yearly_budget;

Answer: D

22.Within the current application, a COBOL program calculates the annual allowable budget for each studio based on historical analysis. This value, stored in a COBOL variable, will be passed to your function as an argument. Which function will your create?

A. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION set_budget

v_studioo_id IN NUMBER, v_new_budget IN NUMBER) RETURN number

IS BEGIN

UPDATE studio

SET yearly_budget = v_new_budget WHERE id = v_studio_id; COMMIT;

RETURN SQL%ROWCOUNT; END;

B. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION set_budget

(v_studio_id IN NUMBER, :cobol_variable_budget IN NUMBER) RETURN number

IS BEGIN

UPDATE studio

SET yearl_budget = : cobol_variable_budget WHERE id = v_studio_id;

COMMIT;

RETURN SQLROWCOUNT; END;

C. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION set_budget

(v_studio_id IN NUMBER, v_new_budget IN NUMBER := :cobol_variable_budget) RETURN number

IS BEGIN

UPDATE studio

Set yearly_budget = v_new_budget WHERE id = v_studio_id; COMMIT;

RETURN SQL%ROWCOUNT; END;

D. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION set_budget

(v_studio_id IN NUMBER, :cobol_variable_budget IN NUMBER) RETURN number

V_new_budget NUMBER := :cobol_variable_budget; BEGIN

UPDATE studio

SET yearly_budget = v_new_budget WHERE id = v_studio_id; COMMIT;

RETURN SQL%ROWCOUNT; END;

Answer: A

23.Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. A function must return a value.

B. Functions and procedures must return a value.

C. Functions and procedures must contain IN arguments.

D. A function can be invoked from within a PL/SQL expression.

E. A procedure must be invoked from within a PL/SQL expression.

Answer: A & D

24.Examine this function:

CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_budget

(v_studio_id IN NUMBER, v_max_budget IN NUMBER) RETURN number

IS BEGIN

v_yearly_budget NUMBER;

SELECT yearly_budget INTO v_yearly_budget FROM studio

WHERE id = v_studio_id;

IF v_yearly_budget > v_max_budget THEN RETURN v_max_budget;

ELSE

RETURN v_yearly_budget;

END IF;

END;

Which set of statements will successfully invoke this function within SQL*Plus?

A. SELECT id, name, get_budget(id,200) FROM studio;

B. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER

EXECUTE g_yearly_budget := get_budget(11, 4000000000);

C. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER

RUN :g_yearly_budget := get_budget(v_studio_id => 11,v_max_budget => 4000000000);

D. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER

EXECUTE g_yearly_budget := get_budget(v_max_budget => 4000000000, v_studio_id => 11);

Answer: A

25.Examine this function:

CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_budget RETURN number

IS BEGIN

END;

v_yearly_budget NUMBER;

SELECT yearly_budget INTO v_yearly_budget FROM studio

WHERE id = v_studio_id; RETURN v_yearly_budget;

What additional code is needed to compile this function successfully?

A. Remove the first RETURN statement.

B. Change “RETURN number” to “OUTPUT number”.

C. Add “(v_studio_id IN NUMBER)” right after the IS keyword.

D. Add “(v_studio_id IN NUMBER)” right before the RETURN statement of the header.

Answer: D

26.A stored function can be invoked in many difference ways. Which invocation example is NOT valid?

A. executing the stored function within a INSERT statement

B. Executing the stored function within a server-side function

C. Executing the stored function within a client-side function

D. Executing the stored function within a CHECK constraint of a table.

Answer: D

27.Which code successfully calculates commission returning it to the calling environment?

A. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION calc_comm (v_emp_id IN NUMBER)

RETURN number BEGIN

SELECT SUM(ord.total) INTO v_total

FROM ord,customer

WHERE ord_custid = customer.custid AND customer_repid = v_emp_id; END;

B. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION calc_comm (v_emp_id IN NUMBER)

v_total number;

BEGIN

SELECT SUM(ord.total) INTO v_total

FROM ord,customer

WHERE ord_custid = customer.custid AND customer_repid = v_emp_id; RETURN (v_total * .20);

END;

C. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION calc_comm (v_emp_id IN NUMBER)

RETURN number v_total number; BEGIN

SELECT SUM(ord.total) INTO v_total

FROM ord,customer

WHERE ord_custid = customer.custid AND customer_repid = v_emp_id; RETURN (v_total * .20);

END;

D. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION calc_comm (v_emp_id IN NUMBER)

RETURN number IS

v_total number;

BEGIN

SELECT SUM(ord.total) INTO v_total

FROM ord,customer

WHERE ord_custid = customer.custid AND customer_repid = v_emp_id; RETURN (v_total * .20);

END;

Answer: D

28.The GET_BUDGET function is no longer needed and should be removed. Which command will successfully remove this function from the database?

A. GROP get_budget;

B. REMOVE get_budget;

C. DROP FUNCTION get_budget;

D. ALTER get_budget DROP function;

Answer: C

29.Which two subprogram headers are correct? (Choose two.)

A. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE get_sal IS

(v_sal IN number)

B. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE get_sal (v_sal IN number)

C. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE get_sal RETURN number

(p_amnt IN number)

D. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE get_sal (p_amnt IN number)

RETURN number

E. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE get_sal (p_amnt IN number(3,2))

RETURN number

Answer: B & D

30.Procedures and functions can be created and stored in the database or in an Oracle Developer application. How is performance improved when storing procedures and functions in the database?

A. Network roundtrips are reduced.

B. The object code is created during execution.

C. Network traffic is decreased by bundling commands.

D. The source code is stored externally, and the object code is stored internally.

Answer: A

PLSQL MCQ's Set 1

2021-03-19T11:52:00.002+05:30

1. A database trigger can be created on which two objects? (choose two.)

A. view

B. table

C. index

D. package

E. function

F. procedure

Answer: A & B

2. Examine this database trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER audit_gross_receipt

AFTER DELETE OR UPDATE OF seats_sold, cost_per_ticket ON gross_receipt BEGIN

... END;

When deleting multiple rows form the GROSS_RECEIPT table, the AUDIT_DELETE_GR procedure of the THEATER_PCK package must only be executed once for the entire DELETE statement.

A. IF DELETING THEN theater_pck.audit_delete_gr; END IF;

B. IF CHECK_DELETING THEN theater_pck.audit_delete_gr; END IF;

C. IF DMBS_SQL(‘DELETE’) THEN theater_pck.audit_delete_gr; END IF;

D. IF DMBS_check_manipulation (‘DELETE’) THEN theater_pck.audit_delete_gr; END IF;

Answer: A

3.Examine this database trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER update_total_gross

{additional trigger information} BEGIN

END;

UPDATE theater

SET total_gross = total_gross_sold * :new.cost._per_ticket) WHERE id = :new.theater_id;

This database trigger will be created on the GROSS_RECEIPT table. This code should only execute when the value of the SHOW-DATE column of the GROSS_RECEIPT table is less than today’s date. Which clause will enforce this rule?

A. WHEN (new.show_date <sysdate)

B. WHEN ( :new.show_date <sysdate)

C. WHERE (new.show_date <sysdate)

D. WHERE ( :new.show_date <sysdate)

Answer: A

4.Examine this database trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER update_show_gross

{additional trigger information} BEGIN

{additional code} END;

The trigger code should only execute when COST_PER_TICKERTcolumn is greater that $3.75. which trigger information will you add?

A. WHEN (new.cost_pert_ticket > 3.75)

B. WHEN ( :new.cost_pert_ticket > 3.75)

C. WHERE (new.cost_pert_ticket > 3.75)

D. WHERE ( :new.cost_pert_ticket > 3.75)

Answer: A

5.Examine this database trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER prevent_gross_modification

{additional trigger information} BEGIN

IF T0_CHAR(sysdate, ‘DY’) = ‘MON’ THEN

RAISE_APPLICATION-ERROR (-20000, ‘Gross receipts cannot be entered on ‘Monday’);

END IF;

END;

This trigger must fire before each DELETE, INSERT, and UPDATE of the GROSS_RECEIPT table. It should fire only once for the entire data manipulation statement. Which additional trigger information must you add?

A. BEFORE (gross_receipt) DELETE, INSERT, UPDATE

B. AFTER DELETE OR INSERT OR UPDATE ON gross_receipt

C. BEFORE DELETE OR INSERT OR UPDATE ON gross_receipt

D. BEFORE DELETE OR INSERT OR UPDATE ON gross_receipt FOR EACH ROW

Answer: C

6.Procedures and functions are explicitly executed. This is different from a database trigger. When is a database trigger executed?

A. when the transaction is committed

B. During a data manipulation statement

C. When it is explicitly invoked by another construct

D. When an oracle supplied package references the trigger

Answer: B

7.Which trigger timing can be used when creating a trigger on a view which does not allow DML?

A. AFTER only

B. BEFORE only

C. INSTEAD OF only

D. BEFORE and AFTER only

E. BEFORE, AFTER, and INSERT OF

Answer: C

8.Examine this database trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGR audit_gross_modification AFTER INSERT OR DELETE ON gross_receipt

BEGIN

END;

INSERT INTO audit_gross VALUES (USER, SYSDATE);

To test this trigger, you delete 30 rows from the GROSS_RECEIPT table. How many rows are inserted into the AUDIT_GROSS table due to this event?

A. 1

B. 30

C. 31

D. none

Answer: A

9.Examine this database trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER update_show_gross

{additional trigger information} BEGIN

{additional code} END;

The code of this trigger needs to calculate a value for the derived column, SHOW_GROSS. The value is determined by the multiplication result of SEATS_SOLD and COST_PER_TICKET. This value should only be calculated when the triggering operation is an insert. Which code will successfully assign a value to SHOW_GROSS when inserting?

A. IF INSERTING THEN

new.show_gross :=new.seats_sold * new.cost_per_ticket; END IF;

B. IF INSERTING THEN

:new.show_gross :=new.seats_sold * :new.cost_per_ticket; END IF;

C. IF DBMS_DML (‘INSERTING’) THEN new.show_gross :=.newseats_sold *new.cost_per_ticket; END IF;

D. IF DBMS_DML (‘INSERT’) THEN

:new.show_gross :=new.seats_sold * :new.cost_per_ticket; END IF;

Answer: A

10.Which allows a PL/SQL user define a function?

A. NEXTVAL.

B. HAVING clause of the SELECT COMMAND.

C. ALTER TABLE command.

D. FROM clause of the SELECT AN UPDATE COMMANDS.

Answer: B

11.Which two statements about the overloading feature of packages are true? (Choose two)

A. Only local or packaged sub programs can be overloaded.

B. Overloading allows different functions with the same name that differ only in their return types.

C. Overloading allows different subprograms with the same number, type and order of the parameter.

D. Overloading allows different subprograms with the same name and same number or type of the parameters.

E. Overloading allows different subprograms with the same name but different in either number or type or order of parameter.

Answer: A & E

12.Examine this package:

CREATE OR REPLACE manag emps IS

Tax_rate CONSTANT NUMBER(5,2):= . 28:, V_id NUMBER;

PROCEDURE insert_emp(p-deptno NUMBER,p-sal NUMBER); PROCEDURE delete_emp;

PROCEDURE update_emp:

FUNCTION calc_tax(o_sal NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER;

END manag_emps;

CREATE REPLACE PACKAGE BODY manage_emps IS

BEGIN

Update emp.

SET sal=|sal+p-raise_amt)+sal WHERE empno= v_id;

END;

PROCEDURE insert_emp

(p_deptno NUMBER, p-sal NUMBER) IS

BEGIN

INSERT INTO emp(empno, deptno,sal) VALUES(v_id, p_deptno, p_sal);

END insert emp; PROCEDURE delete_emp IS

BEGIN

DELETE FROM emp

WHERE empno=v_id END delete_emp;

PROCEDURE. Update_emp. IS

V_sal NUMBER (10,2); V_raise NUMBER(10,2); BEGIN

SELECT Sal

INTO v_sal FROM emp

WHERE empno=v_id; IF v_sal<500 THEN V_raise:=0. 05;

ELSIF v_sal<1000 THEN

V_raise:=0. 07; ELSE

V_raise:=0. 04 END IF;

Update_sal(v_raise);

END update_emp.

FUNCTION calc_tax (p_sal NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER IS

BEGIN

RETURN p_sal* tax-rate; END calc_tax;

END MANAGE_emp;

What is the name of the private procedure in the package?

A. CALC_TAX

B. INSERT_EMP

C. UPDATE_SAL

D. DELETE_EMP

E. UPDATE_EMP

F. MANAGE_EMP

Answer: C

13.Examine the code:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER update_emp AFTER UPDATE ON emp

BEGIN

INSERT INTO audit_table (who, audited) VALUES(USER, SYSDATE);

END;

You issue an update command on the EMP table that results in changing ten rows.

How many rows are inserted into the AUDIT_TABLE?

A. 1

B. 10

C. none

D. Value equal to the number of rows in the emp table

Answer: A

14.All users currently have the INSERT privileges on the PLAYER table. You want only your users to insert into this table using the ADD_PLAYER procedure.

Which two actions must you take? (Choose two)

A. GRANT SELECT ON ADD_PLAYER TO PUBLIC;

B. GRANT EXECUTE ON ADD_PLAYER TO PUBLIC;

C. GRANT INSERT ON PLAYER TO PUBLIC;

D. GRANT EXECUTE, INSERT ON ADD_PLAYER TO PUBLIC;

E. REVOKE INSERT ON PLAYER FROM PUBLIC;

Answer: B & C

15.Which Oracle supply package allows you to run jobs at use defined times?

A. DBMS_JOB

B. DBMS_RUN

C. DBMS_PIPE

D. DBMS_SQL

Answer: A

Business Analytics & Intelligence(Unit-5) Set 1

2021-03-16T12:35:00.010+05:30

1.Which of the following areas are affected by BI?

a) Revenue

b) CRM

c) Sales

d) All of the mentioned

ans- b

2. Business intelligence (BI) is a broad category of application programs which includes _____________

a) Decision support

b) Data mining

c) OLAP

d) All of the mentioned

ans- d

3. This is the processing of data about customers and their relationship with the enterprise in order to improve the enterprise's future sales and service and lower cost.

a. clickstream analysis

b. database marketing

c. customer relationship management

d. CRM analytics

e. B2C

ans- d

4. This is a broad category of applications and technologies for gathering, storing, analyzing, and providing access to data to help enterprise users make better business decisions.

a. best practice

b. data mart

c. business information warehouse

d. business intelligence

e. business warehouse

ans- d

5. ________ is a performance management tool that recapitulates an organization’s performance from several standpoints on a single page.

a) Balanced Scorecard

b) Data Cube

c) Dashboard

d) All of the mentioned

ans-a

6.__________ is a system where operations like data extraction, transformation and loading operations are executed.

a) Data staging

b) Data integration

c) ETL

d) None of the mentioned

ans- a

7.________ is a category of applications and technologies for presenting and analyzing corporate and external data.

a) Data warehouse

b) MIS

c) EIS

d) All of the mentioned

ans- c

8.This is the processing of data about customers and their relationship with the enterprise in order to improve the enterprise’s future sales and service and lower cost.

a. clickstream analysis

b. database marketing

c. customer relationship management

d. CRM analytics

e. B2C

ans- d

9.This is an approach to selling goods and services in which a prospect explicitly agrees in advance to receive marketing information.

A. customer managed relationship

B. data mining

C. permission marketing

D. one-to-one marketing

E. batch processing

ans- C

10.This is an arrangement in which a company outsources some or all of its customer relationship management functions to an application service provider (ASP).

a. spend management

b. supplier relationship management

c. hosted CRM

d. Customer Information Control System

e. online transaction processing

ans- c

11.This is a central point in an enterprise from which all customer contacts are managed.

a. contact center

b. help system

c. multichannel marketing

d. call center

e. help desk

ans- a

12.In data mining, this is a technique used to predict future behavior and anticipate the consequences of change.

a. predictive technology

b. disaster recovery

c. phase change

d. Digital Silhouettes

e. predictive modeling

ans- e

13.In an Internet context, this is the practice of tailoring Web pages to individual users’ characteristics or preferences.

a. Web services

b. customer-facing

c. client/server

d. customer valuation

e. personalization

ans- e

14. BI can catalyze a business’s success in terms of _____________

a) Distinguish the products and services that drive revenues

b) Rank customers and locations based on profitability

c) Ranks customers and locations based on probability

d) All of the mentioned

ans-d

15.Point out the correct statement.

a) OLAP is an umbrella term that refers to an assortment of software applications for analyzing an organization’s raw data for intelligent decision making

b) Business intelligence equips enterprises to gain business advantage from data

c) BI makes an organization agile thereby giving it a lower edge in today’s evolving market condition

d) None of the mentioned

ans-b

16.Point out the wrong statement.

a) Data is factual information for analysis

b) BI is a category of database software that provides an interface to help users quickly and interactively scrutinize the results in a variety of dimensions of the data

c) Customer relationship management (CRM) entails all aspects of interaction that a company has with its customer

d) None of the mentioned

ans-b

17.Which of the following does not form part of BI Stack in SQL Server?

a) SSRS

b) SSIS

c) SSAS

d) OBIEE

ans-d

18.For fraud detection the main steps in forensic analytics are

(a)data collection

(b)data preparation

(c)data analysis

(d)reporting

(e)all of above

ans-e

19.Techniques used for fraud detection fall into two primary classes: Statistical techniques and Artificial intelligence.

(a)True

(b)False

ans-a

20.The OLAP cube are data models designed to meet the needs of

(a)OnLine Analytical Processing data

(b)OffLine Analytical Processing data

(c)Original Analytical Processing data

(d)None

ans- a

Discrete Mathematics U-2(Theory of Sets)

2021-02-09T19:48:00.003+05:30

1. A __________ is an ordered collection of objects.

a) Relation

b) Function

c) Set

d) Proposition

Answer: c

2. The set O of odd positive integers less than 10 can be expressed by _____________

a) {1, 2, 3}

b) {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}

c) {1, 2, 5, 9}

d) {1, 5, 7, 9, 11}

Answer: b

3. Power set of empty set has exactly _________ subset.

a) One

b) Two

c) Zero

d) Three

Answer: a

4. What is the Cartesian product of A = {1, 2} and B = {a, b}?

a) {(1, a), (1, b), (2, a), (b, b)}

b) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (a, a), (b, b)}

c) {(1, a), (2, a), (1, b), (2, b)}

d) {(1, 1), (a, a), (2, a), (1, b)}

Answer: c

5. The Cartesian Product B x A is equal to the Cartesian product A x B.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

6. What is the cardinality of the set of odd positive integers less than 10?

a) 10

b) 5

c) 3

d) 20

Answer: b

7. Which of the following two sets are equal?

a) A = {1, 2} and B = {1}

b) A = {1, 2} and B = {1, 2, 3}

c) A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {2, 1, 3}

d) A = {1, 2, 4} and B = {1, 2, 3}

Answer: c

8. The set of positive integers is _____________

a) Infinite

b) Finite

c) Subset

d) Empty

Answer: a

9. What is the Cardinality of the Power set of the set {0, 1, 2}?

a) 8

b) 6

c) 7

d) 9

Answer: a

10. The members of the set S = {x | x is the square of an integer and x < 100} is ________________

a) {0, 2, 4, 5, 9, 58, 49, 56, 99, 12}

b) {0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81}

c) {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 64, 81, 85, 99}

d) {0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 121}

Answer: b

11. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

a) {1, 2, 6, 1}

b) {1, 2, 5, 6}

c) {1, 2, 1, 2}

d) {1, 5, 6, 3}

Answer: b

12. The intersection of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _____________

a) {1, 2}

b) {5, 6}

c) {2, 5}

d) {1, 6}

Answer: a

13. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

a) Union

b) Difference

c) Intersection

d) Complement

Answer: c

14. Which of the following two sets are disjoint?

a) {1, 3, 5} and {1, 3, 6}

b) {1, 2, 3} and {1, 2, 3}

c) {1, 3, 5} and {2, 3, 4}

d) {1, 3, 5} and {2, 4, 6}

Answer: d

15. The difference of {1, 2, 3} and {1, 2, 5} is the set ____________

a) {1}

b) {5}

c) {3}

d) {2}

Answer: c

16. The complement of the set A is _____________

a) A – B

b) U – A

c) A – U

d) B – A

Answer: b

17. The bit string for the set {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} (with universal set of natural numbers less than or equal to 10) is ____________________

a) 0101010101

b) 1010101010

c) 1010010101

d) 0010010101

Answer: a

18. Let Ai = {i, i+1, i+2, …..}. Then set {n, n+1, n+2, n+3, …..} is the _________ of the set Ai.

a) Union

b) Intersection

c) Set Difference

d) Disjoint

Answer: b

19. The bit strings for the sets are 1111100000 and 1010101010. The union of these sets is ___________

a) 1010100000

b) 1010101101

c) 1111111100

d) 1111101010

Answer: d

20. The set difference of the set A with null set is __________

a) A

b) null

c) U

d) B

Answer: a

21. Let the set A is {1, 2, 3} and B is {2, 3, 4}. Then the number of elements in A U B is?

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

Answer: a

22. Let the set A is {1, 2, 3} and B is { 2, 3, 4}. Then number of elements in A ∩ B is?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Answer: b

23. Let the set A is {1, 2, 3} and B is {2, 3, 4}. Then the set A – B is?

a) {1, -4}

b) {1, 2, 3}

c) {1}

d) {2, 3}

Answer: c

24. In which of the following sets A – B is equal to B – A?

a) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 3, 4}

b) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}

c) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 3, 1}

d) A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, B = {2, 3, 4, 5, 1}

Answer: c

25. Let A be set of all prime numbers, B be the set of all even prime numbers, C be the set of all odd prime numbers, then which of the following is true?

a) A ≡ B U C

b) B is a singleton set.

c) A ≡ C U {2}

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

26. If A has 4 elements B has 8 elements then the minimum and maximum number of elements in A U B are ____________

a) 4, 8

b) 8, 12

c) 4, 12

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

27. If A is {{Φ}, {Φ, {Φ}}}, then the power set of A has how many element?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

Answer: b

28. Two sets A and B contains a and b elements respectively. If power set of A contains 16 more elements than that of B, value of ‘b’ and ‘a’ are _______

a) 4, 5

b) 6, 7

c) 2, 3

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

29. Let A be {1, 2, 3, 4}, U be set of all natural numbers, then U-A’(complement of A) is given by set.

a) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ….}

b) {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, ……}

c) {1, 2, 3, 4}

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

30. Which sets are not empty?

a) {x: x is a even prime greater than 3}

b) {x : x is a multiple of 2 and is odd}

c) {x: x is an even number and x+3 is even}

d) { x: x is a prime number less than 5 and is odd}

Answer: d

Discrete Mathematics U-1(Logic and Proofs)

2021-02-05T12:18:00.006+05:30

1. The compound propositions p and q are called logically equivalent if ________ is a tautology.

a) p ↔ q

b) p → q

c) ¬ (p ∨ q)

d) ¬p ∨ ¬q

Ans-a

2. p → q is logically equivalent to ________

a) ¬p ∨ ¬q

b) p ∨ ¬q

c) ¬p ∨ q

d) ¬p ∧ q

Ans-c

3. p ∨ q is logically equivalent to ________

a) ¬q → ¬p

b) q → p

c) ¬p → ¬q

d) ¬p → q

Ans-d

4. ¬ (p ↔ q) is logically equivalent to ________

a) q↔p

b) p↔¬q

c) ¬p↔¬q

d) ¬q↔¬p

Ans-b

5. p ∧ q is logically equivalent to ________

a) ¬ (p → ¬q)

b) (p → ¬q)

c) (¬p → ¬q)

d) (¬p → q)

Ans-a

6. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) p ∨ q ≡ q ∨ p

b) ¬(p ∧ q) ≡ ¬p ∨ ¬q

c) (p ∨ q) ∨ r ≡ p ∨ (q ∨ r)

d) All of mentioned

Ans-d

7. p ↔ q is logically equivalent to ________

a) (p → q) → (q → p)

b) (p → q) ∨ (q → p)

c) (p → q) ∧ (q → p)

d) (p ∧ q) → (q ∧ p)

Ans-c

8. (p → q) ∧ (p → r) is logically equivalent to ________

a) p → (q ∧ r)

b) p → (q ∨ r)

c) p ∧ (q ∨ r)

d) p ∨ (q ∧ r)

Ans-a

9. (p → r) ∨ (q → r) is logically equivalent to ________

a) (p ∧ q) ∨ r

b) (p ∨ q) → r

c) (p ∧ q) → r

d) (p → q) → r

Ans-c

10. ¬ (p ↔ q) is logically equivalent to ________

a) p ↔ ¬q

b) ¬p ↔ q

c) ¬p ↔ ¬q

d) ¬q ↔ ¬p

Ans-a

11. Let P (x) denote the statement “x >7.” Which of these have truth value true?

a) P (0)

b) P (4)

c) P (6)

d) P (9)

Ans-d

12. Let Q(x) be the statement “x < 5.” What is the truth value of the quantification ∀xQ(x), having domains as real numbers.

a) True

b) False

Ans-b

13. Determine the truth value of ∀n(n + 1 > n) if the domain consists of all real numbers.

a) True

b) False

Ans-a

14. Let P(x) denote the statement “x = x + 7.” What is the truth value of the quantification ∃xP(x), where the domain consists of all real numbers?

a) True

b) False

Ans-b

15. Let R (x) denote the statement “x > 2.” What is the truth value of the quantification ∃xR(x), having domain as real numbers?

a) True

b) False

Ans-a

16. The statement,” Every comedian is funny” where C(x) is “x is a comedian” and F (x) is “x is funny” and the domain consists of all people.

a) ∃x(C(x) ∧ F (x))

b) ∀x(C(x) ∧ F (x))

c) ∃x(C(x) → F (x))

d) ∀x(C(x) → F (x))

Ans-d

17. The statement, “At least one of your friends is perfect”. Let P (x) be “x is perfect” and let F (x) be “x is your friend” and let the domain be all people.

a) ∀x (F (x) → P (x))

b) ∀x (F (x) ∧ P (x))

c) ∃x (F (x) ∧ P (x))

d) ∃x (F (x) → P (x))

Ans-c

18. ”Everyone wants to learn cosmology.” This argument may be true for which domains?

a) All students in your cosmology class

b) All the cosmology learning students in the world

c) Both of the mentioned

d) None of the mentioned

Ans-c

19. Let domain of m includes all students, P (m) be the statement “m spends more than 2 hours in playing polo”. Express ∀m ¬P (m) quantification in English.

a) A student is there who spends more than 2 hours in playing polo

b) There is a student who does not spend more than 2 hours in playing polo

c) All students spends more than 2 hours in playing polo

d) No student spends more than 2 hours in playing polo

Ans-d

20. Determine the truth value of statement ∃n (4n = 3n) if the domain consists of all integers.

a) True

b) False

Ans-a

Fundamentals of Data Structure MCQ's Set-2

2021-01-26T15:33:00.002+05:30

1] What is the difference between the following 2 codes?

//Program 1

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int d, a = 1, b = 2;

d = a++ + ++b;

printf("%d %d %d", d, a, b);

}

//Program 2

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int d, a = 1, b = 2;

d = a++ + ++b;

printf("%d %d %d", d, a, b);

}

a) No difference as space doesn’t make any difference, values of a, b, d are same in both the case

b) No difference as space doesn’t make any difference, values of a, b, d are different

c) Program 1 has syntax error, program 2 is not

d) Program 2 has syntax error, program 1 is not

ANSWER : A

2] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a = 1, b = 1, c;

c = a++ + b;

printf("%d, %d", a, b);

}

a) a = 1, b = 1

b) a = 2, b = 1

c) a = 1, b = 2

d) a = 2, b = 2

ANSWER : B

3] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a = 1, b = 1, d = 1;

printf("%d, %d, %d", ++a + ++a+a++, a++ + ++b, ++d + d++ + a++);

}

a) 15, 4, 5

b) 9, 6, 9

c) 9, 3, 5

d) 6, 4, 6

ANSWER : A

4] For which of the following, “PI++;” code will fail?

a) #define PI 3.14

b) char *PI = “A”;

c) float PI = 3.14;

d) Both (A) and (B)

ANSWER : A

5] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a = 10, b = 10;

if (a = 5) b--;

printf("%d, %d", a, b--);

}

a) a = 10, b = 9

b) a = 10, b = 8

c) a = 5, b = 9

d) a = 5, b = 8

ANSWER : C

6] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int i = 0;

int j = i++ + i;

printf("%d\n", j);

}

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) Compile time error

ANSWER : A

7] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int i = 2;

int j = ++i + i;

printf("%d\n", j);

}

a) 6

b) 5

c) 4

d) Compile time error

ANSWER : A

8] Comment on the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int i = 2;

int i = i++ + i;

printf("%d\n", i);

}

a) = operator is not a sequence point

b) ++ operator may return value with or without side effects

c) it can be evaluated as (i++)+i or i+(++i)

d) Both a and b

ANSWER : A

9] #include is also called as ______

a) Preprocessor directive

b) Inclusion directive

c) File inclusion directive

d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER : A

10] C preprocessors can have compiler specific features.

a) true

b) false

c) Depends on the standard

d) Depends on the platform

ANSWER : A

11] C preprocessor is conceptually the first step during compilation

a) true

b) false

c) Depends on the compiler

d) Depends on the standard

ANSWER : A

12] Preprocessor feature that supply line numbers and filenames to compiler is called?

a) Selective inclusion

b) macro substitution

c) Concatenation

d) Line control

ANSWER : D

13] A preprocessor is a program

a) That processes its input data to produce output that is used as input to another program

b) That is nothing but a loader

c) That links various source files

d) All of the mentioned

ANSWER : A

14] The sequence of allocation and deletion of variables for the following code is.

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{
int a;

{

int b;

}
}

a) a->b, a->b

b) a->b, b->a

c) b->a, a->b

d) b->a, b->a

ANSWER : B

15] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int x = 3;

{

x = 4;

printf("%d", x);

}

a) 4

b) 3

c) 0

d) Undefined

ANSWER : A

16] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int x = 5;

void main()

{

int x = 3;

m();

printf("%d", x);

}

void m()

{

x = 8;

n();

}

void n()

{

printf("%d", x);

}

a) 5 3

b) 3 8

c) 8 5

d) 8 3

ANSWER : D

17] What is the output of this C code?

#include<stdio.h>
int x;

void main()

{

m();

printf("%d", x);

}

void m()

{

x = 4;

}

a) 0

b) 4

c) Compile time error

d) Undefined

ANSWER : B

18] What is the output of this C code?

#include<stdio.h>

static int x = 5;

void main()

{

int x = 9;

{

x = 4;

}

printf("%d", x);

}

a) 9

b) 5

c) 4

d) 0

ANSWER : C

19] What is the output of this C code?

#include<stdio.h>

void main()

{

int x = 8;

}

printf("%d", x);

}

a) 8

b) 0

c) Undefined

d) Compile time error

ANSWER : D

20] What is the output of this C code?

#include<stdio.h>

void main()

{

int x = 1, y = 0, z = 5;

int a = x && y || z++;

printf("%d", z);

}

a) 6

b) 5

c) 0

d) Varies

ANSWER : A

Fundamentals of Data Structure MCQ's Set-1

2021-01-23T12:46:00.004+05:30

1] Which of the following is NOT a valid variable name declaration?

a) int _a3;

b) int a_3;

c) int 3_a;

d) int _3a

ANSWER : C

2] Variable names beginning with underscore is not encouraged. Why?

a) It is not standardized

b) To avoid conflicts since assemblers and loaders use such names

c) To avoid conflicts since library routines use such names

d) To avoid conflicts with environment variables of an operating system

ANSWER : C

3] All keywords in C are in

a) LowerCase letters

b) UpperCase letters

c) CamelCase letters

d) None

ANSWER : A

4] Variable name resolving (number of significant characters for uniqueness of variable) depends on

a) Compiler and linker implementations

b) Assemblers and loaders implementations

c) C language

d) None

ANSWER : A

5] Which of the following is not a valid C variable name?

a) int number;

b) float rate;

c) int variable_count;

d) int $main;

ANSWER : D

6] Which of the following is true for variable names in C?

a) They can contain alphanumeric characters as well as special characters

b) It is not an error to declare a variable to be one of the keywords(like goto, static)

c) Variable names cannot start with a digit

d) Variable can be of any length

ANSWER : C

7] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()
{
int c = 2 ^ 3;
printf("%d\n", c);
}

a) 1

b) 8

c) 9

d) 0

ANSWER : A

8] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()
{
         unsigned int a = 10;
        a = ~a;
        printf("%d\n", a);
}

a) -9

b) -10

c) -11

d) 10

ANSWER : C

9]. What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()
{
        if (7 & 8)
         printf("Honesty");
        if ((~7 & 0x000f) == 8)
         printf("is the best policy\n");
}

a) Honesty is the best policy

b) Honesty

c) is the best policy

d) No output

ANSWER : C

10] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()
{
         int a = 2;
         if (a >> 1)
         printf("%d\n", a);
}

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) No Output.

ANSWER : C

11] Comment on the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()
{
    int i, n, a = 4;
    scanf("%d", &n);
    for (i = 0; i < n; i++)
    a = a * 2;
}

a) Logical Shift left

b) No output

c) Arithmetic Shift right

d) bitwise exclusive OR

ANSWER : B

12] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()
{
     int x = 97;
     int y = sizeof(x++);
     printf("x is %d", x);
}

a) x is 97

b) x is 98

c) x is 99

d) Run time error

ANSWER : A

13] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()
{
    int x = 4, y, z;
    y = --x;
    z = x--;
    printf("%d%d%d", x, y, z);
}

a) 3 2 3

b) 2 2 3

c) 3 2 2

d) 2 3 3

ANSWER : D

14] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

int x = 4;

int *p = &x;

int *k = p++;

int r = p - k;

printf("%d", r);

}

a) 4

b) 8

c) 1

d) Run time error

ANSWER : C

15] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int x = 2, y = 0;

int z = (y++) ? y == 1 && x : 0;

printf("%d\n", z);

return 0;

}

a) 0

b) 1

c) Undefined behaviour

d) Compile time error

ANSWER : A

16] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int x = 1;

int y = x == 1 ? getchar(): 2;

printf("%d\n", y);

}

a) Compile time error

b) Whatever character getchar function returns

c) Ascii value of character getchar function returns

d) 2

ANSWER : C

17] What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()
{

int x = 1;

short int i = 2;

float f = 3;

if (sizeof((x == 2) ? f : i) == sizeof(float))

printf("float\n");

else if (sizeof((x == 2) ? f : i) == sizeof(short int))

printf("short int\n");

}

a) float

b) short int

c) Undefined behaviour

d) Compile time error

ANSWER : A

18]What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a = 2;

int b = 0;

int y = (b == 0) ? a :(a > b) ? (b = 1): a;

printf("%d\n", y);

}

a) Compile time error

b) 1

c) 2

d) Undefined behaviour

ANSWER : C

19]What is the output of this C code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int y = 1, x = 0;

int l = (y++, x++) ? y : x;

printf("%d\n", l);

}

a) 1

b) 2

c) Compile time error

d) Undefined behaviour

ANSWER : A

20] The code snippet below produces

#include <stdio.h>

void main()

{

1 < 2 ? return 1 : return 2;

}

a) returns 1

b) returns 2

c) Varies

d) Compile time error

ANSWER : D

PAI MCQ's SET-7

2021-01-14T21:19:00.000+05:30

21. By using privilege mechanism the protection from unauthorized accesses is done to
a) operating system
b) interrupt handlers
c) system software
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

22. The task privilege level at the instant of execution is called
a) Descriptor privilege level (DPL)
b) Current privilege level (CPL)
c) Effective privilege level (EPL)
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

23. Once the CPL is selected, it can be changed by
a) HOLD
b) transferring control using system descriptors
c) transferring control using gate descriptors
d) transferring control using interrupt descriptors

Answer: c

24. The data segments defined in GDT (global descriptor table) and the LDT (local descriptor table) can be accessed by a task with
a) privilege level 0
b) privilege level 1
c) privilege level 2
d) privilege level 3

Answer: a

25. A task with privilege level 0, does not refer to all the lower level privilege descriptors in
a) GDT (global descriptor table)
b) LDT (local descriptor table)
c) IDT (interrupt descriptor table)
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

26. The selector RPL that uses a less trusted privilege than the current privilege level for further use is known as
a) Least task privilege level
b) descriptor privilege level
c) effective privilege level
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

27. The effective privilege level is
a) maximum numeric of RPL and CPL
b) minimum privilege of RPL and CPL
c) numeric minimum and privilege maximum of RPL and CPL
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

28. The task requesting an access to a descriptor is allowed to access after checking the
a) type of descriptor
b) privilege level
c) type of descriptor and privilege level
d) corresponding segment

Answer: c

29. A CALL instruction can reference only a code segment descriptor with
a) DPL less privilege than CPL
b) DPL equal privilege to CPL
c) DPL greater privilege than CPL
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b

30. The RPL of a selector that referred to the code descriptor must have
a) less privilege than CPL
b) greater privilege than CPL
c) equal privilege than CPL
d) any privilege regarding CPL

Answer: c

31. By using privilege mechanism the protection from unauthorized accesses is done to
a) operating system
b) interrupt handlers
c) system software
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

32. The task privilege level at the instant of execution is called
a) Descriptor privilege level (DPL)
b) Current privilege level (CPL)
c) Effective privilege level (EPL)
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

33. Once the CPL is selected, it can be changed by
a) hold
b) transferring control using system descriptors
c) transferring control using gate descriptors
d) transferring control using interrupt descriptors

Answer: c

34. The data segments defined in GDT (global descriptor table) and the LDT (local descriptor table) can be accessed by a task with
a) privilege level 0
b) privilege level 1
c) privilege level 2
d) privilege level 3

Answer: a

35. A task with privilege level 0, doesn’t refer to all the lower level privilege descriptors in
a) GDT (global descriptor table)
b) LDT (local descriptor table)
c) IDT (interrupt descriptor table)
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

36. The selector RPL that uses a less trusted privilege than the current privilege level for further use is known as
a) Least task privilege level
b) Descriptor privilege level
c) Effective privilege level
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

37. The effective privilege level is
a) maximum numeric of RPL and CPL
b) minimum privilege of RPL and CPL
c) numeric minimum and privilege maximum of RPL and CPL
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

38. The task requesting an access to a descriptor is allowed to access after checking the
a) type of descriptor
b) privilege level
c) type of descriptor and privilege level
d) corresponding segment

Answer: c

39. A CALL instruction can reference only a code segment descriptor with
a) DPL less privilege than CPL
b) DPL equal privilege to CPL
c) DPL greater privilege than CPL
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

40. The RPL of a selector that referred to the code descriptor must have
a) less privilege than CPL
b) greater privilege than CPL
c) equal privilege than CPL
d) any privilege regarding CPL

Answer: c

PAI MCQ's SET-6

2021-01-14T20:53:00.002+05:30

1. The feature of Pentium 4 is
a) works based on Net Burst microarchitecture
b) clock speed ranges from 1.4GHz to 1.7GHz
c) has hyper-pipelined technology
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

2. Which of the following is not a module of Pentium 4 architecture?
a) front end module
b) execution module
c) control module
d) none

Answer: c

3. The front module of Pentium 4 consists of
a) trace cache
b) microcode ROM
c) front end branch predictor
d) all of the mentioned
1. IA 32 Instruction decoder
2. Trace cache
3. Microcode ROM

Answer: d

4. The unit that decodes the instructions concurrently and translate them into micro-operations is
a) trace cache
b) instruction decoder
c) execution module
d) front end branch predictor

Answer: b

5. In complex instructions, when the instruction needs to be translated into more than 4 micro-operations, then the decoder transfers the task to
a) trace cache
b) front end branch predictor
c) microcode ROM
d) none

Answer: c

6. The unit that does not store the instructions, but the decoded stream of instructions is
a) trace cache
b) front end branch predictor
c) microcode ROM
d) none

Answer: a

7. Trace cache can store the micro-ops upto a range of
a) 6 K decoded micro-ops
b) 8 K decoded micro-ops
c) 10 K decoded micro-ops
d) 12 K decoded micro-ops

Answer: d

8. The unit that predicts the locations from where the next instruction bytes are fetched is
a) trace cache
b) front end branch predictor
c) execution module
d) instruction decoder

Answer: b

9. If complex instructions like interrupt handling, string manipulation appear, then the control from trace cache transfers to
a) microcode ROM
b) front end branch predictor
c) execution module
d) instruction decoder

Answer: a

10. After the micro-ops are issued by the microcode ROM, the control goes to
a) trace cache
b) front end branch predictor
c) execution module
d) instruction decoder

Answer: a

11. The mechanism to provide protection, that is accomplished with the help of read/write privileges is
a) restricted use of segments
b) restricted accesses to segments
c) privileged instructions
d) privileged operations

Answer: a

12. The Local descriptor table (LDT) and Global descriptor table (GDT) are present in
a) privileged instruction check
b) operation reference check
c) segment load check
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

13. The mechanism that is accomplished using descriptor usages limitations, and rules of privilege check is
a) privileged instruction check
b) operation reference check
c) segment load check
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

14. The mechanism that is executed at certain privilege levels, determined by CPL (Current Privilege Level) and I/O privilege level (IOPL) is
a) restricted use of segments
b) restricted accesses to segments
c) privileged instructions or operations
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

15. If CPL is not of the required privilege level, then the instructions that get affected is
a) IRET
b) POPF
c) IRET and POPF
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

16. If CPL is greater than zero, then the instruction that remains unaffected is
a) IRET
b) POPF
c) IF
d) IRET and POPF

Answer: c

17. The condition, “CPL not equals to zero” satisfies, when executing the instruction
a) LIDT
b) LGDT
c) LTR
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

18. While executing the instruction IN/OUT, the condition of CPL is
a) CPL = 0
b) CPL < IOPL
c) CPL > IOPL
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: c

19. The instruction at which the exception is generated, but the processor extension registers contain the address of failing instruction is
a) LTR
b) INS
c) CTS
d) ESC

Answer: d

20. The exception that has no error code on stack is
a) double exception detected
b) processor extension segment overrun
c) invalid task state segment
d) stack segment overrun

Answer: b

Networking MCQ's Set-5

2021-01-14T13:55:00.005+05:30

81] The technique that may be used to increase average information per bit is _______

(A) Shannon-Fano algorithm

(B) ASK

(D) Digital modulation techniques

ANSWER : A

82] _______ is a multilevel modulation in which four phase shift are used for representing four different symbols.

(A) ASK

(B) FSK

(D) QPSK

ANSWER : D

83] The _________ is not preferred for the high speed modems since with increase in speed, the bit rate increases.

(A) ASK

(B) FSK

(D) QPSK

ANSWER : B

84] _______ is used for high bit rates, where the phase of the sinusoidal carrier is changed according to the data bit to be transmitted.

(A) ASK

(B) FSK

(D) QPSK

ANSWER : C

85] ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion.

(A) digital-to-digital

(B) digital-to-analog

(D) analog-to-digital

ANSWER : B

86] In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.

(A) frequency and amplitude

(B) phase and frequency

(D) none of the above

ANSWER : C

87] In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant.

(A) ASK

(B) FSK

(D) QAM

ANSWER : A

88] In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant

(A) ASK

(B) FSK

(D) QAM

ANSWER : C

89] Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________.

(A) ASK and FSK

(B) ASK and PSK

(D) none of the above

ANSWER : B

90] ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature.

(A) ASK

(B) FSK

(D) QAM

ANSWER : D

91] Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______.

(A) low-pass

(B) band-pass

(D) neither (a) and (b)

ANSWER : B

92] _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.

(A) RZ

(B) Manchester

(D) all of the above

ANSWER : D

93] In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or below.

(A) polar

(B) bipolar

(D) none of the above

ANSWER : C

94] How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?

(A) 2

(B) 1

(D) None of these

ANSWER : A

95] The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots.

(A) 4

(B) 16

(D) None of these

ANSWER : B

96] The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station.

(A) 5

(B) 10

(D) None of these

ANSWER : B

97] The maximum synchronizing capability in coding techniques is present in

(A) Manchester format

(B) Polar NRZ

(D) Polar quaternary NRZ

ANSWER : A

98] Polar coding is a technique in which

(A) 1 is transmitted by a positive pulse and 0 is transmitted by negative pulse

(B) 1 is transmitted by a positive pulse and 0 is transmitted by zero volts

(D) None of the above

ANSWER : A

99] In polar RZ format for coding, symbol ‘0’ is represented by

(A) Zero voltage

(B) Negative voltage0

(D) Both b and c are correct

ANSWER : D

100] In a uni-polar RZ format,

(A) The waveform has zero value for symbol ‘0’

(B) The waveform has A volts for symbol ‘1’

(D) Both a and b are correct

ANSWER : D