Below is the NCLEX RN and NCLEX PN Examination passing rates for the year 2011 released by National Council of State Boards of Nursing.

A chart that shows quarterly and yearly volume and pass rate data for the NCLEX-RN and NCLEX-PN examinations.

The data includes the number of candidates taking the NCLEX Examination and the percentage of passing, by type of candidate.

Table of Pass Rates 2011 4q

Nclex Stats 2011 4q

Below is the NCLEX RN and NCLEX PN Examination passing rates for the 4th quarter of 2011 released by National Council of State Boards of Nursing.

The data includes the number of candidates taking the NCLEX Examination and the percentage of passing, by type of candidate.

Table of Pass Rates 2011 4q

Nclex Stats 2011 4q

Click here to view the Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies questions.

1. A. Furadantin antimicrobial activity is more potent in an acid urine. Ascorbic acid or vitamin C tablets acidify the urine.

2. A. These signs, in addition to laryngeal edema, are characteristic of an allergic reaction that is, less spe- cifically, a transfusion reaction. Chills, increased temp- erature, and pain in the kidney region are indications of a hemolytic reaction.

3. B. Coumadin therapy is contraindicated in the pregnant woman because it crosses the placenta. The pregnant client should be taught heparin administration with a heparin lock if anticoagulation therapy must be continued. The arthritic client (2) may take aspirin or NSAIDs, which potentiate the effects of Coumadin, and should be watched for gastrointestinal bleed, as should the client with ulcer disease (4).

4. D. Alterations in vital signs could be an indication of side effects of nebulizer medication. The client should be in sitting position, either in the bed or in a chair. Postural drainage would not be done before IPPB therapy. The nurse would not leave the client during this treatment.

5. B. Maintaining neutropenic precautions is the most important implementation for this client. The client is at risk for infection. Low neutrophil and white blood cell counts are often found in clients with aplastic anemia or malignancies or in clients who have received cytotoxic therapy. These low blood counts are most likely due to the Prevacid, trazadone, and Zoloft. Administration of blood (1) is not indicated; frequent vital signs (2) is important, but not the highest priority; continuing the medications that are the most likely cause of the low blood count (4) will only make the situation worse.

6. A. These side effects may be present with this medication, but may be alleviated by taking the drug in the evening. Often, taking one dose in the evening will minimize the sedation. The nurse needs to follow up with this client and report to the physician.

7. B. Short-acting insulin is withdrawn first in order to prevent possible contamination of the short-_acting insulin bottle by the longer-acting insulin.

8. A. A blood transfusion should be started slowly (from 25 to 50 drops per minute) for the first 15 minutes because slow administration allows time to observe for an adverse reaction. Most reactions occur in the first 15 minutes. Continuing rate is 100 mL/hr.

9. B. Aspirin impedes clotting by blocking prosta-glandin synthesis, which can lead to bleeding. A side effect of prednisone is gastric irritation, also leading to bleeding. Tarry stools indicate bleeding in the upper GI system.

10. D. Dicumarol is an anticoagulant drug and one of the dangers involved is bleeding. Using a safety razor can lead to bleeding through cuts. The drug should be given at the same time daily but not related to meals (1). Due to danger of bleeding, missed doses (3) should not be made up.

11. B. If dopamine has a positive effect, it will cause vasoconstriction peripherally, but increase renal perfusion and the blood pressure will rise. The cardiac index will also rise and the PCWP should decrease.

12. C. Dextrose with insulin helps move potassium into cells and is immediate management therapy for hyperkalemia due to acute renal failure. An exchange resin may also be employed. This type of infusion is often administered before cardiac surgery to stabilize irritable cells and prevent arrhythmias; in this case KCl is also added to the infusion.

13. B. Foods high in oxalate include spinach, green and wax beans, beets, and chocolate.

14. B. Mydriatic drugs are used preoperatively so that the pupil is widely dilated. Either atropine sulfate or epinephrine HCl is commonly used. Pilocarpine (3) and carbamylcholine (2) are miotics used for glaucoma and certain types of lens implants. Timolol maleate (4) is a beta blocker used for glaucoma.

15. D. Beta blockers act to decrease heart rate and force of contraction and reduce vasoconstriction by antagonizing Beta receptors in the myocardium and vasculature. Choices (1) and (2) refer to the action of nitrates as well as Calcium Channel Blockers such as Diltiazem. Choice (3) is not applicable.

1. The client who is receiving Furadantin for a urinary tract infection may also receive ascorbic acid. The rationale for this additional agent is to

a. Acidify the urine.
b. Alkalinize the urine.
c. Fortify mucosal resistance.
d. Promote tissue repair.

2. A client receiving a blood transfusion begins to wheeze and her skin becomes flushed with hives. The nurse knows that these symptoms are characteristic of a (n)

a. Allergic reaction.
b. Thrombic crisis.
c. Hemolytic reaction.
d. Transfusion reaction.

3. When assessing a client for Coumadin therapy, the condition that will exclude this client from Coumadin therapy is

a. Diabetes.
b. Pregnancy.
c. Peptic ulcer disease.
d. Arthritis.

4. The most important nursing action for clients on IPPB therapy with a nebulizer is to

a. Start the IPPB treatment and leave the client to complete it.
b. Make the client comfortable in a supine position during the treatment.
c. Complete postural drainage before IPPB therapy.
d. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations.

5. You are caring for a client who has been on Prev-acid, trazadone, and Zoloft for the past 8 weeks. This client has an absolute neutrophil count of 300/mm3 and a white blood cell count of 1500/mm3. The nurse should consider which of the following implementations as the priority?

a. Frequent vital signs.
b. Maintaining neutropenic precautions.
c. Regularly scheduled administration of Prevacid, trazadone, and Zoloft to maintain blood levels.
d. Rapid administration of packed cells to raise blood count.

6. A client who recently started taking a daily dose of the drug methyldopa (Aldomet) for hypertension complains of drowsiness and lethargy when the nurse makes a home visit. The nursing intervention would be to

a. Suggest that the client take the medication in the evening and reevaluate on the next visit.
b. Explain that these are expected side effects and he will have to live with them.
c. Ask the physician to prescribe another antihypertensive.
d. Notify the physician of the negative side effects so the dose can be reduced.

7. A client has the diagnosis of diabetes. His physician has ordered short- and long-acting insulin. When administering two types of insulin, the nurse would

a. Withdraw long-acting insulin, inject air into regular insulin, and withdraw insulin.
b. Withdraw the short-acting insulin into the syringe before the long-acting insulin.
c. Draw up in two separate syringes, then combine into one syringe.
d. Withdraw the long-acting insulin into the syringe before the short-acting insulin.

8. A blood transfusion is started at how many macrodrops per minute, for how long a time?

a. 25 to 50 drops for 15 minutes.
b. 10 drops for 10 minutes.
c. 120 drops for 15 minutes.
d. 20 drops for 10 minutes.

9. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis has been on aspirin gr. xx TID and prednisone 10 mg BID for the last 2 years. The most important assessment question for the nurse to ask related to the client’s drug therapy is whether she has

a. Decreased appetite.
b. Tarry stools.
c. Blurred vision.
d. Headaches.

10. A client is about to be discharged on the drug bishydroxycoumarin (Dicumarol). Of the principles below, which is the most important to teach the client before discharge?

a. It is the responsibility of the physician to do the teaching for this medication.
b. He should be sure to take the medication before meals.
c. If he misses a dose, he should double the dose at the next scheduled time.
d. He should shave with an electric razor.

11. A client has the diagnosis of left ventricular failure and a high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). The physician orders dopamine to improve ventricular function. The nurse will know the medication is working if the client’s

a. Cardiac index falls.
b. Blood pressure rises.
c. Blood pressure decreases.
d. PCWP rises.

12. A client in acute renal failure receives an IV infusion of 10 percent dextrose in water with 20 units of regular insulin. The nurse understands that the rationale for this therapy is to

a. Correct the hyperglycemia that occurs with acute renal failure.
b. Provide calories to prevent tissue catabolism and azotemia.
c. Facilitate the intracellular movement of potassium.
d. Force potassium into the cells to prevent arrhythmias.

13. The nurse explains to the client that decreasing dietary oxalate intake can reduce the formation of calcium-oxalate renal stones. The client is prepared to make correct diet choices when he tells the nurse he knows that foods to avoid on such a diet include

a. Rice, potatoes, breads.
b. Carrots, spinach, tomatoes, green beans.
c. Bananas, apples, apricots.
d. Red meats, butter, cheese.

14. A client has just been admitted with a diagnosis of detached retina and surgery is scheduled. The preoperative ophthalmic medication that will most likely be ordered for this client will be

a. Timolol maleate.
b. Atropine sulfate.
c. Carbamylcholine.
d. Pilocarpine.

15. A client with Congestive Heart Failure is placed on several medications including the Beta Blocker Atenolol. The nurse understands that Beta Blockers exert their influence by:

a. Reducing myocardial Oxygen demand
b. Cause vasodilation of coronary vessels
c. Increase heart rate and force of contraction
d. Decrease heart rate and force of contraction

ANSWERS and RATIONALE – Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

Click here to view the questions.

1. C. Celiac disease is caused by an intolerance to gluten, which is a protein found in wheat, oats, barley and rye, All the foods in option 3 contain gluten. Option 1 would be eliminated if the child had a lactose intolerance, option 4 would be eliminated if the child had a fat intolerance.

2. D. The most important assessment is vital signs for hemorrhage. The nurse will also check the fundus and for lochia, but the most important is for hemorrhage because it is the most common cause of death in the first hour after delivery.

3. D. Unless the antibiotic is safe for the infant, it is best not to feed the baby, but in order to continue establishment of milk flow, the breasts must be stimulated.

4. A. Exercise, specifically dorsiflexion of the feet, prevents stasis by promoting venous valve and muscle action. Early ambulation, deep breathing and elevating the foot of the bed all increase blood flow. If DVT develops, the client will be placed on bedrest.

5. B. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive disease that takes years until the patient is completely incapacitated. It is best to support the individuals self esteem by helping them maintain as much control of their life through independent functioning of self care and activities of daily living.

6. C. The physician should be notified immediately. A suspected Wilms’ tumor should never be palpated more than necessary because of the potential for metastasis and should be treated immediately following discovery. It is really not a nursing responsibility to assess for lymph node enlargement.

7. D. Patients with renal failure should have a diet that provides (high biologic value) proteins rich foods such as eggs, dairy products and meats. These are necessary to maintain a positive nitrogen balance. Foods high in calories are also necessary, and sodium intake should be limited. Foods high in Potassium should be AVOIDED due to decreased ability of the kidney(s) to filter and excrete Potassium.

8. B. The function of the lens is that of accommodation, the focusing of near objects on the retina by the lens; therefore, only the remaining lens will function in this capacity, depending on whether a cataract is present.

9. A. Although abstinence is still the best protection against spread of the HIV virus, the use of a latex condom with a H20 soluble lubricant is the most effective means. All other choices given have no proven validity against the spread of the HIV Virus.

10. B. If the bladder is full, it will push the uterus up out of the pelvis above the umbilicus. The uterus will not contract sufficiently, which could lead to increased bleeding.

11. B. Children with cardiac disease have lowered resistance to upper respiratory infections and should avoid any circumstances that may expose them to even mild infections. Option 1 is unrealistic and option 3 would not put the child at risk since allergies are not contagious, option 4 is wrong because children with cardiac conditions do receive routine immunizations.

12. D. Elevation of the legs promotes circulation and prevents venous stasis and more clot formation. Nursing measures aim at preventing further thrombi from forming and the already present thrombus from detaching. Elastic hose (2) are necessary when the client is up walking again. Placing a pillow under the limb (1) could cause a bend at the groin, with resulting decreased circulation. The client must be kept on bedrest until the danger of emboli passes (4 to 7 days).

13. A. One of the more common problems following Gastric surgery is Dumping Syndrome. Dietary management is the key to reduce or prevent this potential problem from developing. The diet should contain moderate amounts of fat, as well as below in carbohydrates, especially small molecular carbohydrates such as sucrose and glucose. These dietary modifications will result in decreased hypertonicity of the intestinal contents, and prevent osmotic pull of extracellular fluid into the intestinal area, lessening the possibility for Dumping Syndrome to develop.

14. B. While regulating or even touching an IV is definitely not within the scope of behaviors that an NA can legally perform (1), both teaching and clarification of duties is needed in this situation. Before accusing the NA, a nonpunitive environment should be created so teaching of both the LVN and NA can occur, and this action will not happen again. Unless too much medication was given, an incident report does not need to be filled out (2). Confronting the team members in a staff meeting (3) would not be following good management principles.

15. D. Following Total Gastrectomy the production of Intrinsic Factor is permanently destroyed. This is necessary (Intrinsic Factor) for the absorption of Vitamin B12 from the GI tract. As a result patients MUST receive Vitamin B12 by parenteral route throughout life, or a condition known as Pernicious Anemia will develop, and can prove to be fatal. Regular IM injections on a monthly basis of 100-200ug is the usual therapeutic dose.

1. A 4 year old with Celiac Disease is in the hospital with an exacerbation of Celiac Crisis due to improper dietary intake. When teaching the mother the dietary restrictions for her child, which of the following foods must be completely eliminated from the child’s diet?

a. Whole milk, ice cream and cheese
b. Rice, corn and soybeans
c. Bread, oatmeal and pretzels
d. Beef, liver and veal

2. Following delivery of a normal newborn, the nurse will assess the mother every 15 minutes for the first hour. The most important assessment is for

a. Placental fragments.
b. Presence of lochia.
c. Condition of the fundus.
d. Hemorrhage.

3. A breast feeding mother develops mastitis in the left breast and is put on an antibiotic for seven days. She asks the nurse if she can continue breast feeding. The nurse’s best answer would be:

a. “Only breast feed from the right breast.”
b. “Do not breast feed or stimulate the breasts until the infection is resolved.”
c. “Continue breast feeding, this is not a contraindication.”
d. “Pump the breasts and discard the milk until the infection resolves.“

4. The nurse is assigned a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) following a total knee replacement. The most effective measure to prevent this complication is

a. An exercise schedule of dorsiflexion of the feet.
b. Maintaining a flat bed from the waist down.
c. Instruction in shallow breathing techniques.
d. Maintaining the client on bedrest.

5. An elderly man is admitted to the Geriatric Unit for his forgetfulness and severe behavioral changes. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s Disease. Which of the following should be the primary goal of nursing intervention?

a. Keep him away from problems of daily living
b. Keep his capacity for self care activities to the optimum
c. Keep him isolated
d. Keep all available resources to increase his dependency

6. While bathing a 1 year old, the nurse feels a large mass in the abdominal area and notices that his diaper is soiled with pinkish-tinged urine. The initial nursing action is to

a. Gently palpate the abdominal mass to determine if it is a Wilms’ tumor.
b. Continue the assessment by observing his behavior indicating pain on palpation.
c. Immediately notify the physician.
d. Assess if the tumor has spread to the lymph nodes.

7. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement regarding diet therapy for a patient in renal failure?

a. Limit dietary protein
b. Provide a diet high in carbohydrates
c. Limit Sodium (NA) intake
d. Provide a diet high in Potassium rich food

8. Instructions given to clients following cataract surgery include the information that

a. Contact lenses will be fitted before discharge from the hospital.
b. They must use only one eye at a time to prevent double vision.
c. They will be able to judge distances without difficulty.
d. The eye patch will be removed in 3 to 4 days, and the eye may be used without difficulty.

9. In teaching High School students about health practices that promote the prevention of spread of the HIV virus, the nurse should include which of the following:

a. Use a latex condom and water soluble lubricant during intercourse
b. Abstain from intercourse if the female is menstruating
c. Following oral intercourse, use an over-the-counter mouthwash so to destroy the HIV virus
d. Shower immediately with an antibacterial soap after intercourse, so to destroy the HIV virus

10. Following delivery of a healthy baby, the nurse completes a postpartum assessment of the new mother. Which of the following symptoms would be indicative of a full bladder?

a. Pulse 52 beats/min.
b. Fundus 2F above umbilicus.
c. Increased uterine contractions.
d. Decreased lochia.

11. The parents of a child with Tetralogy of Fallot have been given discharge instructions. Which of the following situations would the parents be instructed to avoid?

a. All infant contact with persons outside the home
b. Infant contact with persons who have mild colds
c. Infant contact with persons who have severe allergies
d. Routine immunizations

12. A nursing measure to prevent the complication of deep vein thrombophlebitis following surgery would include

a. Wearing elastic hose at all times.
b. Having the client sit up TID.
c. Placing pillows under the affected limb
d. Elevating the foot of the bed.

13. Following Gastric Resection, patients are prone to developing Dumping Syndrome. Which of the following types of dietary intake by the patient would be MOST helpful to either reduce or prevent this syndrome from developing?

a. Moderate fat, low carbohydrate
b. High fat, high carbohydrate
c. Low fat, low carbohydrate
d. Moderate fat, high carbohydrate

14. The RN observes the nursing assistant (NA) regulating the IV of an oncology client receiving morphine sulfate for pain. An LVN on the RN’s team is responsible for the client and has assigned the client to the NA. The RN’s intervention is to

a. Immediately inform the charge nurse and fill out an incident report.
b. Ask the LVN and the NA to meet with the RN to discuss the responsibility -parameters each of them has.
c. Inform the LVN so that he/she intervenes to instruct the NA that this -action is not within the realm of responsibility of an NA.
d. Call a staff meeting and confront the LVN and the NA.

15. Following Total Gastrectomy patients will require vitamin replacement. Of the following, which vitamin is ESSENTIAL and MUST be given throughout life:

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin B12

ANSWERS & RATIONALE

These answers are one of the NCLEX prep samples for Reduction of Risk Potential. Click here to view the questions.

1. B. The elevated creatinine level suggests impaired renal function. Assessing intake and output will provide data related to renal function. The other assessments are not indicative of renal function.

2. D. Hyperextension brings the pharynx into alignment with the trachea and allows the scope to be inserted without trauma.

3. B. Palpating pulses distal to the insertion site is important to evaluate for thrombophlebitis and vessel occlusion. They should be bilateral and strong.

4. A. Urinary tract infections in the elderly often present as urinary incontinence that develops suddenly. Renal failure (1) and fluid volume excess (3) typically are characterized by oliguria. Dementia (4) develops slowly and is manifested by disordered thinking and behavior.

5. D. The most important safety measure is to tape a hemostat nearby to use in case of an air leak. Chest tubes should be checked periodically, but not necessarily every 2 hours (2). The client should be in semi-Fowler’s position to increase lung expansion.

6. C. There is an increased incidence of hemorrhaging with the external cannula. Hemorrhage results from the cannula becoming disconnected. One advantage of the external cannula is that it is painless to use. Surgery is required to establish the internal fistula and it should be allowed to heal for several weeks before being utilized.

7. A. The rope/pulley and weight system is arranged so that fracture fragments are in the desired approximate position for healing. The client’s position should always rest in line with the traction pull. The line of pull must never be interfered with by changing the position of a pulley and extension bar.

8. A. Russell’s traction is a type of skin traction that incorporates a sling under the knee that is connected by a rope to an overhead bar pulley. It is frequently used to treat femoral shaft fractures in the adolescent.

9. D. Increased pulse and pallor are symptoms associated with shock. A compromised venous return may occur if there is a mediastinal shift as a result of excessive fluid removal. Usually no more than 1 L of fluid is removed at one time to prevent this from occurring.

10. B. The collection bag must be able to fill easily; therefore, it needs to be distended. The bag must be vented with a filter so that urine can be drained from the chamber. The tube must not be allowed to coil or become kinked above the level of the bladder. The collection bag is positioned below the level of the bladder to allow for continuous urine drainage and prevent urine backflow into the bladder. In order to prevent reflux of urine, the tubing must be of sufficient length, usually 5 feet.

11. B. Because more weight can be applied with skeletal traction, it can be used to reduce fractures and maintain alignment. It is not used commonly in the elderly because of prolonged immobilization. It is not preferred for children because some displacement of fracture fragments is desirable to prevent growth disturbance. Frequently, clients have more mobility than they do with skin traction, because balanced suspension is often incorporated with skeletal traction.

12. C. Diabetes insipidus is an antidiuretic deficiency and may occur following brain surgery or head injury. It also occurs in young adults resulting from damage to the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Severe polyuria occurs when there is an inability to concentrate urine. These are not symptoms of types 1 and 2 diabetes (2, 3) or Addison’s disease (4) (which is adrenocorticol hypofunction).

13. D. Preventing cerebral trauma during the convulsion is a priority activity. Placing some form of padding under the head will protect the skull and brain from injury. Inserting a mouth gag (1) and restraining the limbs (3) are unsafe interventions. The nurse would not leave a seizing person to go and obtain equipment (4).

14. D. The respiratory system can become occluded if the balloon slips and moves up the esophagus, putting pressure on the trachea. This would result in respiratory distress and should be assessed frequently. Scissors should be kept at the bedside to cut the tube if distress occurs. This is a safety intervention.

15. A. Putting pressure over the vessels in the neck may be lifesaving because a severe blood loss can occur rapidly, leading to shock and death. The surgeon would be notified as soon as possible.

1. A client’s laboratory results have been returned and the creatinine level is 7 mg/dL. This finding would lead the nurse to place the highest priority on assessing

a. Pupillary reflex.
b. Intake and output.
c. Capillary refill.
d. Temperature.

2. A client requires that a bronchoscopy procedure be done. Due to his physical condition, he will be awake during the procedure. As part of the pretest teaching, the nurse will instruct him that before the scope insertion, his neck will be positioned so that it is

a. In an extended position.
b. In a neutral position.
c. In a flexed position.
d. Hyperextended.

3. To evaluate a client’s condition following cardiac catheterization, the nurse will palpate the pulse

a. At the insertion site.
b. Distal to the catheter insertion.
c. Above the catheter insertion.
d. In all extremities.

4. A 76-year-old woman who has been in good health develops urinary incontinence over a period of several days and is admitted to the hospital for a diagnostic workup. The nurse would assess the client for other indicators of

a. Urinary tract infection.
b. Dementia.
c. Renal failure.
d. Fluid volume excess.

5. The nurse is assigned to care for a 20 year old who has just had chest tubes inserted. An important nursing action is to

a. Check the chest tubes every 2 hours for air leaks.
b. Keep the client flat to avoid leaks in the tubing.
c. Coil the tubes carefully to prevent kinking, which could result in an air leak.
d. Place a hemostat nearby in case of an air leak.

6. A client is on dialysis treatments three times per week. The nurse explains that the main advantage of using an internal arteriovenous fistula rather than an external arteriovenous cannula for dialysis is

a. It is easier to access the blood flow with the internal fistula than through the external cannula.
b. The internal fistula can be utilized immediately after insertion.
c. There is less risk of hemorrhage from the internal fistula.
d. Accessing the internal fistula is less uncomfortable for the client.

7. When evaluating all forms of traction, the nurse knows that the direction of pull is controlled by the

a. Rope/pulley system.
b. Amount of weight.
c. Client’s position.
d. Point of friction.

8. Russell’s traction is easily recognized because it incorporates a

a. Sling under the knee.
b. Pearson attachment.
c. Pelvic girdle.
d. Cervical halter.

9. Immediately following a thoracentesis, which clinical manifestations indicate that a complication has occurred and the physician should be notified?

a. Hypotension and hypothermia.
b. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site.
c. Increased temperature and blood pressure.
d. Increased pulse and pallor.

10. A 60-year-old male client’s physician schedules a prostatectomy and orders a straight urinary drainage system to be inserted preoperatively. For the system to be effective, the nurse would

a. Coil the tubing above the level of the bladder.
b. Check that the collection bag is vented and distensible.
c. Position the collection bag above the level of the bladder.
d. Determine that the tubing is less than 3 feet in length.

11. Which of the following statements is true of skeletal traction?

a. Neurovascular complications are less apt to occur than with skin traction.
b. Fractures can be reduced because more weight can be used than with skin traction.
c. The client has less mobility than he does with skin traction.
d. It is preferred for children because fracture fragment alignment is so important.

12. Following brain surgery, the client suddenly exhibits polyuria and begins voiding 15 to 20 L/day. Specific gravity for the urine is 1.006. The nurse will recognize these symptoms as the possible development of

a. Diabetes, type I.
b. Addison’s disease.
c. Diabetes, insipidus.
d. Diabetes, type II.

13. The nurse enters the room of a client who is in the clonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure. The initial nursing action should be to

a. Insert a padded mouth gag.
b. Gently restrain the limbs.
c. Obtain equipment for orotracheal suctioning.
d. Place some padding under the head.

14. A client being treated for esophageal varices has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube inserted to control the bleeding. The most important assessment is for the nurse to

a. Check that the balloon is deflated on a regular basis.
b. Monitor IV fluids for the shift.
c. Check that a hemostat is at the bedside.
d. Regularly assess respiratory status.

15. Hemorrhage is a major complication following oral surgery and radical neck dissection. If this condition occurs, the most immediate nursing intervention would be to

a. Put pressure over the common carotid and jugular vessels in the neck.
b. Notify the surgeon immediately.
c. Treat the client for shock.
d. Immediately put the client in high-Fowler’s position.

Answers and Rationale for NCLEX RN Review of Reduction of Risk Potential

NCLEX (National Council Licensure Examination) takers from Northeastern Technology College made a history among NCLEX first time takers. They are the first school to garner a 100% passing rate in the recent examination. NCLEX is an examination given to those who have graduated Bachelor of Science in Nursing or any equivalent. In the case of Northeastern Technology College, the school offered an Associate Degree of Nursing. The class which is composed of 23 students have finished an Associate Degree in Nursing. Upon passing the said examination, they are now on their way to become the next leaders in the Nursing field as Registered Nurses.

According to Alex Barkman, the class president and now a registered nurse too, said that the whole accomplishment they got as a class shows how the college has prepared them for exam. It is their personal pride to have got that recognition and dedicate that accomplishment to their alma mater.

On the side of the school administration, Dr. Ron Bartley expressed his congratulations to the students who have placed the name of school on the national headlines as well as across the World Wide Web. He also extended his recognition to the nursing faculty for the unique achievement. The Associate’s Degree in nursing program has also been recognized since the 100% passing rate of the 2011 graduates.

Northeastern Technical College is one of 16 technical colleges accredited by the Commission of Colleges of the Southern Association of Colleges and Schools to offer associate degree as well as certifications. An associate degree in nursing is now one of their prides. The school has its mission to provide an affordable education to residents in Chesterfield, Marlboro and Dillon Counties. As the demand in nursing increases in these 3 counties, the Northeastern Technical College has offered the associate degree in nursing. The program started in 2007 and began accepting students up to the present. The affiliating hospital in the program in McLeod Medical Centre located in Dillon.

As the graduates of Northeastern Technical College took home the pride they got from the NCLEX exam, the McLeod Dillon group took part of the achievement they got. According to Cindy Causey the associate administrator of human and mission services, the above mentioned news was an accomplishment too in their part as they have agreed to partner with Northeastern Technical College.

The college also took part in making the economy rise in the county as they respond to the demand of nursing. The nursing profession in the area have a scarce supply of nurses. Northeastern Technical College has opened Practical Nursing program as well as Certified Nursing Assistance program. This program in the rural setting has indeed been a successful one making students learn nursing without being away from their homes.

Hello Everybody!

We would like to inform you that our Computer Adaptive Test for NCLEX is already available. This can be seen on on http://www.nclexonline.com.

What’s inside?

Lot’s of SATA (select all that apply) questions, True or False and Multiple choice questions that varies with each level of difficulty. Expect to answer at least 200+ questions per simulator when you start.

On this first version of our NCLEX-CAT, there are two (2) ways to pass.

How you will pass?

1. The 95% certainty rule. Program will stop if the computer determines with 95% certainty that your answers are correct. You will immediately get the results together with the answers and rationale.
2. If you achieve the passing rate set on the program for the full 265 questions. (for NCLEX-RN)

How you will fail?

1. Timer is set to have a full 6 hours of exam (for NCLEX-RN). No pause. No breaks. If you consume all the time, the probability of you being failed is very high.
2. If you didn’t meet the passing rate on the simulator’s program.
3. The 95% rule. If the program knows that most of your answers are wrong, then it will discontinue the exam and provide you with the results.

Take the Test Today!

Below is the NCLEX RN and NCLEX PN Examination passing rates for the 3rd quarter of 2011 released by National Council of State Boards of Nursing.

The data includes the number of candidates taking the NCLEX Examination and the percentage of passing, by type of candidate.

Table of Pass Rates 2011 3Q

Nclex Stats 2011 3q