NEET Biology

Unit 1 Diversity in the Living world || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 07:28:34 +0000

Unit 1 Diversity in the Living world || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Chart With Examples (Download PDF)

🏷️ 1. The Living World (Taxonomic Categories & Data)

Organism (Common Name)	Biological Name	Genus	Family	Order	Class	Phylum / Division
Man	Homo sapiens	Homo	Hominidae	Primata	Mammalia	Chordata
Housefly	Musca domestica	Musca	Muscidae	Diptera	Insecta	Arthropoda
Mango	Mangifera indica	Mangifera	Anacardiaceae	Sapindales	Dicotyledonae	Angiospermae
Wheat	Triticum aestivum	Triticum	Poaceae	Poales	Monocotyledonae	Angiospermae

Key Herbarium Rule: Sheets carry information about date and place of collection, English, local and botanical names, family, and collector's name. It does not carry the height of the plant.

🦠 2. Biological Classification (Kingdoms Monera, Protista, Fungi, & Viruses)

Kingdom / Group	NCERT High-Yield Examples	Diagnostic Feature / Exception
Archaebacteria	Methanogens, Halophiles, Thermoacidophiles	Cell wall structure lacks peptidoglycan; survives extreme environments.
Cyanobacteria	Nostoc, Anabaena	Photosynthetic autotrophs; possess heterocysts for N₂ fixation.
Mycoplasma	Mycoplasma	Completely lacks a cell wall; smallest living cell; anaerobic.
Chrysophytes	Diatoms, Golden Algae (Desmids)	Cell walls form two thin overlapping shells (soapbox); Diatomaceous earth.
Dinoflagellates	Gonyaulax	Causes red tides; releases toxins that kill marine life.
Euglenoids	Euglena	Lacks cell wall, has protein-rich pellicle; mixotrophic nutrition.
Protozoans	Amoeba, Entamoeba, Plasmodium, Paramecium, Trypanosoma	Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness; Plasmodium is infectious.
Phcomycetes	Mucor, Rhizopus (bread mould), Albugo	Parasitic fungi on mustard; coenocytic, aseptic mycelium.
Ascomycetes	Penicillium, Aspergillus, Claviceps, Neurospora, Yeast	Sac fungi; Yeast is unicellular; Neurospora is used extensively in genetics.
Basidiomycetes	Agaricus (mushroom), Ustilago (smut), Puccinia (rust)	Club fungi; sex organs are absent; plasmogamy via somatic cell fusion.
Deuteromycetes	Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Trichoderma	Fungi imperfecti; sexual stage is unknown; only reproduce by conidia.
Viroids	Potato spindle tuber disease agent	Discovered by T.O. Diener; free RNA lacking a protein coat.
Prions	BSE (Mad Cow Disease), Cr-Jacob Disease (CJD)	Abnormally folded proteins; similar size to viruses.

🌿 3. Plant Kingdom (Algae to Angiosperms)

Division / Class	NCERT High-Yield Examples	Evolutionary Milestone / Note
Chlorophyceae (Green)	Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Chlara	Colonial: Volvox; Filamentous: Ulothrix/Spirogyra.
Phaeophyceae (Brown)	Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum, Fucus	Possess chlorophyll a, c, and fucoxanthin; stored food is laminarin/mannitol.
Rhodophyceae (Red)	Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria, Gelidium	Hydrocolloids: Agar from Gracilaria/Gelidium; Carrageen from red algae.
Liverworts	Marchantia, Riccia	Plant body is thalloid; asexual reproduction via gemma cups.
Mosses	Funaria, Polytrichum, Sphagnum	Gametophyte has protonema & leafy stages; Sphagnum provides peat.
Pteridophytes	Selaginella, Equisetum, Lycopodium, Pteris, Dryopteris, Salvinia	Heterosporous exception: Selaginella and Salvinia (precursor to seed habit).
Gymnosperms	Cycas, Pinus, Ginkgo, Cedrus, Sequoia	Sequoia is tallest; Pinus has branched stems & mycorrhizae; Cycas has unbranched stems & coralloid roots (N₂ fixing).

🐾 4. Animal Kingdom (Non-Chordates to Chordates)

Phylum / Class	NCERT High-Yield Examples	Unique Structural Anchor
Porifera	Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla (Freshwater), Euspongia (Bath sponge)	Water canal system; lined with choanocytes (collar cells).
Cnidaria	Physalia (Portuguese man-of-war), Adamsia (Sea anemone), Pennatula (Sea-pen), Gorgonia (Sea-fan), Meandrina (Brain coral)	Cnidoblasts; alternation of generation (Metagenesis) seen in Obelia.
Ctenophora	Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana	Exclusively marine; bioluminescence; 8 rows of ciliated comb plates.
Platyhelminthes	Taenia (Tapeworm), Fasciola (Liver fluke), Planaria	Acoelomate; dorso-ventrally flattened; high regeneration in Planaria.
Aschelminthes	Ascaris (Round worm), Wuchereria (Filaria worm), Ancylostoma (Hookworm)	Pseudocoelomate; alimentary canal has a muscular pharynx.
Annelida	Nereis (Aquatic), Pheretima (Earthworm), Hirudinaria (Blood sucking leech)	True segmentation (Metamerism); Nereis is dioecious; earthworms are monoecious.
Arthropoda	Apis (Honey bee), Bombyx (Silkworm), Laccifer (Lac insect), Vectors (Anopheles, Culex, Aedes), Limulus (King crab)	Largest phylum; chitinous exoskeleton; Limulus is a living fossil.
Mollusca	Pila (Apple snail), Pinctada (Pearl oyster), Sepia (Cuttlefish), Loligo (Squid), Octopus (Devil fish), Aplysia (Sea-hare), Dentalium (Tusk shell), Chaetopleura (Chiton)	Second largest phylum; unsegmented body with a muscular foot, visceral hump, and mantle.
Echinodermata	Asterias (Starfish), Echinus (Sea urchin), Antedon (Sea lily), Cucumaria (Sea cucumber), Ophiura (Brittle star)	Water vascular system; radial symmetry in adults but bilateral in larvae.
Hemichordata	Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus	Worm-like marine animals; possess a proboscis gland for excretion.
Cyclostomata	Petromyzon (Lamprey), Myxine (Hagfish)	Jawless; sucking circular mouth; migrate to fresh water for spawning, then die.
Chondrichthyes	Scoliodon (Dog fish), Pristis (Saw fish), Carcharodon (Great white shark), Trygon (Sting ray), Torpedo (Electric ray)	Cartilaginous skeleton; placoid scales; persistent notochord; no air bladder (must swim constantly).
Osteichthyes	Marine: Exocoetus (Flying fish), Hippocampus (Sea horse); Freshwater: Labeo (Rohu), Catla, Clarias (Magur); Aquarium: Betta (Fighting fish), Pterophyllum (Angel fish)	Bony skeleton; cycloid/ctenoid scales; four pairs of gills covered by an operculum; air bladder present.
Amphibia	Bufo (Toad), Rana (Frog), Hyla (Tree frog), Salamandra (Salamander), Ichthyophis (Limbless amphibian)	Cloaca present (common chamber for alimentary, urinary, and reproductive tracts); tympanum represents ear.
Reptilia	Chelone (Turtle), Testudo (Tortoise), Chameleon (Tree lizard), Calotes (Garden lizard), Crocodilus, Alligator, Hemidactylus (Wall lizard), Poisonous snakes: Naja (Cobra), Bangarus (Krait), Vipera (Viper)	Creeping locomotion; epidermal scales/scutes; 3-chambered heart except crocodiles (4-chambered).
Aves	Corvus (Crow), Columba (Pigeon), Psittacula (Parrot), Struthio (Ostrich), Pavo (Peacock), Aptenodytes (Penguin), Neophron (Vulture)	Feathers; pneumatic (hollow) bones; additional chambers in digestive tract: crop and gizzard.
Mammalia	Oviparous: Ornithorhynchus (Platypus); Viviparous: Macropus (Kangaroo), Pteropus (Flying fox), Camelus, Macaca (Monkey), Rattus, Canis, Felis, Elephas, Equus, Delphinus (Common dolphin), Balaenoptera (Blue whale), Panthera tigris, Panthera leo	Mammary glands present; skin possesses hair; unique external ear pinna.

Unit 2 Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 07:13:00 +0000

Unit 2 Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples (Download PDF)

🌿 Morphology of Flowering Plants (Root, Stem & Leaf)

Category / Modification	NCERT Examples	Key High-Yield Feature
Tap Root System	Mustard plant	Primary root arises from the radicle.
Fibrous Root System	Wheat plant	Roots originate from the base of the stem.
Adventitious Roots	Grass, Monstera, Banyan tree	Roots arise from parts other than the radicle.
Prop Roots	Banyan tree	Hanging structures providing mechanical support.
Stilt Roots	Maize, Sugarcane	Arise from the lower nodes of the stem.
Pneumatophores	Rhizophora (Swampy areas)	Grow vertically upwards to get oxygen for respiration.
Underground Stem Storage	Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Zaminkand, Colocasia	Organs of perennation to tide over unfavorable conditions.
Stem Tendrils	Gourds (Cucumber, Pumpkin, Watermelon), Grapevines	Slender, spirally coiled structures developed from axillary buds.
Stem Thorns	Citrus, Bougainvillea	Woody, straight, and pointed structures for defense.
Phylloclade (Photosynthetic Stem)	Opuntia (Flattened), Euphorbia (Fleshy cylindrical)	Stems contain chlorophyll and perform photosynthesis in arid zones.
Leaf Tendrils	Peas	Leaves modified for climbing.
Leaf Spines	Cacti (Opuntia)	Modified for defense; reduces transpiration.
Fleshy Storage Leaves	Onion, Garlic	Store food materials.
Phyllode (Modified Petiole)	Australian Acacia	Petioles expand, turn green, and synthesize food as leaves are short-lived.
Insectivorous Leaves	Pitcher plant, Venus fly trap	Modified leaves used to catch insects for nitrogen needs.

🌸 Morphology of Flowering Plants (Inflorescence, Flower & Families)

Category / Symmetry	NCERT Examples	Key Botanical Detail
Racemose Inflorescence	Radish, Mustard, Lupin	Main axis continues to grow; flowers borne acropetally.
Cymose Inflorescence	Solanum, Jasmine, Calotropis	Main axis terminates in a flower; flowers borne basipetally.
Actinomorphic (Radial)	Mustard, Datura, Chilli	Flower can be divided into two equal halves in any radial plane.
Zygomorphic (Bilateral)	Pea, Gulmohur, Bean, Cassia	Flower can be divided into identical halves only in one vertical plane.
Asymmetric (Irregular)	Canna	Cannot be divided into two similar halves by any plane.
Valvate Aestivation	Calotropis	Sepals or petals meet at the margins without overlapping.
Twisted Aestivation	China rose, Lady's finger, Cotton	One margin of the appendage overlaps that of the next one.
Imbricate Aestivation	Cassia, Gulmohur	Margins overlap but not in any particular direction.
Vexillary (Papilionaceous)	Pea, Bean	Five petals: Largest (Standard), two lateral (Wings), two anterior (Keel).
Apocarpous Carpels	Lotus, Rose	Carpels are free from each other.
Syncarpous Carpels	Mustard, Tomato	Carpels are fused together.
Marginal Placentation	Pea	Placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary.
Axile Placentation	China rose, Tomato, Lemon	Placenta is axial and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary.
Parietal Placentation	Mustard, Argemone	Ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or peripheral part.
Free Central Placentation	Dianthus, Primrose	Ovules are borne on a central axis and septa are absent.
Basal Placentation	Sunflower, Marigold	Placenta develops at the base of the ovary and a single ovule is attached.
Fabaceae (Pea Family)	Gram, Arhar, Sem, Moong, Soyabean, Indigofera, Sunnhemp, Sesbania, Trifolium, Licorice	Plants yield pulses, edible oil, dye, fibres, fodder, and medicine.
Solanaceae (Potato Family)	Potato, Tomato, Brinjal, Chilli, Belladonna, Ashwagandha, Tobacco, Petunia	Plants yield food, spices, medicines, fumigatories, and ornamentals.
Liliaceae (Lily Family)	Tulip, Gloriosa, Aloe, Asparagus, Colchicum (Colchicum autumnale)	Monocot family; includes ornamentals, medicine, vegetables, and colchicine.

🔬 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Tissue Type / Structure	NCERT Examples / Features	Key High-Yield Detail
Simple Permanent Tissues	Parenchyma, Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma	Basic structural units of plant organs.
Collenchyma Locations	Hypodermis of Dicot stems	Found as a homogenous layer or in patches; absent in monocots.
Sclereids (Sclerenchyma)	Fruit walls of nuts; pulp of guava, pear, sapota; seed coats of legumes	Spherical or oval thick-walled dead cells with narrow lumens.
Complex Permanent Tissues	Xylem (Tracheids, Vessels, Xylem Fibres, Xylem Parenchyma) Gymnosperms lack vessels	Vessels are a characteristic feature of Angiosperms.
Phloem Components	Sieve tubes, Companion cells, Phloem parenchyma, Phloem fibres	Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion cells (have albuminous cells instead).
Phloem Parenchyma Absence	Most Monocotyledons	Absent in monocot stems and leaves.
Dicot Stem Anatomy	Collenchymatous hypodermis; Ring arrangement of vascular bundles; Conjoint, collateral, open	Ring-like arrangement of vascular bundles is a diagnostic feature.
Monocot Stem Anatomy	Sclerenchymatous hypodermis; Scattered vascular bundles; Conjoint, collateral, closed	Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than central ones.
Isobilateral (Monocot) Leaf	Bulliform cells present in epidermis	Large, empty, colorless cells in grasses that control leaf rolling during water stress.

🐸 Structural Organisation in Animals (Tissue Locations & Frog)

Tissue Type	Specific NCERT Locations	Structural Shape / Feature
Squamous Epithelium	Walls of blood vessels, air sacs (alveoli) of lungs	Single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
Cuboidal Epithelium	Ducts of glands, tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys	Single layer of cube-like cells; microvilli present in PCT of nephron.
Columnar Epithelium	Lining of stomach and intestine	Single layer of tall and slender cells; helps in secretion and absorption.
Ciliated Epithelium	Inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubes	Columnar or cuboidal cells bearing cilia on their free surface.
Exocrine Glands	Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes glands	Mucus glands are unicellular (Goblet cells); Salivary glands are multicellular.
Endocrine Glands	Pituitary, Thyroid, Adrenal glands	Ductless glands; secrete hormones directly into the fluid bathing the gland.
Tight Junctions	Epithelial sheets	Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
Adhering Junctions	Epithelial sheets	Perform cementing to keep neighboring cells together.
Gap Junctions	Cardiac muscle cells, neurons	Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting cytoplasm.
Areolar Tissue (Loose Connective)	Beneath the skin	Serves as a support framework for epithelium.
Adipose Tissue (Loose Connective)	Beneath the skin	Specialized to store fats; excess nutrients are converted into fat here.
Dense Regular Connective	Tendons (Bone to Muscle), Ligaments (Bone to Bone)	Collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles.
Dense Irregular Connective	Skin dermis	Fibroblasts and many fibres are oriented irregularly.
Specialized Connective Tissue	Cartilage, Bone, Blood	• Cartilage: Chondrocytes enclosed in small cavities. • Bone: Osteocytes present in spaces called lacunae.
Frog (Rana tigrina) Key Values	• Heart: 3-chambered (2 atria, 1 ventricle) • Erythrocytes: Nucleated with haemoglobin • Respiration: Cutaneous (skin) and Pulmonary (lungs) • Brain ventricles: Optic lobes are prominent	Poikilothermic (cold-blooded) amphibian; exhibits mimicry and aestivation/hibernation.

Unit 3 Cell structure and Functions || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 07:03:42 +0000

🔬 Cell: The Unit of Life (Sizes, Shapes & Structures)

Category	NCERT Examples	Key Data / Exception
Smallest Cell	Mycoplasma	0.3 µm in length (lacks cell wall)
Largest Isolated Single Cell	Egg of an Ostrich	Macroscopic cell
Human Red Blood Cells (RBCs)	Circular and biconcave	About 7.0 µm in diameter
Longest Cells	Nerve cells (Neurons)	Branched and long
Bacteria Size	Typical bacteria	1 to 2 µm (Mycoplasma is smaller)
Organelle Sizes	Chloroplast, Mitochondria	Chloroplast: 2-4 µm (w), 5-10 µm (l) Mitochondria: 0.2-1.0 µm (diameter)
Inclusion Bodies	Phosphate granules, Cyanophycean granules, Glyco_gen granules	Non-membrane bound storage in prokaryotes
Gas Vacuoles	Blue-green, Purple, and Green photosynthetic bacteria	Found in aquatic prokaryotes for buoyancy
Cilia & Flagella Arrangement	Eukaryotic core (Axonema)	9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
Centriole Arrangement	Centrosome core	9 + 0 arrangement (triplet peripheral fibrils)
Chromosomes (Centromere position)	Metacentric, Sub-metacentric, Acrocentric, Telocentric	Telocentric: Terminal centromere (i-shaped)

🧪 Biomolecules (Chemical Composition & Metabolites)

Category	NCERT Examples	Key Significance / Sub-types
Biomacromolecules	Proteins, Nucleic acids, Polysaccharides	Molecular weight > 10,000 Daltons (except Lipids)
Acid-Soluble Pool Exception	Lipids	Molecular weight < 800 Da but forms vesicles
Most Abundant Protein	RUBISCO (Biosphere), Collagen (Animal world)	Crucial for photosynthesis / Intercellular ground substance
Pigments	Carotenoids, Anthocyanins	Secondary metabolites
Alkaloids	Morphine, Codeine	Secondary metabolites
Terpenoids	Monoterpenes, Diterpenes	Secondary metabolites
Essential Oils	Lemon grass oil	Secondary metabolites
Toxins	Abrin, Ricin	Secondary metabolites
Lectins	Concanavalin A	Secondary metabolites
Drugs	Vinblastine, Curcumin	Secondary metabolites (Anti-cancer / Anti-inflammatory)
Polymeric Substances	Rubber, Gums, Cellulose	Secondary metabolites
Homopolysaccharides	Cellulose, Starch, Glycogen, Inulin	Inulin is a polymer of fructose
Heteropolysaccharides	Chitin	Polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine (Exoskeleton of arthropods)

🔄 Cell Cycle & Cell Division (Duration & Specific Phases)

Category	NCERT Examples / Phases	Key Timing / Feature
Human Cell Cycle Duration	24 Hours	Interphase lasts for 95% of the duration (~23 hours)
Yeast Cell Cycle Duration	90 Minutes	Rapidly dividing eukaryotic cell
Quiescent Stage ($G_{0}$)	Heart cells, adult animal nerve cells	Metabolically active but no longer proliferating
Mitosis in Animals	Diploid somatic cells	Exception: Male social insects (drones) have haploid mitosis
Mitosis in Plants	Both Haploid and Diploid cells	Seen in bryophytes, pteridophytes, etc.
Leptotene Stage	Chromosomes become gradually visible	First stage of Prophase-I
Zygotene Stage	Synapsis of homologous chromosomes	Forms Synaptonemal complex
Pachytene Stage	Crossing over, Recombination nodules	Mediated by the enzyme Recombinase
Diplotene Stage	Dissolution of synaptonemal complex	Chiasmata formation (lasts months/years in oocytes)
Diakinesis Stage	Terminalisation of chiasmata	Nucleolus disappears, nuclear envelope breaks down

Unit 5 Human Physiology || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 07:02:02 +0000

🫁 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Category	NCERT Examples	Key Physiological Value / Feature
Respiratory Organs	• Skin/Cuticle: Earthworms, Amphibians • Tracheal Tubes: Insects • Gills (Branchial): Aquatic Arthropods, Fishes • Lungs (Pulmonary): Reptiles, Birds, Mammals	Mechanism depends on habitat and level of organization.
Respiratory Volumes	• Tidal Volume (TV): 500 mL • Inspiratory Reserve (IRV): 2500–3000 mL • Expiratory Reserve (ERV): 1000–1100 mL • Residual Volume (RV): 1100–1200 mL	RV cannot be measured by a standard spirometer.
Respiratory Capacities	• Vital Capacity (VC): ERV + TV + IRV • Total Lung Capacity (TLC): RV + ERV + TV + IRV	VC is the max volume a person can breathe in after a forced expiration.
Oxygen Transport	Oxyhaemoglobin	Each gram of Hb carries ~1.34 mL of O₂; 100 mL of oxygenated blood delivers 5 mL of O₂ to tissues under normal conditions.
Carbon Dioxide Transport	• Bicarbonate ions: 70% • Carbamino-haemoglobin: 20–25% • Dissolved state in plasma: 7%	100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers 4 mL of CO₂ to the alveoli.
Respiratory Disorders	• Asthma: Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles. • Emphysema: Alveolar walls damaged (due to cigarette smoking). • Occupational Disorders: Silicosis, Asbestosis (fibrosis of upper lungs).	Emphysema drastically reduces the respiratory surface area.

🩸 Body Fluids and Circulation

Category	NCERT Examples / Components	Key Count / Feature / Value
Plasma Proteins	• Fibrinogen: Clotting / Coagulation • Globulins: Defense mechanisms • Albumins: Osmotic balance	Plasma without clotting factors is called Serum.
Formed Elements	• Erythrocytes (RBCs): 5 to 5.5 Million / mm³ • Leucocytes (WBCs): 6000–8000 / mm³ • Platelets (Thrombocytes): 1,500,00–3,500,00 / mm³	RBC lifespan is 120 days; destroyed in the spleen (graveyard of RBCs).
Granulocytes	Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils	Neutrophils are the most abundant (60–65%); phagocytic.
Agranulocytes	Lymphocytes (B and T cells), Monocytes	Monocytes (6–8%) are phagocytic; Lymphocytes (20–25%) handle immunity.
Heart Auto-excitable Nodes	SAN (Sinoatrial Node), AVN (Atrioventricular Node)	SAN is the Pacemaker; generates 70–75 action potentials per minute.
Cardiac Cycle Values	• Stroke Volume: 70 mL • Cardiac Output: ~5000 mL (5 Litres)	Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume × Heart Rate.
Circulatory Disorders	• Hypertension: BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg • CAD (Atherosclerosis): Calcium/fat deposition in coronary arteries. • Angina Pectoris: Acute chest pain due to low O₂ reaching heart muscles.	Heart Failure is not the same as Cardiac Arrest or Heart Attack.

🦘 Excretory Products and Their Elimination

Category	NCERT Examples	Key Mode / Mechanism
Ammonotelic	Aquatic amphibians, bony fishes, aquatic insects	Highly toxic; requires large amounts of water to eliminate.
Ureotelic	Mammals, terrestrial amphibians, marine fishes	Ammonia is converted to urea in the liver (Ornithine cycle).
Uricotelic	Reptiles, Birds, Land snails, Insects	Excreted as pellets/paste with minimum water loss.
Excretory Organs	• Protonephridia (Flame cells): Platyhelminthes, Rotifers, Amphioxus • Nephridia: Earthworms • Malpighian Tubules: Cockroaches • Antennal / Green Glands: Prawns	Protonephridia primarily control osmoregulation.
Glomerular Filtration Rate	GFR = 125 mL/min (or 180 Litres per day)	Only 1.5 Litres of urine is excreted daily (99% reabsorbed).
Counter-Current Mechanism	Henle's Loop and Vasa Recta	Maintains an osmolarity gradient from 300 mOsmol/L to 1200 mOsmol/L.
Excretory Disorders	• Uremia: Accumulation of urea in blood. • Renal Calculi: Stones of crystallized salts (oxalates) in the kidney. • Glomerulonephritis: Inflammation of glomeruli.	Uremia indicates kidney failure and requires hemodialysis.

🦴 Locomotion and Movement

Category	NCERT Examples / Counts	Specific Bone Names / High-Yield Features
Axial Skeleton (80 Bones)	Skull (22), Hyoid (1), Ear Ossicles (6), Vertebral Column (26), Sternum (1), Ribs (24)	Cranium has 8 bones; Facial structure has 14 bones.
Rib Types	• True Ribs: 1st to 7th pairs • Vertebrochondral (False): 8th, 9th, 10th pairs • Floating Ribs: 11th and 12th pairs	True ribs attach dorsally to vertebrae and ventrally to sternum via hyaline cartilage.
Appendicular Skeleton	Girdles (6 bones) and Limbs (30 × 4 = 120 bones)	Pectoral girdle has Clavicle and Scapula; Pelvic girdle has 2 Coxal bones.
Fibrous Joints	Sutures in flat skull bones	Synarthroses (Immovable joints).
Cartilaginous Joints	Between adjacent vertebrae, Pubic symphysis	Amphiarthroses (Permits limited movement).
Synovial Joints	• Ball and Socket: Shoulder, Hip joints • Hinge: Knee, Elbow joints • Pivot: Atlas and Axis • Gliding: Between Carpals • Saddle: Between Carpal and Metacarpal of thumb	Diarthroses (Freely movable joints characterized by synovial fluid).
Skeletal Disorders	• Myasthenia Gravis: Autoimmune; affects neuromuscular junction. • Muscular Dystrophy: Genetic; progressive degeneration of muscle. • Tetany: Rapid spasms due to low Ca²⁺ in body fluid. • Gout: Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.	Myasthenia gravis targets acetylcholine receptors.

🧠 Neural Control and Coordination

Category	NCERT Systems / Examples	Key Feature / Function
Neural Systems	• Hydra: Network of neurons • Insects: Brain, ganglia, and neural tissues • Vertebrates: Highly developed CNS and PNS	Nerve cells in Hydra are apolar (unpolarized).
Types of Neurons	• Apolar / Non-polar: Hydra • Unipolar: Embryonic stage • Bipolar: Retina of eye, olfactory epithelium • Multipolar: Cerebral cortex	Multipolar neurons have one axon and two or more dendrites.
Meninges	Dura mater (outer), Arachnoid (middle), Pia mater (inner)	Cranial meninges protect the brain structure.
Forebrain Structures	Cerebrum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus	Hypothalamus controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
Hindbrain Structures	Pons, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata	Medulla controls respiration, cardiovascular reflexes, and gastric secretions.

🧪 Chemical Coordination and Integration

Gland / Source	Secreted Hormone	High-Yield NCERT Disorders & Features
Hypothalamus	GnRH, Somatostatin, TRH	• GnRH: Stimulates pituitary gonadotropins. • Somatostatin: Inhibits GH release from pituitary.
Anterior Pituitary	GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH	• Gigantism / Dwarfism: Excess/deficit of GH. • Acromegaly: Excess GH in adults (severe disfigurement).
Posterior Pituitary	Oxytocin, Vasopressin (ADH)	• Diabetes Insipidus: Deficit of ADH (water loss, diuresis). • Pituitary synthetically stores hormones made by the hypothalamus.
Thyroid Gland	T₃, T₄, Thyrocalcitonin (TCT)	• Goitre: Iodine deficiency. • Cretinism: Hypothyroidism during pregnancy (stunted growth). • Exophthalmic Goitre (Graves' Disease): Hyperthyroidism.
Parathyroid Gland	Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)	Hypercalcemic hormone (increases blood Ca²⁺ levels; counteracts TCT).
Adrenal Cortex	Glucocorticoids (Cortisol), Mineralocorticoids (Aldosterone)	• Addison's Disease: Hyposecretion of corticoids (altered carbohydrate metabolism, acute weakness).
Pancreas (Islets)	α-cells (Glucagon), β-cells (Insulin)	• Diabetes Mellitus: Prolonged hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, glucose in urine.

Unit 4 Plant Physiology || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 06:59:23 +0000

☀️ Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Category	NCERT Examples	Key Feature / Pathway
$C_{3}$ Plants	Wheat, Rice, Barley, Oats, Soya bean, Tomato, Bell pepper	First stable product is a 3-carbon compound (3-PGA).
$C_{4}$ Plants	Maize, Sorghum, Sugarcane, Millet	Possess Kranz anatomy; no photorespiration.
CAM Plants	Pineapple, Cactus, Sedum, Opuntia, Sisal	Scotoactive stomata (open at night to save water).
Primary $CO_{2}$ Acceptor	RuBP ($C_{3}$ pathway), PEP ($C_{4}$ pathway)	RuBP is 5-carbon; PEP is 3-carbon.
First Stable Product	3-PGA ($C_{3}$ pathway), OAA ($C_{4}$ pathway)	3-Phosphoglyceric acid vs. Oxaloacetic acid.
High $CO_{2}$ Responders	Tomato, Bell pepper	Greenhouse crops grown in $CO_{2}$-enriched air for higher yield.
Photosynthetic Pigments	Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls, Carotenoids	Chlorophyll a is the chief reaction centre pigment.

🌱 Respiration in Plants

Category	NCERT Examples / Intermediates	Key Significance / RQ Value
Anaerobic Organisms	Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Yeast), Lacto_bacillus	Undergo fermentation (alcoholic or lactic acid).
Respiratory Substrates	Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats, Organic acids	Carbohydrates are the most preferred substrate.
RQ = 1.0	Carbohydrates (Glucose)	Equal volume of $CO_{2}$ evolved and $O_{2}$ consumed.
RQ < 1.0 (0.7)	Fats (e.g., Tripalmitin)	Oxygen consumption is higher than carbon dioxide release.
RQ = 0.9	Proteins	Broken down into amino acids before entering respiration.
RQ > 1.0 (1.33)	Organic Acids (e.g., Malic acid, Oxalic acid)	Contain more oxygen in their molecular structure.
Amphibolic Pathway Linkers	Acetyl CoA (Fats/Proteins), $\alpha $-ketoglutaric acid	Acetyl CoA links fat breakdown to the TCA cycle.

🌱 Plant Growth and Development (PGRs & Responses)

Plant Hormone (PGR)	NCERT Source / Discovery	High-Yield NCERT Examples & Applications
Auxins	Human urine, Oats (Avena curvature test)	• Natural: IAA, IBA • Synthetic: NAA, 2,4-D (Weedicide for dicot weeds) • Rooting in stem cuttings, apical dominance, xylem differentiation.
Gibberellins ($GA$)	Gibberella fujikuroi (Bakanae/foolish seedling disease)	• $GA_{3}$: Increases stalk length of grapes, elongates sugarcane stems. • Delays senescence (extends shelf life), speeds up malting process.
Cytokinins	Herring sperm DNA (Kinetin), Corn kernels (Zeatin)	• Promotes nutrient mobilization, delays leaf senescence. • Overcomes apical dominance, induces lateral shoot growth.
Ethylene	Ripening oranges (volatile substance)	• Ethephon (Liquid source): Hastens fruit ripening in tomato/apple. • Thinning of cotton/walnut, promotes female flowers in cucumbers.
Abscisic Acid (ABA)	Inhibitor-B, Abscisin II, Dormin	• Stress Hormone: Closes stomata during water stress. • Induces seed dormancy, acts as a general plant growth inhibitor.

⏱️ Photoperiodism & Seed Germination

Category	NCERT Examples	Key Feature
Long Day Plants (LDP)	Wheat, Radish, Sugar beet, Barley	Flower when day length exceeds critical photoperiod.
Short Day Plants (SDP)	Tobacco, Chrysanthemum, Rice, Soyabean	Flower when day length is less than critical photoperiod.
Day Neutral Plants (DNP)	Tomato, Pepper, Cucumber, Sunflower, Maize	Flowering is independent of the duration of light.
Vernalisation Responders	Wheat, Barley, Rye, Carrot, Cabbage, Sugar beet	Cold-treatment triggers or accelerates flowering.

Unit 6 Reproduction || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 06:55:08 +0000

🌸 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Category / Mechanism	NCERT Examples	Key High-Yield Feature / Ploidy
Pollen Viability	• Rice, Wheat: 30 minutes • Rosaceae, Leguminosae, Solanaceae: Months	Viability depends on temperature and humidity.
Pollen Allergy	Parthenium (Carrot grass)	Imported with wheat; causes chronic respiratory disorders.
Largest / Tallest Flower	Amorphophallus	Flower is 6 feet high; provides safe egg-laying site for insects.
Obligate Symbiosis	Yucca plant and Pronuba Moth	Neither species can complete its life cycle without the other.
Anemophily (Wind)	Grasses, Corn cob (Maize)	Tassels are stigmas and styles; pollen is light and non-sticky.
Hydrophily (Water)	• Marine: Zostera (Sea grasses) • Fresh water: Vallisneria, Hydrilla	Vallisneria uses epihydrophily (surface); Zostera pollen is ribbon-like.
Insect Pollinated Water Plants	Water Hyacinth (Eichhornia), Water Lily	Exposed above water level; pollinated by insects or wind.
Cleistogamous Flowers	Viola (Common pansy), Oxalis, Commelina	Invariably autagamous; produce assured seed-set without pollinators.
Non-albuminous (Exalbuminous)	Pea, Groundnut, Beans	Endosperm is completely consumed during embryo development.
Albuminous (Endospermic)	Wheat, Maize, Barley, Castor, Sunflower	Retains a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up.
Perisperm (Persistent Nucellus)	Black Pepper, Beet	Residual, persistent nucellus inside the seed.
False Fruits	Apple, Pear, Strawberry, Cashew	Thalamus contributes to fruit formation along with the ovary.
Parthenocarpic Fruits	Banana	Fruits develop without fertilisation; seedless.
Apomixis (Seed without fertilisation)	Asteraceae family, Grasses	Mimics sexual reproduction but is a form of asexual reproduction.
Polyembryony	Citrus fruits, Mango	Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed.

🤰 Human Reproduction (Ploidy & Hormonal Landmarks)

Stage / Cell Type	Ploidy Level	Key NCERT Value / Detail
Spermatogonia / Oogonia	Diploid ($2n$)	Stem cells found in seminiferous tubules and fetal ovaries.
Primary Spermatocyte / Oocyte	Diploid ($2n$)	Undergo Meiosis-I to form secondary stages.
Secondary Spermatocyte / Oocyte	Haploid ($n$)	Secondary oocyte is arrested at Metaphase-II until fertilisation.
Spermatid / Spermatozoa / Ovum	Haploid ($n$)	Morphologically mature gametes.
Semen Output per Ejaculation	200 to 300 Million Sperm	For normal fertility: 60% must have normal shape/size; 40% vigorous motility.
Menstrual Phase Details	Days 1–5	Breakdown of Endometrium lining and its blood vessels.
LH Surge	Middle of cycle (~Day 14)	Rapid secretion of LH induces rupture of Graafian follicle (Ovulation).
Corpus Luteum Function	Secretes Progesterone	Essential for maintenance of endometrium during pregnancy.
Placental Endocrine Hormones	hCG, hPL, Progesterone, Estrogens	hCG, hPL, and Relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Colostrum	First milk	Rich in IgA antibodies; provides passive immunity to the newborn.

💊 Reproductive Health (Contraceptive Methods & ART)

Contraceptive Category	NCERT Examples	Working Mechanism / Composition
Natural Methods	Periodic abstinence, Coitus interruptus, Lactational amenorrhea	Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to a maximum of 6 months post-partum.
Barrier Methods	Condoms, Diaphragms, Cervical caps, Vaults	Diaphragms/caps are reusable and block sperm entry through the cervix.
Non-Medicated IUD	Lippes loop	Increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
Copper-Releasing IUD	CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375	$Cu^{2+}$ ions suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity.
Hormone-Releasing IUD	Progestasert, LNG-20	Makes the cervix hostile to sperm and uterus unsuitable for implantation.
Oral Contraceptive Pill (Steroid)	Mala-D, Mala-N	Taken daily for 21 days; inhibits ovulation and implantation.
Non-Steroidal Pill	Saheli	Developed by CDRI, Lucknow; once-a-week pill with very few side effects.
Sterilization (Surgical)	• Vasectomy: Males • Tubectomy: Females	Terminal method; vas deferens or fallopian tubes are cut and tied.
ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer)	Embryo up to 8 blastomeres	Transferred directly into the fallopian tube.
IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer)	Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres	Transferred directly into the uterus to complete development.
GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer)	Transfer of an ovum	For females who cannot produce ova but can provide environment.
ICSI (Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection)	Specialized lab procedure	Sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of the ovum.

Unit 7 Genetics and Evolution | NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart with Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 06:51:43 +0000

🧬 Principles of Inheritance and Variation (Mendelian & Chromosomal)

Category / Phenomenon	NCERT Examples	Key High-Yield Genetic Feature
Mendel's Study Plant	Garden Pea (Pisum sativum)	Studied 7 pairs of contrasting traits for 7 years (1856–1863).
Incomplete Dominance	• Antirrhinum majus (Snapdragon / Dog flower) • Mirabilis jalapa (Four o'clock plant)	F₂ generation shows identical Genotypic and Phenotypic ratios (1:2:1). Pink flowers from Red × White.
Co-dominance	• ABO Blood Grouping in humans • Coat colour in cattle (Roan pattern)	Plasma membrane of RBCs has sugar polymers controlled by gene I ($I^A, I^B, i$). Both $I^{A}$ and $I^{B}$ express fully.
Multiple Allelism	ABO Blood Grouping in humans	Three alleles control the trait; can only be studied in a population.
Pleiotropy	• Phenylketonuria (PKU) in humans • Starch grain size & shape in Pea seeds	A single gene mutation affects multiple phenotypic traits (e.g., mental retardation and hair reduction in PKU).
Polygenic Inheritance	Human Skin Colour, Human Height	Controlled by three or more genes; phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele (gradient effect).
Chromosomal Theory Organism	Fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster)	Chosen by T.H. Morgan; easily grown on synthetic medium, short life cycle (2 weeks), clear sex differentiation.
XO Type Sex Determination	Grasshopper, True bugs	Males have only one X chromosome (XO), females have two (XX). Sperm decides the sex.
ZW Type Sex Determination	Birds (Fowl, Peacock, etc.), Butterflies	Females are heterogametic (ZW), males are homogametic (ZZ). Ovum decides the sex.
Haplodiploid Sex System	Honey bees	Males (Drones) develop parthenogenetically from unfertilized eggs (Haploid, $n=16$); Females are Diploid ($2n=32$).
Mendelian Disorders (Gene)	Haemophilia, Sickle-cell anaemia, Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia, Cystic fibrosis	• Haemophilia: X-linked recessive. • Sickle-cell: Autosomal recessive (Glu $\rightarrow $ Val change at 6th position of $\beta $-chain).
Aneuploidy (Chromosomal)	• Down’s Syndrome: Trisomy of 21 • Klinefelter’s Syndrome: XXY (47) • Turner’s Syndrome: XO (45)	• Down's: Langdon Down (1866); furrowed tongue, mental retardation. • Klinefelter's: Sterile males with feminine traits (Gynaecomastia). • Turner's: Sterile females with rudimentary ovaries.

🔬 Molecular Basis of Inheritance (DNA & Experimental Models)

Category / Experiment	Organism / Model Used	High-Yield Landmark Discovery
Transforming Principle (1928)	Streptococcus pneumoniae & Mice	Frederick Griffith showed avirulent R-strain transforms into virulent S-strain via a heat-killed extract.
Biochemical Proof (1933-44)	Streptococcus enzymes	Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty proved DNA is the transforming agent using Protease, RNase, and DNase.
Unequivocal Proof (1952)	Bacteriophage ($T_{2}$) & E. coli	Hershey and Chase used radioactive Phosphorus ($^{32}P$) for DNA and Sulphur ($^{35}S$) for protein coat.
Semiconservative Replication	Escherichia coli (Bacteria)	Meselson and Stahl (1958) used heavy nitrogen ($^{15}NH_4Cl$) and Cesium Chloride ($CsCl$) density gradient centrifugation.
Chromosomal Semiconservative	Vicia faba (Faba beans)	Taylor and colleagues (1958) used radioactive thymidine to prove replication on plant chromosomes.
Polynucleotide Phosphorylase	Severo Ochoa enzyme	Synthesized RNA with defined sequences in a template-independent manner for cracking the genetic code.
Lac Operon Model	Escherichia coli	Jacob and Monod; Inducer is Lactose (or allolactose). Structural genes: z (beta-gal), y (permease), a (transacetylase).
Model Organisms in HGP	Bacteria, Yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans (nematode), Drosophila, Plants (Rice & Arabidopsis)	Used for sequencing non-human genomes during the Human Genome Project.

🐒 Evolution (Evidences, Mechanism & History)

Category / Concept	NCERT Examples	High-Yield Evolutionary Significance
Homologous Organs	• Animals: Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah, human; Vertebrate hearts/brains. • Plants: Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita.	Indicates Divergent Evolution (Shared ancestry, anatomy similar, functions adapt to different needs).
Analogous Organs	• Animals: Wings of butterfly & birds; Eyes of octopus & mammals; Flippers of penguins & dolphins. • Plants: Sweet potato (Root modification) & Potato (Stem modification).	Indicates Convergent Evolution (Different structures evolving for the same function due to similar habitat pressure).
Natural Selection (Industrial)	Peppered Moth (Biston betularia) in England	Pre-industrialisation (1850s): White moths dominant. Post-industrialisation (1920s): Dark/melanic moths dominant due to soot on tree trunks.
Anthropogenic Evolution	Antibiotic-resistant bacteria; Herbicide-resistant weeds	Evolution driven by human actions over a short timescale (months/years instead of millions of years).
Adaptive Radiation	• Darwin’s Finches (Galapagos Islands) • Australian Marsupials • Placental Mammals of North America	Evolution starting from a point in a geographical area and radiating to other habitats.
Convergent Adaptive Radiation	Placental Wolf vs. Tasmanian Wolf; Anteater vs. Spiny Anteater	Pairs of placental mammals and Australian marsupials showing striking structural similarities due to parallel niches.
Saltation (Mechanism)	Evening Primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana)	Hugo de Vries proposed that mutation (large single-step mutation called saltation) drives speciation, not gradual variations.

🦖 Geological Time Scale & Human Evolution Highlights

First Cellular Forms: Appeared around 2000 million years ago (mya).
Invertebrates & Jawless Fish: Invertebrates formed around 500 mya; Jawless fish evolved around 350 mya.
Coelacanth (Lobefin): Caught in South Africa (1938); thought to be extinct. Ancestor of modern amphibians.
Reptiles to Mammals Lineage: Sauropsids evolved into lizards, snakes, and dinosaurs. Synapsids evolved into Pelycosaurs $\rightarrow $ Therapsids $\rightarrow $ Mammals.
Mass Extinction: Dinosaurs suddenly disappeared around 65 mya (reasons unknown, possibly asteroid impact).

👤 Human Evolution Timeline

Dryopithecus & Ramapithecus (~15 mya): Hairy, walked like gorillas. Dryopithecus was more ape-like; Ramapithecus was more man-like.
Australopithecines (~2–3 mya): Lived in East African grasslands; hunted with stone weapons; essentially ate fruit.
Homo habilis (First human-like hominid): Brain capacity 650–800 cc; did not eat meat.
Homo erectus (~1.5 mya): Brain capacity 900 cc; ate meat.
Neanderthal Man (100,000–40,000 years ago): Brain capacity 1400 cc; lived in Near East & Central Asia; buried their dead.
Homo sapiens (10,000–75,000 years ago): Arose in Africa during the ice age. Prehistoric cave art developed around 18,000 years ago; agriculture started around 10,000 years ago.

Unit 8- Biology in Human Welfare || NEET Biology Sure Shot | High Yield Facts Chart with Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 06:45:25 +0000

🩺 Human Health and Disease (Pathogens, Immunity & Drugs)

Category / Disease	Causative Agent / Source	Vector / Mode of Transmission / Key Feature
Typhoid	Salmonella typhi (Bacterium)	Contaminated food/water; sustained high fever; Widal test.
Pneumonia	Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae	Alveoli get filled with fluid; finger_nails turn gray to blue.
Common Cold	Rhinoviruses	Infects nose and respiratory passage, but not the lungs.
Malaria	Plasmodium vivax, P. malariae, P. falciparum	Female Anopheles mosquito vector; malignant malaria by P. falciparum.
Amoebiasis	Entamoeba histolytica (Protozoan)	Houseflies act as mechanical carriers; stools with excess mucus and blood.
Ascariasis	Ascaris lumbricoides (Roundworm)	Internal bleeding, muscular pain, blockage of intestinal passage.
Elephantiasis / Filariasis	Wuchereria bancrofti, W. malayi	Female Culex mosquito vector; chronic inflammation of lower limb lymph vessels.
Ringworms	Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton	Dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails, and scalp; thrives in heat and moisture.
Active Immunity (Natural)	Recovering from an infection (e.g., Chickenpox)	Body produces its own antibodies; slow but long-lasting.
Passive Immunity (Artificial)	Colostrum (contains IgA), Anti-tetanus serum	Readily formed antibodies are directly injected for quick protection.
Opioids	Heroin (Smack) / Papaver somniferum (Poppy plant)	Obtained by acetylation of morphine; acts as a central nervous system depressant.
Cannabinoids	Cannabis sativa (Hemp plant)	Effects cardiovascular system; includes marijuana, hashish, charas, ganja.
Coca Alkaloid	Cocaine / Erythroxylum coca	Interferes with dopamine transport; potent stimulating action, causes hallucinations.

🦠 Microbes in Human Welfare (Household, Industrial & Biocontrol)

Product / Category	Microbial Source (Scientific Name)	Type of Organism	Key High-Yield Feature / Application
Curd Production	Lacto_bacillus (LAB)	Bacterium	Produces acids that coagulate milk proteins; increases Vitamin B12.
Toddy Drink	Fermented sap of palms	Wild Yeast	Traditional drink of Southern India.
Swiss Cheese	Propionibacterium sharmanii	Bacterium	Large holes due to production of a large amount of CO₂.
Roquefort Cheese	Ripe_ned by a specific fungus	Fungus (Penicillium roqueforti)	Gives the cheese a specific, sharp flavor.
First Antibiotic	Penicillium notatum	Fungus	Discovered by Alexander Fleming; details established by Chain and Florey.
Citric Acid	Aspergillus niger	Fungus	Industrial organic acid production.
Acetic Acid	Acetobacter aceti	Bacterium	Industrial production of vinegar.
Butyric Acid	Clostridium butylicum	Bacterium	Industrial organic acid production.
Lactic Acid	Lacto_bacillus	Bacterium	Industrial organic acid production.
Ethanol (Commercial)	Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Brewer's Yeast)	Fungus	Used extensively in bread-making and alcohol fermentation.
Lipases	Microbial source	Enzymes	Used in detergent formulations to remove oily stains from laundry.
Pectinases & Proteases	Microbial source	Enzymes	Used to clarify bottled fruit juices sold in markets.
Streptokinase	Streptococcus	Bacterium	"Clot buster"; removes clots from blood vessels of myocardial infarction patients.
Cyclosporin A	Trichoderma polysporum	Fungus	Immunosuppressive agent given to organ-transplant patients.
Statins	Monascus purpureus	Yeast (Fungus)	Blood-cholesterol lowering agent; inhibits cholesterol synthesis enzymes.
Biocontrol (Butterfly Caterpillars)	Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt)	Bacterium	Dried spores mixed with water and sprayed on vulnerable plants.
Biocontrol (Plant Pathogens)	Trichoderma species	Free-living Fungus	Present in the root ecosystems; very effective against root pathogens.
Biocontrol (Insects/Arthropods)	Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus)	Virus	Species-specific, narrow-spectrum insecticides with no side effects on non-targets.
Biofertilizers (Nitrogen Fixers)	Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirillum	Bacteria	Rhizobium is symbiotic (legumes); others are free-living in soil.
Biofertilizers (Phosphorus)	Glomus	Symbiotic Fungus	Forms Mycorrhiza; absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant.
Biofertilizers (Cyanobacteria)	Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria	Blue-green Algae	Fix atmospheric nitrogen; Anabaena is famously associated with Azolla in paddy fields.

Unit 9 Biotechnology || NEET BIOLOGY Sure Shots | High Yield Facts with Examples Chart

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 06:39:45 +0000

🧬 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Category	NCERT Examples	Key High-Yield Feature / Application
First Recombinant DNA	Constructed by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (1972)	Linked an antibiotic resistance gene with a native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
First Restriction Endonuclease	HindII	Always cuts DNA molecules at a specific sequence of 6 base pairs.
Enzyme Nomenclature	EcoRI from Escherichia coli RY 13	• E: Genus (Escherichia) • co: Species (coli) • R: Strain • I: Order of isolation.
Palindromic Sequence	EcoRI cutting site	Reads 5'—GAATTC—3' and 3'—CTTAAG—5'; cuts between G and A.
Sticky End Producers	EcoRI, HindIII, BamHI	Leave single-stranded overhanging stretches at the ends.
Blunt End Producers	SmaI, EcoRV	Cut straight across both strands (less frequently tested but a key contrast).
Cell Wall Digesting Enzymes	• Lysozyme (Bacteria) • Chitinase (Fungi) • Cellulase (Plant cells)	Used to isolate pure DNA by breaking outer protective layers.
Cloning Vector (Artificial)	pBR322	Contains selectable markers: Amplicillin ($amp^{R}$) and Tetracycline ($tet^{R}$) resistance genes.
Natural Plant Vector	Agrobacterium tumefaciens	Delivers T-DNA via its Ti-plasmid to transform normal plant cells into tumor cells.
Natural Animal Vector	Retroviruses	Disarmed to deliver desirable genes into animal host cells.
Direct Gene Transfer Methods	• Micro-injection: Animal cells • Biolistics / Gene Gun: Plant cells	• Micro-injection targets the nucleus directly. • Biolistics uses gold/tungsten particles coated with DNA.
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)	Taq polymerase	Thermostable DNA polymerase isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus.

🌾 Biotechnology and its Applications

Category / Product	NCERT Source / Organism	High-Yield Medical / Agricultural Feature
Bt Cotton	Bacillus thuringiensis	Contains cry genes (e.g., cryIAc, cryIIAb control cotton bollworms; cryIAb controls corn borer).
RNA Interference (RNAi)	Meloidogyne incognita	Nematode that infects tobacco plant roots; silenced using double-stranded RNA (dsRNA).
Genetically Engineered Insulin	Humulin (Eli Lilly company, 1983)	Prepared by introducing DNA sequences for chains A and B separately into E. coli plasmids.
First Gene Therapy (1990)	4-year-old girl with ADA deficiency	Caused by the deletion of the gene for Adenosine Deaminase; treated using lymphocytes.
Transgenic Cow	Rosie (1997)	Produced human protein-enriched milk containing human alpha-lactalbumin (2.4 grams per litre).
Transgenic Fish / Animals	Transgenic mice, pigs, sheep, cows, and fish	95% of all existing transgenic animals are mice (primarily used for vaccine safety testing).
Biopiracy Landmark Case	Basmati Rice patent (1997)	An American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and Trademark Office.

Unit 10 Ecology || NEET BIOLOGY SURE SHOT | High Yield Facts with Examples

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Thu, 11 Jun 2026 06:36:07 +0000

🪵 Organisms and Populations (Adaptations & Interactions)

Category / Interaction	NCERT Examples	Key High-Yield Feature
Morphological Adaptation	Kangaroo rat (North American desert)	Internal fat oxidation provides water; concentrates urine.
Anatomical Adaptation	Opuntia (Cactus), Hydrophytes (Hydrilla)	Opuntia: Thick cuticle, sunken stomata, leaves modified to spines.
Behavioral Adaptation	Desert Lizard	Basks in sun when body temp drops; moves to shade when hot.
Physiological Adaptation	Altitude Sickness relief (Rohtang Pass)	Body increases RBC production and decreases Hb binding affinity.
Mutualism (+ / +)	• Lichens (Algae + Fungi) • Mycorrhizae (Glomus + Roots of higher plants) • Fig tree and Pollinator Wasp • Mediterranean Orchid (Ophrys) and Bee	Ophrys employs sexual deceit (pseudocopulation) with a male bee.
Competition (- / -)	• Abingdon tortoise and Goats (Galapagos) • Balanus and Chthamalus (Scotland)	Goats outcompeted tortoises for food. Competitive release seen in barnacles.
Predation (+ / -)	Prickly pear cactus and Cactus-feeding moth	Moth acted as a biological control agent in Australia.
Parasitism (+ / -)	• Ectoparasites: Lice on humans, Ticks on dogs, Cuscuta on hedge plants, Copepods on marine fish. • Endoparasites: Liver fluke, Plasmodium. • Brood Parasitism: Cuckoo (Koel) and Crow.	Cuscuta is a parasitic plant that has lost its chlorophyll and leaves.
Commensalism (+ / 0)	• Orchid growing on a Mango branch • Barnacles on the back of a Whale • Egret bird and Grazing Cattle • Sea Anemone and Clown Fish	The host (Mango, Whale, Cattle, Anemone) derives zero benefit or harm.
Amensalism (- / 0)	Penicillium (mould) and Staphylococcus (bacteria)	The mould secretes penicillin which kills bacteria without hurting itself.

🌾 Ecosystem (Structure, Productivity & Pyramids)

Category / Concept	NCERT Examples	Key Dynamic / Value / Exception
Primary Productivity Value	Global Annual Net Primary Productivity	170 Billion Tons (dry weight) of organic matter.
Ocean Productivity Value	Oceans (despite covering 70% of Earth)	Only 55 Billion Tons (due to nitrogen limitation).
Detritivores	Earthworm	Breaks down detritus into smaller particles (Fragmentation).
Inverted Pyramid of Biomass	Sea / Marine Ecosystem	Phytoplankton (small biomass) supports a larger biomass of fish.
Inverted Pyramid of Numbers	A single large tree ecosystem	One tree supports many herbivorous birds and even more parasites.
Primary Succession Sites	Newly cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond	Extremely slow process; takes thousands of years to build soil.
Secondary Succession Sites	Abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, flooded lands	Faster than primary succession because soil is already present.
Pioneer Species	• On Rocks: Lichens • In Water: Phytoplankton	Lichens secrete acids to dissolve rock and help form soil.
Climax Community	Mesophytic Forest	Stable, self-sustaining, and in near equilibrium with environment.

🐼 Biodiversity and Conservation (Data & Case Studies)

Category / Concept	NCERT Species Counts & Examples	High-Yield Concept / Value
Species Wealth Indication	• Ants: > 20,000 species • Beetles: > 300,000 species • Orchids: > 20,000 species • Fishes: > 28,000 species	Demonstrates the immense scale of global biodiversity.
Genetic Diversity	Rauwolfia vomitoria (Himalayan range)	Shows variation in the potency/concentration of active chemical reserpine.
Species Diversity	Western Ghats vs. Eastern Ghats	Western Ghats have greater amphibian species diversity.
Alexander von Humboldt	Species-Area Relationship	Equation: $\log S = \log C + Z \log A$. Slope (Z) for frugivorous birds = 1.15.
Recent Extinctions	• Dodo (Mauritius) • Quagga (Africa) • Thylacine (Australia) • Steller's Sea Cow (Russia) • Three subspecies of Tiger (Bali, Javan, Caspian)	Direct consequence of human exploitation and habitat loss.
Habitat Loss & Fragmentation	Amazon Rain Forest ("Lungs of the planet")	Being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans or beef cattle grasslands.
Alien Species Invasion	• Nile Perch introduced into Lake Victoria (East Africa) • Invasive weeds: Parthenium (carrot grass), Lantana, Eichhornia (Water hyacinth) • Clarias gariepinus (African catfish)	• Nile Perch caused extinction of > 200 species of cichlid fish. • African catfish poses a threat to indigenous catfishes.
Co-extinctions	Host fish and its unique parasites	When host fish goes extinct, its unique parasite assembly vanishes too.
In-Situ Conservation	Biosphere Reserves (14), National Parks (90), Wildlife Sanctuaries (448), Sacred Groves	Sacrod Groves: Khasi & Jaintia Hills (Meghalaya), Aravalli (Rajasthan).
Ex-Situ Conservation	Zoological Parks, Botanical Gardens, Wildlife Safari Parks	Cryopreservation (-196°C in liquid nitrogen), In-vitro fertilization, Seed Banks.
The Earth Summit (1992)	Held in Rio de Janeiro	Called upon nations for biodiversity conservation and sustainable utility.
The World Summit (2002)	Held in Johannesburg, South Africa	190 countries pledged to significantly reduce biodiversity loss by 2010.

2026 NEET Biology Questions and Answers with Explanation

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 11 May 2026 06:05:00 +0000

1. In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?

a. the root cap zone

b. the region of meristematic activity

c. the region of elongation

d. the region of maturation

Answer: d. the region of maturation

Explanation: In angiosperms, root hairs arise from the region of maturation (also known as the zone of differentiation). This zone, located proximal to the region of elongation, contains fully matured cells.

2. In the lac operon, the z gene codes for :

a.permease

b.transacetylase

c. beta-galactosidase

d.the repressor of lac operon

Answer: c. beta-galactosidase

Explanation: In the lac operon, the z gene codes for the enzyme (beta-galactosidase) . This enzyme is essential for lactose metabolism, as it catalyzes the hydrolysis (breakdown) of lactose into its monomeric units, glucose and galactose.

The y gene codes for permease, and the a gene codes for transacetylase.

3. Exploring molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:

a.Biofortification

b.Bioremediation

c.Bioprospecting

d. Biomagnification

Answer: c.Bioprospecting

Explanation:

Biofortification is the process of increasing the nutritional value of staple food crops (such as iron, zinc, or vitamins) during plant growth through techniques like conventional breeding, genetic modification, or agronomic practices (fertilizers)

Bioremediation is a sustainable, nature-based process that uses microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) or plants to clean up polluted environments, such as soil, water, and groundwater, by breaking down or neutralizing contaminants into non-toxic substances

Biomagnification, also known as biological magnification or bioamplification, is the increasing concentration of toxic substances (such as heavy metals or pesticides) in the tissues of organisms at higher levels in a food chain.

4. Alpha helix is found in which level of protein structure?

a. Secondary structure

b.primary structure

c. tertiary structure

d. quaternary structure

Answer: a. Secondary structure

5. Match List I with List II :

List I	List II
A. Genetically modified organism	I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. Thermostable DNA polymerase	II. Bt cotton
C. Ti plasmid	III. Thermus aquaticus
D. pBR322	IV. Escherichia coli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a.A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

b.A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

c.A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

d. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Answer: a.A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

6. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Productivity	I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. Net Primary Productivity	II. Bt cotton
C. Gross Primary Productivity	III. Rate of biomass production
D. Secondary Productivity	IV. Escherichia coli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a.A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

b.A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

c.A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

d. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Answer: a..A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

7. Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?

a.The present net species extinction rate is zero

b.the current species extinction rate is nearly 10 times faster than that in previous episodes

c.the present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.

d. the current species extinction rates are far lower than those in previous episodes

Answer: c.the present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.

Explanation:

Correct Option (c): According to ecologists and the fossil record, the current "Sixth Extinction" is distinguished from previous mass extinctions primarily by its pace. The current rate is estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times faster than the natural "background" rates observed in pre-human times. This acceleration is largely attributed to human activities such as habitat destruction, pollution, and climate change.
Incorrect Option (a): The species extinction rate is definitely not zero; it is significantly higher than historical averages, with nearly half of all species potentially facing extinction within the next century if current trends continue.
Incorrect Option (b): While the extinction rate is faster, "10 times faster" is a significant underestimate compared to the 100 to 1,000 times faster rate supported by scientific data.
Incorrect Option (d): The current rates are not lower; they are drastically higher and more rapid than the previous five episodes of mass extinction

8. Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?

a. Secondary structure

b. primary structure

c. Tertiary structure

d. Quaternary structure

Answers: a. Secondary structure

Explanation: The alpha helix is found in the secondary level of protein structure. It is a common, localized, three-dimensional folding pattern where a polypeptide chain coils, stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl (C=O) and amino N-H)groups of the backbone

9. The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is

a. to transport water

b. to perform photosynthesis

c.to make the leaf impermeable to fungal spores

d. to minimize water loss during water stress

Answer: d. to minimize water loss during water stress

10. Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

a.Extension ->Annealing -> Denaturation

b. Extension ->Annealing -> Denaturation

c. Denaturation ->Annealing ->Extension

d. Denaturation -> Extension -> Annealing

Answer: c. Denaturation ->Annealing ->Extension

11. Match List I with List II

List I (Phase of cell cycle)	List II (Activity)
A. G1 phase	I. Actual cell division occurs
B. S phase	II. Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA
C. phase	III. Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles
D. M phase	IV. Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

b. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

c.A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

d.A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Answer: d.A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

12. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss.

B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans.

C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake.

D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species.

E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.A, B and E only

2.A, B and D only

3.C, D and E only

4.B, C and D only

Answer: 2.A, B and D only

13. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit in DNA?

A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions: promoter, structural gene and terminator.

B. The promoter is said to be located towards the

5^{'}

-end of the structural gene.

C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase.

D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands.

E. The terminator is located towards the

3^{'}

-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.A, B, C and D only

2.A, C, D and E only

3.B,C, D and E only

4.A,B, C, D and E only

Answer: 4.A,B, C, D and E only

14. Which one of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?

a. Biological names are generally in Latin

b. Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten are separately underlined or printed in italics

c. The specific epithet in the biological name starts with small letter

d. The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus.

Answer: d. The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus.

15. Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?

a. Centrosome

b. Chromatin

c.KInetochore

d. Nucleolus

16. 2(C51H98O6) +145 O2-> 102 CO2+98H2O+ENERGY

The respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration as per the above equation would be

a. Between 0.5 and 0.95

b.Less than 0.5

c.1.0

d. Between 1.25 and 2

Answer: a. Between 0.5 and 0.95

Explanation

The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of the biomolecule in the given equation is 0.7. This value is characteristic of fats (specifically tripalmitin) being used as a respiratory substrate.

1. Identify the RQ Formula

The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced to the volume of oxygen consumed during respiration:
RQ=

2. Extract Values from the Equation

From the balanced chemical equation provided:
(2(C51H98O6)+145O2->102CO2+98H2O+Energy

CO2 produced: 102 molecules
O2 consumed: 145 molecules

17. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Incomplete dominance	I. Human skin colour
B. Co-dominance	II. Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
C. Pleiotropy	III. Phenylketonuria disease in humans
D. Polygenic inheritance	IV. ABO blood groups

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a.A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

b. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

c. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

d. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Answer: a.A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

18. Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence.

A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases.

B. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.

C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes.

D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.

E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a.A, B, D, C, E

b.A, D,B, E, C

c.A, E, C, B, D

d.A,E,B, C, D

Answer: c) A, E, C, B, D

19. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Decomposition	I. Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous colloidal substance
B. Detritus	II. Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil
C. Mineralisation	III. Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances
D. Humification	IV. Dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-II

2.A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

3.A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

4.A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Answer: 2.A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

20. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix?

A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.

B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins.

C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues – lysine and arginine.

D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome.

E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A,C and E only

2.B, D and E only

3.C, D and E only

4.A, B and D only

Answer: 1. A,C and E only

21. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?

a. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

b.12 ATP and 18 NADPH

c.24 ATP and 18 NADPH

d. 6 ATP and 12 NADPH

Answer: a. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

22. The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is :

a. Hexokinase

b.PEP carboxylase

c.RuBp Carboxylase oxygenase

d. Carboxypeptidase

Answer: c.RuBp Carboxylase oxygenase

23. Find the incorrect statements about photosynthesis from the following:

A. The water-splitting complex is associated with PSI

B. C4 plants use the C3 pathway of CO2 fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway

C. In C4 plants, photosynthesis does not occur

D. C3 plants exhibit Kranz anatomy

E. ATP synthesis in chloroplasts occurs through chemiosmosis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. B and C only

b. B only

c. B and E only

d. A and D only

Answer: d. A and D only

24. Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridization in a correct sequence.

A. Digestion of cell walls.

B. Isolation of naked protoplasts.

C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast.

D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants.

E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) D, A, B, C, E

b) E, B, A, D, C

c) D, B, A, E, C

d) E, A, B, C, D

Answer: a.D, A, B, C, E

25. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Conjunctive tissue	I. Specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells
B. Casparian strips	II. Endodermal cells rich in starch
C. Subsidiary cells	III. Tissue between xylem and phloem
D. Starch sheath	IV. Endodermal cells with suberin deposition

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

b)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer:

c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

26. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?

a) New cell wall deposition

b) cell enlargement

c) increased vacuolation

d)large conspicuous nuclei

Answer: d)large conspicuous nuclei

27. Match List I with List II

List I (Growth Regulator)	List II (Function/ Effect)
1. 2,4-D	I. Brewing industry
2. GA3	II. Stimulation of stomatal closure
3. Kinetin	III.Herbicide
4. ABA	IV. Nutrient mobilisation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

d) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Answer: a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

28. Which of the following is an in-situ conservation method?

a) Sacred groves

b)wildlife safari parks

c) botanical gardens

d) seed banks

Answer: a) Sacred Groves

29. Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases?

A. They are called molecular scissors.

B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in {E. coli.

C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites.

D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments.

E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.

Choose the answer from the options given below:

a) A and B only

b) A and E only

c) D and E only

d) C and D only

Answer: d) C and D only

30. In Racemose inflorescence

a) the main axis terminates in a flower

b) flowers are solitary

c) the growth is limited

d) flowers are borne in an acropetal succession.

Answer: d) flowers are borne in an acropetal succession.

31. Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis?

A.Microscope tetrads

B. Sporogenous tissue

C. Pollen grains

D. Pollen mother cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, A, C, B

2. B, D, A,C

3. B, D, C, A

4. A, D, C, B

Answer: 2. B, D, A,C

32. Identify the correct statements about biomolecules

A. Lipids are generally water soluble.
B. Proteins are polypeptides.
C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.
D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.
E. Almost all enzymes are proteins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. B, D and E only

b. B, C and E only

c. A, B and C only

d. C, D and E only

Answer: b. B, C and E only

33. Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?

a. Redifferentiation

b. Elasticity

c. Dedifferentiation

d. Plasticity

Answer: d. Plasticity

34. Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids?

A. They are substituted methanes

B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid.

C. Valine is a neutral amino acid.

D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. C and D only

b. B and C only

c. A and C only

d. A and B only

Answer: c. A and C only

35. The 'evil quartet' of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?

a. Over-exploitation: Alien species invasions: Air pollution : Co-extinctions

b. Habitat loss and Fragmentation: Air pollution. Water pollution : Co-extinctions

c. Habitat loss and Fragmentation: over exploitation , Alien species invasions, co extinctions

d. Over exploitation :Alen species invasions: Soil pollution: Co extinctions

Answer: c. Habitat loss and Fragmentation: over exploitation , Alien species invasions, co extinctions

36. Match List I with List II

List I (Process)	List II (Location)
1. Glycolysis	I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
2. ETS	II. Mitochondrial matrix
3. Accumulation of proteins	III.Cytoplasm
4. Krebs cycle	IV.Intermembrane space

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

answer: c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

37. Which one of the following is a triploid cell?

a)Synergid

b) Zygote

c) Central cell

d) Primary Endosperm cell

Answer: d) Primary Endosperm cell

38. Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?

a) Autogamy

b) Xenogamy

c) Geitonogamy

d) Cleistogamy

Answer: b) Xenogamy

39. Match List I with List II

List I (Placentation)	List II (Example)
1. Marginal	I. Mustard
2. Axile	II. Pea
3. Parietal	III.Marigold
4. Basal	IV. Lemon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Answer: a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

40. The main criteria used for the five-kingdom classification proposed by R H Whittaker (1969) included

A. Cell structure

B. Body organization

C. Presence of flagellum

D. Reproduction

E. Phylogenetic relationships

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A, B, C, D and E

b) B, C and D only

c) A, B, D and E only

d) A, B and E only

Answer: c) A, B, D and E only

41. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Trypsin	Intercellular Ground substance
B. Morphine	II. Lectin
C. Concanavalin A	III. Enzyme
D. Collagen	IV. Alkaloid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Answer: a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

42. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation, and visualization?

A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors.

B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis.

C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light.

D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) B and D only

b) A and B only

c) B and C only

d) A and D only

Answer: b) A and B only

43. Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine at the sixth position of the beta-globin chain of the hemoglobin molecule?

a) Thalassemia

b) Sickle cell anaemia

c) Phenylketonuria

d) Haemophilia

Answer: b) Sickle cell anaemia

44. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Cortisol	I. Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands
B. Aldosterone	II. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
C. Cholecystokinin	III. Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubule
D. Progesterone	IV. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

45. Arrange the following events occurring in Renin- Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order:

a. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate.

b. Reaborption of Na+ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone

c.Fall in Glomerular filtration rate

d. Vasoconstruction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone

e. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I. followed by Angiotensin II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A, C, E, B, D

b) C, A, B, D,E

c) A, D, B, E, C

d) C, E, D, B, A

Answer: d) C, E, D, B, A

46. In human, respiration oocurs in the following steps, Arrange these steps in the correct order.

a. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues

b.Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane

c. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air drawn in and CO₂-rich alveolar air released out

d. cellular respiration

e. transport of gases by the blood

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A,B, C, D, E

b) E, A, C, D, B

c) C, B, E, A, D

d) C, A, B, E, D

Answer: c) C, B, E, A, D

47. Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

a) Ampicillin and tetracycline
b) Tetracycline
c) Ampicillin
d) Gentamycin
Answer:b) Tetracycline
48. The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes
Image
Identify the enzyme class E from the following options:
a) Transferases
b) Isomerases
c) Lyases
d) Ligases
Answer: Lyases
49. The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on---
a) Schwann cell
b) Myelin sheath
c) Pre-ynaptic membrane
d) Post-synaptic membrane
Answer: d) Post-synaptic membrane

50. What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively ?

a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 0%
d) 25%
Answer: d) 25%
51. Match List I with List II

List I (Respiratory Volume)	List II (Capacity in mL)
A. Expiratory Reserve Volume	I. 2500-3000 mL
B. Residual Volume	II. 500 mL
C. Inspiratory Reserve Volume	III. 1000-1100 mL
D. Tidal volume	IV. 1100-1200 mL

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
52. Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

a) Wings of butterflies and birds
b) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
c) Fore limbs of whales and bats
d) Eyes of octopuses and mammals
Answer:c) Fore limbs of whales and bats

53. Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of:

A. Bulging eyes

B. Vocal sacs

C. Webbed digits in feet

D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs

E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) B and D only
b) B and C only
c) A and B only
d) C and E only
Answer: a) B and D only

54. A group of researchers procured some fish-like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed:

A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage.

B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth.

C. Paired fins and scales are absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present.

Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?

a) Petromyzon sp.
b) Branchiostoma sp.
c) Scoliodon sp.
d) Exocoetus sp.
Answer:
a) Petromyzon sp.
55. Match List I with List II with respect to the chronology of evolution of life forms

List I

List II

A. About 65 mya

I. Jawless Fish probably evolved

B. About 500 mya

II. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth

C. About 350 mya

III. Seaweeds and few plants probably existed.

D. About 320 mya

IV. Invertebrates were formed and became active

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer: d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
56. Match List I with List II

List I

List II

A. Progesterone

I. Barrier made up of rubber used by females

B.      Multiload 375

II. Oral contraceptive

C.      Diaphragm

III. Hormone-releasing IUD

D.      Saheli

IV. Copper releasing IUD

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer: a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

57. The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu.mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately ?

a) 300 - 500/cu.mm and 500 - 700/cu.mm, respectively
b) 300 - 500/cu.mm and 1200 - 1500/cu.mm, respectively
c) 100 - 120/cu.mm and 160 - 200/cu.mm, respectively
d) 160 - 240/cu.mm and 1600 - 2000/cu.mm, respectively
Answer:
d) 160 - 240/cu.mm and 1600 - 2000/cu.mm, respectively

58. Match List I with List II

List I (Drug)	List II (Effect)
A. Nicotine	I. Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy
B. Morphine	II. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation
C. Heroin	III. Effective sedative and painkiller
D. Cocaine	IV. A depressant, slows down body function

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

59. The human protein named α -1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ________.

a) Alzheimer's disease
b) Emphysema
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: b) Emphysema

60. Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes :

a) Saw fish, Fighting fish and Dog fish
b) Devil fish, Cuttlefish and Hagfish
c) Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish
d) Starfish, Hagfish and Cuttlefish
Answer: c) Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish
61. Select the incorrect statements from the following :
A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete.

B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms.

C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes.

D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes.

E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature.

Choose the answer from the options given below :

a) A and C only
b) B and E only
c) C and D only
d) B and D only
Answer: b) B and E only

62. Non-membrane-bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are:

a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosomes
c) Centrosomes
d) Ribosomes
Answer: d) Ribosomes
63. Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?
Answer: 2
64. Select the incorrect statements with reference to Rh grouping.

A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with $R h^{- v e}$ blood and mother with $R h^{+ v e}$ blood.

B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings.

C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched.

D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is $R h^{- v e}$ and the foetus is $R h^{+ v e}$ .

E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.

Choose the answer from the options given below:

a) B and C only
b) A and B only
c) A and E only
d) C and D only

Answer: c) A and E only
65. Match List I with List II

List I (Bioactive molecules) & List II (Importance)

List I (Bioactive molecules)	List II (Importance)
A. Streptokinase	I. Immunosuppressive agent
B. Statins	II. Removal of clots from the blood vessels
C. Lipases	III. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent
D. Cyclosporin A	IV. Detergent formulations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer: c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

66. Match List I with List II

List I (Respiratory Volume)	List II (Capacity in mL)
A. Molluscs	I. Pulmonary respiration only
B. Reptiles	II. Branchial respiration
C. Adult amphibians	III. Cellular respiration
D. Amoeba	IV. Pulmonary and Cutaneous respiration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

67. The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ________

a) CAG
b) GUG
c) AUG
d) GAG
Answer: b) GUG
68. Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction.

A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre.

B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of $C a^{+ +}$ into sarcoplasm.

C. Increase in $C a^{+ +}$ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges.

D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge.

E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) C and E only
b) A, B, D and E only
c) A and B only
d) C and D only

Answer: b) A, B, D and E only

69. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton?

A. Human skull is monocondylic.

B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint.

C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven.

D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic.

E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) B, C and E only
b) C, D and E only
c) A, B and D only
d) B and E only
Answer: a) B, C and E only

70. Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements from the following :

A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division.

B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes.

C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids.

D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis.

E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) C and E only
b) A, C and E only
c) B, C and D only
d) A and E only
Answer: a) C and E only

71. The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in ________ related to the same nephron.

a) Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole
b) Distal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole
c) Proximal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole
d) Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole
Answer:
d) Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole

72. Which one of the following is an appropriate example of 'sexual deceit' ?

a) Sea anemone and clown fish
b) Female wasp and fig
c) Ophrys and bumblebee
d) Cuckoo and crow
Answer:
c) Ophrys and bumblebee

73. Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy.

A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine.

B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.

C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs.

D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes.

E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) B and D only
b) A, B and C only
c) A, C and E only
d) B and C only
Answer: c) A, C and E only

74. Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy:

List I	List II
A. The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head	I. 24 weeks of pregnancy
B. the foetus develops limbs and digits	II. 20 weeks of pregnancy
C. The foetus develops external genital organs	III. 8 weeks of pregnancy
D. The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed	IV. 12 weeks of pregnancy

a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer: c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

75. In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ________

a) females and males, respectively
b) all males
c) males and females, respectively
d) all females
Answer: c) males and females, respectively

76. In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes ?

a) Male frogs
b) Male honeybees
c) Male grasshoppers
d) Male earthworms
Answer:
b) Male honeybees

77. Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete from outer to inner side :

A. Zona pellucida

B. Perivitelline space

C. Corona radiata

D. Plasma membrane of ovum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) C, A, D, B
b) C, A, B, D
c) D, B, A, C
d) A, C, B, D
Answer: b) C, A, B, D

78. What is the reason behind production of large holes in 'Swiss Cheese' ?

a) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ and $H_{2}$ by Trichoderma polysporum
b) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ by Clostridium butylicum
c) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ and $H_{2}$ by lactic acid bacteria called Lactobacillus
d) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ by Propionibacterium sharmanii
Answer: d) The production of large amount of CO2
by Propionibacterium sharmanii

79. The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively ?

a) cryIAc and cryIAb
b) cryIIAb and cryIAc
c) cryIAc and cryIIAb
d) cryIAc and cryIIAb
Answer: a) cryIAc and cryIAb

80. Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for :

a) Pyramid of biomass in grassland
b) Pyramid of biomass in sea
c) Pyramid of number in grassland
d) Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem
Answer: b) Pyramid of biomass in sea

81. Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.
b) Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube of an infertile female.
c) It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and development.
d) Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female
Answer: c) It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and development.

82. Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions.

A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.

B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface.

C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA.

D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton.

E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A, B and C only
b) A and B only
c) C, D and E only
d) B, C and D only
Answer:
d) B, C and D only

83. Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell.

A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein.

B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer.

C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes.

D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium.

E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) C, D and E only
b) B, C and E only
c) A, C and E only
d) A, B and D only
Answer:
d) A, B and D only
84. Match List I with List II

List I

List II (Capacity in mL)

A. Tetany

I.Inflammation of joints

B. Arthritis

II. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction

C. Myasthenia gravis

III. Wild contraction in muscle due to low
$C a^{+ +}$ in body fluid

D. Muscular dystrophy

IV. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer: b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
85. Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is :
- a) Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- b) Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Ramapithecus $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- c) Homo sapiens $⟶$ Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo erectus
- d) Neanderthal $⟶$ Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- Answer: a) Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- 86. The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:
  - a) Aptenodytes
  - b) Neophron
  - c) Psittacula
  - d) Struthio
  - Answer: a) Aptenodytes
  - 87. Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species.
    
    A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
    
    B. Both species benefit in mutualism.
    
    C. Both species benefit in commensalism.
    
    D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
    
    E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.
    
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  - a) A, B, C and E only
  - b) B, C, D and E only
  - c) A, B, C and D only
  - d) A, B, D and E only
  - Answer: a) A, B, C and E only

CUET UG Biology Comprehension 2

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 14 Aug 2025 10:16:00 +0000

Monohybrid

The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower (Snapdragon of Antirrhinum sp) can be understood by crossbreeding between true breeding red-flowered (RR) and true breeding white flowered plants(rr). When they crossed F1(Rr) was pink. When F1 was self pollinated, the F2 results were Red, Pink and White. Here the genotype ratios were exactly as expected, but the phenotype ratios were exactly as expected, but the phenotype ratios have been changed. What happened was that R was not completely dominant over r and this made it possible to distinguish Rr as pink form RR (Red) and rr(white).

1. What was the expected phenotypic ratio in any Mendelian monohybrid cross that had changed when F1 (Rr) was self-pollinated in this cross?

a)1:1

b)1:2:1

c)3:1

d)1:3

2. What will be the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation when F1(Rr) was self pollinated?

a)1:1

b)1:2:1

c)3:1

d)1:3

3. In the above passage, the inheritance is an example of

a)co-dominance

b)dominance

c)incomplete dominance

d)recessive trait

4. What will be the genotypic ratio in F2 generation when F1(Rr) was self pollinated?

a) 3:1

b) 2:1:1

c) 1:1

d) 1:2:1

5. What will be the percentage of progeny in F1 generation when RR(red flowered plant) is crossed with rr (white flowered plant) in the above passage?

a) 100%Rr

b) 75% RR and 25%rr

c) 25%RR, 50% Rr and 25%rr

d) 25% RR and 75%rr

Answers:

1. c)3:1

2. b)1:2:1

3.c)incomplete dominance

4. d) 1:2:1

5. a) 100%Rr

CUET UG Biology Comprehension

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 14 Aug 2025 07:56:00 +0000

Restriction enzyme

Restriction enzyme cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites but between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This leaves single-stranded portions at the ends. There are overhanging stretches called sticky ends. There are overhanging stretches called sticky ends on each strand. There are named so because they form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterparts. This stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA ligase. The word "palindrome" refers to a group of letters that forms the same words when read both forward and backward. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering as molecular scissors.

1. Overhanging stretches on each strand is called

a)hydrogen bond

b)sticky end

c)ligase

d)palindrome

2. Which one of the following enzymes helps to join DNA?

a)DNA polymerae

b)DNA ligase

c)endonuclease

d)RNA polymerase

3. Which bond forms on sticky end of each strand?

a)Peptide bond

b)sulphide bond

c)hydrogen bond

d)carbon bond

4. Palindromes are

a) the same group of letters, which read both forward and backward

b) the different group of letters when read both forward and backward

c) same group of letters when read only forward

d) same group of letters when read only backward

5. Which of the following option is correct about restriction enzymes?

a) It helps in binding of DNA

b) This is known as molecular scissors

c) It has ability to multiple copies of plasmid

d) It helps in transfer of piece of DNA

Answers:

1. b)sticky end

2. b)DNA ligase

3.c)hydrogen bond

4. a) the same group of letters, which read both forward and backward

5. b) This is known as molecular scissors

CUET UG 2025 Biology Questions and Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 12 Aug 2025 07:47:00 +0000

Biology Quiz

1. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

A. Bt toxin
B. RNAi
C. Green revolution
D. Gene Therapy

List 2 (Characteristics)

i. ADA deficiency
ii. Increase food supply
iii. cryIAc gene
iv. mRNA Silencing

a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
b) A-iii, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
c) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

2. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy

List 2 (Feature)

i. Flowers do not open
ii. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of different plant
iii. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant
iv. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of same flower

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

3. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

A. Natality
B. Immigration
C. Mortality
D. Emigration

List 2 (Feature)

i. Number of the same species individuals that have come into the habitat
ii. Number of deaths during a given time in a population
iii. Number of the same species individuals that have left the habitat
iv. Number of births during a given time in a population

a) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

4. Match the following:

List 1 (Enzyme)

A. Nuclease
B. Ligase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Reverse Transcriptase

List 2 (Function)

i. Synthesis DNA from RNA
ii. Have both directions exonuclease activity and synthesise new polypeptide
iii. Degrade nucleic acids by breaking phosphodiester bonds
iv. Joins DNA molecules together by formation of phosphodiester bonds

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
c) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

5. Match the following:

List 1 (Genetic disorders)

A. Hemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Klinefelter’s syndrome

List 2 (Characteristics)

i. Mutation in HBB gene
ii. Sex linked recessive disease
iii. Aneuploidy
iv. Mental retardation and reduced hair and skin pigmentation

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

Answers:

1.a)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

2.c)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

3.a)A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

4.b)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

5.c)A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 12 Aug 2025 06:31:00 +0000

2025 CUET UG Biology Practice Test

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 09 Aug 2025 14:56:00 +0000

1.How many different types of gamaetes are possible to be formed by an individual if its genotype for a particular trait is AABbccDd
4
8
16
32

2.Lactational amenorrhaea refers to

absence of menstruation
absence of menstruction during intense lactatio
no breast feeding
intense breast feeding

3. Those plants whose genes have been altered by manipulation are known as----
pest resistant plants
vectors
genetically modified plants
plant crystals

4. The first menstruation which begins at puberty is called
menopause
menarche
menstral cycle
ovulation

5.Which of the following antibodies is released through colostrum?
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgG

6.Baculoviruses are pathogen that attack
reptiles
plants
insects
birds

7. Failure to segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle which involves gain or loss of chromosomes is called
polyploidy
euploidy
monosomy
aneuploidy

8. Bioactive molecule , Cyclosporin A is produced by
Monoscus purpureus
Acetobacter aceti
Clostridium butylicum
Trichoderma polysporum

9.The specific DNA sequence which is responsible for initiation of replication is known as
template DNA
Recombinant DNA
Plasmid
origin of replication

10.Biopiracy refers to
use of bioresources by companies with proper authorisation
use of bioresources by companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from countries and people concerned without compansation amount
use of bioresources by companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from countries and people concerned with compansation amount
copying of someones work without consent

Score =
Correct answers:

CUET UG Question Paper 2025 || CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 08 Aug 2025 09:43:00 +0000

1.The blastocyst become embedded in the endometrium of the uterus.This is called
lactation
gestation
implanation
parturition

2.Which one of the following hormonrs is related to spermatogenesis?
Androgens
Estrogen
Progesteron
LH

3. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for ovulation?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Luteinizing hormone
follicle stimulating hormone

4. India has more than 1000 varieties of mango.This is an example of
species diversity
genetic diversity
family diversity
ecological diversity

5.Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell. This method is known as
Micro injection
insertion
transformation
biolistics

6. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
Sutton and Boveri
Watson and Crick
Beadle ans Tatum
Mendel and de Vries

7. Lichens are an example of
Commensalism
Mutualism
Competition
Parasitism

8. Which one of the following represent a correct form of mature angiosperm embryo sac?
8 celled with 7 nuclei
7 celled with 8 nuclei
7 celled with 7 nuclei
8 celled with 8 nuclei

9.Chromosomes Z and W for sex determination are seen in:
human
birds
grasshopper
Drosophila

10.The assisted reproductive technique where embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the human uterus is known as
ICSI
ZIFT
GIFT
IUT

Score =
Correct answers:

CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 13:16:00 +0000

Biology Quiz

Biology Quiz

1. Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for filtration of blood?

(A) Loop of Henle (B) Proximal convoluted tubule (C) Bowman's capsule (D) Collecting duct

2. Which of the following elements is essential for the synthesis of chlorophyll?

(A) Calcium (B) Magnesium (C) Sodium (D) Potassium

3. If a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt), what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

(A) 1 Tall: 3 Dwarf (B) 1 Tall: 1 Dwarf (C) All Tall (D) All Dwarf

4. Which of the following organelles is involved in the synthesis of proteins?

(A) Ribosome (B) Lysosome (C) Golgi apparatus (D) Peroxisome

5. Which enzyme is responsible for the unwinding of DNA during replication?

(A) DNA polymerase (B) DNA ligase (C) DNA helicase (D) RNA primase

6. Which type of bond is found between amino acids in a protein chain?

(A) Hydrogen bond (B) Peptide bond (C) Ionic bond (D) Glycosidic bond

7. Which of the following is a pioneer species in primary succession on rocks?

(A) Ferns (B) Lichens (C) Mosses (D) Algae

8. During which phase of mitosis do the centromeres split and chromatids move to opposite poles?

(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase

9. The gradual and predictable change in species composition in an area is known as:

(A) Succession (B) Evolution (C) Mutation (D) Speciation

10. The part of the brain responsible for maintaining posture and balance is the:

(A) Cerebrum (B) Medulla oblongata (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus

11. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of which group of plants?

(A) Bryophytes (B) Gymnosperms (C) Pteridophytes (D) Angiosperms

12. Which ion plays a crucial role in the generation of action potential in neurons?

(A) Calcium (Ca2+) (B) Potassium (K+) (C) Magnesium (Mg2+) (D) Sodium (Na+)

13. Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood?

(A) Pulmonary artery (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Superior vena cava (D) Right atrium

14. In which part of the chloroplast do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur?

(A) Stroma (B) Inner membrane (C) Thylakoid membrane (D) Outer membrane

15. Which of the following organisms is correctly matched with its kingdom?

(A) Amoeba - Plantae (B) Euglena - Fungi (C) Paramecium - Protista (D) Nostoc - Animalia

16. Which technique is used to amplify a segment of DNA?

(A) Gel electrophoresis (B) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) (C) DNA fingerprinting (D) ELISA

17. Which plant hormone is primarily responsible for cell elongation?

(A) Cytokinin (B) Auxin (C) Abscisic acid (D) Ethylene

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KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:33:00 +0000

KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

51. Match the stages of prophase I given in Column-I with their features in Column-II and choose the correct options from the choices given below:
Column - I                                   Column - II
(a) Leptotene                         (i) Exchange of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes
(b) Zygotene                           (ii) Chromosomes visible under light microscope
(c) Pachytene                         (iii) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(d) Diplotene                           (iv) Chromosomes start pairing together
(e) Diakinesis                          (v) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(1) a – v, b – iv, c – i, d – iii, e - ii (2) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii, e - v (3) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii, e - v (4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv, e - v

52. Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement I : In Calvin cycle, Carboxylation is catalysed by PEP Carboxylase
Statement II : In Hatch-Slack pathway, Carboxylation is catalysed by RuBP Carboxylase

(1) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (3) Both Statement I and Statement I are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

53. The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with

(1) Citric acid (2)   Ketoglutaric acid (3) Succinic acid (4) Oxaloacetic acid

54. Match the plant growth hormones of Column-I with suitable chemical derivatives present in Column-II and choose the correct option given below:
Column - I                                   Column - II
(a) Abscisic acid                         (i) Adenine derivative
(b) Gibberellins                          (ii) Indole acetic acid
(c) Kinetin                                (iii) Carotenoid derivative
(d) Auxin                                  (iv) Terpens

(1) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii (2) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii (3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv (4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

55. The respiratory mechanism controlled by medulla oblongata can be altered by

(1) Chemosensitive area in the medulla (2) Both Pneumotaxic and Chemosensitive areas of pons and medulla oblongata (3) Corpus callosum of brain (4) Pneumotaxic center in the pons

56. Which among the three layers of blood vessel wall – Tunica intima, Tunica media and Tunica Externa is comparatively thin in the veins?

(1) Tunica intima (2) Tunica externa (3) Both tunica media and tunica externa (4) Tunica media

57. In nephron, transport of substances: like sodium chloride and urea is facilitated by the special arrangement called counter current mechanism that comprises of

(1) Henle's loop and glomerulus (2) Vasa Recta and collecting duct (3) Ascending limb and collecting duct (4) Henle’s loop and Vasa Recta

58. In the mechanism of muscle contraction or shortening of muscle, the ______ get reduced whereas the ____ retain the length.

(1) I bands, A bands (2) Z line, I bands (3) A bands, Z line (4) A bands, I bands

59. Identify the correct sequence of action potential as it arrives at the axon terminal from the choices given below :

(1) Axon terminal  Synaptic cleft  Synaptic vesicles  Post-synaptic neuron  Post-synaptic membrane (2) Axon terminal  Post-synaptic membrane  Synaptic cleft  Synaptic vesicles  Post-synaptic neuron (3) Axon terminal  Synaptic vesicles  Post-synaptic membrane  Synaptic cleft  Post-synaptic neuron (4) Axon terminal  Synaptic vesicles  Synaptic cleft  Post-synaptic membrane  Post-synaptic neuron

60. Identify the statement/s given below that does not correspond to the functions of cortisol
(i) Maintains cardiovascular system and kidney functions
(ii) Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
(iii) Maintains electrolyte balance, osmosis and blood pressure
(iv) Suppresses immune response
(v) Stimulates RBC production

(1) (iii) and (v) only (2) (ii) only (3) (iv) only (4) (i) and (ii) only

Your Results:

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:26:00 +0000

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

41. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to the rules of Binomial Nomenclature.

(1) Biological names are generally in Latin or Latinised irrespective of their origin (2) Biological names are underlined separately when handwritten (3) Biological names are printed in Italics to indicate their non-Latin origin (4) The first word represents the genus while second component denotes the specific epithet

42. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option given below :
Column-I (Bacteria)                 Column-II (Shape)
a. Coccus                             i. Rod-shaped
b. Bacillus                            ii. Spiral
c. Vibrium                            iii. Spherical
d. Spirillum                           iv. Comma-shaped

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

43. Read the given statements and choose the correct option :
Statement I : Gemmae are green, unicellular, sexual buds which develop in receptacles called gemma cups
Statement II : Protonema develops directly from a spore

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

44. During a field trip, a student observed a marine organism with worm-like body. The cylindrical body was divisible into proboscis, collar and a long truck. The organism may be ……..

(1) Ophiura (2) Pterophyllum (3) Trygon (4) Balanoglossus

45. Identify the types of aestivation in corolla labeled as ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’
(Imagine a diagram showing different types of aestivation: Valvate, Twisted, Imbricate, Vexillary)

(1) a-Imbricate, b-Valvate, c-Vexillary, d-Twisted (2) a-Vexillary, b-Imbricate, c-Twisted, d- Valvate (3) a- Vexillary, b-Imbricate, c- Valvate, d- Twisted (4) a- Vexillary, b- Twisted, c- Imbricate, d- Valvate

46. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I (Characteristics of vascular bundle)               Column-II (Transverse section)
a. Radial, tetrarch, cambial ring between xylem and phloem at later stages     i. T.S of monocot stem
b. Conjoint, open and endarch                                                                                 ii. T.S of dicot root
c. Radial, polyarch, large pith without cambial ring                                                                           iii. T.S of dicot stem
d. Conjoint, closed with sclerenchymatous bundle sheath                                                              iv. T.S of monocot stem

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii,d-iv

47. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Frogs ?
(a) Bidder’s canals are present in male Frogs
(b) Copulatory pads are present in male Frogs
(c) Sound producing vocal sacs are present in male Frogs
(d) Cloaca is present male Frog only.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) a and b (2) a and c (3) b and d (4) a and d

48. The reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of …..

(1) Inclusion bodies (2) Exclusion and inclusion bodies (3) Fat bodies (4) Exclusion bodies

49. The cell wall less prokaryote among the following is

(1) Blue-Green Algae (2) Cyanobacteria (3) Mycoplasma (4) Bacteria

50. The graph showing the concept of activation energy of enzyme is given below :
Observe the graph and choose the correct option for M and N.
(Imagine a typical activation energy graph with two curves: one higher (M) representing reaction without enzyme, and one lower (N) representing reaction with enzyme, both starting and ending at the same energy levels)

(1) M-Activation energy with enzyme, N-Activation energy without enzyme (2) M-High temperature, High activation energy, N-Low temperature, Low activation energy (3) M-High substrate, High activation energy, N-Low substrate, Low activation energy (4) M-Activation energy without enzyme, N-Activation energy with enzyme

Your Results:

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:14:00 +0000

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

31. Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill insects. Which one of the following is not killed by proteins of Bacillus thuringiensis?

(1) Armyworm (2) Cotton bollworm (3) Tapeworm (4) Tobacco budworm

32. Which one of the following population attributes, contributes to increase in population density?

(1) Mortality and Emmigration (2) Natality and Emmigration (3) Mortality and Immigration (4) Natality and Immigration

33. If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 80 fruit flies died during a specified time interval, the death rate in the population during that period is

(1) 0.001 individual/time interval (2) 0.1 individual/time interval (3) 1 individual/time interval (4) 0.01 individual/time interval

34. Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in decomposition

(1) Fragmentation  Leaching  Catabolism  Mineralisation  Humification (2) Fragmentation  Mineralisation  Humification  Leaching  Catabolism (3) Fragmentation  Leaching  Catabolism  Humification  Mineralisation. (4) Fragmentation  Catabolism  Leaching  Humification  Mineralisation

35. With respect to limitation of Ecological pyramids, which of the following statements are correct?
a) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
b) It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never existed in nature.
c) It accommodates saprophytes
d) It does not accommodate a food web
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) b and c (2) c and d (3) a, b and d (4) a and b

36. The ‘Sixth Extinction’ of species, presently in progress, is_____times faster than the previous five episodes of mass extinctions.

(1) 100 to 1000 (2) 1000 to 10000 (3) 1 to 10 (4) 10 to 100

37. Species diversity _____, as we move away from the ______towards____

(1) Decreases, Equator, Poles (2) Decreases, Poles, Equator (3) Stable, Equator, Poles (4) Increases, Equator, Poles

38. In a practical examination, the following pedigree chart was given as a spotter for identification. The students identify the given pedigree chart as_____
(Please imagine a pedigree chart showing affected individuals in a pattern consistent with autosomal recessive inheritance. Typically, this involves affected individuals appearing in offspring of unaffected parents, often skipping generations, and affecting males and females equally.)

(1) Autosomal recessive (2) Sex-linked dominant (3) Sex-linked recessive (4) Autosomal dominant

39. A student observed the T.S. of a plant organ slide under microscope. He observed the vascular bundles in the stelar region as conjoint collateral and open. Based on these features of vascular bundle, identify the correct option from below.

(1) Dicot Stem (2) Monocot Root (3) Monocot Stem (4) Dicot Root

40. A student observed the slide of mitosis under the microscope and observed that the chromosomes were placed at the opposite poles. Which stage was the student observing?

(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase (3) Telophase (4) Prophase

Your Results:

KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:01:00 +0000

KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

21. Which of the following are the techniques for detection of cancer of internal organs?
(a) Radiography, MRI (b) MRI, computed tomography
(c) Widal test, radiography (d) MRI, widal test

(1)a and c (2)b and c (3)b and d (4) a and b

22. Malignant malaria is caused by

(1)Plasmodium vivax (2)Plasmodium falciparum (3)Plasmodium rubrum (4)Plasmodium malariae

23. The drug prescribed to the patients who have undergone organ transplant is ______ and is produced by ______.

(1)Stain, Monascus purpureus (2)Cyclosporin-A, Trichoderma polysporum (3)Statin, Trichoderma polysporum (4)Cyclosporin-A, Monascus purpureus

24. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
Statement II: Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol agents for several plant pathogens

(1)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (2)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (3)Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

25. Match the column-I with Column-II. Choose the correct option given below.
Column-I                                Column-II
(a) Streptococcus                         i. Free living nitrogen fixing bacteria
(b) Penicillium                             ii. Clot buster
(c) Methanogens                           iii. Source of antibiotic
(d) Anabaena                               iv. Biogas production

(1)a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d - i (2)a – iv, b – iii, c – I, d – ii (3)a – iv, b – I, c – iii, d – ii (4) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d - i

26. Match the contents of List-I with List-II
List-I                                List-II
(a) Bioreactors                         i. Insulin produced by rDNA technology
(b) Downstream processing           ii. Vessels which convert raw material into specific Product
(c) Recombinant protein             iii. Detect mutated genes in suspected cancer potien
(d) PCR                                iv. Involves separation and purification.
Choose the correct option from the following

(1)a –iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i (2)a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii (3)a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv (4)a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d - iii

27. The part of plasmid that codes for proteins involved in the replication of the PBR322 plasmid is

(1)Selectable marker (2)”rop” (3)Cloning site (4)Ori site

28. To isolate DNA from fungal cells, bacterial cells and plant cells, the enzymes required are respectively

(1)Lysozyme, Proteases and Ribonuclease (2)Chitinase, Lysozyme and Cellulase (3)Cellulase, Protease and Lysozyme (4) Lysozyme, Cellulase and Chitinase

29. In mature insulin, which of the peptide is not present?

(1)B-peptide (2)C-peptide (3)A and B peptides (4)A-peptide

30. A scientist wants to produce virus-free plant in tissue culture. Which part of the plant will he use as an explant?
(a) Mature stem (b) Axillary meristem
(c)Apical meristem (d) Mesophyll cells
Choose the correct option from the following.

(1)b and c (2)b only (3)c and d (4) a only

Your Results:

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Practice Test || Biology Questions 11-20

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 08:48:00 +0000

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 11-20 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 11-20 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

11. When a single gene exhibits multiple phenotypic expression, the phenomenon is called ____

(1) Incomplete dominance (2) Pleiotropy (3) Co-dominance (4) Polygenic inheritance

12. A colourblind man marries a carrier woman. The percentage of their colourblind progeny in the next generation will be ___

(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 100% (4) 25%

13. Identify which one of the given pair of options is correct with respect to Down's syndrome and Turner's syndrome.
Option     Down's syndrome symptoms     Turner's syndrome symptoms
(a)       Short-statured individual       Gynaecomastia in man
(b)       Round head, partially open mouth       Overall masculine development
(c)       Broad palm, physical and mental development retarded       Sterile females with rudimentary ovaries
(d)       Additional copy of an X-chromosome       Absence of an X-chromosome

(1) b (2) c (3) d (4) a

14. RNA polymerase II is responsible for the transcription of ___

(1) rRNA (2) hnRNA (3) snRNA (4) tRNA

15. Which of the following enzymes increases the permeability of the bacterial cell to lactose?

(1) Permease (2) Transacetylase (3) Amylase (4) β-galactosidase

16. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to prokaryotic genome?
(a) Monocistronic structural genes
(b) Introns absent in structural genes
(c) Transcription and translation are coupled processes
(d) Primary transcript undergoes splicing
(e) Only one RNA polymerase is present

(1) Only b, c and e are correct (2) Only a, d and e are correct (3) Only a, b and c are correct (4) Only a, b and d are correct

17. When a change in the gene frequency of a population occurs by chance, it is called ___

(1) Gene migration (2) Genetic recombination (3) Genetic drift (4) Founder effect

18. Darwin's finches represent one of the best examples of ____

(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Chemical evolution (3) Genetic equilibrium (4) Seasonal migration

19. Choose the correct statements from the following:
(a) Charles Darwin travelled around the world in a ship called HMS Beagle
(b) There has been gradual evolution of life forms
(c) According to Darwin, fitness refers to physical fitness only –
(d) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms found in rocks
(e) Hugo De Vries, a naturalist worked in Malay Archipelago.

(1) a, c and e are correct (2) a, b and d are correct (3) a, c and d are correct (4) a, b and e are correct

20. In which of the following, HIV replicates and produces its progeny viruses?

(1) Memory T-lymphocytes (2) Killer T-lymphocytes (3) Suppressor T-lymphocytes (4) Helper T-lymphocytes

Your Results:

Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 07:06:00 +0000
Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

1. When pollen grains of a flower of a plant pollinate the stigma of flower of another plant, it is called

(1) Autogamy (2) Dichogamy (3) Geitonogamy (4) Xenogamy

2. Fusion of a male gamete with the central cell in the embryo sac of an angiosperm is called ……

(1) Triple fusion (2) Syngamy (3) Apomixis (4) Double fertilization

3. Which of these options is true in the context of the above diagram of pollen grain ?
(Assuming 'A' refers to the larger cell and 'B' to the smaller cell, typical of a mature pollen grain)

(1) ‘A’ is a vegetative cell which gives rise to male gametes and ‘B’ is a generative cell which produces pollen tube (2) ‘A’ is a generative cell which gives rise to pollen tube and ‘B’ is a vegetative cell which form male gametes (3) ‘A’ is a vegetative cell with abundant food reserve and ‘B’ is a generative cell which form male gametes (4) ‘A’ is a generative cell which forms male gametes and ‘B’ is a vegetative cell which produces pollen tube

4. Match the hormone with its site of production :
Hormone                             Site of production
a. hCG and hPL                     i. Ovary
b. Progesterone                      ii. Placenta
c. Androgens                          iii. Corpus luteum
d. Relaxin                               iv. Leydig cells

(1) a-iii, b-I, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

5. Choose the correct sequence of sperm transport during ejaculation

(1) Seminiferous tubules→ rete testis → epididymis → vasa efferentia → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct (2) Seminiferous tubules → vasa efferentia → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct (3) Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → vasa efferentia → ejaculatory duct (4) Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct

6. Select the mismatched pair :
(1) First month of pregnancy – Formation of heart
(2) Second month of pregnancy – Movement of foetus
(3) Third month of pregnancy – Formation of most of the major organ systems
(4) Six month of pregnancy – Eye lids separate and eye lashes are found

(1) b (2) c (3) d (4) a

7. Out of the following options, identify which one is NOT a natural method of contraception ?

(1) Implants (2) Lactational amenorrhea (3) Periodic abstinence (4) Coitus interruptus

8. In zygote intrafallopian tube transfer, the embryo upto ………….. stage is transferred into the fallopian tube

(1) 16 blastomeres (2) 8 blastomeres (3) 32 blastomeres (4) 2 blastomeres

9. Read the following statements :
Statement I : MTP is to get rid off wanted pregnancies due to a causal unprotected intercourse or failure of contraceptives used during coitus or rapes
Statement II : MTPs are performed legally by qualified doctors by giving proper medical justification

(1) Statements I and II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Statements I and II are correct

10. How many types of gametes will be formed by a parent with genotype ‘AaBbCc’ ?

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 6

Your Results:

NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 81-90

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 06:39:00 +0000

(NEET Biology Practice Test -Set 9)

(NEET Biology Practice Test|| Exam Questions 81-90)

81. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

(1) It is active only in the dark. (2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide. (3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water. (4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.

82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C and D only (2) A and B only (3) D and E only (4) B and C only

83. Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for redifferentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.

(1) A, B, C only (2) A, C, E only (3) A, D, E only (4) B, D, E only

84. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

(1) α (alpha) (2) σ (sigma) (3) ρ (rho) (4) γ (gamma)

85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) The statement is true for water but false for land (2) The statement is true for both the environment (3) The statement is false for water but true for land (4) The statement is false for both the environment

86. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

(1) They are monozygotic twins. (2) They are fraternal twins. (3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization. (4) They have 75% identical genetic content.

87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only (2) A and C only (3) C and D only (4) C and E only

88. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Progesterone, B. Relaxin, C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone, D. Catecholamines
List-II: I. Pars intermedia, II. Ovary, III. Adrenal Medulla, IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

89. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
Statement II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

90. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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Category	NCERT Examples	Key Feature / Pathway
\(C_{3}\) Plants	Wheat, Rice, Barley, Oats, Soya bean, Tomato, Bell pepper	First stable product is a 3-carbon compound (3-PGA).
\(C_{4}\) Plants	Maize, Sorghum, Sugarcane, Millet	Possess Kranz anatomy; no photorespiration.
CAM Plants	Pineapple, Cactus, Sedum, Opuntia, Sisal	Scotoactive stomata (open at night to save water).
Primary \(CO_{2}\) Acceptor	RuBP (\(C_{3}\) pathway), PEP (\(C_{4}\) pathway)	RuBP is 5-carbon; PEP is 3-carbon.
First Stable Product	3-PGA (\(C_{3}\) pathway), OAA (\(C_{4}\) pathway)	3-Phosphoglyceric acid vs. Oxaloacetic acid.
High \(CO_{2}\) Responders	Tomato, Bell pepper	Greenhouse crops grown in \(CO_{2}\)-enriched air for higher yield.
Photosynthetic Pigments	Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls, Carotenoids	Chlorophyll a is the chief reaction centre pigment.

Stage / Cell Type	Ploidy Level	Key NCERT Value / Detail
Spermatogonia / Oogonia	Diploid (\(2n\))	Stem cells found in seminiferous tubules and fetal ovaries.
Primary Spermatocyte / Oocyte	Diploid (\(2n\))	Undergo Meiosis-I to form secondary stages.
Secondary Spermatocyte / Oocyte	Haploid (\(n\))	Secondary oocyte is arrested at Metaphase-II until fertilisation.
Spermatid / Spermatozoa / Ovum	Haploid (\(n\))	Morphologically mature gametes.
Semen Output per Ejaculation	200 to 300 Million Sperm	For normal fertility: 60% must have normal shape/size; 40% vigorous motility.
Menstrual Phase Details	Days 1–5	Breakdown of Endometrium lining and its blood vessels.
LH Surge	Middle of cycle (~Day 14)	Rapid secretion of LH induces rupture of Graafian follicle (Ovulation).
Corpus Luteum Function	Secretes Progesterone	Essential for maintenance of endometrium during pregnancy.
Placental Endocrine Hormones	hCG, hPL, Progesterone, Estrogens	hCG, hPL, and Relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Colostrum	First milk	Rich in IgA antibodies; provides passive immunity to the newborn.

List I	List II
A. About 65 mya	I. Jawless Fish probably evolved
B. About 500 mya	II. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
C. About 350 mya	III. Seaweeds and few plants probably existed.
D. About 320 mya	IV. Invertebrates were formed and became active

List I	List II
A. Progesterone	I. Barrier made up of rubber used by females
B. Multiload 375	II. Oral contraceptive
C. Diaphragm	III. Hormone-releasing IUD
D. Saheli	IV. Copper releasing IUD

List I	List II (Capacity in mL)
A. Tetany	I.Inflammation of joints
B. Arthritis	II. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
C. Myasthenia gravis	III. Wild contraction in muscle due to low $C a^{+ +}$ in body fluid
D. Muscular dystrophy	IV. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

NEET Biology

Unit 1 Diversity in the Living world || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

Unit 2 Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

Unit 3 Cell structure and Functions || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

Unit 5 Human Physiology || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

Unit 4 Plant Physiology || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

Unit 6 Reproduction || NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart With Examples

Unit 7 Genetics and Evolution | NEET Biology Sure Shot || High Yield Facts Chart with Examples

Unit 8- Biology in Human Welfare || NEET Biology Sure Shot | High Yield Facts Chart with Examples

Unit 9 Biotechnology || NEET BIOLOGY Sure Shots | High Yield Facts with Examples Chart

Unit 10 Ecology || NEET BIOLOGY SURE SHOT | High Yield Facts with Examples

2026 NEET Biology Questions and Answers with Explanation

CUET UG Biology Comprehension 2

CUET UG Biology Comprehension

CUET UG 2025 Biology Questions and Answers

Biology Quiz

1. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

List 2 (Characteristics)

2. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

List 2 (Feature)

3. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

List 2 (Feature)

4. Match the following:

List 1 (Enzyme)

List 2 (Function)

5. Match the following:

List 1 (Genetic disorders)

List 2 (Characteristics)

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

2025 CUET UG Biology Practice Test

1. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to T H Morgan?

2. Arrange the following spermatogenic cells in correct sequence of Spermatogenesis.

3. Which of the following drinks are produced by distillation?

4. Which one of the following is/are inverted pyramid in an ecosystem?

5. Arrange the following wall layers of microsporangium starting outer to inner.

6. Arrange the following historical events in the history of life in chronological order?

7. Arrange the following events in correct order pertaining to sewage treatment plant.

8. Arrange the following ducts pertaining to male reproductive system starting from seminiferous tubules.

9. Select the components that are needed to set up a polymerase chain reaction.

10. The cause of biodiversity loss are:

11. Arrange the following cells in correct sequence of oogenesis.

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

CUET UG Question Paper 2025 || CUET Biology Practice Test

CUET Biology Practice Test

Biology Quiz

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KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

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KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

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KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

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KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

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KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Practice Test || Biology Questions 11-20

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 11-20 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

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Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

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NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 81-90

(NEET Biology Practice Test|| Exam Questions 81-90)

81. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?A. Restriction enzymesB. DNA ligaseC. DNA mutaseD. DNA recombinaseE. DNA polymeraseChoose the correct answer from the options given below:

84. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.Choose the correct answer from the following:

86. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?A. Aspergillus nigerB. LactobacillusC. Trichoderma polysporumD. Saccharomyces cerevisiaeE. Propionibacterium sharmaniiChoose the correct answer from the options given below:

88. Match List-I with List-II.List-I: A. Progesterone, B. Relaxin, C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone, D. CatecholaminesList-II: I. Pars intermedia, II. Ovary, III. Adrenal Medulla, IV. Corpus luteumChoose the correct answer from the options given below:

90. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

Quiz Results

82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following:

87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

88. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Progesterone, B. Relaxin, C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone, D. Catecholamines
List-II: I. Pars intermedia, II. Ovary, III. Adrenal Medulla, IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: