NEET Biology

CUET UG Biology Comprehension 2

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 14 Aug 2025 10:16:00 +0000

Monohybrid

The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower (Snapdragon of Antirrhinum sp) can be understood by crossbreeding between true breeding red-flowered (RR) and true breeding white flowered plants(rr). When they crossed F1(Rr) was pink. When F1 was self pollinated, the F2 results were Red, Pink and White. Here the genotype ratios were exactly as expected, but the phenotype ratios were exactly as expected, but the phenotype ratios have been changed. What happened was that R was not completely dominant over r and this made it possible to distinguish Rr as pink form RR (Red) and rr(white).

1. What was the expected phenotypic ratio in any Mendelian monohybrid cross that had changed when F1 (Rr) was self-pollinated in this cross?

a)1:1

b)1:2:1

c)3:1

d)1:3

2. What will be the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation when F1(Rr) was self pollinated?

a)1:1

b)1:2:1

c)3:1

d)1:3

3. In the above passage, the inheritance is an example of

a)co-dominance

b)dominance

c)incomplete dominance

d)recessive trait

4. What will be the genotypic ratio in F2 generation when F1(Rr) was self pollinated?

a) 3:1

b) 2:1:1

c) 1:1

d) 1:2:1

5. What will be the percentage of progeny in F1 generation when RR(red flowered plant) is crossed with rr (white flowered plant) in the above passage?

a) 100%Rr

b) 75% RR and 25%rr

c) 25%RR, 50% Rr and 25%rr

d) 25% RR and 75%rr

Answers:

1. c)3:1

2. b)1:2:1

3.c)incomplete dominance

4. d) 1:2:1

5. a) 100%Rr

CUET UG Biology Comprehension

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 14 Aug 2025 07:56:00 +0000

Restriction enzyme

Restriction enzyme cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites but between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This leaves single-stranded portions at the ends. There are overhanging stretches called sticky ends. There are overhanging stretches called sticky ends on each strand. There are named so because they form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterparts. This stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA ligase. The word "palindrome" refers to a group of letters that forms the same words when read both forward and backward. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering as molecular scissors.

1. Overhanging stretches on each strand is called

a)hydrogen bond

b)sticky end

c)ligase

d)palindrome

2. Which one of the following enzymes helps to join DNA?

a)DNA polymerae

b)DNA ligase

c)endonuclease

d)RNA polymerase

3. Which bond forms on sticky end of each strand?

a)Peptide bond

b)sulphide bond

c)hydrogen bond

d)carbon bond

4. Palindromes are

a) the same group of letters, which read both forward and backward

b) the different group of letters when read both forward and backward

c) same group of letters when read only forward

d) same group of letters when read only backward

5. Which of the following option is correct about restriction enzymes?

a) It helps in binding of DNA

b) This is known as molecular scissors

c) It has ability to multiple copies of plasmid

d) It helps in transfer of piece of DNA

Answers:

1. b)sticky end

2. b)DNA ligase

3.c)hydrogen bond

4. a) the same group of letters, which read both forward and backward

5. b) This is known as molecular scissors

CUET UG 2025 Biology Questions and Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 12 Aug 2025 07:47:00 +0000

Biology Quiz

1. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

A. Bt toxin
B. RNAi
C. Green revolution
D. Gene Therapy

List 2 (Characteristics)

i. ADA deficiency
ii. Increase food supply
iii. cryIAc gene
iv. mRNA Silencing

a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
b) A-iii, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
c) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

2. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy

List 2 (Feature)

i. Flowers do not open
ii. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of different plant
iii. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant
iv. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of same flower

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

3. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

A. Natality
B. Immigration
C. Mortality
D. Emigration

List 2 (Feature)

i. Number of the same species individuals that have come into the habitat
ii. Number of deaths during a given time in a population
iii. Number of the same species individuals that have left the habitat
iv. Number of births during a given time in a population

a) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

4. Match the following:

List 1 (Enzyme)

A. Nuclease
B. Ligase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Reverse Transcriptase

List 2 (Function)

i. Synthesis DNA from RNA
ii. Have both directions exonuclease activity and synthesise new polypeptide
iii. Degrade nucleic acids by breaking phosphodiester bonds
iv. Joins DNA molecules together by formation of phosphodiester bonds

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
c) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

5. Match the following:

List 1 (Genetic disorders)

A. Hemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Klinefelter’s syndrome

List 2 (Characteristics)

i. Mutation in HBB gene
ii. Sex linked recessive disease
iii. Aneuploidy
iv. Mental retardation and reduced hair and skin pigmentation

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

Answers:

1.a)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

2.c)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

3.a)A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

4.b)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

5.c)A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 12 Aug 2025 06:31:00 +0000

2025 CUET UG Biology Practice Test

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 09 Aug 2025 14:56:00 +0000

1.How many different types of gamaetes are possible to be formed by an individual if its genotype for a particular trait is AABbccDd
4
8
16
32

2.Lactational amenorrhaea refers to

absence of menstruation
absence of menstruction during intense lactatio
no breast feeding
intense breast feeding

3. Those plants whose genes have been altered by manipulation are known as----
pest resistant plants
vectors
genetically modified plants
plant crystals

4. The first menstruation which begins at puberty is called
menopause
menarche
menstral cycle
ovulation

5.Which of the following antibodies is released through colostrum?
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgG

6.Baculoviruses are pathogen that attack
reptiles
plants
insects
birds

7. Failure to segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle which involves gain or loss of chromosomes is called
polyploidy
euploidy
monosomy
aneuploidy

8. Bioactive molecule , Cyclosporin A is produced by
Monoscus purpureus
Acetobacter aceti
Clostridium butylicum
Trichoderma polysporum

9.The specific DNA sequence which is responsible for initiation of replication is known as
template DNA
Recombinant DNA
Plasmid
origin of replication

10.Biopiracy refers to
use of bioresources by companies with proper authorisation
use of bioresources by companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from countries and people concerned without compansation amount
use of bioresources by companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from countries and people concerned with compansation amount
copying of someones work without consent

Score =
Correct answers:

CUET UG Question Paper 2025 || CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 08 Aug 2025 09:43:00 +0000

1.The blastocyst become embedded in the endometrium of the uterus.This is called
lactation
gestation
implanation
parturition

2.Which one of the following hormonrs is related to spermatogenesis?
Androgens
Estrogen
Progesteron
LH

3. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for ovulation?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Luteinizing hormone
follicle stimulating hormone

4. India has more than 1000 varieties of mango.This is an example of
species diversity
genetic diversity
family diversity
ecological diversity

5.Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell. This method is known as
Micro injection
insertion
transformation
biolistics

6. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
Sutton and Boveri
Watson and Crick
Beadle ans Tatum
Mendel and de Vries

7. Lichens are an example of
Commensalism
Mutualism
Competition
Parasitism

8. Which one of the following represent a correct form of mature angiosperm embryo sac?
8 celled with 7 nuclei
7 celled with 8 nuclei
7 celled with 7 nuclei
8 celled with 8 nuclei

9.Chromosomes Z and W for sex determination are seen in:
human
birds
grasshopper
Drosophila

10.The assisted reproductive technique where embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the human uterus is known as
ICSI
ZIFT
GIFT
IUT

Score =
Correct answers:

CUET Biology Practice Test

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 13:16:00 +0000

Biology Quiz

Biology Quiz

1. Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for filtration of blood?

(A) Loop of Henle (B) Proximal convoluted tubule (C) Bowman's capsule (D) Collecting duct

2. Which of the following elements is essential for the synthesis of chlorophyll?

(A) Calcium (B) Magnesium (C) Sodium (D) Potassium

3. If a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt), what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

(A) 1 Tall: 3 Dwarf (B) 1 Tall: 1 Dwarf (C) All Tall (D) All Dwarf

4. Which of the following organelles is involved in the synthesis of proteins?

(A) Ribosome (B) Lysosome (C) Golgi apparatus (D) Peroxisome

5. Which enzyme is responsible for the unwinding of DNA during replication?

(A) DNA polymerase (B) DNA ligase (C) DNA helicase (D) RNA primase

6. Which type of bond is found between amino acids in a protein chain?

(A) Hydrogen bond (B) Peptide bond (C) Ionic bond (D) Glycosidic bond

7. Which of the following is a pioneer species in primary succession on rocks?

(A) Ferns (B) Lichens (C) Mosses (D) Algae

8. During which phase of mitosis do the centromeres split and chromatids move to opposite poles?

(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase

9. The gradual and predictable change in species composition in an area is known as:

(A) Succession (B) Evolution (C) Mutation (D) Speciation

10. The part of the brain responsible for maintaining posture and balance is the:

(A) Cerebrum (B) Medulla oblongata (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus

11. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of which group of plants?

(A) Bryophytes (B) Gymnosperms (C) Pteridophytes (D) Angiosperms

12. Which ion plays a crucial role in the generation of action potential in neurons?

(A) Calcium (Ca2+) (B) Potassium (K+) (C) Magnesium (Mg2+) (D) Sodium (Na+)

13. Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood?

(A) Pulmonary artery (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Superior vena cava (D) Right atrium

14. In which part of the chloroplast do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur?

(A) Stroma (B) Inner membrane (C) Thylakoid membrane (D) Outer membrane

15. Which of the following organisms is correctly matched with its kingdom?

(A) Amoeba - Plantae (B) Euglena - Fungi (C) Paramecium - Protista (D) Nostoc - Animalia

16. Which technique is used to amplify a segment of DNA?

(A) Gel electrophoresis (B) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) (C) DNA fingerprinting (D) ELISA

17. Which plant hormone is primarily responsible for cell elongation?

(A) Cytokinin (B) Auxin (C) Abscisic acid (D) Ethylene

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KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:33:00 +0000

KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

KCET Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 51-60

51. Match the stages of prophase I given in Column-I with their features in Column-II and choose the correct options from the choices given below:
Column - I                                   Column - II
(a) Leptotene                         (i) Exchange of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes
(b) Zygotene                           (ii) Chromosomes visible under light microscope
(c) Pachytene                         (iii) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(d) Diplotene                           (iv) Chromosomes start pairing together
(e) Diakinesis                          (v) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(1) a – v, b – iv, c – i, d – iii, e - ii (2) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii, e - v (3) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii, e - v (4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv, e - v

52. Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement I : In Calvin cycle, Carboxylation is catalysed by PEP Carboxylase
Statement II : In Hatch-Slack pathway, Carboxylation is catalysed by RuBP Carboxylase

(1) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (3) Both Statement I and Statement I are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

53. The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with

(1) Citric acid (2)   Ketoglutaric acid (3) Succinic acid (4) Oxaloacetic acid

54. Match the plant growth hormones of Column-I with suitable chemical derivatives present in Column-II and choose the correct option given below:
Column - I                                   Column - II
(a) Abscisic acid                         (i) Adenine derivative
(b) Gibberellins                          (ii) Indole acetic acid
(c) Kinetin                                (iii) Carotenoid derivative
(d) Auxin                                  (iv) Terpens

(1) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii (2) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii (3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv (4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

55. The respiratory mechanism controlled by medulla oblongata can be altered by

(1) Chemosensitive area in the medulla (2) Both Pneumotaxic and Chemosensitive areas of pons and medulla oblongata (3) Corpus callosum of brain (4) Pneumotaxic center in the pons

56. Which among the three layers of blood vessel wall – Tunica intima, Tunica media and Tunica Externa is comparatively thin in the veins?

(1) Tunica intima (2) Tunica externa (3) Both tunica media and tunica externa (4) Tunica media

57. In nephron, transport of substances: like sodium chloride and urea is facilitated by the special arrangement called counter current mechanism that comprises of

(1) Henle's loop and glomerulus (2) Vasa Recta and collecting duct (3) Ascending limb and collecting duct (4) Henle’s loop and Vasa Recta

58. In the mechanism of muscle contraction or shortening of muscle, the ______ get reduced whereas the ____ retain the length.

(1) I bands, A bands (2) Z line, I bands (3) A bands, Z line (4) A bands, I bands

59. Identify the correct sequence of action potential as it arrives at the axon terminal from the choices given below :

(1) Axon terminal  Synaptic cleft  Synaptic vesicles  Post-synaptic neuron  Post-synaptic membrane (2) Axon terminal  Post-synaptic membrane  Synaptic cleft  Synaptic vesicles  Post-synaptic neuron (3) Axon terminal  Synaptic vesicles  Post-synaptic membrane  Synaptic cleft  Post-synaptic neuron (4) Axon terminal  Synaptic vesicles  Synaptic cleft  Post-synaptic membrane  Post-synaptic neuron

60. Identify the statement/s given below that does not correspond to the functions of cortisol
(i) Maintains cardiovascular system and kidney functions
(ii) Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
(iii) Maintains electrolyte balance, osmosis and blood pressure
(iv) Suppresses immune response
(v) Stimulates RBC production

(1) (iii) and (v) only (2) (ii) only (3) (iv) only (4) (i) and (ii) only

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KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:26:00 +0000

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

41. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to the rules of Binomial Nomenclature.

(1) Biological names are generally in Latin or Latinised irrespective of their origin (2) Biological names are underlined separately when handwritten (3) Biological names are printed in Italics to indicate their non-Latin origin (4) The first word represents the genus while second component denotes the specific epithet

42. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option given below :
Column-I (Bacteria)                 Column-II (Shape)
a. Coccus                             i. Rod-shaped
b. Bacillus                            ii. Spiral
c. Vibrium                            iii. Spherical
d. Spirillum                           iv. Comma-shaped

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

43. Read the given statements and choose the correct option :
Statement I : Gemmae are green, unicellular, sexual buds which develop in receptacles called gemma cups
Statement II : Protonema develops directly from a spore

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

44. During a field trip, a student observed a marine organism with worm-like body. The cylindrical body was divisible into proboscis, collar and a long truck. The organism may be ……..

(1) Ophiura (2) Pterophyllum (3) Trygon (4) Balanoglossus

45. Identify the types of aestivation in corolla labeled as ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’
(Imagine a diagram showing different types of aestivation: Valvate, Twisted, Imbricate, Vexillary)

(1) a-Imbricate, b-Valvate, c-Vexillary, d-Twisted (2) a-Vexillary, b-Imbricate, c-Twisted, d- Valvate (3) a- Vexillary, b-Imbricate, c- Valvate, d- Twisted (4) a- Vexillary, b- Twisted, c- Imbricate, d- Valvate

46. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I (Characteristics of vascular bundle)               Column-II (Transverse section)
a. Radial, tetrarch, cambial ring between xylem and phloem at later stages     i. T.S of monocot stem
b. Conjoint, open and endarch                                                                                 ii. T.S of dicot root
c. Radial, polyarch, large pith without cambial ring                                                                           iii. T.S of dicot stem
d. Conjoint, closed with sclerenchymatous bundle sheath                                                              iv. T.S of monocot stem

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii,d-iv

47. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Frogs ?
(a) Bidder’s canals are present in male Frogs
(b) Copulatory pads are present in male Frogs
(c) Sound producing vocal sacs are present in male Frogs
(d) Cloaca is present male Frog only.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) a and b (2) a and c (3) b and d (4) a and d

48. The reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of …..

(1) Inclusion bodies (2) Exclusion and inclusion bodies (3) Fat bodies (4) Exclusion bodies

49. The cell wall less prokaryote among the following is

(1) Blue-Green Algae (2) Cyanobacteria (3) Mycoplasma (4) Bacteria

50. The graph showing the concept of activation energy of enzyme is given below :
Observe the graph and choose the correct option for M and N.
(Imagine a typical activation energy graph with two curves: one higher (M) representing reaction without enzyme, and one lower (N) representing reaction with enzyme, both starting and ending at the same energy levels)

(1) M-Activation energy with enzyme, N-Activation energy without enzyme (2) M-High temperature, High activation energy, N-Low temperature, Low activation energy (3) M-High substrate, High activation energy, N-Low substrate, Low activation energy (4) M-Activation energy without enzyme, N-Activation energy with enzyme

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KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:14:00 +0000

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

KCET 2025 Practice Test || Exam Questions 31-40

31. Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill insects. Which one of the following is not killed by proteins of Bacillus thuringiensis?

(1) Armyworm (2) Cotton bollworm (3) Tapeworm (4) Tobacco budworm

32. Which one of the following population attributes, contributes to increase in population density?

(1) Mortality and Emmigration (2) Natality and Emmigration (3) Mortality and Immigration (4) Natality and Immigration

33. If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 80 fruit flies died during a specified time interval, the death rate in the population during that period is

(1) 0.001 individual/time interval (2) 0.1 individual/time interval (3) 1 individual/time interval (4) 0.01 individual/time interval

34. Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in decomposition

(1) Fragmentation  Leaching  Catabolism  Mineralisation  Humification (2) Fragmentation  Mineralisation  Humification  Leaching  Catabolism (3) Fragmentation  Leaching  Catabolism  Humification  Mineralisation. (4) Fragmentation  Catabolism  Leaching  Humification  Mineralisation

35. With respect to limitation of Ecological pyramids, which of the following statements are correct?
a) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
b) It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never existed in nature.
c) It accommodates saprophytes
d) It does not accommodate a food web
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) b and c (2) c and d (3) a, b and d (4) a and b

36. The ‘Sixth Extinction’ of species, presently in progress, is_____times faster than the previous five episodes of mass extinctions.

(1) 100 to 1000 (2) 1000 to 10000 (3) 1 to 10 (4) 10 to 100

37. Species diversity _____, as we move away from the ______towards____

(1) Decreases, Equator, Poles (2) Decreases, Poles, Equator (3) Stable, Equator, Poles (4) Increases, Equator, Poles

38. In a practical examination, the following pedigree chart was given as a spotter for identification. The students identify the given pedigree chart as_____
(Please imagine a pedigree chart showing affected individuals in a pattern consistent with autosomal recessive inheritance. Typically, this involves affected individuals appearing in offspring of unaffected parents, often skipping generations, and affecting males and females equally.)

(1) Autosomal recessive (2) Sex-linked dominant (3) Sex-linked recessive (4) Autosomal dominant

39. A student observed the T.S. of a plant organ slide under microscope. He observed the vascular bundles in the stelar region as conjoint collateral and open. Based on these features of vascular bundle, identify the correct option from below.

(1) Dicot Stem (2) Monocot Root (3) Monocot Stem (4) Dicot Root

40. A student observed the slide of mitosis under the microscope and observed that the chromosomes were placed at the opposite poles. Which stage was the student observing?

(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase (3) Telophase (4) Prophase

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KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 09:01:00 +0000

KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

KCET 2025 || Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

21. Which of the following are the techniques for detection of cancer of internal organs?
(a) Radiography, MRI (b) MRI, computed tomography
(c) Widal test, radiography (d) MRI, widal test

(1)a and c (2)b and c (3)b and d (4) a and b

22. Malignant malaria is caused by

(1)Plasmodium vivax (2)Plasmodium falciparum (3)Plasmodium rubrum (4)Plasmodium malariae

23. The drug prescribed to the patients who have undergone organ transplant is ______ and is produced by ______.

(1)Stain, Monascus purpureus (2)Cyclosporin-A, Trichoderma polysporum (3)Statin, Trichoderma polysporum (4)Cyclosporin-A, Monascus purpureus

24. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
Statement II: Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol agents for several plant pathogens

(1)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (2)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (3)Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

25. Match the column-I with Column-II. Choose the correct option given below.
Column-I                                Column-II
(a) Streptococcus                         i. Free living nitrogen fixing bacteria
(b) Penicillium                             ii. Clot buster
(c) Methanogens                           iii. Source of antibiotic
(d) Anabaena                               iv. Biogas production

(1)a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d - i (2)a – iv, b – iii, c – I, d – ii (3)a – iv, b – I, c – iii, d – ii (4) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d - i

26. Match the contents of List-I with List-II
List-I                                List-II
(a) Bioreactors                         i. Insulin produced by rDNA technology
(b) Downstream processing           ii. Vessels which convert raw material into specific Product
(c) Recombinant protein             iii. Detect mutated genes in suspected cancer potien
(d) PCR                                iv. Involves separation and purification.
Choose the correct option from the following

(1)a –iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i (2)a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii (3)a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv (4)a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d - iii

27. The part of plasmid that codes for proteins involved in the replication of the PBR322 plasmid is

(1)Selectable marker (2)”rop” (3)Cloning site (4)Ori site

28. To isolate DNA from fungal cells, bacterial cells and plant cells, the enzymes required are respectively

(1)Lysozyme, Proteases and Ribonuclease (2)Chitinase, Lysozyme and Cellulase (3)Cellulase, Protease and Lysozyme (4) Lysozyme, Cellulase and Chitinase

29. In mature insulin, which of the peptide is not present?

(1)B-peptide (2)C-peptide (3)A and B peptides (4)A-peptide

30. A scientist wants to produce virus-free plant in tissue culture. Which part of the plant will he use as an explant?
(a) Mature stem (b) Axillary meristem
(c)Apical meristem (d) Mesophyll cells
Choose the correct option from the following.

(1)b and c (2)b only (3)c and d (4) a only

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KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Practice Test || Biology Questions 11-20

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 08:48:00 +0000

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 11-20 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 11-20 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

11. When a single gene exhibits multiple phenotypic expression, the phenomenon is called ____

(1) Incomplete dominance (2) Pleiotropy (3) Co-dominance (4) Polygenic inheritance

12. A colourblind man marries a carrier woman. The percentage of their colourblind progeny in the next generation will be ___

(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 100% (4) 25%

13. Identify which one of the given pair of options is correct with respect to Down's syndrome and Turner's syndrome.
Option     Down's syndrome symptoms     Turner's syndrome symptoms
(a)       Short-statured individual       Gynaecomastia in man
(b)       Round head, partially open mouth       Overall masculine development
(c)       Broad palm, physical and mental development retarded       Sterile females with rudimentary ovaries
(d)       Additional copy of an X-chromosome       Absence of an X-chromosome

(1) b (2) c (3) d (4) a

14. RNA polymerase II is responsible for the transcription of ___

(1) rRNA (2) hnRNA (3) snRNA (4) tRNA

15. Which of the following enzymes increases the permeability of the bacterial cell to lactose?

(1) Permease (2) Transacetylase (3) Amylase (4) β-galactosidase

16. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to prokaryotic genome?
(a) Monocistronic structural genes
(b) Introns absent in structural genes
(c) Transcription and translation are coupled processes
(d) Primary transcript undergoes splicing
(e) Only one RNA polymerase is present

(1) Only b, c and e are correct (2) Only a, d and e are correct (3) Only a, b and c are correct (4) Only a, b and d are correct

17. When a change in the gene frequency of a population occurs by chance, it is called ___

(1) Gene migration (2) Genetic recombination (3) Genetic drift (4) Founder effect

18. Darwin's finches represent one of the best examples of ____

(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Chemical evolution (3) Genetic equilibrium (4) Seasonal migration

19. Choose the correct statements from the following:
(a) Charles Darwin travelled around the world in a ship called HMS Beagle
(b) There has been gradual evolution of life forms
(c) According to Darwin, fitness refers to physical fitness only –
(d) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms found in rocks
(e) Hugo De Vries, a naturalist worked in Malay Archipelago.

(1) a, c and e are correct (2) a, b and d are correct (3) a, c and d are correct (4) a, b and e are correct

20. In which of the following, HIV replicates and produces its progeny viruses?

(1) Memory T-lymphocytes (2) Killer T-lymphocytes (3) Suppressor T-lymphocytes (4) Helper T-lymphocytes

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Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Jul 2025 07:06:00 +0000
Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

Biology Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 1-10 || KCET 2025 Biology Part

1. When pollen grains of a flower of a plant pollinate the stigma of flower of another plant, it is called

(1) Autogamy (2) Dichogamy (3) Geitonogamy (4) Xenogamy

2. Fusion of a male gamete with the central cell in the embryo sac of an angiosperm is called ……

(1) Triple fusion (2) Syngamy (3) Apomixis (4) Double fertilization

3. Which of these options is true in the context of the above diagram of pollen grain ?
(Assuming 'A' refers to the larger cell and 'B' to the smaller cell, typical of a mature pollen grain)

(1) ‘A’ is a vegetative cell which gives rise to male gametes and ‘B’ is a generative cell which produces pollen tube (2) ‘A’ is a generative cell which gives rise to pollen tube and ‘B’ is a vegetative cell which form male gametes (3) ‘A’ is a vegetative cell with abundant food reserve and ‘B’ is a generative cell which form male gametes (4) ‘A’ is a generative cell which forms male gametes and ‘B’ is a vegetative cell which produces pollen tube

4. Match the hormone with its site of production :
Hormone                             Site of production
a. hCG and hPL                     i. Ovary
b. Progesterone                      ii. Placenta
c. Androgens                          iii. Corpus luteum
d. Relaxin                               iv. Leydig cells

(1) a-iii, b-I, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

5. Choose the correct sequence of sperm transport during ejaculation

(1) Seminiferous tubules→ rete testis → epididymis → vasa efferentia → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct (2) Seminiferous tubules → vasa efferentia → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct (3) Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → epididymis → vas deferens → vasa efferentia → ejaculatory duct (4) Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct

6. Select the mismatched pair :
(1) First month of pregnancy – Formation of heart
(2) Second month of pregnancy – Movement of foetus
(3) Third month of pregnancy – Formation of most of the major organ systems
(4) Six month of pregnancy – Eye lids separate and eye lashes are found

(1) b (2) c (3) d (4) a

7. Out of the following options, identify which one is NOT a natural method of contraception ?

(1) Implants (2) Lactational amenorrhea (3) Periodic abstinence (4) Coitus interruptus

8. In zygote intrafallopian tube transfer, the embryo upto ………….. stage is transferred into the fallopian tube

(1) 16 blastomeres (2) 8 blastomeres (3) 32 blastomeres (4) 2 blastomeres

9. Read the following statements :
Statement I : MTP is to get rid off wanted pregnancies due to a causal unprotected intercourse or failure of contraceptives used during coitus or rapes
Statement II : MTPs are performed legally by qualified doctors by giving proper medical justification

(1) Statements I and II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Statements I and II are correct

10. How many types of gametes will be formed by a parent with genotype ‘AaBbCc’ ?

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 6

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NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 81-90

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 06:39:00 +0000

(NEET Biology Practice Test -Set 9)

(NEET Biology Practice Test|| Exam Questions 81-90)

81. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

(1) It is active only in the dark. (2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide. (3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water. (4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.

82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C and D only (2) A and B only (3) D and E only (4) B and C only

83. Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for redifferentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.

(1) A, B, C only (2) A, C, E only (3) A, D, E only (4) B, D, E only

84. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

(1) α (alpha) (2) σ (sigma) (3) ρ (rho) (4) γ (gamma)

85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) The statement is true for water but false for land (2) The statement is true for both the environment (3) The statement is false for water but true for land (4) The statement is false for both the environment

86. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

(1) They are monozygotic twins. (2) They are fraternal twins. (3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization. (4) They have 75% identical genetic content.

87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only (2) A and C only (3) C and D only (4) C and E only

88. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Progesterone, B. Relaxin, C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone, D. Catecholamines
List-II: I. Pars intermedia, II. Ovary, III. Adrenal Medulla, IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

89. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
Statement II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

90. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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2025 NEET Biology Practice Test || Questions (71-80)

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 06:28:00 +0000

(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 8)

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test||Questions (71-80)

71. Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

(1) Human body will elicit strong immune response (2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract (3) Because of structural variation (4) Its bioavailability will be increased

72. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Pteridophyte, B. Bryophyte, C. Angiosperm, D. Gymnosperm
List-II: I. Salvia, II. Ginkgo, III. Polytrichum, IV. Salvinia
Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

73. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

(1) George Gamow (2) Francis Crick (3) Jacque Monod (4) Franklin Stahl

74. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. The Evil Quartet, B. Ex situ conservation, C. Lantana camara, D. Dodo
List-II: I. Cryopreservation, II. Alien species invasion, III. Causes of biodiversity losses, IV. Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

75. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH) (2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) (3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

76. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B Only (2) A and C Only (3) B and C Only (4) B, D and E Only

77. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

(1) Acquired Immunity (2) Innate Immunity (3) Cell-mediated Immunity (4) Humoral Immunity

78. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

(1) Sexual reproduction (2) Asexual reproduction (3) Nutrient absorption (4) Gaseous exchange

79. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :

(1) Liver and intestine (2) Liver and kidney (3) Kidney and intestine (4) Kidney and lower part of body

80. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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NEET Biology Practice test || Exam Questions 61-70

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 06:08:00 +0000
(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 7)

NEET Biology Practice test||Exam Questions 61-70

61. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

(1) Analogy, convergent (2) Homology, divergent (3) Homology, convergent (4) Analogy, divergent

62. With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/8 (4) Zero

63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true

64. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

(1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis (2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis (3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis (4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis

65. Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

(1) Petunia (2) Datura (3) Pea (4) Chilli

66. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:
A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C, D only (2) A, B, C only (3) E, A, B only (4) C, D, E only

67. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

68. What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

(1) To separate the chromosomes (2) To synthesize new DNA (3) To repair damaged DNA (4) To regulate cell growth

69. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

(1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits. (2) Seeds are naked. (3) Seeds are absent. (4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.

70. Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases/strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C and D Only (2) B, C and D Only (3) A, C and D Only (4) D Only

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2025 NEET Biology Practice Test | Exam Questions 51-60

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 06:02:00 +0000

(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 6)

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test|Exam Questions 51-60

51. Match List I with List II.
List I: A. Scutellum, B. Non-albuminous, C. Epiblast, D. Perisperm
List II: I. Persistent nucellus, II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed, III. Groundnut, IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord, during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true

53. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains. (2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds. (3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules. (4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.

54. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

(1) Complementary dsRNA (2) Inhibitory ssRNA (3) Complementary tRNA (4) Non-complementary ssRNA

55. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

(1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1 (2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1 (3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7

56. Histones are enriched with -

(1) Lysine & Arginine (2) Leucine & Lysine (3) Phenylalanine & Leucine (4) Phenylalanine & Arginine

57. The first menstruation is called:

(1) Menopause (2) Menarche (3) Diapause (4) Ovulation

58. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I: A. Heart, B. Kidney, C. Gastro-intestinal tracts, D. Adrenal Cortex
List - II: I. Erythropoietin, II. Aldosterone, III. Atrial natriuretic factor, IV. Secretin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

59. The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

(1) Cofactor (2) Coenzyme (3) Apoenzyme (4) Prosthetic group

60. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

(1) gm–2 (2) KCal m–2 (3) KCal m–3 (4) (KCal m–2)yr–1

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2025 NEET Biology Practice Test | Exam Questions 41-50

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 05:54:00 +0000

(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 5)

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test | Exam Questions 41-50

41. Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?

(1) RuBisCo (2) Carbonic anhydrase (3) Succinate dehydrogenase (4) Catalase

42. Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C, E, B, D (2) C, E, A, D, B (3) A, C, E, D, B (4) C, E, A, B, D

43. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

(1) S. R. Kashyap (2) Ramdeo Misra (3) Ram Udar (4) Birbal Sahni

44. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase, B. Euchromatin, C. Frederick Griffith, D. Heterochromatin
List-II: I. Streptococcus Pneumoniae, II. Densely packed and dark-stained, III. Loosely packed and light-stained, IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

45. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refers to:
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B only (2) A, B, C only (3) A, B, D only (4) B, C, D only

46. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.
Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

47. Match List I with List II.
List I: A. Adenosine, B. Adenylic acid, C. Adenine, D. Alanine
List II: I. Nitrogen base, II. Nucleotide, III. Nucleoside, IV. Amino acid
Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

48. Consider the following:
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B are true (2) A and C are true (3) B and D are true (4) B and C are true

49. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

(1) Free living (2) Endoparasite (3) Symbiotic (4) Ectoparasite

50. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true

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2025 NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam questions 31-40

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 05:30:00 +0000
(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 4)

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam questions 31-40

31. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Centromere, B. Cilium, C. Cristae, D. Cell membrane
List-II: I. Mitochondrion, II. Cell Division, III. Cell movement, IV. Phospholipid Layer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

32. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Chlorophyll a, B. Chlorophyll b, C. Xanthophylls, D. Carotenoids
List-II: I. Yellow-green, II. Yellow, III. Blue-green, IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

33. Find the correct statements:
A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and E Only (2) B and C Only (3) B, C, D and E Only (4) A, C, D and E Only

34. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:

(1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorhiza (3) Integument (4) Aleurone layer

35. Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.

(1) Diagram 1 (2) Diagram 2 (3) Diagram 3 (4) Diagram 4

36. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure

(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) C

37. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true.

38. A specialized membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:

(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophores (3) Cristae (4) Endoplasmic Reticulum

39. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C only (2) B, C, D only (3) B, C, E only (4) C, D, E only

40. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern (2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern (3) Autosomal dominant pattern (4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

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2025 NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 05:23:00 +0000
(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 3)

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 21-30

21. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, A, D, E, C (2) B, A, E, C, D (3) D, E, C, A, B (4) E, D, C, B, A

22. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C Only. (2) A, B, C and D (3) A, C and D Only (4) A, B and D Only

23. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A only (2) D only (3) B only (4) E only

24. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is Correct

25. In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

(1) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate. (2) Blue color colonies will be selected. (3) White color colonies will be selected. (4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

26. Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

(1) Bacterium (2) Yeast (3) Virus (4) Phage

27. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction:
S – G + S# → S + S# – G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S# → another substrate

(1) Hydrolase (2) Lyase (3) Transferase (4) Ligase

28. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous. (2) Vascular bundles are scattered. (3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed. (4) Phloem parenchyma is absent.

29. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) D, E, A, C, B (2) B, E, A, C, D (3) B, E, A, D, C (4) D, E, A, B, C

30. Which are correct:
A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill noncancerous cells.
C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients’ immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cells counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) B and D only (2) D and E only (3) C and D only (4) A and C only

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2025 NEET Biology Practice Test | Exam Questions 11-20

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 05:00:00 +0000

(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 2)

Advanced Biology Quiz - Part 2

11. Match List-I (Disease) with List-II (Description):
A. Emphysema, B. Angina Pectoris, C. Glomerulonephritis, D. Tetany. I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid, II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface, III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle, IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

12. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false. (4) A is false but R is true.

13. Which of the following is an example of non—distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

(1) Whisky (2) Brandy (3) Beer (4) Rum

14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary.
Statement II: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

15. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

(1) Curd production (2) Ethanol production (3) Liver disease treatment (4) Removing clots from blood vessels

16. Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

(1) Chromosome X (2) Chromosome Y (3) Chromosome 1 (4) Chromosome 10

17. Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

(1) First and Second digit of fore limb (2) First digit of hind limb (3) Second digit of fore limb (4) First digit of the fore limb

18. Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

(1) Ethylene (2) Abscisic acid (3) Gibberellin (4) Cytokinin

19. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?

(1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate (3) Schizocoelomate (4) Spongocoelomate

20. Match List-I (Part of Sperm) with List-II (Function):
List-I A. Head, B. Middle piece, C. Acrosome, D. Tail. I. Enzymes, List-II. Sperm motility, III. Energy, IV. Genetic material

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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2025 NEET Biology Practice Test | Exam Questions 1-10

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Jul 2025 04:42:00 +0000

(2025 NEET Biology Questions SET 1)

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test | Exam Questions 1-10

1. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

(1) Cytochrome bc1 (2) Succinate dehydrogenase (3) Cytochrome c oxidase (4) NADH dehydrogenase

2. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

(1) N2 (2) 2n (3) 2n + 1 (4) 2N2

3. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, D, F only. (2) A, C, D, F only (3) A, B, C, D only (4) A, B, C, E, F only

4. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

(1) Aorta (2) Pulmonary artery (3) Pulmonary vein (4) Vena cava

5. Which one of the following statements refers to reductionist biology?

(1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms. (2) Physiological approach to study and understand, living organisms. (3) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms. (4) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.

6. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

7. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism (3) Predation (4) Amensalism

8. From the statements given below choose the correct option:
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S

(1) A, B, C are true (2) A, B, D are true (3) A, B, E are true (4) B, D, E are true

9. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(1) National Park (2) Wildlife Sanctuary (3) Zoos and botanical gardens (4) Protected areas.

10. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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2025 NEET Biology Questions || 90 Questions (360/360)

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 24 Jun 2025 14:18:00 +0000

1. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
(1) Cytochrome bc1
(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome c oxidase
(4) NADH dehydrogenase

2. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
(1) N2
(2) 2n
(3) 2n + 1
(4) 2N2
3. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, D, F only.
(2) A, C, D, F only
(3) A, B, C, D only
(4) A, B, C, E, F only
4. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
(1) Aorta
(2) Pulmonary artery
(3) Pulmonary vein
(4) Vena cava
5. Which one of the following statements refers to reductionist biology?
(1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
(2) Physiological approach to study and understand, living organisms.
(3) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
(4) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
6. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
7. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Predation
(4) Amensalism
8. From the statements given below choose the correct option:
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S
(1) A, B, C are true
(2) A, B, D are true
(3) A, B, E are true
(4) B, D, E are true
9. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
(1) National Park
(2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Zoos and botanical gardens
(4) Protected areas.
10. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
11. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
A. Emphysema
I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low
Ca++ in body fluid
B. Angina Pectoris
II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased
respiratory surface
C. Glomerulonephritis

III. Acute chest pain when not enough
oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
D. Tetany
IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
12. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce
nectar.
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water
pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
13. Which of the following is an example of non—distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
(1) Whisky
(2) Brandy
(3) Beer
(4) Rum
14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary.
Statement II: In a floral formula ⊕stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
15. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
(1) Curd production
(2) Ethanol production
(3) Liver disease treatment
(4) Removing clots from blood vessels
16. Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
(1) Chromosome X
(2) Chromosome Y
(3) Chromosome 1
(4) Chromosome 10
17. Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
(1) First and Second digit of fore limb
(2) First digit of hind limb
(3) Second digit of fore limb
(4) First digit of the fore limb
18. Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
(1) Ethylene
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Cytokinin
19. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Schizocoelomate
(4) Spongocoelomate
20. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I                                List-II
A. Head                    I. Enzymes
B. Middle piece       II. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome           III. Energy
D. Tail                     IV. Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2025 NEET Biology Answers
21. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, A, D, E, C
(2) B, A, E, C, D
(3) D, E, C, A, B
(4) E, D, C, B, A
22. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C Only.
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B and D Only
23. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) D only
(3) B only
(4) E only

24. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is Correct
25.
In the above represented plsmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
(1) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
(2) Blue color colonies will be selected.
(3) White color colonies will be selected.
(4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

26. Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
(1) Bacterium (2) Yeast (3) Virus (4) Phage
27. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction:
S – G + S# → S + S# – G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S# → another substrate
(1) Hydrolase
(2) Lyase
(3) Transferase
(4) Ligase
28. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
(2) Vascular bundles are scattered.
(3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
(4) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
29. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) D, E, A, C, B
(2) B, E, A, C, D
(3) B, E, A, D, C
(4) D, E, A, B, C
30. Which are correct:
A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill noncancerous cells.
C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients’ immune system and helps in destroying the
tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cells counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) B and D only
(2) D and E only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and C only
31. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
A. Centromere
I.Mitochondrion
B. Cilium
II. Cell Division
C. Cristae
III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane
IV. Phospholipid Layer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
32. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green
B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow
C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green
D. Carotenoids IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
33. Find the correct statements:
A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and E Only
(2) B and C Only
(3) B, C, D and E Only
(4) A, C, D and E Only
34. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:
(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Integument
(4) Aleurone layer
35. Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.
1.

2.

3.

4.

36. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure

1. A
2.B
3. D
4. C
37. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
38. A specialized membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:
(1) Mesosome
(2) Chromatophores
(3) Cristae
(4) Endoplasmic Reticulum
39. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) B, C, E only
(4) C, D, E only
40. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern
(2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
(3) Autosomal dominant pattern
(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
2025 NEET Biology Answers
41. Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?
(1) RuBisCo
(2) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Catalase
42. Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, E, B, D
(2) C, E, A, D, B
(3) A, C, E, D, B
(4) C, E, A, B, D
43. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
(1) S. R. Kashyap
(2) Ramdeo Misra
(3) Ram Udar
(4) Birbal Sahni
44. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase I. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained
C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained
D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
45. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refers to:
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) B, C, D only
46. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of
recombinant DNA.
Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are
found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
47. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base
B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide
C. Adenine III. Nucleoside
D. Alanine IV. Amino acid
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
48. Consider the following:
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the
male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for
males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of
menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B are true
(2) A and C are true
(3) B and D are true
(4) B and C are true
49. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:
(1) Free living
(2) Endoparasite
(3) Symbiotic
(4) Ectoparasite
50. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the
endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of
the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
2025 NEET Biology Answers
51. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
B. Non-albuminous II. Cotyledon of seed Monocot seed
C. Epiblast III. Groundnut
D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
52. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord, during the embryonic period, the
notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

53. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
54. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -
(1) Complementary dsRNA
(2) Inhibitory ssRNA
(3) Complementary tRNA
(4) Non-complementary ssRNA
55. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy
produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
(1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
(2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
(3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
56. Histones are enriched with -
(1) Lysine & Arginine
(2) Leucine & Lysine
(3) Phenylalanine & Leucine
(4) Phenylalanine & Arginine
57. The first menstruation is called:
(1) Menopause
(2) Menarche
(3) Diapause
(4) Ovulation
58. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone
C. Gastro-intestinal III. Atrial natriuretic tracts factor
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
59. The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
(1) Cofactor
(2) Coenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme
(4) Prosthetic group
60. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
(1) gm–2
(2) KCal m–2
(3) KCal m–3
(4) (KCal m–2)yr–1
61. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
(1) Analogy, convergent
(2) Homology, divergent
(3) Homology, convergent
(4) Analogy, divergent
62. With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/8 (4) Zero
63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one
nucleus.
Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing
the developing microspore mother cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correctexplanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
64. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female
gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
(1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
65. Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
(1) Petunia
(2) Datura
(3) Pea
(4) Chilli
66. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:
A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, D only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) E, A, B only
(4) C, D, E only
67. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in
fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
68. What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
(1) To separate the chromosomes
(2) To synthesize new DNA
(3) To repair damaged DNA
(4) To regulate cell growth
69. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
(1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(2) Seeds are naked.
(3) Seeds are absent.
(4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
70. Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases/strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C and D Only
(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) D Only
2025 NEET Biology Answers
71. Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
(1) Human body will elicit strong immune response
(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
(3) Because of structural variation
(4) Its bioavailability will be increased
72. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Pteridophyte I. Salvia
B. Bryophyte II. Ginkgo
C. Angiosperm III. Polytrichum
D. Gymnosperm IV. Salvinia
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
73. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
(1) George Gamow
(2) Francis Crick
(3) Jacque Monod
(4) Franklin Stahl
74. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. The Evil Quartet I. Cryopreservation
B. Ex situ conservation II. Alien species invasion
C. Lantana camara III. Causes of biodiversity losses
D. Dodo IV. Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
75. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the
hypothalamus?
(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
76. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B Only
(2) A and C Only
(3) B and C Only
(4) B, D and E Only
77. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
(1) Acquired Immunity
(2) Innate Immunity
(3) Cell-mediated Immunity
(4) Humoral Immunity
78. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Nutrient absorption
(4) Gaseous exchange
79. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
(1) Liver and intestine
(2) Liver and kidney
(3) Kidney and intestine
(4) Kidney and lower part of body
80. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
81. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
(1) It is active only in the dark.
(2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
(3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
(4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) C and D only
(2) A and B only
(3) D and E only
(4) B and C only
83. Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for redifferentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.
(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, C, E only
(3) A, D, E only
(4) B, D, E only
84. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
(1)  α(alpha)
(2) σ(sigma)
(3) ρ (rho)
(4) γ (gamma)
85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
(1) The statement is true for water but false for land
(2) The statement is true for both the environment
(3) The statement is false for water but true for land
(4) The statement is false for both the environment
86. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
(1) They are monozygotic twins.
(2) They are fraternal twins.
(3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
(4) They have 75% identical genetic content.
87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only
(3) C and D only (4) C and E only
88. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia
B. Relaxin II. Ovary
C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone III. Adrenal Medulla
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
89. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as
recombinant colonies.
Statement II: The colonies without blue colourhave DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as
recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
90. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
2025 NEET Biology Answers

2025 NEET Biology Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 24 Jun 2025 13:30:00 +0000

2025 NEET Biology Questions || 2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
1. (2) Succinate dehydrogenase
2. (2) 2n
3. (1) B, D, F only.
4. (4) Vena cava
5. (1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
6. (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
7. (1) Commensalism
8. (1) A, B, C are true
9. (3) Zoos and botanical gardens
10. (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
11.(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
12. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
13. (3) Beer
14. (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
15.(4) Removing clots from blood vessels
16. (3) Chromosome 1
17. (4) First digit of the forelimb
18. (4) Cytokinin
19. (2) Pseudocoelomate
20. (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
21. (1) B, A, D, E, C
22. (1) A, B and C Only.
23. (2) D only
24. (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is Correct
25. (3) White color colonies will be selected.
26. (1) Bacterium
27. (3) Transferase
28.(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
29. (3) B, E, A, D, C
30. (4) A and C only
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
31. (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
32.(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
33.(4) A, C, D and E Only
34. (4) Aleurone layer
35.3
36.4. C
37. (3) A is true but R is false.
38.(1) Mesosome
39. (2) B, C, D only
40. (2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
41. (4) Catalase
42. (2) C, E, A, D, B
43.(2) Ramdeo Misra
44.(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
45. (2) A, B, C only
46.(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
47.(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
48.(1) A and B are true
49.(4) Ectoparasite
50.(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
51. (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
52.(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
53.(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
54.(1) Complementary dsRNA
55. (3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
56.(1) Lysine & Arginine
57.(2) Menarche
58.(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
59.(3) Apoenzyme
60.(4) (KCal m–2)yr–1
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
61.(1) Analogy, convergent
62. (1) 1/4
63. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
64.(3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
65. (3) Pea
66.(4) C, D, E only
67. (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
68. (1) To separate the chromosomes
69.(2) Seeds are naked.
70. (2) B, C and D Only
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
71.(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
72.(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
73.(1) George Gamow
74.(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
75.(2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
76.(2) A and C Only
77.(2) Innate Immunity
78.(2) Asexual reproduction
79.(4) Kidney and lower part of body
80.(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2025 NEET Biology Practice Test (90 Exam Questions)
81.(4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
82. (1) C and D only
83.(1) A, B, C only
84.(3) ρ(rho)
85.(3) The statement is false for water but true for land
86.(2) They are fraternal twins.
87.(2) A and C only
88.(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
89.(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
90.2

NEET Biology 2024 (Re Exam ) Questions with Answers -Botany Part -1

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Mon, 20 Jan 2025 08:28:00 +0000

1. The regions with high level of species richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of 70% of the species and habitat are identified as:

(1) Natural Reserves

(2) Sacred Groves

(3) Biodiversity Hotspots

(4) Biogeographical Regions

2. Which of the following simple tissues are commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and pulp of pear?

(1) Sclereids

(2) Fibres

(3) Parenchyma

(4) Collenchyma

3. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence, responsible for initiating replication. It is called as:

(1) Recognition sequence

(2) Cloning site

(3) Restriction site

(4) ori site
4. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When many alleles of a single gene govern a character, it is called polygenic inheritance.
Statement II: In Polygenic inheritance, the effect of each allele is additive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
5. Which of the following are required for the light reaction of Photosynthesis?
A. CO2
B. O2
C. H2
O D. Chlorophyll
E. Light
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, D and E only
(2) C, D and E only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, C and E only
6. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

A. Fleming I. Disc shaped sacs or cisternae near cell nucleus

B. Robert Brown II. Chromatin

C. George Palade III. Ribosomes

D. Camillo Golgi IV. Nucleus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

7. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

Type of Inheritance Example

A. Incomplete dominance I. Blood groups in human

B. Co-dominance II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum

C. Pleiotropy III. Skin colour in human

D. Polygenic inheritance IV. Phenylketonuria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
8. Which part of the ovule stores reserve food materials?

(1) Nucellus

(2) Integument

(3) Placenta

(4) Funicle
9. Which one of the following is not found in Gymnosperms?

(1) Sieve cells

(2) Albuminous cells

(3) Tracheids

(4) Vessels
10. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?
(1) Wild-life sanctuary
(2) Botanical garden
(3) Biosphere reserve
(4) National park
Answers:
1. (3) Biodiversity Hotspots
2. (1) Sclereids
3. (4) ori site
4. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
5. (2) C, D and E only
6. (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
7. (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
8. (1) Nucellus
9. (4) Vessels
10. (2) Botanical garden

List-I	List-II
A. Emphysema	I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid
B. Angina Pectoris	II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface
C. Glomerulonephritis	III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
D. Tetany	IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

List-I	List-II
A. Centromere	I.Mitochondrion
B. Cilium	II. Cell Division
C. Cristae	III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane	IV. Phospholipid Layer

NEET Biology

CUET UG Biology Comprehension 2

CUET UG Biology Comprehension

CUET UG 2025 Biology Questions and Answers

Biology Quiz

1. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

List 2 (Characteristics)

2. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

List 2 (Feature)

3. Match the following:

List 1 (Term)

List 2 (Feature)

4. Match the following:

List 1 (Enzyme)

List 2 (Function)

5. Match the following:

List 1 (Genetic disorders)

List 2 (Characteristics)

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

2025 CUET UG Biology Practice Test

1. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to T H Morgan?

2. Arrange the following spermatogenic cells in correct sequence of Spermatogenesis.

3. Which of the following drinks are produced by distillation?

4. Which one of the following is/are inverted pyramid in an ecosystem?

5. Arrange the following wall layers of microsporangium starting outer to inner.

6. Arrange the following historical events in the history of life in chronological order?

7. Arrange the following events in correct order pertaining to sewage treatment plant.

8. Arrange the following ducts pertaining to male reproductive system starting from seminiferous tubules.

9. Select the components that are needed to set up a polymerase chain reaction.

10. The cause of biodiversity loss are:

11. Arrange the following cells in correct sequence of oogenesis.

2025 CUET UG Biology Question Paper || CUET Biology Practice Test

CUET UG Question Paper 2025 || CUET Biology Practice Test

CUET Biology Practice Test

Biology Quiz

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KCET 2025 Practice Test || Biology Exam Questions 41-50

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Your Results:

NEET Biology Practice Test || Exam Questions 81-90

(NEET Biology Practice Test|| Exam Questions 81-90)

81. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?A. Restriction enzymesB. DNA ligaseC. DNA mutaseD. DNA recombinaseE. DNA polymeraseChoose the correct answer from the options given below:

84. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.Choose the correct answer from the following:

86. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?A. Aspergillus nigerB. LactobacillusC. Trichoderma polysporumD. Saccharomyces cerevisiaeE. Propionibacterium sharmaniiChoose the correct answer from the options given below:

88. Match List-I with List-II.List-I: A. Progesterone, B. Relaxin, C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone, D. CatecholaminesList-II: I. Pars intermedia, II. Ovary, III. Adrenal Medulla, IV. Corpus luteumChoose the correct answer from the options given below:

90. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

Quiz Results

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test || Questions (71-80)

2025 NEET Biology Practice Test||Questions (71-80)

71. Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

72. Match List-I with List-II.List-I: A. Pteridophyte, B. Bryophyte, C. Angiosperm, D. GymnospermList-II: I. Salvia, II. Ginkgo, III. Polytrichum, IV. SalviniaChoose the option with all correct matches.

73. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

74. Match List-I with List-II.List-I: A. The Evil Quartet, B. Ex situ conservation, C. Lantana camara, D. DodoList-II: I. Cryopreservation, II. Alien species invasion, III. Causes of biodiversity losses, IV. ExtinctionChoose the option with all correct matches.

75. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

76. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:A. Respiration and LocomotionB. Excretion and LocomotionC. Capture and transport of foodD. Digestion and RespirationE. Digestion and ExcretionChoose the correct answer from the options given below:

77. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

78. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

79. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :

Quiz Results

NEET Biology Practice test || Exam Questions 61-70

82. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

85. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following:

87. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

88. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Progesterone, B. Relaxin, C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone, D. Catecholamines
List-II: I. Pars intermedia, II. Ovary, III. Adrenal Medulla, IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

72. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Pteridophyte, B. Bryophyte, C. Angiosperm, D. Gymnosperm
List-II: I. Salvia, II. Ginkgo, III. Polytrichum, IV. Salvinia
Choose the option with all correct matches.

74. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. The Evil Quartet, B. Ex situ conservation, C. Lantana camara, D. Dodo
List-II: I. Cryopreservation, II. Alien species invasion, III. Causes of biodiversity losses, IV. Extinction
Choose the option with all correct matches.

76. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

66. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:
A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

70. Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases/strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

51. Match List I with List II.
List I: A. Scutellum, B. Non-albuminous, C. Epiblast, D. Perisperm
List II: I. Persistent nucellus, II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed, III. Groundnut, IV. Rudimentary cotyledon
Choose the option with all correct matches.

58. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I: A. Heart, B. Kidney, C. Gastro-intestinal tracts, D. Adrenal Cortex
List - II: I. Erythropoietin, II. Aldosterone, III. Atrial natriuretic factor, IV. Secretin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

45. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refers to:
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

47. Match List I with List II.
List I: A. Adenosine, B. Adenylic acid, C. Adenine, D. Alanine
List II: I. Nitrogen base, II. Nucleotide, III. Nucleoside, IV. Amino acid
Choose the option with all correct matches.

31. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Centromere, B. Cilium, C. Cristae, D. Cell membrane
List-II: I. Mitochondrion, II. Cell Division, III. Cell movement, IV. Phospholipid Layer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

32. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: A. Chlorophyll a, B. Chlorophyll b, C. Xanthophylls, D. Carotenoids
List-II: I. Yellow-green, II. Yellow, III. Blue-green, IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
Choose the option with all correct matches.

22. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

23. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

27. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction:
S – G + S# → S + S# – G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S# → another substrate