NURSING WRITTEN TEST SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Sri Venkateswara Institute of Medical Sciences (SVIMS), Tirupati – Walk-in Recruitment 2026

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Sun, 01 Mar 2026 09:07:00 +0000

MRC Project – Cancer Awareness & Screening Programme | Salary up to ₹60,000 | Walk-in Interviews from 03 to 06 March 2026

Sri Venkateswara Institute of Medical Sciences (SVIMS), Tirupati has released an official Walk-in-Interview Notification dated 26.02.2026 for recruitment under the MRC Project titled:

“Evaluation of Cancer Awareness and Screening Programme – An Implementation Research in Tirupati District, Andhra Pradesh”

The appointments are purely on a contractual basis for one year on consolidated monthly remuneration.

Important Note: As per the notification applicable to TTD institutions, Persons professing Hindu Religion shall only apply.

🔔 SVIMS Recruitment 2026 – Vacancy Details

A total of 24+ contractual posts are available across multiple categories.

1️⃣ Medical Officer – 04 Posts

Salary: ₹60,000/- per month
Qualification:

MBBS (Recognized by NMC)
Registration under MCI/NMC
Desirable: Experience in community-based cancer screening projects

2️⃣ Staff Nurse – 04 Posts

Salary: ₹38,700/- per month
Qualification:

B.Sc. Nursing + AP Nursing Council Registration
OR
GNM (3 years) + Midwifery (6 months) + 3 years experience
Desirable: Cancer awareness & screening experience

3️⃣ ANM – 04 Posts

Salary: ₹29,900/- per month
Qualification:

SSC
ANM/MPHW Training (AP Govt. recognized)
2 years experience
AP Nursing/Midwifery Council Registration

4️⃣ Mammography Technician – 02 Posts

Salary: ₹37,600/-
Qualification: B.Sc. with Medical Imaging / Radiography OR Intermediate + CRA/DMIT + 5 years experience
Must be registered with APPMB

5️⃣ Cardiovascular Technician Grade II – 02 Posts

Salary: ₹37,600/-
Qualification: B.Sc. / PG Diploma in Cardio Vascular Technology
Experience: 1 year
Registration: APPMB mandatory

6️⃣ Data Entry Operator – 02 Posts

Salary: ₹28,200/-
Qualification:

Bachelor’s Degree
Computer Knowledge
Typewriting Higher Grade (English)

7️⃣ Public Relations Officer – 02 Posts

Salary: ₹45,800/-
Qualification: Degree + PG Diploma in Public Relations
Experience: 2 years in hospital/medical college/PSU

8️⃣ Medico Social Worker – 02 Posts

Salary: ₹45,800/-
Qualification: PG in Social Work (Medical & Psychiatric Specialization)
Experience: 1 year in tertiary hospital

9️⃣ Electrician – 02 Posts

Salary: ₹32,600/-
Qualification: SSC + ITI/D.E.E Electrical
Experience: 3 years

🔟 Driver – 02 Posts

Salary: ₹27,500/-
Qualification: SSC + Valid HMV License
Experience: 2 years
Height: Minimum 5’4”
Vision: Normal (without glasses)

👩‍⚕️ Gender Eligibility

Only Female candidates – Sl. No. 01 to 06 & 08
Only Male candidates – Sl. No. 07, 09 & 10

📅 Walk-in Interview Schedule

Venue:
Committee Hall, Old Director Office
SVIMS, Alipiri Road, Tirupati – 517507

Post Category	Reporting Date	Time
Medical Officers, Medico Social Workers, Data Entry Operators, Electricians, Drivers	03.03.2026 (Tuesday)	10:00 AM – 12:00 Noon
Mammography Technicians, Cardiovascular Technicians Gr.II, Public Relations Officers	04.03.2026 (Wednesday)	10:00 AM – 12:00 Noon
Staff Nurses & ANMs	05.03.2026 (Thursday)	10:00 AM – 12:00 Noon
Staff Nurses & ANMs	06.03.2026 (Friday)	10:00 AM – 12:00 Noon

⚠ Candidates reporting after stipulated time will not be allowed.
⚠ Interview may extend to next day.

🎯 Age Limit

Maximum Age: 42 Years
Age Relaxation:
- SC/ST – 5 Years
- BC – 5 Years
- EWS – 5 Years

(Age reckoned as on date of walk-in interview)

📄 Documents Required

Candidates must bring:

Filled application form (Download from official website)
Aadhar / Govt ID
SSC (Age proof)
Educational Certificates
Registration Certificates (NMC/AP Nursing Council/APPMB etc.)
Experience Certificates
Caste Certificate (if applicable)
Two Passport Size Photos

📌 Important Terms

Contract period: 1 Year (extendable based on performance & project requirement)
No TA/DA will be paid
Two months prior notice required for resignation
Posting may be transferred as per project needs
Consolidated pay subject to statutory deductions

🌐 Official Website

For application form and full notification, visit:
👉 https://svimstpt.ap.nic.in

Helpline:
📞 0877-2287777 / 0877-2282777 (Extn. 3057)
Timing: 9 AM – 1 PM & 2 PM – 5 PM (Except Sundays)

🏥 Why Apply for SVIMS Recruitment 2026?

Government Institute under prestigious healthcare system
Attractive consolidated salary up to ₹60,000
Opportunity to work in Cancer Awareness & Screening Project
Community impact-based healthcare initiative
Tirupati location

Link Description	Link
Official Notification PDF	Click here
Apply Walk-in	Click here
Official Website	Click here

Paediatrics Nursing MCQs with Answers for Staff Nurse Exam – Practice Questions

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Tue, 27 Jan 2026 14:06:00 +0000

Introduction

Paediatrics is a crucial subject for nursing students and staff nurses preparing for competitive exams. To help you strengthen your knowledge and improve your exam performance, we have compiled 20 practice MCQs in Paediatrics Nursing questions with correct answers and explanations. These questions cover neonatal care, infant development, breastfeeding, congenital conditions, and common pediatric disorders.

Paediatrics Nursing MCQs Practice

Paediatrics Nursing – MCQs Practice (41–60)

Score: 0 / 20

Paediatrics Nursing Practice Questions (1-20)

Below are the MCQs along with correct answers and reasoning to enhance your understanding:

1. Early neonatal period is considered for the first:

Options:

30 days of life
42 days of life
1 to 15 days of life
1 to 7 days of life ✅

Answer: 1 to 7 days of life
Explanation: Early neonatal period refers to the first 7 days of life, which is critical for newborn survival and adaptation.

2. Birth weight usually gets doubled by the age of:

Answer: 6 months ✅
Explanation: Most infants double their birth weight by 6 months, indicating proper growth and nutrition.

3. Baby usually achieves neck holding at the age of:

Answer: 3 months ✅
Explanation: Neck holding develops around 3 months, reflecting neuromuscular development.

4. Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched in:

Answer: 1991 ✅
Explanation: BFHI was jointly developed by WHO and UNICEF and launched in 1991 to promote breastfeeding and newborn care.

5. Components of under-five clinic include:

Answer: Both growth monitoring & family planning ✅
Explanation: Under-five clinics focus on growth monitoring, illness care, family planning, and health education.

6. Types of breast milk are:

Answer: Both foremilk/hindmilk and transition/mature milk ✅
Explanation: Breast milk varies from foremilk to hindmilk and changes as transition milk or mature milk.

7. Anterior fontanel closes by the age of:

Answer: 12–18 months ✅
Explanation: Anterior fontanel typically closes between 12–18 months.

8. Flag sign is observed in:

Answer: Kwashiorkor ✅
Explanation: The flag sign indicates protein deficiency in children, commonly seen in kwashiorkor.

9. Jaundice in neonates within 24 hours is called:

Answer: Pathological jaundice ✅
Explanation: Jaundice within 24 hours of birth is considered pathological and requires urgent evaluation.

10. Cyanotic heart disease is:

Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot ✅
Explanation: Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic congenital heart disease, causing low oxygen saturation.

11. Signs elicited in meningitis include:

Answer: Kernig and Brudzinski signs ✅
Explanation: Both signs indicate meningeal irritation in neonates and children.

12. Sign of dehydration in neonates:

Answer: Depressed fontanel ✅
Explanation: A depressed anterior fontanel indicates fluid loss and dehydration in infants.

13. Late onset neonatal sepsis occurs:

Answer: After 72 hours of birth ✅
Explanation: Sepsis after 72 hours of life is classified as late-onset neonatal sepsis.

14. Expanded form of UNICEF:

Answer: United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund ✅
Explanation: UNICEF works globally for child survival, education, and health programs.

15. Exclusive breastfeeding should be done for the first:

Answer: 6 months ✅
Explanation: WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months, followed by complementary feeding.

16. Symptoms not seen in nephrotic syndrome include:

Answer: Hydrocephalus ✅
Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome features anasarca, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminaemia, but not hydrocephalus.

17. Children can draw a circle by the age of:

Answer: 3 years ✅
Explanation: At 3 years, children develop fine motor skills to draw a circle.

18. All temporary reflexes except:

Answer: Blinking reflex ✅
Explanation: Blinking reflex persists throughout life, while rooting, Moro, and Doll’s eye reflexes are temporary neonatal reflexes.

19. Three Cs in tracheoesophageal fistula include all except:

Answer: Cirrhosis ✅
Explanation: TEF features coughing, choking, and cyanosis, but cirrhosis is unrelated.

20. Vitamin D deficiency can result in:

Answer: Rickets ✅
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to softened bones and rickets in children.

Conclusion

These Paediatrics Nursing MCQs with answers are essential for Staff Nurse exam preparation. Practicing such model questions will help you:

Understand neonatal and child care concepts
Improve exam speed and accuracy
Strengthen clinical knowledge

Save this page, practice regularly, and check your answers to ensure maximum preparation for paediatrics nursing sections in competitive exams.

Nursing Questions 2025

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Fri, 11 Apr 2025 12:21:00 +0000

Nursing Questions

1) Optic Nerve Carry information from............ to ............

2) How many Pairs of Cranial Nervers present in the Human Body?

3) Herpes is a ........... Infection

4) Hepatitis is the inflammation of the..........

4) peritonitis is ..........

Answers for the above Nursing questions

1) Optic Nerve Carry information from Eye to Brain
2) 12 Pairs of Cranial Nervers present in the Human Body?
3) Herpes is a Viral Infection

4) Hepatitis is the inflammation of the Liver

4) peritonitis is Inflammation of Peritonium

Latest Nursing Job Vacancies listed here

GNM Nursing jobs- Click here

B.Sc Nursing jobs- Click here

M.Sc Nursing jobs- Click here

ANM Nursing jobs- Click here

Preparing for the Nursing Selection Test: Essential questions are here

noreply@blogger.com (Sanju) — Tue, 14 Jan 2025 15:09:00 +0000

Preparing for the Nursing Selection Test: Essential questions are here

Question No. 1. You are cleaning a client’s partial dentures, which have a metal clasp. Which of the

following actions are best on your part?

A. Place a washcloth in the sink where you are cleaning.

B. Remove the partial dentures by the metal clasp.

C. Use hot water to rinse the dentures after cleaning.

D. Soak the partial plate with the metal clasp overnight.

Answer: A

Question No. 2. In Freudian theory, the __________ is the "executive" structure that is directed by the

reality principle.

a) Id

b) Libido

c) Superego

d) Ego

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

Question No. 3 . The nurse giving discharge instructions advises the client to get out of bed slowly

and to get up in stages from lying to sitting to standing. The client understands that the

reason for doing this is:

A. to prevent falls.

B. to improve circulation.

C. as a warm-up exercise.

D. to increase oxygenation.

Answer: A

Question No. 4. The first heart sound occurs in

a) Iso-volumetric contraction

b) Rapid ejection phase

c) Isovolumetric relaxation

d) Atrial systole

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

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Question No. 5. A fellow nurse who is working on another unit asks to read the chart of your

assigned client. Which one of the following criteria would enable the nurse to have

access to the chart?

A. Be unrelated to the client.

B. Have a current nursing license.

C. Have client’s verbal permission.

D. Be directly involved in client’s care.

Answer: D

Question No. 6 Carbohydrate digesting enzyme present in mouth is

a) Amylase

b) Pepsin

c) Sucrase

d) Elastase

(Exercise: Comment your Answer) AIIMS 2013 Exam

Question No. 7. When taking a radial pulse for half a minute, the nurse finds it to be irregular.

Which of the following would be best for the nurse to do next?

A. Take the radial pulse for one minute.

B. Check the carotid pulse to see if it is irregular.

C. Assess the apical pulse.

D. Chart the radial pulse and the irregularities.

Answer: C

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

Question No. 8. Which Immunoglobulin crosses Placenta

a) Ig G

b) Ig M

c) Ig A

d) Ig D

(Exercise: Comment your Answer) AIIMS Exam

Question No. 9. Which Immunoglobulin crosses Placenta

a) Ig G

b) Ig M

c) Ig A

d) Ig D

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

Question No. 10. Communicable disease that is transmitted through orofecal route is

a) Hepatitis C

b) Typhoid

c) Measles

d) Pertussis

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

RRB Nursing Superintedant Exam Questions

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Sat, 24 Aug 2024 13:14:00 +0000

RRB Nursing Superintedant Exam Questions

The RRB Nursing Superintedant Exam Model Questions published here with the help of www.nursingwork.in There are 10 Model Questions published here other Questions published earlier you can find at our Nursing Question Papers Bundle

RRB NS Question No. #1. Parkinsonism includes combination of the following:

a) Tremor, bradykinesia and muscle rigidity

b) Paresis, anesthesia and muscle spasticity

c) Chorea and muscle hypotonia

d) Tremor, ataxia and muscle hypotonia

RRB NS Question No. #2 . When you encounter the victim of an electrical-current injury who is still holding

an electrical appliance, you would do which of the following things first?

A. Move the client to a safe place immediately.

B. Unplug the electrical cord before moving client.

C. Shut off the electrical current.

D. Check for a carotid pulse and for respirations.

Answer: C

More Question Published by one of the Youtube Nursing Tutor also given here for your reference

RRB NS Question No. #3. Which of the following vitamin is soluble in fat

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin C

c) Vitamin B

d) None

RRB NS Question No. #4 . While giving a shift report on your assigned client, you realize that you forgot to

record a nursing procedure done on your client. Which of the following methods of

documentation would be best on your part?

A. Write the procedure between the two lines of your shift documentation closest to the occurrence.

B. Find a blank space in your earlier charting, and chart the procedure in that space.

C. Tell the oncoming nurse to chart the procedure for you and to cite the time it was done.

D. Chart the current date and time and “Late entry,” indicating when and what was done.

Answer: D

RRB NS Question No. #5. The span of human Red Blood Cell is about days.

(a) 60 (b) 80

RRB NS Question No. #6. The first heart sound occurs in

a) Iso-volumetric contraction

b) Rapid ejection phase

c) Isovolumetric relaxation

d) Atrial systole

RRB NS Question No. #7 . When reading an autopsy report, the nurse encounters the term “mid-sagittal

plane.” This nurse understands that this means the body was viewed using a plane that

matched which of the following descriptions?

A. This plane cuts the body horizontally.

B. This plane divides the body into front and back portions.

C. The body is separated into left and right equal portions.

D. The body is divided using an X across the chest.

Answer: C

RRB NS Question No. #8. Receptors for colour vision are…………

a) Rodes

b) Bipolar cells

c) Cones

d) Ganglion cells

RRB NS Question No. #9. What should be the minimum gap between two doses of Vitamin A under UIP?

(a) 4 months

(b) 5 months

(d) 7 months

RRB NS Question No. #10 . When examining the client’s abdomen, the nurse will most facilitate the

examination by positioning the client in which of the following ways?

A. supine with small pillows beneath knees and head

B. semi-Fowler’s position with knees extended

C. sitting in the chair with legs elevated

D. supine with arms extended and hands behind head

Answer: A

Railway Nursing Question Answer- Click here

10 AIIMS Nurses Recruitment Questions 2024

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Wed, 03 Jul 2024 12:29:00 +0000

10 AIIMS Nurses Recruitment Questions 2024

The following AIIMS Staff Nurse or Nursing Officer exam solved question paper is available for nurses preparing to take the AIIMS Nurses Recruitment Examination. The document consists of 10 questions with answers provided at the end of the post. A downloadable pdf version of this question paper is also accessible.

Question *1. Which of the following categories of needs occupy the lowest position in Maslow's

hierarchy of needs

a) Need for safety and security b) Physiological needs

c) Affiliation needs d) Self-actualization

Question *2. When the nurse problem solves and has implemented a solution from several

solutions identified, the nurse most needs to do which of the following things?

A. Discard the solutions that were not selected for implementation.

B. Implement a second solution, comparing its usefulness with the first solution.

C. Evaluate the effectiveness of the solution implemented.

D. Consider the problem solving completed in this case.

Answer: C

AIIMS 2013 Exam

Question *3. A father scolds his son when he hits his little sister. The son stops

hitting the sister. The change in the child's behaviour is a result of

a) Positive reinforcement

b) Negative reinforcement

c) Learned Helplessness

d) Punishment

Question *4 . The client you are assigned to has four nursing diagnoses.

Which of the following would you assign the highest priority?

A. chest pain related to cough secondary to pneumonia

B. self-care deficit related to activity intolerance secondary to sleep-pattern disturbance

C. risk for altered family processes secondary to hospitalization

D. self-esteem deficit situational

Answer: A

Question *5 . Which of the following activities on the part of the nurse most demonstrates

individualization of the nursing-care plan for a client?

A. Include client’s preferred times of care and methods used.

B. Write the care plan instead of taking it off the computer.

C. Use a care plan from a book but add some things to it.

D. Select nursing diagnoses that match the client’s problems

Answer: A.

Repeated AIIMS 2018 Exam

Question *6. Respiratory distress syndrome of newborn is due to

a) Deficient surfactant

b) Lung collapse

c) Lung infection

d) Pulmonary hypertension

Question *7. When working with clients experiencing pain, you will define their pain in regard

to whether they have pain or not and how intense it is based on which of the following

things?

A. nursing experience and expertise

B. the underlying cause of the pain

C. whatever the experiencing person says it is.

D. current medical and pharmacological research

Answer: C

Question *8. When pain impulses are transmitted via the A-delta fibers, which of the following

types of pain will your client have?

A. sharp, pricking pain

B. throbbing pain

C. burning pain

D. intermittent stabbing pain

Answer: A

Question *9 . Glomerular filtration rate is influenced by

a) Hydrostatic capillary pressure

b) Capillary oncotic pressure

c) Bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure

d) All of them

Question *10. What is used in acupuncture treatment?

(a) Finger Pressure

(b) Steam

(d) Massage & Perfumes

First Year Post Basic B.Sc Nursing Microbiology Question Paper

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Thu, 02 May 2024 07:33:00 +0000

First Year Post Basic B.Sc Nursing Microbiology Question Paper

First Year Post Basic B.Sc Nursing Supplementary Examinations

February 2024

Microbiology

(2016 Scheme)

Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 75

 Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly • Do not leave any blank pages between

answers • Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

 Answer all parts of a single question together • Leave sufficient space between answers

 Draw diagrams wherever necessary

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Long Essay: (12)

1. Define hospital-acquired infections. Write in detail about Hospital Infection Control

Committee and various infection control measures in health care setting. (2+2+8)

Short Essays: (2x7=14)

2. List the staining methods used in bacteriology. Give suitable examples. Write the

principle and importance of gram staining (2+2+3)

3. Name the viruses causing hepatitis. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B

virus (2+5)

Write short notes on: (5x5=25)

4. Needle stick injuries

5. Collection and transport of sample for blood culture

6. Dengue virus

7. Cryptococcosis

8. Roundworm infections

Answer briefly: (4x4=16)

9. Prophylaxis for rabies virus infection

10.Antimicrobial susceptibility testing for bacteria

11.IgG antibody

12.Widal test

Differentiate between (2x4=8)

13.Exotoxin and Endotoxin

14.Peripheral blood smear findings of P. vivax and P. falciparum

*****************

B.Sc Nursing Question Papers Kerala

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Tue, 30 Apr 2024 06:10:00 +0000

KERALA UNIVERSITY B.SC NURSING QUESTION PAPERS 2024

First Semester B.Sc Nursing Degree Regular/Supplementary

Examinations April 2024

Paper II – Applied Anatomy and Applied Physiology

Time: 3 Hrs Total Marks: 75

 Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly • Do not leave any blank pages between

answers • Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

 Answer all parts of a single question together • Leave sufficient space between answers

 Draw diagrams wherever necessary

Section A – Applied Anatomy

Q.P. CODE: 122010 Max. Marks: 37

Multiple Choice Questions (6x1=6)

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(choose the most appropriate answer from the options given)

1. Following are the parts of brainstem except

a) Cerebellum b) Midbrain c) Medulla d) Pons

2. Hassall’s corpuscles are found in

a) Palatine tonsil b) Lymph node c) Spleen d) Thymus

3. Following nerve is a cranial nerve

a) Axillary b) Median c) Tibial d) Facial

4. Pulmonary veins open into

a) Left atrium b) Left ventricle c) Right atrium d) Right ventricle

5. Fertilization takes place in the following part of fallopian tube

a) Ampulla b) Isthmus c) Intramural d) Infundibulum

6. Following is the covering of testes

a) Tunica adventitia b) Tunica albuginea c) Tunica intima d) Tunica media

Essay (1x10=10)

7. Mention the parts of respiratory system. Describe right lung in detail (2+8)

Short notes (3x5=15)

8. Blood supply of heart

9. Ovary

10.Spinal cord

Differentiate between (3x2=6)

11.Microscopic anatomy of thick skin and Thin skin

12.Jejunum and Ileum.

13.Eversion and Inversion

(PTO)

Section B – Applied Physiology

Q.P. CODE: 123010 Max. Marks: 38

Multiple Choice Questions (7x1=7)

(choose the most appropriate answer from the options given)

1. The normal serum sodium level is

a) 4 meq/L b) 109 meq/L c) 142 meq/L d) 8 mg/dL

2. Intercalated disks are present in which muscle

a) Skeletal b) Cardiac c) Smooth d) All the muscles

3. Cretinism is due to deficiency of ………….. hormone

a) Growth b) Thyroid c) Prolactin d) PTH

4. Steatorrhea refers to

a) Fatty stools b) Watery stools c) Blood in stools d) Mucus in stools

5. The first heart sound occurs in

a) Iso-volumetric contraction b) Rapid ejection phase

c) Isovolumetric relaxation d) Atrial systole

6. Respiratory distress syndrome of newborn is due to

a) Deficient surfactant b) Lung collapse

c) Lung infection d) Pulmonary hypertension

7. Glomerular filtration rate is influenced by

a) Hydrostatic capillary pressure b) Capillary oncotic pressure

c) Bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure d) All of them

Essay (1x10=10)

8. What is the normal respiratory rate. Describe the regulation of respiration. Add a note on

hypoxia. (1+6+3)

Short notes (3x5=15)

9. Erythropoiesis

10.Functions of the cranial nerves

11.Functions of liver

Give reasons for the following (3x2=6)

12.Cardiac muscle cannot be tetanized

13.Bile salts are essential for health

14.Middle ear infections can cause deafness

**********************************

Nursing Exam Questions with Answer 2024 available

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Sat, 03 Feb 2024 07:32:00 +0000

Nursing Exam Questions with Answer 2024 available

The Solved Multiple Choice Questions of Nurses Recruitment Examination conducted to select suitable candidates by various Recruitment Agencies/ Government Boards is published below. It will be useful for preparing the future recruitment examination of Nursing Officer/ Staff Nurse

Question Paper Format: Pdf/ png/ Txt

Total No. of Questions: 20

1. Which correct instruction to be followed in the discharge teaching of a patient following a spinal fusion?

a) Don’t use the stairs

b) Don’t bend at the waist

c) Don’t walk for long hours

d) Swimming should be avoided

Ans: b

2. What is the most common clinical explanation of G6PD following ingestion of aspirin?

a) Kidney failure

b) Acute hemolytic anemia

c) Hemophilia A

d) Thalassemia

Ans: B

3. A client who is in isolation requires a temperature taken many times a day. Where is the exact place for the thermometer to be kept?

a) At the nurses’ station.

b) On the isolation cart outside the client’s room.

c) In the dirty utility room.

d) In the patient’s room.

Ans: d

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4. Choose the option that best illustrates how persons affected by Parkinson’s disease typically walk?

a) Long, steady gaits

b) They drag their feet while taking small steps

c) Fast movement of the feet

d) Always needs support from assistive devices

Ans: b

5. The nurse evaluates a patient with an ileostomy for possible growth of which of the following acid-base imbalances?

a) Respiratory acidosis

b) Metabolic acidosis

c) Metabolic alkalosis

d) Respiratory alkalosis

Ans: b

6. The nurse expects which of the following responses in a

patient who grow metabolic acidosis.

a) Heart rate of 105 bpm

b) Urinary output of 15 ml

c) Respiratory rate of 30 cpm

d) Temperature of 39 degree Celsius

Ans: c

7. A patient who is dealing with pain during the first stage of labor. What is the best way a nurse can use to instruct the patient to manage the pain?

a) Walk in the hospital room.

b) Use slow chest breathing.

c) Request pain medication on a regular basis.

d) Lightly massage her abdomen.

e) Sip ice water.

Ans: a, b, d

8. The nurse is observing a child with burns during treatment for burn shock. Which of the following evaluation provides the most correct guide to knowing the adequacy of fluid resuscitation?

a) Skin turgor

b) Level of edema at burn site

c) Adequacy of capillary filling

d) Amount of fluid tolerated in 24 hours

Ans: a

9. The nurse is training a mother whose daughter deals with iron-deficiency anemia. The nurse demonstrates the parent understood the dietary modifications if she chooses?

a) Bread and coffee

b) Fish and Pork meat

c) Cookies and milk

d) Oranges and green leafy vegetables

Ans: d

10. A nurse who is caring for a child with pyloric stenosis should look for symptoms of?

a) Vomiting large amounts

b) Watery stool

c) Projectile vomiting

d) Dark-colored stool

Ans: c

11. What symptoms is common in patients dealing with active tuberculosis?

a) Weight loss.

b) Increased appetite.

c) Dyspnea on exertion.

d) Mental status changes.

Ans: a

12. A client with a severe asthma attack has the following arterial blood gas: pH 7.33; PCO2 48; PO2 58; HCO3 26. A nurse has to perform first?

a) Albuterol (Proventil) nebulizer.

b) Chest x-ray.

c) Ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler.

d) Sputum culture.

Ans: a

13. What will be the steps for adult CPR if a patient is found unresponsive?

a) Assess consciousness

b) Give 2 breaths

c) Perform chest compression

d) Check for serious bleeding and shock

e) Open patient’s airway

f) Check breathing

Ans: a, e, f, c, b, d

14.A client possessing a phosphorus level of 5.0mg/dL. The nurse closely assess the patient for?

a) Signs of tetany

b) Elevated blood glucose

c) Cardiac dysrhythmias

d) Hypoglycemia

Ans: a

15. A client having multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing bowel incontinence and is going through a bowel retraining program. Which strategy is not correct?

a) Eating a diet high in fiber.

b) Setting a regular time for elimination.

c) Using an elevated toilet seat.

d) Limiting fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day.

Ans: d

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part I

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part III

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part IV

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part V

16. A nurse often evaluates a post-thyroidectomy patient for?

a) Polyuria

b) Hypoactive deep tendon reflex

c) Hypertension

d) Laryngospasm

Ans: d

17. An 18-month-old baby is having a rounded belly, a slightly large head and bowlegs. The nurse assumes?

a) The child appears to be a normal toddler

b) The child is developmentally delayed

c) The child is malnourished

d) The large head of the child may have neurological problems.

Ans: a

18. What should a nurse perform before taking the client’s history?

a) Offer the client a glass of water

b) Establish rapport

c) Ask the patient to undress and put on a gown

d) Ask relevant information for insurance purposes

Ans: b

19. The harmful outcome for post hemodialysis is a drop in?

a) Creatinine

b) BUN

c) Phosphorus

d) Red blood cell count

Ans: d

20. If there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the closed chest drainage system, what will occur?

a) The connection has been taped too tightly

b) The connection tubes are kinked

c) Lung expansion

d) Air leak in the system

Ans: d

AIIMS, Railway and other Staff Nurse Recruitment Objective Type Questions Part-31

Nursing COC Exam Questions

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Sat, 18 Nov 2023 06:06:00 +0000

Nursing COC Exam Model Questions-2023

Nursing COC exam questions From Question No. 1 to 14 Published here the answer will be published at www.nursingwork.in . You can also download all 100 question answers in pdf format by clicking below download link. These question also useful If you are planning to attend the upcoming KEA Nursing officer Examination, AIIMS Examination, UPSC Examination, HPPSC Examination, RRB Examination, PGI Examination, ESIC Examination

Nursing COC Exam Question No.1 . What complication should the nurse be alert for in a diabetic patient who has been placed in skeletal traction after a motor vehicle accident ?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Osteomyelitis

C. Osteoporosis

D. Osteosarcoma

Nursing COC Exam Question No.2. The part of the fetus which occupies the lower pole of the uterus is called?

A. Lie

B. Presentation

C. Denominator

D. Position

Nursing COC Exam Question No.3. There is blood on the floor. How should the nurse clean up the spill?

A. Wipe up the spill and then clean the area with alcohol.

B. Use a 1:9 solution of chlorine bleach to clean the spill.

C. Wipe up the spill and clean the area with water.

D. Use an iodine solution to clean up the spill.

Nursing COC Exam Question No.4 Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are found in

A. Open neural tube defect

B. Down syndrome

C. Multiple pregnancies

D. Rh-isoimmunisation

Nursing COC Exam Question No.5 . Thin superficial compact layer of decidua’s covering the blastocyst is called as?

A. Decidua basalis

B. Decidua capsularis

C. Decidua parietalis

D. Decidua Vera

Nursing COC Exam Question No 6. the First case of Covid positive case in India reported in?

A. Kerala

B. Tamilnadu

C. Gujarat

D. Maharashtra

Nursing COC Exam Question No.7 . The epithelial tissue which is found in the uterine tubes is?

A. Squamous

B. Ciliated

C. Columnar

D. simple

Nursing COC Exam Question No.8 . Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are found in

A. Open neural tube defect

B. Down syndrome

C. Multiple pregnancies

D. Rh-isoimmunisation

Nursing COC Exam Question No.9 . Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is called?

A. Flexion

B. Extension

C. Restitution

D. Descent

Nursing COC Exam Question No.10 . When caring for a client in hemorrhagic shock, how should the nurse position the client?

A. Flat in bed with legs elevated

B. Flat in bed

C. Trendelenburg position

D. Semi-sitting

Nursing COC Exam Question No.11. Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage

A. Bleeding disorders

B. Abruptio placenta

C. Placenta previa

D. Atonic uterus

Nursing COC Exam Question No.12. The type of abnormality where the umbilical cord is attached to membranes is called?

A. Battledore placenta

B. Velamentous placenta

C. Circumvallate placenta

D. Placenta marginata

Nursing COC Exam Question No.13. The total lung capacity in

a healthy adult male is approximate?

A. 500 mL

B. 5000 mL

C. 6000 mL

D. 6000 L

Comment your Answer- If you know

Nursing COC Exam Question No.14. The ideal roller bandage application for body parts where the thickness varies, such as over the forearm, is?

A. Simple spiral

B. Figure of eight

C. Reverse spiral

D. Divergent Spica

Nursing COC Exam Question No.15 . The physician has ordered mannitol IV for a client with a head injury with moderate TBI (trumatic brain injury) . What should the nurse closely monitor because the client is receiving mannitol?

A. Deep tendon reflexes

B. Urine output

C. Level of orientation

D. Pulse rate

More Than 38,000 Nursing Exam Question Answers available at this link

KEA Staff Nurse- Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part 5

noreply@blogger.com (Sanju) — Mon, 13 Nov 2023 06:41:00 +0000

KEA Staff Nurse- Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part 5

56. Which of the following is not a side effect

of salbutamol ?

(A) Muscle tremors

(B) Sedation

(D) Nervousness

57. Which is the drug of choice for severe &

complicated malaria ?

(A) Quinine

(B) Artesunate

(D) Chloroquine

58. Antidote for heparin is

(A) Protamine sulphate

(B) Vitamin K

(D) Aminodarone

59. The values of Correlation Coefficient varies

between

(A) –0.5 to +0.5

(B) –0.75 to +0.75

(D) None of these

60. The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographical area is called -

(A) Sporadic

(B) Epidemic

(D) Pandemic

61. Koplik's spots are clinical feature of -

(A) Chicken pox

(B) Pertusis

(D) Measles

62. Which of the following is is not constuent

of vital statistics?

(A) Birth rate

(B) Morbidity & Mortality rate

(D) Life expectancy

63. Route of administration of PPD for

Tuberculin Test is-

(A) SC

(B) ID

(D) IV

64. The first referral level in the health care system is -

(A) Primary Health Care

(B) Secondary Health care

(D) Premordial Health Care

65. Housefly is responsible for spread of -

(A) Diarrhoea

(B) Dysentary

(D) All of these

66. When did the Mental Health Bill became

Mental Health Act ?

(A) 1912

(B) 1985

(D) 1990

67. A freshly prepared ORS solution should be

used within -

(A) 24 hours

(B) 48 hours

(D) 06 hours

68. Ripeness of cervix is assessed by -

(A) Bishop score

(B) Apgar score

(D) New ballard score

69. Uterus is palpable at the level of symphysis at -

(A) 8th week

(B) 10th week

(D) 14th week

70. Normal duration for involution of Uterus is -

(A) 2 weeks

(B) 4 weeks

(D) 8 weeks

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions- Part II

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Mon, 16 Oct 2023 06:03:00 +0000

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions- Part II

2nd part of model questions for preparing upcoming KEA Nursing officer examination is published here

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions- Part II (question No. 21-40)

21. Gleno-humeral joint is also called -

(A) Hip joint

(B) Knee joint

(D) Elbow joint

22. Which blood group can be administered to

a patient in emergency when his blood

group is not known?

(A) 'O' negative

(B) 'O' positive

(D) 'AB' positive

23. The major constituent of the bone is -

(A) Calcium sulphate

(B) Sodium chloride

(D) Calcium phosphate

24. The protein factory in the human body

cell is -

(A) Nucleus

(B) Cytoplasm

(D) Ribosome

5 / 3

25. The posterior pituitary is mainly consists

of -

(A) T cells

(B) C cells

(D) Beta cells

26. Bell's palsy is a disorder of the cranial

nerve -

(A) 9th

(B) 7th

(D) 3rd

27. Which part of the brain control the body

temperature ?

(A) Pons

(B) Amygdala

(D) Liver

28. The 'Adam's Apple' is formed by -

(A) Epiglottis

(B) Cricoid cartilage

(D) Hyoid bone

29. Depolarisation in a nerve action potential is

due to -

(A) Opening of Pottasium channels

(B) Opening of Sodium channels

(D) Closing of Sodium channels

30. The recommended flow rate of oxygen via

nasal cannula is -

(A) 1- 4 litres/minute

(B) 1- 6 litres/minute

(D) 6- 8 litres/minute

31. The size of intrvenous cannula used for

neonate is -

(A) 24 gauze

(B) 22 gauze

(D) 18 gauze

32. Which of the following is not a physician

prescribed intervention?

(A) Drug administration

(B) Ordering diagnostic test

(D) Elevating an edematous limb

33. The practice of nursing is regulated by -

(A) State nurse practice Act

(B) Innstitutional policies

(D) International standards & Codes

34. Kussmaul breathing is associated with -

(A) Atelactasis

(B) Bronchial asthma

(D) Heart Failure

35. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration

is called -

(A) Hyperventilation

(B) Hypoventilation

(D) Cheyne-strokes respiration

36. What should be the size of the endotracheal

tube for a newborn weighing 2 to 3 kgms.?

(A) 4.0

(B) 3.50

(D) 2.50

37. Clinical death is also known as -

(A) Biological death

(B) Brain death

(D) Accidental death

38. Treatment of severe dehydration is -

(A) Start DNS immediately

(B) Start colloids immediately

(D) Combination of 5% dextrose with

Ringer's Lactate immediately

39. Common complication after perforation of

appendix -

(A) Haemorrhage

(B) Peritonitis

(D) Intestinal obstruction

40. Linear burrowing of a mite at finger webs,

wrists, elbow, ankles and penis is seen in

case of -

(A) Scabies

(B) Impetigo

(D) Herper zoster

Answers for the above model Questions

1 D 26 B 51 B 76 D

2 C 27 C 52 B 77 C

3 D 28 C 53 A 78 A

4 A 29 B 54 D 79 A

5 C 30 A 55 A 80 B

6 D 31 A 56 B 81 A

7 C 32 D 57 B 82 B

8 C 33 A 58 A 83 C

9 C 34 C 59 C 84 B

10 B 35 D 60 C 85 B

11 B 36 B 61 D 86 B

12 A 37 B 62 C 87 C

13 D 38 C 63 B 88 C

14 C 39 B 64 B 89 A

15 A 40 A 65 D 90 A

16 B 41 A 66 C 91 A

17 A 42 D 67 A 92 B

18 C 43 C 68 A 93 D

19 B 44 B 69 C 94 C

20 B 45 A 70 C 95 C

21 C 46 B 71 A 96 C

22 A 47 C 72 D 97 A

23 D 48 C 73 B 98 B

24 D 49 D 74 B 99 B

25 C 50 A 75 A 100 D

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part I

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part III

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part IV

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part V

General Nursing Exam Questions 2024

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Sat, 16 Sep 2023 06:26:00 +0000

General Nursing Exam Questions 2024

Some general nursing exam questions that may help you to prepare for an Nurses Recruitment Interview/ Written Exam/ CBT

What are the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?
How would you prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
What are the nursing interventions for a patient with diabetes?
What is the Normal Range of Glucose Level in Fasting and Post Prandial?
How would you prioritise care for multiple patients with different needs?
What are the signs and symptoms of dehydration in an elderly patient?
How would you assess a patient's pain level?
How would you assess a patient's respiratory status?
What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics?
What are the potential complications of immobility in a hospitalised patient?
What is the normal range for blood pressure in adults?
What care can you give immediately for a Chocking baby?
How can you stop Bleeding in Rectum?
How can you manage head Injury Patient found on Road Transport Accident you found while walking on road.
Dengue Fever Caused by which Mosquito and how you can prevent it?

Consult official study materials and resources to ensure you are adequately prepared for the DHA MOH ESIC NIMHANS, PGIMER, JPIMER, KIMS Nurses Recruitment Exam 2024

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Solved Question paper part 1

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Fri, 14 Jul 2023 11:50:00 +0000

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Solved Question paper part 1

The Nursing professor/ Assistant Professor Recruitment takes place every year in most of the Universities. The Nursing Questions little diffrent from Normal Nurses Recruitment Exam Questions. following are the model questions with answer for preparing the Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam

Note: This may also be asked in Nursing officer/ Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam

Question 1:-Fundamental postulates of Martha E. Rogers Theory include

A:-Conservation, adaptation, wholeness, integrity

B:-Transpersonal caring, caring relation, caring occasion, carative factor

C:-Energy field, openness, pattern, pan dimensionality

D:-Stabilization, reorganization, interaction, order

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 2:-Providing comprehensive client care across the continuum of practice setting is

A:-Case management

B:-Team nursing

C:-Modular nursing

D:-Primary nursing

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 3:-Essential components of goal include

A:-Target date, nursing action, criteria, desired behavior

B:-Expected behavior, diagnosis, intervention, subject

C:-Subject, behavior, nursing action, criteria

D:-Task statement, criteria, condition, time frame

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 4:-Educating clients regarding mental health is an example of adhering to

principle of

A:-Autonomy

B:-Beneficence

C:-Non maleficence

D:-Justice

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 5:-Endorsement by a specialized organization that nurse has certain

qualification that exceed basic competence is

A:-Licensure

B:-Accreditation

C:-Credentialing

D:-Standard practice

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 6:-First priority to be done when nurse make a medication error is

A:-Assess the patient's condition

B:-Notify physician in-charge

C:-Identify type of error

D:-Chart medicine in patient's record

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 7:-Elements of an evidence based practice question include

A:-Research design, level of evidence, method, source of funding

B:-Database, selection, evidence ranking, analysis

C:-Level of evidence, source of data, implication, standard practice

D:-Population, intervention, comparison, outcome

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 8:-Largest vein of heart is

A:-Great cardiac vein

B:-Coronary sinus

C:-Anterior cardiac vein

D:-Aortic sinus

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 9:-Most common monosaccharide in human diet is

A:-Fructose, glucose, galactose

B:-Sucrose, lactose, maltose

C:-Lysine, leucine, methionine

D:-Tryptophan, histidine, valine

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 10:-Intra muscular injections are given in

A:-Gluteus maximums

B:-Gluteus medius

C:-Gluteus superior

D:-Gluteus inferior

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Solved Question paper part 2 uploaded soon.

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Question paper with answer.pdf

Railway Nurses Recruitment Exam sample Questions 2023

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Sat, 08 Jul 2023 13:15:00 +0000

Railway Nurses Recruitment Exam sample Questions 2023

The useful question answers for upcoming Railway Staff Nurse/ Nursing officer Examination is pulblished here, there more than 10000 Raiway Question Answers available in this Blog

RRB Model Question No.1. Chickungunya fever is transmitted by the mosquito species

(a) Aedes (b) Culex

RRB Model Question No.2. About 60-80% of all reported cases of foodborne diseases are due to

(a) Staphylococcus aureus

(b) Salmonella

(d) Bacillus cereus

RRB Model Question No.3. An absolute contraindication for Oral Contraceptive Pill is

(a) Age over 40 years

(b) Mild hypertension

(d) Cancer of the breast

RRB Model Question No.4. Norplant is an example of a

(a) Subdermal implant

(b) Vaginal ring

(d) Second generation IUD

RRB Model Question No.5. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in the year

(a) 1975 (b) 1971

RRB Model Question No.6 The scope of family planning services includes:

(a) Advice on sterility

(b) The proper spacing and limitation of births

(d) All of the above

RRB Model Question No.7 A Net Reproduction Rate of 1 can be achieved only if the Couple Protection Rate exceeds

(a) 40% (b) 50%

Railway Staff Nurse Exam Model Questions

RRB Model Question No. 8 An example of Post-Conceptional method is

(a) Menstrual induction

(b) Subdermal implants

(d) Injectable contraceptives

RRB Model Question No.9 Rickettsial pox is transmitted by the insect vector:

(a) Louse (b) Flea

RRB Model Question No.10 Average incubation period of rubella is

(a) 10 days (b) 14 days

RRB Model Question No. 11 How many types of vaccines are there against Japanese Enceptialitis-?

(a) 1 (b) 2

RRB Model Question No. 12 All of the following are elements of primary health care. EXCEPT:

(a) Immunization against major infectious diseases

(b) Provision of essential drugs

(d) Camps for periodic health checkup

AIIMS, Railway and other Staff Nurse Recruitment Objective Type Questions Part-31

SGPGI 1974 Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Preperation Questions Solved

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Tue, 14 Feb 2023 16:59:00 +0000

SGPGI 1974 Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Preperation Questions Solved

Sanjay Gandhi Postgraduate Institute of Medical Sciences- SGPGI Invited applications for Recruitment of 1975 Staff Nurses in the month of February. The candidates who are appearing the examination are requested us to provide Examination Question Papers and Model Question Papers. Here we published some model Questions with answers which is useful for preparing not only SGPGI other Nursing Exams too. You can also find Nursing Question Papers for download at www.questionpapersdownload.com

Question No.1401. Chest circumference at birth is approximately
(a) 2 cm less than head circumference
(b) 4 cm less than head circumference
(c) 6 cm less than head circumference
(d) 3 cm less than head circumference

Question No.1402. The common cause of Neonatal Jaundice on
2nd or 3rd day is
(a) Blood group incompatibility
(b) Physiological
(c) Septicaemia
(d) Vacuum extraction

Question No.1403. The foetus receives oxygenated blood through

(a) Ductus arteriosus (b) Umbilical arteries
(c) Formen ovale (d) Umbilical vein

Question No.1404. Pasteurization means
(a) Killing only pathogenic organism
(b) Sterilization of milk
(c) Killing pathogenic and non pathogenic
organism
(d) Killing only spore forming organism

Question No.1405. Agent which kills bacteria is known as
(a) Bacteriocidal (b) Bacteriostatic
(c) Antiseptic (d) Antibiotic

Question No.1406. Which of the following is necessary for the
proper use of Calcium in the body?
(a) Chlorides (b) Iodine
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D

Question No.1407. The first indicator for PEM is
(a) Underweight for age
(b) Underweight for height
(c) Underheight for age
(d) Underweight for economic status

AIIMS ESIC RRB Railway Nursing Question Answer- Click here

Question No.1408. The richest source of Vitamin C per 100 gm is
(a) Amla (b) Guava
(c) Lime (d) Orange

Question No.1409. Daily caloric needs in pregnancy Kilo cal is
(a) 1000 (b) 1500
(c) 2500 (d) 3500

Question No.1410. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Measles
(c) Polio(d) D.P.T.

Answers for Above Questions

Answer for Question No. 1401 is Option A

Answer for Question No. 1402 is Option B

Answer for Question No. 1403 is Option D

Answer for Question No. 1404 is Option B

Answer for Question No. 1405 is Option A

Answer for Question No. 1406 is Option D

Answer for Question No. 1407 is Option A

Answer for Question No. 1408 is Option A

Answer for Question No. 1409 is Option B

Answer for Question No. 1410 is Option C

CHO Exam Nursing Question Answers 2022

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Fri, 18 Nov 2022 17:20:00 +0000

CHO Exam Nursing Question Answers 2022

National Health mission published Notification to recruit 10000+ Community Health Officers in the Year 2022. The Selection will be done after the Competative Examination (Computer Based Test) on Merit Basis. The Model Questions for Preparing the Nursing Staff Recruitment Computer Based Test is published below. You can also go throgh other Commission Recruitment Examinations question papers to gain more knowledge. Railway Staff Nurse Exam, AIIMS Nursing Officer Exam, OSSSC nursing officer Exam, PGIMER Nurses Recruitment Exam Railway Staff Nurse Recruitment Examination Question Papers may be helpful for preparing the Computer Based Test for Community Health Officer (CHO) Recruitment

Question No. 40181. MTP can be done up to:

a 12 weeks b 16 weeks

c 20 weeks d 10 weeks

Answer : A or C

Question No. 40182.Sharp instruments are sterilized under

a Dry heat b Boiling

c Fumigation d Radiation

Answer : A

Question No. 40183. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is

(a) normal saline (b) distilled water

Answer : A

Question No. 40184. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in

(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours

Answer : B

Question No. 40185. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at

(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week

Answer : A

Question No. 40186. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by

(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide

Answer : A

Question No. 40187. Source of most polio infections are

(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases

Answer : C

Question No. 40188.Which of the following Fontanel in child is the first to close?

a Frontal b Occipital

c Sphenoid d Mastoid

Answer : B

Question No. 40189.Fish is the source of all expcet?

a Iron b Iodine

c vitamin d phosphorus

Answer : A

Question No. 40190. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include

(a) IM injections (b) Tonsillectomy

Answer : D

30 ANM Nursing Exam Questions

noreply@blogger.com (Sanju) — Wed, 09 Nov 2022 14:42:00 +0000

30 ANM Nursing Exam Questions

ANM Nurses Recruitment Previous Question papers are most important for preparing the upcoming ANM Recruitment Examinations. Here we published 30 Questions for Sl. No. 991 to 1020, The Solved Question papers of ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam conducted in (Thiruvananthapuram) Madhya Pradesh (Bhopal) Maharashtra (Mumbai) Manipur (Imphal) Meghalaya (Shillong) Mizoram (Aizawl) Nagaland (Kohima) Odisha Uttarakhand (Dehradun) Uttar Pradesh (Lucknow) West Bengal (Kolkata) (Bhubaneshwar) Andhra Pradesh (Amaravati) Arunachal Pradesh (Itanagar) Assam (Dispur) Bihar (Patna) Chhattisgarh (Raipur) Goa (Panaji) Gujarat (Gandhinagar) Haryana (Chandigarh) Himachal Pradesh (Shimla) Jharkhand (Ranchi) Karnataka (Bangalore) Kerala Punjab (Chandigarh) Rajasthan (Jaipur) Sikkim (Gangtok) Tamil Nadu (Chennai) Telangana (Hyderabad) Tripura (Agartala) are uploaded in our website www.nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com.

ANM Question No 991-1000

ANM Question No 991.   In immunity school entrants with BCG, you not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document?

A.   PD 996
B.   RA 7864
C.   Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D.   Presidential Proclamation No. 46

ANM Question No 992.   Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

A.   DPT
B.   BCG
C.   Measles vaccination
D.   Hepatitis B vaccination

ANM Question No 993.   A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?

A.   DPT1
B.   OPV1
C.   Infant BCG
D.   Hepatitis B Vaccin

ANM Question No 994.    Based on the assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on the IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do?

A.   Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given
B.   Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours
C.   Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management
D.   Keep the infant in your health center for close observation

ANM Question No 995.   A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant’s temperature registered at 38.1 C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?

A.   Go on with the infants immunization
B.   Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside
C.   Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment
D.   Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well

ANM Question No 996.    Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of mutibacillary leprosy?

A.   3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
B.   3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
C.   5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
D.   5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

ANM Question No 997.   A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center of cough. Her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the IMCI guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered;

A.   Fast
B.   Slow
C.   Normal
D.   Insignificant

ANM Question No 998.   Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?

A.   Dyspnea
B.   Wheezing
C.   Fast breathing
D.   Chest indrawing

ANM Question No 999.   Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the child?

A.   Prescribe antibiotic
B.   Refer him urgently to the hospital
C.   Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
D.   Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding

ANM Question No 1000.   A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category?

A.   No signs of dehydration
B.   Some dehydration
C.   Severe dehydration

D.   The data is insufficient

ANM Questions Sl. No 1001-1010

ANM Question No 1001.    “Public health services are given free of charge”. Is this statement true or false?

A.   The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to provide haste services

B.   The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services
C.   The statement may be true or false; depending on the Specific service required
D.   The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned.

ANM Question No 1002.   A mother is using Oresol’ in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to:

A.   Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment
B.   Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy
C.   Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician
D.   Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly

ANM Question No 1003.   A 1 1/2 year old child was classified as having 3rd degree of protein energy malnutrition, kwashjorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this child?

A.   Voracious appetite
B.   Wasting
C.   Apathy
D.   Edema

ANM Question No 1004.   Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage this child?
A.   Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement
B.   Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program

C.   Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on the menu planning for her child
D.   Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism

ANM Question No 1005.   During the physical examination of a young child, what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that may observe?

A.   Keratomalacia
B.   Corneal opacity
C.   Night blindness
D.   Conjunctival xerosis

ANM Question No 1006.    Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?

A.   To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of
B.   To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs
C.   To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health
D.   To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children

ANM Question No 1007.   The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What part is best examined for pallor?

A.   Palms
B.   Nailbeds
C.   Around the lips
D.   Lower conjunctival sac

ANM Question No 1008.   Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items?

A.   Sugar
B.   Bread
C.   Margarine
D.   Filled milk

ANM Question No 1009.   What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?

A.   Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 3 months
B.   Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 IU of Retinol
C.   Instruct mother to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission
D.   Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies resistance

ANM Question No 1010.   A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?

A.   Inability to drink
B.   High grade fever
C.   Signs of severe dehydration
D.   Cough for more than 30 days

ANM Questions Sl. No 1011-1020

ANM Question No 1011.   Management of a child with measles includes the administration of which of the following?

A.   Gentian violet on mouth lesions
B.   Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia
C.   Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
D.   Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given

ANM Question No 1012.   A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever which started 4 days prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what will you do?

A.   Do a tourniquet test
B.   Ask where the family resides
C.   Get a specimen for blood smear
D.   Ask if the fever is present everyday

ANM Question No 1013.   The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent
mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever?

A.   Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B.   Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C.   Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas
D.   Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets

ANM Question No 1014.   Secondary prevention for malaria includes?

A.   Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B.   Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C.   Determining whether a place is endemic or not
D.   Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places

ANM Question No 1015.   Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal parasite?

A.   Ascaris
B.   Pinworm
C.   Hookworm
D.   Schistosoma

ANM Question No 1016.   Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB?

A.   Hematemesis
B.   Fever for 1 week
C.   Cough for 3 weeks
D.   Chest pain for 1 week

ANM Question No 1017.   Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category?

A.   Sputum negative cavitary cases
B.   Clients returning after default
C.   Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens
D.   Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam

ANM Question No 1018.   To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS?

A.   Having the health worker follow up the client at home
B.   Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake
C.   Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications
D.   Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs

ANM Question No 1019.   Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy?

A.   Macular lesions
B.   Inability to close eyelids
C.   Thickened painful nerves
D.   Sinking of the nose bridge

ANM Question No 1020.    You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had?

A.   Seizures a day after DPT1
B.   Fever for 3 days after DPT1
C.   Abscess formation after DPT1
D.   Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1

Solved Multiple Choice Nursing MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Fri, 14 Oct 2022 12:36:00 +0000

Solved Multiple Choice Nursing MCQ

The Solved Multiple Choice Questions of Nurses Recruitment Examination conducted to select suitable candidates by Service Commission is published below, which is collected from www.rightjobalert.com Nursing Exam Question papers page. It will be useful for preparing the future recruitment examination of Nursing Officer/ Staff Nurse

Question Paper Format: Pdf/ png

Total No. of Questions: 100

Answers Available- Click here

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Download Question paper in pdf format

Download Answer key in pdf format

Staff Nurse Nursing Officer Exam Solved Question Paper-100 Questions.pdf

IELTS LISTENING SAMPLE TASK

noreply@blogger.com (Sanju) — Fri, 05 Aug 2022 16:27:00 +0000

IELTS LISTENING SAMPLE TASK

On Request of Many Nursing Officers/Staff Nurses trying to fly abroad to work as a Nursing Staff, we published following IELTS Listening Recording Scripts, this may help you to prepare for IELTS Exam. The sample is collected from IELTS Web.

Tape script for IELTS Listening Recording 1

You will hear a telephone conversation between a customer and an agent at a company

which ships large boxes overseas.

A Good morning Packham’s Shipping Agents. Can I help you?

B Oh yes, I’m ringing to make enquiries about sending a large box, a container,

back home to Kenya from the UK.

A Yes, of course. Would you like me to try and find some quotations for you?

B Yes, that’d be great. Thank you.

A Well first of all, I need a few details from you.

B Fine.

A Can I take your name?

B It’s Jacob Mkere.

A Can you spell your surname, please?

B Yes, it’s M-K-E-R-E.

A Is that ‘M’ for mother?

B Yes.

A Thank you, and you say that you will be sending the box to Kenya?

B That’s right.

A And where would you like the box picked up from?

B From college, if possible.

A Yes, of course. I’ll take down the address now.

B It’s Westall College.

A Is that W-E-S-T-A-L-L?

B Yes, ... college.

A Westall College. And where’s that?

Listening sample task – Form completion (to be used with IELTS Listening Recording 1)

B It’s Downlands Road, in Bristol.

A Oh yes, I know it. And the postcode?

B It’s BS8 9PU.

A Right ... and I need to know the size.

B Yes, I’ve measured it carefully and it’s 1.5m long ...

A Right.

B 0.75m wide ...

A OK.

B And it’s 0.5m high or deep.

A Great. So I’ll calculate the volume in a moment and get some quotes for that. But

first can you tell me, you know, very generally, what will be in the box?

B Yes there’s mostly clothes.

A OK. [writing down]

B And there’s some books.

A OK. Good. Um ... Anything else?

B Yes, there’s also some toys.

A OK and what is the total value, do you think, of the contents?

B Well the main costs are the clothes and the books – they’ll be about £1500 but

then the toys are about another two hundred – so I’d put down £1700.

Listening sample task – Form completion (to be used with IELTS Listening Recording 1)

Answers:

1 Mkere

2 Westall

3 BS8 9PU

4 0.75 m/metre(s)/meter(s) (wide) / three(-)quarter(s) (of) (a) metre/meter (wide) /

¾ m (wide) / 75 cm(s) (wide)

5 0.5 m/metre(s)/meter(s) (high/deep) / (a) half (a) metre/meter (high/deep) /

½ m (high/deep) / 50 cm(s) (high/deep)

6 & 7 in either order

(some) books

(some) toys

8 1,700

Words in brackets are optional - they are correct, but not necessary. Alternative answers are

separated by a slash (/).

Refer OET Exam Sample Questions and details at www.nursingwork.in

Multiple Choice Nursing Question Answer- Click here

JSSC Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Fri, 10 Jun 2022 06:55:00 +0000

JSSC Staff Nurse Exam CBT Model Question Answers

The JSSC Staff Nurse Recruitment Examination- CBT- Computer Based test Model Question Answers published here. you may refer other 40,000+available Nurisng question answers in this website to get good score. The present 370 Staff Nurse Vacancies will be filled by JSSC based on CBT Marks

Question No.40121. In anterior interosseous nerve injury, there is

(a) Abduction of thumb is weak

(b) Sensory loss over lateral 3 ½ fingers

(d) Clawing of lateral 3 fingers

Question No.40122. Every pregnant woman and her family should have

(a) A birth preparedness and complication readiness plan containing place of delivery

(b) Place in case of complication, arrangements for support person

(d) All of the above

Question No.40123. Estrogen harmone is secreted by

(a) Liver (b) Ovaries

Question No.40124. Following is a danger sign after delivery

(a) Occasional Headache

(b) Bleeding (fresh blood)

(d) All of the above

Question No.40125.. All are true except

(a) Newborn should be breastfed after 1 hour of birth.

(b) Newborn should not be bathed on first day.

(d) The cord of the newborn should be cleaned with water daily.

Question No.40126. When the middle slip of the extensor tendon is cut there is

(a) No deformity

(b) Swan-neck deformity

(d) Mallet finger deformity

Question No.40127. Which of the following is not a danger sign in pregnancy?

(a) Vaginal Bleeding

(b) Loss of fetus movement

(d) Fits

Question No.40128. Plaster of Paris is:

(a) Calcium carbonate

(b) Calcium phospahte

(d) Calcium citrate

Question No.40129. The appropriate initial treatment of a chemical burn in

(a) Lavage with water

(b) Neutralize the chemical

(d) Wrap the patient in sterile sheets

Question No.40130. Excess of vitamin K in a new born cause which of the following condition

(a) Bleeding tendencies

(b) Hyperbilirubinimia

(d) Haemolysis

Answers for Above Nursing Questions

Answer for Question No.40121 is Option C

Answer for Question No.40122 is Option D

Answer for Question No.40123 is Option B

Answer for Question No.40124 is Option B

Answer for Question No.40125 is Option A

Answer for Question No.40126 is Option C

Answer for Question No.40127 is Option C

Answer for Question No.40128 is Option A

Answer for Question No.40129 is Option B

Answer for Question No.40130 is Option D

Medical Surgical Nursing Solved Questions Part 11

noreply@blogger.com (Sanju) — Wed, 11 May 2022 08:52:00 +0000

Medical Surgical Nursing Solved Questions Part 11

Medical Surgical Nursing Question Answers

MS Nursing Question # 1.The most common lung cancer seen in non-toxic smokers is

Large cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

MS Nursing Question #2. Which of the Following is the largest cranial nerve?

Cranial Nerve VII
Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
Cranial Nerve VI
Cranial Nerve IV

Correct Answer: Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)

MS Nursing Question #3. The movement of particles from region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration is called?

Osmosis
Hydrolysis
Filtration
Diffusion

Correct Answer: Diffusion

MS Nursing Question #4. Which of the following results from severe allergic reaction producing overwhelming systemic vasodilation and relative hypovolemia?

Neurogenic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Anaphylactic Shock
Septic Shock

Correct Answer: Anaphylactic Shock

MS Nursing Question #5. What is the approximate maximum air volume in the lung for normal healthy adult?

6000 ml
3000 ml
2300 ml
1300 ml

Correct Answer: 6000 ml

MS Nursing Question #6.Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into plasma?

Hypotonic
Acidic
Alkaline
Hypertonic

Correct Answer: Hypertonic

MS Nursing Question #7. The Apex of the heart is formed most by the

Right atrium
Left Atrium
Left Ventricle
Central Ventricle

Correct Answer: Left Ventricle

MS Nursing Question #8. The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is

Compartment syndrome
Acute renal failure
Metabolic abnormalities
Internal bleeding

Correct Answer: Internal bleeding

MS Nursing Question #9. The most serious complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blockage known

Gangrenous development of veins
Formation of venous ulcers
Pulmonary embolism
Chronic occlusion of veins

Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

MS Nursing Question #10. Which among the following is a colloid solution?

25% dextrose
Dextran
0.9% normal saline
0.45% normal saline

Correct Answer: Dextran 0.9%

Medical Surgical Nursing Questions-1

ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Sat, 07 May 2022 11:15:00 +0000

ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions

ANM Question Papers 50 Questions - Part 1

1. Health is viewed as a dynamic equilibrium between man and his environment in

(A) Biomedical Concept (B) Ecological Concept

2. The efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful life

style is

(A) Primordial Prevention (B) Primary Prevention

3. Mantoux test is used to determine the following disease

(A) Diphtheria (B) Leprosy

4. Rice water appearance of stool is seen in

(A) Cholera (B) Amoebiasis

5. The fever ascends in a stepladder fashion is seen in

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Meningitis

6. An eligible couple refers to a currently married couple wherein the wife is in the

reproductive age, which generally assumed to lie between the age of

(A) 18 and 25 (B) 18 and 45

7. The following are the characteristics of a community, except

(A) The community is not a contagious geographic area

(B) It is composed of people living together

(D) There are common organizations in the community

8. The process that can help people understand better and deal with their problems and

communicate better with those with whom they are emotionally involved is

(A) Education (B) Motivation

9. The Child Marriage Restraint Act in India is an example of

(A) Regulatory approach (B) Service approach

10. The degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy by

receiver

(A) Reinforcement (B) Credibility

11. Koplik's spots are typical feature of

(A) Chicken pox (B) Herpes zoster

12. An Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) for a population of

(A) 400 (B) 600

13. The policy reaffirms the commitment of the government towards target-free approach

in administering family planning services

(A) National health policy (B) National population policy

14. World Population Day is observed every year on

(A) 11th July (B) 28th July

15. A sub-centre covers the population of

(A) 2000-5000 (B) 3000-5000

16. The causative organism of mumps is

(A) Paramyxovirus (B) Variola Virus

047/2022 [P.T.O

17. For effective group discussion, the group should consist of the following number of

members

(A) 2-5 (B) 6-12

18. Vitamin D deficiency causes:

(A) Rickets (B) Night blindness

19. Following are larval control measures except:

(A) DDT (B) Paris green

20. Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are:

(A) Anopheles (B) Culex

21. Richest source of Vitamin C is:

(A) Carrot (B) Milk

22. More frequent form of protein energy malnutrition in India:

(A) Anemia (B) Xerophthalmia

23. Characteristic of a mentally healthy person includes:

(A) Feels satisfied with himself (B) Well adjusted

24. Which among the following is the cause of maladjustment?

(A) Frustration (B) Tension

25. Health problems of elderly persons include:

(A) Failure of special senses (B) Asthma

047/2022

26. Sanitary latrines can decrease incidence of all except:

(A) Poliomyelitis (B) Mumps

27. Community participation includes involvement of a community in:

(A) Disinfection of a well

(B) Construction of a small scale soak pit

(D) All of the above

28. Safe water criteria include:

(A) Free from pathogens (B) Free from colour

29. All of the following are methods of sewage disposal except:

(A) Composting (B) Land treatment

30. Science of health and its maintenance is:

(A) Sanitation (B) Hygiene

31. Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to presence of:

(A) E.coli (B) Streptococcus

32. Following are common problems of mouth except:

(A) Gingivitis (B) Halitosis

33. Aedes aegypti transmits the following disease except:

(A) Japanese encephalitis (B) Yellow fever

047/2022 [P.T.O

34. Micronutrients are:

(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates

35. Modifiable risk factors in Coronary artery disease are all except:

(A) Age (B) Hypertension

36. Emergency care or treatment given to an ill or injured person before regular medical

aid:

(A) Primary prevention (B) Rehabilitation

37. Primary prevention of Hypertension includes:

(A) Weight reduction (B) Exercise promotion

38. Drugs which cause expulsion of gas from the stomach and intestine:

(A) Cathartics (B) Emetics

39. Following is not a risk factor for development of diabetes mellitus:

(A) High intake of vitamin-A (B) Excessive intake of fat

40. Which of the following should be done to avoid stroke?

(A) Regular exercise (B) Reduce the amount of fat in diet

41. Which among the following sequence of events is true?

(A) Disease – Impairment – Disability – Handicap

(B) Impairment – Disability – Handicap – Disease

(D) Handicap – Disease – Impairment – Disability

047/2022

42. TB Multidrug regimen is given to:

(A) Prevent side effects (B) Prevent resistance

43. The best criteria for TB diagnosis is:

(A) Chest pain (B) Coughing

44. The normal body temperature for an adult is:

(A) 98.6 degree F (B) 98.6 degree C

45. Definition of health given by WHO includes the following dimentions except:

(A) Physical (B) Mental

46. Immunization is:

(A) Secondary prevention (B) Primary prevention

47. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

(A) Tetanus (B) Anti rabies vaccine

48. At primary health centre level, vaccines are stored in:

(A) Deep freezer (B) Cold box

49. Waste sharps should be disposed in:

(A) Black bag (B) White bag

50. The entry and development of an infectious agent in the body of man is:

(A) Contamination (B) Disease

ANM Question Papers - Part 2- 50 Questions

Click here to download Answer Key of Above Questions

Click here to Read ANM Nursing Questions from Question No. 01-20

Click here to read all 120 ANM Question answers in pdf.

ANM Question Answers Part 4

Click here to read Nursing Question Answers

The above Question Papers is collected from Kerala PSCAuxiliary Nurse Midwife & Junior Public Health Nurse Grade II - Insurance Medical Service & Health/ Municipal Common Service Examination condicted in the 2022

150 Important Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Tue, 03 May 2022 10:39:00 +0000

150 Important Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

PART 39- 150+ Questions- Part 39

Nursing exam questions and answers pdf download

Click here to view the 40,000+Bundle of Nursing Question Answers Published earlier

Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions

noreply@blogger.com (JOBS) — Tue, 03 May 2022 09:38:00 +0000

Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions

The Common Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions are published here by https://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com The Answers for the following questions available after all the questions listed.

FN Question No. #1. Gracilis, Adductor magnusThe drug used in excessive oral/respiratory secretions of the dying is

(a) Glycopyrrolate

(b) Prostigmine

(d) Adrenaline

FN Question No. #2. Emotion can be best expressed through

(a) Gesture

(b) Language

(d) All of the above

AIIMS ESIC RRB Railway Nursing Question Answer- Click here

FN Question No. #3. Which of the following delusions common in

depression?

(a) Delusion of Nihilism

(b) Delusion of poverty

(d) All of the above

FN Question No. #4. A nurse’s highest priority for a client who has returned to the nursing unit at nephrectomy is

(a) Hourly urine output

(b) Temperature

(d) Able to sips clear liquid

FN Question No. #5. Rorschach’s projective test is designed to

measure

(a) Dreams

(b) Unconscious intensions

(d) Brain size

FN Question No. #6. Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in

(a) Spinal cord injury above T6

(b) Phantom limb syndrome

(d) Sudek’s osteodystrophy

FN Question No. #7. In side lying position a patient is not able to abduct his hip. The power to his abductors is:

(a) Grade I

(b) Grade 2

(d) Grade 3

FN Question No. #8. A motor vehicle accident victim has open fracture of right leg, severe pain in neck, grade

II shock. A trauma surgeon should

(a) Apply compression dressing to leg

(b) Transfuse one bottle of blood

(d) Order CT scans of cervical spine

FN Question No. #9. La Bella indifference is related to

(a) Body dysmorphic disorder

(b) Pain disorder

(d) Conversion disorder

FN Question No. #10 A client who is under risk for eclampsia, has given MgSO4 intravenously. Later she develops signs of Magnesium toxicity like sweating and hypotenion. Which of the following antidote should be administered to the client?

(a)   Calcium gluconate
(b)   Vitamin K
(c)   Protamine sulphate
(d)   Amino caproic acid

Answers for the above Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions

Answer for the FN Question No. #1 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #2 Option D

Answer for the FN Question No. #3 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #4 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #5 Option B

Answer for the FN Question No. #6 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #7 Option C

Answer for the FN Question No. #8 Option D

Answer for the FN Question No. #9 Option D

Answer for the FN Question No. #10 Option A