OB Question 16-20

Answer 20

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:22:00 +0000

20. Answer C is the correct answer. Estradiol deficiency is responsible for the vasomotor symptoms in menopause. FSH, testosterone, and progesterone are not responsible for this.

Question 20

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:21:00 +0000

20. Deficiency of which hormone is responsible for the hot flashes in menopause?

A. FSH
B. Testosterone
C. Estradiol
D. Progesterone

Answer 19

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:20:00 +0000

19. Answer B. Elevated FSH is consistent with ovarian failure. Low GnRH implies some hypothalamic insufficiency. Elevated estradiol may be found in hormone replacement. Decrease testosterone has no correlation with ovarian failure.

Question 19

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:19:00 +0000

19. Which of the following hormone abnormalities is consistent with ovarian failure?

Low GnRH
Elevated FSH
Decreased Testosterone
Elevated Estradiol

Answer 18

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:18:00 +0000

18. Choice B is the correct answer. The pathogenesis behind dysmenorrhea is excessive prostaglandins. NSAIDS are first line because they inhibit prostaglandins. Norco would not do anything for the underlying problem. Metformin would be appropriated for someone with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Glyburide would not be appropriate and would likely cause hypoglycemia in a non diabetic patient.

Question 18

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:17:00 +0000

18. Your patient is a 20 year old obese female that presents complaining of dysmenorrhea. Which of the following is the best first line treatment?

Metformin
Naprosyn
Norco
Glyburide

Answer 17

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:15:00 +0000

17. Choice D is the correct answer. Menopause is characterized by no menses for 12 months. On a typical lab evaluation would show elevated levels of LH and FSH and low estradiol.

Question 17

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:14:00 +0000

17. Menopause is defined as no menses for?

3 months
6 months
9 months
12 months

Answer 16

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:13:00 +0000

16. Answer A is the correct answer. The gestation sac is seen in the uterus. Ectopic pregnancy is seen usually in the adenexa accompanied by the circle of fire. Color flow doppler is need to diagnose ovarian torsion and this is not seen on these images. A pelvic mass would be solid on ultrasound and show a darkened area behind it.

Question 16

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 15 Nov 2013 06:11:00 +0000

16. What condition is depicted in the ultrasound below?

Intrauterine pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian Torsion
Pelvic Mass