DNB Orthopaedics MS Orthopedics MRCS Exam GUIDE - Orthodnb.com

Best Institutes Hospitals for doing DNB Orthopaedics 2020

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Best Institutes hospitals for DNB orthopaedics 2020

Stephens

ddu

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ambedkar delhi

hindu rao

railway delhi

rml lucknow

agrasen

Ganga

Tejaswini

Sanjay gandhi

Best Institutes hospitals for DNB orthopaedics 2020

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Orthopaedics made simple for DNB MS MRCS Support and Guidance for DNB Orthopaedics, MS Orthopaedics and Orthopaedic Surgeons. DNB Ortho MS Ortho MRCS Exam Guide Diplomate of National Board.Our site has been helping dnb ortho post graduates since a long time.It has been providing the dnb ortho theory question papers,dnb orthopedics solved question bank, davangere orthopaedic notes, sion orthopedic notes.We provide guidance to post graduates as to how to pass dnb and ms ortho exams, and aspiring orthopaedic surgeons surgical technique teaching videos and orthopaedic books and pdf.

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December 2019 DNB Orthopaedics question paper solved answers

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December 2019 DNB Orthopaedics question paper solved answers

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december 2019 dnb orthopaedics question papers

FINAL EXAM
DECEMBER 2019
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPEDICS
PAPER-1
Please read carefully the important instructions mentioned on Page ‘1• Answers to questions of Part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheets and the
main + supplementary answer sheets used for each part must be tagged separately.• Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheets of Part B or vice versa shall not be evaluated.PART B

6. What is the role of anticoagulant therapy in Orthopaedics?	(4+6)
Describe arthroplasty.	thromboprophylaxis	following	total	hip

7. Define cervical rib. Describe its etiopathogenesis, clinicalfeatures and management.2+(2+3+3)8. Describe anatomy of palmar deep fascia. Describe etiology
pathology and management of Dupuytren’s contracture.3+(2+2+3)
9. Define congenital vertical talus. Describe its clinical features
and management.2+(3+5)10. Classify loose bodies. Describe pathology, clinical featuresand management of synovial chondromatosis.2+(2+3+3)-2-POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION
HALL
FINAL EXAM
DECEMBER 2019
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPEDICSPAPER-!TIME: 3 HOURSMAX. MARKS: 100
ORTHO/D/19/27/IIMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
• This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part “A” and part “B”, each partcontaining 5 questions.Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately.Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not be
evaluated.Answer sheets of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together.
Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page of the respective answer sheets.Attempt all questions in order.
Each question carries 10 marks.Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatly and legibly.Do not leave any blank pages between two answers.
Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space.Answer all the parts of a single question together.Start the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two answers.
Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.Write Short notes on:
PART A1. Describe the composition of bone? Enumerate the various cellsfound in the bone and describe their function. Describe Haversian
system of the bone with suitable diagram.2+(2+3)+3
2. Define osteomalacia. Describe its etiopathogenesis, clinicalfeatures and management.2+(2+3+3)
Classify chronic osteomyelitis. Describe its etiology, pathology
clinical features and management.
3. 2+(2+2+2+2)
4. Discuss the causes of nonunion of fractures. Describe varioustypes of nonunion? Discuss various modalities used to diagnose
nonunion.
4+2+4j l5. Define Crush syndrome. Describe its pathology, clinical features
and management.
2+(2+3+3) i ' lP.T.O.-1-POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION
HALL \
FINAL EXAM
DECEMBER 2019
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPEDICSPAPER-IITIME: 3 HOURS
MAX. MARKS: 100
ORTHO/D/19/27/IIIMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
• This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part “A” and part “B”, each part
containing 5 questions.• Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)
and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately.
• Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not beevaluated.• Answer sheets of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together.• Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page of the respective answer sheets.• Attempt all questions in order.• Each question carries 10 marks.• Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatly and legibly.• Do not leave any blank pages between two answers.• Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space.• Answer all the parts of a single question together.• Start the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two answers.• Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.! IWrite Short notes on:PART A1. Discuss the classification of osteonecrosis of femoral head.
Discuss its etiology, clinical features and management.
2. Define recurrent dislocation of patella. Describe its etiology,clinical diagnosis and broad principles of treatment.3+(2+2+3)
2+(3+2+3)
3. What is fibrous dysplasia of bone? Discuss its etiopathogenesis,clinical diagnosis and treatment.
4. What is Ewing’s sarcoma? Discuss its pathology, clinicaldiagnosis and treatment.5. Define Vitamin D resistant rickets. Discuss its clinical picture,
investigations and treatment. How will you differentiate it from
Vitamin D deficiency rickets?1+(3+2+4)
2+(3+2+3)1+ (2+2+3)+2:P.T.O-1-POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATIONHALL.
FINAL EXAM
DECEMBER 2019
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPEDICS
PAPER-II
Please read carefully the important instructions mentioned on Page ‘1’• Answers to questions of Part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheets and themain + supplementary answer sheets used for each part must be tagged separately.• Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheets of Part B or vice versa shall not be evaluated.PART B6. Define Protrusio Acetabuli. Discuss its etiology, classification,
clinical features and management.7. Discuss in brief the various complications of Total Hip
Arthroplasty (THA). How will you manage aseptic loosening ofcomponents in a 65 year old patient of Cemented THA?
8. What is Pseudogout? Discuss its pathology, clinical diagnosis
and treatment.
9. How will you diagnose a case of hallux valgus? Discuss broad
principles of its management.
10. What is osteochondritis dissecans of the femoral condyles?
Discuss its classification, clinical diagnosis and management.
2+(2+2+2+2)
5+5
2+(2+3+3)!5+5
2+(2+3+3)irk -kick -kick* -kick:2POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATIONHALL \
FINAL EXAMDECEMBER 2019
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPEDICSPAPER-IIITIME: 3 HOURSMAX. MARKS: 100
ORTHO/D/19/27/111IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS• This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part “A” and part “B”, each part
containing 5 questions.Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately.Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not beevaluated.Answer sheets of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together.Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page of the respective answer sheets.Attempt all questions in order.Each question carries 10 marks.Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatly and legibly.Do not leave any blank pages between two answers.Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space.
Answer all the parts of a single question together.
Start the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two answers.
Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate. iWrite Short notes on:
PART AClassification, management and complications of pediatric
supracondylar humerus fractures.1. 2+4+4 :Classify extracapsular hip fractures. Describe in brief itstreatment and complications.
2. 3+(3+4)Describe in brief with appropriate diagram and example:
a) Lag Screw Principle
b) Wolff Lawc) Osteoinduction3. 4+3+3
How will you classify spine injuries based on mechanism?Discuss in brief the clinical diagnosis and treatment of a patientwith anterior wedge compression fracture of L1 vertebra.Classify fracture radial head. Describe its mechanism of injury,
diagnosis and treatment.
4. 3+(3+4)
5. 2+(2+2+4)HP.T.O: In-1-POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATIONHALL
FINAL EXAM NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONS
DECEMBER 2019ORTHOPEDICSPAPER-IIIPlease read carefully the important instructions mentioned on Page ‘1*• Answers to questions of Part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheets and the
main + supplementary answer sheets used for each part must be tagged separately.• Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheets of Part B or vice versa shall not be evaluated.PART BClassify decubitus ulcers. Describe its etiopathogenesis
and management.Describe in brief with appropriate diagram and example:
a) Antiglide Plate.b) Mangled Extremity Severity Score.
c) Classification of Lisfranc injuries.
6. 3+(3+4)
7. 4+3+3a) Haemothorax. 5+5b) Volkmann’s ischemia.Classify various flaps used in the management of Gustilotype lll-B open fracture of proximal one-third of both bones
of leg. Describe in brief each type.
Describe in brief the mechanism of injury, classification,diagnosis and treatment of Perilunate injuries.8.9. 4+6
10. 2+2+S+3************2POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION
HALL
FINAL EXAM NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONS
DECEMBER 2019 U
; iORTHOPEDICSPAPER-IVTIME: 3 HOURS ORTHO/D/19/27/1VMAX. MARKS: 100IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS• This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part “A” and part “B”, each part
containing 5 questions.
• Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)
and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately.• Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not beevaluated.• Answer sheets of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together.• Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page of the respective answer sheets.• Attempt all questions in order.• Each question carries 10 marks.• Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatly and legibly.• Do not leave any blank pages between two answers.• Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space.• Answer all the parts of a single question together.• Start the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two answers.• Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.! \iWrite short notes on: ! :PART A 5What are the various modalities of pain management?Discuss recent advances in pain management inOrthopaedics.1. 5+5
Define Orthobiologics. Discuss its classification andapplications in Orthopaedics.
2. 2+(3+5)
a) Tranexamic acid.b) Biologies in management of rheumatoid arthritis.
3. 4+6
Define Osteoid Osteoma. Write in brief about its clinicaldiagnosis and management including recent advances.
4. 2+(2+6)
a) Trabecular metal in THR.
b) Ceramic on Ceramic articulation in THR.
5. 5+5P.T.O: sI-1-POSSESSION/USE OP CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION
HALLl

FINAL EXAM	NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONS
DECEMBER 2019

ORTHOPEDICSPAPER-IV
Please read carefully the important instructions mentioned on Page ‘1’• Answers to questions of Part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheets and the
main + supplementary answer sheets used for each part must be tagged separately.• Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheets of Part B or vice versa shall not be evaluated.PART BDiscuss briefly the management of Giant cell tumour of distalend of femur. Discuss the recent advances in its
management.
6. 7+3a) Bone Bank.
b) Alloprosthetic composite.7. 5+5a) Tests for sacroiliac joint.
b) SCIWORA.c) Femoroacetabular impingement.
8. 3+3+4What is traumatic knee dislocation? Discuss its classification
and management.9. 2+(3+5)

10. What are different types of bone cement? Write in brief about
cementing technique and pressurization.

4+6

************( $ i-2-POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION IHALL1

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A group for DNB MS Orthopaedics , seniors/colleagues can post here regarding their experience of final theory/practical exam, about DNB practical exam...

DNB MS Orthopaedics MRCS FET FNB Guide

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How to pass DNB MS Orthopaedics theory and practical exams - Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan

2020-02-01T21:35:00.002+05:30

How to prepare for DNB MS Orthopaedics theory exam - Dr Leander Dr Prashant Madan Mohan

Interview by orthodnb.com

How to prepare for DNB MS Orthopaedics theory exam Books required, online courses, theory notes and solved question banks Davangere notes - www.docguidance.com Solved Question Bank - www.docguidance.com Online MS DNB Orthopaedics Course - www.mentorexam.com
https://youtu.be/SdfWlRDSLaw
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Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan tells us why candidates appearing for DNB and MS final exams need help and guidance. www.drleander.com Why we need help for DNB MS ORTHOPAEDICS theory and final practical exams - Dr Prashant Madan Mohan (drleander)
Orthopaedics course Mentor - www.mentorexam.com

DNB MS Orthopaedics Theory exam course - Click Here
DNB MS Orthopaedics Practical exam course - Click Here

Online courses to pass DNB MS Orthopaedics Exams and FNB NEET-SS entrance exams which need a lot of preparation, strategy and the right guidance.Having the right mentor can steer you through all the hardships you may face during your residency.Preparation material that is concise, to the point and just the way you need to write in the exams, concept videos and notes for all topics.You can pass any orthopaedics exam like a god.
"Pass Orthopaedics Exams Like a God" - our Orthopaedics Mentor, Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan ( Dr.leander) will make this dream of yours, certain reality. Orthopaedics Courses- https://www.mentorexam.com/s/store/courses/orthopaedics

About Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan MD,DNB Orthopaedics Dr Leander ( Shakespeare in Orthopaedic Surgery )

Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan MD(Europe)DNB Orthopaedics
Specialist in joint replacement,Regenerative Orthopaedics,Keyhole surgeries and Sports injuries known popularly as Dr Leander (Shakespeare in Orthopaedic Surgery) cleared his DNB Orthopaedics from a difficult and competent institute in the first attempt. He used a set of algorithms to break the code of the exam.He did not let his busy schedule and rotations deter himself from being uptodate about the field of orthopaedics and the exam.The dreaded DNB ORTHOPAEDICS EXAM. Yes he cleared it in the first attempt and he has helped hundreds do the same.
He is highly skilled in the field of orthopaedics and musculoskeletal system, joint pains, arthritis, sports injuries, fractures, joint replacements, spine surgeries, backache, disc problems, rheumatoid disease.
He has performed over a 1000 such surgeries ranging from Total Knee Replacement, Total Hip replacements, fracture surgeries and arthroscopic key hole surgeries.
He has a vast experience spanning a decade and is highly experienced in this field.He is known to his patients as the " Charm doctor of velachery"

He was mentored by eminent academicians in the field of Orthopaedics such as
Padmashri Prof Dr.P.V.A. Mohandas also known as "The Father of Modern Orthopaedics in India"
Prof Ulrich E. Holz of Germany (AO Group)
Prof Otmar Trenz (Tubingen Germany)
Prof Gopinath Menon SRMC
Prof Gopinathan Calicut
Prof Singaravadivelu MMC
Prof Parthasarathy St Martha
Prof M Narayana Reddy CHRI

Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan ,Orthopaedic Surgeon

Padmashri Prof PVA Mohandas with Dr Prashant Madan Mohan in 2014

Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan MD DNB ORTHOPAEDICS

He has helped many batches of Orthopaedics post graduates pass right from 2016.from all over india through his groups and courses.

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Help for passing DNB Orthopaedics by Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan, MD, DNB ORTHOPAEDICS.

Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan ( Dr.Leander) MD,(Europe) DNB Orthopaedics, The Expert care for your pain. Quotes Pictures Sayings that Inspire Motivate Resonate with your Soul. Best orthopaedics surgeries best results best doctors best orthopaedic surgeon best orthopaedic doctor velachery orthopaedic doctor adambakkam orthopaedic doctor Dr.Leander Quotes Pictures Sayings that Inspire Motivate Resonate with your Soul.
Shakespeare in Orthopaedic Surgery
Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan ( Dr.Leander) MD,(Europe) DNB Orthopaedics, The Expert care for your pain. Quotes Pictures Sayings that Inspire Motivate Resonate with your Soul. Best orthopaedics surgeries best results best doctors best orthopaedic surgeon best orthopaedic doctor velachery orthopaedic doctor adambakkam orthopaedic doctor Dr.Leander Quotes Pictures Sayings that Inspire Motivate Resonate with your Soul.

Dr.Prashant Madan Mohan ( Dr.Leander) MD,(Europe) DNB Orthopaedics, The Expert care for your pain. Quotes Pictures Sayings that Inspire Motivate Resonate with your Soul. Best orthopaedics surgeries best results best doctors best orthopaedic surgeon best orthopaedic doctor velachery orthopaedic doctor adambakkam orthopaedic doctor Dr.Leander Quotes Pictures Sayings that Inspire Motivate Resonate with your Soul.

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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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A group for DNB MS Orthopaedics , seniors/colleagues can post here regarding their experience of final theory/practical exam, about DNB practical exam...

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ortho teaching course- TOPIC- Trivandrum 2020

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ortho teaching course- TOPIC- Trivandrum 2020

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A group for DNB MS Orthopaedics , seniors/colleagues can post here regarding their experience of final theory/practical exam, about DNB practical exam...

DNB MS Orthopaedics MRCS FET FNB Guide

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June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

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June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers by www.docguidance.com

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

June 2019 DNB Orthopaedics theory exam Question papers

  FINAL EXAM
JUNE 2019
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONS
ORTHOPAEDICS
PAPER-1
TIME: 3 HOURS
MAX. MARKS: 100
ORTHO/J/19/27/I
IMPQRTANTINSTRUCTIONS
> This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part "A" and part "B", each part
containing 5 questions.
* Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)
and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately
* Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shalj not be
evaluated.
* Answer sheets of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together
* Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page of Ihe respective answer sheets .
* Attempt alt questions tn order.
- Each question carries 10 marks ,
* Read the question carefully and answer to Ihe point neatly and fegrbiy,
* Do not leave any blank pages between two answers.
* Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space,
* Answer all the parts of a single question together.
* Start the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two
* Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.
Write short notes on:
answers
  .Ik\ K-OP*6
FINAL EXAM
JUNE 2019
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONS
ORTHOPAEDICS
PAPER-II
at
s'J
• Answers to questions of Part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheets and the
supplementary answer sheets used for each part must be tagged separately.
• Answers to questions) of Part A attempted in answer sheets of Part B or vice versa shall not be evaluated.
man +
PART B
a) General principles and technique of application of
plaster cast.
b) Advantages and disadvantages of plaster of Paris cast.
c) Functional cast brace.
a) Etiology and patho-anatomy of old unreduced
dislocation of shoulder joint.
features and management of posterior
dislocation of shoulder joint.
8. a) Classify nerve injuries.
b) Significance and interpretation of electro-diagnostic
studies in nerve injuries.
Discuss the various conventional and modern methods of
management of congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia.
10. a) Volkmann splint.
b) Phemister bone grafting.
c) C- clamp.
6. 4+3+3
7. 3+(3+4)
o*
b) Clinical
5+5
9.
5+5
3+3+4
************
<
NATIONAL BOARD OT EXAMINATIONS
FINAL EXAM
j U N t 2 0 1 y
nRTHOPAEDICS
PAPER-IV
ORTHOyj/19/27/IV
TIME : 3 HOURS
MAX MARKS: 100
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
. This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part “ A" and part “ B", each part
containing 5 questions.
• Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)
and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately.
• evaluated Answers to . question^) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not be
• Answer sheets of Part A and Part 0 are not to be tagged together.
Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page 0f the respective answer
Attempt ail questions fn order.
Each question carries 10 marks.
Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatly and legibly
Do not leave any blank pages between two
Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin
Answer all the parts of a single question together.
question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two
* Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.
frite Short notes on:
sheets.
answers
space.
Start the answer to a
answers .
PART A
1. a) Dual mobility in total hip arthroplasty,
b) Orthobiclogics in Orthopedics.
2. a) Indications and principles of revision total hip
b) Discuss the different types of acetabular defects and
management.
3. Current concepts in the treatment of clavicle fractures.104. Unreconstructabie fractures in the eiderly and discuss the5+5
management options.
5. Principles of early total care and damage control
Orthopedics.
5+5
surgery. 5+5
5+5
P
.T.O.
POSSESSiON/USE OF CELL PHONES
• M *\l : \ AM
)UNt .vni
NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONS
ORTHOPAEDICS
PAPER-111
TIMl 3 HOURS
MAX MARKS 100 ORTHO/J/19/27/111
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTinMn;
• This question paper consists of 10
containing 5 questions.
questions divided into Part "A" and part “B”, each part
. and Answers the main to questions + supplementary of part Aanswer and part sheetfs B are to ) used be stricdy for each attempted part must in be separate taggedanswer separately sheet . (s)
wakrtted*0 quest!°n(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not be
\ $'i' icsts of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together
’ P'lrt A andPartBshould te«*enfiwedonly on the coveringpage of the

.Ik\ K-OP*6FINAL EXAMJUNE 2019NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPAEDICSPAPER-IIats'J• Answers to questions of Part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheets and thesupplementary answer sheets used for each part must be tagged separately.• Answers to questions) of Part A attempted in answer sheets of Part B or vice versa shall not be evaluated.man +PART Ba) General principles and technique of application ofplaster cast.b) Advantages and disadvantages of plaster of Paris cast.c) Functional cast brace.a) Etiology and patho-anatomy of old unreduced
dislocation of shoulder joint.features and management of posteriordislocation of shoulder joint.8. a) Classify nerve injuries.b) Significance and interpretation of electro-diagnostic
studies in nerve injuries.Discuss the various conventional and modern methods ofmanagement of congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia.10. a) Volkmann splint.b) Phemister bone grafting.c) C- clamp.6. 4+3+37. 3+(3+4)
o*b) Clinical5+59.5+5
3+3+4************<
NATIONAL BOARD OT EXAMINATIONSFINAL EXAMj U N t 2 0 1 ynRTHOPAEDICSPAPER-IVORTHOyj/19/27/IVTIME : 3 HOURSMAX MARKS: 100IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS. This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part “ A" and part “ B", each partcontaining 5 questions.• Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately.• evaluated Answers to . question^) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not be• Answer sheets of Part A and Part 0 are not to be tagged together.Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page 0f the respective answerAttempt ail questions fn order.Each question carries 10 marks.Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatly and legiblyDo not leave any blank pages between twoIndicate the question number correctly for the answer in the marginAnswer all the parts of a single question together.question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two
* Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.frite Short notes on:sheets.answersspace.Start the answer to aanswers .PART A1. a) Dual mobility in total hip arthroplasty,b) Orthobiclogics in Orthopedics.2. a) Indications and principles of revision total hipb) Discuss the different types of acetabular defects and
management.3. Current concepts in the treatment of clavicle fractures.10
4. Unreconstructabie fractures in the eiderly and discuss the5+5

management options.5. Principles of early total care and damage controlOrthopedics.5+5surgery. 5+55+5P
.T.O.POSSESSiON/USE OF CELL PHONES
• M *\l : \ AM)UNt .vniNATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPAEDICSPAPER-111TIMl 3 HOURS
MAX MARKS 100 ORTHO/J/19/27/111IMPORTANT INSTRUCTinMn;• This question paper consists of 10containing 5 questions.questions divided into Part "A" and part “B”, each part. and Answers the main to questions + supplementary of part Aanswer and part sheetfs B are to ) used be stricdy for each attempted part must in be separate taggedanswer separately sheet . (s)wakrtted*0 quest!°n(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not be\ $'i' icsts of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together’ P'lrt A andPartBshould te«*enfiwedonly on the coveringpage of the respective answer sheets• Attempt all questions in order• Each question carries 10 marks• Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatiy and legibly.• Do not leave any blank pages between two• Indicate the question numbei- correctly for the answer in the margin• Answer all the parts of a single question together.tort the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two• Draw table diagram&Howcharts wherever appropriate.Write Short notes on:answersspace.answers.PART A

1. a1 Antibiotic prophylaxis.D1 Operation theatre sterilization and antisepsis.2. a Rcie of embolization in orthopedic surgery.b1 Floor Reaction Orthoses.c1 Pseudo tumours.a) Surgical anatomy of hip joint.D) Enumerate the surgical approaches of the hip, mentionac \ antaces anc disadvantages of each approach.4. a' Kapandji technique.b) Jaipur Foot.c- Orthoses in developmental dysplasia of hip.?hrc cles of management including recent advances in thetreatment of flail chest.5+54+3-33.4+6
3*3+45 .3+5P.T.O.1-'vi.'TO\ L5:OFCZu ~3\£SOffA\‘“ 1r C-Ckr- J S _ -I’ ’. r -_ S O c -- £ r^HAH.V *iAT.iV
ORTHOPAEDICSPAPER-11
ORTHO/J/19/27/11TIME: 3 HOURS
MAX. MARKS: 100

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS"A” and part “B”. each part *• This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Partcontaining 5 questions.• Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer s ee (s )and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately.• Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shall not beevaluated.Answer sheets of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together.
Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page of the respective answer sheets.Attempt all questions in order.Each question carries 10 marks.Read the question carefully and answer to the point neatly and legibly,Do not leave any blank pages between two answers.Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space,Answer all the parts of a single question together.Start the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two answers.
Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.3+'Write short notes on:
PART A5+5a) Surgical reduction of fractures.b) Absolute and relative stability i
fractures.1.n the treatment of
3+4+3a) Outline the principles of external fixation.2. b) Modular and hybrid external fixator and Taylor spatialframe.c) Dynamization of external fixator.5+5and classifications of non-union of fractures,ba) ) Principles Causes of management of infected non-union offractures.3.3+3+4Clinical features and assessment of floating knee andprinciples of its management.4.3+4+3Early and late onset paraplegia in spinal tuberculosis,b) Surgical approaches for Pott’s paraplegia,o) Stages in the tuberculosis of hip joint.5. a)P.T.O.P J-1POSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY SUCH ELECTRONIC GADGETS IS NOT PERMITTED INSIDE THE EXAMINATIONHALL.
FINAL EXAMJUNE 2019 NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPAEDICS
PAPER-1Answers to questions of Part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheets and themam + supplementary answer sheets used for each part must be tagged separately.Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheets of Part B or vice versa shall not be evaluated.PART B6. a) Enumerate the various metabolic and endocrinedfseases having skeletal manifestations.b) Clinical features of rickets.c) Radiologic findings of rickets.4+3+37. a) Mechanism of action and use of TENS in Orthopaedics ,b) PET scan in Orthopaedics.a) Histology of bone.b) Various factors regulating bone metabolism.c) Electric phenomena and electrical charges in bones.9. a) Clinical features of gas gangrene.b) Biofiim.c) Surgical anatomy of posterior interosseous nerve.10. a) Anti-tubercular therapy in musculoskeletal tuberculosis,b) Liquid culture (MGIT),5+58.
3+4+3
3+3+46+4**#+++******
FINAL EXAMJUNE 201v) NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPAEDICSPAPER-,111Please read carefully the important instructions mentioned on Pa* tlT mam supplementary t0 C|UeS,ions 0answer f Part Asheets and used B are forto each be strictly part must attempted be tagged in separate separately answer sheets and the' nSWef",0 qUeS,IOn(s) of Part Aattemptedinanswersheets ofPart 8or vice versa shallnotbeevaluatede TPART B6. Indications and principles of pelvic osteotomies
merits & demerits.7. a) Lateral mass fixation technique.b) Proximal fibular osteotomy.c) Medial collateral ligament injury in total kneearthroplasty.Clinical and radiological features and management of
aneurysmal bone cyst of distal femur.9. a) Corticotomy.b) Custom mega prostheses.c) Balloon kyphoplasty.10. a) Skin grafts.b) Fasciocutaneous and musculocutaneous flaps.c) Free flaps.and their 3+3+43+3+48.2+2+6
3+3+43+4+3^ ifr ilr**
fti/J.FINAL EXAM NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATJCJUNE 2019ORTHOPAEDICSPAPER-1VPART B6. a) 3D and 4D printing in OrthopedicsD) Reamer irrigation aspirationc) Current concepts in
4+3+3system,the treatment of osteomyelitis.7. a) Patient specific instrumentationib) VAC therapy.c) Fixation devices inin arthroplasty,cruciate ligament reconstruction.4+3+38. a) Role of boneb) Minimaliinvasive marrow spineaspirate surgeryin . Orthopedic trauma, 5+59. Current concepts of classificationthoracolumbar spine fractures. and management of 1010. a) Tranexamic acid im Orthopedic suroerv ,b) Principles of volar locking plate.c) Robotic surgery in Orthopaedics.3->-3+4*****!**#*2- •SIDE THE EXAMINATIONOJ PERMITTEDmAOGETS IS NSUCH ELECTRONIC GPOSSESSION/USE OF CELL PHONES OR ANY HALL
FINAL EXAMJUNE 2019NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATIONSORTHOPAEDICSPAPER-1TIME: 3 HOURSMAX. MARKS: 100
ORTHO/J/19/27/I
IMPQRTANTINSTRUCTIONS> This question paper consists of 10 questions divided into Part "A" and part "B", each partcontaining 5 questions.* Answers to questions of part A and part B are to be strictly attempted in separate answer sheet(s)and the main + supplementary answer sheet(s) used for each part must be tagged separately
* Answers to question(s) of Part A attempted in answer sheet(s) of part B or Vice versa shalj not beevaluated.* Answer sheets of Part A and Part B are not to be tagged together
* Part A and Part B should be mentioned only on the covering page of Ihe respective answer sheets .* Attempt alt questions tn order.- Each question carries 10 marks ,* Read the question carefully and answer to Ihe point neatly and fegrbiy,* Do not leave any blank pages between two answers.* Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space,* Answer all the parts of a single question together.* Start the answer to a question on a fresh page or leave adequate space between two* Draw table/diagrams/flowcharts wherever appropriate.Write short notes on:answersPART A1. a) Define shock and classify different types of hemorrhagicshock.b) Reperfusion injury and principles of treatment of
hypovolemic shock.(2+4)+(2+2)2, a) The different compartments of leg.b) Clinical features and management of compartmentsyndrome of leg.c) Whiteside's technique.a) Anatomy of joint capsule and its surgical importance.b) Synovial fluid analysis in various disorders.4. The patho-anatomy of sciatic nerve with special surgical
considerations in nerve injuries.5, a) Classify open fractures.b) Management of Grade III B open fracture of tibia.2+6+23. 3+75+53+7P.T.O.

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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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A group for DNB MS Orthopaedics , seniors/colleagues can post here regarding their experience of final theory/practical exam, about DNB practical exam...

DNB MS Orthopaedics MRCS FET FNB Guide

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Arthroplasty arthroscopy spine Orthopaedic Fellowships after doing MS DNB Orthopaedics in India

2019-04-06T12:00:00.001+05:30

Arthroplasty Arthroscopy Spine Trauma Orthopaedic Fellowships after doing MS DNB Orthopaedics in India

This is a list of orthopaedic fellowships in India in the various specialities of Joint replacement, arthroplasty, limb reconstruction, Ilizarov, arthroscopy, spine fellowship and more.These are available at various hospitals throughout India.
For details whatsapp 9087747888 email orthoguidance@gmail.com
also see https://www.docguidance.com/blog/arthroplasty-arthroscopy-spine-trauma-orthopaedic-fellowships-after-doing-ms-dnb-orthopaedics-india

ORTHOPAEDIC FELLOWSHIPS IN INDIA AFTER DOING MS/DNB Orthopaedic surgery ORTHODNB.COM

INSTITUTE	SUB SPECIALITY	DURATION
KGMC,Lucknow	Paediatrics orthopaedics	2 yrs
AGRAWAL HOSPITAL, Gorakhpur	Limb reconstruction surgery	6m
Gangaram hospital, New Delhi	Arthroscopy & Arthroplasty	6m
Parmanand hospital. New Delhi	Arthroscopy & Arthroplasty	6m
Apollo Hospital,New Delhi	Arthroplasty	3m& 6m
Max Hospital,saket ,New Delhi	Foot &Ankle	6m
ISIC, Vasant Kunj	Spine surgery	2yrs
ChachaNehru Balchikitsalaya ,New delhi	Paediatrics orthopaedics	lyrs
Artemis, Gurgaon	Arthroplasty	6m
PGI Chandigarh	Spine surgery	2yrs
Pgims Rohtak	Trauma Surgery	2 yrs
Fortis Hospital, Jaipur	Arthroplasty	6m
Sunshine Hospitals,Hyderabad	Arthroplasty	6m
Shalby Hospital, Ahmedabad	Arthroplasty	6m
Amrita Hospital Kochi	Arthroscopy + Arthroplasty	6m
BIRRD Hospital,Tirupati	Arthroplasty	1 YR
Q1 Hospital, Vishakhapatnam	Arthroplasty	6m
CMC Vellore	Hand surgery,spine surgery,Paediatrics orthopaedics	2yrs "
CMC Vellore	Short term Pediatric orthopaedics fellowship	6m '
Ganga Hospital, Coimbatore	Hand surgery,spine surgery,Paediatrics orthopaedics,Trauma surgery. Limb reconstruction surgery. Arthroplasty, Arthroscopy	Joints, LRS , Trauma Remaining 2 yrs
Ortho one hospital, Coimbatore	Arthroscopy & Arthroplasty	lyr
Preethi Institute of Medical sciences, Madurai	Arthroplasty Spine surgery	lyr 2 yrs

Soundrapandian Bone & joint institute, Chennai	Arthroplasty	lyr
Dr subramaniam fellowship, Madurai	Arthroscopy	6m
Lakeshore Hospital , kochi	Arthroplasty	6m
Hosmat Hospital, Bangalore	spine surgery ,Trauma surgery. Arthroplasty, Arthroscopy	6m
Sparsh Hospital, Bangalore	Arthroplasty, paediatric orthopaedics	6m
Manipal Hospital, Bangalore	Arthroplasty & spine surgery	6m, spine- ly/2y
Peoples tree Hospital Bangalore	Arthroplasty	6m
Apollo Hospital, Bangalore	Arthroplasty	6m
Sakra Hospital Bangalore	Arthroscopy + Arthroplasty	6m
Indira Gandhi child Institute, Bangalore	Paediatrics orthopaedics	lyr
Sancheti Hospital , Pune	Hand surgery,spine surgery,Paediatrics orthopaedics,Trauma surgery. Limb reconstruction surgery. Arthroplasty, Arthroscopy	Joints, LRS , Trauma (1 yr) Remaining 2 yrs
DY PATH Hospital, pune	Arthroscopy	6m
Deenanath hospital, Pune	Arthroplasty, Arthroscopy	6m & 2yrs
Lokmanya Foundation Pune	Arthroplasty	6m
Shushrut Hospital, Nagpur	Spine surgery	lyr
CFTIR,Akola	Limb reconstruction surgery	6m/lyr
Sandeep adke Institute , Solapur	Limb reconstruction surgery	3m/6m/lyr
Mangal parihar Institute,Mumbai	Limb reconstruction surgery	lyr
Breach candy Hospital,Mumbai	Arthroplasty	ly
Wadia Hospital,Mumbai	Paediatric orthopaedics	ly
Jupiter Hospital Mumbai	Paediatric orthopaedics	ly
Bombay Hospital, Mumbai	Arthroplasty, Arthroscopy	6m
Rajesh Maniar fellowship, Mumbai	Arthroplasty	6m
Tata Memorial Hospital,	Orthopaedic oncology	2 yrs
Mumbai
HCG Hospital, Bangalore	Orthopaedic oncology	lyr
Laud clinic, Mumbai	Arthroplasty	6m
Sudhir Warrier Fellowship ,Mumbai	Hand surgery	6m
Taral Nagda Fellowship, Mumbai	Paediatrics orthopaedics	lyr
Ram chaddha Fellowship, Mumbai	Spine surgery	6m

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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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A group for DNB MS Orthopaedics , seniors/colleagues can post here regarding their experience of final theory/practical exam, about DNB practical exam...

DNB MS Orthopaedics MRCS FET FNB Guide

Get updates email orthoguidance@gmail.com whatsapp 9087747888

Orthodnb.com

Study Material to Pass Any Orthopaedics Exam

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List of Orthopaedics PG postgraduate Teaching Course in India

2019-04-06T11:01:00.000+05:30

Docguidance.com recommended Orthopaedics Post graduate Teaching programme

No of days

Month

MAMC, Teaching Programme New Delhi

3

November

B.Mukhopadhyay teaching programme, Indore

4

January

KEM PG teaching programme, Mumbai

3

February

JOINTS, Nashik

3

August

Rajawadi PG teaching programme, Mumbai

2

March

Steve Rocha PG teaching course, sancheti, Pune

2

March

Mira] PG teaching course, Mira]

3

October

STJohns PG teaching programme. Bangalore

2

August

lOA, PG teaching Programme, MS RAMAIAH, Bangalore

2

March

Mangalore ortho course, Mangalore

2

March

SCORE , Chennai

4

January

Calicut ortho course, Kozhikode

4

June

ROCC ortho course, Kozhikode

2

December

TOPIC, Trivandrum

3

September/October

VIZAG Ortho course(VTOP), Vishakhapatnam

2

August/september

HOME( OSMANIA), Hyderabad

3

January

lOA PG teaching Programme,Jabalpur

2

September

This is a List of Orthopaedics PG postgraduate Teaching Course in India where DNB and MS Orthopaedics postgraduate trainees improve their clinical skills and train themselves for the practical examinations for DNB Orthopaedics and MS Orthopaedics exams.

Docguidance.com recommended Orthopaedics Post graduate Teaching programme	No of days	Month
MAMC, Teaching Programme New Delhi	3	November
B.Mukhopadhyay teaching programme, Indore	4	January
KEM PG teaching programme, Mumbai	3	February
JOINTS, Nashik	3	August
Rajawadi PG teaching programme, Mumbai	2	March
Steve Rocha PG teaching course, sancheti, Pune	2	March
Mira] PG teaching course, Mira]	3	October
STJohns PG teaching programme. Bangalore	2	August
lOA, PG teaching Programme, MS RAMAIAH, Bangalore	2	March
Mangalore ortho course, Mangalore	2	March
SCORE , Chennai	4	January
Calicut ortho course, Kozhikode	4	June
ROCC ortho course, Kozhikode	2	December
TOPIC, Trivandrum	3	September/October
VIZAG Ortho course(VTOP), Vishakhapatnam	2	August/september
HOME( OSMANIA), Hyderabad	3	January
lOA PG teaching Programme,Jabalpur	2	September

ALSO SEE https://www.docguidance.com/blog/list-of-orthopaedics-pg-postgraduate-teaching-course-in-india

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A group for DNB MS Orthopaedics , seniors/colleagues can post here regarding their experience of final theory/practical exam, about DNB practical exam...

DNB MS Orthopaedics MRCS FET FNB Guide

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Mch Paediatric Orthopaedics course India now approved by MCI

2019-03-20T14:23:00.000+05:30

Mch Paediatric Orthopaedics course India now approved by MCI

The BOG of MCi has approved Mch Paediatric orthopaedics course in various institute in India.

The eligibility requirements would be the candidate should have minimum qualification of MS orthopaedics or DNB orthopaedics or equivalent.

AIIMS Hrishikesh has already put an advertisement for the course.A three year superspeciality course Mch orthopaedics in India. MCI BOG approves new course-MCh in Paediatric Orthopaedics https://www.docguidance.com/blog/mch-paediatric-orthopaedics-course-india-now-approved-by-mci

GET NEET-SS FNB Question Bank For Orthopaedics, Anaesthesia,Surgical superspeciality

Obstetrics Gynecology superspeciality, Medicine super speciality exams Question bank

www.docguidance.com/fnb

aiims rishikesh Mch course post doctoral M.ch paediatric orthopaedics

PROSPECTUS

How to Apply

Apply online through our website: http://www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in

or call us directly with your questions. Phone No.: 0135-2462932

Application Fees

SC/STRs. 1200/- + Transaction Charges as applicable UR/OBC: 1500/- + Transaction Charges as applicable PWBD: Exempted from any fee

Last Date for Online Registration of Application on AIIMS website www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in

08.04.2019 (Upto 5:00 PM)

Date of Uploading Prospectus and Registration of Online Application through web portal	09.03.2019	Saturday
Last date for Registration of Online application	08.04.2019	Monday

M.Ch (3 yrs)
·	Status of Application & Rejected application with reason for rejection. Applicants are required to check status on 16.04.2019through Registration Status of My Page after Login.	15.04.2019	Monday
·	Last date for submission of required documents for Regularization of Rejected Application. No Correspondence will be entertained after 20.04.2019under any circumstances and candidates are requested NOT TO CONTACT Examination Section.	20.04.2019	Saturday
·	Last date for Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Govt. of India to forward an approval regarding “No Objection” to Foreign National for appearing in M.Ch. Entrance Examination for July 2019 session.	20.04.2019	Saturday
·	Finalization of Centres and allotment of Roll No/Admit Card on website.	25.04.2019	Thursday
·	Written Test through online (CBT) mode	05.05.2019	Sunday
·	Expected date of declaration of Result (Stage I)	07. 05.2019	Tuesday
·	Departmental Assessment	14.05.2019	Tuesday
·	Final result	16.05.2019	Thursday

Declaration of Results

Results for M.Ch. will be only available on website at www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in

Result of individual candidate will NOT be informed on telephone and candidates are advised NOT to call Examination Section for such information. However, individual result can be checked after declaration of final result from website through Result of My Page after Login.

Application Fee

· General / OBC Category: Rs.1500/- + Transaction Charges as applicable

· SC/ST Category: Rs. 1200/- + Transaction Charges as applicable

· PWBD Candidates is exempted from any Fee

Mode of payment: Through Debit/Credit Card/Net Banking

All applicants are advised to read Prospectus and Help Manual carefully before starting Online Registration and ensure that no column is left blank. In event of rejection of application form, no correspondence/request for reconsideration, will be entertained. Applicants are also advised to download and take a print of Registration Slip. They should retain a copy of Registration Slip till completion of Admission Process.

Please visit www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.inregularly for latest notification/announcement as well any Addendum/ Dedendum/Corrigendum/Latest updates etc. regarding this Examination.

I	INTRODUCTION	04
II	AIMS and OBJECTIVES	04
III	SUMMARY OF EXAMINATION PATTERN	05
IV	M.Ch. Courses Number of seats, Duration, Eligibility and or terms & conditions etc.	06 - 10
VI	IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS APPLICABLE TO M.Ch. ENTRANCE EXAMINATION:
	Instructions for filling Online Application Form	11
	Online Registration & Submission of Application Form	11
	Filling of name of college of UG & PG courses	11
	Status of online Registration	11
	Documents to be Attached with Registration Slip	11
	Submission Of Application By Candidates Who Are Employed	12
	Requirements for Admission of Sponsored Candidates	12
	Requirements for Admission of Foreign Nationals/Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)	12 - 13
	Guidelines For Aiims Rishikesh Faculty For Diploma Courses Under Sponsored Category	13 – 14
	Submission of Caste Certificate by SC / ST / OBC Candidates	14– 15
	Procedure If there Is Any Discrepancy Noticed	15 – 17
VII	GENERAL INFORMATION	17 – 20
VIII	FORMAT OF SPONSORSHIP CERTIFICATE	21

INTRODUCTION	AIIMS RISHIKESH M.Ch ENTRANCE EXAMINATION JULY BATCH 2019 PROSPECTUS
An Act of Parliament in 2012 established All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Rishikesh as an autonomous institution of national importance and defined its objectives and functions. By virtue of this Act, Institute grants its own medical degrees and or academic distinctions. Degrees granted by Institute under All India Institute of Medical Sciences Act are recognized medical qualifications for purpose of Indian Medical Council Act and notwithstanding anything contained rein, are deemed to be included in first schedule of that Act, entitling holders to same privileges as those attached to equivalent awards from recognized Universities of India.
AIMS & OBJECTIVES
In field of Post Doctoral education, most important function of Institute is to provide opportunities to train teachers for medical colleges in country in an atmosphere of research and development. Post Doctoral students are exposed to newer methods of teaching and given opportunities to actively participate in teaching exercises. Or important objectives of Institute is to bring together in one place educational facilities of highest order for training of personnel in all important branches of health activity and to attain self-sufficiency in postgraduate medical education. Educational principles and practices being adopted are best suited to needs of nation.

01	Mode of Examination	Computer Based Test (CBT) [Online]
02	Duration of Examination	90 Minutes Stage I & II
03	Date of Examination	Sunday, 05thMay, 2019
04	Number of Shifts	01 (One)
05	Timing of Examination	10.00 AM to 11.30 AM (90 Minutes)
06	Location of Examination Centre	AIIMS Rishikesh
07	Language of Paper	English
08	Type of Examination	Objective Type
09	Number of Questions	Stage-I (80 marks of 90 minutes) Stage-II (20 marks for Departmental Assessment)
10	Type of Objective Questions	Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
11	Distribution of Questions	80 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
12	Marking Scheme	Correct Answer:One mark (+)1 Incorrect Answer: Minus one-third (−)1/3 Unanswered / Marked for Review: 0 Not Answered : 0
13	Method of resolving ties	Tie case will be resolved according to age (Date of birth), older candidate shall get preference over younger one.

# Details will be mentioned in admit card.

1. NUMBER OF SEATS

Facilities for post-doctoral courses are available in following super specialties for July 2019

Session:

M.Ch.
1	Spine Surgery	Spine Surgery	01 01 01
2	Paediatric Orthopaedic Surgery	Paediatric Orthopaedic Surgery
3	Joint Replacement & Reconstruction	Joint Replacement & Reconstruction
4	Cosmetic Gynaecology	Cosmetic Gynaecology	01
		TOTAL	04

Note: Candidate is allowed to submit application for one speciality / subject only

All seats falling vacant before declaration of result of M.Ch entrance examination in subject seats have already been advertised will be included.

2. ELIGIBILITY

I) Educational qualification: A candidate must possess a degree in MD/MS or DNB from a University recognized by MCI in respective discipline as mentioned hereunder:-

M.Ch COURSES	REQUIRED QUALIFICATION
Spine Surgery	M.S. in Orthopaedics of this Institute or any or University or any or equivalent degree recognized by MCI
Paediatric Orthopaedic Surgery
Joint Replacement & Reconstruction
Cosmetic Gynaecology	M.D./M.S. in Obstetrics & Gynaecology of this Institute or any or University or any or equivalent degree recognized by MCI

3. AGE LIMIT:

· Upper Age limit is 35 yearsas on 1st July, 2019.

· Upper age limit is relaxable for OBC Candidates by a maximum of 3 years.

· Upper age limit is relaxable in case of SC/ST candidates by a maximum of 5 years.

· Upper age limit is relaxable for Ex-Serviceman and Commissioned Officer including ECO, SSCO who have rendered or released on satisfactory assignment with age relaxation by a maximum of 5 years.

· Upper age limit is not applicable to sponsored candidates.

· Persons with benchmark disabilities shall be given an upper age relaxation of five years for admission to M.Ch for PWD candidates as per Right of persons with Disability Act, 2016.

4. CENTRES FOR COMPETITIVE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

· Examination will be conducted at Rishikesh only

· Centre of examination once allotted on first come basis, (depending on number of nodes available) will not be changed and any request in this regard will not be entertained. Applicants should therefore choose choice of city with utmost care.

· In case of any discrepancy in exercising choice of city or non-availability of centre in city opted in appropriate column of application; centre allotted by AIIMS will be considered as final.

· Applicants are advised to register themselves and submit their application form at earliest without waiting for last date, to avoid not getting city/centre of their choice.

Sl. No.	Name of City	Code
1.	Rishikesh	01

5. SCHEME OF MARKING

• Each correct response will get a score of 1 mark.

• Each incorrect response will get a score of -1/3 (minus-one-third).

• No credit will be given for questions not answered or marked for review (Questions marked for review shall be considered as unanswered)

a	r
CORRECT	WRONG	FOR REVIEW	NOT ANSWERED
+1	- ⅓	0	0

6. METHOD OF SELECTION

Selections for M.Ch courses are made through written examination & interview

Note: I) Result of stage-I will be available on website of Examination Section. No individual intimation will be communicated to candidates.

II) Candidates who fail to attend any of two stages mentioned above will not be eligible for admission.

Selected candidates are required to join on 01/07/2019 or before 15/07/2019. Last date of joining of selected candidates shall be 15th July, 2019.

III) Last date for admission M.Ch Entrance Examination will be 31st August,2019.In any circumstances, last date for admission will not be extended after 31st August, 2019.

7. PERCENTILE SCORES

Percentile scores are scores based on relative performance of all those who appear for examination

Basically marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each group of examinees

Percentile Score indicates percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW that particular Percentile in that examination.

Highest score is converted to a Percentile score of 100.

Marks obtained in between highest and lowest scores are also converted to appropriate Percentiles.

Percentile Scores would be converted to 3 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and therefore reduce ties.

Following is a further explanation of interpretation of scores in an examination with 100 candidates.

• If candidate A’s Percentile score is 100, it indicates that amongst those who have taken examination, 100% have scored their EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN candidate A. It also indicates that no candidate has scored more that candidate A.

• If candidate B’s Percentile score is 90, it indicates that 90% of candidates who have taken examination have scored their EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate B. It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more than candidate B.

• If candidate C’s Percentile score is 50, it indicates that 50% of candidates who have taken examination have scored their EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate C. It also indicates that remaining half of those who took examination have scored more than candidate C.

• If candidate D’s Percentile score is 30, it indicates that 30% of candidates who have taken examination have scored their EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate D. It also indicates that remaining have scored more than candidate D.

• If candidate E’s Percentile score is 1, it indicates that none of thecandidates who have taken examination have scored their EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate E. It also indicates that all remaining candidates who took examination have scored more than candidate.

8. METHOD OF RESOLVING TIES

According to age (Date of birth), older candidate shall get preference over younger one.

9. EMOLUMENTS

M.Ch. candidate selected for post of Senior Resident will be paid emoluments as applicable to post level 11 of Pay Matrix (Pre-revised Pay Band-3 Rs.15600-39100+6600 Grade Pay) with entry pay of Rs.67700/- per month plus usual allowances as admissible under rules or revised pay scale as per 7th CPC as applicable

10. LEAVE

· M.Ch candidates (3 year course) are entitled for following leave during three years training.

Year 1:24 days; Year 2:30 days; Year 3:36 days. Leavesof different years cannot be clubbed together. Availing leave more than these in any year will be treated as Extra Ordinary Leave without pay and registration period will be extended by number of days of Extra Ordinary Leave. If Extra Ordinary Leaves are more than 30 days in total, final exit exam of candidate will be postponed by one session.

· Maternity leaves are also dealt with as for Extra Ordinary Leaves for calculation of tenure extension and exam postponement. For paternity leave, tenure extension and exam postponement will be done if total leaves exceed 90 days 3 years (Academic Committee Agenda item No.8 dated 20.11.2018).

Accordingly, leave entitled for candidates during tenurewill be as follows:-

Leave (M.Ch.3 Year Course)
FIRST YEAR	24 Days
SECOND YEAR	30 Days
THIRD YEAR	36 Days

NOTE:

i. Candidates are not entitled to any or leave except that mentioned above.

ii. Leaves of different years cannot be clubbed together.

iii. Leaves of one year cannot be carried forwarded to another year.

iv. Leaves availed by candidates beyond permissible limit (per year) shall be treated as Extra Ordinary Leaves (EOL) without pay. Extraordinary Leaves can be availed upto maximum of 30 days in tenure period of 3/6 years. But candidate will have to work for extended period equivalent to that of EOL.

v. In case EOL availed are more than 30 days Residency will be extended for similar period and final examination of candidate shall be held with next batch.

vi. Unavailed leaves can be encashed after completion of tenure period on submission of final no dues from concerned departments.

vii. Sponsored/Foreign National candidates are not entitled for leave encashment.

A. MATERNITY LEAVE: Female Residents (DM/M.Ch) are entitled for maternity leaves as per Govt. of India rules during their course with full pay. Their period of registration/training will be extended for equivalent period after adjusting unavailed leaves as permissible in 3 years (90 days). DM/M.Ch candidate will have to work for extended period and final examinationof candidates shall be held with next batch.

B. PATERNITY LEAVE: Male Residents (DM/M.Ch) are entitled for paternityleaves as per Govt. of India rules. Tenure will be extended and exams will be postponed only if total leaves exceed 90 days in 3 years

11. INTERNAL ASSESSMENT

Internal assessment/progress report should be evaluated periodically by faculty members of concerneddepartment on theoretical knowledge and practical skills of a candidate. Head of Department should send such a internal assessment/progress report of each candidate on yearly basis and send to Examination Section under intimation to Academic Section of official records.Weightage of internal assessment/progress report i.e. 20% marks of candidate will be added in his/her final examination.

12. DISSERTATION

Every candidate will be required to (a) one dissertation and protocol to be submitted within 4 months from date of registration. (b) Relaxation for two months can be given by Dean on merit of each case (c) furnish proof of having undertaken research of high order which may be in form of a manuscript of an original article fit for publication or already accepted by an approved journal or (d) present evidence of having published papers of research value in subject concerned in journals recognized by Institute for this purpose. All se should have been done during period of training at Institute.

1) Regarding submission of Protocol/sis/dissertation

a) For 6years M.Ch courses two dissertations are to be submitted by candidates and protocols to be submitted as under:-

i) 1st protocol within 4months of 1st year in Junior Residency from date of registration.

ii) 2nd Protocol in 4th year in Senior Residency within 4 months.

b) For 3 years M.Ch candidate one dissertation and protocol to be submitted within 4months from date of registration.

c) Relaxation for two months can be given by Dean on merit of each case.

13. PENALTY

Original certificates of all candidates will be retained in Academic Section at time of joining. Same will not be returned before completion of course unless he/she deposits a sum ofRs.

3, 00,000/- (Rupees Three Lakhs only). If any candidate who joins M.Ch course, leaves said course within six months of joining, he/she shall be liable to pay a sum of Rs. 3, 00,000/- (Rupees Three Lakhs only) and after six months shall be liable to pay a sum of Rs. 5, 00,000/- (Rupees Five Lakhs only) as compensation for losses incurred by AIIMS due to such midstream departure. Salary for month in which his/her registration from course becomes effective, shall also stand forfeited.

Note: Registration of those candidates who do not submit dissertation at least three months prior to commencement of examination (31st January for May examination and 31st August for December examination) will not be eligible to appear in final Examination.

1. INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION FORM

Candidate should fill in Online Application with utmost care and follow instructions. Candidate should fill in Online Application form correctly. Incorrect filled form may lead to rejection.

2. ONLINE REGISTRATION & SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION FORM

A candidate seeking admission to Entrance Examination is required to submit his/her application in prescribed format available online with Prospectus on www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in. Cost of Application Form includes fee for entrance examination which is non-refundable and no correspondence in this regard will be entertained. Candidate is required to go through Prospectus carefully and acquaint himself/herself with all requirements with regard to filling of online application form.

Online Registration: After selecting online registration, fill mandatory details asked for and deposit prescribed fee through debit/credit card/Net Banking. After submitting fees fill required information step by step. Follow Instructions scrupulously.

It will be responsibility of candidate to ensure that correct details are filled in Registration Slip. Institute will not be responsible for any incorrect information/cancellation of candidature/loss or lack of communication etc. due to wrong filled online Application form.

No candidate should register more than one application.

All applicants are required to ensure that Photo/Signature/Left Thumb Impression is uploaded according to instructions provided in Prospectus. Failure to do so may result in rejection of applications.

Duplicate applications from any applicant will result in cancellation of all such applications. No intimation regarding such summary rejections will be provided.

3. FILLING OF NAME OF COLLEGE OF UG & PG COURSES

There will be drop down facility of College Code and Name of College for qualifying of Undergraduate course in Online Registration form. However, for qualifying of Postgraduate Course name of College will be filled by candidate manually in Text Box.

4. STATUS OF ONLINE REGISTRATION

Acknowledgement of successful Online Registration will be forwarded to applicant’s Registered Email ID. Registration Form will remain Under Review regarding uploaded images and eligibility. However, candidates can check their status of uploaded images within three working days from date of online Registration is done and subsequent further status updates. Rejected images can be updated till registration is open.

Candidates are advised to check final status of their Registration Form regarding images and eligibility and Admit Card which will be available on AIIMS website www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in as per schedule mentioned in “IMPORTANT DATES AT A GLANCE”.

Admit Card for Accepted Registration Form will only be uploaded on website. If status of Registration Form or Admit Card is not available on website, he/she should immediately write an email to Assistant Controller of Examinations, AIIMS, Rishikesh 249203 on ace@aiimsrishikesh.edu.inalong with full particulars of Registration Form.

5. DOCUMENTS TO BE ATTACHED WITH REGISTRATION SLIP

I) No document is required, except following applicability:

(i) Sponsored Candidates and Foreign nationals

1)	Sponsorship Certificate (in case of sponsored candidate) in format prescribed in Prospectus, duly completed and signed by competent authority.
2)	NOC from Ministry of Health & Family Welfare in case of Foreign National.

Note: Sponsored/Foreign national category candidates should send above documents in a separate envelope to Dean(Academics), AIIMS Rishikesh indicating their Registration No. on top of envelope and on documents followed by name of course/discipline applied for.

(ii) Candidates who will qualify in Stage I result and called for Departmental Assessment must upload their self attested/attested copies of certificates/documents in support of their educational qualifications, marks, date of birth, category, experience etc. as mentioned in Stage I result on website by login their credentials.

If a candidate fails to upload self attested copies of requisite documents as above, his/her candidature will be cancelled and he/she will not be allowed to participate in subsequent stages of selection/admission process.

6. SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION BY CANDIDATES WHO ARE EMPLOYED

Institute does not have any objection ifsponsored candidates for all courses submit their applications direct i.e. they are not required to submit their applications through proper channel). However, all such candidates should inform their employer in writing that they are applying for this Entrance Examination. They should also sign Undertaking in down loaded copy of Registration Slip that they have informed their employer about submission of application to AIIMS. If any communication is received from their department/office withholding permission to candidate's appearing at entrance examination/admission to course, candidature/admission of candidate will be cancelled, and no further correspondence in this regard will be entertained. (Sponsored candidates are required to route their Registration Slip through proper channel).

7. REQUIREMENTS FOR ADMISSION OF "SPONSORED" CANDIDATES

a) Candidates who are permanent employees of any Central/State Government/Armed Forces or Public Sector Undertaking/Autonomous Body can be sponsored by respective Government/Defence Authorities or Competent Authorities of PSU/Autonomous Body.

b) A State Government can sponsor candidates only for those Post Doctoral Super Speciality (M.Ch) courses which are not available in State. A certificate regarding non-availability of course (for which candidate is being sponsored) in concerned State, duly signed by Secretary/Director General of Health Services of Central / State Government/ DGAFMS/Competent Authority or PSU/Autonomous Body viz. Director/Executive Head of concerned organization, should be furnished in format prescribed for this purpose.

c) All eligible "sponsored" candidates will be called by Institute for an entrance test.

d) Seats as shown in prospectus are available for "sponsored" candidates. Sponsored candidates will be designated as "trainees".

e) Subject for which candidate is being sponsored should be clearly specified in sponsorship form by sponsoring authority. Candidate can be sponsored for only one subject. Applications of those candidates who are sponsored for more than one subject will not be considered.

f) No "Sponsored" candidate will be paid any emoluments to Institute during training period. Such payments will be responsibility of sponsoring authority (i.e. Central/State Government or Defense Authorities).

g) Sponsored candidates must submit/send sponsorship certificate in original from their employers in following format along with application form to Dean(Academics), AIIMS

Rishikesh -249203. Those who fail to do so should submit it before date of issue of Admit Cards as mentioned under "AT A GLANCE" in Prospectus failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

8. REQUIREMENTS FOR ADMISSION OF FOREIGN NATIONALS/OVERSEAS CITIZEN OF INDIA (OCI)

a) Foreign nationals are required to fill in prescribed online application form indicating choice of subject (only one subject) for admission to Postgraduate courses leading to award of M.Ch. Entrance Examination.

b) Foreign nationals are required to send their Registration Slip of Online application through Diplomatic Channel. They are also required to appear in Competitive Entrance Examination along with or candidates. An ‘Advance Copy’ to be submitted at AIIMS, Rishikesh before last date of online registration. However application of all such candidates will be processed only after receipt of same through Diplomatic Channel.

c) Foreign nationals will be considered against seats advertised under "Sponsored" category for M.Ch. Entrance Examination courses. They should be registered with MCI before they will be allowed to join said course. If they are selected for same.

d) Seats are not reserved in any discipline for foreign nationals (except bilateral agreement between Government of India and any or nation).

e) Nominations/No objection for candidate should reach Examination Section before date of issue of Admit Card as specified under "AT A GLANCE". In case of non-receipt of nominations/clearance/no objection from concerned Ministry by due date, their candidature will not be considered.

f) No emoluments will be paid by AIIMS to Foreign National candidates.

g) OVERSEAS CITIZEN OF INDIA (OCI) : OCI registered under Section 7A of Citizenship Act 1955 are also eligible to appear in PG courses and all terms and conditions applicable for Indian Nationals will be applicable to candidates. Candidate will submit proof of Registration as OCI under Section 7A of Citizenship Act 1955 to be eligible to appear for this test.

9. GUIDELINES FOR AIIMS FACULTY FOR M.CH PROGRAMME UNDER SPONSORED CATEGORY

1. Members of medical faculty can apply for registration to M.Ch course as in-service candidate.

2. At any time only one out of a 5 Faculty members in a particular department can be registered as M.Ch courses and not more than 2 candidates in any department at any given time, will be registered as M.Ch candidates in a particular department where there are more than 5 faculty members.

3. Individual opting to pursue course should be below 50 years of age.

4. Faculty member seeking admission under this category should only be registered for M.Ch programme in same department in which he/she is working. (115 Academic Committee 22.11.2016).

5. Faculty should be a regular employee of Institute & should have rendered a minimum of 3 years continuous service as faculty at Institute.

6. Candidate admitted under this category will be considered as in service candidate provided Head of Department certifies that (a) such training will help in patient care/teaching/research of Department (b) work of department will not suffer and no additional staff will be asked for.

7. Faculty member who has registered himself/herself as M.Ch course will not be eligible to be Guide/Co-Guide of any or M.Ch candidate in concerned department during time he/she is undergoing course.

8. (a) Faculty members may apply through proper channel as sponsored candidates and appear for entrance examination.

(b) Through proper channel for open entrance examination if Sponsored seats are not available.

9. Candidates selected for pursuing said course has to pay M.Ch fee etc.

10. Faculty member has to execute a bond that he/she will serve institute for a period not less than five years after completing said course failing to which they are liable to return total salary, allowances and any amount paid to them by institute during their course alongwith a penalty amount of Rs.20 Lacs. In case of violation of compliance of provisions of executed bond appropriate legal action shall be initiated against defaulters.

11. During period of course, in-service/faculty member will be treated as on study leave.

12. Period of study leave for said course within same Department or within AIIMS will be counted for purpose of A.P.S. Those who are availing study leave for courses outside AIIMS period will not be counted for A.P.S.

13. Candidate/faculty will not be entitled for winter/summer vacation during entire course and he/she will be eligible for leaves as per Residency Scheme.

14. Duties/Responsibilities of trainee will be as per Residency Scheme.

15. In-service candidates will have option to pursue this course in any stream, subject to availability of seats and forwarding of their applications through proper channel.

16. Candidate/faculty will be allowed to avail of study leave for pursuing M.Ch/Fellowship courses only one during entire service.

10. SUBMISSION OF CASTE CERTIFICATE BY SC/ST/OBC CANDIDATES

After declaration of result of Entrance Examination, candidates belong to Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe and Or Backward Classes should submit, along with or requisite documents, an attested copy of a certificate from any one of following authorities stating that candidate belongs to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe or Other Backward Classes in prescribed form.

A. District Magistrate, Additional District Magistrate, Collector, Deputy Commissioner, Additional Deputy Commissioner, Deputy Collector, 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate, City Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate, Taluka Magistrate, Executive Magistrate, Extra Assistant Commissioner.

B.Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.

C. Revenue Officer not below rank of Tehsildar.

D. Sub-Divisional Officer of area where candidate and his or her family normally resides.

E. Administrator/Secretary to Administrator/Development Officer (Lakshadweep Island) or as authorised in Constitution.

Candidate will be required to submit an undertaking to effect of their caste. Detection of any discrepancy in caste certificate shall entail cancellation of registration. This is as per provisions made by Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions vide their order

No. 36033/4/97-Estt. (RES) dated 25.7.2003 and No. 36011/3/2005-Estt. (RES) dated 9.9.2005 respectively.

Candidates must note that a certificate from any or person/authority will not be accepted and no furthercorrespondence in this regard shall be entertained. Name, designation and seal of officer should be legible in certificate.

11. PROCEDURE IF THERE IS ANY DISCREPANCY NOTICED:

Discrepancy, if any, in date and time of entrance examination mentioned in Prospectus, Admit Card etc. should be immediately brought to notice of Dean (Academics), AIIMS Rishikesh through email. Complaints received after examination will not be entertained. In case any discrepancy is found in information provided in various documents, data provided on Application Form will be considered as final for all purposes.

12. It will be responsibility of candidate to ensure that correct address, Mobile No. & email ID in Application Form is filled. Institute shall not be responsible for any miscommunication due to incorrect address, Mobile No. and email ID given by applicant on Application Form or non- receipt for any communication.

13.Downloadable Admit cards of all eligible candidates will be hosted on website www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in as per schedule mentioned under IMPORTANT DATES ‘AT A GLANCE’. All candidates are advised to download their Admit Cards from website. It may please be noted that Admit Cards will not be sent by Post.

14. Any Change in address mobile No. and email ID should be immediately intimated to this office. Candidate should also ensure that any communication sent at previous address is redirected to him/her at new address.

15. If a candidate is at any stage found to have provided false information/certificate or is found to have withheld or concealed some information in his/her application form, he/she will be debarred from admission, his/her residency will be terminated with immediate effect.

16. If ineligibility is detected at any stage, candidature/admission of candidate will be cancelled without any notice.

17. Candidate must not obtain or give or attempt to obtain or give irregular assistance of any kind during examination; this will entail expulsion and cancellation of candidature for examination. Admission of candidate will be cancelled and appropriate criminal/civil proceedings will be initiated against candidates, if at any stage of examination candidate is found to have secured admission by using any unfair means.

18. Institute will not intimate result of Entrance Test individual. No correspondence in this regard will be entertained. However, marks of individual candidate will be made available on AIIMS website www.aiimsrishikesh.edu.in after declaration of final result by login their credential on My Page.

19. There is no provision for re-checking/re-evaluation of answer sheets and no query in this regard will be entertained.

20. Decision of Director of Institute shall be final in matter of selection of candidates for admission to various courses and no appeal will be entertained in this regard.

21. Selected candidates must join course on date stipulated in letter of selection, failing which selection/admission shall stand cancelled/withdrawn.

22. Selected candidates will have to submit original Permanent Registration Certificate at time of joining.

23. Selection of Senior Residents (M.Ch.) will be subject to medical fitness. No selected candidate will be permitted to pay fee/join course unless declared medically fit by Medical Board appointed by Institute. Decision of Medical Board shall be final.

24. Each candidate selected for admission shall have to pay fee/dues within prescribed period failing which his/her admission shall be cancelled.

25. Private practice in any form during course is prohibited. Period of training is strictly full time and continuous.

26. Rules are subject to change in accordance with decision of Institute to be taken from time to time.

27. Any dispute in regard to any matter referred to herein shall be subject to jurisdiction of Dehradun court alone.

1. FEES

Each candidate selected for admission will have to pay following Course duration Fees and dues:

Details of FEE	One Time (on admission)	Monthly fees (Amount ) Rs	Quarterly fees (Amount) Rs	Half Yearly Fees(Amount) Rs	1st Year Fees(Amount) Rs
Registration Fees	1000 on admission	-	-	-	-
Caution Money	5000 on admission	-	-	-	-
Hostel Security	5000 on admission	-	-	-	-
Hostel Electricity	-	Actual Basis	Actual Basis	Actual Basis	Actual Basis
Recreation Fees	-	600	1800	3600	7200
Tution Fees	702	-	-	-	-
Pot Money	-	298	894	1788	3576
Laboratory Fee	-	702	2106	4212	8424
Examination Fee	5000 per exam	-	-	-	-
Total	11,702	1600	4800	9600	19,200

(All Fees and dues payable at time of admission)

Note: 1. Hostel Security deposit (refundable) i.e. Rs. 5000/-

Note: 2. Fees and or charges including hostel rent once paid shall not be refunded in any case and no correspondence will be entertained in this connection. However, caution money will be refunded to those candidates who do not join course. Caution money must be claimed within one year after completion of course failing which it will be forfeited.

2. HOSTEL ACCOMMODATION

Unmarried Senior Residents (M.Ch) will be provided partially furnished accommodation subject to availability. Those married and living with family will be provided, subject to availability, partially furnished married hostel accommodation on recovery of rent as per rules of A.I.I.M.S.

3. INSTITUTE LIBRARY

Institute library is well stocked with all important medical books and journals. Or facilities include photocopying, Medline, video monitor facilities and modern learning resources materials (LRM). Books and periodicals are loaned to bonafide members for a specified period of time.

4. CODE OF CONDUCT FOR STUDENTS AT AIIMS, Rishikesh

(i) Maintenance of Discipline among students of AIIMS :

1. All powers relating to discipline and disciplinary action are vested with Director, AIIMS.

2. Director, AIIMS may delegate all such powers, as he/she deems proper to Dean and to such or persons as he/she may specify on his behalf.

3. Without prejudice to generality of power to enforce discipline under Rules.Following shall amount to acts of gross indiscipline:

a) Physical assault or threat to use physical force against any member of teaching or non- teachingstaff of any Department/Centre of AIIMS or any or persons within premises/ Campus of AIIMS.

b) Carrying or use or threat of use of any weapon.

c) Violation of status, dignity and honour of students belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Or Backward Castes.

d) Any practice, whether verbal or otherwise, derogatory to women.

e) Any attempt at bribing or corruption in any manner.

f) Willful destruction of institutional property.

g) Creating ill-will or intolerance on religious or communal grounds.

h) Causing disruption in any manner of functioning of AIIMS, Rishikesh.

i) Regarding ragging directive of Supreme Court will be followed strictly. It is as under:

"As per direction of Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, Government has banned ragging completely in any form inside and outside of campus and Institute authorities are determined not to allow any form of ragging. Whoever directly or indirectly commits, participates in abets or instigates ragging within or outside any educational Institution, shall be suspended, expelled or rusticated from Institution and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to Rs. 10,000/-. Punishment may also include cancellation of admission suspension from attending classes, withholding/withdrawing fellowship/scholarship and or financial benefits, withholding or cancelling result. Decision shall be taken by Head of Institution."

4. Without prejudice to generality of his/her powers relating to maintenance of discipline and taking such action in interest of maintaining discipline as may seem to him/her appropriate. Director, may in exercise of his/her powers aforesaid order or direct that any student or students.

a) Be expelled;

b) Be, for a stated period: be not for a stated period, admitted to a course or courses of study in AIIMS.

c) Be fined with a sum of rupees that may be specified;

d) Be debarred from taking any examination(s) for one or more semesters.

e) Withhold result of student(s) concerned in Examination(s) in which he/she or they have appeared be cancelled.

f) Be prohibited for appearing or completing any examination for any unfair means like copying taking notes, mobiles or any or electronic gadgets inside examination halls.

5. At time of admission, every student shall be required to sign a declaration that on admission he/she submits himself/herself to disciplinary jurisdiction of Director and several authorities of AIIMS who may be vested with authority to exercise discipline under Acts, Statutes, Rules and rules that have been framed re under by competent authorities of AIIMS.

(ii) Prohibition of and Punishment for Ragging:

1. Ragging in any form is strictly prohibited, within premises of College/Department of Institution and any part of AIIMS and also outside AIIMS Campus.

2. Any individual or collective act or practice or ragging constitute gross indiscipline shall be dealt with under this Rules.

3. Ragging for purposes of this rules, ordinarily means any act, conduct or practice by which dominant power or status of senior students is brought to bear on students freshly enrolled or students who are, in any way, considered junior or inferior by or students and includes individual or collective acts or practice which :

a) Involve physical assault or threat or use of physical force;

b) Violate status, dignity and honour of women students;

c) Violate status; dignity and honour of students belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Or Backward Castes.

d) Expose students to ridicule and contempt and affect ir self-esteem;

e) Entail verbal abuse and aggression, indecent gesture and obscene behaviour.

4. Director, Dean, Hostel Superintendent and Faculty of AIIMS shall take immediate action on any information of occurrence of ragging.

5. Notwithstanding anything in Clause (4) above, Dean or any or Faculty member/or authority may also suo moto enquire into any incident of ragging and make a report to Director of identity of those who have engaged and nature of incident.

6. Dean may also submit an initial report establishing identity of perpetrators of ragging and nature of ragging incident.

7. On receipt of a report under clause (5) or (6) or a determination by relevant authority disclosing occurrence or ragging incidents described in Clause 3(a), (b) and (c) Director shall direct or order rustication of a student or students for a specific number of semester.

8. Director may in or cases of ragging order or direct that any student or students be expelled or be not, for a stated period, admitted to a course of study as AIIMS, departmental examination for one or more semesters or that result of student or students concerned in examination(s) in which y appeared be cancelled.

9. In case where students who have obtained degree(s) of AIIMS are found guilty under this Rules, appropriate action will be taken for withdrawal of degrees conferred by AIIMS.

10. For purpose of this Rules, abetment to ragging will also amount to ragging.

(iii) Anti Sexual Harassment Monitoring Committee:

A statutory committee, comprising of members from teaching and non-teaching staff as well as students looks into matters related to sexual harassment of students and staff in college. Any person aggrieved in this matter may fearlessly approach committee for a fair and concerned hearing and redressal.

(iv) Unauthorised absence of students:

Unauthorised absence of students will be informed to Students and also Parents or Local Guardians. At least 3 reminders will be issued with a gap of 10 days by Academic Section to se students. reafter action of cancellation of registration of concerned will be decided by Dean/ Director, AIIMS.

FORMAT OF SPONSORSHIP CERTIFICATE BY CENTRAL/STATE GOVT./ARMED FORCES (SPONSORING AUTHORITIES)

1. I certify that Dr./Miss/Mrs./Mr.* is being sponsored for training leading to award of M.Ch. Course (Spine Surgery/ Paediatric Orthopaedic surgery/Joint Replacement & Reconstruction/ Cosmetic Gynaecology ) in

at All India Institute of Medical Sciences Rishikesh for session commencing in July 2019.

2. That Dr./Miss/Mrs./Mr.* is a permanent employee of

(name of the State/Central Govt. Dept./Office/Armed Forces/the Competent Authorities of PSU/Autonomous Body etc.)

3. That Post Doctoral M.Ch. Course for which candidate is being sponsored, is not available in this State.

4. That he/she after getting training at AIIMS Rishikesh will be suitably employed by sponsoring authority in speciality in which training is to be provided in All India Institute of Medical Sciences Rishikesh.

5. That candidate will be paid all emoluments by sponsoring authority during entire training period. Such payment will not be responsibility of All India Institute of Medical Sciences Rishikesh.

6. That candidate is being sponsored for entire duration of course as specified in prospectus for above mentioned course.

Date : Place :

Signature of

Sponsoring authority

Name

(in BLOCK LETTERS)

Designation

Office Seal

*Delete whichever is not required.

IMPORTANT:

(i) Above certificate, duly signed only by Competent Authority i.e. Secretary/Director General of Health Services of Central/State Government concerned/ DGAFMS/ Director/ Executive Head, will be considered.

(ii) No addition or alteration in above certificate is allowed.

(iii) Subject/Discipline must be specified in sponsorship certificate failing which candidature will not be considered under sponsored category.

NOTE 1: While sponsoring candidates, Central/State Government/ Defence Authorities/PSU/Autonomous Bodies should furnish a certificate prescribed for this purpose duly completed and signed by competent authority.

NOTE 2: 'Sponsorship Certificate' should indicate discipline/speciality for which candidate is being sponsored, failing which application will not be considered under Sponsored

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NEET-SS NEET SS Question papers Question Bank for all supersprecialities Surgery Medicine Orthopaedics Anaesthesia Critical care Obstetrics Gyneacology Reproductive medicine Infertility medicine

2019-03-02T19:42:00.000+05:30

NEET-SS NEET SS Question papers Question Bank for all supersprecialities Surgery Medicine Orthopaedics Anaesthesia Critical care Obstetrics Gyneacology Reproductive medicine Infertility medicine

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1. FNB FET NEET SS Question Bank for trauma spine sports medicine hand VOL 1

Rs 1495

2. FNB FET NEET SS Question Bank for trauma spine sports medicine hand VOL 2

Rs 1495

3. FNB FET NEET SS Question Bank for trauma spine sports medicine hand VOL 3

Rs 1495

For in depth focus on superspeciality MCQs the following books are indispensable

4. NEET SS Hand Surgery Question Bank Rs 1495

5. NEET SS Spine Surgery Question Bank Rs 1495

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Books for NEET SS NEET superspeciality, books for FET FNB Spine, hand and micro surgery,trauma, sports medicine, arthroplasty, arthroscopy, MEDICINE, OBSTETRICS GYNEACOLOGY, ANAESTHESIA CRITICAL CARE, SURGICAL SUPERSPECIALITITES.

NEET-SS MEDICINESuperspeciality Exam Question Bank Rs 1492

NEET-SS Obstetrics Gyneacology Superspeciality Exam Question Bank Rs 1499

NEET-SS Anaesthesia critical care Superspeciality Exam Question Bank Rs 1491

NEET-SS SURGERY Superspeciality Exam Question Bank Rs 999

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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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What is Pitres Testut sign Egawa sign

2019-01-13T10:09:00.001+05:30

Pitres Testut sign is a used for examination of ulnar nerve palsy cases.
Pitres Testut sign is defined as the inability to actively move the middle finger in radial or ulnar direction / abduct to either side with the palm faced flat on the table.It is used to clinically examine ulnar nerve.
It is also called the Dancing Middle Finger Test.

similar to Egawa sign - Egawa's Sign- indication of ulnar nerve palsy, inability of flexed middle finger to abduct radially and ulnarly and to rotate the MCP joint

Pitres testut sign or the dancing middle finger test.

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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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SCORE 2019 Sriramachandra Orthopaedic Post graduate course

2019-01-02T21:40:00.004+05:30

SCORE 2019 Sriramachandra Orthopaedic Post graduate course
Sri Ramachandra Continuing Orthopaedic Revision Education 2019
Recommended ortho postgraduate CME PG Course

Registrations open
To be held 30 January to 2nd February 2019
SRMC Campus, Porur, Chennai
Prof Gopinath Menon
Prof. N. Jambu
Department of Orthopaedics
Sri Ramachandra Medical College

SCORE 2019 Sriramachandra Orthopaedic Post graduate course

SCORE 2019

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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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RESIDENT ORTHO COURSE CALICUT 2018

2018-12-23T10:30:00.000+05:30

RESIDENT ORTHO COURSE CALICUT 2018

conducted by GMC ORTHO TRUST & IQRAA HOSPITAL2018 DECEMBER 29 AND 30 CALICUT

ortho postgraduate PG teaching course

Course Director Prof Gopinathan

The department of Orthopaedics GMC Ortho Trust & IQRAA Hospital is conducting Resident
Ortho Course Calicut 2018 on December 29 & 30 2018 at GMC Ortho Trust auditorium Calicut. This
involves two days of intensive P.G. teaching programme with emphasis on clinical discussion
covering important orthopaedic topics. Faculty include professors & DNB and MS Ortho examiners
from various Indian Universities.
Looking forward to see you at ROCC 2018 at Calicut on 2018 December 29th & 30th
Highlights:
1. Eminent Faculty 2. Plethora of Cases 3. Focus on basic examination skills4. All sessions asper DNB module 5. P.G. night on Dec 29 at 7.30pm at Kozhikode.

RESIDENT ORTHO COURSE CALICUT 2018

calicut ortho course

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GANDHI ORTHOPAEDIC EDUCATION GOE 2019

2018-12-23T10:07:00.000+05:30

GANDHI ORTHOPAEDIC EDUCATION GOE 2019

A COURSE ON COMPLEX TRAUMA AROUND THE KNEE

Department of Orthopaedics
Gandhi medical college
Secunderabad

20th january 2019

GANDHI ORTHOPAEDIC EDUCATION GOE 2019

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HOME Orthopaedic Post graduate teaching course 2019

2018-12-21T21:53:00.000+05:30

HOME Orthopaedic Post graduate teaching course 2019

Hyderabad Orthopaedic Medical Education by Osmania Medical College
HOME 2019
January 11 12 13

Registrations open

Recommended CME by ORTHODNB.COM

HOME Orthopaedic Post graduate teaching course 2019

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Arihant PG course mukhopadhya orthopaedic post graduate course 2019

2018-12-16T18:22:00.003+05:30

Arihant Ortho post graduate course

mukhopadhya orthopaedic post graduate course 2019

Registrations open

January 17 to 20

Arihant hospital , Indore

Prof D.K. Taneja

Dr. John Mukhopadhya

mukhopadhya orthopaedic post graduate course 209

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Orthodnb.com , India's largest network of Orthoapedic Surgeons, Postgraduates and Fellows.
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SALE ON ORTHOPAEDIC VIDEOS DNB MS FNB NEET SS MRCS STUDY MATERIAL

2018-12-14T16:28:00.000+05:30

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FET Question bank with answers VOL 1 , VOL 2 , VOL 3 for Fellowship Entrance test conducted by natboard for Orthopaedics Trauma, Spine surgery, hand and Sports medicine.

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Davangere Orthopaedic Notes 2019

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Davangere ortho notes covers essentially everything an Orthopaedic postgraduate should know
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The main and essential ingredient is the cross referenced "COLD Orthopaedics" presented in approapriate heads which cannot be found anywhere.Prepared from standard textbooks meticulously.
The print errors in the previous editions have been corrected
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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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DNB MS Orthopaedics MRCS FET FNB Guide

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SCORE Sri Ramachandra orthopaedic postgraduate revision education cme 2019

2018-12-13T19:43:00.001+05:30

SCORE Sri Ramachandra orthopaedic postgraduate revision education cme 2019

SCORE Sri Ramachandra orthopaedic postgraduate revision education cme 2019,
30 january to 2nd february 2019

Sri Ramachandra Medical college, porur, chennai

department of orthopaedics

registrations open

Feature your orthopaedic events on orthodnb.com

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DNB ORTHOPAEDICS MS MRCS GUIDE

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Study Material to Pass Any Orthopaedics Exam

management.3. Current concepts in the treatment of clavicle fractures.	10
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