Quality Center and QTP Certification

New Features of QC / ALM v11

2011-10-30T01:13:00.000-07:00

Sr.	New Features	Details
1.	Project Planning & Tracking	# Track & measure project milestones and KPIs # Release Milestones & KPIs # Master Plan # Scorecard# Dashboard
2.	Requirements Management enhancements	# Business Process Model -INTEGRATION # New Rich Text Editor# Requirements Templates
3.	Test Management	# Test Configurations
4.	HP Sprinter (Manual Testing)	# Connects directly to HP Quality Center # Test Execution # Screen Annotation and Tools # Log defects in QC # Data Injection # Exploratory Testing# Mirror Testing
5.	Development Management	# Key Developer Integration and Collaboration
6.	Reporting enhancements	# Generate Reports# Embedded Web Scorecards & Graphs
7.	Administration and Integration and Performance	# Side by Side Clients: Allows running multiple clients connecting to different versions of ALM and QC Servers (ALM 11; QC 9.2, 10.0, 11.0) # Client Installation: User can install client on desktop without system administration rights # REST APIs: New web services technology for simple integration with ALM platform. The ALM Synchronizer now leverages the REST APIs. # QC Sense: Internal monitoring tool that collects data and reports on user actions performed in the user interface, and all client and server activity resulting from those actions# Smart Repository: Optimized repository system, that creates better performance for common actions, and reduces the size of the file system

Differences between HP QC 10.0 and HP ALM 11.0

2011-10-28T09:34:00.000-07:00

http://www.scribd.com/doc/70675181

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 19

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6) After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, ....... shows the other requirements that the change might affect.

A) equality   B) link-ability   C) traceability   D) cross-links

7)   QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree in the Releases module.
A) True   B) False

8) The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these requirements to create ......

A) linkages   B) linked-requirements   C) requirements plan   D) coverage

9)   QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not Reviewed   status to a ..... status once it is approved.
A) Passed   B) Reviewed   C) Partially reviewed   D) Both B & C

10)   You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from ........
A) Microsoft Word   B) Excel   C) other third-party requirement management tools   D) All of above
11)   In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified requirement has
A) attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags   B) attachments, linked defects, alerts   C) attachments, linked defects and follow up flags   D) linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags

12)   To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose ............., and enter the requirement ID.
A) Requirements > Find Requirement   B) Requirements > Go to Requirement   C) Requirements > Get Requirement   D) Requirements > Display Requirement

13)   The Requirements ...... view enables you to display requirements in a flat   non-hierarchical view. Each line in the .... displays a separate requirement.
A) File, file   B) hierarchical, hierarchy   c) Grid, Grid   D) Both B & C

14)   The ... Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test ..... status.
A) Plan   B) Requirement   C) Coverage   D) Task

15)   You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key ....
A) F6   B) F7   C) F8   D) F9

16) The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means

A) The current status of the requirement   B) The previous status of the requirement   C) The coming status of the requirement   D) The fixed status of the requirement

17)   You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements module.
A) True   B) False

18)   You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root folder.
A) True   B) False

19)   You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center, without the need to edit the text in Word.
A) True   B) False

20)   You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in the Requirement Details dialog box.
A) True   B) False

21)   You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the ....... command.
A) Search   B) Find   C) Look   D) Get

22)   You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project
A) True   B) False

23)   You cannot copy a requirement within the same project or between projects.
A) True   B) False

24)   Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are not copied.
A) True   B) False

25)   Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A) Convert Requirements to Tests   B) Generate a Test from Requirements.   C) Get a test from a requirement   D) Both A & B   E) Both B & C

26) Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.

A) Trace from, Trace to    B) Trace to, Trace from   C) Trace from select, Trace to select    D) Trace to select, Trace from select

27)   When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by all users.
A) True   B) False

28)   You can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the ...... tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.
A) traceability    B) Relationships   C) Req-traceability    D) traceability-Req

29)   The ...... feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you have available.
A) Level-based quality management    B) Calculate-based quality management   C) risk-based quality management   D) None of above

30)   You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The Risk Category is composed of its .....
A) Business Criticality & Failure Probability   B) Business Probability & Failure Criticality   C) Priority & Severity   D) None of above

31)   Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:
A) First, second, third, and fourth   B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None   C) Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate   D) Partial,Basic, moderate and Advanced

32) The ...... link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.

A) missing risk assessment B) miss assessment C) missing assessment D) exclude assessment

1) A , 2) B , 3) D, 4) A , 5) B , 6) C , 7) A , 8) D , 9) B , 10) D, 11) A , 12) B, 13) C, 14) C, 15) D, 16) A, 17 A, 18) A, 19 A), 20) B,21) B,22) A,23) B,24) A ,25) D ,26) A,27) A,28) B,29) C, 30) A, 31) B, 32) C

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 18

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1) You begin the application testing process by defining a releases tree in the.......
A) Requirements module B) Releases module C) Plan Tests module D) Either B or C

2) Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical tree structure.

A) True B) False

3) A release represents a ..... in one or more applications that willbe available for distribution at the same time.

A) group of releases B) group of changes C) group of defects D) group of requests

4) After defining the release, a QA manager defines ...... A ..... is a set of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline.

A) cycles, cycle B) Tries, Try C) Priorities, Priority D) Files, File

5) After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the........ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.

A) Plans B) groups of plans C) upcoming modules D) requirements

6) After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each..... folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.

A) test sets B) test set C) tests set D) testing set

7) A ...... is a group of testinstances in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific test goals.

A) test sets B) test set C) tests set D) testing set

8) A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage of the testing process.

A) True B) False

9) While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager assigns them to the appropriate ..........

A) release and cycle B) cycle and release C) defect and cycle D) cycle and defect

10) The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real time by analyzing the releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release goals.

A) True B) False

11) In the Progress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the Assigned requirements curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are ..... throughout the release.

A) run B) covered C) passed D) assigned

12) The ....... helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number ofdefects submitted over the course of a release or cycle.

A) Details tab B) Attachments tab C) Progress tab D) Quality tab

13) The defects are categorized by ...... in terms of how they impact system operation. A) Priority B) severity

14) You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in the releases tree. A) True B) False

15) The Releases root folder can also bemoved.

A) True B) False

16) You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.

A) True B) False

17) Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not un assigns the associated requirements, test set folders, and defects.

A) True B) False

18) You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in the releases tree by dragging it.

A) True B) False

1) B , 2) A , 3) B, 4) A , 5) D , 6) B , 7) B , 8) A , 9) A , 10) B, 11) B , 12) D, 13) B, 14) A, 15) B, 16) A, 17 B, 18) A

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 17

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1) You access Quality Center over the ......, via a Web browser.

A) Internet
B) a corporate intranet
C) Mobile Internet
D) Both A & B

2) Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking applicationdefects, enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial detection until resolution

A) True
B) False

3) Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:

A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track defects.

4) Each Quality Center project is supported by a ...... that stores project information.

A) Root folder
B) Database
C) Flat File
D) Both B & C

5) Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The ..... determines the privileges that the user has within a project.

A) QC group
B) user_Account group
C) Account group
D) user group

6) You can import data from...... to a Quality Center project.

A) Word or Notepad
B) Word or Wordpad
C) Word or Excel
D) Word or Power Point

7) You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.

A) True
B) False

8) Quality Center prompts you to install ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.

A) Microsoft Java 2.0

B) Microsoft Visio 13.0

C) Microsoft Visual studio 2.0

D) Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

9) Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:

A) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis

B) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components

C) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis

D) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects

10) When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.

A) True B) False

11) The ..... can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them about important maintenance or other issues.

A) site administer B) site Controller C) site Analyser D) site administrator

12) Quality Center organizes and displays data in ......:

A) grids B) trees C) Folders D) Both A & B

13) You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear, and by changing column size.

A) True B) False

14) You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define.

A) True B) False

15) When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced ....... on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or defects.

A) Secondary filter B) Primary filter C) cross filter D) Second filter

16) By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ....

A) Increasing order B) Decreasing order C) order in which they were added. D) order in which they were deleted.

17) You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the Clipboard.

A) True B) False

18) You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ........

A) Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules. B) Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules. C) Requirements and Defects modules. D) Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.

19) If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module

A) True B) False

20) Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.

A) True B) False

21) You can export the data in a grid as a ......

A) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document. B) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word C) text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document. D) Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.

22) When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.

A) True B) False

23) A ..... indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.

A) Green flag B) Pink flag C) red flag D) Blue flag

24) Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability notifications. You can use ..... flags to remind yourself to follow up on something.

A) Alert Me B) follow up C) follow Me D) follow

25) Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.

A) True B) False

26) You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.

A) True B) False

27) A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.

A) True B) False

28) A ....... is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.

A) Personal view B) My view C) favorite view D) fav view

29) By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ....... parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) FAVORITES_DEPTH B) FAVORITES-DEPTH C) FAVORITE_DEPTH D) FAVORITE_DEPTHS

30) You save favorite views in either a .... folder or a ..... folder. Views in a .... folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ..... folder are accessible only to the user who created them.

A) public, private, public, private B) Root, Base, Root, Base, C) locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked D) Both B & C

1) D , 2) A , 3) B, 4) B , 5) D , 6) C , 7) A , 8) D , 9) B , 10) A, 11) D , 12) D, 13) B, 14) A, 15) C, 16) C, 17 B, 18) A, 19) A, 20) A, 21) A, 22) A, 23) C, 24) B, 25) A, 26) A, 27) A, 28) C, 29) A, 30) A

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 16

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141) You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so that it is available for other users in the current project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury logo in the project document.

A) True B) False

142) While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project Documents) Microsoft Word is limited to .... header levels in the table of contents.

A) Seven B) Eight C) Nine D) Ten

143) You use the ...... pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.

A) Subject Tree B) Subject Tests C) Subject plans D) Both A & B

144) You use the ........ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear in the project document.

A) Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run B) Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs C) Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs D) Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs

145) You can generate a ...... that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included.

A) view project document B) preview project document C) pre project document D) None

146) You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel and analyze the data from within Excel.

A) True B) False

147) You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.

A) True B) False

148) Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the necessary permissions.

A) True B) False

149) After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating .... to extract the data.

A) Test Queries B) Lotus Queries C) Excel Macros D) SQL queries

150) To view the database type used for your project database, click the... button.

A) Database in use B) Database Type C) Get Database D) Database version

141) B , 142) C , 143) D, 144) D , 145) B , 146) A , 147) B , 148) B , 149) D , 150) B

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 15

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131) Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the .........

A) Requirements module B) Test Plan module C) Test Lab module D) Defects module E) Both A & C F) All of Above

132) Requirements -Summary Graph

A) Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points during a period of time. B) Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project C) Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project. D) Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.

133) By default, the graph appears as a

A) pie chart, B) bar chart C) Pareto chart D) Both A & B

134) You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation process.

A) True B) False

135) You can determine how information appears in the graph using the .....

A) graph toolbar. B) graph settings C) graph menu D) Both A & C

136) ..... graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical representation of data related to test plans and test sets.

A) Live Value B) Live Analysis C) Live Analytics D) Both A & C

137) You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a .... folder.

A) test subject B) test set C) test category D) Both A & B

138) The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.

A) True B) False

139) The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word document containing a project’s requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.

A) True B) False

140) The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained in a Quality Center project.

A) True B) False

131) F , 132) C , 133) B, 134) A , 135) A , 136) B , 137) D , 138) A , 139) A , 140) A

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 14

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121) You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at any stage of the testing process.

A) True B) False

122) There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects: A) Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text. B) Find related Defects & Find related Text. C) Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text. D) Find all Defects & Find all Text.

123) You can update defects directly in the ......, or in the ..... dialog box.

A) Defects Grid   B) Defects Detail   C) Defects Module   D) Both A & B   E) Both B & C
124)   You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the project administrator in Project Customization.
A) True   B) False

125) By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration

A) M_FORMAT B) MAIL_FORMAT_ID C) MAIL_FORM D) MAIL_FORMAT

126) You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.

A) True B) False

127) You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.

A) True B) False

128) Quality Center reports can be generated from the

A) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules. B) Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules. C) Requirements & Test Plan modules. D) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.

129) You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the

A) Requirements Grid & Defects Grid. B) Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid. C) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid. D) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.

130) How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports) are available in Requirements module. A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 4

121) A , 122) C , 123) D, 124) A , 125) D , 126) A , 127) A , 128) A , 129) C , 130) B

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 13

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111) You can view the test results from the ...........

A) Test Instance dialog box. B) Test Properties dialog box C) Test Instance Properties dialog box D) None

112) The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box displays:

A) linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance B) only linked defects for a test instance C) linked defects and history for a test instance D) linked defects and test results for a test instance

113) Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.

A) True B) False

114) In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure rules for an automated test instance using the ..... view.

A) Automated B) Details C) Run Events D) Both A & C

115) You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by clicking the ...... button on the sidebar.

A) Track Defects B) Open Defects C) Defects D) Log Defects

116) To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose ....

A) Defects > Defect B) Defects > Move To Defect C) Defects > Set Defect D) Defects > Go To Defect

117) Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.

A) True B) False

118) You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid.

A) True B) False

119) You can use the ......... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.

A) Scripting Editor B) Notepad Editor C) QC Editor D) Script Editor

120) You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.

A) True B) False

111) C, 112) A, 113) A, 114) C, 115) C, 116) D, 117) A, 118) B, 119) D, 120) A

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 12

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101) The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it happens and to control the way your tests are executed.
A) True B) False

102) In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test

A) is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions. B) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished C) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed D) None

103) You can delete a ....execution condition(s) connected to a test.

A) Single B) Two C) Three D) All

104) When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which option is selected

A) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the      Execute Grid)   B) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the      Executing Grid)   C) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the      Execution Grid)   D) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the      Execution Grind)
105)   You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.
A) True   B) False

106) If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the run at a later stage.

A) True B) False

107) You can run tests automatically on ......

A) Your machine B) Remote Hosts C) Both A & B D) None

108) To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a new Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each test set.

A) Auto Runner B) Automate Runner C) Automatic Runner D) Manual Runner

109) When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.

A) True B) False

110) You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.

A) True B) False

101) A, 102) A, 103) D, 104) C, 105) B, 106) A, 107) C, 108) C, 109) A, 110) B

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 11

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91) Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of ....
A) Run Tests Automatically B) Run Tests Manually C) Both A and B D) None of above

92) You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key......

A) F6 B) F7 C) F8 D) F9

93) The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

A) Test Set and Select Tests B) Test Select and Set Tests C) Set Test and Tests Select D) None of above

94) In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means

A) The date on which the test was first executed. B) The date on which the test was last executed C) The date on which the test was executed D) The date on which the test will be executed in future

95) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution Grid.

A) True B) False

96) You can organize test execution by creating ........

A) test modules B) test flows C) test beds D) test sets

97) While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a ..........

A) test sets tree B) test sets flow C) test sets grid D) test sets rows

98) By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ..........

A) Level 0 folder B) Top folder C) Highest level folder D) Root folder

99) You can also use the ............. in the Test Instance Properties dialog box (Changing the Default Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test in a test set.

A) Run Events view B) Run Events Grid C) Run Events menu D) Run Events module

100) You can also drag the test sets between lists.

A) True B) False

91) C, 92) D, 93) A, 94) B, 95) A, 96) D, 97) A, 98) D, 99) A, 100) A

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 10

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81) Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a requirement from a test. A) True B) False

82) In the Requirements module, you can use the ........ view to examine the status of your requirements.

A) Coverage Analysis B) Coverage Breakdown C) Requirements Status D) Coverage Status

83) By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types: ......

A) Functional, Testing, and Defined. B) Functional, Testing, and Undefined. C) Functional, System, and Undefined. D) Functional, Review, and Undefined.

84) You can create design steps for ..........

A) manual and B) automated tests C) SRS D) Both A and B

85) To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ........to the called test and to the tests that call it.

A) Input Values B) Output Values C) Parameters D) None of above

86) You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to add parameters. Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes only.

A) True, B) False

87) If you do not assign values to parameters when creating a test call, you are prompted to do so when you call this test from another test, when you add your test to a test set, or when you run your test.

A) True B) False

88) You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use ...... to access the first step.

A) ALT+LEFT B) ALT+RIGHT C) ALT+HOME D) ALT+ UP

89) While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED automated test type means.

A) A test that is created by Winrunner B) A test that is executed by Winrunner C) A test that is deleted by Winrunner D) None of above

90) To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.

A) True B) False

81) B, 82) A, 83) B, 84) D, 85) C, 86) A, 87) A, 88) C, 89) B, 90) B

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 9

2011-09-27T02:46:00.000-07:00

71) To set a QuickTest Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose ......

A) Template Test B) Template Tree C) Template Plan D) Template

72) You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.

A) True B) False

73) A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is ....... on your machine.

A) not activated B) not installed C) not enabled D) not set

74) A ...... link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test. A) Link To Test B) Move To Test C) Go To Test D) Test

75) In the Test Plan module, you create ....... by selecting requirements to link to a test. A) RTM B) requirements coverage C) test coverage D) SRS

76) Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create ...... by selecting tests to link to a requirement.

A) RTM B) requirements coverage C) test coverage D) SRS

77) A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.

A) True B) False

78) You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this feature using the ........... parameter in Site Administration

A) ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B) ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C) ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE   D) None of above

79) Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added requirements coverage, it may already exist.

A) True B) False

80) You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.

A) True B) False

71) A, 72) A, 73) B, 74) C, 75) B, 76) C, 77) B, 78) A, 79) A, 80)

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 8

2011-09-27T02:41:00.000-07:00

61) During Requirement Risks calculation, the ..... displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis
A) missing assessment link   B) missing assessment field   C) missing assessment value   D) missing assessment relation

62) A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application ....... in the testing process.
A) at the beginning   B) at the end   C) at the point   D) at the middle

63) Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.
A) Design Test Steps   B) Design Tests   C) Automate Tests   D) Define Testing Policy Settings

64) You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key .....
A) F7   B) F9   C) F12   D) F11

65) To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ......, and enter the test ID A) Test > Go to Test   B) Test > find Test   C) Test > search Test   D) Test > link Test

66) In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid
A) True,   B) False

67) You can use the ..... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.
A) text editor   B) script editor   C) scriptor editor   D) scripts editor

68) The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module enables you to divide your application according to ........
A) functionality   B) requirements   C) test plans   D) test modules

69) During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You can update the test plan tree ......
A) at the beginning   B) at the end   C) at any time   D) in the middle

70) Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user ......
A) IDs   B) requirements   C) permissions   D) passwords

61) A, 62) C, 63) D, 64) B, 65) A, 66) A, 67) B, 68) A, 69) C, 70) C

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 7

2011-09-27T02:35:00.000-07:00

51) Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either. A) risk analysis or risk assessment B) risk breakdown or risk assessment C) risk breakdown or risk review D) risk analysis or risk evaluation

52) Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the following steps
A) Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy   B) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy   C) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy   D) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy

53) An ...... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents higher levels in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.
A) analysis   B) assessment   C) Policy   D) Test

54) An ....... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.
A) analysis   B) assessment   C) Policy   D) Test

55) For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine the Risk Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.
A) Business Probability and Failure Criticality   B) Business Vitality and Failure Probability   C) Business Criticality and Failure Probability   D) Business Criticality and Failure Possibility

56) The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:.....
A) Critical, Important, Nice to Have   B) Critical, Importance, Nice to Have   C) Critical, Important, Nice to Had   D) None of these

57) The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:...
A) High, Standard, Low   B) High, Average, Low   C) High, Medium, Low   D) None of these

58) Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:.
A) Full, Partial, Basic, and Low   B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None   C) Full, Half, Basic, and None   D) Full, Partial, Critical, and None

59) The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirement’s implementation, without consideration of the requirement’s impact on the business.
A) True   B) False

60) The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the requirement is to your business
A) True   B) False

51) A, 52) D, 53) A, 54) B, 55) C, 56) A, 57) C, 58) B, 59) B, 60) B

Quality center certification questions dump

2011-03-21T10:12:00.000-07:00

Thanks to Srinivas Chitrapu for sharing questions on quality center.

1) Test management with Quality Center involves....... Phases.

A) Four B) Five C) Six D) Seven

2) The phases of Test management with Quality Center in order are:

A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B) Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C) Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests

3) By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a password and user group, you control the kinds of additions and modifications each user makes to the project.

A) True B) False

4) The .......determines the privileges that the user has within a project.

A) User ID B) User Name C) User group D) User SID

5) You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality Center project.

A) True B) False

6) Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.

A) Framework 2.0 B) Framework 1.0
C) Framework 3.0 D) Framework 4.0

7) When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens and displays the module in which you were last working.

A) True B) False

8) The can change and override a user.......s properties or password.

A) Global Administrator B) Site Administrator
C) Administrator D) QC Administrator

9) You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define. How many filters can you define?

A) Single item as a filter B) Two items as a filter
C) Multiple items as filter D) Five items as filter

10) In the test plan tree, you can define the ..............filter for associated test sets as”Open”.This ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are displayed.

A) Double B) Twice C) Cross D) Multiple

1) B, 2) A, 3) A, 4) C, 5) A, 6) A, 7) A, 8) B, 9) C, 10) C

11) By default, records appear in Quality Center in the

A) Increasing Order B) Decreasing Order
C) Order in which they were added D) None of these

12) You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed.

A) True B) False

13) You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another project.

A) True B) False

14) You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings) with another user by pasting them to an e-mail or a text file.

A) True B) False

15) When you use text search, the search ignores

A) articles (a, an, the)

B) Coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or);
C) Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then).
D) All of above

16) You can export the data in a grid as a

A) Text files, B) Microsoft Excel worksheet,

C) Microsoft Word document or D) HTML document. E) All of above

17) ....... alerting functions available in Quality Center

A) Three B) Four C) Two D) Five

18) The alerting functions in Quality Center are:

A) Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B) Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C) Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D) Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts

19) You can create traceability links between.............. in the Requirements module.

A) Requirements B) Test Cases C) Tests D) Defects

20) You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by creating ..............in the Test Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual test run.

A) Linked Tests B) Linked Defects C) Linked Errors D) Linked Data

11) C, 12) A, 13) A, 14) B, 15) D, 16) E, 17) C, 18) A, 19) A, 20) B

21) You can view a list of alerts for a ............................ entity.

A) A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid
B) A test instance in the Execution Grid
C) None of above
D) Both A) & B)

22) A red flag indicates that the alert is.........

A) New B) Old C) Follow up D) Urgent

23) A gray flag indicates that the alert..............

A) New B) has already been read C) Follow up D) Urgent

24) A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.

A) True B) False

25) Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a ..... Extension.

A) .jpeg B) .gif C) .doc D) .jpg

26) A ..............is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.

A) Personal View B) My view C) Favorite View D) My QC View

27) You save favorite views in ........

A) Favorite folder B) Personal folder

C) Both A & B D) Public & Private folder

28) You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ............................ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) favorites B) favorites_Depth C) favorites_view D) favorites_Path

29) The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:

A) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
B) Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
C) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Releases
D) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases

30) Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a

A) Requirements cycle B) Requirements tree
C) Requirements plan D) Requirements module

21) D, 22) A, 23) B, 24) A, 25) D, 26) C, 27) D, 28) B, 29) A, 30) B

31) QA Manager changes a requirement from a .............. status to a Reviewed status once it is approved.

A) Released B) Tested C) Not reviewed D) None of these

32) You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel, or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you must first install the appropriate.....................

A) HP Third Party add-in. B) HP Quality Center add-in.
C) HP Quality Center D) HP Quality Center License

33) The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a ............................view.

A) Flat B) Hierarchical C) Flat-hierarchical D) Flat non-hierarchical

34) The ............................view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test coverage status..

A) Coverage Analysis B) Coverage Requirements
C) Coverage D) Coverage Tests

35) You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key .......

A) F1 B) F9 C) Ctrl + R D) Alt + R

36) You can use the .....................to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Requirements module.

A) Script Edit B) Scriptor Editor C) Script Editor D) Script Editing

37) The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your........

A) requirements B) All requirements

C) some requirements D) Tedious requirements

38) You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.

A) true B) False

39) You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the .......command.

A) Search B) Find C) Search All D) Find All

40) You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the .......command.

A) Replace B) Replace All C) Find & Replace D) Replace & Find

31) C, 32) B, 33) D, 34) A, 35) B, 36) C, 37) A, 38) B, 39) B, 40) A

41) By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the ....... parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) EMAIL_FORMAT B) EMAIL_FORM

C) MAIL_FORMAT D) QC_MAIL_FORMAT

42) You can copy a requirement within the same project or between projects. Which of the below items are copied at the time of copying a requirement.

A) Test coverage. B) defect linkage.
C) risk-based quality management data D) All of above E) None of above

43) You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by dragging it..

A) True B) False

44) You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a requirement does not delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement traceability links, and defects linkage..

A)True B) False

45) There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements
B) Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D) Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests

46) When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, the traceability links indicate the other ...... that the change might affect.

A) tests B) requirements C) tests & requirements D) None

47) ...... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. .....links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.

A) Trace from, Trace to B) Trace to, Trace from
C) From trace, To trace D) None of above

48) When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by.......

A) Author of the requirement

B) users authorized by the Author of the requirement
C) all users D) Administrator

49) while Defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid..

A) True B) False

A) Tests B) Requirements
C) Both D) None

41) C, 42) E, 43) A, 44) B, 45) A, 46) B, 47) A, 48) C, 49) B, 50) B

51) Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either.

A) risk analysis or risk assessment B) risk breakdown or risk assessment

C) risk breakdown or risk review D) risk analysis or risk evaluation

52) Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the following steps

A) Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
B) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy

53) An ...... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents higher levels in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.

A) analysis B) assessment C) Policy D) Test

54) An ....... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.

A) analysis B) assessment C) Policy D) Test

55) For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine the Risk Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.

A) Business Probability and Failure Criticality B) Business Vitality and Failure Probability C) Business Criticality and Failure Probability
D) Business Criticality and Failure Possibility

56) The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:.....

A) Critical, Important, Nice to Have B) Critical, Importance, Nice to Have
C) Critical, Important, Nice to Had D) None of these

57) The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:...

A) High, Standard, Low B) High, Average, Low
C) High, Medium, Low D) None of these

58) Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:.

A) Full, Partial, Basic, and Low B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Half, Basic, and None D) Full, Partial, Critical, and None

59) The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirement.......™s implementation, without consideration of the requirement.......™s impact on the business.

A) True B) False

60) The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the requirement is to your business

A) True B) False

51) A, 52) D, 53) A, 54) B, 55) C, 56) A, 57) C, 58) B, 59) B, 60) B

61) During Requirement Risks calculation, the ..... displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis

A) missing assessment link B) missing assessment field
C) missing assessment value D) missing assessment relation

62) A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application ....... in the testing process.

A) at the beginning B) at the end C) at the point D) at the middle

63) Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.

A) Design Test Steps B) Design Tests
C) Automate Tests D) Define Testing Policy Settings

64) You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key .....

A) F7 B) F9 C) F12 D) F11

65) To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ......, and enter the test ID

A) Test > Go to Test B) Test > find Test
C) Test > search Test D) Test > link Test

66) In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid

A) True, B) False

67) You can use the ..... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.

A) text editor B) script editor C) scriptor editor D) scripts editor

68) The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module enables you to divide your application according to ........

A) functionality B) requirements C) test plans D) test modules

69) During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You can update the test plan tree ......

A) at the beginning B) at the end C) at any time D) in the middle

70) Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user ......

A) IDs B) requirements C) permissions D) passwords

61) A, 62) C, 63) D, 64) B, 65) A, 66) A, 67) B, 68) A, 69) C, 70) C

71) To set a Quick Test Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose ......

A) Template Test B) Template Tree C) Template Plan D) Template

72) You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.

A) True B) False

73) A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is ....... on your machine.

A) not activated B) not installed C) not enabled D) not set

74) A ...... link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test.

A) Link To Test B) Move To Test C) Go To Test D) Test

75) In the Test Plan module, you create ....... by selecting requirements to link to a test.

A) RTM B) requirements coverage C) test coverage D) SRS

76) Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create ...... by selecting tests to link to a requirement.

A) RTM B) requirements coverage C) test coverage D) SRS

77) A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.

A) True B) False

78) You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this feature using the ........... parameter in Site Administration

A) ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B) ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C) ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D) None of above

79) Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added

requirements coverage, it may already exist.

A) True B) False

80) You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.

A) True B) False

71) A, 72) A, 73) B, 74) C, 75) B, 76) C, 77) B, 78) A, 79) A, 80)

81) Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a requirement from a test.

A) True B) False

82) In the Requirements module, you can use the ........ view to examine the status of your requirements.

A) Coverage Analysis B) Coverage Breakdown
C) Requirements Status D) Coverage Status

83) By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types: ......

A) Functional, Testing, and Defined.
B) Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C) Functional, System, and Undefined.
D) Functional, Review, and Undefined.

84) You can create design steps for ..........

A) manual and B) automated tests C) SRS D) Both A and B

85) To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ........to the called test and to the tests that call it.

A) Input Values B) Output Values C) Parameters D) None of above

86) You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to add parameters. Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes only.

A) True, B) False

A) True B) False

88) You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use ...... to access the first step.

A) ALT+LEFT B) ALT+RIGHT C) ALT+HOME D) ALT+ UP

89) While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED automated test type means.

A) A test that is created by Winrunner
B) A test that is executed by Winrunner
C) A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D) None of above

90) To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.

A) True B) False

81) B, 82) A, 83) B, 84) D, 85) C, 86) A, 87) A, 88) C, 89) B, 90) B

91) Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of ....

A) Run Tests Automatically B) Run Tests Manually
C) Both A and B D) None of above

92) You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key......

A) F6 B) F7 C) F8 D) F9

93) The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

A) Test Set and Select Tests B) Test Select and Set Tests
C) Set Test and Tests Select D) None of above

94) In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means

A) The date on which the test was first executed.
B) The date on which the test was last executed
C) The date on which the test was executed
D) The date on which the test will be executed in future

95) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution Grid.

A) True B) False

96) You can organize test execution by creating ........

A) test modules B) test flows C) test beds D) test sets

97) While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a ..........

A) test sets tree B) test sets flow C) test sets grid D) test sets rows

98) By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ..........

A) Level 0 folder B) Top folder C) Highest level folder D) Root folder

99) You can also use the ............. in the Test Instance Properties dialog box (Changing the Default Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test in a test set.

A) Run Events view B) Run Events Grid C) Run Events menu D) Run Eventsmodul e

100) You can also drag the test sets between lists.

A) True B) False

91) C, 92) D, 93) A, 94) B, 95) A, 96) D, 97) A, 98) D, 99) A, 100) A

101)The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it happens and to control the way your tests are executed.
A) True B) False

102)In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test
A) is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions.
B) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed D) None

103)You can delete a ....execution condition(s) connected to a test.
A) Single                 B) Two                             C) Three                 D) All

104)When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which option is selected
A) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execute Grid)
B) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in then Executing Grid)
C) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution Grid)
D) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution Grind)

105)You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.
A) True                            B) False

106)If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the run at a later stage.
A) True                            B) False

107)You can run tests automatically on ......
A) Your machine       B) Remote Hosts                C) Both A & B          D) None

108)To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a new Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each test set.

A) Auto Runner                            B) Automate Runner
C) Automatic Runner                    D) Manual Runner

109)When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.
A) True                            B) False

110)You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.
A) True                            B) False

101) A 102) A 103) D 104) C 105) B 106) A 107) C 108) C 109) A 110) B

111)You can view the test results from the ...........
A) Test Instance dialog box.                    B) Test Properties dialog box
C) Test Instance Properties dialog box       D) None

112)The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box displays:
A) linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance
B) only linked defects for a test instance
C) linked defects and history for a test instance
D) linked defects and test results for a test instance

113)Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.
A) True                            B) False

114)In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure rules for an automated test instance using the ..... view.
A) Automated          B) Details                C) Run Events          D) Both A & C

115)You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by clicking the ...... button on the sidebar.

A) Track Defects B) Open Defects C) Defects D) Log Defects

116)To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose ....
A) Defects > Defect                              B) Defects > Move To Defect
C) Defects > Set Defect                         D) Defects > Go To Defect

117)Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.
A) True                            B) False

118)You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid.
A) True                            B) False

119)You can use the ......... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.
A) Scripting Editor              B) Notepad Editor     C) QC Editor   D) Script Editor

120)You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.
A) True                            B) False

111) C 112) A 113) A 114) C 115) C 116) D 117) A 118) B 119) D 120) A

121)You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at any stage of the testing process.
A) True B) False

122)There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:
A) Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B) Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C) Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D) Find all Defects & Find all Text.

123)You can update defects directly in the ......, or in the ..... dialog box.
A) Defects Grid B) Defects Detail C) Defects Module

D) Both A & B                    E) Both B & C

124)You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the project administrator in Project Customization.
A) True                            B) False

125)By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send
e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A) M_FORMAT          B) MAIL_FORMAT_ID     C) MAIL_FORM     D) MAIL_FORMAT

126)You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.
A) True B) False

127)You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.
A) True B) False

128)Quality Center reports can be generated from the
A) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.
B) Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C) Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.

129)You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the
A) Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B) Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.

130)How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports) are available in Requirements module.
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 4

121) A 122) C 123) D 124) A 125) D 126) A 127) A 128) A 129) C 130) B

131)Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the .........
A) Requirements module                         B) Test Plan module
C) Test Lab module                                D) Defects module
E) Both A & C                                       F) All of Above

132)Requirements -Summary Graph
A) Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points during a period of time.
B) Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C) Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D) Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.

133)By default, the graph appears as a
A) pie chart,            B) bar chart             C) Pareto chart                  D) Both A & B

134)You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation process.
A) True                            B) False

135)You can determine how information appears in the graph using the .....
A) graph toolbar.      B) graph settings                C) graph menu         D) Both A & C

136)..... graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical representation of data related to test plans and test sets.
A) Live Value           B) Live Analysis                  C) Live Analytics       D) Both A & C

137)You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a .... folder.
A) test subject         B) test set               C) test category                 D) Both A & B

138)The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.
A) True                            B) False

139)The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word document containing a project.......™s requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.
A) True                            B) False

140)The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained in a Quality Center project.
A) True                            B) False

131) F , 132) C , 133) B, 134) A , 135) A , 136) B , 137) D , 138) A , 139) A , 140) A

141)You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so that it is available for other users in the current project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury logo in the project document.

A) True                            B) False

142)While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project Documents) Microsoft Word is limited to .... header levels in the table of contents.
A) Seven                 B) Eight                  C) Nine                   D) Ten

143)You use the ...... pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.
A) Subject Tree        B) Subject Tests       C) Subject plans       D) Both A & B

144)You use the ........ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear in the project document.
A) Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run      B) Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
C) Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs     D) Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs

145)You can generate a ...... that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included.
A) view project document                       B) preview project document
C) pre project document                         D) None

146)You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel and analyze the data from within Excel.
A) True                                      B) False

147)You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.
A) True                                      B) False

148)Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the necessary permissions.
A) True                                      B) False

149)After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating .... to extract the data.
A) Test Queries        B) Lotus Queries       C) Excel Macros        D) SQL queries

150)To view the database type used for your project database, click the... button.
A) Database in use    B) Database Type     C) Get Database       D) Database version

141) B , 142) C , 143) D, 144) D , 145) B , 146) A , 147) B , 148) B , 149) D , 150) B

BASICS

1)You access Quality Center over the ......, via a Web browser.

A) Internet              B) a corporate intranet        C) Mobile Internet     D) Both A & B

2)Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking application
defects, enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial detection until
resolution.
A) True                            B) False

3)Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:
A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.

4)Each Quality Center project is supported by a ...... that stores project information.
A) Root folder          B) Database            C) Flat File               D) Both B & C

5)Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The ..... determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A) QC group                                B) user_Account group
C) Account group                         D) user group

6)You can import data from...... to a Quality Center project.
A) Word or Notepad                     B) Word or Wordpad
C) Word or Excel                         D) Word or Power Point

7)You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.
A) True                            B) False

8)Quality Center prompts you to install ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.
A) Microsoft Java 2.0                    B) Microsoft Visio 13.0
C) Microsoft Visual studio 2.0         D) Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

9)Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:
A) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects

10)When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.
A) True                            B) False

11)The ..... can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them about important maintenance or other issues.
A) site administer               B) site Controller
C) site Analyser                 D) site administrator

12)Quality Center organizes and displays data in ......:
A) grids         B) trees                  C) Folders               D) Both A & B

13)You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear,and by changing column size.
A) True                            B) False

14)You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet
the criteria that you define.
A) True                            B) False

15)When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced
....... on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or
defects.
A) Secondary filter                       B) Primary filter
C) cross filter                              D) Second filter

16)By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ....
A) Increasing order                      B) Decreasing order
C) order in which they were added. D) order in which they were deleted.

17)You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the
Clipboard.
A) True                                      B) False

18)You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ........
A) Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B) Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C) Requirements and Defects modules.
D) Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.

19)If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module
A) True                            B) False

20)Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.
A) True                            B) False

21)You can export the data in a grid as a ......
A) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C) text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D) Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.

22)When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.
A) True                            B) False

23)A ..... indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.
A) Green flag                    B) Pink flag
C) red flag                        D) Blue flag

24)Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability notifications. You can use ..... flags to remind yourself to follow up on something.
A) Alert Me    B) follow up             C) follow Me            D) follow

25)Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.
A) True                            B) False

26)You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.
A) True                            B) False

27)A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A) True                            B) False

28)A ....... is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A) Personal view                          B) My view
C) favorite view                           D) fav view

29)By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ....... parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) FAVORITES_DEPTH                            B) FAVORITES-DEPTH
C) FAVORITE_DEPTH                              D) FAVORITE_DEPTHS

30)You save favorite views in either a .... folder or a ..... folder. Views in a
.... folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ..... folder are accessible only to the user who created them.
A) public, private, public, private              B) Root, Base, Root, Base,
C) locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked        D) Both B & C

Release Management

1)You begin the application testing process by defining a releases tree in the.......

A) Requirements module                         B) Releases module
C) Plan Tests module                              D) Either B or C

2)Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical tree structure.
A) True                            B) False

3)A release represents a ..... in one or more applications that willbe available for distribution at the same time.
A) group of releases                              B) group of changes
C) group of defects                               D) group of requests

4)After defining the release, a QA manager defines ...... A ..... is a set of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline.
A) cycles, cycle        B) Tries, Try            C) Priorities, Priority            D) Files, File

5)After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the........ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.
A) Plans        B) groups of plans    C) upcoming modules          D) requirements

6)After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each..... folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.
A) test sets             B) test set               C) tests set             D) testing set

7)A ...... is a group of testinstances in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific test goals.

A) test sets             B) test set               C) tests set             D) testing set

8)A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage of the testing process.
A) True                            B) False

9)While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager assigns them to the appropriate ..........
A) release and cycle                     B) cycle and release
C) defect and cycle                      D) cycle and defect

10)The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real time by analyzing the releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release goals.
A) True                            B) False

11)In the Progress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the Assigned requirements curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are ..... Throughout the release.
A) Run          B) covered              C) passed                D) assigned

12) The ....... helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number of defects submitted over the course of a release or cycle.

A) Details tab B) Attachments tab C) Progress tab D) Quality tab

13) The defects are categorized by ...... in terms of how they impact system operation.
A) Priority B) severity

14) You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in the releases tree.
A) True                            B) False

15) The Releases root folder can also be moved.
A) True                            B) False

16) You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.
A) True                            B) False

17) Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns the associated requirements, test set folders, and defects.
A) True                            B) False

18) You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in the releases tree by dragging it.
A) True                            B) False

1) B , 2) A , 3) B, 4) A , 5) D , 6) B , 7) B , 8) A , 9) A , 10) B, 11) B , 12) D, 13) B, 14) A, 15) B, 16) A, 17 B, 18) A

Requirements Specification

1) After you define a releases tree in the Releases module, you continue the
application testing process by specifying........
A) Requirements       B) Releases             C) Plan Tests           D) Either B or A

2) Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a requirements......
A) Graph                 B) tree                             C) Path                   D) plan

3) The requirements ....... is a graphical representation of your requirements specification, displaying the hierarchical relationship between different requirements.
A) Graph                 B) plan                   C) Path                   D) tree

4) For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of ....... in the requirements tree.
A) Detailed requirements                        B) detailed specifications
C) detailed plans                                    D) detailed sub-requirements

5) Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include any relevant attachments.
A) True                            B) False

6) After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement ... shows the other requirements that the change might affect.
A) Equality               B) link-ability            C) traceability          D) cross-links

7) QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree in the Releases module.
A) True                                      B) False

8) The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these requirements to create......
A) linkages                                 B) linked-requirements
C) requirements plan                    D) coverage

9)QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not Reviewed status to a ..... Status once it is approved.
A) Passed                B) Reviewed            C) Partially reviewed           D) Both B & C

10) You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from........
A) Microsoft Word                                                     B) Excel
C) other third-party requirement management tools        D) All of above

11)In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified requirement has
A) attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B) attachments, linked defects, alerts
C) attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D) linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags

12)To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose ............., and enter the requirement ID.
A) Requirements > Find Requirement
B) Requirements > Go to Requirement
C) Requirements > Get Requirement
D) Requirements > Display Requirement

13) The Requirements ...... view enables you to display requirements in a flat
non-hierarchical view. Each line in the.... displays a separate requirement.
A) File, file                                  B) hierarchical, hierarchy
c) Grid, Grid                                D) Both B & C

14) The ... Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test..... Status.
A) Plan                   B) Requirement                  C) Coverage            D) Task

15) You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key....
A) F6                      B) F7                               C) F8                      D) F9

16) The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means

21) You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the ....... command.
A) Search                B) Find                   C) Look                   D) Get

22)You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project
A) True                            B) False

23)You cannot copy a requirement within the same project or between projects.
A) True                            B) False

24) Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are not copied.
A) True                            B) False

25) Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A) Convert Requirements to Tests
B) Generate a Test from Requirements.
C) Get a test from a requirement
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C

26) Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. ....... Links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. ....... Links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A) Trace from, Trace to                          B) Trace to, Trace from
C) Trace from select, Trace to select        D) Trace to select, Trace from select

27)When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by all users.

A) True B) False

28) you can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the ...... tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.
A) Traceability B) Relationships

C) Req-traceability                       D) traceability-Req

29)The ...... feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you have available.
A) Level-based quality management
B) Calculate-based quality management
C) risk-based quality management
D) None of above

30)You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The Risk Category is composed of its .....
A) Business Criticality & Failure Probability
B) Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C) Priority & Severity
D) None of above

31)Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:
A) First, second, third, and fourth
B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D) Partial, Basic, moderate and Advanced

32)The ...... link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.
A) Missing risk assessment                      B) miss assessment
C) missing assessment                           D) exclude assessment

1) A , 2) B , 3) D, 4) A , 5) B , 6) C , 7) A , 8) D , 9) B , 10) D, 11) A , 12) B, 13) C, 14) C, 15) D, 16) A, 17 A, 18) A, 19 A), 20) B,21) B,22) A,23) B,24) A ,25) D ,26) A,27) A,28) B,29) C, 30) A, 31) B, 32) C

QTP certification preparation - 400 objective questions

2011-03-21T10:09:00.000-07:00

With special thanks to Srinivas Chitrapu, we are updating preparatory material shared by him for QTP Certification. we appreciate the encouragement and would love more participation

1) 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window.

A) Properties B) Resources C) Web D) Web Settings

2) How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window?

A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 8

3) Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings, Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery

4) 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) Properties B) Web C) Resources D) Recovery

5) The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view

A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation

6) For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.

A) True B) False C) There is a problem with the statement. D) None of above

7) You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.

A) True B) False

8) You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.

A) True B) False

9) The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and insert checkpoints

A) True B) False

10) A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information saved with the test.

A) True B) False

11) The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:

A) Semantic errors B) Syntax errors C) Common errors D) Logic errors

12) When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTP automatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in the information pane.

A) True B) False

13) If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it in case a syntax error is detected.

A) True B) False

14) ..................... provides a list of the resources that are specified in your test but cannot be found.

A) Missing pane B) Missing Resources pane

C) Resources pane D) Missing Items pane

15) Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automatically checks for the availability of specified resources.

A) True B) False

16) The Data Table does not assist you in parameterize your test.

A) True B) False

17) Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:

A) Watch, Variables, Debug B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command D) View, Variables, Command

18) _____tab enables you to view the current value of any variable or VBScript expression.

A) Watch B) View C) Locate D) Current

19) The.... tab displays the current value of all variables that have been recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.

A) View B) Variables C) Locate D) Current

20) The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set or modify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your test or function library.

A) View B) Variables C) Command D) Current

21) Panes in QTP can have one of the following statesâ€”docked or floating.

A) True B) False

22) Which of the following statement is True:

A) Quick Test enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) Quick Test enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) Quick Test enables you to open and work on predefined number of tests at a time
D) Quick Test enables you to open and work on nine test at a time

23) Which of the following statement is true?

A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time

24) You can open any function library, regardless of whether it is associated with the currently open test.

A) True B) False

25) You can work with multiple documents (test, component, or application area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box

A) Panes B) Display C) Show D) Windows

26) Quick Test has..... Built-in toolbars.

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

27) The ......... toolbar contains buttons for recording and running your test.

A) Standard B) Tools C) Automation D) Edit

28) Shortcut Key for opening a new Function Library is:

A) Shift+Alt+N B) Ctrl+Alt+N C) Shift+N D) CRTL+N

29) Shortcut Key for closing all open Function Libraries in one go.

A) Ctrl+Alt+C B) Shift+A+C B) Shift+N D) None of these

30) Shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows

A) Shift+M B) Ctrl+C C) Ctrl+M D) Shift+C

31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library steps using the ... menu commands

A) File B) Edit C) Automation D) Tools

32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would use from the View menu.

A) Expand B) Expand All C) Expand Items D) Expand Rows

33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator?

A) F2 B) F5 C) F6 D) F7

34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.

A) File B) Tools C) Insert D) View

35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are

A) F3, F4, F5 B) F4, F3, F5 C) F4, F5, F3 D) F3, F5, F4

36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository?

A) Alt+R B) Shift+R C) Ctrl+R D) Shift+O+R

37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is

A) F9 B) F8 C) Ctrl+b D) Shift+b

38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not performed.

A) Step over B) Step out C) Step into D) Step Till

39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not displayed in the view.

A) Step Over B) Step Out C) Step Into D) Step Till

40) What is the shortcut key to clear all Breakpoints?

A) Ctrl+Shift+F9 B) Shift+Ctrl+F9 C) Alt+Shift+F9 D) Alt+Ctrl+F9

41) Object Spy can be found in ........menu.

A) Tool B) Tools C) Task D) Tasks

42) ............ displays the open documents side-by-side.

A) Tile Vertically B) Tile Horizontally C) Cascade D) Tile Cascade

43) For opening the Quick Test Professional Help we can use.......

A) F3 B) F5 C) F1 D) F2

44) If QTP cannot find any object that matches the description, or if it finds more than one object that matches, QuickTest may use the............mechanism to identify the object.

A) Ordinal Identifier B) Index Identifier

C) Smart Identification D) Assistive Identification

45) You can configure the ... and ............properties that QuickTest uses to record descriptions of the objects in your application

A) mandatory, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B) mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C) smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D) Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier

46) The .......... property set for each test object is created and maintained by QuickTest.

A) Run-Time Object B) Test Object

C) Smart Identification Object D) Assistive Object

47) You can access and perform ......... methods using the Object property.

A) Run-Time Object B) Test Object

C) Smart Identification Object D) Assistive Object

48) You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with your test in the.........

A) Information Pane B) Data Table
C) Information Pane & Data Table Both
D) Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.

49) You can retrieve or modify property values of the test object during the run session by adding ..........statements in the Keyword View or Expert View.

A) GetROProperty & SetROProperty B) GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C) GetTOProperty & SetROProperty D) GetROProperty & SetTOProperty

50) If the available test object methods or properties for an object do not provide the functionality you need, you can access ..............of any run-time object using the Object property.

A) The internal methods and properties B) The mandatory methods and properties
C) The selective methods and properties D) The assistive methods and properties

51) Using the Object Spy, you can view

A) the run-time or test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
B) the run-time or test object properties of any object in an open application.
C) the test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
D) the run-time object properties and methods of any object in an open application.

52) There are .........object type filters in Object spy dialog box.

A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five

53) In the Object Spy window, in the Properties Tab

A) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Properties and its values is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Properties and its values is possible is not possible

54) In the Object Spy window, in the methods Tab

A) Copying of Methods is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Methods is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Methods is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Methods is possible is not possible

55) Object Spy dialog box

A) Can be resized
B) cannot be resized

56).............. are the highest level of the test hierarchy in the
Keyword view.
A) Tests B) Steps C) Call to Actions D) Actions

57) You can copy and paste or drag and drop actions to move them to a different location within a test

A) True B) False

58) You can print the contents of the Keyword View to your Windows default printer (and even preview the contents prior to printing).

A) True B) False

59) In the Keyword View, you can also view properties for items such as checkpoints.

A) True B) False

60) In the step Browser > Page > Edit > Set "Sachin", identify container object(s)

A) Browser B) Edit C) Page D) Both Browser & Page

61) You can use the Keyword View to add a step ..........in your test.

A) at the end B) below the currently selected step
C) at the beginning D) at any point

62) The Documentation cell is.............

A) Read-only B) Write-only C) Read and Write D) Read write & execute

63) An Item column can be any of the following:

A) A test object B) A statement like Dim
C) A step generated by step generator D) All of above

64) The Operation cell in the keyword view specifies the operation to be performed on the item listed in the........... Column.

A) Operation B) Documentation C) Item D) Value

65) Even if the Item column in the Keyword View is displayed to the right of the Operation column, you must still first select an item to view the list of available operations in the Operation column.

A) True B) False

66) The Value cell in the keyword view can contain........ Value

A) Constant B) Parameter C) Both A) & B) D) None of these

67) The ............... enables you to encode your passwords and place secure values into the Data Table.

A) Password Encoder B) Password Decoder
C) Password Encode D) Password Decode

68) You can also encrypt strings in Data Table cells using the ......... option in the Data Table menu.

A) Decrypt B) Encrypt C) Encrypt Code D) Decrypt Code

69) In addition to adding standard statement steps to your test using the Keyword View, you can also insert
A) Checkpoint step B) Output value step C) Comment step D) All of above

70) The correct syntax of the conditional statement starting with Do is.....

A) Do...While B) Do...Until C) Do...Next D) Both A) and B)

71) QuickTest processes a comments when it runs a test.

A) True B) False

72) Press ..... to add a new step below the currently selected step.

A) F8 B) Shift + A C) F0 D) Shift + A + Q

73) While working with the Keyword View, you can ...... steps to move them to a different location in a test or in an action

A) Copy and Paste B) Cut and Paste C) Drag and drop D) Both A) and C)

74) You can specify the order in which the columns are displayed in the Keyword view.

A) True B) False

75) You can view ....... while working with keyword view.

A) object properties            B) action properties            C) action call properties
D) checkpoint properties      E) Output value properties
F) None of the above                   G) All of above

76) You cannot manage some aspects of a local object repository using the QuickTest Object Repository automation object model..

A) True B) False

77) For each action, you can use a combination of objects from your local and shared object repositories.

A) True B) False

78) QuickTest adds all new objects to the local object repository even if one or more shared object repositories are already associated with the action assuming that an object with the same description does not already exist in one of the associated shared object repositories..

A) True B) False

79) If a child object is added to a local object repository, and its parents are in a shared object repository, then you have to manually drag and drop its parent objects from shared object repository to local object repository.

A) True B) False

80) The ....... is not accessible as a separate file

A) local object repository B) shared object repository
C) Both D) None

81) In the Object Repository window:.

A) Local objects are editable (black)

B) Shared objects are in read-only format (gray)
C) Local objects are in read-only format (gray)
D) Shared objects are editable (black)

82) Mark true statement(s):.

A) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository window.
B) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository Manager
C) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository window
D) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager

83) You can modify an object stored in a shared object repository.

A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) using the Object Repository window
C) you can copy it to the local object repository and then modify its properties
D) you cannot modify properties of objects stored in Shared object repository

84) If an object is contained in both local and shared repositories then, during a run session.

A) QuickTest will use the object in the local object repository
B) QuickTest will use the object in the Shared object repository
C) There will be a conflict
D) QuickTest will use Descriptive Programming

85) When you copy an object to the local object repository

A) its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
B) its parent objects are not copied to the local object repository
C) You have to manually copy its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
D) You have to manually drag and drop its parent objects

86) For tests, you can also view test object properties and property values for objects in the Active Screen, regardless of whether the objects are
stored in the object repository.

A) True B) False

87) Object Properties window differs for objects stored in Shared and Local object repository.

A) True B) False

88) You can rename objects in the shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager

A) True B) False, you cannot rename objects in shared object repository

89) When you modify the name of an object in the local object repository, the name is automatically updated in ....... for all occurrences of the object..

A) in the Keyword View B) in the Expert View C) Both Keyword and Expert View D) Changing name of an object doest not effect keyword or expert view

90) When you modify the name of an object in a shared repository, the name is automatically updated in all tests open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon as you make the change, even if you have not yet saved the object repository with your changes.

A) True B) False

91) An ........ assigns a numerical value to a test object that indicates its order or location relative to other objects with an otherwise identical description (objects that have the same values for all properties)

A) Index identifier. B) ordinal identifier.
C) SMART ID identifier. D) original identifier.

92) You can add an object to the local object repository only if that object does not already exist in a shared object repository that is associated with the action. If an object already exists in an associated shared object repository, you can add it to the local object repository using the ........ option.

A) Copy from Shared Repository B) Copy from Shared Object Repository
C) Copy to Local D) Copy to Local repository

93) You can copy, paste, and move objects in the local object repository using the Object Repository window, and copy, paste, and move objects both within a shared object repository and between shared object repositories using the Object Repository Manager. But you cannot copy objects from a shared object repository to the local object repository to modify them locally

A) True B) False

94) At the time of copying, pasting and moving objects, you cannot move an object to any of its descendants.

A) True B) False

95) When you remove a step from your test, its corresponding object is also removed from the object repository

A) True B) False

96) You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.
A) True B) False

97) The Object Repository window is ...... during record and run sessions

A) read-only B) read-write only
C) read-write and enable D) None of above

98) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, the ......object repository is always listed first and cannot be moved down the priority list or deleted.

A) local B) shared C) Both D) None

99) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, although we can order the object repositories according to our choice except the fact that Shared Repository remains the first one and cannot be removed.

A) True B) False

100) If your object repositories are stored in the file system and you want other users or Mercury products to be able to run this action on other computers, you should set the file path as a

A) Absolute path B) relative path C) both D) None of above

ACTIONS :

101) A test comprises calls to actions. When you create a new test, it contains a call to a ...... action.

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Multiple

102) When you open a test, you can choose to view ......

A) the test flow (calls to actions)
B) you can view and edit the individual actions stored with your test.
C) Both A & B D) None

103) For every action called in your test, QuickTest creates a corresponding ........ in the Data Table so that you can enter Data Table parameters that are specific to that action only.

A) action sheet B) Excel sheet C) Both A & B D) None

104) When you create a test, it includes ..... action.

A) Single B) unlimited C) Three D) Multiple

105) There are three kinds of actions:

A) non-reuse action, reuse action, external action
B) Call to internal action, Call to reusable action, external action
C) non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
D) Call to non-reusable action, reusable action, external action

106) By default, new actions are

A) Short B) External C) reusable D) non-reusable

107) You can display or hide the Action toolbar in the Keyword View by choosing ........

A) View > Toolbars > Action B) View > Toolbars > Actions
C) View > Toolbar > Action D) Views > Toolbars > Action

108) The ...... enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or external action.

A) Action Flow B) Action file C) Action List D) Action Repository

109) In the ......., the Action List is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action.

A) Keyword View B) Expert View C) Action Flow D) Action View

110) If the action is called more than once within the test flow or if the action is called by a reusable action, the Reusable action option is ......

A) read-only B) write-only C) both read and write D) read-write-executable.

111) You cannot expand ...... actions from the test flow view.

A) reusable B) non-reusable C) both A & B D) None

112) You can associate shared object repositories with ...... actions simultaneously, using the Associate Repositories dialog box

A) seven B) Two C) Three D) Multiple

113) You can associate ....... object repositories with an action, and the same object repository can be associated with different actions as needed

A) Nine B) Twenty one C) as many as you need D) Twelve

114) Sometimes you may want to call an action from within an action. This is called .......

A) Reusability B) Nesting C) Sharing D) None

115) If a reusable action is called more than once in a test and you split the action into two independent actions, each call to the action within the test will be followed by a call to the new (reusable) action. If a reusable action is called from another test, however, ...... it may cause the calling test to fail.

A) Nesting B) Splitting C) Reusing D) Both A & C

116) You must use the ...... Action option in QuickTest if you want to save an action under another name.

A) Resave B) Rename C) Reuse D) Split

117) When you remove an external action, you remove all calls and the action from the action list. The original action is also affected.

A) True B) False

18) You can also press ...... to open the Rename Action dialog box

A) Shift + F2 B) Shift + F3 C) Shift + F4 D) Shift + F5

119) If you want to include one or more statements in every new action in your test, you can create an ....

A) reusable action B) split action C) Function D) action template

120) With QuickTest Professional 9.0, a maximum of .......... Actions can be placed into a script

A) 110 B) 256 C) 120 D) 512

121) Only the file name ...... is recognized as an action template

A) ActionTemplate.mst B) Action_Template.mst
C) Action-Template.mst D) ActionTemplates.mst

OBJECT REPOSITORY :

122) You can import and export object repositories from and to .... files.

A) XML B) MTS C) TSR D) XLS

123) In general, the ....... object repository is easiest to use when you are creating simple record and run tests.

A) Shared B) Local C) Both D) None

124) The Object Repository automation object model enables you to manipulate QuickTest ....... object repositories and their contents from outside of QuickTest.

A) Shared B) Local C) Both D) None

125) Before using the Object Repository automation object model to manipulate shared object repository stored in Quality Center, you must download the shared object repository and save it to the file system.

A) True B) False

126) SetTOProperty changes the property values used to identify an object during the test run. It also effects the values saved in the Object Repository for the object.

A) True B) False

127) After creating or editing an object repository XML file, it is recommended to use the QuickTest ..........functionality to verify that your file conforms to the QuickTest object repository schema.

A) Schema Verification B) Schema Validation
C) XML Validation D) XML Verification

128) To display the Comment in the Object Repository dialog box, you must use the attribute name .........

A) miccommentproperty B) commentproperty
C) mic_comment_property D) None of above

129) ObjectRepositoryUtil Object Enables you to manipulate .....object repository files from outside of QuickTest Professional.

A) Shared B) Local C) Both D) None

130) You can use the Object Repository Merge Tool to merge objects from ......

A) two shared object repositories into a single shared object repository.
B) the local object repository of one or more actions or components into a shared object repository.
C) Both A & B D) None

131) GetTOProperty method returns the value of a specified property for a test object from the Object Repository.

A) True B) False

132) The new Object Repository Comparison Tool is accessible from the Object Repository Manager. You can use this tool to identify the differences between objects in ........

A) two specified shared object repository files.
B) a Shared and a Local object repository files.
C) either Shared or Local object repository files.
D) two specified Local object repository files.

133) You can use the objects and methods of the QuickTest .................... to write scripts that automatically manipulate object repositories, instead of performing these operations manually using the Object Repository Manager.

A) Automation object model
B) Object Repository automation object model
C) Object Repository model
D) Object Repository Script Object model

134) You must convert object repository files from QuickTest Professional 8.2.1 or earlier to the current format before you can use them in QuickTest Professional 9.0 or later. Which method lets you do so.

A) Conversion method B) Converge method C) Convert method D) None

135) You open the Object Repository window for a specific component by choosing ..........

A) Resources > Object Repository B) Tools > Object Repository
C) File > Object Repository D) Help > Object Repository

136) In QTP 9 or above, Test objects can be stored in two types of object repositoriesâ€”........

A) a shared object repository and a Per-Action object repository.
B) a shared object repository and a local object repository.
C) a shared object repository and a Action object repository.
D) Both A & C

137) The Object Repository Manager enables you to open ...... shared object repositories and modify them as needed

A) multiple B) three C) two D) Seven

138) ........ Method Loads the specified object repository.

A) Overload B) Load C) Both A & B D) None

139) An object repository that is currently open by another user is locked, is it possible to merge a locked object repository.

A) Yes B) No

140) You can manage the shared object repository associations of a selected test using the ............

A) Associate Repositories dialog box B) Object Repositories dialog box
C) Associate Repositories Manager dialog box

D) Object Repositories Manager dialog box

141) All changes you make to an object repository are automatically updated in all components open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon as you make the changeâ€”even if you have not yet saved the object repository with your changes.

A) True B) False

142) If you want to modify an object stored in a shared object repository, you can modify it.......

A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) you can modify it locally using the Object Repository window.
C) Both A & B
D) None of above

143) ................ Returns an ObjectRepositories collection representing all object repository files associated with the action.

A) Object Property
B) Automation Object Model
C) ObjectRepositories Property
D) OR Property

SYNCRONIZATION :

144)If you do not want QuickTest to perform a step or checkpoint until an object in your application achieves a certain status, you should insert a .......... point to instruct QuickTest to pause the test until the object property achieves the value you specify
A) Synchronization B) Check C) Smart Identification D) none of above

145)Where do we Specify the Maximum Time to Wait for a Web Page to Load
A) File->Settings, Web Tab.                     B) Tools->Options, Web Tab.
C) Resources->Settings, Web Tab            D) None of above

146)You can insert ........ statements that instruct QuickTest to wait until an object exists
A) Exist         B) Wait         C) Both A & B          D) None

147)...... Method Waits for the browser to complete the current navigation.
A) Exist         B) Wait         C) WaitProperty        D) Sync

148)Sub Sync_Example()

Browser("Mercury Tours").Page("Mercury Tours").Sync
End Sub

The above example uses the Sync method to wait for the Mercury Tours page to synchronize before performing the next operation.

A) True B) False

149).....Property- The period of time QuickTest waits before checking the emulator status (in milliseconds).
A) SyncTime B) Sync.Time C) TimeSync D) Time.Sync

150)....... Property- Indicates whether QuickTest beeps after performing each Sync function during a run session.
A) BeepAfterSync     B) BeepOnSync        C) BeepSync            D) Beep.Sync

151)Unlike the Exist method, the ....... method enables you to synchronize the test run based on a specific object property.
A) WaitProperty        B) Wait                   C) Sync                  D) Exit

152)...... Statement - Initiates a pause during a run session.
A) WaitProperty        B) Wait                   C) Sync                  D) Exit

153)........... Property - The maximum time (in milliseconds) that QuickTest waits for a Web page to load before running a step.
A) BrowserTimeout                      B) Browser_Navigation_Timeout
C) BrowserNavigationTimeout         D) Browser_Timeout

CHECKPOINTS :

154)The ........ checks a variety of objects such as buttons, radio buttons, combo boxes, lists, and so forth.
A) Image checkpoint                     B) standard checkpoint
C) Bitmap checkpoint                    D) Accessibility checkpoint

155)You create an image checkpoint by inserting a ........ on an image object.
A) Image checkpoint                     B) standard checkpoint
C) Bitmap checkpoint                    D) Accessibility checkpoint

156)......... are also supported for some list view objects, such as WinListView and VbListView, as well as other list view objects in external add-in environments.

A) Table checkpoints                     B) standard checkpoints
C) Accessibility checkpoints            D) XML checkpoints

157).......identifies areas of your Web site that may not conform to the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) Web Content Accessibility Guidelines.

A) Accessibility Checkpoint             B) standard checkpoints
C) Database checkpoints               D) Accessible Checkpoint

158)........ Specifies the time interval (in seconds) during which QuickTest attempts to perform the checkpoint successfully.
A) Check timeout                         B) Checkpoint interval timeout
C) Checkpoint timeout                   D) Quicktest timeout

159)........... Specifies when to perform the checkpoint in the test.
A) Insert statement.                     B) Check statement.
C) timeout statement.                   D) checkpoint statement.

160)You can view the results of the checkpoint in the ........
A) Test Results window                 B) Checkpoint window
C) Information Pane                     D) Checklist window

161)By default, the bottom right part of the Test Results window displays information on the selected checkpoint only if it has the status Failed.
A) True                                      B) False

162)You can also use the ......... to check specific property values.
A) CheckProperty method              B) CheckItemProperty method
C) ItemProperty method               D) Property method

163)If you want to retrieve the return value of a checkpoint (a boolean value that indicates whether the checkpoint passed or failed), you must add ......... the checkpoint argument in the statement in the Expert View.
A) parentheses around                  B) Properties with
C) Arguments with                       D) Values alongwith

164)You can use a formula in a checkpoint to confirm that an object created on-the-fly (dynamically generated) or another variable object in your Web page or application contains the value it should for a given context.
A) True B) False

165)You cannot modify the settings of existing checkpoints.
A) True B) False

DATA TABLE :

166) You can edit information in the Data Table by typing directly into the table cells.

A) True B) False

167) Each row in the table represents the set of values that QuickTest submits for the ......... arguments during a single iteration of the test or action.

A) parameterized B) Non-parameterized
C) distributed D) None of above

168) For every action called in your test, QuickTest creates a corresponding ........ in the Data Table so that you can enter Data Table parameters that are specific to that action only.

A) action sheet B) Excel sheet C) Both A & B D) None

169) When you create a test, it includes ..... action.

A) Single B) unlimited C) Three D) Multiple

170) There are three kinds of actions:

171) By default, new actions are

A) Short B) External C) reusable D) non-reusable

172) You can display or hide the Action toolbar in the Keyword View by choosing View > Toolbars > Action.

A) View > Toolbars > Action B) View > Toolbars > Actions
C) View > Toolbar > Action D) Views > Toolbars > Action

173) The ...... enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or external action.

A) Action Flow B) Action file C) Action List D) Action Repository

174) In the ......., the Action List is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action.

A) Keyword View B) Expert View C) Action Flow D) Action View

175) ....... Method - Imports a sheet of a specified file to a specified sheet in the run-time Data Table.
A) SheetImport B) ImportSheet C) ImportDataTable D) ImportTable

176) The column headings in the sheet you import must match the Data Table parameter names in the action for which the sheet is being imported. Otherwise, your test or component may fail.

A) True B) False

177) The sheet you import automatically takes the name of the sheet it replaces.

A) True B) False

178) The use of complex and/or nested formulas in the Data Table is supported.

A) True B) False

179) The data your test uses is stored in the ....... Data Table, which is displayed in the Data Table pane at the bottom of the screen while you insert and edit steps.

A) design-time B) Run-time C) Current D) None

180) During the run session, QuickTest creates a ....... Data Tableâ€”a live version of the Data Table associated with your test.
A) True B) False

181) If it is important for you to save the resulting data from the run-time Data Table, you can insert a ..........statement to the end of your test to export the run-time Data Table to a file.
A) Export.Datatable B) DataTable_Export

C) DataTable.Export D) Both A & B

182) When you parameterize a step in a test using the Data Table, you must decide whether you want to make it a global Data Table parameter or an action Data Table parameter.

A) True B) False

183) After running a parameterized test, you can view the actual values taken from the Data Table in the Test Results Run-Time Data Table.

A) True B) False

184) ...... Property - Returns the design-time Data Table, which enables you to modify the data that is used for the Data Table parameters in your test or business component.

A) DataTable B) DesignTable C) Design_Table D) None

185) The Data Table assists you in parameterizing your test.

A) True B) False

DESCRIPTIVE PROGRAMMINIG IN QTP :

1) Programmatic description can be very useful if you want to perform an operation on an object that is stored in the object repository.

A) True B) False

2) There are two types of programmatic descriptions:

A) Static & Dynamic B) Statement & Dynamic

C) Step & Dynamic D) Standard & Dynamic

3) You can also use programmatic descriptions to perform the same operation on several objects with certain identical properties, or to perform an operation on an object whose properties match a description that you determine dynamically during the run session.

A) True B) False

4) QuickTest evaluates all property values in programmatic descriptions as regular expressions

A) True B) False

5) From the below 4 statements which one is invalid:

A) Browser("Title:=Mercury Tours").Page("Title:=Mercury Tours").WebEdit("Name:=Author", "Index:=3").Set "Amit Kumar"
B) Browser("Index").Page(Desc1).Link(docu3)
C) Browser("Mercury Tours").Page("Title:=Mercury Tours").WebEdit("Name:=Author", "Index:=3").Set "Amit Kumar"
D) Browser("Title:=Mercury Tours").Page("Title:=Mercury Tours").WebEdit("Author").Set "Amit Kumar"

6) When using programmatic descriptions from a specific point within a test object hierarchy, you must continue to use programmatic descriptions from that point onward within the same statement.

A) True B) False

7) You can run any application from a specified location using a ..... statement.

A) Start.Application B) System.UtilRun

C) SystemUtil.Run D) SystemUtii.Run

8) When creating a programmatic description for an ActiveX test object and the relevant run-time object is windowless (has no window handle associated with it), you must add the ........ property to the description and set its value to True.

A) Window Handle B) WindowLess C) Winless D) None

9) You can compare the run-time value of a specified object property with the expected value of that property using either programmatic descriptions or user-defined functions.

A) True B) False

10) When you specify an application to open using the Record and Run Settings dialog box, QuickTest adds a SystemUtil.Run statement to your test.

A) True B) False

EXPERT VIEW :

1) You can use the Expert View tab to view a text-based version of your test.

A) True B) False

2) Expert View contains each step as a VBScript line. In object-based steps, the VBScript line defines the ........ hierarchy.

A) Action B) Object C) Test D) Step

3) If you focus on a specific step in the Keyword View and switch to the Expert View, the cursor is located in that ..... line of the test.

A) Next B) Previous C) Last D) Corresponding

4) For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.

A) True B) False

5) When you switch from the Expert View to the Keyword View, QuickTest automatically checks for syntax errors in your script, and shows them in the Information pane.

A) True B) False

6) In the Expert View, the ....... is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action.

A) Action List B) Expert List

C) Check List D) View List

7) You can insert a checkpoint or output value statement in the Expert View manually.

A) True B) False

8) You can copy a Checkpoint or Output statement from the Expert View to another test.

A) True B) False

9) You can also manually enter standard VBScript statements, as well as statements using QuickTest test objects and methods, in the Expert View.

A) True B) False

10) You cannot print the test displayed in the Expert View or a function library.

A) True B) False

11) When you type in the Expert View or a function library, .......... enables you to select the test object, method, property, or collection for your statement from a drop-down list and view the relevant syntax.

A) Object Property dialog box B) Web edit Property dialog box
C) Intellisense D) dropdown list

FUNCTION LIBRARY :

1)Using QuickTest, you can define and store your user-defined functions in a .....
A) function library                                  B) directly in an action within a test.
C) both A & B                                       D) None

2)Default file extention of function library is
A) .flf           B) .qtfl                   C) .qfl           D) .tfl

3)When you store a function in a test action, it can be called from any other action or test.
A) True                            B) False

4)You cannot define private functions and store them in a function library.
A) True                            B) False

5)You can drag and drop a function (or part of it) from one document to another.
A) True                            B) False

6)You can add steps to your function library manually or using the Step Generator.
A) Manually                       B) using Step Generator
C) Both A & B                    D) None

7)In function libraries, IntelliSense does not enable you to view test object names or collections because function libraries are not connected to object repositories.
A) True                            B) False

8)Function Libraries can be edited during the debug session.
A) True                            B) False

9)To close all open function libraries:
A) Choose File > Close All Function Libraries,

B) Window > Close All Function Libraries.
C) Widow > Close All
D) Both A & B

10)Any text file written in standard VBScript syntax can be used as a function library.
A) True B) False

11)If you create a user-defined function manually and do not define the scope as Public or Private, it will be treated as a ..... function, by default.
A) Private B) Public C) Both A & B D) None

12)If you choose not to register your function at this time, you can manually register it later by adding a RegisterUserFunc statement after your function

A) RegisterUserFunction B) RegisterUserFunc
C) RegUserFunc D) Both A & B

PARAMETARIZATION :

1)You can parameterize values ..... in your test.
A) in Steps B) in Checkpoints

C) of Action Parameters D) Both A & B E) All of above

2)You can parameterize values in steps and checkpoints while ...... your test.
A) recording B) editing C) Both A & B

3)There are four types of parameters: Test/Action, Random number, Environment Variable, Regular Expression.
A) True                            B) False

4)While using Test and Action Input Parameters,you can enter the parameter name in the Expert View using the Parameter utility object, in the format: ............ for the current action.
A) Parameter("ParameterName")             B) ParameterName("Parameter")
C) Parameter("Parameter-Name")            D) Parameter("Parameter_Name")

5)..... parameters are available only for top-level actions.
A) Action                                    B) Environment Variable
C) Test                                      D) None

6)...... parameters are available for subsequent steps and for nested actions. They are defined in the action containing the steps or in the action that calls the nested action.
A) Action       B) Environment Variable                C) Test          D) Parent action

7)When specifying the name for data table parameter, the first character of the parameter name must be a ......
A) letter        B) underscore          C) number               D) both A & b

8)By outputting values to the global Data Table sheet from one action and using them as input parameters in another action, you can easily pass values from one action to another.
A) True                            B) False

9)....... parameters are especially useful for localization testing, when you want to test an application where the user interface strings change, depending on the selected language.
A) Action       B) Environment                  C) Test                   D) Parent action
10)You can also store environment variable files in Quality Center.
A) True                            B) False

11)....... built-in environment variable that tells version of the OS on which you are working.
A) OS                     B) OS_Ver               C) OSVER                D) OSVersion

12)Random number parameters are appropriate for non-numeric
values, such as text or hypertext links.
A) True                            B) False

REGULAR EXPRESSIONS :

1)Regular expressions enable QuickTest to identify objects and text strings with undependable values.
A) True                            B) False

2)You can use regular expressions only for values of type string and number.
A) True                            B) False

3)If you expect the value of a property to change in an unpredictable way during each run session, you can use regular expressions
A) True                            B) False

4)All ........ are automatically treated as regular expressions.
A) programmatic description          B) Window
C) WinObject                               D) Collection

5)If a backslash character is used before a character that has no special meaning, the backslash is ignored.
A) True                            B) False

6)You can use regular expressions in the Find what and Replace with strings to enhance your search.

A) True                            B) False

7)Regular Expressions can also be used with XML checkpoints.
A) True                            B) False

8)What is the Regular Expression Matching Zero or More Specific Characters
A) x              B) #             C) *              D) &

VIRTUAL OBJECT :

1)Virtual objects enable you to record and run tests on objects that are normally recognized by QuickTest.
A) True                            B) False

2)In the test results, the virtual object is displayed as though it is a standard class object.
A) True                            B) False

3)QuickTest does not support virtual objects for ....... recording.
A) analog       B) low-level             C) normal      D) both A & B    E) both A & C

4)You can use the Object Spy to view virtual object properties.
A) True                            B) False

5)You cannot insert any type of checkpoint on a virtual object
A) True                            B) False

6)The ............ contains all the virtual object collections defined on your computer.
A) Virtual Objects Manager                      B) Virtual Manager
C) Virtual Object Manager                       D) Virtual Object Wizard

7)Extention of virtual object collection files
A) .vcf          B) .vot                    C) .vct          D) .vcd

8)You can remove virtual objects from your test by ....... these objects.
A) disabling recognition of                       B) deleting
C) deleting virtual object collection files of D) All of Above         E) both A & B

9)When you want QuickTest to recognize virtual objects during recording, ensure that the ....... check box in the General tab of the Options dialog box is cleared.
A) Disable recognition of virtual object Files while recording
B) Disable recognition of virtual object Collection while recording
C) Disable recognition of virtual objects while recording
D) Enable recognition of virtual objects while recording

10)QuickTest identifies a virtual object according to its ......
A) Properties           B) boundaries          C) Object Spy          D) Edges

RECOVERY SCENARIO :

1)Recovery scenarios activate specific recovery operations when ......... occur.
A) Specific Errors                         B) Test Errors
C) Trigger Events                         D) QTP Errors

2)You can also control and activate your recovery scenarios during the run session by inserting .............. into your test.
A) Trigger Events                         B) Recovery Events
C) Recovery Statements               D) Catch Statements

3)If you choose On error in the Activate recovery scenarios box in the Recovery tab of the Test Settings dialog box, the recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test.
A) True                                      B) False

4)By default, recovery scenario operations are activated only after a step returns an error.
A) True                                      B) False

5)A ....... is a convenient way to organize and store multiple recovery scenarios together.
A) recovery file                           B) recovery folder
C) Recovery Log                          D) Log File

6)The Recovery Scenario Manager dialog box enables you to create and edit recovery files, and does not let you create and manage the recovery scenarios stored in those files.
A) True                                      B) False

7)Each recovery scenario is represented by an icon that indicates its type.
A) True                                      B) False

8)The Recovery Operations screen in Recovery Scenario Wizard enables you to manage the collection of ........ in the recovery scenario.
A) recovery operations                 B) recovery Files
C) Trigger events                         D) All of Above

9)If you define a Restart Microsoft Windows recovery operation, it is always inserted as the last recovery operation, and you can change its position in the list.
A) True                                      B) False

10)If more than one scenario uses a function with the same name from different function libraries, the recovery process may fail.
A) True                                      B) False

DEBUG :

1)To debug a function library, you must first associate it with a test and then debug it from that test.
A) True                            B) False

2)To detect and isolate defects in a test or function library, you can control the run session using the .... command
A) Pause                 B) Run          C) F14          D) Session

3)When the test or function library run stops at a breakpoint, you can use the ...... to check and modify the values of VBScript objects and variables.
A) Debug Window                        B) Debug Dialog

C) Debug Viewer                          D) Debug page

4)While the test and function libraries are running in debug mode, they are read-only
A) True                            B) False

5)You cannot debug a file that is called using an ...... statement, or any of the functions contained in the file.
A) ExecuteFiles         B) Execute_File        C) Execute-File         D) ExecuteFile

6)The debug session can continue at the backend while you can perform file operations like opening a new test etc.
A) True                                      B) False

7)Any changes you apply to external resources saved in the file system, such as function libraries, are implemented only when the test is closed and reopened but any changes you apply to any external resource that is saved in your Quality Center project, such as a function library, will be implemented immediately.
A) True                                      B) False

8)You can use the .......... command to begin your debug session at a specific point in your test.
A) Start from Step    B) Run to Step         C) Run from Step     D) Start to Step

9)You can specify the time (in milliseconds) QuickTest pauses between each step by modifying the ..... option in the Run tab of the Options dialog box (Tools > Options).
A) Delay step execution by                      B) Delay every step execution by
C) Delay all steps execution by                 D) Delay each step execution by

10)To display the Debug toolbar, choose ............
A) View > Toolbar > Debug                     B) View > Toolbars > Debugs
C) Views > Toolbar > Debug                   D) View > Toolbars > Debug

ADD-IN :

1)You can install the QuickTest...... add-ins (Web, ActiveX, Visual Basic) when you install QuickTest Professional, or you can install the QuickTest built-in add-ins at a later time by running the installation again.
A) internal               B) external              C) built-in                D) All of above

2)Add-ins that are installed separately from the QuickTest Professional installation are referred to as ....... add-ins.
A) internal               B) external              C) built-in                D) built-out

3)When QuickTest opens, you can choose which of the installed add-ins you want to load using the QuickTest Professional - ...... dialog box.
A) Add-In Window                        B) Add-In

C) Add-In Manager D) Add-In Management

4)Installing and Loading an Add-in is one and the same thing.
A) True                            B) False

5)You can install Add-in Upgrade patches by running the relevant patch executable from the \...... folder.
A) AddinsUpdate       B) AddinsUpgrade     C) Addins_upgrade    D) Both A & B

6)In Add-in Manager dialog box, Time-Limited column displays values only when using a QuickTest seat license â€” not a concurrent license.
A) True                            B) False

7)You can view the list of add-ins that are currently installed or loaded by choosing ...................
A) File > Settings                         B) Tools > Options and click the General tab.
C) Help > About QuickTest Professional.              D) both A & B

8)To maximize performance and object identification reliability, load all the add-ins.
A) True                                      B) False

9)The add-in is displayed as Not Licensed in the License column of the Add-in Manager dialog box:
A) If an add-in license has not yet been installed for a specific external add-in.
B) if no concurrent license server within your subnet has a registered license for the specific add-in
C) if all concurrent licenses are in use
D) All of Above

10)You can use only one license type per session for QuickTest Professional and all loaded add-ins-either seat or concurrent.
A) True                            B) False

RECORD AND RUN OPTION :

1)Before you record or run a test on a Web or Windows application, you can use the .... dialog box to instruct QuickTest which applications to open when you begin to record or run your test.
A) Record and Run                       B) Record and Run Settings
C) Run and Record                       D) Run and Record Settings

2)If you define environment variables to specify the record and run details, those values override the values in the Record and Run dialog box.
A) True                                      B) False

3)You can record tests only on ............
A) Microsoft Internet Explorer                  B) Netscape Browser
C) Mozilla Firefox                                   D) Opera

4)Record and Run Settings window contains two tabs
A) Web & Window                                  B) Web & Windows Applications
C) Web & Window Applications                 D) Web & Windows Application

5)You can add up to ... applications to the application list displayed in the Windows Applications tab
A) 10            B) 12            C) 24            D) 64

6)You can use special, predefined environment variables to specify the applications or browsers you want to use for your test while specifying the Record and Run Details
A) True                                      B) False

7)If you select the option to Record and Run on any application or browser (the upper radio button in each tab of the Record and Run Settings dialog box), QuickTest ..... any defined record and run environment variables.
A) does not                                 B) ignores
C) may or may not ignore             D) None of above

8)To use environment variables to specify the applications or browsers you want to use for your test run, you must use the appropriate variable names E.g. the variable name for the Web address to display in the browser is
A) URL_VAR             B) URL_EN               C) URL_ENV             D) URL_VA

9)The setting of the Active Screen capture level (Tools > Options > Active Screen tab) can significantly affect the ..... for your test and the functionality of the Active Screen while editing your test.
A) repeating time      B) waiting time         C) average time       D) recording time

10)The Web tab (Record and Run Settings dialog box) is available only when Web support is installed and loaded.
A) True                            B) False

ACTIONS :

1)The ...... enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or external action.
A) Action Menu         B) Action List           C) Action Toolbar      D) Action View

2)You can view the ....... of the original action in the General tab of the Action Properties dialog box.
A) Parameters         B) Location              C) Associated Repositories   D) Type

3)You can create an additional call to any reusable or external action in your test by pressing ...... while you drag and drop the action to another location at a parallel (sibling) level within your test.
A) F3                      B) alt                      C) shift                   D) ctrl

4)You can use action parameters in any step in your action (including function calls).
A) True                            B) False

5)Input values for an action parameter can be retrieved
A) from the test (for a top-level action)

B) from the parameters of the parent action that calls it (for a nested action)
C) from the output of a previous action call (for a sibling action)
D) All of above

6)The Action Call Properties dialog box enables you to set options that apply only to a ...... action call.
A) following             B) preceeding          C) specific               D) internal

7)Specifying input and output parameter values in action calls is .......
A) required              B) optional     C) required only for internal action D) both A & B

8)You can share a value that is generated in one action with other actions in your test by storing the value in the ..... Data Table.
A) Internal               B) External              C) Local                  D) Global

9)ExitAction:
A) Exits the current action, regardless of its iteration attributes.
B) Exits the current iteration of the action.
C) Exits the test, regardless of its iteration attributes.
D) Exits the current global iteration.

10)If the action called by the RunAction statement includes an ExitAction statement, the RunAction statement can return the value of the ExitAction's RetVal argument.
A) True                   B) False

OBJECT REPOSITORY :

1)If an object with the same name and description is located in both the local object repository and in a shared object repository that is associated with the same action, the action uses the ...... object definition.
A) shared                B) local                   C) Can use any        D) None of above.

2)You cannot use the same shared object repository with multiple actions.
A) True                            B) False

3)If one or more of the property values of an object in your application differ from the property values QuickTest uses to identify the object, your test ..... fail.
A) may                   B) must                  C) should                D) will certainly

4)You can open as many shared object repositories as you want.
A) True                   B) False

5)You can also open an object repository from the .......... in the File menu.
A) Recent Folders list                    B) Current Files list
C) Recent Files list                        D) Both A & c

6)QuickTest saves the object repository with a ..... extension in the specified location
A) .vsr                    B) .tsr                    C) .lsr                     D) .qsr

7)If you opened the object repository in ...... mode, you must enable editing for the object repository before you can modify it.
A) read-write mode                               B) read-execute mode
C) read-write-execute mode                    D) read-only mode

8)You can also modify a shared object repository by merging it with another shared object repository.
A) True                                      B) False

9)You can also add objects to a shared object repository using the ....... option.
A) Navigate and Learn                  B) Navigate and earn

C) Navigate D) Navigate and Click

10)While Finding Objects in an Object Repository, You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.
A) True B) False

OBJECT PROPERTIES :

1. In the Expert View, you can use the Object property to activate the method for a Web object.
A) True                                      B) False

2. The test object property set for each test object is created and maintained by ....... The run-time object property set for each run-time object is created and maintained by the object creator
A) Microsoft             B) Adobe                 C) HP                     D) QuickTest

3. You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with your component in the Object Properties or Object Repository dialog box.
A) True                                      B) False

4. It is possible that you can use the Object property to access the native properties of any run-time object.
A) True                                      B) False

5. You cannot retrieve the values of test object properties from a run-time object.
A) True                                      B) False

6. You can use the GetTOProperty, GetTOProperties, and SetTOProperty methods in your ........ to set and retrieve the test object property values of the test object.
A) Test                   B) Function Library             C) Applciation area    D) Both A & B

7. Because QuickTest refers to the temporary version of the test object during the run session, any changes you make using the SetTOProperty method apply only during the course of the run session, and do not affect the values stored in the test object repository.
A) True                                      B) False

8. You can use the Object Spy at any time to view ..... properties and values of the objects in the application you are testing.
A) run-time             B) test object           C) Both A & B          D) None

9. You cannot add to the list of properties that QuickTest uses to identify an object.
A) True B) False

10. The default properties for a Link object (hypertext link) are...
A) Name B) text C) HTML tag D) Tag

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 6

2011-02-18T03:01:00.000-08:00

41) By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the ……. parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) EMAIL_FORMAT B) EMAIL_FORM C) MAIL_FORMAT D) QC_MAIL_FORMAT
42) You can copy a requirement within the same project or between projects. Which of the below items are copied at the time of copying a requirement.
A) Test coverage. B) defect linkage. C) risk-based quality management data D) All of above

E) None of above
43) You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by dragging it.. A) True B) False

44) You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a requirement does not delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement traceability links, and defects linkage..
A)True B) False
45) There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements B) Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements

C) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests

D) Convert a Test from Requirement & Generate Requirements to Tests
46) When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, the traceability links indicate the other ...... that the change might affect. A) tests B) requirements C) tests & requirements D) None
47) ...... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. .....links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.

A) Trace from, Trace to B) Trace to, Trace from C) From trace, To trace D) None of above
48) When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by....... A) Author of the requirement B) users authorized by the Author of the requirement

C) all users D) Administrator

49) While defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid..
A) True B) False

50) While viewing Traceability Impact, the Impact Analysis tab helps you understand the many associations and dependencies that exist between the ........ by displaying them in a hierarchical tree structure. A) Tests B) Requirements C) Both D) None
Answers: 41) C, 42) E, 43) A, 44) B, 45) A, 46) B, 47) A, 48) C, 49) B, 50) B

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 5

2011-02-18T02:55:00.000-08:00

31) QA Manager changes a requirement from a ……….. status to a Reviewed status once it is approved.

A) Released B) Tested C) Not reviewed D) None of these
32) You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel, or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you must first install the appropriate……… A) HP Third Party add-in. B) HP Quality Center add-in. C) HP Quality Center D) HP Quality Center License

33) The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a …………….view. A) Flat B) Hierarchical C) Flat-hierarchical D) Flat non-hierarchical
34) The …………view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test coverage status. A) Coverage Analysis B) Coverage Requirements C) Coverage D) Coverage Tests
35) You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key …….

A) F1 B) F9 C) Ctrl + R D) Alt + R

36) You can use the ………to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Requirements module.
A) Script Edit B) Scriptor Editor C) Script Editor D) Script Editing
37) The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your……...
A) requirements B) All requirements C) some requirements D) Tedious requirements
38) You can rename or delete Requirements root folder. A) true B) False

39) You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.
A) Search B) Find C) Search All D) Find All
40) You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.
A) Replace B) Replace All C) Find & Replace D) Replace & Find
Answers : 31) C, 32) B, 33) D, 34) A, 35) B, 36) C, 37) A, 38) B, 39) B, 40) A

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 4

2011-02-18T02:51:00.000-08:00

21) You can view a list of alerts for a ………… entity.
A) A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid
B) A test instance in the Execution Grid C) None of above
D) Both A & B

22) A red flag indicates that the alert is.........
A) New B) Old C) Follow up D) Urgent

23) A gray flag indicates that the alert ………..
A) New B) has already been read C) Follow up D) Urgent

24) A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A) True B) False

25) Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a ..... extension.
A) .jpeg B) .gif C) .doc D) .jpg

26) A ………..is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.

A) Personal View B) My view C) Favorite View D) My QC View

27) You save favorite views in ........

A) Favorite folder B) Personal folder C) Both A & B D) Public & Private folder

28) You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the …………….. parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) favorites B) favorites_Depth C) favorites_view D) favorites_Path

29) The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:
A) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements B) Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements

C) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Release

D) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases

30) Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a

A) Requirements cycle B) Requirements tree C) Requirements plan D) Requirements module

Answers: 21) D, 22) A, 23) B, 24) A, 25) D, 26) C, 27) D, 28) B, 29) A, 30) B

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 3

2011-02-18T02:44:00.000-08:00

11) By default, records appear in Quality Center in the
A) Increasing Order B) Decreasing Order C) Order in which they were added D) None of these

12) You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed.

A) True B) False

13) You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another project.

A) True   B) False

14) You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings) with another user by pasting them to an e-mail or a text file.
A) True B) False

15) When you use text search, the search ignores
A) articles (a, an, the) B) coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or) C) Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then) D) All of above

16) You can export the data in a grid as a
A) text file, B) Microsoft Excel worksheet, C) Microsoft Word document, or D) HTML document. E) All of above

17) …….. alerting functions availabl in Quality Center
A) Three   B) Four C) Two D) Five

18) The alerting functions in Quality Center are:
A) Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B) Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C) Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D) Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts

19) You can create traceability links between ……….. in the Requirements module.
A) Requirements B) Test Case C) Tests D) Defects

20) You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by creating ………..in the Test Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual test run.
A) Linked Tests B) Linked Defects C) Linked Errors D) Linked Data

Answers: 11) C, 12) A, 13) A, 14) B, 15) D, 16) E, 17) C, 18) A, 19) A, 20) B

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 2

2011-02-18T02:40:00.000-08:00

1) Test management with   Quality Center  involves …. Phases.  

A) Four B) Five C) Six D) Seven  

2) The phases of Test management with   Quality Center  in order are:  

A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects 

B) Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects 

C) Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects 

D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests  

3) By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a password and user group, you control the kinds of additions and modifications each user makes to the project.  

A) True B) False  

4) The …….determines the privileges that the user has within a project.  

A) User ID B) User Name C) User group D) User SID  

5) You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality  Center project.  

A) True B) False   

6) Quality  Center  9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.  

A) Framework 2.0 B) Framework 1.0 C) Framework 3.0 D) Framework 4.0  

7) When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens and displays the module in which you were last working. A) True B) False

 8) The ….can change and override a user’s properties or password.  

A) Global Administrator B) Site Administrator C) Administrator D) QC Administrator  

9) You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define. How many filters can you define  

A) Single item as a filter B) Two items as a filter C) Multiple items as filter D) Five items as filter  

10) In the test plan tree, you can define the ……filter for associated test sets as “Open”. This ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are displayed.

A) Double B) Twice C) Cross D) Multiple

Answers: 1) B, 2) A, 3) A, 4) C, 5) A, 6) A, 7) A, 8) B, 9) C, 10) C

Sample HP Quality Center (HP0-M31) Certification Questions Dump 1

2011-02-18T02:24:00.000-08:00

QUESTION 1

What web client can be used with Quality Center 10.0?

A. Netscape

B. Safari

C. Firefox

D. Internet Explorer

Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?

A. test cases

B. repository

C. load test

D. defects

Answer: B

QUESTION 3

What database can be used with Quality Center 10.0? Select two.

A. Access

B. Sybase

C. Microsoft SQL Server

D. Paradox

E. Oracle

Answer: C, E

QUESTION 4

What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)

A. HP OpenView

B. HP WinRunner

C. HP QuickTest Professional

D. HP LoadRunner

E. HP Change Control Management

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5

Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?

A. Quality Center Foundation

B. Business Process Insight

C. Service Test Component

D. Quality Center Dashboard

Answer: D

QUESTION 6

When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested.

When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate

steps? (Select two.)

A. specify all actual results

B. use parameters in the step names

C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step

D. use the numbering system for the step names

E. use consistent terminology throughout the test

Answer: C, E

QUESTION 7

Where can you link tests to requirements?

A. from the Test Lab module

B. from the Requirements module

C. on the test details page (Test Plan)

D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)

Answer: B

QUESTION 8

When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?

A. values are assigned from within the calling test

B. values must be assigned when the test is executed

C. values are assigned during test design or execution

D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design

Answer: C

QUESTION 9

What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?

A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method

B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test

C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination

subject path

D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the

automatic conversion

Answer: C

QUESTION 10

How is a test configured as a template test?

A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE

B. The first step in the test must be named template test

C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test

D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test

Answer: C

(Lets Read More)

QUESTION 11

Exhibit: *

What does the icon in the exhibit indicate in the Test Plan module, under the Test Script tab?

A. there is a test script

B. there is not a test script

C. there is a manual test case

D. the test script has changed

Answer: A

QUESTION 12

While designing the test plan tree, you accidentally delete a folder that contained some tests that

you need. Can you recover the tests?

A. no, once a test is deleted, it is gone

B. yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder

C. yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder

D. no, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests

Answer: C

QUESTION 13

When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests are accurate and

traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.

A. simple

B. consistent

C. repeatable

D. convertible

E. automation

F. appropriate

Answer: B, F

QUESTION 14

What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three

A. batch-test

B. vugen-test

C. lr-scenario

D. system-test

E. interface-test

F. wr-automated test

Answer: C, D, F

QUESTION 15

In order to reuse a test across other tests, must the reused test be a template test?

A. yes, only template tests are reusable

B. no, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable

C. yes, template tests are reusable automated tests

D. no, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused

Answer: D

QUESTION 16

What does a live analysis graph illustrate in a visual overview?

A. all the tests in the Test Plan

B. all the cycles or releases the test is linked to

C. all the requirements linked to the specified test

D. all the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan

Answer: D

QUESTION 17

How can you create a test plan tree?

A. convert releases to tests

B. define test folders and tests manually

C. save automated tests in Quality Center

D. define test names for each test needed

Answer: B

QUESTION 18

Can you change the values of a called test's parameters?

A. no, values are assigned at run time

B. yes, if the called test is a template test

C. no, you must delete the called test and call it again

D. yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters

Answer: D

QUESTION 19

When you generate an Excel report, why is it an advantage to use parameters?

A. enables the report to be saved

B. enables the user to name the report

C. enables the report to be used across projects

D. enables the report to be used for different purposes

Answer: D

QUESTION 20

Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality Center? (Select three.)

A. defects data

B. test set data

C. test plan data

D. releases data

E. test Instance data

F. requirements data

Answer: A, C, F

QUESTION 21

Once the Word macro is installed on your computer, what Quality Center toolbars will Word

display?

A. Test Plan, Requirements and Export

B. Requirements, Defects and Common

C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects

D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common

Answer: D

QUESTION 22

What graph types are available in each of the Quality Center modules?

A. age and summary

B. trend and progress

C. summary and progress

D. requirements, coverage and age

Answer: C

QUESTION 23

When a predefined report is saved, what is the file extension?

A. txt

B. xls

C. html

D. doc

Answer: C

QUESTION 24

Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?

A. Requirements, Test Lab and Defects

B. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects

C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects

D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects

Answer: C

QUESTION 25

How is data defined for use in an Excel report?

A. with an SQL query

B. with an XML query

C. with ETL data extraction

D. with a WebDataScraper

Answer: A

QUESTION 26

On the General page of the Excel Report Generator window, what name is displayed, by default,

in the designer field?

SoftwareQAtestings.com

A. the project manager

B. the site administrator

C. the user currently logged in

D. the user who created the report

Answer: D

QUESTION 27

Which menu allows you to generate a predefined report?

A. Help

B. Tools

C. Analysis

D. Favorites

Answer: C

QUESTION 28

What elements can be linked directly to a requirement in the releases module?

A. a cycle

B. release tree

C. cycle details

D. a cycle progressa cycle progress

Answer: A

QUESTION 29

Which module, in Quality Center, starts the testing process?

A. Defects

B. Releases

C. Dashboard

D. Requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 30

What details about a cycle can you define in the details tab? (Select two.)

A. name

B. end date

C. attachments

D. release version

E. linked test sets

Answer: A, B

QUESTION 31

What constitutes a release folder?

A. cycles of the release

B. test plan for the release

C. releases of the application

D. requirements for the release

Answer: C

QUESTION 32

Why do you create a release tree?

A. to define the framework of releases

B. to define the workflow for the project

C. to define the requirements hierarchy

D. to define the test plan for the release

Answer: A

QUESTION 33

How many buttons are available to create a Release Tree?

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. five

Answer: B

QUESTION 34

What types of attachments can be added to a cycle? (Select three.)

A. snapshot

B. test plans

C. clipboard image

D. release versions

E. system properties

F. linked requirements

Answer: A, C, E

QUESTION 35

Which module allows you to view coverage by cycle?

A. Cycle

B. Releases

C. Test Plan

D. Requirements

Answer: D

QUESTION 36

What is the function of the New Release button?

A. creates a release tree

B. creates a cycle within a release

C. creates a release within a release folder

D. creates a new Release folder in the release tree

Answer: C

QUESTION 37

What is the foundation of the Releases module?

A. the release tree

B. the cycle versions

C. the release cycles

D. the release folders

Answer: A

QUESTION 38

What is an example of an indicator column in the Defect module?

A. status

B. priority

C. attachments

D. reproducible

Answer: C

QUESTION 39

Where can you find an audit trail of the changes made to a defect?

A. audit tab in the Defect module

B. status column in the defect grid

C. history tab in the Defect module

SoftwareQAtestings.com

D. summary column in the defect grid

Answer: C

QUESTION 40

How can you save a filter that you set in the Defect module?

A. choose Defects>Save

B. click the Favorites button

C. click the Save Filter button

D. choose Favorites>Add to Favorites

Answer: D

QUESTION 41

When defects are exported out of Quality Center, what type of file is created?

A. .xls

B. .doc

C. .mdb

D. .qcd

Answer: A

QUESTION 42

When should you use a private favorite view for defects?

A. need one more

B. use for private sessions of Quality Center

C. use for data on which only you are working

D. use for data on which your group is working

Answer: C

QUESTION 43

When you log a new defect, how is the Detected By field populated?

A. This field must be filled out as you log the defect

B. This field must be filled out after the defect is logged

C. This field is auto-populated with the user who is currently logged in

D. This field is auto-populated with the user who executed the linked test

Answer: C

QUESTION 44

Which button or menu will allow you to view additional fields in the Defects Grid?

A. View button

B. Select>View menu

C. Favorites>View menu

D. Select Columns button

Answer: D

QUESTION 45

How many defects can be associated with a requirement?

A. Any requirement can have one defect

B. Any requirement can have multiple defects

C. One for each parent requirement and child requirement

D. A parent requirement can be associated with multiple defects, but a child requirement can be

associated with one

Answer: B

QUESTION 46

What is tracked when a defect is assigned a status?

A. the defect's priority

B. the defect's severity

C. the defect's lifecycle

D. the users to whom the defect is assigned

Answer: C

QUESTION 47

How many views are available in the Defects module?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

Answer: A

QUESTION 48

What are some examples of entities that a defect can be associated?

A. Cycle, Release, Test Step, Defect

B. Release, Requirement, Test Set, Test Step

C. Requirement, Test Instance, Test Step, Defect

D. Requirement, Test Step, Test Run, Test Result

Answer: C

QUESTION 49

While running a manual test in the Manual Runner, you log a defect against a specific step. Is

that defect automatically linked to any other entities?

A. yes, indirectly linked to the test instance

B. no, a defect can be linked to only one entity

C. no, all links to other entities must be done separately

D. yes, directly to other defects linked to the test instance

Answer: A

QUESTION 50

From which module or modules can you log a defect?

A. Defect

B. Requirement and Defect

C. Requirement, Test Plan and Defect

D. Requirement, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defect

Answer: D

QUESTION 51

In the Defect module, what is a fixed column?

A. a column with a section list

B. a column with flexible values

C. a column that is non-scrolling

D. a column with a predetermined width

Answer: C

QUESTION 52

When searching for Similar Defects, what field or fields in each defect are searched?

A. name and history

B. name and description

C. summary and history

D. summary and description

Answer: D

QUESTION 53

Which statement best describes the requirements traceability feature?

A. enables definition of a link between multiple requirements

B. enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test

C. enables definition of a link between a requirement and a cycle

D. enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test set

Answer: A

QUESTION 54

When a requirement is assigned to a release, in which cycles is it tested?

A. all of the cycles

B. only the first cycle

C. only the last cycle

D. none of the cycles

Answer: A

QUESTION 55

What is the purpose of requirements traceability?

A. to view and establish Test coverage

B. to view cycles that are linked to the requirement

C. to view and establish linkage to other requirements

D. to view and establish what Releases are linked to the requirements

Answer: C

QUESTION 56

What are some characteristics of a useful Test Requirement? (Select two.)

A. vague

B. general

C. familiar

D. precise

E. bounded

F. ambiguous

Answer: D, E

QUESTION 57

What does the requirements tree define?

A. hierarchical relationships between requirements

B. the number of test plans needed for each requirement

C. identify defects that are associated with each requirement

D. which releases and/or cycles are linked to each requirement

Answer: A

QUESTION 58

What feature does Quality Center use to calculate the testing level for each requirement? (Select

two.)

A. risk analysis

B. impact analysis

C. requirement type

D. failure probability

E. resource availability

Answer: C, E

QUESTION 59

What are two steps in risk-based testing? (Select two.)

A. perform risk analysis

B. establish testing time

C. perform impact analysis

D. establish failure probability

E. establish development time

F. establish the number of testers needed

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 60

If a child requirement is linked to a test, what else is automatically linked to the test?

A. the Release Cycle

B. the Parent Requirement

C. the Functional Requirement

D. the other child requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 61

What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?

A. the type of parent requirement

B. the execution status of linked tests

C. the component of the application covered

D. whether the requirement has any linked defects

Answer: B

QUESTION 62

What can you do under the RichContent tab in the Requirements module?

A. add, view and edit RTF content

B. add, view and edit MS Word content

C. add, view and edit MS Excel content

D. add, view and edit MS Access content

E. add, view and edit SQL statement content

Answer: B

QUESTION 63

What is the Coverage Analysis View used for in the Requirements module?

A. to identify which test sets are associated with the requirement

B. to identify and analyze the tests that are associated with the requirement

C. to identify which releases and cycles are associated with the requirement

D. to identify and analyze which defects are associated with the requirement

Answer: B

QUESTION 64

What are some examples of the default Quality Center requirement types? (Select three.)

A. Child

B. Cycle

C. Parent

D. Testing

E. Business

F. Functional

Answer: D, E, F

QUESTION 65

What testing levels does Quality Center define for risk-based testing? (Select two.)

A. ALL

B. BASIC

C. NONE

D. UPPER

E. GROUP

F. FUNCTIONAL

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 66

What additional Quality Center modules may you have access to if installed and/or licensed?

Select all that apply.

A. reports

B. releases

C. dashboard

D. documents

E. business components

Answer: C, E

QUESTION 67

What link do you click on to log on to Quality Center 10.0?

A. Add-Ins Page

B. Quality Center

C. Site Administrator

D. Authenticate User

Answer: B

QUESTION 68

What tools does Quality Center provide for performing test data analysis? (Select two.)

A. linking

B. graphs

C. reports

D. tracking

E. traceability

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 69

What can be accomplished using the Tools Menu of the Common Toolbar? (Select two.)

A. define a cycle

B. log a new defect

C. switch to another project

D. open the Documentation Library

E. display the Quality Center version

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 70

Quality Center 10.0 provides what type of repository for all testing assets?

A. database

B. file system

C. web-based

D. open access

Answer: C

QUESTION 71

Where is the common toolbar located?

A. lower-left part of the window

B. upper-left part of the window

C. upper-right part of the window

D. lower-right part of the window

Answer: C

QUESTION 72

Which toolbar contains buttons for frequently used commands in the current Quality Center

module?

A. Module Toolbar

B. Standard Toolbar

C. Common Toolbar

D. Formatting Toolbar

Answer: A

QUESTION 73

How do you make a context-specific shortcut menu appear?

A. right click on an interface element

B. double click on the interface element

C. choose Shortcut from the Help menu

D. choose Context Menu from the View menu

Answer: A

QUESTION 74

What HP testing tools does Quality Center integrate with? (Select two.)

A. WinRunner

B. Open View

C. Visual API-XP

D. Performance Center

E. Change Control Management

Answer: A, C

QUESTION 75

How many core modules are in Quality Center 10.0?

A. three

B. four

C. five

D. six

Answer: C

QUESTION 76

In the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab module, what does a solid blue line between two tests

indicate?

A. the previous test must pass

B. the previous test must finish

C. the test has undefined parameters

D. the second test is called from within the first

Answer: B

QUESTION 77

When defining execution conditions in a test set, what completion status choice or choices

available?

A. finish

B. if/then

C. pass and fail

D. pass and finish

Answer: D

QUESTION 78

What must the goal of a test set meet?

A. the goal of the test plan

B. the description of the test set

C. the description of the requirement

D. the goal of the associated cycle or cycles

Answer: D

QUESTION 79

Can a test set include both manual and automated tests?

A. No, a test set must be all manual tests

B. No, a test set must be all automated tests

C. Yes, however an automated test can not follow a manual test

D. Yes, automated and manual tests may be used in the same test set

Answer: D

QUESTION 80

When developing a test plan, what should the tester be careful about and plan for between tests?

A. execution time

B. execution control

C. automation timing

D. data dependencies

Answer: D

QUESTION 81

How do you run an automated test concurrently on multiple remote hosts in a test set?

A. run the test locally

B. select a host group for the local machine

C. select multiple hosts for the automated test

D. add multiple instances of the test to the test set

Answer: D

QUESTION 82

Quality Center provides the framework for test execution. What are the stages of this framework?

A. import requirements, import tests, run the tests

B. link the tests to cycles, run the tests, log defects

C. develop the test set tree, organize test sets, set test-set properties, run the tests

D. convert the test plans to test sets, set the hosts for automated scripts, run the tests

Answer: C

QUESTION 83

What are two elements of the Test Lab module? (Select two.)

A. Linked Cycles

B. Linked Defects

C. Execution Flow

D. Execution Results

E. Graph of Selected

F. Linked Requirements

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 84

What types of tests make up a test set?

A. smoke and integration

B. smoke and automated

C. integration and manual

D. manual and automated

Answer: D

QUESTION 85

In executing a test, what do you link to a test set?

A. a cycle

B. a defect

C. an LOB

D. a release

Answer: A

QUESTION 86

At what level is a main test set tree folder?

A. root

B. main

C. subject

D. unattached

Answer: A

QUESTION 87

When a test set folder is linked to a cycle, are all of the test sets in the folder linked to that cycle?

A. No, only a test set can be linked to a cycle

B. No, a test set folder can only be linked to a release

C. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to that cycle

D. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to the cycle and all other cycles in that

release

Answer: C

QUESTION 88

What is a test set?

A. a folder of test results

B. a folder of testing cycles

C. a group of tests to achieve a goal

D. a group of tests assigned to a release

Answer: C

QUESTION 89

What choices are available in Test Set Properties if any test fails?

A. Rerun the test up to 5 times

B. Run the next Test Set, Do Nothing

C. Run cleanup test before each rerun of the test

D. Do Nothing, Stop the Test Run, Rerun the Test Set

Answer: D

QUESTION 90

While defining a test set, you want to notify your Project Manager if the permission levels on the

testing box are inadequate. What is the best way to accomplish this?

A. select inadequate in the permissions field

B. ensure that the correct alert rule is in effect

C. check the appropriate checkbox in Test Set Properties>Notifications

D. email test results to the Project Manager at the completion of the test set

Answer: C

Procedure to be followed to get HP Learner ID

2011-02-17T21:16:00.000-08:00

The following link will guide you through the procedure to be followed to get your HP Learner ID.

Registration Process - HP Learner ID

If you face any issues in getting your HP Learner ID, send an email to premium.support@hp.com

You get a prompt response from them though it takes 2 to 3 days.

HP QC Certification (HP0-M31) - Points to Remember

2011-02-17T21:00:00.000-08:00

IMPORTANT POINTS

1) Quality Center Editions: The availability of each feature depends on your Quality Center edition — Starter, Enterprise or Premier.

2) To download files to your machine, you must log in with administrator privileges. For more information on the minimum permissions required to install client components, refer to the HP Quality Center Installation Guide.

3) If file downloads are prohibited through your browser, you can install these files from the HP Quality Center Client Side Setup Add-in on the HP Quality Center Add-in page. For more information on add-ins, refer to the HP Quality Center Installation Guide.

4) Quality Center prompts you to install Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 if it is not already installed on your machine. To perform the installation, follow the instructions in the Software Update Installation Wizard (if Windows Installer 3.1 is not installed) and the Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 Setup.

5) Resetting your password is unavailable in either of the following situations:

6) It is deactivated by the PASSWORD_RESET_DISABLE Site Configuration

7) Parameter or LDAP authentication is enabled.

8) Available Quality Center functionality may depend on how your site or project administrator has configured your Quality Center project.

9) Quality Center Editions: The availability of each module and feature depends on the Quality Center edition you have — Starter, Enterprise or Premier. For more information, see Appendix C, “Quality Center Editions”.

10) You can navigate between the modules using shortcut keys. For a list of shortcut keys, see Appendix B, “Quality Center Keyboard Shortcuts.”

(Lets Read More)

11) You must have the appropriate user permissions to clear history.

12) Quality Center Starter Edition: Not all fields and functionality are available if you are working with the Starter Edition.

13) Columns displayed with the icon cannot be removed from the Visible Columns list.

14) You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed. To save as a favorite view, choose Favorites > Add to Favorites.

15) If you select a field with a user name value, the Select Filter Condition dialog box displays a user list that enables you to sort users, search for users, group users by user groups, and select users from the list or from a group tree.

16) In the Requirements module, if you select the Req Parent field, the Select Filter Condition dialog box displays the requirements tree, sorted by requirement name. If you select a requirement from the requirements tree, its full path is displayed in the Condition box. Only requirements which are descendents of this requirement are displayed when you apply the filter.

17) Some items that appear in hierarchical lists contain sublists. These items are preceded by a folder icon. To choose an item from a sublist, doubleclick the folder and click the item.

18) When defining a condition for a user, you can specify the current user (select [CurrentUser]), or an entire user group (for example, [Developer]).

19) If you enter an item with more than one word, it must be enclosed in quotes. For example, to search for the test Login Boundary, in the Condition box, type the following: "login boundary"

20) If you want to enter only part of the item, use an asterisk (*). For example, to search for all tests with the word Login, in the Condition box, type the following: *login*. To search for all tests that begin with the words Insert New in the Condition box, type the following: "insert new*"

21) To specify an empty field, type the following: ""

22) To specify a non-empty field, type the following: not ""

23) Although the cross filter functionality is the same across all Quality Center modules, the interface of the Filter dialog box in the Dashboard module is slightly different than the other modules.

24) Quality Center Starter Edition: Not all fields and functionality are available if you are working with the Starter Edition.

25) You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed. To save as a favorite view, choose Favorites > Add to Favorites. For more information, see Chapter 6, “Working with Favorite Views”.

26) Quality Center Starter Edition: Not all fields and functionality are available if you are working with the Starter Edition.

27) You cannot select a group header and perform Quality Center actions on an entire group. To perform actions on multiple records, use CTRL or SHIFT to select records.

28) If you group records by a field containing multiple values, the information in each value is grouped as its entire value. This value is the category for grouping.

29) The group by list displays only system and user-defined fields associated with a User List or Lookup List type field. For more information on field types, refer to the HP Quality Center Administrator Guide.

30) Quality Center Starter Edition: Not all fields and functionality are available if you are working with the Starter Edition.

31) Version Control: Quality Center searches only checked in versions.

32) Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project. Contact your Quality Center site administrator if the search option is unavailable.

33) Quality Center Starter Edition: Text search is not available.

34) In Quality Center tree views, the record details only display if the record matches the current filter. To display details for records that do not match this filter, change or clear the filter.

35) You can also view a list of all alerts for a selected module by selecting the Show <entity> with alerts option in the Filter dialog box.

36) A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.

37) Working with favorite views is different from the description in this chapter for Document Generator. In the Document Generator, click the Add to Favorites button to add a new view and the Favorites button to organize your views.

38) By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the FAVORITES_DEPTH parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration. For more information, refer to the HP Quality Center Administrator Guide.

39) To maintain usability and data integrity, Quality Center stores previous versions of an entity without most data related to relationships between entities. The following data is not stored for previous versions: requirements and tests coverage, requirements traceability, and defect linkage. In addition, risk data is also not stored for previous versions of an entity.

40) Quality Center Editions: The Releases module is available for Quality Center Enterprise Edition and Quality Center Premier Edition.

41) The dates for the cycles must be contained within the dates for the releases.

42) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Releases module.

43) You can use the Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Releases module.

44) You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in the releases tree by dragging it.

45) Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, also unassigns the associated requirements, test set folders, and defects.

46) Quality Center Starter Edition: Not all fields and functionality in the Requirements module are available if you are working with the Starter Edition.

47) Quality Center Starter Edition: Not all fields and functionality in the Requirements module are available if you are working with the Starter Edition.

48) To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose Requirements > Go to Requirement, and type the requirement ID. To display the requirement ID, select the ReqID column using the Select Columns dialog box. You can only go to requirements that are in the current filter.

49) To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Grid view, choose Requirements > Go to Requirement, and type the requirement ID. To display the requirement ID, select the ReqID column using the Select Columns dialog box.

50) To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirement Details view, choose Requirements > Go to Requirement, and type the requirement ID. To display the requirement ID, select the ReqID column using the Select Columns dialog box. You can only go to requirements that are in the current filter.

51) You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key F9. Additionally, you can perform many other Quality Center operations using shortcut keys.

52) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements module. You can also customize project lists.

53) You can use the Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Requirements module.

54) When you select a requirement column with a user name value (including user-defined fields), Quality Center displays a list with the name and full name of each user. You can search for users, sort users, group users by user group, and select users from the users list or a group tree.

55) Quality Center Starter Edition: Not all fields are available if you are working with the Starter Edition.

56) In addition to creating requirements directly in Quality Center, you can also import requirement data from Microsoft Word or Microsoft Excel to your Quality Center project. To import from Word, you must install the HP Quality Center Microsoft Word Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in. To import from Excel, you must install the HP Quality Center Microsoft Excel Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in. You can install the add-ins from the HP Quality Center Add-ins page.

57) Assigning a parent requirement to a cycle also assigns its child requirements to the same cycle.

58) If available, Text Search is a more powerful tool that enables you to search for keywords and variations of keywords.

59) By default, Quality Center sends email in HTML format. To send email as plain text instead, edit the MAIL_FORMAT parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

60) You can automatically send the email to a specific user type. This can be any requirement column with a user name value, including user-defined fields. Click the Send by Email arrow and choose an option. For example, choose Send by Email to Author to send the email to the user who wrote the requirement.

61) You cannot rename the root folder.

62) Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are not copied.

63) To copy a requirement with traceability, you must also copy its associated traced requirements.

64) The root folder cannot be copied within the same project.

65) You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by dragging it.

66) If you stop the conversion process, any requirements already converted are not deleted from the test plan tree. You must delete them manually.

67) You can also add a requirement traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid.

68) Quality Center Editions: Risk-based quality management is available for Quality Center Enterprise Edition and Quality Center Premier Edition.

69) The missing assessment link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a category or exclude explicitly from the analysis. Verify that there are no requirements that should be assigned a category. If you do not want to include a requirement in the analysis, then exclude it from the analysis explicitly.

70) To find a specific test by Test ID in the test plan tree, choose Tests > Go to Test, and type the test ID. To display the test ID, select the Test ID column using the Select Columns dialog box. You can only go to tests that are in the current filter.

71) You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key F9. Additionally, you can perform many other Quality Center operations using shortcut keys.

72) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid. You can also customize project lists.

73) You can use the Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.

74) When you select a Test Grid column with a user name value,Quality Center displays a list with the name and full name of each user. You can search for users, sort users, group users by user group, and select users from the users list or a group tree.

75) Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user permissions.

76) In addition to creating a test plan tree directly in Quality Center, you can also import test plan data from Microsoft Word or Microsoft Excel to your Quality Center project. To import from Word, you must install the HP Quality Center Microsoft Word Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in. To import from Excel, you must install the HP Quality Center Microsoft Excel Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in. You can install the add-ins from the HP Quality Center Add-ins page.

77) You can automatically create tests based directly on your requirements in the Requirements module.

78) If you have installed the QuickTest Professional Add-in on your machine, the Create New Test dialog box includes the Template box.

79) To set the QuickTest add-ins that Quality Center associates with a new QuickTest test, choose a template test that lists the appropriate add-ins. Alternatively, use the default template test provided on your Quality Center client. This test loads the Web and ActiveX add-ins by default.

80) To set a QuickTest Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose Mark as Template Test.

81) You can change the label of any of the test detail fields. You can also add user-defined fields to the test details.

82) By default, Quality Center sends email in HTML format. To send email as plain text instead, edit the MAIL_FORMAT parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

83) You can automatically send the email to a specific user type. This can be any test column with a user name value, including user-defined fields. Click the Send by Email arrow and choose an option. For example, choose Send Mail to Designer to send the email to the user who designed the test.

84) If Text Search is available, you can use it to search for tests in the test plan tree or Test Grid. Text search provides a more powerful search by allowing you to search for keywords and variations of keywords.

85) To copy tests across projects, both projects must use the same Quality Center version and patch level.

86) You must have project administrator permissions to create a custom sort.

87) You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. To enable this feature use the ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE parameter in Site Administration.

88) Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added requirements coverage, it may already exist.

89) You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.

90) Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a test from a requirement. Therefore, even if you have not yet added test coverage, it may already exist.

91) You can also define test coverage by dragging a test or a test folder from the Test Plan Tree tab to the coverage grid.

92) By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types: Functional, Testing, and Undefined.

93) You can include a design step that calls another manual test.

94) You can copy steps from an existing test.

95) If you add an attachment to a design step, a copy of the attachment is made every time the test is run.

96) You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use ALT+HOME to access the first step, ALT+LEFT to access the previous step, ALT+RIGHT to access the next step, and ALT+END to access the last step.

97) If you apply formatting to a parameter name in a design step, you must apply the same formatting to the entire parameter name, including the <<< and >>> characters. For example, if you want to italicize the parameter <<<password>>>, you must italicize the entire string <<<password>>> and not just the word password.

98) The QUICKTEST_TEST test type is only available if you have installed the appropriate add-in from the HP Quality Center Add-ins page.

99) To run a system test, you must install the System Test Remote Agent Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.

100) If required test fields were defined in Project Customization, the Required Test Fields dialog box opens. Select values for the required fields and click OK.

101) To use the Restart the computer option, you must enable auto login on your machine. Choose Start > Programs > HP Quality Center SystemTest Agent > SystemTest Agent (configuration). The Auto Restart Settings dialog box opens. By default, User Name and Domain are read-only. Type your password and click OK.

102) To select a different user name, reopen the Auto Restart Settings dialog box. User Name and Domain are no longer read-only. Modify the values and click OK.

103) When a Quality Center project with Business Process Testing is connected to QuickTest Professional, a BPT Resources folder is created automatically in the tree. The BPT Resources folder contains all the QuickTest resources available for business components in the project.

104) To view the resource content, you must install the relevant add-in or extension.

105) You can also move a resource to a different location in the test resource tree by dragging it.

106) Fields and functionality related to release management and baselining are not available in the Test Lab module if you are working with the Starter Edition.

107) Right-click a test in the Execution Grid or Execution Flow, and choose Go to Test in Test Plan Tree to open the Test Plan module and highlight the selected test in the test plan tree.

108) You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key F9. Additionally, you can perform many other Quality Center operations using shortcut keys.

109) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution Grid. You can also customize project lists.

110) You can use the Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Execution Grid.

111) When you select an Execution Grid column with a user name value, Quality Center displays a list with the name and full name of each user. You can search for users, sort users, group users by user group, and select users from the users list or a group tree.

112) Fields and functionality related to release management and baselining are not available when creating test sets with the Starter Edition.

113) You can also add tests by double-clicking or dragging a folder or test in the test plan tree to the Execution Grid or Execution Flow.

114) Only tests that match the current filter in the Requirements Tree tab are added.

115) You can also use the Run Events view in the Test Instance Properties dialog box to set the On Failure rules for a test in a test set.

116) To copy test sets or test set folders across projects, both projects must use the same Quality Center version and patch level.

117) When copying test sets or test set folders, test run information is not copied.

118) You can also drag the test sets between lists.

119) You can also add a condition directly in the Execution Flow. Click a test icon (not the test name) and drag the arrow to another test. By default, the condition is set to Finished. To change the condition, double-click the condition arrow and select Passed.

120) You can schedule the test run date and time by clicking the Add Time Dependency To Flow button, and linking the arrow from the icon to a test. Double-click the icon to set the time in the Time Dependency dialog box. The default time dependency is the Quality Center server’s current date and time.

121) You can conveniently read each test step and record the results using the compact view display of this dialog box. To open this display, click the Compact View button. To return to the steps grid, click the Back to Steps Grid button.

122) The Continue Manual Run command continues the last run of the selected test. If you want to resume running a previous run, click the Test Instance Properties button, select All Runs on the sidebar and choose the test run you want to resume. Click the Continue button.

123) You can only view the Execution Log if you selected Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.

124) If you specify a host group for remote test execution, Quality Center runs the test on the first available host, not every host in the host group.

125) When determining the order for running tests, Quality Center first checks the Execution Flow. The order you define in the Execution Grid is only used if there are no conditions set in the Execution Flow.

126) You can also drag the tests up or down.

127) You can change the label of any of the fields in the Details tab. You can also add user-defined fields to the Details view.

128) When defining the WinRunnerCommandLine parameter, you must specify the path within quotes. For example: -ini “C:\program files\wrun.ini”

129) If you change the failure rules in the Run Events view, your changes are implemented in the next test run.

130) You can also set On Failure rules for a test by choosing Test Sets > Automation > On Failure and clicking the Settings per Test button.

131) If coverage between test instances and requirements is enabled with the ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE parameter, click Linkage and Coverage on the sidebar.

132) Fields related to release management are not available in the Defects module if you are working with the Starter Edition.

133) To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose Defects > Go To Defect.

134) You can access the Defects menu bar from the Defects module by pressing the shortcut key F9. Additionally, you can perform many other Quality Center operations using shortcut keys.

135) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid. You can also customize project lists.

136) You can use the Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.

137) When you select a defects column with a user name value, Quality Center displays a list with the name and full name of each user. You can search for users, sort users, group users by user group, and select users from the users list or a group tree.

138) You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.

139) You can use the Workflow Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects module. You can also customize the fields for a specific user group.

140) Quality Center Premier Edition: You can share defects across multiple Quality Center projects. You share and synchronize defects using the HP Quality Center Synchronizer.

141) In addition to adding defects directly in Quality Center, you can also import defect data from Microsoft Excel to your Quality Center project. To import from Excel, you must install the Microsoft Excel Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in. You can install these add-ins from the HP Quality Center Add-ins page.

142) If text search is available, you can use it to search for defects in the Defects Grid. Text search provides a more powerful search by allowing you to search for keywords and variations of keywords.

143) By default, Quality Center sends email in HTML format. To send email as plain text instead, edit the MAIL_FORMAT parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

144) You can automatically send the email to a specific user type. This can be any defect column with a user name value, including user-defined fields. Click the Send by Email arrow and choose an option. For example, choose Send Mail to Detected By to send the email to the user who detected the defect.

145) You can only remove direct links. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.

146) Quality Center Premier Edition includes all Libraries module functionality and Quality Center Enterprise Edition includes some functionality. This module is not available with Quality Center Starter Edition.

147) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Details tab. You can also customize project lists.

148) You can use the Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Libraries module.

149) The Libraries module functionality described in this chapter is available for Quality Center Enterprise Edition and Quality Center Premier Edition.

150) When the process is complete, view the log before refreshing the display. If you refresh the display after the baseline is created, the View Log button is no longer displayed, and you cannot view the log.

151) Quality Center does not consider changes made to Target Release and Target Cycle fields when determining whether an entity has been modified.

152) If coverage or traceability between two entities was deleted and then added again, those entities are considered modified.

153) If you are viewing information for a QuickTest test, clicking the Test Script button opens the test in a QuickTest viewer, enabling you to view the test or open the test in QuickTest.

154) You can also move a library folder or a library to a new location in the libraries tree by dragging it.

155) Changes made to Target Release and Target Cycle fields do not cause the fields to be marked as modified.

156) Version Control: When you compare two versions of an entity, not all sidebar buttons are displayed. The buttons available depend on the information stored under version control.

157) If you are comparing a QuickTest entity, the QTP Comparison button is displayed, enabling you to open the QuickTest Asset Comparison Tool.

158) For traceability and coverage, if a linked entity is marked as both Deleted and Added, or is displayed as Missing on both sides, this can indicate that the link between the entities was deleted and then added again.

159) The Libraries module functionality described in this chapter is only available for Quality Center Premier Edition.

160) You can also share defects across multiple Quality Center projects. You share and synchronize defects using the HP Quality Center Synchronizer.

161) When the process is complete, view the log before refreshing the display. If you refresh the display after the library is imported, the View Log button is no longer displayed, and you cannot view the log.

162) Quality Center does not consider changes made to Target Release and Target Cycle fields when determining if an entity has been modified.

163) If coverage or traceability between two entities was deleted and then added again, those entities are considered modified.

164) You can change the maximum number of graphs that Quality Center allows you to include in a dashboard page, by setting the DAHBOARD_PAGE_ITEM_LIMIT site parameter.

165) You cannot include a graph from a private analysis folder in a public dashboard page.

166) You can also move items or folders by dragging them to a different folder.

167) You can also create graphs from the Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, and Defects modules using the graph wizard.

168) You can also create a graph using the graph wizard.

169) You can change the maximum number of projects that Quality Center allows you to include in a graph, by setting the PROJECT_SELECTION_MAX_PROJECTS site parameter.

170) To include all of a domain’s projects in the graph, select a domain in the Projects Tree, and add it to the grid. All the domain’s projects are listed individually in the grid.

171) The Requirements - Coverage Graph is a specific type of summary graph. If you select a different requirement field from the X-Axis list, a regular Requirements - Summary Graph is displayed.

172) You can create Excel reports that extract data by running SQL queries.

173) You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.

174) You can also create standard reports from the Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, and Defects modules.

175) The Quality Center Demo Project contains sample Excel reports. You can use the SQL queries and Visual Scripts in those reports as a basis for developing your own queries and scripts.

176) Users who belong to groups that have data-hiding filters, are able to access the restricted data through Excel reports. To overcome this, you can exclude user groups from performing Excel report tasks.

177) The @ and \ characters have a special meaning and are not read literally when running SQL queries on the project database. If you want these characters to be read literally, you should replace @ by \@ and \ by \\. For example, if you want the statement SELECT * FROM BUG WHERE BUG.BG_SUMMARY = ‘@parameter@’ to be run literally on the Quality Center database, type SELECT * FROM BUG WHERE BUG.BG_SUMMARY = ‘\@parameter\@’.

178) You cannot use parameters for SQL identifiers, such as a table name or a column name.

179) Parameter values cannot include an SQL statement.

180) If you delete a parameter that is in use in a report query, queries containing the parameter will not be valid.

181) For a parameter representing a text value, you must manually add single quotes (') around the parameter in the SQL pane. For example, if the SQL pane contains the phrase WHERE BUG.BG_DETECTED_BY = @name@, you must replace the text @name@ with '@name@'.

182) The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login. Each project user can create Live Analysis graphs which will be visible only to that user but will not be visible to other users.

183) Live Analysis graphs only represent tests which are located directly below the selected test subject folder. They do not include tests located at a lower hierarchical level in child folders of the selected test subject folder.

184) The data displayed in the graph reflects the filters that you have set for the test plan tree.

185) Live Analysis graphs only represent test sets which are located directly below the selected test set folder. They do not include test sets located at a lower hierarchical level in child folders of the selected test set folder.

186) The data displayed in the graph reflects the filters that you have set for the test sets tree.

187) The Document Generator can only be run if Microsoft Word has been enabled to run macros. If you receive a security message while using the Document Generator, you must set the security level of Microsoft Word to medium or low. To do this, choose Tools > Macro > Security from the Word menu bar. On the Security Level tab, select the desired level of protection (Medium or Low), and click OK.

188) Microsoft Word is limited to nine header levels in the table of contents. If the requirements tree has more than nine hierarchical levels, these levels will not appear in the table of contents of the generated project document.

189) Microsoft Word is limited to nine header levels in the table of contents. If the test sets tree has more than nine hierarchical levels, these levels will not appear in the table of contents of the generated project document.

190) You can generate a preview project document that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included. To generate a preview project document, click the Preview button. Quality Center opens Microsoft Word and displays the preview project document

191) You can also convert a manual test to a VAPI-XP test. In the Design Steps tab, click the Generate Script button and select VAPI-XP-TEST. Quality Center creates a VAPI-XP test script that includes code for the steps that you defined. It also includes code for called tests that were part of the original manual test.

192) If required test fields were defined in the Project Customization window, the Required Test Fields dialog box opens. Select values for the required fields, and click OK.

193) To create a VAPI-XP test script using ActiveState’s ActivePython or ActivePerl scripts, you must install the script language on your machine. From the Help menu in the Test Script tab, select ActivePython Home Page or ActivePerl Home Page, and follow the appropriate installation instructions.

194) Microsoft’s VBScript and JScript are usually installed with Internet Explorer. If they are not installed on your machine, select VBScript Home Page or JScript Home Page from the Help menu in the Test Script tab, and follow the appropriate installation instructions.

195) To run this virtual user in the Controller, you must install the latest version of the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on your LoadRunner client machine. This add-in is available from the HP Quality Center Add-ins page.

196) You can only use a Java class that has a public constructor that does not take arguments.

197) Two SOAP client libraries are supported: Microsoft SOAP SDK and PocketSOAP. Note that even if you choose to work with PocketSOAP, you must install Microsoft SOAP SDK to parse Web services. If Microsoft SOAP SDK is not already installed on your machine, run the SoapToolkit30.exe file located in the Redist directory on your HP Quality Center DVD.

198) You can choose to add details and attachments to the VAPI-XP test you created, or define requirements coverage.

199) You can display the Test Script tab in a separate window by selecting View > Window Screen, or clicking the Window Screen button.

200) To view or edit the properties of the test script you created, choose Test > Properties.

201) For a description of each object definition, method, or property, select View > Output, and click the Help tab.

202) To run VAPI-XP tests remotely, you must install the HP Quality Center Client Side Setup Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the host machine on which the tests are executed.

203) You cannot use the Integrated Debugger to debug PerlScript or PythonScript test scripts.

204) Quality Center Starter Edition. Existing Quality Center edition for application teams managing small releases with a maximum of five concurrent users.

205) Quality Center Enterprise Edition. Existing Quality Center edition for application teams managing medium to large releases. Formerly TestDirector for Quality Center.

206) Quality Center Premier Edition. New Quality Center edition for mature Center of Excellence (CoE) organizations managing enterprise releases.

207) Dashboard. Enables you to create graphs, reports, and Excel reports. You can also create dashboard pages, which enable you to view multiple graphs sideby- side.