SMU Model Questions

MSC IT IV TCP IP

2011-01-06T04:26:00.001-08:00

A. Select the best answer from the alternates: 10X1=10
1. There are …………. Layers in OSI Reference Model:
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7

2. ………….. Layer is there in between Physical and Network layer in OSI Model:
(a) Transport (b) Presentation (c) Data Link (d) Physical

3. The Network driver software is in the layer:
(a) Application
(b) Presentation
(c) Data Link
(d) Physical

4. Which of the following protocols is in Transport layer of TCP/IP?
(a) TCP (b) FTP (c) RPC (d) All of the above

5. Physical Address of NIC is also called:
(a) TCP (b) IP (c) MAC (d) POP

6. The IP address is converted into physical address by:
(a) ARP (b) RARP (c) SMTP (d) ICMP

7. The number of bits in IPv6 address is:
(a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 128 (d) 256

8. The FTP has port number
(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 67 (d) 110

9. Which protocol is used to transfer HTML script over the network?
(a) SMTP (b) HTTP (c) POP (d) FTP

10. TTL stands for:
(a) Time to Link (b) Time to Leave (c) Transfer Time Limitation (d) Try to Leave

B. Select the answer from: 10X2=20
1. IETF sands for:
(a) Internet Engineers Task Force
(b) Internet Electronic Task Force
(c) Internet Engineers Time Force
(d) Intranet Engineers Task Force

2. RIP-2 supports:
(a) CIDR and VLSM (b) Multitasking (c) RIP-1 (d) All of the above

3. What is Class-D IP address used for?
(a) Broadcast (b) Multicast (c) Anycast (d) Future Use

4. In Class C, which of the following range of first octet is used in IP address?
(a) 240-247 (b) 224-239 (c) 192-223 (d) 128-191

5. WWW stands for:
(a) Wide World Web
(b) World Wide Wave
(c) World Wide Web
(d) Web World Wide

6. Which of the following organization is not related with IP Administration?
(a) ARIN (b) RIPE (c) APNIC (d) ABU

7. Which of the following protocol is not connection oriented?
(a) RPC (b) IP (c) UDP (d)All of the above

8. Which of the following is connection oriented protocol?
(a) TFTP (b) DNS (c) TCP (d) UDP

9. Which of the following protocols use well known ports?
(a) FTP (b) TCP (c) UDP (d) All of the above

10. The range of ephemeral port is:
(a) 1-1023 (b) 1024-65535 (c) 1-100 (d) Non All of the above

C. Select the best answer from: 5X4=20
1. Which of the following protocols use TCP?
(a) FTP (b) Telnet (c) IPC (d) All of the above

2. In OSI model, which of the following groups of layers belong to communication subnet boundary?
(a) Application, Presentation and Session
(b) Presentation, Session and Transport
(c) Transport, Network and Data Link
(d) Network, Data Link and Physical

3. IPC stands for:
(a) Inter Packet Communication
(b) Internet Packet Connection
(c) Inter Process Communication
(d) Non of the above

4. SACK stands for?
(a) Selective Acknowledgement (b) Single Acknowledgement (c) Small Acknowledgement (d) Non of the above

5. In class A network, the maximum possible number of networks are:
(a) 65534 (b) 254 (c) 14 (d) 30

D. Subjective Questions: 5X10=50
(a) Explain window principle applied in TCP.
(b) What do you mean by sockets and ports?
(c) Why is RIP-2 popular in comparision to RIP?
(d) i. What is Fragmentation?
ii. What is OSPF?
(e) Write short notes on:
i. TCP
ii. UDP

MSC IT IV CSA 2nd

2011-01-06T04:25:00.000-08:00

MscIT 4th Semester Client Server Architecture 2 credit hours
1 Marks
1. __________ is the standard CORBA protocol for ORB-to-ORB interworking
a) TCP/IP
b) IIOP
c) HTTP
d) FTP
2. In a ___________ architecture server download files from shared location to the desktop environment.
a. Mainframe architecture
b. File Sharing architecture
c. Client/Server architecture
d. Distributed/Collaborative enterprise architecture
3. OSF stands for ______________________
a. Open Systems Foundation
b. Open Source File
c. Open Systems File
d. None
4. File sharing architecture can support simultaneously _______________ number of users.
a. 12
b. 8
c. 100
d. 20
5. In RMI a typical server application creates a number of remote objects.
a) True -x
b) False
6. The two tier architecture improves scalability by accommodating up to _____________ users.
a. 12
b. 1000
c. 100
d. 200
7. New Java RMI functionality is added to _____________ software to expand the functionality of Java RMI.
a) JDK 1.2 -x
b) JDK 1.3
c) JDK 1.4
d) JDK 1.5
e) JDK 1.6
8. NFS stands for _____________________________
a. Network File System
b. New File System
c. Net File Sharing
d. None
9. A way to synchronize threads access to shared data is __________________
a. Alerts
b. Mutexes
c. Time slicing
d. None
10. The interfaces and classes that are responsible for specifying the remote behavior of the RMI system are defined in the _________________ package hierarchy.
a) Java.rmi -x
b) Javax.rmi
c) Java.rmi.remote
d) None

2 Marks

11. In CORBA, DSI stands for ________________
a) Dynamic Skeletmn Interface
b) Dynamic Stub Interface
c) Deferred Synchronous Invocation
d) None
12. The RMI registry daemon listens on port ________.
a. 80
b. 1099
c. 6000
d. 109
13. Video or voice data type are supported in ________________
a. RDBMS
b. DBMS
c. ODBMS
d. None
14. OLAP stands for
a. Online Analysis Processor
b. On-line Anticipation processor
c. On-line analytical processor
d. None
15. A ________ for a remote object acts as a Server’s local representative or proxy for the remote object.
a) Skeleton -x
b) Stub
16. Two phase commits are done to maintain ______________ and ___________ within the distributed databases through synchronized locking of all pieces of transaction.
a. Data integrity, consistency
b. Atomicity, consistency
c. Data integrity, accuracy
d. Durability, consistency
17. In RMI remote object is described by one or more_____________, which interfaces are written in the Java programming language that declare the methods of the remote object.
a) Distributed objects
b) remote interfaces –x
c) remote objects
d) remote methods
18. _______________ is considered as second generation of TP Monitor
a. Messaging Server
b. Application Server
c. DBMS Server
d. None
4 marks
19. The exception java.rmi.RemoteException is thrown when a remote method invocation fails for some reason:
I. Communication failure(the remote server is unreachable or is refusing connections; the connection is close by the server, etc.)
II. Failure during parameter or return value marshalling or unmarshalling
III. Protocols errors
Choose the correct answers
a) I true, II and III false
b) I false, II and III false
c) I,II,III true –x
d) I, II, III false
20. What messaging communication component such as CORBA does? Select all possible answers?
a. The implementation details of networking and protocols
b. The location and distribution of data, process, and hosts
c. Production environment services such as transaction management, security messaging reliability, and persistent storage
d. All
21. Building powerful distributed applications with Java RMI technology is simple four step process:
1) Implement the remote objects
2) Define the interfaces to your remote objects
3) Run rmic on remote implementation classes
4) Make code network-accessible
Choose correct order
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 1, 3, 4 -x
c) 3, 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 1, 4
22. Inter-process communication (IPC) is a mechanism to ___________
a. Transfer data over the network
b. Memory management technique
c. Share data between two host
d. None
23. A) The ORB is the distributed service that implements the request to the remote object.
B) ORB is the CORBA communication channel.
a) Statement A true, statement B false
b) Statement A false, statement true
c) Both statement A and B are true
d) Both statement A and B are false
24. _______________ is to synchronize the check of a local computer with Universal Coordinated Time (UTC), as well as clocks of other computers on the network.
a. Directory Service
b. Security services
c. Time services
d. None
25. Kerberos is ___________
a. Send data over the network
b. Inter-process data exchange
c. Allow the client to exchange encrypted information with authentication server
d. All

MSC IT IV MIS 2nd

2011-01-06T04:22:00.000-08:00

Subject: MIS Code: MT0050 Class: 4 MScIT Time: 2 Hours FM: 100
Instructions
1. Write all the information like roll number, name of the student, class name, semester, subject name, subject code, etc on the Answer Paper.
2. This paper is divided in four Sections namely, A, B, C, and D
3. Section A, B, and C consists of Multiple Choice Questions having 1,2, and 4 marks respectively for each question. Section D consists of subjective questions. There is no negative marking.
4. Write all the answers on the answer sheets provided and don't write anything on the question paper
5. One has to pass in objective mode and subjective mode section separately. One has to score at least 40% in objective mode and 30% in subjective mode and 50% in aggregate in order to pass in each subject.

Group A (1 × 20 = 20)

1. The is automated to work on the knowledge based data and information required in a particular domain of management activity.
(a) Transaction processing systems (b) Knowledge based systems
(c) On line analytical processing systems d) Executive information systems

2. ______ helps in reorganization of the entire work force along with various flows, minimizing the wastages, and giving the system a new dimension.
(a) Automated expert system (b) Business process reengineering
(c) Artificial Intelligence (d) None of the above

3. Software and system metrics provides
(a) Activity of approximating the time, cost and benefits of development systems
(b) Provides an encyclopedia of techniques and tools
(c) Measuring and analyzing developer productivity
(d) Recording facts and specifications of the system

4. System analysis focuses on
(a) Data, Process, Interface and Geography (b) Data, Process, and Interface
(c) Data, Process, Interface and Delivery (d) Data, Process, Geography and User

5. Repository stands for
(a) Place where business data are stored (b) Place where application data are stored
(c) Place where documents are stored (d) Place where system development takes place

6. Study phase in FAST methodology consists of
(a) Establishment of project context, scope, budget, staffing and schedule
(b) Identifies and analyzes both business and technical problem
(c) Specifies the technical requirements for the target solution
(d) Identifies and analyzes both the business and technical and domain for specific problem

7. Prototyping stands for
(a) System designing document (b) Partial but functional version of a system or application
(c) Definition of business requirement design by models (d) Process for structured analysis & information engineering

8. Joint Application Development (JAD) is a method
(a) To change and improve the fundamental business process
(b) Jointly design and define the system
(c) Define new or existing objects that will be combined with existing objects
(d) A process centered techniques

9. Lower CASE tools support
(a) Survey study, definition and design phase (b) Better documentation
(c) Design, construction and delivery phase (d) System synthesis phase

10. Process Management is
(a) Defining, planning, directing, monitoring and controlling a project
(b) On going activities that documents manages & improves an organization chosen activities
(c) Methodology that supports different types of project
(d) Selecting appropriate FAST process

11. CASE repository is
(a) Developers database (b) User's database
(c) Backup database (d) System owner's database

12. DSS tools access data from
(a) Data warehouse (b) Real time data
(c) Transactional data (d) Intelligent network

13. Systems designers are
(a) Database Schema (b) E-R diagram
(c) Business Process (d) Precise language & database technology

14. Interfaces are
(a) How the data, process are distributed to different locations
(b) How the builders implement network using telecommunication language
(c) How the system is connected with other system, and presented to other user
(d) How the process performed to complete the mission of the business

15. System Development Life Cycle is
(a) Physical Process of system building (b) Logical Process of system building
(c) Logical process of using the system (d) Physical process of using the system

16. Systems should be considered as
(a) Capital Investment (b) Capital Expense
(c) Promotional Goods (d) Swift Processor

17. System Analysis focuses on
(a) Data, Process, Interface & geography building blocks from a system user's perspective
(b) The re-assembly of the system's component piece back into a whole system
(c) Information systems professionals who plan implement and support a system
(d) Representation of the essential process of a system along with inputs, outputs, and files

18. The term FAST refers to
(a) Framework for the Advance System Technique (b) Framework for the Application of System Technique
(c) Framework for the Application of System Transfer (d) Framework for the Advancement of the System Technique

19. In n-tired client/server computing
(a) Database stored in server & clients have the business logic
(b) Database and business logic are stored in separate servers
(c) Database and business logic is executed from the client end
(d) Database resides in server where as client has interface only

20. Unit tests
(a) Ensures application works properly when tested with total system
(b) Ensures application works properly when tested in isolation from the program
(c) Ensures application work properly when tested with other program
(d) Ensures application work properly when tested with business process
Group B (2 × 10 = 20)

21. The "trend analysis model" of _____ indicate how different variables behave in trend setting in the _______ .
(a) MIS, Past (b) MIS, Future
(c) DSS, Past & Future (d) MIS, Past & Future

22. A DSS shell is a ______ used to build a _______ DSS
(a) Structure, User oriented (b) Generator, Customized
(c) Program, Customized (d) Shell, Customized

23. The components of DBMS are
(a) Hierarchical Model, Network Model (b) RDBMS, Plugging
(c) DDS, DML (d) DBMS, SQL

24. The mathematical problem represent ____ in term of variables, constants, and parameters expressed in terms of ______
(a) Mathematical problems, Real life situation (b) Real life problems, Algebraic equation
(c) Algebraic equation, Mathematical problems (d) Real life problems, Mathematical equation
25. The components of an IS are
(a) Hardware, Software (b) Input, Output
(c) Processing, Feedback (d) (a), (b) & (c)

26. Top managers may use a(n) ________________, a combination of ___ and DSS, to support their decision making.
(a) GIS, MIS (b) ESS, TPS
(c) Expert system, OA (d) GDSS, MIS

27. SDLC is _____ and has _____ phases
(a) System Design Life Cycle, 5 (b) System Development Life Cycle, 4
(c) System Development Life Cycle, 5 (d) System Development Life Cycle, 6

28. Generally closed systems are _____ and open systems are _______
(a) Deterministic, Probabilistic (b) Probabilistic, Deterministic
(c) Probabilistic, Operational (d) Probabilistic, Statistical

29. Expert system shell is a ________ that can be tailored to a specific problem domain by adding _________ .
(a) Multiprocessor, DBMS (b) Readymade Processor, Knowledge base
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the Above

30. The DSS model are
(a) OS Model, Mainframe Model (b) Behavioral Model, Operations Research Model
(c) Management Science Model, Behavioral Model (d) (b) or (c)

Group C (4 × 8 = 32)

31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about expert systems?
I. Afford high interactivity II. Aims to replace human thought process
III. Incorporation of expert knowledge in diverse fields IV. Designed specifically for executives

(a) I and IV only (b) I and II only
(c) I, II, and III only (d) I, II, III, and IV
32. The important functions of the management are
(a) Marketing, Management, Controlling, Aligning (b) Planning, Organizing, Controlling, Directing
(c) financing, Accounting, Management, Decision Making (d) Both b) and c)

33. Systems that serve planning, controlling and decision making are ___ and which address unstructured decision to address the ____ Problems are ___ systems. These must be ___.
(a) MIS, Strategic, Executive Support, Integrated (b) TPS, Routine, MIS, Segregated
(c) MIS, Routine, FIS, Integrated (d) Either a) or c)

34. A good data model is
I. Simple II. Essentially non-redundant
III. Complex IV. Flexible

(a) I only (b) III only
(c) I, II & IV only (d) II, III, & IV only

35. Information system consists of
I. Transaction Processing System II. Management Information System III. Intelligent Support System
IV. Office Automation System V. Decision Support System VI. Expert System

(a) I, II, III, and IV only (b) I, II, III, IV and V only
(c) II, III, V and VI only (d) All of the above
36. Behavioral model which is studied under ____ has been categorized into the following types of models ______, ______ and ___ .
(a) MIS, Planning Model, Trend Analysis, Futuristic model (b) ESS, Trend Analysis, Futuristic model, Regression model
(c) DSS, Trend Analysis, Forecasting Analysis, Statistical Analysis (d) Either a) or b)

37. Office Automation Systems are
I. Document Management System II. Communication System III. Teleconferencing System IV. Imaging System V. Electronic Data Interchange VI. Office Support System

(a) I, II, III, IV and VI only (b) I, II, III, and VI only
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above

38. The functions/benefits of an MIS include
(a) Collecting, Storing, Recording, Helping in decision making
(b) Planning, Coordinating, Controlling, Directing
(c) Goal setting, Strategic planning, Evolving business plans, Implementing the plan
(d) Both (a) and (c)

BSC IT II SMU Questiion Long

2011-01-05T09:40:00.000-08:00

Long Question

MIS

2011-01-05T08:49:00.000-08:00

Group A
1
The texts and ____________in electronic forms are effective in communicating
ideas from source to destination.
a) Ideas
b) Representations
c) Images
d) Graphics

2 MIS helps in identifying a proper mechanism of ____________ of data.
a)storage
b)distribution
c)collection
d)elimination

3
Some of the processes like artificial intelligence, generating management
related information, providing aid in decision making, necessary support
systems, executive information system are the classification of MIS
a) Functionality
b)Utility
c)area of application
d)processing type

4
A information is easy to process further.
a)managhement
b)unstructured
c)structured
d)generated

5
The is automated to work on the knowledge based
data and information required in a particular domain of
management activity.
a) Transaction processing systems
b) Knowledge based systems
c)On line analytical processing systems
d) Executive information systems

6
_____ refers to a system in which there are predefined multiple
instances of various modules used in business applications.
a) Transaction processing systems
b) Knowledge based systems
c)On line analytical processing systems
d) Executive information systems

7
It is a system developed as model which are representative of real world
cases.
a) TPS
b) DSS
c) KBS
d) OOS

8
A complete business systems requires models from three different
perspective – State model, interaction model and _____ model.
a) entity
b) global
c) data
d) class

9
Under Porter's framework, enterprises have four generic strategies available
to them whereby they can attain above-average performance. They are cost
focus, differentiation, focus differentiotion and _______ .
a) objective leadership
b) price leadership
c) point leadership
d) cost leadership

10
Business process redesign is part of the revolutionary level which
involves more thorough re-evaluation of the enterprise _____and the
production process.
a) value chain
b) efficiency
c) issues
d) network

11
_______ involves reconfiguration of the scope and tasks of the business network.
a) Business network redesign
b) Business process redesign
c) Business process enterprise
d) Business network enterprise

12
____ and Internal Integration are the two levels belonging to the evolutionary levels.
a) business scope rdefinition
b) business network redesign
c) business process redesign
d) localized exploitation

13
The process in which the existing system in the organization is totally reexamined
and radically modified for incorporating the latest technology is known as _____.
a) business process re-engineering
b) change management
c) changing technology
d) redesigning

14
______ helps in reorganization of the entire work force along with various flows,
minimizing the wastages, and giving the system a new dimension.
a) business product redefinition
b) business process reengineering
c) business product reeingineering
d) business process redefinition

15
This process of change for the betterment of the organization is
called as ______ .
a)Business process re-engineering
b)Business process engineering
c)Business process re-inventing
d)Business process innovation

16
In the Lewins model of implementing of MIS in an organization, the first
step is _____ .
a) unfreezing
b) refreezing
c) choosing
d) analyzing

17
Implementation of MIS in an organization is a process where
organizational transformation takes place. _____ model can be used
bring the transformation.
a) Johnson
b) Lewin
c) Abraham
d) Porter

18
In the _____ step of Lewin's model, the change is consolidated and equilibrium is
reinforced.
a) unfreezing
b) refreezing
c) choosing
d) analyzing

19
The _______ strategic plan should be the basis for the MIS strategic plan.
a) employee's
b) organization's
c) manager's
d) customer's

20
One can define the as the information required by a
number of personnel, departments and divisions or the functions in
the organisation.
a)operational information
b)functional managerial information
c)decision support information
d)organisational information

21
______ is largely factual, statistical and detailed in multi-dimensions of the
function.
a)operational information
b)functional information
c)decision support information
d)organisational information

22
The functional information is used by a manager to plan and ____ the function.
a) execute
b) monitor
c) track
d) control

23
Information can be determined by constructing a ____ of information versus user as
per the table given below.
a) matrix
b) table
c) diagram
d) chart

24
Middle management and operations management people use the information class
of type _______ .
a) functional managerial knowledge
b) organizational
c) Decision Support
d) Operational

25
The functional information can be assessed on the following three
parameters – the _______, the responsibility and the functional
objectives.
a) work
b) people
c) organization
d) software characteristics

26
_________is used in a decision support system for model building and
problem solving.
a) data
b) information
c) object
d) knowledge

27
Decision made about what task has to be done, when it has to be done, by
whom and how it has to be done is known as ____ .
a) planning
b) exection
c) deciding
d) managing

28
The planning is adopted by the ____ level executives in the organization.
a) middle
b) top
c) bottom
d) intermediate

29
The operational planning decides on the ______ and cost control.
a) estimate
b) investment
c) escalation
d) quality

30
____ and costing of products is also an important aspect of operational
planning.
a) estimating
b) pricing
c) analysing
d) quality

31
ERP stands for .
a)Enterprise Reserve planning
b)Enterprise Resource Planning
c)Elementary Resource planning
d)Elementary Resource planning

32
The _____ database is a collection of current or historical data from a number of
applications or groups.
a)TPS
b)DSS
c)ESS
d)KBS

33
The business decision-making is in nature.
a)distributed
b)sequential
c)random
d)parallel

34
The Decision Support System helps in making a decision and also in its ____ .
a) performance evaluation
b) design assessment
c) developmental evaluation
d) parametric evaluation

35
A new trend is the creation of an IT leadership team comprising the______
and the Chief Technology Officer.
a) Chief Executive Officer
b) Chief Information Officer
c) Chief Financial Officer
d) Chief Operations Officer

36
The business management process has changed from function
management to ________ management.
a)process
b)product
c)consumer
d)service

37
______ are used to solve extremely complex problems like mapping of
human genome, forecasting weather an modelling complex processes
like nuclear fission.
a) Mini computers
b) Super computers
c) Mainframe computers
d) Desktop computers

38
A _________ is processed with reference to business rules, it is
scrutinised for conformance to the rules, policy or guidelines before it is
taken up for further processing.
a) information
b) transaction
c) operation
d) data

39
__________ assures the accuracy, validity and proprietary of information
system activities.
a) Administrative control
b) information systems control
c)procedural control
d) physical facility control

40
Before any transaction can be input into the system, a specific code
should be assigned to it called as .
a)transaction codes
b)verification
c)control totals
d)labels

Group B
41
MIS classification depends on the following aspects :
functionality, ____, ____ , processing type and frequency of
usage .
a) organization structure and people
b) size , infrastructure
c) people , usage
d) utility , area of application

42
A complete business systems requires models from three
different perspective – class model, _____ model and _____
model.
a) entity, interaction
b) global, interaction
c) state, interaction
d) class, global

43
Business process redesign is part of the revolutionary level which
involves more thorough re-evaluation of the enterprise _____and the
________.
a) value chain and production process
b) efficiency and effectiveness
c) issues and efficiency
d) network and effectivensss

44
The process reengineering brings about a radical change in the
_____ of the information and related _____ from one business
function to another very efficiently.
a) production, documents
b) flow , documents
c) abstraction , documents
d) generation, documents

45
In the refreezing step of Lewin's model, the change is _____ and
equilibrium is ______.
a) evident , established
b) made , disturbed
c) consolidated , reinforced
d) analyzed , established

46
In the systems lifecycle the desing phase leads to _____ and ____ .
a) requirements collection , prototyping
b) prototyping , implementation
c) feasibility study , validation
d) testing, feasibility study

47
The managers in the functional areas of management are responsible for
achieving the targets and accomplishing the _____ and _____.
a) goals and objectives
b) vision and mission
c) vision and objectives
d) mission and goals

48
The functional information can be assessed on the following three
parameters – the _______, the __________ and the functional
objectives.
a) work, responsibility
b) people, commitment
c) organization, approach
d) software characteristics, personnel

49
All organizations have their own ____ and ______ arising from differences in
interest groups.
a) methods and procedures
b) objectives and procedures
c) policies and ventures
d) cultures and policies

50

A business decision making process depends upon the level of_____ and
_______ involved in the problem.
a) uncertainty, certainty
b) risk, uncertainty
c) management , variables
d) business, parameters

51
Neural Networks can be used in various business applications like ________,
__________, market analysis etc.
a) forecasting, stock analysis
b) graphical analysis, linear analysis
c) budgeting, costing
d) monitoring , controlling

52
The basis of conventional organisation design is command & control
which is now _____ and _____ .
a)collaborate & control.
b)communicate & control
c)command & collaborate
d)command & communicate

53
The four business models that work together in an e-enterprise
organization are ________ , ________ , ebusiness and ecommerce.
a) eshopping, ebuying
b) ebuying , eselling
c) ecommunication, ecollaborationb
d) etrading, eordering

54
In reality, there is no right or wrong decision but a ____ or _____
decision.
a) big , small
b) rational , irrational
c) optimistic, pessimistic
d) good, bad

55
Decision making at the middle level is of type_____ and that at the top level is of type _____ .
a) certainty, risk
b) uncertainty, risk
c) certainty, uncertainty
d) risk, uncertainty

56
The _____and _____of information also changes depending upon the risk in decision-
making.
a) value , scope
b) quantum , structure
c) quantum , scope
d) quantum , value

57
Management Science models are developed on the principles of ______
, ______ , _____________.
a) Networking, behaviour, hierarchy
b) business management, accounting, econometrics
c) accounting, systems, HR
d) economics, engineering, and science

58
A _____ provides a single, pre-established WAN communications path from
the customer premises through a carrier network, such as a telephone company,
to a _____ network.
a)Wide area network, local
b)local area network , remote
c)Metropolitan area network, local
d)Point-to-point Links, remote

59
________ and _________are the protocols by which data is transmitted
over networks.
a) HTTP, FTP
b) TCP, FTP
c) HTTP, UDP
d) TCP , UDP

60
As a monitor, the CIO must scan the external environment to keep up with
________and __________.
a) technical changes , competition
b) market changes , technical changes
c) development, competition
d) control factors, competitive pricing

P) TPS x) The system adopted is capable of quick data
acquisition and interpretation of the data which is
necessary in decision making.
Q) KBS Y) Helps the management in decision-making by
providing them with reports and different statistical tools.
R) MRS Z) Helps in conducting the daily routine activities like
sales order entry, airline reservations, payroll etc.
Group C
61
Match the following :

The correct answer is :
a) P-X, Q-Y, R-Z
b) P-Y, Q-Z, R-X
c) P-Z, Q-X, R-Y
d) P-X, Q-Z, R-Y

62
In implementing a computer based information systems the
major behavioural factors which affect the system are : _____ ,
need for _____, organizational _____ , _____ to change and
organizational climate.
a) decision making, change, behaviour, willingness
b) decision structure, change, behaviour, acceptance
c) decision styles, explanation, expectations, resistance
d) decision support, explanation, changes, willingness

63
Under Porter's framework, enterprises have four generic strategies
available to them whereby they can attain above-average
performance. They are :
a) cost leadership, differentaiotion, product focus, focused differentiation
b) cost leadership, integration, product focus, focused differentiation
c) cost leadership, differentiation, cost focus, focused differentiaion
d) cost leadership, integration, cost focus, focused differentiation

64
Match the following:
P) Six sigma X) measuring performances against standards
Q) Customer focus Y) specific measure of quality
R) Benchmarking z) service, product features, quality

Which of the following is correct?

a) P-X, Q-Y, R-Z
b) P-Y, Q-Z, R-X
c) P-Z, Q-X, R-Y
d) P-Y, Q-X, R-Z

65
DFD uses symbols like circle, rectangles etc to represent dataflows and
illustrate relationships among ___ , ____ , ____ and _____ .
a) data, flows, external entities and stores
b) data, object, product, stores
c) data, product, item, stores
d) data, list, entities, blocks

66
Consider the following statements :
P) The design of the MIS should consider the class of information as a whole
and provide suitable information system architecture to generate the information
for various users in the organisation.
Q) The functional information is defined as a set of information required by the
customer conducting the administration and management of the function.
Which of hte following is correct?
a) Both Statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) Statement P is True and Statement Q is False
d) Statement P is False and Statement Q is True

67
Match the following :
P) manufacturing X) accounts payable, receivable, fixed assets
Q) Financials Y) workflow management, quality control, BOM
R) Human Resources Z) benefits, training, payroll
Which of the following is correct ?
a) P-X, Q-Y, R-Z
b) P-Y, Q-X, R-Z
c) P-Y, Q-Z, R-X
d) P-X, Q-Z, R-Y

68
Consider the following statements :
P) A DSS helps manager to take a decision whereas an ES acts as a decision maker or
an advisor to the manager.
Q)A DSS is meant only for decision making whereas an ES provides expertise to the
manager.
Which of the following is correct ?
a) Both Statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) Statement P is True and Statement Q is False
d) Statement P is False and Statement Q is True

69
The core business processes of the organisation are procurement,
manufacturing, _________, _________, __________and _________.
a) selling, distribution, delivery, accounting
b) buying, selling, accounting, pricing
c) buying, selling, distribution, pricing
d) selling, accounting, pricing, taxing

70
Which among the following are the types of rationality as differentiated by Simon Herbert.
a) Objectively, structurally, consciously, organizationally
b) Objectively, subjectively, consciously, organizationally
c) Objectively, subjectively, structurally, organizationally
d) Objectively, subjectively, consciously, structurally

71
Match the following :
P) Behaviour model X) trend analysis
Q) Management Science model Y) principles of business management
R) Operations Research model Z) mathematical
Which of the following is correct ?
a) P-X, Q-Y, R-Z
b) P-Y, Q-X, R-Z
c) P-Y, Q-Z, R-X
d) P-X, Q-Z, R-Y

72
Consider the following statements :
P) An internet is a private network that uses Internet protocols, network
connectivity, and possibly the public telecommunication system to securely
share part of an organization's information or operations with suppliers, vendors,
partners, customers or other businesses.
Q) There is often an attempt to use Internet technologies to provide new
interfaces with corporate "legacy" data and information systems.
Which of the following is correct ?
a) Both Statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) Statement P is True and Statement Q is False
d) Statement P is False and Statement Q is True

73
Modernization project is carried out which can include any combination of
_______, _________ and __________ .
a) migration, employment, creation
b) selection, creation, redevelopment
c) employement, infrastructure, transformation
d) migration, transformation, redevelopment

74
The selection criteria for evaluation have the following dimensions to be
satisfied simultaneously :
a) technical, operational, financial
b) utility, performance, output units
c) financial, economical, performance
d) modularity, funcionality, utility

75
Information system control assures the _______, _______and ______ of
information system activities.
a) precision, requirements, functionality
b) precision, utility, modularity
c) accuracy, validity, functionality
d) accuracy, validity, proprietary

MSC IT IV CSA

2011-01-05T07:54:00.000-08:00

PART A

Q.1	For multiprocess operating systems, global space is ____________
	A)	Process
	B)	Collection of all processes
	C)	Same as execution space
	D)	Same as execution space

Q.2	MIS in it re engineered organization would be ____
	A)	Process centered
	B)	Evaluating customer satisfaction
	C)	Expectations and perceptions
	D)	All the above

Q.3	is used to enable clients to transparently locate and invoke persistent objects on servers in the CORBA environment.
	A)	orbd
	B)	ORB
	C)	IDL
	D)	DS1

Q.4	A mechanism that allows the distributed application to maintain it self is ______
	A)	Cloning
	B)	Ceasing
	C)	Leasing
	D)	Hashing

Q.5	Two-tier client server architectures are appropriate alternatives to the three-tier architecture, during situation
	A)	number of users are greater than 100.
	B)	number of users are less than 10
	C)	number of users are less than 100
	D)	number of users are greater than 1000

Q.6	The types of data validations are
	A)	Error specification and error execution
	B)	Error detection and error execution
	C)	Error detection and error correction
	D)	Error execution and error correction

Q.7	Which among these is not a type of video conferencing?
	A)	One way video and one way audio
	B)	One way video and two way audio
	C)	Two way video and two way audio
	D)	None of the above

Q.8	________defines a bounded sequence of not more than 10 strings.
	A)	Sequence
	B)	String
	C)	Sequence <10, String>
	D)	String <10, Sequence>

Q.9	_______ in CORBA, provides dynamic dispatch to the objects.
	A)	Dynamic Invocation Interface
	B)	Dynamic Stub Interface
	C)	Dynamic Skeleton Interface
	D)	All of the above

Q.10	Which of the following languages interact well with DCOM?
	A)	Micro Focus COBOL
	B)	Microsoft Visual Basic
	C)	Delphi
	D)	All of the above

Q.11	______ DCOM applications can easily scale from small single processor machines to huge multiprocessor systems by seamlessly taking advantage of support for symmetric multiprocessing.
	A)	DOS
	B)	Windows NT
	C)	Windows 95
	D)	Windows 98

Q.12	_____architecture do not easily support graphical user interfaces or access to multiple databases from geographically dispersed sites.
	A)	Collaborative enterprise architecture
	B)	Client/Server
	C)	Mainframe
	D)	File sharing

Q.13	ODBMS stands for
	A)	Open Database Management Service
	B)	Object Database Management System
	C)	Open Database Management System
	D)	Open Database Manipulating Service

Q.14	DCE products are based on the source code provided by __
	A)	Closed Systems Foundation
	B)	Open Systems Foundation
	C)	Remote Procedure Call
	D)	All of the above

Q.15	_______object is one that is not yet instantiated in a JVM, but which can be brought into an active state.
	A)	Dead
	B)	Passive
	C)	Live
	D)	Open

Q.16	Disadvantage of two-tier architecture is
	A)	Different to administer and maintain
	B)	Not effective in running batch programs
	C)	Cannot service more than 100 users
	D)	All of the above

Q.17	RMI uses a standard mechanism for communicating with remote objects called______
	A)	Skelton
	B)	Sub & Proxy
	C)	Skelton
	D)	None of the above_

Q.18	Messaging provides another technology to implement 3 tier computing and is available from ___________ company/companies.
	A)	IBM
	B)	Sybase
	C)	Oracle
	D)	All of the above

Q.19	Once a group is created, subsequent calls to the current group ID method will return tile identifier for this group until tile group becomes
	A)	Inactive
	B)	Active
	C)	Passive
	D)	Dead

Q.20	Architecture is based on object request broker technology.
	A)	Distributive Collaborative enterprise
	B)	File sharing
	C)	Mainframe
	D)	None of the above

Q.21	Server's Main( ) method of server class
	A)	Gets the root naming context
	B)	Creates and initializes an ORB instance
	C)	Waits for invocations of the new object from the client
	D)	All of the above

Q.22	____ is the use of optical character recognition to convert paper to microfilm records to a digital format for storage in a secondary storage device for easy retrieval and processing <!--[if !supportLineBreakNewLine]--> <!--[endif]-->
	A)	Teleconferencing
	B)	Facsimile transmission
	C)	Videotex
	D)	Imaging

Q.23	In three-tier software architecture, tier provides process management.
	A)	Top laver
	B)	Bottom laver
	C)	Middle layer
	D)	All of the above

Q.24	OMG IDL supports long data type of ___bit.
	A)	8
	B)	4
	C)	32
	D)	64

http://smumodelquestion.blogspot.com/

Q.25	_______function creates initializes it from a file.
	A)	CoCreatelnstance(Ex)
	B)	CoCreatInstance From File
	C)	CoGetInstanceFromFile
	D)	CoGetInstanceFromURL

Q.26	_______ component in CORBA ORB architecture assists ORB with delivering requests to the object and with activating the object
	A)	ORB Interface
	B)	ORB
	C)	DSI
	D)	Object Adapter

Q.27	Which of the following are RMI system's client visible interfaces that are available in the java.rmi package?
	A)	Remote Interface
	B)	Remote Exception Class
	C)	Naming Class
	D)	All of the above

Q.28	The study of managing information and its allied components is referred to as
	A)	Internal Resources Management
	B)	Advanced Resources Management
	C)	Advanced Component Management
	D)	Information Resources Management

Q.29	_____ can be passed as an argument to a remote___ object.
	A)	Primitive types
	B)	Remote objects
	C)	Non-remote objects
	D)	All of the above

Q.30	______is a client server architecture infrastructure that increases the interoperability, portability and 11cxibility of' an application by allowing the application to be distributed over multiple heterogeneous platforms.
	A)	Message Oriented Middleware
	B)	Object Oriented Design
	C)	Remote Procedure Call
	D)	Both A) and C)

Q.31	To specify an exception in IDL, the interface designer uses _______keyword.
	A)	raises
	B)	throws
	C)	exception
	D)	None of the above

Q.32	_______class library enables low level communication between java IDL applications and other CORBA-complaint applications.
	A)	ORC
	B)	BOR
	C)	Object Request Broker
	D)	Object reply broker

Q.33	___method returns the non-package â€“ qualified class name of the reference type to be serialized onto the output stream â€œstreamout"
	A)	ServerRef
	B)	getRefClass
	C)	Remote ref
	D)	Remote class

Q.34	________is a CORBA service that allows CORBA objects to be named by means of binding a name to an object reference.
	A)	Object naming
	B)	Server naming
	C)	Both A) and B)
	D)	Naming Service

Q.35	_______ is defined as a requester of services.
	A)	Server
	B)	Client
	C)	Both A) and B)
	D)	None of the above

Q.36	CORBA system exceptions are descendants of
	A)	java.Runtime.lang
	B)	java.runtimeException
	C)	java.lang.RuntimeException
	D)	java.lang

Q.37	DCOM can be implemented on platform.
	A)	Apple Macintosh
	B)	Windows
	C)	UNIX/Mainframe
	D)	All of the above

Q.38	_________is the feature of surrogate process.
	A)	One surrogate process can service only one client.
	B)	One surrogate process can service multiple clients simultaneously
	C)	One surrogate process can service only 2 clients
	D)	Faults in the surrogate process are isolated into the in-process server.

Q.39	RPC causes ______of' all application
	A)	Increase in complexity
	B)	Increase in flexibility
	C)	Reduction of interoperability
	D)	All of the above

Q.40	___________architecture is preferred for commercial and military distributed client/server environment.
	A)	Three tier architecture
	B)	Two tier architecture
	C)	Both A) and B)
	D)	Neither A) nor B)

Q.41	A method of load balancing, in which certain users are permanently assigned to certain servers running the same application is called as ______
	A)	Dynamic load balancing
	B)	Static load balancing
	C)	Permanent balancing
	D)	Improper balancing

Q.42	Functions of an ORB technology are
	A)	Interface definition
	B)	Location and possible activation of remote objects
	C)	Communication between clients and object
	D)	All of the above

Q.43	In three-tier architecture, middle laver is ______developed in language.
	A)	C++
	B)	HTML
	C)	SQL
	D)	GI

Q.44	The activation Group is responsible for creating new instances of activable objects in its group, informing its activation monitor, about
	A)	when does its objects become active
	B)	when does its objects become inactive
	C)
	D)	when does the group as a whole becomes inactive

Q.45	Full form of DCOM is
	A)	Distributed Component Object Model
	B)	Direct Computations of Open Model
	C)	Distributed Computing Object Modem
	D)	Developing Component Object Model

Q.46	A DSS particularly useful in ____ environments
	A)	Medium risk
	B)	High risk
	C)	Low risk
	D)	Both A) and B)

PART B

Q.1	State True(T) or False(F) a. MOM supports asynchronous calls between the client and server applications b. MOM reduces the involvement of application developers
	A)	a-F, b-F
	B)	a-T, b-T
	C)	a-F, b-T
	D)	a-T, b-F

Q.2	Following are the disadvantages of a. Difficult to administer and maintain b. Not effective in running batch programs C. Limits interoperability by using stored procedures to implement complex processing logic
	A)	Collaborative architecture
	B)	Three-tier architecture
	C)	Distributed architecture
	D)	Two-tier architecture

Q.3	In _____ multitasking is achieved by running code on more than one processor at the same time and in _______ multitasking is achieved by swapping out processes that are waiting for another event to complete and swapping in another proc
	A)	Multiprocessor System, Multiprocessor System
	B)	Unprocessed, Multiprocessor
	C)	Multiprocessor, Uniprocessor
	D)	Time-Slicing System, Multiprocessor

Q.4	In the stand-alone execution space, _ is responsible for controlling process objects and is responsible for controlling file objects.
	A)	Local operating system, Local file system
	B)	Local file system, Local file system
	C)	Local file system, Local operating system
	D)	Local operating system, Local operating system

Q.5	State True (T) or False (F) a. Object Request broker is not an example of messaging communication component. b. Messaging communication hides the implementation details of networking and protocols.
	A)	a-T, b-T
	B)	a-F, b-F
	C)	a-F, b-T
	D)	a-T, b-F

Q.6	Advantages of distributed computing environment is/are a. Resource sharing b. Availability of services c. Performance
	A)	Only a and b
	B)	Only b and c
	C)	Only a
	D)	All the above

Q.7	______is designed around intelligence in the message and ______places the system intelligence in the monitor or the process logic of the application server.
	A)	Message server architecture, TP monitor environment
	B)	Message server architecture, Message server architecture
	C)	TP monitor environment, Message server architecture
	D)	TP monitor environment, TP monitor environment

Q.8	State True (T) or False (F) a. CORBA provides a distributed object framework, services to support framework and interoperability with other languages. b. Java platform provides a portable object infrastructure that works on every major
	A)	a-T, b-F
	B)	a-F, b-T
	C)	a-T, b-T
	D)	a-F, b-F

Q.9	Select true statements for Java RMI technology. a. It is available on any platform with JDK software compliant technologies b. Provides communication in a homogeneous or heterogeneous environment.
	A)	a-F, b-F
	B)	a-T, b-F
	C)	a-F, b-T
	D)	a-T, b-T

Q.10	An activation identifier for an object can be obtained by registering an object with the activation system. This registration can be accomplished a. via the activable. register method b. via the first or second activable.constructor <b
	A)	a and b
	B)	Only c
	C)	b and c
	D)	a, b and c

Q.11	In OMG reference model architecture_____ are domain independent interfaces that are used by many distributed object programs and ______is a runtime component that can be used for distributed computing using HOP communication.
	A)	Object services, Object Request Broker
	B)	Object services, Domain Interfaces
	C)	Application interfaces, ORB
	D)	Domain interfaces, Application Interfaces

Q.12	Which of the following characteristics help to distinguish a distributed environment from a stand- alone environment? a. Scalability b. Administrative autonomy c. Heterogeneity
	A)	Only b
	B)	a, b and c
	C)	a and c
	D)	None of the above

Q.13	In CORBA, standard system exceptions are fully specified by ________ and user exceptions are defined by _________
	A)	OMG, OMG
	B)	Individual application programmer, Any Application programmer
	C)	OMG, Individual application programmer
	D)	None of the above

Q.14	With respect to autonomy, which of the following features must be met by a technology developer? a. Minimize the number of system parameter that can be reconfigured. b. Minimize the number of predetermined execution and management
	A)	a and b
	B)	Only a
	C)	Only b
	D)	None of the above

Q.15	In RMI, when skeleton receives an incoming method invocation, it_____ the parameters for the remote method and _____ the result to the caller.
	A)	Unmarshals, Marshals
	B)	Marshals, Marshals
	C)	Unmarshals, Uninarshals
	D)	Marshals, Unmarshals

Q.16	State True (T) or False (T) a. Java IDL is a technology for objects interacting on different platforms across a network. b. Java IDL is based on an industry standard distributed object model.
	A)	a-F, b-F
	B)	a-T, b-F
	C)	a-T, b-T
	D)	a-F, b-T

Q.17	_______is a container for an object that allows the object to be passed as a parameter in an RMI call, but postpones descializing the object at the receiver until the application explicitly requests the object.
	A)	ActivationGrouplD Class
	B)	ActivationGroup Class
	C)	Marshalled Object Class
	D)	RemoteStub Class

Q.18	______are the requirements of TP ACID a. Atomicity b. Durability C. Isolation d. Consistency
	A)	a and b
	B)	a and d
	C)	c and d
	D)	a, b, c and d

Q.19	_____ is a way to synchronize threads access to shared data and ____are used to provide graceful and reliable thread termination.
	A)	Alerts, mutexes
	B)	Mutexes, condition variables
	C)	Mutexes, Alerts
	D)	Alerts, condition variables

Q.20	Distributed object applications need to a. locate remote objects b. communicate with remote objects C. load byte codes for objects that are passed as parameters as return values
	A)	b and c
	B)	a and c
	C)	a and b
	D)	a, b and c

PART C

Q.1	Select the statements true for RMI. a. RMI distributed applications use the registry to obtain reference to a remote object. b. RMI provides the necessary mechanisms for loading an object's code, but not for transmitting its data.
	A)	b, d and e
	B)	a, c and e
	C)	Only b
	D)	a, c, d and e

Q.2	Which of the following steps will make the transition from two-tier architecture to threetier architecture less costly and of lower risk? a. Place service elements into separate directories or files in the source code. b. Eliminate app
	A)	b and d
	B)	a and c
	C)	a, c and d
	D)	a, b, c, d and e

Q.3	State True(T) or False(F) a. DCE is portable and flexible b. DCE provides an architecture in which new technologies can be included. c. DCE infrastructure does not support the construction and integration of client/server applicat
	A)	a-T, b-T, c-F, d-F, e-T
	B)	a-T, b-F, c-T, d-T, e-T
	C)	a-F, b-F, c-T, d-T, e-F
	D)	a-F, b-T, c-F, d-F, e- T

Q.4	Arrange the following steps to suggest, what st;n; t to happens when the client and server attempt to access the naming service'? a. Client uses an object reference to invoke methods on the target object. b. Server invokes the bind or
	A)	b, c, a and d
	B)	b, c, d and a
	C)	a, c, d and b
	D)	b, a, d and c

Q.5	Match Set A with Set 11 Set A a. Access Security b. Security identity C. Launch Security d. Authentication e. Connection Policy Set B 1. Controls the object 2. Protecting the object 3. Protecting the server machine
	A)	a-2, b-1, c-3, d-5, e4
	B)	a-1, b-2, c-3, d-5, e4
	C)	a-2, b-1, c-3, d4, e-5
	D)	a-I, b-2, c4, d-5, e-3

Q.6	Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to load in-process server into a surrogate process? a. DLL specified in the InProcServer32 key must exist. b. The CLS ID key contains the InProcServer32 sub key. C. There shou
	A)	b, d and e
	B)	a, d and e
	C)	a, b, c, d and e
	D)	a and d

Q.7	Following paragraph is related to Directory service. In directory services _____ is the ability to perform straight forward name-to-entry lookups and ______ is the ability to perform lookups based on object attributes. ______is the abi
	A)	tink service, group service, white pages, yellow pages
	B)	White pages, yellow pages, alias service, group service
	C)	Link service, yellow pages, white pages, group service
	D)	White pages, yellow pages, group service, alias service.

Q.8	Select the features of OMG IDL. a. It is a declarative language, not a programming language. b. Provides exception definitions to define exceptional conditions that may arise during the course of an operation. c. Provides features
	A)	b, d and e
	B)	a, b, c and e
	C)	a, c and e
	D)	b and d

Q.9	_________characteristics are true for leasing, a mechanism that allows distributed application to maintain itself a. During the period of a lease, a lease cannot be cancelled by the entity holding the lease. b. A lease is a time perio
	A)	a, b, c, d and e
	B)	a, c and d
	C)	b and e
	D)	a, d and e

Q.10	Select the statements which are not true for RPC. ' a. RPC implementations support peer to peer, synchronous client-server interaction. b. RPC is well suited for applications involving distributed objects or object oriented program
	A)	a, b, d and e
	B)	a and b
	C)	a, c and d
	D)	a and e

Q.11	Distributed file system component of OSF's DCE focuses on a. DCE DFS uses a set of tokens, which are allocated to a server by a client, when the client caches data. b. DCE DFS is compatible with the UNIX file system. C. DCE DFS
	A)	a, b, c, d and e
	B)	a and d
	C)	b, c and e
	D)	a, c and d

Q.12	What happens when a stub method is invoked? a. Initiates a connection with the remote JVM containing the remote object. b. Writes and transmits the parameters to the remote JVM. C. Waits for the result of the method invocation
	A)	a, b, c, d and e
	B)	b and d
	C)	Only d
	D)	a, b, c and e

Q.13	Interoperable Naming Service (INS) provides following features: a. Capability to resolve using string field names b. ORB arguments for bootstrapping. c. URLs for CORBA object references d. Standard APIs in Naming Context for conver
	A)	None of the above
	B)	a and d
	C)	a, b, c and d
	D)	Only c

Q.14	The activation Instantiator is responsible for a. Determining the class for the object using the descriptor's getClassName method. b. Creating instance of activable objects. c. Returning a Marshalled object containing the remote object
	A)	None of the above
	B)	All of the above
	C)	a and d
	D)	b and c

Q.15	Which of the following multiple security providers are supported by Windows NT Security architecture? a. Kerberos Version 8 authentication protocol b. Windows NT NTLM authentication protocol C. Secure channel security servicev d. D
	A)	b, c, d and e
	B)	a, b, c, d and e
	C)	a and e
	D)	c and d

SMU

2011-01-05T03:40:00.000-08:00

Sikkim Manipal University

Sikkim Manipal University (SMU) is the result of a unique partnership between the Government of Sikkim and Manipal Education. Established in 1995, it is the first government-private initiative in the region. It was set up with the objective of providing the best in education for students. SMU is recognised by the University Grants Commission and approved by the Government of India.

The beautiful campus is located in Majitar and Rangpo, amongst the picturesque settings of River Teesta and Kanchendzonga mountains. It hosts the second largest hospital in Sikkim, providing healthcare to the masses. The medical campus runs courses on medical, pharmacy, allied health and nursing while the technology campus has engineering, management courses, Twinning Programmes and Applied Sciences.

Sikkim Manipal University has the following constituent institutions:

Sikkim Manipal Institute of Medical Sciences (SMIMS)
Sikkim Manipal Institute of Technology (SMIT)
College of Nursing
College of Physiotherapy
School of Basic & Applied Sciences

As ranked by Competition Success Review - October 2009, Sikkim Manipal Institute of Technology (SMIT) is ranked 8th amongst the Best University Engineering Colleges of India. SMIT Ranked amongst 17th in the Best Engineering Colleges of Excellence in India. SMIT has also bagged 27th rank amongst the Top 50 Engineering Colleges of India.

About Sikkim Manipal University's Distance Education (SMU-DE) Programme

The Sikkim Manipal University of Health, Medical and Technological Sciences, Gangtok is incorporated under the State Legislative Act (Act IX of 1995) of the Government of Sikkim.

Sikkim Manipal University is recognised by University Grants Commission (UGC), Ministry of HRD and is a member of the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
Recognised by Distance Education Council (DEC)
Sikkim Manipal University, Directorate of Distance Education offers programmes spread across 10 disciplines
Sikkim Manipal University - Directorate of Distance Education offers programmes in Masters, Bachelors, Diploma and PG Diploma levels in various disciplines like Information Technology, Management, Journalism and Mass Communication, Biotechnology, Bioinformatics, Apparel & Fashion Design, Allied Health Sciences, Hospitality, Telecom and Commerce
The programmes are made accessible through 700+ University authorised Learning Centres across the country
So far over 3 lakh students have benefited from the Distance Education programmes, taking full advantage of the 65 core faculty members and the 6,500 supporting faculty members present at the learning centres
Apart from the widespread presence in India – covering 205 districts and 310 towns and cities – the University has also spread its reach overseas across 20 countries, with 25 learning centres