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2024-10-18T12:51:00.015+05:00

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Past Paper of Classical Poetry (ENGL-2104) for BS Classes (Fall-2023) | KFUEIT Rahim Yar Khan | Govt. R. I. Graduate College Haroonabad

2023-12-14T19:34:00.004+05:00

TEXT:

Department: English
Program: BS English
Exam: Fall 2023 Mid Semester Exam
University: Khawaja Fareed University of Engineering & Information Technology Rahim Yar Khan

Affiliated College: Govt. Rizvia Islamia Graduate College Haroonabad
Course Code: ENGL-2104
Course Title: Classical Poetry (from Chaucer to Pope)
Total Marks: 30
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

OBJECTIVE

Part I (Multiple Choice Questions) (8 x 1 = 8)

1. Which dialect did Chaucer use for his poetry?
(A) Kentish

(B) East Southern

(D) East Midland

2. What is the name of the inn where the pilgrims assembled for the night?
(A) Southwark Inn

(B) Tabard Inn

(D) St. Becket Inn

3. In ‘The Prologue’, the pilgrim who neglects his religious duties in order to hunt is:
(A) The Parson

(B) The Monk

(D) The Summoner

4. What is the social status of the Summoner in ‘The Canterbury Tales’?
(A) Clergy

(B) Nobility

(D) Merchant class

5. What was the first name of Donne’s wife?
(A) May

(B) Anne

(D) Elizabeth

6. Where is the memorial of John Donne situated?
(A) Durham Cathedral

(B) St. Paul’s Cathedral

(D) Ely Cathedral

7. In which poem Donne breaks away from the Petrarchan tradition of women-worshipping?

(A) The Extasie

(B) Go & Catch a Falling Star
(C) The Anniversary

(D) The Good Morrow

8. “Or snorted we in the seven sleepers den?” Which figure of speech is used in this line?

(A) Allusion

(B) Anaphora

(D) Metonymy

______________________________________________

SUBJECTIVE

Part II (Short Questions) (2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

1. Briefly describe the Knight’s appearance in ‘The Prologue’?
2. What sort of absolution does the Friar grant to sinners?

3. Why did Donne stop her beloved from crushing the flea?
4. Explain the following extract with reference to the context.
And short and quick and full of high good sense.
Pregnant of moral virtue was his speech;

And gladly would he learn and gladly teach.

Part III (Long Questions) (6 x 2 = 12)

1. Assess Geoffrey Chaucer’s contribution to English poetry.

2. Write a note on John Donne’s use of conceits in his poetry.

______________________________________________

IMAGE:

Past Paper of Professional Ethics (SSCI-2111) for BS Classes (Fall-2023) | KFUEIT Rahim Yar Khan | Govt. R. I. Graduate College Haroonabad

2023-12-14T19:09:00.003+05:00

TEXT:

Department: English
Program: BS English
Exam: Fall 2023 Mid Semester Exam
University: Khawaja Fareed University of Engineering & Information Technology Rahim Yar Khan

Affiliated College: Govt. Rizvia Islamia Graduate College Haroonabad
Course Code: SSCI-2111
Course Title: Professional Ethics
Total Marks: 30
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

OBJECTIVE

Part I (Multiple Choice Questions) (6 x 1 = 6)

1. What is the primary purpose of professional ethics?
(A) To promote competitiveness
(B) To maximize profits
(C) To ensure ethical behavior in a specific profession
(D) To advance personal interests

2. Which of the following is NOT a core principle of professional ethics?
(A) Honesty

(B) Confidentiality

(D) Integrity

3. Which of the following is NOT a common ethical dilemma in the workplace?
(A) Discrimination

(B) Harassment

(D) Conflicts of interest

4. According to utilitarianism, the right action is the one that:
(A) Maximizes pleasure and minimizes pain

(B) Follows the categorical imperative

(D) Respects individual rights

5. What is the primary responsibility of journalists in their reporting?
(A) Generating sensational headlines

(B) Maximizing audience engagement

(D) Advocating for a specific political agenda

6. What is the first step in resolving ethical issues in a professional context?
(A) Consultation with colleagues

(B) Seeking legal advice

(D) Ignoring the issue until it resolves itself

______________________________________________

SUBJECTIVE

Part II (Short Questions) (4 x 2 = 8)

Define the following terms.

(1) Conflict of interest
(2) Whistleblowing
(3) Professionalism
(4) Reciprocity

Part III (Long Questions) (Attempt any TWO) (2 x 8 = 16)

1. How does Professional Ethics play a critical role in various fields and professions? Discuss in detail.
2. How can ethical problems, in an organization, be effectively resolved? Point out some steps to address ethical issues.
3. Discuss some important professional ethics for teachers.

______________________________________________

IMAGE:

Past Paper of Classical Poetry (ENGL-2104) for BS Classes (Fall-2022) | KFUEIT Rahim Yar Khan | Govt. R. I. Graduate College Haroonabad

2023-11-30T20:43:00.010+05:00

TEXT:

Department: English
Program: BS English
Exam: Fall 2022 Mid Semester Exam
University: Khawaja Fareed University of Engineering & Information Technology Rahim Yar Khan

Affiliated College: Govt. Rizvia Islamia Graduate College Haroonabad
Course Code: ENGL-2104
Course Title: Classical Poetry (from Chaucer to Pope)
Total Marks: 30
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

OBJECTIVE

Part I (Multiple Choice Questions) (7 x 1 = 7)

1. Geoffrey Chaucer died in ___________.
(A) 1397

(B) 1398

(D) 1400

2. Geoffrey Chaucer was staying in _________ Inn when he met the pilgrims.
(A) Southwreck

(B) Canterbury

(D) None of these

3. The knight loved chivalry, truth, honour, freedom and ___________.
(A) Riding

(B) Courtesy

(D) Politics

4. The Squire was a _________ fellow.
(A) Pious

(B) Lusty

(D) Crook

5. The Friar was ___________ easily.
(A) Bribed

(B) Deceived

(D) Condemned

6. In ‘The Sunne Rising’, which of these adjectives are used by the poet to describe the Sun?

(A) Celestial orb

(B) Crazy old man

(D) Busy old fool

7. John Donne compares the lovers to parts of a compass in his poem ‘A Valediction: Forbidding Mourning’. Such type of comparison is called __________.

(A) Simile

(B) Conceit

(D) Metonymy

______________________________________________

SUBJECTIVE

Part II (Short Questions) (2 + 2 + 4 = 8)

1. Who is the Plowman in 'The Canterbury Tales?

2. What does the Clerk always prefer over rich robes, fiddle, or gay psaltery?

3. Explain the following extract with reference to the context.

And thus, with flattery and suchlike japes,

He made the parson and the rest his apes.

Part III (Long Questions) (3 x 5 = 15)

1. Describe Chaucer’s attitude towards the church of 14th century.

2. Draw a character sketch of Geoffrey Chaucer’s ‘The Miller’.

3. Critically evaluate John Donne’s song ‘Go and Catch a Falling Star’.

______________________________________________

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Past Paper of Classical Poetry (ENGL-2104) for BS Classes (Fall-2021) | KFUEIT Rahim Yar Khan | Govt. R. I. Graduate College Haroonabad

2023-11-27T22:21:00.004+05:00

TEXT:

Department: English
Program: BS English
Exam: Fall 2021 Mid Semester Exam
University: Khawaja Fareed University of Engineering & Information Technology Rahim Yar Khan

Affiliated College: Govt. Rizvia Islamia Graduate College Haroonabad
Course Code: ENGL-2104
Course Title: Classical Poetry (from Chaucer to Pope)
Total Marks: 30
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

OBJECTIVE

Part I (Multiple Choice Questions) (6 x 1 = 6)

1. What was Chaucer’s profession?
(A) Poet

(B) Nobel

(D) Merchant

2. What does the Squire wear?
(A) A velvet doublet and hose

(B) Cloth embroidered with flowers

(D) A beaver hat

3. According to the Wife of Bath, what do women most desire?
(A) Sovereignty over their husbands

(B) True love

(D) Great love

4. Which pilgrim has a forked beard?
(A) The Summoner

(B) The Merchant

(D) The Physician

5. In ‘The Sunne Rising’, which of these adjectives are used by the poet to describe the Sun?
(A) Celestial orb

(B) Crazy old man
(C) Silly old woman

(D) Busy old fool

6. John Donne compares the lovers to parts of a compass in his poem ‘A Valediction: Forbidding Mourning’. Such type of comparison is called __________.
(A) Simile

(B) Conceit

(D) Metonymy

______________________________________________

SUBJECTIVE

Part II (Short Questions) (4 x 2 = 8)

1. Who is the Plowman in the Canterbury Tales?

2. What does the Parson do first before he teaches his flock?

3. What was the favorite food of the Summoner?

4. Explain the following extract with reference to the context.

She was so charitable and piteous

That she would weep if she but saw a mouse

Caught in a trap, though it were dead or bled.

Part III (Long Questions) (2 x 8 = 16)

1. Assess Geoffrey Chaucer’s contribution to English poetry.
2. Critically Evaluate John Donne’s poem ‘The Good Morrow’.

______________________________________________

IMAGE:

100 MCQs with Answers on "The Prologue to the Canterbury Tales" by Geoffrey Chaucer

2023-11-27T21:46:00.002+05:00

(Note: Correct options are highlighted.)

1. What was Chaucer’s profession?

a) Poet

b) Noble

c) Merchant

d) Civil servant

2. Who of the following is called ‘the morning star of the reformation’?

a) John Gower

b) Geoffrey Chaucer

c) John Barbour

d) John Wycliff

3. Who called Chaucer ‘the Father of English Poetry'?

a) Sydney

b) Dryden

c) Spenser

d) Arnold

4. ‘Chaucer is the earliest of the great moderns’. Who holds that opinion?

a) John Dryden

b) Ben Johnson

c) Mathew Arnold

d) T. S. Eliot

5. ‘With Chaucer is born our real poetry’. Who holds this view?

a) Sydney

b) Addison

c) Spenser

d) Arnold

6. Who mentioned Chaucer as ‘The Well of English Undefiled’?

a) Dryden

b) Addison

c) Spenser

d) Pope

7. Who says about Chaucer’s characters – ‘Here is God’s plenty’.

a) Dr. Johnson

b) S. T. Coleridge

c) Alexander Pope

d) John Dryden

8. Who said that ‘Chaucer lacks high seriousness’?

a) Dr. Johnson

b) S. T. Coleridge

c) Mathew Arnold

d) T. S. Eliot

9. Who says of Chaucer, “He must have been a man of most wonderful comprehensive soul?

a) Dr. Johnson

b) S. T. Coleridge

c) John Dryden

d) Mathew Arnold

10. ‘Chaucer found his native tongue a dialect and left it a language.’ Who makes this observation?

a) I. A. Richards

b) J. R. Lowell

c) F. R. Leavis

d) Walter Pater

11. ‘If Chaucer is the Father of English poetry, he is the Grandfather of the English Novel’.

Who makes this remark?

a) S. T. Coleridge

b) G. K. Chesterton

c) John Ruskin

d) Walter Pater

12. Which of the following works is not a work of Chaucer?

a) The House of Fame

b) The Legend of Good Women

c) The Owl and the Nightingale

d) The Romaunt of the Rose

13. When does ‘The Canterbury Tales’ take place?

a) In the Renaissance

b) During the Norman invasion

c) During the Puritan Age

d) In the late fourteenth century

14. At what time of year does the pilgrimage take place?

a) In the dead of winter

b) In the height of spring

c) “That time of year when yellow leaves . . . hang upon these boughs”

d) On a midsummer night

15. Why are the pilgrims going to Canterbury?

a) To meet King Henry III

b) To see a medieval mystery play

c) To worship the relics of Saint Thomas Becket

d) Because they are tourists

16. In the opening lines of ‘The Prologue to the Canterbury Tales’, the narrator ________.

a) criticizes chivalry

b) attacks the corruption in the Church

c) rejoices in the renewing cycle of life

d) establishes the ideal of the Renaissance man

17. Apart from the narrator, how many pilgrims are on their way to Canterbury?

a) 20

b) 24

c) 28

d) 29

18. What aspects of the pilgrims are described in the General Prologue?

a) Physical appearance

b) Social ranks

c) Attire

d) All of the above

19. Which Dialect is used by Chaucer in his work?

a) The Southern Dialect

b) East Midland Dialect

c) The Kentish Dialect

d) The Northern Dialect

20. What is the name of the inn where the pilgrims assemble for the night?

a) Southwark Inn

b) Temple Inn

c) St. Becket Inn

d) Tabard Inn

21. Who welcomes the travelers to the inn?

a) The Hostess

b) The Host

c) The narrator's wife

d) The Cook

22. The name of the Host is ________.

a) Harry Bailly

b) Roger Warren

c) John Gower

d) Geoffrey Chaucer

23. What does the Host propose to the pilgrims to make their journey more entertaining?

a) A singing contest

b) A storytelling competition

c) A dance-off

d) A horse race

24. What prize does the Host offer to the winner of the storytelling competition?

a) A bag of gold coins

b) A free meal at the Tabard Inn

c) A copy of the Bible

d) A ride on his horse

25. Who will determine whose story is the best?

a) The Host

b) The narrator

c) The Judge

d) The Poet

26. The Host decides that each pilgrim must tell how many stories?

a) One on the way to Canterbury

b) One on the way back from Canterbury

c) One on the way to Canterbury and one on the way back

d) Two on the way to Canterbury and two on the way back

27. What's the price for disagreeing with the Host along the way?

a) That person has to travel alone for the rest of the way

b) That person has to pay everyone's expenses

c) The Host will beat him/her

d) That person will have to ride a donkey for the rest of the way

28. Who is the narrator of ‘The Canterbury Tales’?

a) The Knight

b) The Host

c) The Pardoner

d) Chaucer himself

29. How many Canterbury Tales are there?

a) 22

b) 24

c) 28

d) 32

30. ‘The Canterbury Tales’ is structured as a:

a) Parody

b) Folk ballad

c) Melodrama

d) Frame story

31. Out of Chaucer’s twenty four tales, only ______ are in prose.

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

32. The narrator in ‘The Prologue to the Canterbury Tales’ appears to be _______.

a) Naive

b) Irritable

c) Immoral

d) Anti-social

33. Which of Chaucer’s characters told the first Canterbury tale?

a) The Yeoman

b) The Monk

c) The Knight

d) The Cook

34. What does the Squire wear?

a) A velvet doublet and hose

b) Cloth embroidered with flowers

c) Green and peacock-blue hunting gear

d) A beaver hat

35. According to the Wife of Bath, what do women most desire?

a) Sovereignty over their husbands

b) True love

c) Perfect beauty

d) Great wealth

36. Why is the Monk not very monk-like?

a) He swears a lot.

b) He misquotes many of the prayers.

c) He acts like a lord and enjoys horses and hunting.

d) He likes to talk about astrology.

37. Which pilgrim has a forked beard?

a) The Summoner

b) The Merchant

c) The Reeve

d) The Friar

38. What is the Wife of Bath’s prologue about?

a) Her life with her five different husbands

b) Ovid’s Metamorphoses

c) How women deserve to hold high public offices just like men

d) A philosophical treatise on the astrolabe

39. Which pilgrims are most richly attired?

a) Miller, Yeoman, Summoner, Chaucer

b) Wife of Bath, Squire, Monk, Physician, Franklin

c) Knight, Clerk, Parson, Pardoner

d) Friar, Reeve, Manciple, Man of Law

40. Which pilgrim carries a brooch inscribed with Latin words meaning ‘Love Conquers All’?

a) The Prioress

b) The Wife of Bath

c) The Monk

d) The Squire

41. Which characters are connected to the Church?

a) The Prioress, the Monk, the Friar, the Summoner and the Pardoner

b) The Miller, the Ploughman, the Franklin and the Reeve

c) The Knight, the Clerk, the Parson and the Shipman

d) The Yeoman, the Physician, the Clerk and the Man of Law

42. What does the Friar easily get people to do?

a) Learn how to read and write

b) Protest for him before the king

c) Give him money, food and drink

d) Go hunting with him

43. What does the Physician base his medical knowledge on?

a) What he learned from a medicine man in India

b) Astronomy and the prevailing theory of the four humors

c) His extensive field work in herbal remedies

d) His six years of medical degree work done at Oxford

44. Who has been married five times?

a) The Prioress

b) The Wife of Bath

c) The Friar

d) The Manciple

45. Which are the only two characters who seem to truly uphold Christian ideals?

a) The Miller and the Cook

b) The Narrator and the Host

c) The Parson and the Plowman

d) The Pardoner and the Summoner

46. What does the corrupt and lecherous Summoner do when he gets drunk?

a) He gets up on the tables and does a striptease.

b) He provokes fist fights with passersby and often winds up in jail.

c) He repeats the few words of Latin he knows over and over like a parrot.

d) His voice sounds like a goat.

47. Why is the Summoner hated by the Church and church-goers?

a) Because he is too righteous and exacting in his morals and ethics

b) Because he makes counterfeit pardons and cheats people of their money

c) Because he's painfully shy and incredibly awkward for parishioners to talk to

d) Because he often espoused pagan beliefs and praises other religions

48. In ‘The Prologue to the Canterbury Tales’, the Parson’s brother is _______.

a) The Physician

b) The Plowman

c) The Manciple

d) The Clerk

49. In ‘The Prologue to the Canterbury Tales’, the pilgrim whose profession gives him ‘a special love of gold’ is _______.

a) The Parson

b) The Physician

c) The Summoner

d) The Franklin

50. Immediately prior to joining the other pilgrims in Chaucer’s ‘The Canterbury Tales’, the Knight had _________.

a) been at court

b) gone to visit his rural estate

c) been engaged in battles overseas

d) bought new clothes for the pilgrimage

51. In ‘The Prologue to the Canterbury Tales’, the pilgrim who neglects his religious duties in order to hunt is _________.

a) The Parson

b) The Monk

c) The Pardoner

d) The Summoner

52. In describing the Friar as ‘a noble pillar to his Order’, Chaucer uses ________.

a) Epigram

b) Irony

c) Inversion

d) Apostrophe

53. Which character is described as having fought in many battles and is a noble, honorable figure?

a) The Pardoner

b) The Wife of Bath

c) The Knight

d) The Miller

54. The Man of Law charges high fees and is a big:

a) Businessman

b) Land-buyer

c) Lawyer

d) None of the above

55. Which character is described as having a high-pitched voice and a gap-toothed smile?

a) The Prioress

b) The Clerk

c) The Summoner

d) The Wife of Bath

56. What is the social status of the Summoner in ‘The Canterbury Tales’?

a) Nobility

b) Clergy

c) Merchant class

d) Peasant

57. Which pilgrim is skilled at playing the bagpipes?

a) The Pardoner

b) The Miller

c) The Reeve

d) The Monk

58. What does the Wife of Bath criticize about her husbands in her prologue?

a) Their lack of wealth

b) Their infidelity

c) Their reluctance to marry

d) Their obsession with chivalry

59. Which character seems to love animals more than humans?

a) The Squire

b) The Wife of Bath

c) The Prioress

d) The Parson

60. Which of Chaucer’s characters sings loudly ‘Come hither, love, to me’?

a) The Friar

b) The Monk

c) The Squire

d) The Pardoner

61. Which of the following physical features characterizes the Friar?

a) Red beard

b) Gap between his teeth

c) White neck

d) Wart on his nose

62. ‘He was as fresh as the month of May’. This line in ‘The Prologue’ refers to?

a) The Franklin

b) The Physician

c) The Squire

d) None of these

63. The Pardoner sells which animal’s bones as saint’s bones?

a) Cat’s

b) Goat’s

c) Pig’s

d) Sheep’s

64. Which character in ‘The Prologue’ teaches devotedly to his parishioners?

a) The Prioress

b) The Friar

c) The Clerk

d) The Parson

65. How often does the poor Parson tell lies?

a) Always

b) Sometimes

c) Often

d) Never

66. Which of Chaucer’s character had greyhounds ‘as swift as birds in flight’?

a) The Friar

b) The Pardoner

c) The Monk

d) The Knight

67. Which character in ‘The Prologue’ has ulcer on his shin?

a) The Miller

b) The Cook

c) The Yeoman

d) The Manciple

68. Which character in ‘The Prologue’ has won prizes in wrestling matches?

a) The Squire

b) The Reeve

c) The Pardoner

d) The Miller

69. Which character in ‘The Prologue’ wears a tabard?

a) The Knight

b) The Plowman

c) The Yeoman

d) The Reeve

70. Who is a long-legged, choleric and slender man in Chaucer’s characters?

a) The Miller

b) The Man of Law

c) The Reeve

d) The Plowman

71. In Chaucer’s characters, whose face was fiery-red and pimpled with narrow eyes?

a) The Cook

b) The Host

c) The Pardoner

d) The Summoner

72. In his bearing, the Knight was as gentle as is a:

a) Child

b) Sheep

c) Maid

d) Rabbit

73. The Yeoman was travelling as a servant to:

a) The Knight

b) The Miller

c) The Friar

d) The Manciple

74. What was the name of the Friar in ‘The Canterbury Tales’?

a) Stephen

b) Hubert

c) William

d) Ethelbert

75. In Chaucer’s characters, who spoke French fluently and elegantly?

a) The Clerk

b) The Friar

c) The Man of Law

d) The Prioress

76. Who had weathered many storms and is a champion of his trade?

a) The Yeoman

b) The Cook

c) The Shipman

d) The Monk

77. In ‘The Prologue’, whose locks were ‘well curled as if they were laid in press’?

a) The Prioress

b) The Squire

c) The Merchant

d) The Friar

78. In ‘The Prologue’, whose mouth is like a great furnace?

a) The Miller

b) The Summoner

c) The Physician

d) The Pardoner

79. In Chaucer’s characters, who was somewhat deaf?

a) The Prioress

b) The Wife of Bath

c) The Plowman

d) The Host

80. In ‘The Prologue’, what was the Yeoman carrying in his hand?

a) A mighty bow

b) An arrow

c) A sword

d) A bag of gold

81. In ‘The Prologue’, the Parson refers ‘his sheep’ to his _________.

a) Parishioners

b) Friends

c) Offspring

d) None of these

82. In ‘The Prologue’, whom did the Friar know more than the lepers & the beggars?

a) Taverns

b) Inn-keepers

c) Barmaids

d) All of the above

83. Who always rode last in the group of pilgrims?

a) The Reeve

b) The Man of Law

c) The Host

d) The Miller

84. What was the financial secret of the Merchant?

a) He was extra-ordinary rich

b) He owned off-shore companies

c) He was in debt

d) None of the above

85. Which of Chaucer’s characters sang the divine service in nasal voice?

a) The Wife of Bath

b) The Prioress

c) The Friar

d) The Pardoner

86. In ‘The Canterbury Tales’, who was excellent at caring for arrows and travels with the huge amount of weaponry?

a) The Yeoman

b) The Monk

c) The Knight

d) The Squire

87. How many mortal battles were won by Chaucer’s Knight?

a) 8

b) 10

c) 12

d) 15

88. In Chaucer’s characters, who lives in ‘pees and perfit charitee’?

a) The Plowman

b) The Parson

c) The Clerk

d) The Friar

89. The Physician was a perfect practitioner of medicine but has little knowledge of _______.

a) Physics

b) The Bible

c) Philosophy

d) Astronomy

90. In Chaucer’s characters, who wears an image of St. Christopher on his breast?

a) The Prioress

b) The Yeoman

c) The Miller

d) The Summoner

91. In Chaucer’s characters, who had a thin voice that sounded like a goat?

a) The Prioress

b) The Pardoner

c) The Summoner

d) The Clerk

92. To whose teachings did the Monk not pay attention?

a) St. Benedict

b) St. Maurice

c) St. Louis

d) Both A & B

93. In Chaucer’s characters, whose horse was ‘as lean as is a rake’?

a) The Yeoman

b) The Squire

c) The Clerk

d) The Reeve

94. What is the relationship between the Knight and the Squire?

a) Father and son

b) Brother

c) Cousins

d) Master and servant

95. What is the primary trait of Chaucer’s character the Franklin?

a) Cruelty

b) Generosity

c) Humility

d) Honesty

96. What is the Yeoman's relationship to the Knight?

a) Servant

b) Brother

c) Colleague

d) Neighbour

97. What does the Pardoner carry with him to sell?

a) Perfumes

b) Relics

c) Herbs

d) All of the above

98. Which character is known for his excessive drinking and lecherous behavior?

a) The Monk

b) The Friar

c) The Pardoner

d) The Summoner

99. ‘The Prologue to the Canterbury Tales’ is written in _______ lines.

a) 758

b) 828

c) 858

d) 938

100. Chaucer’s primary aim in writing the Canterbury Tales is to show _________.

a) A variety of human nature

b) Corruption of clergy

c) Superstitions of the age

d) Danger of travelling

ہم اپنے بچوں کو ضائع کر رہے ہیں۔

2022-05-08T13:50:00.004+05:00

آئن سٹائن نے ایک بار کہا تھا، جو معلومات ہم بہت معمولی سی کوشش سے ایک دو بٹن دبانے پر فوراً حاصل کر سکتے ہیں، اسے اپنے دماغ میں اکٹھا کرنا ضروری نہیں ہے۔ بلکہ دماغ کو اس سے زیادہ بہتر کام کے لئے استعمال کرنا چاہئیے، اور وہ کام ہے تخلیقی، تنقیدی اور منطقی انداز فکر کا حصول۔

دوسرے لفظوں میں یوں کہہ لیں کہ اگر ہم اپنے دماغ میں بے تحاشا معلومات اکٹھی کرنے کے باوجود، تخلیقی انداز کے ساتھ کچھ نیا سوچنے سے قاصر ہیں، تو ہم اپنے دماغ کا شاید ایک فیصد بھی استعمال نہیں کر رہے۔ یعنی انسانی دماغ کو صرف یادداشت کے لئے استعمال کرنا بالکل ایسے ہی ہے جیسے کوئی شخص بھنڈیاں کاٹنے کے لئے تلوار کا استعمال کرے، یا مچھر مارنے کے لئے بندوق چلائے۔

آپ نے دیکھا ہو گا کہ ایک زمانہ تھا لوگ کاغذ پر حساب کتاب کرتے تھے، ضرب و تقسیم، جزر، مربعہ، زمین کی پیمائش وغیرہ بہت محنت طلب کام ہوتا تھا۔ بچوں کو پہاڑے، مسئلے اور الگورتھم کا چارٹ وغیرہ زبانی یاد کروائے جاتے تھے۔ لیکن اب کیلکولیٹر اور جدید ترین ایپس اور سافٹ وئیرز کے آنے کے بعد ان سب کو ایک غیر ضروری مشقت سمجھا جاتا ہے۔ (اگرچہ ہمارے ہاں ابھی ایسا نہیں ہے۔ ہمارے بچے ابھی بھی مرغے بن کر پہاڑے یاد کر رہے ہیں)

آپ یقین کیجئے، کیمسٹری کے تمام فارمولے کیمسٹری کے بڑے سے بڑے سائنسدان کو بھی زبانی یاد نہیں ہوں گے۔ وہ بھی اپنے ساتھ ڈائریاں اور نوٹس رکھا کرتے تھے۔ تحقیق کے دوران جب ضرورت پیش آتی، وہاں سے دیکھ لیتے تھے۔ جبکہ مجھے یاد ہے کہ ہمارے اساتذہ ڈنڈے مار مار کر اور کان پکڑوا کر ہمیں یہ سب یاد کروایا کرتے تھے۔ ہر وقت ایک خوف سر پہ سوار رہتا تھا۔ ہماری بہت ساری انرجی ان فضول کاموں میں ضائع ہو جاتی تھی۔

میرا ایک کلاس فیلو تھا۔ اسے علامہ اقبال کا شکوہ، جواب شکوہ جیسی کئی طویل نظمیں زبانی یاد تھیں اور ہم بڑے رشک سے اس کی طرف دیکھا کرتے تھے۔ اب پتہ نہیں اسے عملی زندگی میں اس چیز کا کوئی فائدہ ہوا یا نہیں۔ کبھی ملاقات ہوئی تو ضرور پوچھوں گا۔

ہسٹری میں ہونے والے اہم واقعات کی تاریخیں یاد کرنا نرا عذاب ہوتا تھا۔ ذہن میں گڈ مڈ ہو جاتی تھیں۔ جس سے نہ صرف مار پڑتی تھی بلکہ امتحان میں نمبر بھی ضائع ہو جاتے تھے۔

ملکوں کا رقبہ، محل وقوع، درآمدات اور برآمدات وغیرہ، یہ سب یاد رکھنا ناممکن کی حد تک مشکل لگتا تھا۔ اب گوگل میپ اور وکی پیڈیا استعمال کرتے ہیں، تو نقصان کا ایک احساس ضرور ہوتا ہے کہ ہمارا کتنا وقت اور توانائی لاحاصل کاموں میں ضائع کر دی گئی۔ وہ زندگی کے قیمتی ترین دن تھے، لیکن بے کار ترین مشقت میں ضائع ہو گئے۔

قائد اعظم کے چودہ نکات پر چودہ سو بار مار کھائی ہو گی، لیکن آج تک یاد نہیں ہوئے۔ اور نہ ہی کبھی یہ سمجھ آئی کہ انہیں زبانی یاد کرنا اتنا ضروری کیوں تھا؟؟

لیکن بہرحال جو ہو چکا، سو ہو چکا۔ ماضی پر افسوس کرنے کی بجائے، اس سے سیکھنا چاہئیے۔ اب چونکہ معلومات کے ذخائر تک رسائی دن بدن آسان ہوتی جا رہی ہے۔ زبانی یاد کرنے والا کلچر اب دنیا میں تبدیل ہو رہا ہے۔ وقت آ چکا ہے کہ ہم بھی اپنے بچوں کی تعلیم کے بارے میں اپنے نظریات کو اپ ڈیٹ کریں۔ نئے دور کے کمپیٹیشن کو سمجھیں۔ اپنے بچوں کو ان کے دماغ کا بہترین استعمال سکھائیں۔ جو معلومات ہماری جیب میں پڑے سمارٹ فون میں چار یا پانچ کلکس کی دوری پر ہے، اسے یاد کروانے پر ہی سارا فوکس بچوں کی اہم ترین ذہنی صلاحیتوں کو ضائع کر دینے کے مترادف ہے۔

ہاں اگر کوئی بہت ضروری انفارمیشن ہے، جسے کسی خاص تصور یا نظریے کو سمجھنے کے لئے دماغ میں رکھنا ضروری ہے، تو اس حد تک تو ٹھیک ہے۔ لیکن بچوں کو بالکل رٹا مارنے والی مشین میں تبدیل کر دینا، نہ صرف ان بچوں کے ساتھ ظلم ہے، بلکہ اس اپروچ کے ساتھ ہم کبھی بھی دنیا کا مقابلہ نہیں کر سکتے۔

ہمارا دس پندرہ ہزار کا موبائل ہزاروں کتابیں ذخیرہ کر سکتا ہے۔ ہم ایک مکمل لائبریری اپنی جیب میں رکھ سکتے ہیں۔ ڈیٹا کنکشن آن ہے تو معلومات کا سمندر چند سیکنڈز کی دوری پر ہے۔

لہٰذا اللّٰہ تعالیٰ کی عظیم ترین تخلیق یعنی انسانی دماغ کو ڈیٹا سٹور کرنے کے لئے نہیں بلکہ ڈیٹا تخلیق کرنے کے لئے استعمال کیجئے۔ اپنے بچوں کو پرانا یاد کرنا نہیں، بلکہ نیا سوچنا سکھائیے، موازنہ کرنا سکھائیے، انہیں تنقید کرنا سکھائیے۔ اور آخری بات یہ کہ انہیں طوطے کی طرح رٹے رٹائے جواب دہرانے والا نہیں، بلکہ جیتے جاگتے انسان کی طرح سوال پوچھنے والا بنائیے۔ شکریہ

(شعیب اصغر)

MAGE ATTRIBUTION:

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Past Paper of International Relations (PAKS-1122) for BS Classes (Fall-2021) | KFUEIT Rahim Yar Khan | Govt. R. I. Graduate College Haroonabad

2022-05-07T18:09:00.000+05:00

TEXT:

Department: Pak Studies

Program: All BS Programs

Exam: Spring 2021 End Semester Exam

University: Khawaja Fareed University of Engineering & Information Technology Rahim Yar Khan
Course Code: PAKS-1122

Course Title: International Relations
Total Marks: 50
Time Allowed: 135 Minutes

OBJECTIVE

Q. No. 1. Choose the correct options. (10)

1. Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic of state as compared with other associations?
a) Population

b) territory

c) Government

d) sovereignty

2. World War II period is between:
a) 1914-1918

b) 1925-1930

c) 1939-1945

d) 1945-1948

3. Mikhail Gorbachove resigned as Russian president in:
a) 1979

b) 1988

c) 1989

d) 1991

4. Who is regarded as father of international law?
a) Hugo Grotius

b) Stowell

c) Pasquale

d) Oppenheim

5. The post cold war international system is:
a) Bipolar

b) Unipolar

c) Multipolar

d) Nonpolar

6. French revolution tool place in:
a) 1780

b) 1789

c) 1790

d) 1810

7. Iraq invaded Kuwait in the year:
a) 1979

b) 1989

c) 1991

d) 1998

8. The number of organs of UNO are:
a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

9. Treaty of West Phalia occurred in:
a) 1498

b) 1648

c) 1702

d) 1988

10. A war in which combatants use every resource to destroy the enemy:
a) Civil war

b) Gurella war

c) Total war

d) Cold war

_________________________________________

SUBJECTIVE

Q No. 2. Write short answers of the following questions. (2x5=10)

i) Write the four devices/methods of balance of power.
ii) Define Multipolarity.
iii) What are the types of War?
iv) The abbreviations of WHO and IMF stands for.
v) How prof Oppenhiem defines international law?

Q No. 3. Define international law? What are the sources of international law? (10)
Q No. 4. Discuss the essential/main organs of UNO. (10)
Q No. 5. Write a note on NATO alliance. (10)

_________________________________________

IMAGES:

William Butler Yeats as a Love Poet | Modern English Poetry

2022-03-22T19:36:00.005+05:00

Love is just a vague and fleeting emotion in the early love poetry of W. B. Yeats. After his meeting with Maud Gonne, Yeats was transformed into a great love poet. He had great love and devotion for her. It was lifelong and it is only natural that we find this woman everywhere in his poetry.

As Stock puts it: ‘If every painting of Maud Gonne vanished, something of her would remain credible in Yeats’ poetry.’

Yeats met Maud Gonne when he was twenty three years old and fell instantly in love with her. He has a few equals in English poetry in the way he has immortalized the beauty and charm of Maud Gonne in the poem ‘No Second Troy’:

With beauty like a tightened bow, a kind
That is not natural in an age like this
Being high and solitary and most stern.

Yeats’ love lyrics are among the best lyrics ever written in English language. ‘When You Are Old’ is a very famous love poem of Yeats where he makes it clear that his love is for his beloved’s pilgrim soul whereas the love of others may well be for the physical charm.

How many loved your moments of glad grace
And love your beauty with love false or true
But one man loved the pilgrim soul in you
And loved the sorrows of your changing face.

In the poem ‘He Wishes for the Cloths of Heaven’, Yeats says

But I, being poor, have only my dreams
I have spread my dreams under your feet
Tread softly because you tread on my dreams.

Maud Gonne got married to Major McBride in 1903. After this incident Yeats’ love poetry became much more poignant. In many of his poems, we find the sense of loss resulting from his failure. A Prayer for my Daughter, When You Are Old, and No Second Troy are some of these poems.

Maude Gonne once told Yeats that he would, must thank her for refusing to marry him, and the world should be inclined to agree with her, because out of that refusal sprang some of the best love poems in English literature.

Yeats is one of the greatest love poets of the English language. The lyric grace, the authenticity of feelings, and his expression of the sense of loss resulting from failure in love, all go into ranking him with other great love poets like John Donne, Robert Browning, Andrew Marvell, John Keats and Shelley.

Image credit: picryl.com

Further Topics:

Edmund Spenser as a Poet
John Donne, as a Metaphysical Poet

SET 4 - MCQs on PLT (Promotion Linked Training) of Lecturers, Instructors, Assistant Professors of Public Sector Colleges of the Punjab

2022-02-27T18:05:00.006+05:00

1. ________ is the process of increasing the knowledge and skills for doing a particular job.

(a) Education

(b) Selection

(c) Training

(d) None of the above

2. ________ training is defined to revive and refresh the knowledge and update the skills of the existing employees.

(a) Remedial Training

(b) Promotional Training

(c) Refresher Training

(d) Orientation Training

3. ________ training is arranged to overcome the shortcomings in the behaviour and performance of old employees.

(a) Remedial Training

(b) Promotional Training

(c) Refresher Training

(d) Orientation Training

4. Under ________ it is a joint program of training in which educational institutions and business firms co-operate.

(a) Internship Training

(b) Vestibule Training

(c) Off Job Training

(d) None of the above

5. ICT stands for __________.

(a) Internet & Computer Technologies

(b) Information & Communication Technologies

(c) Information & Computer Technologies

(d) None of the above

6. What does a feasibility of government sector project involve?

(a) Discussion between stakeholders

(b) Meeting with minister and MPA

(c) Project Appraisal

(d) Consultant’s Report

7. Leave account of civil servants of grade 16 is maintained in ______________.

(a) Their respective colleges

(b) District Accounts Office

(c) Directorate

(d) Office of the Deputy Director

8. In case of GPF advance, maximum numbers of installments for refunding are ______.

(a) 24

(b) 36

(c) 48

(d) 60

9. Identify the correct sequence of behavior in Psychomotor Domain.

(a) Imitation, Manipulation, Precision, Articulation, Naturalization

(b) Articulation, Imitation, Naturalization, Manipulation, Precision

(c) Manipulation, Imitation, Precision, Articulation, Naturalization

(d) Naturalization, Articulation, Manipulation, Precision, Imitation

10. According to Jean Piaget's theory of child development, the Sensorimotor Stage is the ________ stage in a child’s cognitive development.

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Fourth

11. According to Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the Concrete Operational Stage comes when a child reaches the age of __________ years.

(a) 0 to 2

(b) 2 to 7

(c) 7 to 11

(d) 11 to 12

12. According to Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, at which stage a child begins to think about things symbolically?

(a) Sensorimotor stage

(b) Preoperational stage

(c) Concrete Operational stage

(d) Formal Operational stage

13. The second level of cognitive domain is ____________.

(a) Receive

(b) Remember

(c) Understand

(d) Imitate

14. The first level of psychomotor domain is ____________.

(a) Receive

(b) Imitate

(c) Respond

(d) Apply

15. A good way to prevent stress is ____________.

(a) Getting enough sleep

(b) Taking time out for relaxation

(c) Drinking beverage high in caffeine

(d) Both a and b

16. What is the best way to handle the demands of others that are unrealistic and of low personal or family priority?

(a) Fulfill the demand to avoid an argument

(b) Learn to say ‘NO’

(c) Make up an excuse

(d) None of the above

17. When a task appears overwhelming, it is best to __________________.

(a) put it off until later

(b) break it down into smaller segments

(c) ask for help from someone

(d) avoid the task

18. ‘Childhood and Society’ is a famous book about the social significance of childhood which is written by ______________.

(a) Benjamin Bloom

(b) Noam Chomsky

(c) B. F. Skinner

(d) Erik Erikson

19. Who coined the term ‘Identity Crisis’?

(a) Benjamin Bloom

(b) Noam Chomsky

(c) B. F. Skinner

(d) Erik Erikson

20. Covey’s quadrant model covers ______________ tasks.

(a) Important and urgent

(b) Non-important and non-urgent

(c) Important, urgent, non-important and non-urgent

(d) All of the above

21. A person who is facing identity crisis may find himself pre-occupied with the following questions except _______________.

(a) What is my purpose in life?

(b) What are my spiritual beliefs?

(c) Which book should I read?

(d) What am I passionate about?

22. ‘Andragogy’ refers to _______________.

(a) Child Education

(b) Adult Education

(c) Formal Education

(d) Technical Education

23. Key to quality classroom assessment is ______________.

(a) Purpose of assessment

(b) Specificity of course learning outcome

(c) Method of assessment

(d) All of the above

24. According to Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, at which level a man strives to support rules that are set forth by his parents, peers, and the government.

(a) Preconventional level

(b) Conventional level

(c) Postconventional level

25. Which types of questions help develop students’ creative and critical thinking skills?

(a) What and Why

(b) When and Where

(c) How and Who

(d) How and Why

26. ____________ refers to non-verbal elements of communication used to modify meaning and convey emotions.

(a) Paralanguage

(b) Perceptions

(c) Body language

(d) None of the above

27. _________ is a quality in voice that expresses the speaker’s feelings or thoughts.

(a) Tone

(b) Kinesics

(c) Pitch

(d) None of the above

28. Grades are mostly less important to the learners in _______________.

(a) Pedagogical setup

(b) Andragogical setup

(c) Semester system

(d) Annual System

29. ______________ is a type of summative assessment.

(a) End-term exam

(b) Mid-term exam

(c) Final thesis report

(d) All of the above

30. Higher Education Commission (HEC) decided to revamp the undergraduate curriculum by the introduction of ____________.

(a) New Education Quality

(b) Curriculum Based Education

(c) Comprehension Based Education

(d) Competency Based Education

31. Combination of both face-to-face and traditional classroom methods with e-learning is used to create a hybrid which is called ______________.

(a) Distance learning

(b) Blended learning

(c) Synchronous learning

(d) Asynchronous learning

32. Teaching-Learning can improve if both the teacher as well as students knows the intended ______________.

(a) Learning outcomes

(b) Assessments

(c) Results

(d) Grades

33. All are auditable documents except ______________.

(a) Bank statements

(b) Sanctioned strength

(c) Minutes of the meeting

(d) Performance Evaluation Report

34. Audit objections can be avoided through _____________.

(a) Financial discipline

(b) Monitoring of salary budget

(c) Maintenance of record

(d) All of the above

35. PEEDA Act 2006 can be imposed on the following:

(a) Civil Servants

(b) Deputationists

(c) Contract Employees

(d) All of the above

36. A student who falls ill on the day of final assessment but fulfills the overall attendance requirement, shall be awarded ________ grade.

(a) ‘I’ grade (incomplete)

(b) ‘W’ grade (withdrawal)

(c) ‘WF’ grade (forced withdrawal)

(d) ‘F’ grade (fail)

37. Which of the following grades can be requested by a student within first six weeks from the start of the semester?

(a) ‘I’ grade (incomplete)

(b) ‘W’ grade (withdrawal)

(c) ‘WF’ grade (forced withdrawal)

(d) ‘F’ grade (fail)

38. According to UEP 2020, the minimum requirement to qualify for BS degree is ________.

(a) 135 Credits

(b) 120 Credits

(c) 150 Credits

(d) 220 Credits

39. The number of contact hours for a subject with credit hours (3,0) are ________.

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

40. Which university first started ADP in 2010?

(a) Punjab University

(b) Gujrat University

(c) Sargodha University

(d) Karachi University

41. The length of the summer semester is _________ the regular semester.

(a) shorter than

(b) longer than

(c) equal to

(d) all of the above

42. Combination of both face-to-face and traditional classroom methods with e-learning is used to create a hybrid which is called ___________.

(a) Distance learning

(b) Blended learning

(c) Synchronous learning

(d) Asynchronous learning

43. What is the focus of the OBE based system?

(a) Students

(b) Teachers

(c) Curriculum

(d) Infrastructure

44. According to behaviourist school of thought, learning can only be measured through _____________.

(a) Studying mind processes

(b) Observable behaviours

(c) Ability to solve daily life problems

(d) All of the above

45. What is positive reinforcement?

(a) Any consequence when something unpleasant is taken away

(b) Any consequence when something unpleasant is added

(d) Any consequence when something pleasant is added

46. In case a government servant’s overall grading is adjudged as outstanding, the RO should _____________.

(a) Give proper justification for it

(b) Take prior permission from CO for doing so

(c) Draw the box of outstanding by himself

(d) Both a & c

47. Language, jargon, slang, etc. are some of the ____________.

(a) Cultural barriers

(b) Semantic barriers

(c) Organizational barriers

(d) All of the above

48. Mindfulness refers to _____________.

(a) Being overwhelmed

(b) Mind occupied by various thoughts

(c) Concentration at the work in hand

(d) None of the above

49. Disturbing thoughts are part of ______________.

(a) Internal Distractions

(b) External Distractions

(c) Both Internal and External Distractions

(d) None of the above

50. Which among the followings can help to manage stress?

(a) Remove yourself from the situation

(b) Change the situation

(c) Accept the situation

(d) All of the above

51. Avoidance of doing a task is called ____________.

(a) Mindfulness

(b) Halo Effect

(c) Procrastination

(d) None of the above

52. Which MOOC was founded by Stanford Computer Science professors?

(a) Coursera

(b) Udemy

(c) Edx

(d) Khan Academy

53. What is an advantage of having students watch online lectures?

(a) They can learn at their own pace.

(b) They can learn on their own time.

(c) They can re-watch lectures.

(d) All of the above

54. The success of any kind of digitized learning largely depends upon _________.

(a) Provision of high speed internet

(b) Students’ contextual analysis

(c) Modern computers

(d) None of the above

55. The key feature of online education is ______________.

(a) Quality

(b) Accessibility

(c) Flexibility

(d) Popularity

56. What is the name of the biography of Muhammad Ali Jinnah written by Fatima Jinnah?

(a) My Inspiration

(b) My Brother

(c) The Quaid

(d) The Founder

57. Most of the students are reluctant to give presentation because of ____________.

(a) Lack of confidence

(b) Language barrier

(c) Stage fright

(d) All of the above

58. ‘Allegory of the Cave’ was written by _____________.

(a) Socrates

(b) Plato

(c) Aristotle

(d) Euripides

59. What is LinkedIn?

(a) Search Engine

(b) Platform for Professional Networking

(c) Research Tool

(d) Pedagogical Technique

60. ‘E-Rozgar’ poject is the initiative of _____________.

(a) PHEC

(b) PITB

(c) HEC

(d) TEVTA

>>> Find some more in the video below:

SET 3 - MCQs on PLT (Promotion Linked Training) of Lecturers, Instructors, Assistant Professors of Public Sector Colleges of the Punjab

2022-02-24T19:41:00.003+05:00

1. A choice made between two or more alternatives is called __________.

(a) Assumption

(b) Decision

(c) Reporting

(d) Criticism

2. Academic Activity Calendar is prepared by __________.

(a) Secretary HEC

(b) DPI Colleges

(c) Directorate

(d) Principal

3. The duties of vice principal are determined by __________.

(a) DPI Colleges

(b) Director Colleges

(c) Deputy Director Colleges

(d) Principal

4. Academic planning is a decision making process which ensures __________.

(a) Implementation of academic calendar

(b) Maintaining a proper record of the expenses

(c) Judicious utilization of the available resources

(d) None of the above

5. What are the TWO types of expenditures?

(a) Charged Expenditures & Capital Expenditures

(b) Voted Expenditures & Compulsory Expenditures

(c) Revenue Expenditures & Fiscal Expenditures

(d) Revenue Expenditures & Capital Expenditures

6. Flipped learning enables _________________.

(a) Students access to tools and technologies

(b) Students listen to the lectures

(c) Students take notes in class

(d) Students is assigned to do homework

7. The concept of flipped classroom was presented in 2007 by two high school teachers in Colorado named __________________.

(a) Jaime Escalante and Sal Khan

(b) Jonathan Bergmann and Aaron Sams

(c) Noam Chomsky and B. F. Skinner

(d) Marva Collins and Vivian Paley

8. What is the disadvantage of flipped classroom?

(a) It created student-centered environment

(b) Students able to work at their own pace

(c) Teachers need to prepare more

(d) Students can have fun

9. What is the difference between the traditional classroom and flipped classroom?

(a) Students listen to lectures

(b) Students watch and listen to lectures before coming to class

(c) The homework is assigned

(d) Instructor prepares the material

10. In Google Classroom, which button allows us to post Assignments, Material and Questions?

(a) Post

(b) Schedule

(c) Create

(d) Produce

11. In Google Classroom, while creating Assignments and Materials we can _________.

(a) Embed a YouTube video

(b) Add a link

(c) Attach a Google Drive file

(d) All of the above

12. What do students need in order to join your Google Classroom?

(a) Password

(b) Teacher's email address

(c) Teacher's phone number

(d) Class Code

13. In operant conditioning an organism _________________.

(a) comes to pair a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned response

(b) receives reinforcement before exhibiting the desired behaviour as an inducement to behave in that way

(c) receives reinforcement after behaving in the desired way

(d) only learns to avoid punishment

14. A learning style is ____________.

(a) the type of material that an individual prefers to learn

(b) a strategy used by an individual to integrate new knowledge with that which has already been acquired

(c) a filter mechanism that inhibits the learning of certain material

(d) none of the above

15. Umra leave upto _________ without pay may be allowed to the contract appointee once during his tenure.

(a) 15 days

(b) 25 days

(c) 30 days

(d) 45 days

16. A female civil servant can avail 90-days maternity leave with pay ____________.

(a) Twice in entire service

(b) Once in a tenure of two years

(c) Once in a tenure of five years

(d) Once in a tenure of ten years

17. No permission is required from the sanctioned authority to leave headquarter during casual leave.

(a) True

(b) False

18. EOL stands for ______________.

(a) Employee On Leave

(b) Extra Ordinary Leave

(c) Employees Office Leave

(d) None of the above

19. Maximum period of Leave Preparatory to Retirement (LPR) is __________.

(a) 180 days

(b) 365 days

(c) 15 months

(d) 20 months

20. Maximum duration of LFP without medical certificate is ____________.

(a) 60 days

(b) 90 days

(c) 120 days

(d) 180 days

21. Maximum duration of Hajj Leave is ____________.

(a) 30 days

(b) 45 days

(c) 60 days

(d) 90 days

22. Out of 720 Disability Leaves (DL), only _______ leaves shall be granted with full pay while the remaining shall be with half pay.

(a) 120

(b) 180

(c) 240

(d) 365

23. In case of her husband’s death, a female civil servant can avail a Special Leave (Iddat Leave) for a maximum period of _________ days.

(a) 120

(b) 130

(c) 150

(d) 180

24. OBE stands for _____________.

(a) Outcome of Basic Education

(b) Outline of Basic Education

(c) Outcome Bound Education

(d) Outcome Based Education

25. How many Parent-Teacher Meetings (PTM) are scheduled in an Annual Academic Calendar (AC)?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

26. Infer, follow, interpret, summarize, cite and interpolate; these verbs represent ____________ level of Bloom's taxonomy.

(a) Knowledge

(b) Comprehension

(c) Application

(d) Synthesis

27. Defend, decide, measure, criticize, explain, compare and prioritize; these verbs represent ____________ level of Bloom's taxonomy.

(a) Comprehension

(b) Application

(c) Evaluation

(d) Synthesis

28. Which domain of learning is the most challenging to develop and measure?

(a) Cognitive

(b) Psychomotor

(c) Affective

(d) Knowledge

29. Psychomotor domain is related to the ____________.

(a) Evaluation of information

(b) Development of skills

(c) Behavioral management

(d) Understanding the facts

30. Cognitive Skills involve _______________.

(a) understanding, analysis, techniques

(b) knowledge, analysis, application

(c) knowledge, comprehension, thinking

(d) None of the above

31. Following are the principles of outcome-based education except ___________.

(a) Clarity of focus

(b) Expanded opportunity

(c) High expectations

(d) Delivery of instructions

32. The question “How would you prove that the earth is round or not?” is based on the ________ objective.

(a) Comprehension

(b) Evaluation

(c) Synthesis

(d) Application

33. Which word means a result or effect of an action or condition?

(a) Imposition

(b) Consequence

(c) Deadline

(d) Goal

34. Who introduced Covey’s Quadrants?

(a) Richard Covey

(b) Stephen Covey

(c) Edmund Covey

(d) John Covey

35. Which of the following is NOT an example of paralanguage in communication?

(a) Speaking slowly

(b) Gesture

(c) Sarcasm

(d) Intonation

36. _________ refers to talking speed, pitch, intonation and volume.

(a) Clarity

(b) Active listening

(c) Paralanguage

(d) Body language

37. The term ‘Metacognition’ was devised by American psychologist _____________.

(a) John H. Flavell

(b) B. F. Skinner

(c) Paul Ekman

(d) William James

38. If a retired officer cannot be contacted or fails to oblige despite repeated requests, who shall be authorized to write/countersign the PER of a government servant?

(a) Next officer lower in grade

(b) Next officer higher in grade

(c) Officer to be reported upon

(d) None of the above

39. The character roll of retired government servants should be maintained for a period of ________ years.

(a) 5

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 12

40. Two members of the college council from philanthropists/social workers/ industrialists etc. are selected for a period of _______ years.

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Five

41. OPS stands for __________.

(a) On Permanent Scale

(b) Own Pay Scale

(c) On Present Scale

(d) None of the above

42. PIFRA stands for ______________.

(a) Punjab Institute for Financial Reporting & Auditing

(b) Punjab Internal Finance Regulatory Authority

(c) Project to Improve Financial Reporting & Auditing

(d) Project of Internal Financial Reportage & Assessing

43. The required quorum for the meeting of college council is ___________.

(a) 40%

(b) 50%

(c) 60%

(d) 70%

44. To hold, control, use and administer the property and funds of a college fall under the powers of __________?

(a) Principal of the College

(b) Director of Education Colleges

(c) College Council

(d) Board of Senior Faculty Members

45. Principal of college can grant, except under special circumstances, maximum _______ casual leaves to a servant.

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 15

(d) 18

46. PEEDA Act was passed in ___________.

(a) October 2004

(b) October 2005

(c) October 2006

(d) October 2007

47. Maximum life of an ordinance is _________ unless it is passed by the assembly.

(a) 4 months

(b) 6 months

(c) 8 months

(d) 10 months

48. How many types of penalties/punishments are there under PEEDA Act?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

49. The documents which are used as documentary evidences in a court of law are of _______ types.

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

50. When two or more employees of different grades are to be proceeded against under PEEDA Act, the competent authority shall be ___________.

(a) In relation to senior most employee

(b) In relation to junior most employee

(c) Decided by Principal of College

(d) Decided by Director Colleges

51. Following are the major penalties under PEEDA Act except ___________.

(a) Removal from service

(b) Forfeiture of past service

(c) Recovery from pay or pension

(d) Reduction to a lower stage in pay scale

52. Smart Course Learning Outcomes (CLOs) are _______________.

(a) Specific

(b) Attainable

(c) Relevant

(d) All of the above

53. A person who tends to be more creative and artistic is said to be _____________.

(a) Left-brained

(b) Right-brained

(c) Center-brained

(d) None of the above

54. Procurement cycle starts from ______________.

(a) Advertisement

(b) Procurement Planning

(c) Contract Management

(d) Bidding

55. The application of ideas, knowledge and skills to achieve the desired results is called _____________.

(a) Critical Thinking

(b) Problem Solving

(c) Logical Reasoning

(d) Operant Conditioning

56. The term ‘Pedagogy’ comes from a Greek word ‘paidagōgos’ which means __________.

(a) A river which flowed throughout the year

(b) A person who taught in more than one school

(c) A slave who escorted children to school

(d) A giant building in which children of rich people were taught

57. An important change that happens when the usual way of thinking about or doing something is replaced by a new and different way is called _____________.

(a) Practical Change

(b) Paradigm Shift

(c) Cultural Change

(d) Tangible Application

58. Which Indian city is widely regarded as the ‘Silicone Valley of India’?

(a) Delhi

(b) Bengaluru

(c) Chennai

(d) Kolkata

59. Who was the minister of education at the time of Pakistan Educational Conference in 1947?

(a) Zafarullah Khan

(b) Liaqat Ali Khan

(c) Sardar Abdur Rab Nishtar

(d) Fazal-u-Rehman Malik

60. Literacy Rate of Pakistan in 2021 ranges from ___________.

(a) 45%

(b) 52%

(c) 62%

(d) 70%

>>> Find some more in the video below:

SET 2 - MCQs on PLT (Promotion Linked Training) of Lecturers, Instructors, Assistant Professors of Public Sector Colleges of the Punjab

2022-02-16T21:37:00.003+05:00

1. ________ is related with a decision to place a selected individual in one job than the other.

(a) Transfer

(b) Promotion

(c) Orientation

(d) Placement

2. ________ training involves training of existing employees to enable them to perform higher level jobs.

(a) Remedial Training

(b) Promotional Training

(c) Refresher Training

(d) Orientation Training

3. Following are the reasons for demotion except _____________.

(a) Inefficiency

(b) Indiscipline

(c) Error in Promotion

(d) Administrative Convenience

4. __________ is a project document describing project need, its description, justification, location, duration and cost etc.

(a) PC-I

(b) PC-II

(c) PC-III

(d) PC-IV

5. PC in ‘PC-I’ stands for ___________.

(a) Planning Concept

(b) Planning Commission

(c) Project Concept

(d) None of the above

6. Punjab Higher Education Commission (PHEC) was established in __________.

(a) 2012

(b) 2015

(c) 2017

(d) 2018

7. LMS stands for ___________.

(a) Learning & Monitoring System

(b) Learners Motivation System

(c) Learning Management System

(d) None of the above

8. CGPA stands for ___________.

(a) Cumulative Grade Point Average

(b) Cumulative Grade Point Aggregate

(c) Cumulative Grade Passing Average

(d) None of the above

9. A SWOT analysis includes ___________.

(a) strengths, wrongdoings, opportunities, threats

(b) strengths, weaknesses, organization, threats

(c) similarities, weaknesses, opportunities, tasks

(d) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats

10. What is mis-procurement?

(a) Any violation of PPRA Rules

(b) Purchase from a local seller

(c) Purchase from a foreign seller

(d) None of the above

11. Office of the ___________ is the Supreme Audit Institution (SAI) of Pakistan.

(a) National Accountability Bureau (NAB)

(b) Auditor General of Pakistan (AGP)

(c) Federal Finance Ministry (FFM)

(d) Public Accounts Committee (PAC)

12. The Punjab Civil Servant Act was passed in ___________.

(a) 1972

(b) 1974

(c) 1976

(d) 1978

13. Rules and Procedures in classroom _____________.

(a) Help students feel safe and organized

(b) Give purpose for activities

(c) Punish the students misbehaving in class

(d) Both a & b

14. A test meant for prediction on a certain criterion is called __________.

(a) Intelligence Test

(b) Aptitude Test

(c) Personality Test

(d) None of the above

15. Having an organized set of objectives helps teachers to ____________.

(a) plan and deliver appropriate instruction

(b) design valid assessment tasks and strategies

(c) ensure that instruction and assessment are aligned with the objectives

(d) All of the above

16. How many major domains are identified by Benjamin Bloom in his taxonomy?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

17. Identify the correct sequence of cognitive behavior in the taxonomy of educational objectives.

(a) Knowledge, Application, Understanding, Analysis, Synthesis

(b) Analysis, Synthesis, Knowledge, Application, Understanding

(c) Knowledge, Understanding, Application, Analysis, Synthesis

(d) Analysis, Synthesis, Knowledge, Understanding, Application

18. Which of the following types of questions is a sample of Evaluation?

(a) Why are you supporting his opinion?

(b) How is this machine better than that?

(c) Where did she drop her purse?

(d) Both a & b

19. Demonstrate, apply, articulate, show, solve, examine and classify; these verbs represent ____________ level of Bloom's taxonomy.

(a) Knowledge

(b) Comprehension

(c) Application

(d) Synthesis

20. If a student constructs a model to show how something works, he is _________.

(a) Evaluating

(b) Applying

(c) Synthesizing

(d) Comprehending

21. Evaluation is at the _______ level of the cognitive domains as per Bloom’s taxonomy.

(a) Third

(b) Fourth

(c) Fifth

(d) Sixth

22. In an OBE classroom, all activities are designed to ____________.

(a) maintain student comfort zones

(b) produce a busy classroom

(c) achieve specific goals

(d) maintain order

23. Which of the following is a good time management strategy?

(a) forgetting about deadlines

(b) never looking at a schedule or to-do list and just doing the tasks you remember

(c) thinking about the consequences of your actions when you prioritize your tasks

(d) keeping your phone next to you while you study

24. What are the 4 Ds of time management?

(a) Design, Delegate, Decide, Do

(b) Do, Drink, Defer, Delete

(c) Do, Delegate, Defer, Drop

(d) None of the above

25. Which word means to determine the order for dealing with a series of items or tasks according to their relative importance?

(a) Planner

(b) Prioritize

(c) Schedule

(d) Task

26. ___________ communication provides a record of information for reference.

(a) Visual

(b) Written

(c) Oral

(d) Non-verbal

27. In communication, a __________ connects the sender to the receiver.

(a) Channel

(b) Noice

(c) Feedback

(d) None of the above

28. ___________ is the most important trait of the character of a government servant.

(a) Integrity

(b) Professional Dress

(c) Goof Health

(d) Wisdom

29. DDO stands for ___________.

(a) Drafting and Disbursing Officer

(b) Drawing and Distribution Officer

(c) Distribution and Disbursing Officer

(d) Drawing and Disbursing Officer

30. If the adverse remarks are not communicated to the officer being reported upon, the adverse remarks contained therein should be __________ for promotion.

(a) considered

(b) ignored

(c) analyzed

(d) conveyed

31. Communication of adverse remarks on PER is not necessary in case of retired government servants.

(a) True

(b) False

32. The representation for expunction of adverse remarks on PERs can be made within ____________ of communication.

(a) 3 months

(b) 2 months

(c) 1 month

(d) 15 days

33. An examination and evaluation of a firm's or individual's financial records to uncover criminal behavior such as fraud or embezzlement is called __________.

(a) System based Audit

(b) Certification Audit

(c) Performance Audit

(d) Forensic Audit

34. The notification for formation of college council was issued by HEC in _________.

(a) 2005

(b) 2008

(c) 2010

(d) 2012

35. Minutes of the meeting of college council are recorded by __________.

(a) Head Clerk

(b) Representative of MPA

(c) Vice Principal

(d) Senior Member

36. How many lecturers can serve as member of college council?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

37. College Council is not authorized to __________ college property.

(a) repair

(b) alienate

(c) clean

(d) None of the above

38. OCAS stands for _____________.

(a) Online College Administration System

(b) Online College Admissions System

(c) Office of the College Admission Service

(d) None of the above

39. Approval of the college time table is given by __________.

(a) Time Table Incharge

(b) Principal

(c) Deputy Director Colleges

(d) Director Colleges

40. Total Casual Leaves allowed to a Civil Servant in a calendar year are __________.

(a) 24

(b) 25

(c) 30

(d) 36

41. PEEDA stands for ____________.

(a) Punjab Employees Efficacy Discipline and Answerability

(b) Punjab Employees Efficiency Discipline and Answerability

(c) Punjab Employees Efficiency Discipline and Accountability

(d) None of the above

42. Provision of medical certificate is necessary for the approval of maternity leave.

(a) True

(b) False

43. Duration of paternity leave for a male civil servant is ________ days and can only be granted _______ during the entire service.

(a) 7, once

(b) 10, once

(c) 7, twice

(d) 7, thrice

44. All are pillars of Natural Justice except ____________.

(a) No one can be condemned unheard

(b) No one can be a judge in his own case

(c) Intentions should not be misunderstood

(d) Action should not be mala fide

45. The competent authority for grade 16-18 is ____________.

(a) Deputy Director Colleges

(b) Director Colleges

(c) Secretary HED

(d) Chief Minister

46. Which of the following accused is not issued show cause notice before the initiation of inquiry?

(a) An employee who has been convicted under charges of corruption

(b) An employee who has been involved in subversive activities

(c) An employee who has plea-bargained under any law

(d) All of the above

47. The nomenclature of an employee serving in grade 16 is ___________.

(a) Civil Servant

(b) Officer

(c) Official

(d) None of the above

48. The terms ‘Probe’ and ‘Inquiry’ are synonymous.

(a) True

(b) False

49. How many witnesses are required in cases pertaining to financial matters?

(a) 4 Men or 2 Men and 3 Women

(b) 2 Men or 1 Man and 2 Women

(c) Only 1 Man

(d) 1 Man and 1 Woman

50. ‘Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus’. This Latin phrase in English is _______________.

(a) A lie is still a lie, even if everyone believes it.

(b) False against one person, false against other.

(c) False in one thing, false in everything.

(d) One lie can ruin a thousand truths.

51. Total minor penalties under PEEDA Act are ___________.

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

52. Final decision under PEEDA Act can be challenged within _________ days.

(a) 30

(b) 60

(c) 90

(d) 120

53. Which of the following should be used to decrease minor inappropriate behavior of students?

(a) Praise

(b) Reward

(c) Ignorance

(d) Strictness

54. A teacher is said to be effective if he ____________.

(a) Spends the whole period in his class

(b) Treats the students in a very polite way

(c) Provides a variety of learning experiences

(d) Explains every concept in his class

55. PPRA stands for ___________.

(a) Punjab Procurement Record Authority

(b) Punjab Procurement Registration Authority

(c) Punjab Planning Regulatory Authority

(d) Punjab Procurement Regulatory Authority

56. ‘Coursera’ is a worldwide online learning platform founded in ___________.

(a) 2010

(b) 2011

(c) 2012

(d) 2013

57. Arfa Software Technology Park is built in ___________.

(a) Islamabad

(b) Karachi

(c) Lahore

(d) Peshawar

58. Michael H. Hart is well known for his best-selling book ___________.

(a) How to Win Friends and Influence People

(b) The Hundred

(c) Muhammad (PBUH) the Greatest

(d) A History of God

59. 1st Pakistan Educational Conference was held in ____________.

(a) Karachi

(b) Lahore

(c) Islamabad

(d) Hyderabad

60. In Pakistan’s Annual Budget of 2020-21 Rs. ________ were allocated for education.

(a) 71.9 billion

(b) 91.9 billion

(c) 111.9 billion 121.9 billion

>>> Find some more in the video below:

SET 1 - MCQs on PLT (Promotion Linked Training) of Lecturers, Instructors, Assistant Professors of Public Sector Colleges of the Punjab

2022-02-11T22:52:00.008+05:00

1. ________ refers to shifting of employees to a higher position, carrying higher responsibilities, facilities, status and pay.

(a) Transfer

(b) Promotion

(c) Orientation

(d) Placement

2. ________ be defined as downgrading an employee by reducing his salary, decreasing his responsibility, authority and status.

(a) Transfer

(b) Retirement

(c) Demotion

(d) Selection

3. BS Program in _________ colleges of the Punjab was launched in __________.

(a) 26, 2010

(b) 26, 2014

(c) 22, 2018

(d) 26, 2020

4. A style of education in which students learn via electronic and online media as well as traditional face-to-face teaching is called ____________.

(a) Mixed Learning

(b) Joint Learning

(c) Blended Learning

(d) Flipped Learning

5. Minimum response time is ______ days for national competitive bidding and ______ days for international competitive bidding.

(a) 15, 45

(b) 30, 45

(c) 15, 30

(d) 30, 60

6. SOP stands for __________.

(a) Strict Operational Procedure

(b) Standard Operating Procedure

(c) Sudden Operating Process

(d) None of the above

7. PER stands for __________.

(a) Performance & Engagement Report

(b) Performance of Employee Report

(c) Performance Evaluation Report

(d) Performance Estimation Report

8. The PER cannot be initiated for the period of less than __________.

(a) 2 months

(b) 3 months

(c) 4 months

(d) 6 months

9. PERs should be completed within the month of ____________.

(a) November

(b) December

(c) January

(d) February

10. If an officer receives adverse remarks on PERs of two consecutive years from same RO, he shall be ______________.

(a) placed under observation

(b) placed under another Reporting Officer (RO)

(c) demoted from his current post

(d) transferred to another station

11. The expunging authority while expunging adverse remarks should ___________.

(a) give his / her own statement

(b) call the officer being reported upon

(c) expunge all entries

(d) None of the above

12. Who is the appointing authority of the Auditor General of Pakistan?

(a) Chief Justice of Pakistan

(b) Prime Minister of Pakistan

(c) President of Pakistan

(d) Chairman Senate of Pakistan

13. How is construction done in a government sector project?

(a) Through a contractor

(b) Through C&W Department

(c) Through P&D Department

(d) Through Finance Department

14. Under PPRA Rules, the date of opening of bids and the last date for the submission of bids shall be the same.

(a) True

(b) False

15. If a student comes late in the class, then the teacher should ____________.

(a) ignore the student

(b) ask the reason of being late

(c) immediately inform the principal

(d) inform the parents of the student

16. The quality of teaching is best reflected by ___________.

(a) Number of prizes won by students

(b) Attendance of students in class

(c) Silence in the class

(d) Meaningful questions by students

17. What are A&CS Rules?

(a) Appointment and Computer Science Rules

(b) Appointment and Conditions of Service Rules

(c) Appointment and Compulsory Service Rules

(d) Appointment and Cooperative Service Rules

18. Metacognition is __________.

(a) the realization of one’s own weaknesses

(b) the process of thinking about one's own thinking and learning

(c) To prioritize the daily tasks assigned to someone

(d) Both b & c

19. At the last stage of OBE, what is it that we are evaluating?

(a) Whether the learning outcomes were achieved.

(b) Whether the teacher taught well.

(c) Whether the students completed all the assignments.

(d) Whether the topics were covered.

20. The process of making judgment is called ___________.

(a) Budgeting

(b) Demonstration

(c) Evaluation

(d) Documentation

21. Which of the following is the best strategy for effectively planning out your time?

(a) Ignore all the unexpected work

(b) Delay any unnecessary work

(c) Prioritize all your tasks

(d) All of the above

22. How many seconds are there in 24 hours a day?

(a) 66400

(b) 76400

(c) 86400

(d) 96400

23. To spend your time productively, you need to have set some _________.

(a) Possibilities

(b) Ideas

(c) Boundaries

(d) Goals

24. All of the following are true about classroom management except ____________.

(a) Less management is needed when students are engaged and excited about learning.

(b) It is OK to ignore negative behaviours.

(c) Maintain the classroom rules but always be flexible and leave room for fun.

(d) Children should feel safe and respected in the classroom environment.

25. MIT stands for ____________.

(a) Michigan Institute of Technology

(b) Massachusetts Institute of Technology

(c) Mexican Institute of Technology

(d) None of the above

26. YouTube was launched in ___________.

(a) 2002

(b) 2005

(c) 2008

(d) 2010

27. Bloom’s taxonomy model was presented in ___________.

(a) 1952

(b) 1956

(c) 1963

(d) 1967

28. Bloom’s Taxonomy has ________ levels of expertise for knowledge-based goals.

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

29. Identify the correct sequence of behavior in Affective Domain of Bloom's taxonomy?

(a) Receive, Organize, Value, Internalize, Respond

(b) Respond, Internalize, Value, Organize, Value

(c) Receive, Respond, Value, Organize, Internalize

(d) Receive, Respond, Value, Organize, Internalize

30. What can you invent or design is a sample of ___________.

(a) Knowledge

(b) Comprehension

(c) Application

(d) Synthesis

31. The lowest level of cognitive achievement is __________.

(a) Application

(b) Evaluation

(c) Knowledge

(d) Comprehension

32. First, the students will make a prediction of what will happen in the story. Then the students must make a list of the main events in the story. Lastly, I will write a review of the story. What skills are being used?

(a) Application, Synthesis, and Evaluation

(b) Comprehension, Knowledge and Analysis

(c) Comprehension, Knowledge and Synthesis

(d) Evaluation, Knowledge and Synthesis

33. Correct synonym for the word ‘Procrastination’ is _________.

(a) Craze

(b) Delay

(c) Possibility

(d) Creation

34. A student can retain only _________ of what he learns by just hearing.

(a) 10 %

(b) 20 %

(c) 30 %

(d) 40 %

35. A person who gives maximum output with minimum input is said to be ________.

(a) Effective

(b) Efficient

(c) Confident

(d) Judicious

36. Our dress code is an example of ___________ communication.

(a) Verbal

(b) Non-verbal

(c) Visual

(d) Intrapersonal

37. Communication through ________ and ________ is called verbal communication.

(a) written material and gestures

(b) gestures and spoken words

(c) spoken words and written material

(d) body language and gestures

38. Monthly audit para recovery must not be more than ______ of the salary of a government servant.

(a) 50%

(b) 40%

(c) 33%

(d) 20%

39. Who holds the position of secretary in a college council?

(a) Principal

(b) Bursar

(c) Vice Principal

(d) Senior Most Faculty Member

40. Maximum members in a college council are __________.

(a) 15

(b) 16

(c) 17

(d) 18

41. Convener Discipline Committee is same as ____________.

(a) Incharge Security

(b) Chief Proctor

(c) Incharge Student Affairs

(d) None of the above

42. When a post of caretaker is not available in a college, the principal usually assigns this duty to any member of the faculty. In this case, the said designation would be __________.

(a) Purchase Officer

(b) Estate Officer

(c) Acting Caretaker

(d) Bursar

43. An independent assessment of an entity's operations to determine if specific programs or functions are working as intended to achieve stated goals is called ___________.

(a) System based Audit

(b) Certification Audit

(c) Performance Audit

(d) External Audit

44. Who constructed Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)?

(a) Skinner and Chomsky

(b) Benjamin Bloom

(c) Holmes and Rahe

(d) None of the above

45. Which article of the Constitution of Pakistan obligates the state to provide free and compulsory quality education to children of the age group 5 to 16 years?

(a) 87-C

(b) 35-A

(c) 25-A

(d) 12-B

46. The formal interrogation of a witness called by the other party in a court of law to challenge or extend testimony already given is called ___________.

(a) Cross Examination

(b) Moral Turpitude

(c) Judicial Inquiry

(d) None of the above

47. A female civil servant can get maternity leave for of __________.

(a) 60 days

(b) 90 days

(c) 120 days

(d) 150 days

48. A civil servant of non-vacation department earns _____ leaves in a calendar year.

(a) 24

(b) 36

(c) 48

(d) 60

49. Principal of college holds the appointing authority for ___________.

(a) Grade 1-3

(b) Grade 1-4

(c) Grade 1-5

(d) Grade 1-7

50. The accused is bound to submit his reply/response to show cause notice from the competent authority within ________ days.

(a) 5

(b) 7

(c) 10

(d) 15

51. E&D Rules are _______________.

(a) Employment & Discipline Rules

(b) Efficiency & Discipline Rules

(c) Efficiency & Disbursing Rules

(d) Employment & Disbursing Rules

52. Something clearly defined or identified is said to be __________.

(a) Expressive

(b) Comprehensive

(c) Illustrative

(d) Specific

53. Qanun-e-Shahadat Order was passed in __________.

(a) 1882

(b) 1983

(c) 1984

(d) 1985

54. Which section of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order states that the burden of proof lies on the plaintiff __________?

(a) 115

(b) 117

(c) 119

(d) 120

55. Total grounds for proceedings and penalties under PEEDA Act are ________.

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

56. Under PEEDA Act, the Inquiry Officer will submit his report to the competent authority within _________ days.

(a) 30

(b) 60

(c) 90

(d) 120

57. Under PEEDA Act, after receipt of the inquiry report, the competent authority will give its judgment within ________ days.

(a) 30

(b) 60

(c) 90

(d) 120

58. A Principal of grade 19 is inferior in rank to a Deputy Director of grade 18.

(a) True

(b) False

59. The book ‘Administrative Process’ was written by _________.

(a) Raymond Chambers

(b) Ken Silburn

(c) Stephen P. Robbins

(d) Benjamin Bloom

60. Scandinavia is a subregion in _________ Europe.

(a) Eastern

(b) Western

(c) Northern

(d) Southern

>>> Find some more in the video below:

Past Paper of Technical Writing and Presentation Skills (ENGL-2111) for BS Classes (Fall-2021) | KFUEIT Rahim Yar Khan | Govt. R. I. Graduate College Haroonabad

2022-01-25T20:14:00.015+05:00

TEXT:

Department: English

Program: All BS Programs

Exam: Fall 2021 End Semester Exam

University: Khawaja Fareed University of Engineering & Information Technology Rahim Yar Khan
Course Code: ENGL-2111
Course Title:Technical Writing and Presentation Skills
Total Marks: 50
Time Allowed: 135 Minutes

OBJECTIVE

Part I (Multiple Choice Questions) (10 x 1 = 10)

1. In order to achieve clarity in writing, avoid using _____________.
(A) understandable words

(B) adjective & adverbs

(D) idiom & phrases

2. What is a ‘clincher sentence’ in a paragraph?
(A) a sentence that opens the paragraph

(B) a sentence that connects the claim
(C) a sentence that settles the argument

(D) a sentence that triggers the argument

3. Which of these must be avoided in technical writing?
(A) basic facts

(B) grammar

(D) punctuation

4. Grammar is the ___________ analysis of writing.
(A) practical

(B) conceptual

(D) abstract

5. In ____________ format the text is left aligned and single spaced.
(A) Italic

(B) Block

(D) Aligned

6. The reader can locate __________ for further information if required.
(A) references

(B) body paragraph

(D) thesis statement

7. Which of these is not important in an oral presentation?
(A) words

(B) body language

(D) dressing

8. Which of the following is a requirement that a presenter should know to prepare effectively for a presentation?
(A) available attire

(B) number of bullet points allowed per slide
(C) duration of the presentation

(D) foods the presenter can eat during the presentation

9. Planning, thinking, making a list of random ideas and mind mapping can be called ____________.
(A) structuring

(B) brainstorming

(D) organization

10. Which of these can be used to break the monotony in a speech?
(A) humour

(B) constant tone

(D) sad story

______________________________________________

SUBJECTIVE

Part II (Short Questions) (5 x 2 = 10)

1. What is Capitalization in English punctuation? (2)
2. What is a covering letter? (2)
3. What are the three basics of a presentation? (2)
4. What is the difference between dissertation and thesis? (2)
5. What preparations should be made before starting to write a technical report? (2)

Part III (Long Questions) (10 x 3 = 30)

1. Discuss the structure of a technical report in detail. (10)
2. Enlist some important tips to grab and hold the attention of the audience throughout a presentation. (10)

3. Explain the following with appropriate examples. (5 + 5 = 10)
(i) The formal style of writing
(ii) The connector style of presentation

______________________________________________

IMAGES:

Past Paper of Communication Skills (ENGL-1119) for BS Classes (Spring-2021) | KFUEIT Rahim Yar Khan | Govt. R. I. Graduate College Haroonabad

2022-01-24T21:33:00.007+05:00

TEXT:

Department: English
Program: All BS Programs
Exam: Fall 2021 End Semester Exam
University: Khawaja Fareed University of Engineering & Information Technology Rahim Yar Khan
Course Code: ENGL-2111
Course Title:Technical Writing and Presentation Skills
Total Marks: 50
Time Allowed: 135 Minutes

OBJECTIVE

Part I (Multiple Choice Questions) (10 x 1 = 10)

1. The primary goal of communication is_____________
a. To create barriers

b. to create noises

c. to effect a change

d. to entertain

2. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is ___________.
a. noise

b. audience

c. feedback

d. transmission

3. Reading is a _____________ process.
a. encoding

b. decoding

c. transmission

d. response giving

4. Which style is used for reading of textbooks?
a. speed reading

b. intensive reading

c. extensive reading

d. passive reading

5. __________ means linking words and phrases together so that the whole text is clear and readable.
a. cohesion

b. junction

c. plagiarism

d. haptic

6. The language of the report should be __________.
a. formal

b. informal

c. emotional

d. casual

7. ________is sent to specific group of people whereas _______may be meant for general public.
a. Notice, Memo

b. Memo, Circular

c. Notice, Circular

d. Circular, Notice

8. The semantic markers used to express time relationship are ____________.
a. next, after

b. after, consequently

c. hence, to summarize

d. all of these

9. Translation from one language to another is called ______________ translation.
a. intralingual

b. intersemiotic

c. pronunciation

d. interlingual

10. Which punctuation mark is used to express strong feelings?
a. backslash

b. quotation mark

c. exclamation mark

d. hyphen

______________________________________________

SUBJECTIVE

Q. No. 2. Write short answers of the following questions (3-5 lines). (4 x 2 = 8)

i. What role do facial expressions, gestures and pauses play in communication?
ii. What is the difference between a CV and a Resume?
iii. Write a short note on Descriptive Essays.
iv. Punctuate the following line: alas george said we ve lost the match

Q. No. 3. Suppose a meeting was held in the National Command & Operation Centre (NCOC) under
the supervision of Prime Minister of Pakistan about the recent wave of Corona Pandemic. You are to write the minutes of that meeting in a proper format clearly mentioning the time, attendees, agenda items, discussion, action plan etc. (10)

Q. No. 4. Describe the difference between Intensive & Extensive Reading. (5)

Q. No. 5. Write a short paragraph (150-200 words) on ‘Child Labour’. (5)

Q. No. 6. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions at the end. (12)

The world is very full of people, appallingly full; it has never been so full before, and they are all tumbling over each other. Most of these people one does not know and some of them one does not like; does not like the color of their skin, or the shapes of their noses, or the way they blow them or do not blow them, the way they talk, or their smell, or their clothes, or their fondness for jazz, and so on. Well, what is one to do? There are two solutions. One of them is the Nazi solution. If you do not like people, kill them, banish them, segregate them and then strut up and down proclaiming that you are the salt of the earth. The other way is much less thrilling, but is on the whole the way of democracies, and I prefer it. If you do not like people, put up with them as well as you can. Do not try to love them, you cannot, you will only strain yourself. But try to tolerate them. On the basis of that tolerance a civilized future may be built.

1. Why do the most of people not know others? (2)
2. What are the two solutions mentioned in this passage? (2)
3. What would be the result if we try to love everybody? (2)
4. What do you understand by tolerance? (2)
5. Make a précis of this passage. (4)

______________________________________________

IMAGES:

SET 1 - MCQs on Functional English with Answers | Functional English Solved MCQs

2022-01-24T20:14:00.010+05:00

1. ‘Herself’ is a ___________ pronoun.

(a) Possessive

(b) Distributive

(d) Reflexive

2. He _________ work very hard because he has an exam next month.

(a) can

(b) has to

(d) will have

3. ‘You can wait here until they call you.’ What type of sentence is this?

(a) Simple

(b) Compound

(c) Complex

(d) Optative

4. It is Amjad not the other boys who _______ reading the story.

(a) are

(b) is

(d) were

5. If you ignore my instructions, this plan ________ work.

(a) might not

(b) will not

(d) could not

6. When two singular subjects are connected by ‘or’, you should use ___________.

(a) a singular verb

(b) a linking verb

(d) a plural verb

7. Hadia and Hania went shopping, but ______ couldn’t find anything ______ wanted.

(a) they, those

(b) they, them

(d) they, they

8. ‘If you continue to practise, your English will get ______’. Use the correct adjective.

(a) good

(b) best

(c) better

(d) more good

9. ‘I fully understand your problems.’ The word ‘fully’ in this sentence is a/an ________.

(a) Pronoun

(b) Adjective

(c) Adverb

(d) Conjunction

10. ‘Her brother helped her when she was in danger.’ Identify the highlighted clause in this sentence.

(a) Noun Clause

(b) Adjective Clause

(c) Adverb Clause

(d) None of These

11. ‘The chair __________ is mine.’ Fill in the blank with an adjective clause.

(a) with a broken leg

(b) which has a broken leg

(d) with a broke leg

12. ‘I _______ English yesterday.’ Complete the sentence with the appropriate verb.

(a) studied

(b) have studied

(d) had studied

13. ‘You _____ sick if you don’t maintain a balanced diet.’ Complete the sentence with the correct option.

(a) feel

(b) will feel

(d) would feel

14. Choose the correct Present Perfect question.

(a) Have you ever been in Karachi?

(b) Have you being in Karachi?

(d) Have I being in Karachi?

15. Which sentence is correct?

(a) He should called his friend.

(b) He should be called his friend.

(c) He should have called his friend.

(d) His friend should have been called him.

16. The bike _______ I bought last month has been stolen.

(a) that

(b) which

(d) whose

17. Superlative adjectives are used when talking about _______ things, people or groups.

(a) one

(b) two

(d) three or more

18. This is ___________ movie I've ever watched.

(a) the most scary

(b) the most scariest

(d) the scariest

19. Choose the correct Past Indefinite questions.

(a) Why had you broken the glass of the door?

(b) Why you broke the glass of the door?

(d) Why did you break the glass of the door?

20. ‘I never buy groceries at supermarket.’ The word ‘never’ in this sentence is a/an ________.

(a) Pronoun

(b) Adjective

(d) Adverb

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Set 2 of MCQs on Functional English

صرف پانچ سیکنڈز

2021-10-31T18:36:00.015+05:00

یوٹیوب نے مجھے خوش رہنے کا ایک سادہ سا فارمولا سکھایا ہے۔ سوچا آپ کے ساتھ بھی شئیر کر دوں۔

جب ہم یوٹیوب پر کوئی بہت ہی دلچسپ اور معلوماتی وڈیو دیکھ رہے ہوتے ہیں تو اچانک ایک ایڈ آ جاتا ہے۔ ہم صرف پانچ سیکنڈز تک انتظار کرتے ہیں۔ جونہی skip ad والا بٹن آتا ہے، ہم اس پر کلک کرتے ہیں اور آگے بڑھ جاتے ہیں۔ بعض اوقات تو ہمیں اس ایڈ کو سکپ کرنے کی اتنی جلدی ہوتی ہے کہ یہ بھی پتہ نہیں چلتا کہ وہ ایڈ کس چیز کا تھا۔ یعنی ہمارا سارا فوکس اور توجہ اس وڈیو کی طرف ہی ہوتی ہے جسے ہم دیکھ رہے ہوتے ہیں۔

یہ بڑی زبردست بات ہے۔ ہمارے ساتھ رئیل لائف میں بھی ایسے ہی ہوتا ہے۔ ہماری زندگی کی کہانی بھی کچھ ایسے ہی چلتی ہے، بہت مزہ آ رہا ہوتا ہے، سب کچھ ٹھیک ٹھاک چل رہا ہوتا ہے۔ اسی دوران کچھ لوگ ads کی صورت میں ہمارے دل و دماغ میں دخل اندازی شروع کر دیتے ہیں۔ زندگی جیسے رک سی جاتی ہے۔ سارا موشن ٹوٹ جاتا ہے۔ ہمارا فوکس خراب ہو جاتا ہے۔ ہم اپنے مقصد سے ہٹ جاتے ہیں۔ اصل وڈیو کو چھوڑ کر اس ایڈ کو دیکھنا شروع کر دیتے ہیں۔ ان کی باتوں کو کچھ زیادہ ہی سیریس لے جاتے ہیں۔ حالانکہ یہ لوگ اپنی بے مقصد گفتگو اور لایعنی خیالات کی وجہ سے صرف اور صرف ہماری توانائی اور وقت برباد کر رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ یہ خود تو عملی طور پر صفر بٹا صفر ہوتے ہیں اور دوسروں کو بھی آگے بڑھنے سے روکتے ہیں۔ اس لئے روڑے اٹکاتے ہیں۔ بار بار ads کی طرح interrupt کرتے ہیں۔

لیکن پانچ سیکنڈز، صرف پانچ سیکنڈز کے بعد skip ad والا بٹن آپ کے سامنے ہوتا ہے۔ آپ بس یہ کیجئے کہ یوٹیوب کی طرح اپنی زندگی میں بھی اس بٹن کا زیادہ سے زیادہ استعمال کیجئے۔ جونہی کوئی شخص آپ پر یا آپ کے مقصد پر اثر انداز ہونے کی کوشش کرے تو فوراً اس بٹن پر کلک مارئیے۔ ایسے لوگوں کو اپنے راستے سے ہٹائیے۔ انہیں اپنے دل و دماغ سے خارج کیجئے، اپنے مقصد پر فوکس کیجئے اور وقت ضائع کرنے والی ہر چیز چاہے وہ کوئی ایڈ ہو یا کوئی انسان، اسے پانچ سیکنڈز سے زیادہ نہ دیجئے۔ یقین مانئے یہ خوشی کے ساتھ ساتھ کامیابی کا بھی راز ہے۔

(شعیب اصغر)

Defensive Mode (ڈیفینسو موڈ)

2021-10-31T18:32:00.006+05:00

فرانسیسی لکھاری موپساں کی ایک مشہور زمانہ کہانی ہے جس کا عنوان ہے "رسی کی ٹکڑا". ہیوبرٹ نامی شخص پر جب چوری کا جھوٹا الزام لگتا ہے تو وہ پولیس کے سامنے اس الزام کو رد کر دیتا ہے۔ پولیس اسے چھوڑ دیتی ہے۔ وہ چونکہ ایک غریب شخص ہوتا ہے اسے لگتا ہے کہ لوگ اسے اب بھی چور ہی سمجھ رہے ہوں گے۔ اس لئے وہ ہر شخص کو اپنی صفائی دیتا ہے۔ بار بار اپنے بے گناہ ہونے کا اعلان کرتا ہے۔ کوئی نہ بھی پوچھے تو بھی اسے بتاتا ہے کہ میرے اوپر جھوٹا الزام لگایا گیا ہے۔ راہ چلتے لوگوں کو روک روک کر اپنی خالی جیبیں دکھاتا ہے۔ حلف اٹھاتا ہے۔ اپنے صاف شفاف ماضی کے حوالے دیتا ہے۔ قسمیں کھاتا ہے کہ میں نے چوری نہیں کی۔ اس کی انہی غیر ضروری صفائیوں اور وضاحتوں کا نتیجہ یہ نکلتا ہے کہ جو کوئی اسے معصوم سمجھتا تھا، اب وہ بھی اس پر شک کرنے لگتا ہے۔ لوگ اس کا سوشل بائیکاٹ کر دیتے ہیں۔ شدید ذہنی دباؤ کی وجہ سے وہ بیمار ہو جاتا ہے اور بالآخر بستر مرگ پر بے یار و مددگار پڑا اپنی جان دے دیتا ہے۔

یہ کہانی ہمارے معاشرے پر بالکل صادق آتی ہے۔ ہم بھی اجتماعی طور پر مسٹر ہیوبرٹ ہی کی طرح Defensive Mode پہ لگے ہوئے ہیں۔ یہاں کوئی بھی ناخوشگوار واقعہ ہو جائے ہمیں فوراً لگنا شروع ہو جاتا ہے کہ ہمارے خلاف کوئی پروپیگنڈہ ہو رہا ہے۔ کوئی ہمیں پھنسانے کی کوشش کر رہا ہے۔ یہ پاکستان کو، اسلام کو یا مسلمانوں کو بدنام کرنے کی کوئی سازش ہے۔ اس لئے ہم فوراً میدان میں اتر آتے ہیں اور طرح طرح کی صفائیاں اور وضاحتیں دے کر معاشرے کے ماتھے پر لگے اس داغ کو صاف کرنے کی کوشش کرتے ہیں۔ حالانکہ یہ ضروری نہیں ہوتا۔ دنیا کا کوئی بھی معاشرہ برائی سے پاک نہیں ہوتا۔ ایک نارمل معاشرے میں رہنے والے لوگ برائی کے وجود کو تسلیم کر لیتے ہیں۔ اس کے بعد اس کا مطالعہ کرتے ہیں، پھر اس کے اسباب و تدارک کے بارے میں سوچتے ہیں، جبکہ ایک ابنارمل معاشرے میں لوگ ہر وقت اپنی پوزیشن کلئیر کرنے کی فکر میں رہتے ہے۔ وہ اچھا بننے سے زیادہ اچھا نظر آنے کی کوشش کرتے ہیں۔ ان معاشروں میں منافقت اور دوغلا پن بہت زیادہ ہوتا ہے. ہمارے معاشرے میں ہونے والا ہر بدترین عمل ہمیں اپنے خلاف سازش لگتا ہے اور اس عمل کی مذمت کرنے کی بجائے ہماری تمام تر کوشش یہی ہوتی ہے کہ کسی طرح خود کو کلین چٹ دے دی جائے۔ ہمارے ملک پر یا ہم مسلمانوں پر کوئی حرف نہ آ جائے۔ جو برا ہوا ہے اس پر بات کرنے کی بجائے جو اچھا ہوتا ہے اس کو اجاگر کرنا شروع کر دیتے ہیں۔ ہیوبرٹ کی طرح ہر کسی کو خالی جیبیں دکھانے اور اپنے صاف شفاف ماضی کی مثالیں دینے لگتے ہیں۔ حالانکہ برائی کی کوئی صفائی نہیں ہوتی اور اچھائی خود اپنا اشتہار ہوتی ہے۔

اس لئے میرے عزیز ہم وطنو! بہت زیادہ Defensive رہنے کی بجائے تھوڑا سا Creative ہو کر سوچنا شروع کر دیں۔ برائی چاہے ہمارے اپنے لوگوں میں ہی کیوں نہ ہو، تھوڑا دل بڑا کر کے اس کے وجود کو تسلیم کر لیا کریں۔ خوامخواہ کی غیر ضروری صفائیوں اور پردے داریوں سے گریز کیا کریں۔ انسانوں کی انفرادی برائیوں کی پردہ پوشی کا حکم ہے۔ جبکہ اجتماعی گناہ اور خرابیوں کو اجاگر کرنے والے اور ان پر بحث و تنقید کرنے والے معاشرے ہی آگے بڑھتے ہیں۔ نرگسیت اور تفاخر کا احساس خود احتسابی کے راستے میں سب سے بڑی رکاوٹ ہوتا ہے۔ آپ مان لیا کریں کہ ہماری قوم کے اندر یہ یہ خامیاں ہیں۔ ہم انہیں دور کرنے کی کوشش کر رہے ہیں۔ جب تک اپنی خرابیوں کو مانیں گے نہیں، انہیں دور کیسے کریں گے؟ اس مائنڈ سیٹ کے ساتھ تو ہم اگلے دس ہزار سال بھی یہیں کھڑے رہیں گے۔

اور آخری بات یہ کہ اللّٰہ تعالیٰ کے فضل و کرم سے نہ تو اس ملک کو کوئی خطرہ ہے اور نہ ہی ہمارے دین کو۔ آپ ان کے خلاف ہونے والی سازشوں کی فکر نہ کیا کریں۔ دشمن کا تو کام ہی سازشیں کرنا ہوتا ہے۔ اور ویسے بھی سازشیں اتنی ہوتی نہیں ہیں جتنی ہم سمجھ رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ ہمارے دشمنوں کے پاس کرنے کے لئے اور بھی بہت سے کام ہیں۔ وہ ہماری طرح فارغ تھوڑی ہیں؟ آپ بس غیر ضروری لفاظی کی بجائے اپنے کردار کو مضبوط بنائیں۔ ناقابل تسخیر بنائیں۔ یہ ملک بھی ہمیشہ رہے گا اور اسلام کو بھی تاقیامت کوئی طاقت مٹا نہیں سکتی۔ ان دونوں کو اگر کوئی خطرہ ہے تو وہ صرف اور صرف ہمارے اپنے کردار سے ہے۔ اور بلاشبہ کردار کی طاقت گفتار کی طاقت سے ہزاروں گنا زیادہ ہوتی ہے۔

(شعیب اصغر)

15 Interesting Facts about Literature

2021-05-15T18:58:00.000+05:00

10 Popular Portmanteau / Blend Words in English

2021-05-15T18:40:00.004+05:00

ذرا ‏بولئے ‏

2021-04-13T19:54:00.004+05:00

ہمارے معاشرے میں جب بھی کچھ برا اور غلط ہوتا ہے تو ایسے موقع پر عام طور چار اقسام کے لوگ سامنے آتے ہیں۔

1. ایک تو وہ ہوتے ہیں جو اس غلط کو غلط ماننے کے لئے تیار ہی نہیں ہوتے۔ یہ اپنے سیاسی اور مسلکی تعصبات کا شکار اور ایک دائرے کی سوچ کے مالک ہوتے ہیں۔ ان کی زندگی میں جذبات اور نرگسیت کا کردار زیادہ ہوتا ہے۔ یہ اپنے نظریے کے ساتھ وفادار ہوتے ہیں (چاہے وہ غلط ہی کیوں نہ ہو)۔ اور اس کو صحیح اور باقی سب کو غلط ثابت کرنے کے لئے سر دھڑ کی بازی لگا دیتے ہیں۔ ایسا کرتے ہوئے بعض اوقات مخلوق خدا کے حقوق کو بھی پامال کر جاتے ہیں۔

2. دوسری قسم کے لوگ وہ ہوتے ہیں جن کی گفتگو کا آغاز ہی 'اگر، مگر، چونکہ، چنانچہ اور لیکن' سے ہوتا ہے۔ یہ ایک برائی کو صحیح ثابت کرنے کے لئے ویسی ہی ایک اور برائی کو دلیل کے طور پر لے آتے ہیں۔ ان کی گفتگو اکثر اس نوعیت کی ہوتی ہے۔

"یہ درست ہے کیونکہ فلاں نے بھی ایسے کیا تھا اور یہ غلط ہے لہذا یہ ٹھیک نہیں اگر فلاں نے یوں کیا تھا مگر یہ غلط ہے اور یہ ٹھیک نہیں لیکن غلط بھی نہیں ہے۔ اگر یہ اتنا ٹھیک ہے لیکن اتنا غلط بھی ہے۔"

یہ اپنی مضحکہ خیز باتوں سے سب کو خوش رکھنا چاہ رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ ان کا پتہ ہی نہیں چلتا کہ یہ کس طرف ہیں۔ یہ گوشت کھاتے ہیں یا سبزی۔ یہ خون پینا پسند کرتے ہیں یا خون دینا۔

3. تیسری قسم کے لوگ وہ ہوتے جو "صم، بکم، عم" کی تصویر ہوتے ہیں۔ غیر جانبدار رہنا ان کا محبوب مشغلہ ہوتا ہے۔ معاشرے میں ظلم و انتشار جتنا مرضی بڑھ جائے ان کی زبان نہیں رینگتی۔ یہ احساس کمتری اور خوف و دہشت میں مبتلا ہوتے ہیں اور غیر جانبدار رہ کر خود کو محفوظ تصور کر رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ یہ اصل میں تماش بین مزاج کے حامل ہوتے ہیں۔ سب کچھ دیکھ تو رہے ہوتے ہیں لیکن سوچنے اور بولنے کو ایک کار لاحاصل سمجھتے ہیں۔

4. چوتھی اور آخری قسم میں وہ لوگ شامل ہیں۔ جو پہلی قسم کے لوگوں کی طرح اپنے نظریات میں بالکل واضح ہوتے ہیں۔ انہیں بھی جو جیسا لگتا ہے اس کا برملا اظہار کرتے ہیں۔ لیکن یہ جذبات کی بجائے عقل و شعور کو مقدم رکھتے ہیں۔ یہ غلط کو غلط اور درست کو درست کہنے کی صلاحیت رکھتے ہیں۔ یہ زمینی حقائق اور اپنی کمزوریوں سے آگاہ ہوتے ہیں۔ نرگسیت کو ناپسند کرتے ہیں۔ منطقی انداز میں سوچتے ہیں۔ ہر حال میں انسانی حقوق کا احترام کرتے ہیں۔ اور معاشرے میں امن و آشتی اور ارتقائی عمل کی حمایت کرتے ہیں۔

میرے خیال میں ان چار اقسام میں سب سے زیادہ خطرناک دوسری قسم کے لوگ ہوتے ہیں۔ کیونکہ ان کی پوزیشن واضح نہیں ہوتی۔ یہ چمگاڈر کی طری کبھی پرندوں میں جا کے بیٹھ جاتے ہیں اور کبھی چوپایوں کو اپنی حمایت کا یقین دلا رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ غالباً انہی کے بارے میں کسی نے کہا تھا،

- اور پروہنا پکھا رہندا، جیہڑا دو گھراں دا سانجھا

اکو پاسا رکھ لے ہیرے، یا کھیڑے یا رانجھا

ان کی منافقت اور گومگو کی پالیسی اصل میں برائی کو ہی تقویت پہنچا رہی ہوتی ہے۔

تیسری قسم کے لوگ بیچارے ویسے ہی اللّٰہ میاں کے گائیں ہوتے ہیں۔ یہ بے حد معصوم اور بے ضرر ہوتے ہیں۔ ان سے گھبرانے کی ضرورت نہیں۔ یہ محض تاریخ کا کچرا ہوتے ہیں۔ انسان کے شعوری ارتقاء میں ان کا حصہ زیرو پرسینٹ ہوتا ہے۔ یہ محض کھانا ڈالنے اور نکالنے والی مشین ہوتے ہیں۔

آپ کو میرا یہ مشورہ ہے کہ جتنا جلدی ممکن ہو سکے آپ پہلی یا چوتھی قسم کے لوگوں میں شامل ہو جائیے۔ اپنی سوچ کو واضح کیجئے۔ صاف صاف بات کیجئے۔ اس وقت ہمارے معاشرے کو بولنے والوں سے زیادہ نقصان خاموش رہنے والے اور اگر مگر چونکہ چنانچہ والوں کی وجہ سے بھگتنا پڑ رہا ہے۔ کہیں ہم نبی صلی اللّٰہ علیہ وآلہ وسلّم کی حرمت کے نام پر نبی کے دین کو نقصان تو نہیں پہنچا رہے۔ ان کے نام پر ہونے والے ظلم اور فساد پر خاموشی بھی ان کی توہین ہی کے مترادف ہے۔ مخلوق خدا کو تکلیف دے کر کہیں خدا کو ہی ناراض نہ کر بیٹھیں۔ میرے نبی صلی اللّٰہ علیہ وآلہ وسلّم کا دین رحمت کا دین ہے۔ اس کی نمائندگی شرپسند ہاتھوں سے چھین لیجئے۔ لہذا بولئے، کچھ بھی بولئے، اب نہیں بولو گے تو آپ کی نسلیں اس ملک میں پیدا ہونے پر پچھتائیں گی۔

(شعیب اصغر)

15 Common Reductions in English Language

2021-03-15T18:59:00.002+05:00

بدہضمی اور اپھارے کا علاج

2021-03-15T18:58:00.001+05:00

ہمارے عجیب و غریب معاشرتی رویوں میں سے ایک یہ بھی ہے کہ جب ہمیں زندگی میں اپنے ظرف یا توقع سے بڑھ کر کچھ مل جاتا ہے تو ہم فوراً بدہضمی کا شکار ہو جاتے ہیں۔

دو چار کتابیں پڑھ لینے کے بعد پوری دنیا جاہل اور گنوار لگنے لگتی ہے۔

کہیں سے آٹھ دس لاکھ ہاتھ آ جائیں تو باڈی لینگویج کروڑ پتیوں والی ہو جاتی ہے۔

پانچویں سکیل کے اختیارات مل جائیں تو ہمارے رویے بیسویں سکیل کے افسروں کو بھی پیچھے چھوڑنے لگتے ہیں۔

جس نے کبھی زندگی میں عید کی نماز بھی نہ پڑھی ہو، لیکن اگر کبھی مسجد چلا جائے تو واپسی پر راستے میں ملنے والا ہر شخص کافر اور جہنمی لگنے لگتا ہے۔

پندرہ گیندیں ضائع کرنے والے بیٹسمین سے اگر خدانخواستہ سولہویں گیند پہ چھکا لگ جائے تو وہ دوسرے اینڈ پہ کھڑے کھلاڑی کو سمجھانے پہنچ جاتا ہے کہ بیٹنگ کیسے کرتے ہیں۔

یعنی بدہضمی اور اپھارا ہمارے قومی امراض میں شامل ہے۔ لیکن آپ پریشان نہ ہوں۔ خوش قسمتی سے اس کا علاج موجود ہے۔

صبح سویرے نہار منہ دو گولیاں حیرت و استعجاب کی کھائیے اور اپنے بچوں کو بھی حیران ہونا سکھائیے۔

دوپہر کے کھانے کے بعد تین چمچ معصومیت کا سیرپ خود بھی پیجئے اور اپنے گھر والوں کو بھی پلائیے۔

اور رات کو نیم گرم دودھ کے ساتھ دو کیپسول لاعلمی کے لیجئے۔ یہ تسلیم کیجئے کہ آپ عقل کل نہیں ہیں۔

جن تجربات سے دوسرے لوگ گزرے ہیں ان سے آپ نہیں گزرے۔ اس لئے آپ ان سے مختلف ہیں اور وہ آپ سے۔

اپنے تجربات دوسروں پر مسلط مت کیجئے۔ دوسروں سے منفرد ہونے کا احساس ایک خوبصورت چیز ہے لیکن اس احساس کو خودپسندی اور تکبر کے کیڑے سے بچائیے۔ اور مذکورہ بالا دوا کا باقاعدگی سے استعمال کیجئے۔ انشاء اللّٰہ افاقہ ہو گا۔

شکریہ

(شعیب اصغر)

15 Commonly Used Slang Words in English

2021-03-08T22:05:00.017+05:00

Perfect Tenses ‎| ‏Present, ‏Past ‎& ‏Future Perfect Tense ‎ | ‏زمانہ ‏ماضی، ‏حال ‏اور ‏مستقبل ‏میں ‏فعل ‏مکمل ‏کی ‏پہچان، ‏بناوٹ ‏اور ‏مشق

2021-01-10T23:02:00.002+05:00

کام کی چار حالتوں میں سے ایک کو پرفیکٹ حالت کہا جاتا ہے۔ یہاں پر پرفیکٹ کا مطلب ہے مکمل یعنی کمپلیٹ۔ وہ فقرات جن میں کوئی بھی کام اپنی مکمل حالت میں ہوتا ہے ان کو Perfect Sentences کہا جاتا ہے۔ کام کے مکمل ہونے کا مطلب یہ ہے کہ وہ کام اب نہیں ہو رہا بلکہ اس کام کو کرنے والا فاعل اب فارغ ہو چکا ہے یا وہ کسی اور کام کو کرنے میں مصروف ہے۔ جس کام کا فقرے میں ذکر ہے وہ کام اپنی پرفیکٹ حالت کو پہنچ چکا ہے۔

اردو میں پہچان (Recognition):

فعل حال مکمل (Present Perfect Tense): فقرے کے آخر میں "چکا ہے، چکی ہے، چکے ہیں، چکے ہو، چکا ہوں" وغیرہ آتے ہیں۔ جیسے کہ

وہ کرکٹ کھیل چکا ہے۔

طاہر کرکٹ کھیل چکا ہے۔

وہ کرکٹ کھیل چکی ہے۔

میں کرکٹ کھیل چکا ہوں۔

لڑکے کرکٹ کھیل چکے ہیں۔

تم کرکٹ کھیل چکے ہو۔

وہ کرکٹ کھیل چکے ہیں۔

ہم کرکٹ کھیل چکے ہیں۔

بعض اوقات فقرے کے آخر میں "لیا ہے، لی ہے، دیا ہے" وغیرہ کے الفاظ آ رہے ہوں تو وہ بھی کام کے مکمل ہونے کی طرف اشارہ کر رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ جیسے کہ

اس نے کرکٹ کھیل لی ہے۔

طاہر نے اپنا ہوم ورک کر لیا ہے۔

امجد نے میرا مسئلہ حل کر دیا ہے۔

فعل ماضی مکمل (Past Perfect Tense): فقرے کے آخر میں "چکا تھا، چکی تھی، چکے تھے" وغیرہ آتے ہیں۔ جیسے کہ

وہ پودوں کو پانی دے چکا تھا۔

طاہر پودوں کو پانی دے چکا تھا۔

وہ پودوں کو پانی دے چکی تھی۔

میں پودوں کو پانی دے چکا تھا۔

لڑکے پودوں کو پانی دے چکے تھے۔

تم پودوں کو پانی دے چکے تھے۔

وہ پودوں کو پانی دے چکے تھے۔

ہم پودوں کو پانی دے چکے تھے۔

بعض اوقات فقرے کے آخر میں "لیا تھا، لی تھی، دیا تھا" وغیرہ کے الفاظ آ رہے ہوں تو وہ بھی کام کے مکمل ہونے کی طرف اشارہ کر رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ جیسے کہ
اس نے کرکٹ کھیل لی تھی۔
طاہر نے اپنا ہوم ورک کر لیا تھا۔
امجد نے میرا مسئلہ حل کر دیا تھا۔

فعل مستقبل مکمل (Future Perfect Tense): فقرے کے آخر میں "چکا ہوگا، چکی ہو گی، چکے ہوں گے، چکا ہوں گا" وغیرہ آتے ہیں۔ جیسے کہ

وہ ایک فلم دیکھ چکا ہو گا۔

طاہر ایک فلم دیکھ چکا ہو گا۔

وہ ایک فلم دیکھ چکی ہو گی۔

میں ایک فلم دیکھ چکا ہوں گا۔

لڑکے ایک فلم دیکھ چکے ہوں گے۔

تم ایک فلم دیکھ چکے ہو گے۔

وہ ایک فلم دیکھ چکے ہوں گے۔

ہم ایک فلم دیکھ چکے ہوں گے۔

بعض اوقات فقرے کے آخر میں "لیا ہو گا، لی ہو گی، دیا ہو گا" وغیرہ کے الفاظ آ رہے ہوں تو وہ بھی کام کے مکمل ہونے کی طرف اشارہ کر رہے ہوتے ہیں۔ جیسے کہ
اس نے کرکٹ کھیل لی ہو گی۔
طاہر نے اپنا ہوم ورک کر لیا ہو گا۔
امجد نے میرا مسئلہ حل کر دیا ہو گا۔

بناوٹ (Sentence Structure):

فعل حال مکمل (Present Perfect Tense):

فاعل کے بعد has اور have میں سے کوئی ایک امدادی فعل، اس کے بعد فعل کی تیسری فارم اور اس کے بعد مفعول آتا ہے۔

He, She, It اور واحد فاعل کے ساتھ امدادی فعل has لگاتے ہیں. I, You, We, They اور جمع فاعل کے ساتھ have استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

درج ذیل مثالوں کو دیکھیں۔

He has played cricket.

Tahir has played cricket.

She has played cricket.

I have played cricket.

The boys have played cricket.

You have played cricket.

They have played cricket.

We have played cricket.

بعض اوقات فقرے کے اندر مفعول نہیں ہوتا۔ یعنی کسی ایسے کام کے بارے میں بات کی جاتی ہے جس کے لئے مفعول کی ضرورت نہیں ہوتی۔ مثلاً

She has smiled.

The Moon has shined.

The baby has cried.

The gardener has worked.

They have laughed.

ان تمام فقروں میں کچھ ایسے کام ہو رہے ہیں جن کے بعد کوئی مفعول نہیں آ رہا اور یہ اپنا مکمل مفہوم دے رہے ہیں۔ ان کاموں کا تعلق صرف اور صرف فاعل کی ذات سے ہی ہوتا ہے۔ تو یاد رکھئے کہ ایسے verbs جن کے بعد مفعول نہیں آتا ان کو Intransitive Verbs کہا جاتا ہے۔ جیسے کہ smiled, shined, cried, worked, laughed وغیرہ. اور جن افعال کے بعد مفعول کی بھی ضرورت ہوتی ہے ان کو Transitive Verbs کہتے ہیں جیسے کہ beaten, played, watered, cut وغیرہ

فعل مکمل کی پہچان اور بناوٹ کے لئے اس وڈیو لیکچر کو دیکھیں۔

منفی فقرے بنانے کے لئے امدادی افعال has اور have کے بعد not لگاتے ہیں۔

He has not played cricket.

Tahir has not played cricket.

She has not played cricket.

I have not played cricket.

The boys have not played cricket.

You have not played cricket.

They have not played cricket.

We have not played cricket.

ایسے سوالیہ فقرے جن کا جواب yes/no میں ہوتا ہے، انہیں Single Interrogatives کہا جاتا ہے۔ ان کو انگریزی میں بنانے کے لئے امدادی فعل کو فاعل سے پہلے لگاتے ہیں۔ اور فقرے کے آخر میں سوالیہ نشان آتا ہے۔

Has he played cricket?

Has Tahir played cricket?

Has she played cricket?

Have I played cricket?

Have the boys played cricket?

Have you played cricket?

Have they played cricket?

Have we played cricket?

اور ایسے سوال جن کا جواب yes/no کی بجائے کچھ اور ہوتا ہے، انہیں Double Interrogatives کہا جاتا ہے۔ ان کو بنانے کے لئے امدادی فعل کو فاعل سے پہلے لگانے کے بعد اس سے بھی پہلے 'wh' والے الفاظ میں سے اپنا مطلوبہ لفظ لگاتے ہیں۔

Where has he played cricket?

Why has Tahir played cricket?

When has she played cricket?

How have I played cricket?

Where have the boys played cricket?

Why have you played cricket?

How have they played cricket?

When have we played cricket?

Who has played cricket?

What have we played?

چونکہ ایک سادہ فقرے میں پہلے امدادی فعل کو فاعل سے پہلے لے کر آتے ہیں (1st step) اور پھر اس امدادی فعل سے بھی پہلے 'wh' والے لفظ کا اضافہ کرتے ہیں (2nd Step)۔ اور اس پورے عمل میں چونکہ ہم دو steps لیتے ہیں اس لئے ان کو Double Interrogatives کہا جاتا ہے۔

منفی اور سوالیہ فقروں کی پہچان اور بناوٹ کے لئے اس وڈیو لیکچر کو دیکھیں۔

فعل ماضی مکمل (Past Perfect Tense):

ان فقروں میں ایک ہی امدادی فعل had استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ فاعل جو مرضی ہو، واحد ہو یا جمع ہو، امدادی فعل had ہی آتا ہے۔ اس کے بعد فعل کی تیسری فارم لگاتے ہیں اور اس کے بعد مفعول آتا ہے۔

درج ذیل مثالوں کو دیکھیں۔

He had watered the plants.

Tahir had watered the plants.

She had watered the plants.

I had watered the plants.

The boys had watered the plants.

You had watered the plants.

They had watered the plants.

We had watered the plants.

منفی فقرے بنانے کے لئے امدادی فعل had کے بعد not لگاتے ہیں۔

He had not watered the plants.

Tahir had not watered the plants.

She had not watered the plants.

I had not watered the plants.

The boys had not watered the plants.

You had not watered the plants.

They had not watered the plants.

We had not watered the plants.

ایسے سوالیہ فقرے جن کا جواب yes/no میں ہوتا ہے، انہیں Single Interrogatives کہا جاتا ہے۔ ان کو بنانے کے لئے امدادی فعل کو فاعل سے پہلے لگاتے ہیں۔

Had he watered the plants?

Had Tahir watered the plants?

Had she watered the plants?

Had I watered the plants?

Had the boys watered the plants?

Had you watered the plants?

Had they watered the plants?

Had we watered the plants?

Why had he watered the plants?

Where had Tahir watered the plants?

When had she watered the plants?

How had I watered the plants?

Where had the boys watered the plants?

How had you watered the plants?

Why had they watered the plants?

Where had we watered the plants?

فعل مستقبل مکمل (Future Perfect Tense):

فاعل کے بعد will have اور shall have میں سے کوئی ایک امدادی فعل، اس کے بعد فعل کی تیسری فارم لگاتے ہیں اور اس کے بعد مفعول آتا ہے۔

فاعل I اور We کے ساتھ امدادی فعل shall have لگاتے ہیں۔ باقی سب کے ساتھ will have استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

درج ذیل مثالوں کو دیکھیں۔

He will have watched a movie.

Tahir will have watched a movie.

She will have watched a movie.

I shall have watched a movie.

The boys will have watched a movie.

You will have watched a movie.

They will have watched a movie.

We shall have watched a movie.

منفی فقرے بنانے کے لئے امدادی فعل shall have, will have میں موجود صرف will اور shall کے بعد not لگاتے ہیں۔ have اپنی جگہ پر ہی رہتا ہے۔

He will not have watched a movie.

Tahir will not have watched a movie.

She will not have watched a movie.

I shall not have watched a movie.

The boys will not have watched a movie.

You will not have watched a movie.

They will not have watched a movie.

We shall not have watched a movie.

ایسے سوالیہ فقرے جن کا جواب yes/no میں ہوتا ہے، انہیں Single Interrogatives کہا جاتا ہے۔ ان کو بنانے کے لئے امدادی افعال میں سے صرف will یا shall کو فاعل سے پہلے لگاتے ہیں۔ have اپنی جگہ پر ہی رہتا ہے۔

Will he have watched a movie?

Will Tahir have watched a movie?

Will she have watched a movie?

Shall I have watched a movie?

Will the boys have watched a movie?

Will you have watched a movie?

Will they have watched a movie?

Shall we have watched a movie?

اور ایسے سوال جن کا جواب yes/no کی بجائے کچھ اور ہوتا ہے، انہیں Double Interrogatives کہا جاتا ہے۔ ان کو بنانے کے لئے امدادی افعال میں سے صرف will یا shall کو فاعل سے پہلے لگانے کے بعد اس سے بھی پہلے 'wh' والے الفاظ میں سے اپنا مطلوبہ لفظ لگاتے ہیں۔

Where will he have watched a movie?

When will Tahir have watched a movie?

When will she have watched a movie?

How shall I have watched a movie?

Where will the boys have watched a movie?

How will you have watched a movie?

When will they have watched a movie?

Where shall we have watched a movie?

فعل مکمل کی مشق کرنے کے لئے درج ذیل فقرات کو دیکھیں اور ان کی انگریزی میں بناوٹ اور اردو ترجمے پر غور کریں۔

I have eaten an apple.

میں ایک سیب کھا چکا ہوں۔

Ammi Jaan has not cooked food for us.

امی جان ہمارے لئے کھانا نہیں بنا چکی ہیں۔

Have you solved all the questions?

کیا تم تمام سوال حل کر چکے ہو؟

How has he reached the bus station?

وہ بس سٹیشن پر کیسے پہنچ چکا ہے؟

We had solved our house.

ہم اپنا مکان فروخت کر چکے تھے۔

The guests had not taken tea.

مہمان چائے نہیں پی چکے تھے۔

Had she decorated her room?

کیا وہ اپنا کمرہ سجا چکی تھی؟

Where had they built a new bridge?

وہ ایک پل کہاں تعمیر کر چکے تھے؟

I shall have recited the Holy Quran.

میں قرآن پاک کی تلاوت کر چکا ہوں گا۔

She will not have played piano.

وہ پیانو نہیں بجا چکی ہو گی۔

Will your friend have paid the debt?

کیا تمارا دوست قرض ادا کر چکا ہو گا؟

Why will he have wasted his time?

وہ اپنا وقت کیوں ضائع کر چکا ہو گا؟

فعل مکمل کی مشق کرنے کے لئے درج ذیل فہرست میں سے ماضی، حال اور مستقبل کے فقرات کو پہچان کر ان کا اردو سے انگلش میں ترجمہ کریں۔

کسان فصل کاٹ چکے تھے۔

وہ دریا کو کیسے عبور کر چکا تھا؟

ہم اپنے مکان کی مرمت کر چکے ہوں گے۔

کیا تمہارا دوست غریبوں کی مدد کر چکا ہے؟

تم نے میری نصیحت پر عمل نہیں کیا ہے؟

ہم بہت ساری مشکلات کا سامنا کر چکے ہیں۔

حکومت دہشت گردی پو قابو پا چکی ہو گی۔

فعل مکمل کی مشق کرنے کے لئے درج ذیل فہرست میں سے ماضی، حال اور مستقبل کے فقرات کو پہچان کر ان کا انگریزی سے اردو میں ترجمہ کریں۔

Where have they played football?

I have plucked flowers.

We have not flown kites.

You will not have ridden a bike.

Shall we have gone to Lahore?

They had won the match.

You had wasted your time.

The baby had not played on the grass.