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IMP ECONOMIC DEVELOPMNT PROGRAMMEES IN INDIA

2012-07-15T22:06:00.003+05:30

Employment Generation Programmes

S.No.	Employment Generation Programme	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	Employment Guarantee Scheme of Maharashtra	1972	To assist the economically weaker sections of the rural society.
2	Crash Scheme for Rural Employmement (CSRE)	1972	For rural employment
3	Training Rural Youth for Self-Employment (TRYSEM)	1979	Program for Trainingrural youth for self employment.
4	Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)	1980	All-round development of the rural poor through a program of asset endowment for self employment.
5	National Rural Employment Program (NREP)	1980	To provide profitable employment opportunities to the rural poor.
6	Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Program (RLEGP)	1983	For providing employment to landless farmers and laborers.
7	Self-employment to the Educated Unemployed Youth (SEEUY)	1983	To provide financial and technical assistance for self-employment.
8	Self-Employment programme for Urban Poor (SEPUP)	1986	To provide self employment to urban poor through provision of subsidy and bank credit.
9	Jawahar Rozgar Yojana	1989	For providing employment to rural unemployed.
10	Nehru Rozgar Yojana	1989	For providing employment to urban unemployed.
11	Scheme of Urban Wage Employment (SUWE)	1990	To provide wages employment after arranging the basic facilities for poor people in the urban areas where population is less than one lakh.
12	Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS)	1993	To provide employment of at least 100 days in a year in village.
13	Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY)	1997	To provide gainful employment to urban unemployed and under employed poor through self employment or wage employment.
14	Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SYGSY)	1999	For eliminating rural poverty and unemployment and promoting self employment.
15	Jai Prakash Narayan Rojgar Guarantee Yojana (JPNRGY)	Proposed in 2002-03 budget	Employment guarantee in most poor distt.
16	National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme	2006	To provide atleast 100 days wage employment in rural areas.
17	Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana	2001	To provide wage employment and food security in rural areas and also to create durable economic ans social assets.
18	Food for Work Programme	2001	To give food thrugh wage employment in the drought affected areas in eight states. Wages are paid by the state governments partly in cash and partly in foodgrains.
19	Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)	2005	To create a right based framework for wage employment programmes and makes the government legally bound to provide employment to those who seek it.
20	Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)	2008	To generate employment opportunities in rural as well as urban areas through setting up of new self-employment ventures/projects/micro enterprises.

Child Welfare Programmes

S.No.	Child Welfare Programmes	Year of Beginning	Objectives/Description
1	Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)	1975	It is aimed at enhancing the health, nutrition and learning opportunities of infants, young children (O-6 years) and their mothers.
2	Creche Scheme for the children of working mothers	2006	Overall development of children, childhood protection, complete immunisation, awareness generation among parents on malnutrition, health and education.
3	Reproductive and Child Health Programme	1951	To provide quality Integrated and sustainable Primary Health Care services to the women in the reproductive age group and young children and special focus on family planning and Immunisation.
4	Pulse Polio Immunization Programme	1995	To eradicate poliomyelitis (polio) in India by vaccinating all children under the age of five years against polio virus.
5	Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan	2001	All children in school, Education Guarantee Centre, Alternate School, ' Back-to-School' camp by 2003; all children complete five years of primary schooling by 2007 ; all children complete eight years of elementary schooling by 2010 ; focus on elementary education of satisfactory quality with emphasis on education for life ; bridge all gender and social category gaps at primary stage by 2007 and at elementary education level by 2010 ; universal retention by 2010
6	Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya	2004	To ensure access and quality education to the girls of disadvantaged groups of society by setting up residential schools with boarding facilities at elementary level.
7	Mid-day meal Scheme	1995	Improving the nutritional status of children in classes I – VIII in Government, Local Body and Government aided schools, and EGS and AIE centres.Encouraging poor children, belonging to disadvantaged sections, to attend school more regularly and help them concentrate on classroom activities. Providing nutritional support to children of primary stage in drought-affected areas during summer vacation.
8	Integrated programme for Street Children	1993	Provisions for shelter, nutrition, health care, sanitation and hygiene, safe drinking water, education and recreational facilities and protection against abuse and exploitation to destitute and neglected street children.
9	The National Rural Health Mission	2005	Reduction in child and maternal mortality, universal access to public services for food and nutrition , sanitation and hygiene and universal access to public health care services with emphasis on services addressing women's and children's health universal immunization, etc.

Anti Poverty Programmes

S.No.	Anti Poverty Programmes	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	Antodaya Yojana	1977	To make the poorest families of the village economically independent (only in Rajasthan)
2	Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)	1999	Assistance is given to the poor families living below the poverty line in rural areas for taking up self employment.
4	Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)	2001	Providing gainful employment for the rural poor.
6	Employment Assurance Scheme	1993	To provide gainful employment during the lean agricultural season in manual work to all able bodied adults in rural areas who are in need and desirous of work, but can not find it..
7	Pradhanmantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY)	2000	Focus on village level development in 5 critical areas, i.e. primary health, primary education, housing, rural roads and drinking water and nutrition with the overall objective of improving the quality of life of people in rural areas.
8	National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS)	2006	To provide legal guarantee for 100 days of wage employment to every household in the rural areas of the country each year, To combine the twin goals of providing employment and asset creation in rural areas
9	Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJRY)	1997	It seeks to provide employment to the urban unemployed lying below poverty line and educate upto IX standard through encouraging the setting up of self employment ventures or provision of wage employment.
10	Antidaya Anna Yojana	2000	It aims at providing food securities to poor families.
11	National Housing Bank Voluntary Deposit Scheme	1991	To utilize black money for constructing low cost housing for the poor.
12	Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)	1980	All Round development of the rural poor through a program of asset endowment for self employment.
13	Development of Women and Chidren in Rural Areas (DWCRA)	1982	To provide suitable opportunities of self employment to the women belonging to the rural families who are living below the poverty line.
14	National Social Assistance Programme	1995	To assist people living below the poverty line.
15	Jan Shree Bima Yojana	2000	Providing insurance security to people below poverty line.
16	Jai Prakash Narayan Rojgar Guarantee Yojana	Proposed in 2002-03 budget	Employment Guarantee in most poor districts.
17	Shiksha Sahyog Yojana	2001	Education of Children below poverty line.

Women Empowerment Programmes

S.No.	Women Empowerment Programmes	Location	Year Of Estb.
1	Support to Training and employment Programme for Women (STEP)	2003-04	To increase the self-reliance and autonomy of women by enhancing their productivity and enabling them to take up income generaion activities.
2	Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)	1993	To promote or undertake activities for the promotion of or to provide credit as an instrument of socio- economic change and development through the provision of a package of financial and social development services for the development of women.
3	Rashtriya Mahila Kosh	1993	To facilitate credit support or micro-finance to poor women to start income generating activities such as dairy, agriculture, shop-keeping, vending, handicrafts etc.
4	Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls (RGSEAG) – ‘Sabla’	2010	It aims at empowering Adolescent girls of 11 to 18 years by improving their nutritional and health status, up gradation of home skills, life skills and vocational skills.
5	Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB)	1953	To promote social welfare activities and implementing welfare programmes for women and children through voluntary organizations.
6	Rashtriya Mahila Kosh - (National Credit Fund for Women)	1993	It extends micro-finance services through a client friendly and hassle-free loaning mechanism for livelihood activities, housing, micro-enterprises, family needs, etc to bring about the socio-economic upliftment of poor women.
7	Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY)	----	To improve the health and nutrition status of pregnant, lactating women and infants
8	SwayamSiddha	2001	At organizing women into Self-Help Groups to form a strong institutional base.
9	Short Stay Home for Women and Girls (SSH)	1969	To provide temporary shelter to women and girls who are in social and moral danger due to family problems, mental strain, violence at home, social ostracism, exploitation and other causes.
10	Swadhar	1995	To support women to become independent in spirit, in thought, in action and have full control over their lives rather than be the victim of others actions.
11	Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women (STEP)	1986	To mobilise women in small viable groups and make facililies available through training and access to credit, to plovide training for skill upgradation, etc.
12	Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)	1982	To improve the socio-economic status of the poor women in the rural areas through creation of groups of women for income-generating activities on a self-sustaining basis. The
13	Tamil Nadu Corporation for Development of Women	1983	Aims at the socio-economic empowerment of women

Eradication Of Child Labor Programmes

S.No.	Child Labor Programme	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	Child Labor Eradication Programme	1994	To shift child labor from hazardous industried to schools.
2	National Authority for the Elimination of Child Labour (NAECL)	1994	Laying down the policies and programs for the elimination of child labour, especially in the hazardous industries, etc.
3	National Child Labour Project Scheme (NCLP)	1998	Establishment of special schools for child labour who are withdrawn from work.
4	Education Department and District Primary Education Program (DPEP)	1994	To revitalise the primary education system and to achieve the objective of universalisation of primary education for young children.
5	International Programme for Elimination of Child Labor (IPEC)	1991	To contribute to the effective abolition of child labor in India
6	National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)	2007	To protect, promote and defend child rights in the country.
7	National Policy on Child Labour	1987	General development programmes benefiting children wherever possible. Project-based approach in the areas of high concentration of child labourers.

Agricultural Development Programmes

S.No.	Agricultural Development Programme	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	Intensive Agriculture Development Program (IADP)	1960	To provide loan , seeds , fertilizer tools to the farmers.
2	Intensive Agriculture Area Program (IAAP)	1964	To develop the special harvest.
3	High Yielding Variety Program (HYVP)	1966	To increase productivity of foodgrains by adopting latest varieties of inputs for crops.
4	Green Revolution	1966	To increase the foodrains , specially food production.
5	Nationalization of 4 banks	1969	To provide loans for agriculture , rural development and other priority sector.
6	Marginal Farmer and Agriculture Labor Agency (MFALA)	1973	For technical and financial assistance to marginal and small farmer and agricultural labor.
7	Small Farmer Development Agency (SFDA)	1974	For technical and financial assistance to small farmers.
8	Farmer Agriculture Service Centres (FASC)	1983	To popularize the use of improved agricultural instruments and tool kits.
9	Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme	1985	For insurance of agricultural crops.
10	Agricultural and Rural Debt Relief Scheme (ARDRS)	1990	To exempt bank loans upto Rs. 10,000 of rural artisans and weaver.
11	Intensive Cotton Development Programme (ICDP)	2000	To enhance the production, per unit area through (a) technology transfer, (b) supply of quality seeds, (c) elevating IPM activities/ and (d) providing adequate and timely supply of inputs to the farmers .
12	Minikit Programme for Rice, Wheat & Coarse Cereals	1974	To increase the productivity by popularising the use of newly released hybrid/high yielding varieties and spread the area coverage under location specific high yielding varieties/hybrids.
13	Accelerated Maize Development Programme (AMDP)	1995	To increase maize production and productivity in the country from 10 million tonnes to 11.44 million tonnes and from 1.5 tonnes/hectare to 1.80 tonnes/hectare respectively upto the terminal year of 9th Plan i.e. 2001-2002 (revised).
14	National Pulses Development Project (NPDP)	1986	To increase the production of pulses in the country to achieve self sufficiency.
15	Oil Palm Development Programme (OPDP)	1992	To promote oil palm cultivation in the country.
16	National Oilseeds and Vegetable Oils development Board (NOVOD)	1984	The main functions of the NOVOD Board are very comprehensive and cover the entire gamut of activities associated with the oil seeds and vegetable oil industry including – production, marketing, trade, storage, processing, research and development, financing and advisory role to the formulation of integrated policy and programme of development of oil seeds and vegetable oil.
17	Coconut Development Board	1981	To increase production and productivity of coconut To bring additional area under coconut in potential non-traditional areas To develop new technologies for product diversification and by-product utilisation To strengthen mechanism for transfer of technologies To elevate the income level of small and marginal farmers engaged in coconut cultivation. To build up sound information basis for coconut industry and market information To generate ample employment opportunities in the rural sector.
18	Watershed Development Council (WDC)	1983	Central Sector Scheme(HQ Scheme)

Various Development Programmes

S.No.	Development Programmes	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	Housing and Urban Development Corporation	1970	Loans for the development of housing and provision of resources for technical assistance.
2	Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)	1993	To sanction Rs. 1 Crore per year to every member of Parliament for various development works in their respective areas through DM districts.
3	Scheme for Infrastructural Development in Mega Cities (SIDMC)	1993	To provide capital through special institutions for water supply, sewage, , drainage, urban
4	Scheme of Integrated Development of Small and Medium Towns	Sixth five year plan	To provide resources and create employment in small and medium towns for for prohibiting the migration of population from rural areas to big cities.
5	District Rural Development Agency (DRDA)	1993	To provide financial assistance for rural development.
6	National Slum Development Programme	1996	Development of Urban Slums.
7	Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)	1980	All-round development of the rural poor through a program of asset endowment for self employment.
8	Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)	1982	To provide suitable opportunities of self employment to the women belonging to the rural families who are living below the poverty line.

National Health Programmes In India

S.No.	National Health Programmes	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	National Cancer Control Programme	1975	Primary prevention of cancers by health education regarding hazards of tobacco consumption and necessity of genital hygiene for prevention of cervical cancer, etc.
2	National Program of Health Care for the Elderly (NPHCE)	2010	To provide preventive, curative and rehabilitative services to the elderly persons at various level of health care delivery system of the country, etc.
3	National Program for Prevention and Control of Deafness (NPPCD)	----	To prevent the avoidable hearing loss on account of disease or injury, etc.
4	District Mental Health Program (NMHP)	1982	To ensure availability and accessibility of minimum mental health care for all in the foreseeable future, particularly to the most vulnerable and underprivileged sections of population.
5	National Cancer Registry Programme	1982	To provide true information on cancer prevalence and incidence.
6	National Tobacco Control Program	2007	Preventing the initiation of smoking among young people, educating, motivating and assisting smokers to quit smoking, etc.
7	National Leprosy Eradication Program	started in 1955, launched in 1983	To arrest the disease activity in all the known cases of leprosy.
8	Universal Immunization Program (UIP)	1985	To achieve self-sufficiency in vaccine production and the manufacture of cold-chain equipment for storage purpose, etc.
9	National Vector Borne Disease Control Program	----	For the prevention and control of vector borne diseases

INDIAN POLITY MOST COMMON QUESTIONS FOR ALL COMPETETIVE EXAMS

2012-06-25T17:37:00.001+05:30

INDIAN POLITY MCQ

1.Total number of members in a Legislative Council should not exceed that of a Legislative Assembly ?
(a) 40182
(b) 40181
(c) 40212
(d) 40180
Answer: 40181
2. For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their own, laws are passed by
(a) Parliament
(b) Appointed Administrator
(c) Union Ministry
(d) President
Answer: Parliament
3. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by
(a) Constitutional amendement
(b) President
(c) None of these
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: None of these
4. The first woman film star nominated/elected to the Rajya Sabha was
(a) Nargis Dutt
(b) Jayalalitha
(c) Vijayanthimala
(d) Hema Malini
Answer; Nargis Dutt
5. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Bills pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment
(b) Bills pertaining to the powers of the Supreme Court ot State Judiciary
(c) Bills bringing a state under the President's Rule.
(d) Money Bills
Answer: Money Bills
6. A party having 36 members will avoid disqualification under the provisions of the Anti Defection Law if the number of members crossing the floor is at least
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: 12
7. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the
(a) Minto-Morley Reforms
(b) Independence Act, 1947
(c) Constitution of India
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: Constitution of India
8. In which of the following systems of Government, can the Government be removed through no-confidence motion passed by the Parliament ?
(a) Federal
(b) Unitary
(c) Parliamentry
(d) Presidential
Answer; Parliamentry
9. An ordinance promulgated by the President
(a) Will lapse automatically after 2 months
(b) Will continue to be in force till is superseded by an Act of the Parliament
(c) Will automatically become a law after 6 months
(d) Will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament
Answer: Will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament
10. The President can promulgated an ordinance
(a) When there is a conflict between the two Houses regarding a particular bill
(b) When a bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not passed by the Rajya Sabha
(c) When both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session.
(d) When the Lok Sabha has been dissolved
Answer: When both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session.
11. If a Minister of a state wants to resign, to whom he should address the letter of resignation ?
(a) Governor of the State
(b) Leader of his political party
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
Answer: Chief Minister
12. A member of Lok Sabha has to ask a question in the Parliament which has been listed as a starred question. To this he will be given
(a) No answer
(b) An immediate answer
(c) A written answer
(d) An oral answer
Answer; A written answer
13. Amongst the following for whose removal Parliament's resolution is not needed ?
(a) Judge of Supreme Court
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Governor of a State
Answer: Judge of Supreme Court
14. When the Governor receives a Bill passed by the State Legislative Assembly, which of the following courses would be most appropriate for the Governor as an agent of the Centre ?
(a) Exercise veto over the Bill
(b) Refer the Bill to the President
(c) Give assent to the Bill
(d) Keep the Bill pending
Answer: Refer the Bill to the President
15. To which of the following Bills the President must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration ?
(a) Finance Bills
(b) Bill seeking Amendment to the Constitution
(c) Ordinary Bills
(d) Bills passed by both the Houses of the Parliament
Answer: Finance Bills
16. In the case of a conflict between the Centre and a State in respect of a subject included in the Concurrent List
(a) The law which had been passed first would prevail
(b) The Union Law prevails
(c) The State Law prevails
(d) The matter is resolved by the Supreme Court
Answer; The Union Law prevails
17. Who is the highest Law Officer of a state ?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Secretary General Law Department
(c) Solicitor General
(d) Advocate General
Answer: Advocate General
18. What is zero hour ?
(a) When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha
(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised
(c) When the proposals of the opposition are considered
(d) Interval between the morning and afternoon sessions
Answer: When matters of utmost importance are raised
19. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution
(a) None of these
(b) Passed by a simple majority of its total member present
(c) Passed by 2/3rd majority of its total members present
(d) Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha
Answer: Passed by a simple majority of its total member present
20. A Bill refferred to a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament is to be passed by
(a) 3/4th majority
(b) Absolute majority of total membership
(c) A simple majority
(d) 2/3rd majority
Answer: A simple majority
21. Which of the following Bills was discussed in the Lok Sabha but was withdraw before it could be discussed in the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Benami Transaction Bill
(b) Hill Council Bill
(c) Newspaper Employees Bill
(d) Defamation Bill
Answer: Defamation Bill
22. Which of the following has benned floor crossing by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature ?
(a) National Security Act
(b) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
(c) 52nd Constitution Amendment Act
(d) People's Representation Act
Answer: 52nd Constitution Amendment Act
23. As decided by the Government of India, a member of Parliament would get what amount of money to spend on development activities in his/her constituency ?
(a) Rs 1 crore
(b) Rs 2 crore
(c) Rs 1 lakh
(d) Rs 10 lakh
Answer: Rs 1 crore
24. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively is
(a) 500 and 250
(b) 537 and 275
(c) 525 and 238
(d) 545 and 250
Answer: 545 and 250
25. Anglo Indian representatives in the Lok Sabha are nominated in terms of the Article
(a) 80
(b) 333
(c) 370
(d) 331
Answer: 331
26. The question of disqualification of a member of the State Legislature shall be decided by
(a) The Governor in consultation with the Election Commission
(b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) The Governor in consultation with the President
(d) State Legislative Council
Answer: The Governor in consultation with the Election Commission
27. The Union President can directly disallow a State Legislation
(a) In case of any bill
(b) Both (b) and ( c ) above
(c) In case of money bills
(d) In case of bills reserved by the Governor for President's assent
Answer: In case of bills reserved by the Governor for President's assent
28. Who among the following has the final power to maintain order within the House of People ?
(a) Speaker
(b) Chief of Security Staff
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Marshal of the House
Answer: Speaker
29. Who among the following fixes the salaries and the allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha ?
(a) Council of Ministers
(b) Cabinet
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Answer: Parliament
30. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker continues in office till a new
(a) Government is formed
(b) Speaker is elected when the new House meets
(c) Lok Sabha is formed
(d) Speaker is appointed by the President
Answer: Speaker is elected when the new House meets
31. If a member of Parliament voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign country,
(a) He will be penalized
(b) He will have a choice of renouncing either
(c) He will continue to be a member of Parliament
(d) He will be disqualified from membership
Answer: He will be disqualified from membership
32. Which of the following is also called the House of Elders ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Gram Sabha
Answer; Lok Sabha
33. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha
34. Who among the following is a legal advisor of the State Government as provided by the Constitution ?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Public Prosecutor
(c) Solicitor General
(d) Advocate General
Answer: Public Prosecutor
35. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as members upto the age of
(a) 58 years
(b) 65 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 60 years
Answer: 60 years
36. The rank of the different Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers is determined by the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Secretary
Answer: President
37. The Legislative Council in a state can be created or disbanded by the
(a) State Legislative Assembly alone
(b) President on recommendation of the Governor
(c) Parliament alone
(d) Parliament on recommendation of the State Legislature
Answer: State Legislative Assembly alone
38. The maximum number of Anglo Indians who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer: 2
39. In the case of disagreement on a Bill, in the two Houses of Parliament
(a) A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the situation.
(b) The President casts a deciding vote.
(c) The Prime Minister intervenes.
(d) A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is convened
Answer; A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is convened
40. What is the maximum number of elected members in a State Assembly ?
(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 250
(d) 300
Answer: 500
41. Which of the following is not correct regarding a Money Bill ?
(a) It can be passed by the Lok Sabha even if the Rajya Sabha rejects it.
(b) It requires the prior approval of the President.
(c) It is deemed to have been passed by both Houses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days.
(d) It can be introduced in either House of Parliament
Answer: It can be introduced in either House of Parliament
42. Which parliamentary committee in India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition ?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Privileges Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Committee on Government Assurances
Answer: Public Accounts Committee
43. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available ?
(a) A member of the House of People appointed by the President
(b) The senior most member of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) A member chosen by Council of Ministers.
(d) The senior most member of the Lok Sabha.
Answer; The senior most member of the Lok Sabha.
44. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha ?
(a) President
(b) Leader of Opposition
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Vice- President
Answer: Vice- President
45. When a bill passed by Parliament is sent to the President for his assent, which option is not true to him ?
(a) He may return it to Parliament for reconsideration .
(b) He may amend it.
(c) He may decline to sign it
(d) He may sign it
Answer: He may decline to sign it
46. The Union Territories get representation in
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) None of these
(c) Both Houses of Parliament
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer; Both Houses of Parliament
47. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha Who is the Chief of its Secretariat is
(a) Elected by both Houses of Parliament
(b) Appointed by the President
(c) Appointed by the Speaker
(d) Elected by the Lok Sabha
Answer: Appointed by the Speaker
48. The Joint Parliament Committee to examine irregularities and fraudulent manipulations of the Securities Scam consists of
(a) 15 members of Lok Sabha and 15 of Rajya Sabha
(b) 30 members of Lok Sabha and 30 of Rajya Sabha
(c) 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 of Rajya Sabha
(d) 25 members of Lok Sabha and 15 of Rajya Sabha
Answer: 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 of Rajya Sabha
49. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India ?
(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer: 12
50. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office, if the House of the People passes a resolution to this effect by
(a) Absolute majority of all the then members of the House
(b) Simple majority of members present and voting and absolute majority of all the then members of the House
(c) 2/3rd majority of members present and voting.
(d) Simple majority of members present and voting
Answer: Absolute majority of all the then members of the House
51. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the
(a) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purpose
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Vice- President
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha
52. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
(a) Nominated by the President
(b) Elected by Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
(c) Elected by members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
Answer: Elected by members of both Houses of Parliament
53. The time gap between two sessions of the Parliament should not exceed
(a) 3 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 9 months
(d) 6 months
Answer: 6 months
54. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to
(a) Elect the President of India
(b) Adopt a Constitution amending Bill
(c) Elect the Vice President of India
(d) Consider and pass a bill on which two Houses disagree
Answer: Consider and pass a bill on which two Houses disagree
55. One third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every
(a) Second year
(b) Fifth year
(c) One year
(d) Third year
Answer: Second year
56. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to be passed by Rajya Sabha within
(a) 3 months
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 1 month
Answer: 14 days
57. Which of the following is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament ?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Committee on Welfare of SC's and ST's
(d) Committee on Public Accounts
Answer: Committee on Public Accounts
58. For raising Half-an-Hour discussion in a House of Parliament, a notice in writing has to be given to the
(a) Secretary of Department of Parliamentary Affairs
(b) Minister concerned
(c) Secretary General of the House
(d) Presiding Officer of the House
Answer; Secretary General of the House
59. What is the minimum age for election / appointment as member of the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) 25 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer: 30 years
60. Parliament of India is composed of
(a) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
(b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha only
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Answer: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
61. Maximum number of M.P.s from backward communities are elected from which state ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Nagaland
Answer: Bihar
62. In Parliamentary government, Ministers remain in office so long as they enjoy
(a) Confidence of the popular chamber of legislature
(b) Popular support
(c) Confidence of the upper house of the legislature
(d) Support of the armed forces
Answer; Confidence of the popular chamber of legislature
63. A bill for alteration of boundaries of states shall not be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of
(a) The legislatures of the states concerned
(b) President
(c) The presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: The legislatures of the states concerned
64. What type of Party system has been evolved in India ?
(a) Single Party
(b) Party less
(c) Bi- party
(d) Multi - Party
Answer: Multi - Party
64. Amongst the questions allowed by the Speaker, which one is regarded as the most important ?
(a) Starred
(b) Supplementary
(c) Short Notice
(d) Unstarred
Answer: Short Notice
66. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the House ?
(a) Whenever the House desires
(b) Whenever his party directs
(c) Only in the event of equality of votes
(d) Whenever he desires
Answer; Only in the event of equality of votes
67. According to the Constitution of India the maximum number of members representing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot exceed
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 10
(d) 15
Answer: 20
68. The Government has set up a high power Committee of 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of Rajya Sabha to examine
(a) Securities scam
(b) Sharing of river water
(c) Protection of Human rights
(d) Protection of environment
Answer: Securities scam
69. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, who presides over the deliberations of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Oldest members of the House
(b) One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer: One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the Speaker
70. What is the minimum age for being the member of the Parliament ?
(a) 45 years
(b) 50 years
(c) None of these
(d) 40 yearAnswer; None of these
71. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it ?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Solicitor- General of India
Answer: Attorney General of India
72. How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a motion of no confidence in the government, before it can be admitted by the Speaker ?
(a) 50
(b) 35
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer: 50
73. The Constitution of India does not mentioned the post of
(a) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Deputy Prime Minister
Answer: The Deputy Prime Minister
74. To be a member of the Lok Sabha a person has to be
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 27 years
(d) 30 years
Answer; 25 years
75. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is made by the President
(a) In his own discretion
(b) On the advice of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) On the advice of the Vice- President
(d) On the advice of the Prime Minister
Answer: On the advice of the Prime Minister
76. Who administers the oath of office to the President ?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer: Chief Justice of India
77. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are elected for what period ?
(a) 2 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 5 years
Answer: 5 years
78. Criterion for a regional party to be recognised as a national party is
(a) To get 1/10th of the seats in the Parliament
(b) To be recognised in at least 4 states
(c) To be recognised in at least 3 states
(d) To get 1/10th of the seats in Lok Sabha
Answer: To be recognised in at least 4 states
79. Money Bill can be introduced in
(a) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(b) None of these
(c) Lok Sabha only
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Answer: Lok Sabha only
80. Who among the following decides whether particular bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha
81. Which of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature ?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
Answer: Rajasthan

82. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the session for
(a) 60 days
(b) 120 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 90 days
Answer; 60 days
83. Who presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice - President
Answer: Vice - President
84. A candidate to become a member of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 21 years
Answer: 30 years
85. Public Accounts Committee is a
(a) Select Committee of Lok Sabha
(b) Joint Committee of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Standing Committee of Rajya Sabha
(d) Sub Committee
Answer: Standing Committee of Rajya Sabha
86. The Rajya Sabha has a life of
(a) 7 years
(b) Permanency
(c) 2 years
(d) 6 years
Answer; Permanency
87. The Governor is appointed by the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chief Justice
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: President
88. The budget is presented to the Parliament on
(a) The last day of March
(b) 1st April
(c) The last day of February
(d) 15th March
Answer; The last day of February
89. The term of Lok Sabha is normally
(a) 5 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 6 years
Answer: 5 years
90. The Constitution provides for the nomination to the Lok Sabha two members belonging to the community of
(a) Syrian Christians
(b) Scheduled Castes
(c) Parsis
(d) Anglo-Indians
Answer; Anglo-Indians
91. The legislative powers are vested in the
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Answer: Parliament
92. Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the
states out of the Consolidated Fund of India ?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Inter State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Finance Commission
Answer; Finance Commission
93. Which are the two States (other than U.P.) having maximum representation in Lok Sabha ?
(a) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Bihar and Tamil Nadu
(c) Bihar and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Bihar and Maharashtra
Answer: Bihar and Maharashtra
94. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) Can be extended for another full term of 5 years.
(b) Can be extended for an unlimited period
(c) Can be extended by 1 year at a time
(d) Cannot be extended
Answer; Can be extended by 1 year at a time
95. How many times can the passed by Parliament ?
(a) Twice
(b) Never
(c) Thrice
(d) Once
Answer: Once
96. Vote on Account means legislative vote
(a) On the Appropriation Bill
(b) On the Finance Bill
(c) Authorising expenditure in respect of demands for grants pending the passing of the Appropriation Act
(d) In respect of the report of audit and accounts submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer: Authorising expenditure in respect of demands for grants pending the passing of the Appropriation Act
97. Which of the following committees does not consist of any member from the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Public Grievances Committee
Answer: Estimates Committee
98. Recognition to a political party is accorded by
(a) The Election Commission
(b) A Committee of Whips
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the legislative assemblies in the case of regional parties
(d) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Answer; The Election Commission
99. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee is
(a) Appointed by Speaker
(b) Elected by members of PAC
(c) Elected by Union Cabinet
(d) Appointed by President
Answer: Appointed by Speaker
100. A Party in India in order to be recognised as official opposition in the Indian Parliament should have least how many seats ?
(a) 1/6th
(b) 1/10th
(c) 1/3rd
(d) 1/4th
Answer: 1/10^th

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WORLD GEOGRAPHY MOST COMMON QUESTIONS FOR ALL COMPETETIVE EXAMS

2012-06-25T17:25:00.000+05:30

WORLD GEOGRAPHY MCQ

1. The standard time of the following countries is ahead of behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are East or West of the longitude passing through Greenwich. [1995]

1. Cuba 2. Greece

3. Iraq 4. Costa Rice

5. Japan

2.Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind GMT?

(a) 5,3,2,1,4 (b) 2,4,1,3,5

3. The original home of the gypsies was: [1995]

(a) Egypt (b) Russia

4. Which one of the following is the continent with the highest mean elevation in the world? [1995]

(a) Antarctia (b) North America

6. Which one of the following does not belong to biosphere reserves set-up so far? [1995]

(a) Great Nicobar (b) Sunderbans

7. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in: [1995]

(a) Baluchistan (b) Myanmar

9. In the Indian context the term 'De-notified tribes' refers to: [1996]

(a) Tribes which are aboriginals

(b) Nomadic tribes

(d) Tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes

10. Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an 'ecological hot spot'?

(a) Western Himalayas (b) Eastern Himalayas

11. Consider the following programmes: [1996]

1. Afforestation and development of wastelands

2. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests

3. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying other types of fuel

4. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides to restrict the loss of forest area from degradation caused by pests and insects.

12.The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4

13. The Palk Bay lies between: [1996]

(a) Gulf of Kachch and Gulf of Khambhat

(b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

15. About 50% of the world population is concentrated between the latitudes of: [1997]

(a) 5°N and 20° N (b) 20°N and 40°N

16. "..... They are people of yellow complexion, oblique eyes, high check bones, sparse hair and medium height." The reference here is to: [1997]

(a) Nordic Aryans (b) Austrics

18. "From Aceh in the far north west to Torres Strait in the east 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghadad. The archipelago has 14,000 islands, some mere equatorial rocks, others some of the largest in the world." This description best fits: [1997]

(a) West Indies (b) Japan

20. Daily weather map showing isobars is an example of: [1997]

(a) Choropleth map (b) Isopleth map

21. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of fuel wood in the world? [1997]

(a) Indonesia (b) Russia

22. During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the following are the landing airports:

1. Hongkong 2. Hanoi

3. Taipei 4. Bangkok

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1

23. The satellites of which one of the following countries have helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of Antarctica? [1998]

(a) Canada (b) France

24. Which one of the following countries has replaced Italy as the major importer of bauxite from India? [1998]

(a) Canada (b) Greece

25. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by: [1998]

(a) Greenhouse effect

(b) Depletion of ozone layer

(d) None of these

27. When there is noon at I.S.T. meridian people another place of the Earth are taking their 6 O' clock morning tea. The longitude of the place is: [1998]

(a) 17°30'E (b) 7°30'W

28. Which one the following port cities in Venezuela has been developed as an oil port? [1999]

(a) Caracas (b) Maracaibo

29. A person of mixed European and Indian blood in Latin America a called a: [1999]

(a) Mulatto (b) Mestizo

30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

(Volcanic Mountain)

A Mt. Rainier

B. Etna

C. Paricutin

D. Taal

List II (Country)

1. Italy

2. Mexico

3. Philippines

4. U.S.A.

Codes:

(a) A-4; B-2;C- 1;D-3 (b) A-4; B- 1;C-2; D-3

31. Consider the following provinces of former Yugoslavia: [2000]

1. Bosnia 2. Croatia

3. Slovenia 4. Yugoslavia

32.The correct sequence of these provinces from the east to west is:

(a) 4,1,3,2 (b) 4,1,2,3

33. Which one of the following lakes forms as international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda? [2000]

(a) Chained (b) Malawi

34. A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of: [2001]

(a) Africa (b) Australia

35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2001]

List 1 (Local Wind)

A. Fohn

B. Sarmun

C. Santa Ana

D. Zonda Codes:

List II (Region)

1. Argentina

2. Kurdistan

3. California

4. Alps

(a) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3 (b) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1

36. Consider the following statements regarding environment issues of India: [2001]

1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves

2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan.

3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Del" imparts non-formal education in environment an₇ conservation

4. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralized information network for environment information

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2,3and4

37. Consider the following countries: [2002]

1. Brazil 2. Indonesia

3. Japan 4. Russia

38.What is the descending order of the size of the following countries population-wise ?

(a) 1,2,4,3 (b) 2,3,1,4

39. Consider the following countries of South Asia: [2002]

1. Bangladesh 2. India

3. Pakistan 4. Sri Lanka

40.The descending order of literacy status of these countries is:

(a) 4,2,1,3 (b) 2,4,3,1

41. Consider the following countries: [2002]

1. Albania 2. Bosnia Hercegovina

3. Croatia 4. Macedonia

42.Which of these countries has/have Adriatic Sea as a boundary?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 3

43. The waterfall 'Victoria' is associated with the river: [2003]

(a) Amazon (b) Missouri

44. Consider the following statements: [2003]

1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority

2. In Kosovo, Serbians are a majority

45.Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

46. Israel has common borders with: [2003]

(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan

(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen

47.Which one of the following countries does not border the Caspian Sea? [2003]

(a) Armenia (b) Azerbaijan

48. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through: [2004]

(a) China (b) Malaysia

49. Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries? [2004]

(a) Russia (b) Estonia

50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: [2004]

List I (Sea) List II (Country)

A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria

B. Red Sea 2. China

C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea

D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan Codes:

(a) A-1;B-4;C-2;D-3

(b) A-2;B-3;C-1;D-4

(d) A-2;B-4;C-1;D-3

51. Which one of the following does not border Panama? [2004]

(a) Coast Rica (b) Pacific Ocean

52. Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. Silent Valley National Park in the Nallamalai range.

2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.

3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley's rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only

53. Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania? [2005]

(a) Poland (b) Ukraine

54. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South? [2005]

(a) Islamabad-Gujranwala-Peshawar-Multan

(b) Peshawar-Gujranvvala-Multan-Islamabad

(d) Islamabad-Multan-Peshawar-Gujranwala

55. Consider the following sites/monuments: [2005]

1. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeo logical Park

2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai

3. Mahallapuram

4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple)

.Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4

56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2005]

List-I (City) List-II (River)

A. Washington D.C. 1. River Manzanares

B. Berlin 2. River Seine

C. Paris 3. River Spree

D. Madrid 4. River Potomac Codes:

(a) A-2;B-3;C-4;D-1 (b) A-4;B-1;C-2;D-3

57. Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.

2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom..

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

58. Itaipu Dam built on the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the world. Which of the following two countries have this as a joint project? [2005]

(a) Brazil and Peru

(b) Paraguay and Ecuador

(d) Colombia and Paraguay

59. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth's land? [2005]

(a) North America-Africa- South America-Europe

(b) Africa-North Africa-South America- Europe

(d) Africa-North America- Europe-South America

60. Bermuda Triangle extends up to which of the following places? [2006]

1. Southern Florida 2. Puerto Rico

3. Hawaii Islands

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2only

61. Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have been a bone of contention between which of the following countries? [2006]

(a) Portugal and Spain

(b) Bulgaria and Greece

(d) Portugal and Greece

62. Huangpu River flows through which one of the following cities? [2006]

(a) Beijing (b) Ho Chi Minh City

63. Which one of the following countries is the leading producer of Uranium? [2006]

(a) United States of America

(b) Canada

(d) Zambia

64. Consider the following statements: [2006]

1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.

2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African Coast.

3. Greece and Albania form a part of the Iberian Peninsula.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only

65. Through which one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass? [2006]

(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

(b) Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia

(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

66. Which, one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?[2006]

Well-known Place

(a) Baikonour

(b) Kourou

(d) Cannes

67. Other than India and China, which one of the following groups of countries border Myanmar? [2006]

(a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam

(b) Cambodia, Laos and Malayisa

(d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh

68. Where is Copacabana Beach located? [2007]

(a) Buenos Aires (b) Hawaiian Islands

69. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant? [2007]

(a) London (UK) (b) Lisbon (Portugal)

70. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: [2007]

List-I (City)		List-II (River)
A. Bangkok	1.	Irrawaddy
B. Phnom-Penh	2.	Mekong
C. Hanoi	3.	Menam (Chao Phraya)
D. Yangon	4.	Red River
Code:

(a) A-3; B-2;C-4; D-1

(b) A-4; B-1;C-3; D-2

(d) A-4; B-2;C-3; D-1

71. Which one among the following rivers is the longest? [2007]

(a) Amazon (b) Amur

72. Through which one of the following Straits, does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France? [2007]

(a) Davis Strait (b) Denmark Strait

73. The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which one of the following countries? [2007]

(a) Australia (b) Cuba

74. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world? [2008]

(a) Brazil (b) China

75. In which one of the following is Malta located? [2008]

(a) Baltic Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea

76. Which of the following cities is nearest to the equator? [2008]

(a) Colombo (b) Jakarta

77. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line? [2008]

(a) Malacca Strait (b) Bering Strait

78. Which of the following countries share borders with Moldova? [2008]

1. Ukraine 2. Romania

3. Belarus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

79. Consider the following statements: [2008]

1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE.

2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UAE.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

80. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have been recognized on the World Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them? [2008]

(a) Gulfof Mannar (b) Kanchenjunga

81. Which two countries follow China and India in the decreasing order of their populations? [2008]

(a) Brazil and USA

(b) USA and Indonesia

(d) Russia and Nigeria

82. With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated? [2008]

(a) Chambal (b) Narmada

83. In India, how many States share the coastline?

(a) 7 (b) 8

84. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia 2. Namibia

3. Brazil 4. Chile

Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?

(a) 1 only (b) 2,3 and 4

85. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [2009]

City River

(a) Berlin: Rhine

(b) London: Thames

(d) Vienna: Danube

86. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Geographic feature) (Country)

A. Great Victoria Desert 1. Australia

B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada

C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand

D. Southern Alps 4. USA Code:

(a) A-1; B-2;C-4; D-3

(b) A-1;B-4;C-2;D-3

(d) A-3; B-4;C-2; D-1

87. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched is located on the coast of [2009]

(a) Florida (b) Virginia

88. Which among the following has the world's largest reserves of Uranium? [2009]

(a) Australia (b) Canada

89. In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found? [2009]

(a) Nilgiri Hills (b) Nicobar Islands

90. Which one of the following can one comes across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca? [2010]

(a) Bali (b) Brunei

91. As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is this score?[2010]

(a) It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for reducing carbon footprint

(b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in different countries

(c) It is an assessment of programmes/ schemes undertaken by different countries for improving the conservation of natural resources

(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries

Answers:

2. (a) Greenwich Mean Time is the standard time for time assessment in different countries of earth. The countries which lies east of the Greenwich line is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time while the countries which lies west of Greenwich has their standard time behind the Greenwich Mean Time. So, the correct sequences of the countries are Japan, Iraq, Greece, Cuba and Costa Rica.

3. (c) The 'gypsies' are a group of people which found in Central Asia. But, the original home of gypsies was in India (Western Rajasthan and Punjab) area. 'Gypsies' are an ethnic group, which for unknown reasons took to a wandering life style in the late middle age.

4. (a) The Continent Antarctica is present atthe highest mean elevation in the world. This is because it is covered by a huge layer of ice, about 7,100 feet (2,200 m) thick.

6. (d) Great Nicobar, Sundarbans, Nanda Devi are biosphere reservoir declared by Govt, of India, but Gulf of Kutch is not a biosphere reservoir, it is dry sandy plain.

7. (b) Arakan Yoma is located in western Myanmar. It is the part of eastern Himalayas. It includes the Naga hills, the Chin hills and the Patkai range which includes Lushai hills.

9. (a) De-notified tribes refers to tribes which are aboriginals. These tribes are extremely backward and are struggling to come out of stone age of livelihood. Usually this type of tribes live in forests.

10. (c) Western Ghat is known as ecological hot spots in India by the Wild Life Act of 1972 of Indian Constitution.

11. (d) National Forest Policy 1988 describes the protection of forest and development of forest, it does not describe the use of insecticide and pesticide in forest areas.

13. (b)The Palk strait separates India and Srilanka. It lies between Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal.

15. (b)About 50% of the world population is concentrated between latitude of 20°N and 40°N, because most populous countries like China, U.S.A, Europe. India lies with in this latitude.

16. (d) Mongloids are inhabitants of northern, eastern and south-east Asia.

Their eyes has a characteristic fold of skin on the upper lid, hair is lank and straight, height is medium. The group also includes the Chinese, Japanese, Burmese, Thais, Vietnamese and Malays.

18. (d) Indonesia consists of 13,677 islands (nearly 14,000) and this country is 5000 miles from Torres strait.

20. (b) Daily wheather map showing isobars is an example of isopleth map. Isopleth map shows an imaginary surface by means of lines joining points of equal values.

21. (b) Russia is the largest producer of fuel woods in the world because Russia has the largest cover of forests.

22. (b) During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the respective airports are Bangkok -> Hanoi -> Vietnam -> Taipei

23. (a) The satellite launched by Canada has helped in the prepration of a detailed and complete map of Antartica.

24. (a) Canada is the major importer of Bauxite from India

25. (d) The Indonesia forest fire in 1997was caused by human mistake.

27. (b)

28. (b) Maracaibo is the oil-port of Venezuela.

30. (b) Mestizo is a type of person with mixed racial ancestry, especially of mixed European and native American ancestry.

32.(c) Mt. Rainier is a volcanic mountain situated in U.S.A

Mt. Etna is situated in Europe, Paricutin volcanic mountain present in Mexico and Taal volcanic mountain is present at Philippines.

33. (b) The correct sequence from east to west of Yugoslavia is Yugoslavia, Bosnia, Croatia and slovenia.

34. (c) Lake Victoria acts as the international boundary be tween Tanzania and Uganda. It is the largest lake of all African lakes and 2nd widest fresh water body in the world.

35. (b) Marsupials are the group of mammals commonly have pouches or pocket of skin, where mother nurse their, young child. These marsupians are found in Australia. The common example of marsupians are kangaroo and koala.

37. (b) Fohn is the warm and dry, wind of Alps region, Sarmun is local wind of Kuristan region, Santa Ana is local wind of California and Zonda is local wind of Argentina.

39. (b) All the statements given in the options are correct.

40. (c) According to the recent data of 2010, the population of Indonesia is 242 million, population of Brazil is 201 million, Population of Japan is 126.8 million and population of Russia is 139.3 million, so the descending order of the size of the country is Indonesia, Brazil, Japan and Russia.

41. (c) The descending order literacy status of these countries is: Srilanka - 90.7%, India - 65.5% Pakistan -40.9% and Bangladesh-38.9%.

42. (b) Bosnia, Hercegovina, Alabama, Cratia have Adriatic sea as a boundary. Macednia is for from Adriatic sea.

44. (d) The waterfall Victoria is associated with the river Zambenzi which is situated in Africa.

45. (b) In Macedonia, ethinic Albanian population is 23%, which is a good number in Macedonia. But in Kosovo 92% Albanians present where Serbians are the minority.

46. (a) Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt.

47. (a)

48. (b) Mekon is a major river in south eastern Asia, mekond is known as the Lancang in China. It crosses Yunan province, China, forms the border between Myanmar and Laos and most of the border between Laos and Thailand and flows across Cambodia and Southern Vietnam and emptying to South China.

49. (d) Latvia does not share its border with Poland because it present between Estonia, Russia, Belarus, Lithuania, Gulf of Riga and Baltic Sea.

50. (c) Kolkata-Hajra is National highway -6 and extends 1949 km.

i. Agra-Mumbai is National highway-3 and extends 1,161 km.

ii. Chennai-Thane highway is known as NH-4.

iii. Pune-Machilipatnam National highway is known as NH-9, which extends 841 kilometers.

51. (d) The Panama canal joins Pacific Ocean, Atalantic Ocean, Coumbia and Coast Rica.

52. (d) Silent valley national park is situated in Nilgiri Hills of Western Ghats, The park is bounded by Attappadi reserved forest to the east and the vested forest of Palaghat division and Nilamber division to the southwest respectively.

53. (b) Ukraine does not border Lithuania. The border countries to Lithuania are Lativia, Russia, Poland, Belarus, and Baltic sea is present at the west direction.

54. (c) While moving from the North to the South of Pakistan, the correct sequence of the town is Peshwar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan.

55. (d) All the monuments/sites are included in world Heritage list of UNESCO Sun Temple of Orissa, Group of monuments at Mahabalipuram are included in 1985. Champaner - Pavagadh Archeological park of Gujrat and Chhatrapati Shivaje Terminus of Maharastra are included in year 2004 in UNESCO list.

56. (d) City River

A. Washington D.C. 4. River Potamac

B. Berlin 3. River Spree

C. Paris 2. River Seine

D. Madrid 1. River Manzanares

57. (b) The total area of United Kingdom is 94, 226 sq miles (244,044 sq km), where England covers 50,344 sq miles (130, 365 sq km) i.e. less than 60 % of total United Kingdom.

58. (c) Itaipu Dam is built on River Parana is the largest Dam in the world. This is joint project of Brazil - Paraguay.

59. (b) The decreasing order of arrangement of continent according to the percentage of Earth's land is Africa (29800000 sq km), North America (21510000 sq km) South America (17598000 sq km), Europe (9699550 sq km)

60. (b) Bermuda Triangle is a strange and mysterious place in the southern Atlantic ocean. It is roughly the shape of a triangle. The triangle extends up to south Florida, Pruto Rico and Bermuda Island.

61. (b) Macedonian territory is the bone of contention between Bulgaria & Greece.

62. (c)The Huangpu river is the largest river in Shanghai of China. It is 97 km long, 400 metres wide and 9 metres deep. Sanghai gets most of its drinking water from Huangpu.

63. (b) Canada is the largest producer of Uranium, accounting for about 22% of world output. Production of Uranium in Canada mainly from the Mc Arthur River mines in northern Saskatchewan Province, which is the largest in the world.

64. (d) In statement '1' one nautical mile is 1852 mtrs and one terrestrial mile is 1609 metres. So, statement '1' is correct. In statement '2' Harmattan is a dry and dusty wind of West Africa. So, statement '2' is wrong. In statement '3' Iberian peninsula includes Portugal, Spain, Andorra & Gibraltar. Greece and Albania is not present in Iberian peninsula. So, statement '3' is wrong.

65. (b)Colombia, Kenya & Indonesia are the group of countries which passes the equator.

66. (a) Bai Konour is world's first and largest operational space launch facility. It is located in Kazakhstan, not in Rusisa.

67. (d)Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh is the group of countries which bordering Myanmar.

68. (c)Copacabana Beach is located in Riode Janeiro of Brazil.

69. (d)London, Lisbon and Accra of Ghana are present close to Greenwitch Meridian. But, Addis Ababa is situated on the eastern part of Africa (i.e., longitude 38.74 E). So, Addis Ababa has different clock time as that of London, Lisbon and Accra.

70. (a)

71. (a) Amazon is the longest river of world, originates from Andes mountain in Peru.

72. (c)Strait of Dover connects to United Kingdom and France. It is about 32 km in length.

73. (a)The largest coral reef is the Great Barrier Reef, located just off the north-eastern coast of Australia. Much of the 1200 mile (1900 km) long reef is protected as a Marine park.

74. (c) India has largest livestock population in the world, having 57% of world's buffalo population and 14% of the cattle population. According to 17th India's livestock census 2003, the country has about 18.5 crore cattle and 9.8 crore buffalo with total live stock of 48-50 crore and total poultry of48.90 crore.

75. (b) Malta is in the middle of mediterranean sea. Italy is in south and Libya is present at the north of Malta. The area is 246 sq km.

76. (d) Singapore is 200 km north of equator.

77. (b) Bering Strait is nearest to the International Date line, because the international Date line runs equidistant between the American continents, on its East and the Aisan, Australia, and Europe on it west.

78. (a) Maldova is a land locked country in Eastern Europe located between Romania to the West and Ukrain tc the north, east and south.

79. (c) Ajman is one of the seven emirates constitating the United Arab Emirates with an area of 260 sq kilometors and Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join UAE.

80. (b)

81. (c) Canada ranked 36th most populated country.

82. (b) Omkareshwar Project associated with Narmada river.

83. (c) 9 states of India shares the coastline.

84. (d) The tropic of capricorn pass over all the following coil tries.

85. (a) Berlin is situated at the bank of Havel river. Rhine m is longest river in Germany.

86. (b)

87. (a) Cape Canaveral is the part of Florida's space coast.

88. (a) Australia has the world's largest uranium reservi Approximately 24% of the planet's uranium present Australia.

89. (b) The Shompen tribe is one of two mongloid tribes that inhabits in the Nicobar Island.

90. (d) Malacca strait is between the Indoneisan island of Sumatra and the Malaya Peninsula. Singapore lies the tip of the Malay Peninsular.

91. (b) In the third annual survey of National Geographic city & Globe Scan, Indian top ranked in Greendex2 due to environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in different countries.

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Indian Govenment AWRADS for Honouring Best People

2010-12-27T10:49:00.000+05:30

Bharat Ratna Award

India has produced a legacy of brave hearts since times immemorial. Probably there is not enough space to measure their sacrifices. However, we cannot close our eyes to those people who have made our country proud by excelling in their own fields and bringing us international recognition. Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian honour, given for exceptional service towards advancement of Art, Literature and Science, and in recognition of Public Service of the highest order.
The original specifications for the award called for a circular gold medal, 35 mm in diameter, with the sun and the Hindi legend "Bharat Ratna" above and a floral wreath below. The reverse was to carry the state emblem and motto. It was to be worn around the neck from a white ribbon. This design was altered after a year.

Bharat Ratna Award

Bharat Ratna Award
(Reverse Side)

The provision of Bharat Ratna was introduced in 1954. The first ever Indian to receive this award was the famous scientist, Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman. Since then, many dignitaries, each a whiz in varied aspects of their career has received this coveted award.
In fact, our former President, Shri A. P. J Abdul Kalam is also a recipient of this esteemed honour (1997). There is no written provision that Bharat Ratna should be awarded to Indian citizens only. The award has been awarded to a naturalized Indian citizen, Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu, better known as Mother Teresa (1980) and to two non-Indians – Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Nelson Mandela (1990). It is also not mandatory that Bharat Ratna be awarded every year. The last time this award was given was in 2008, to Bhimsen Joshi.

Padma Awards

Padma Awards, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri are given for exceptional and distinguished service in any field including service rendered by Government servants. The recommendations for Padma Awards are received from the State Governments/Union Territory Administrations, Central Ministries/Departments, Institutions of Excellence, etc. which are considered by an Awards Committee. On the basis of the recommendations of the Awards Committee, and after approval of the Home Minister, Prime Minister and President, the Padma Awards are announced on the eve of the Republic Day.
View the list of Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri Awardees.

Padma Vibhushan Award:

Padma Bhushan Award:

Padma Shri Award:

Gallantry Awards

The art of appreciating the brave and gallant is not new. They form one of the most important constituents of a nation’s stability. History defines gallantry as commanded respect and appreciation. The concept of emancipation of the brave is cognizant in our Epics too. In the Mahabharata, the merit of dying as a martyr in the cause of Dharma is all along appreciated as the easiest way to heaven. In fact, any kind of death on the battlefield was considered glorious.
Whether being the appointed head of a clan, raised memorials in honour of the martyrs/brave souls or granted titles, robe of honour, cash awards or medals etc., recognition of bravery has always been a very prestigious affair. The conclusion of British Rule in India saw the end of the old institution of British honours and awards. Independent India saw the introduction of awards such as Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, Ashoka Chakra, Shaurya Chakra etc.

Param Vir Chakra (PVC)

This is the highest gallantry award for officers and other enlisted personnel of all military branches of India for the highest degree of valour in the presence of the enemy. Introduced on 26th January 1950, this award may be given posthumously. Literally, Param Vir Chakra means 'Wheel (or Cross) of the Ultimate Brave'. In Sanskrit, ‘Param’ means Ultimate, ‘Vir’ (Pronounced veer) means Brave and ‘Chakra’ means Wheel. The PVC is the equivalent award of the Medal of Honour in the United States, and the Victoria Cross in the United Kingdom.

Ashok Chakra

The Ashok Chakra series of awards are open to civilians also. Recommendations received in respect of civilians from the State Governments/Union territory Administra-tions and Ministries/Departments of the Central Government are processed by the Ministry of Defence for the consideration of the Central Honours and Awards Committee chaired by the Defence Minister. These awards are biannual and are given on the Republic Day and Independence Day.

Shaurya Chakra

This is awarded for gallantry other than in the face of the enemy. This award may be granted to civilians or to military personnel and may be awarded posthumously.

Bravery Awards

The national awards for bravery was started in 1957 by the Indian Council for Child Welfare (ICCW) to recognise and honour children who have performed outstanding deeds of bravery and selfless sacrifice. Every year the ICCW confers these awards to children below 16years of age.
Applications for these awards are acknowledged from Central/State government departments, Panchayats, Zila Parishads, school authorities as well as state and Union Territory councils for child welfare.
The selection is made by a committee constituted by the ICCW, comprising of representatives from the Secretariats of the President and the Vice-President, various ministries, as well as the Central Social Welfare Board, police, All India Radio, Doordarshan and leading NGOs such as the National Bal Bhavan, SOS, Children's Villages of India, R K Mission and experienced ICCW members.
The awards are announced on November 14 (Children's Day) and the Prime Minister presents the awards on the eve of Republic Day. The awardees receive a medal, certificate and cash as a token of their indispensable courage.
In addition to this, some of them are also granted financial assistance to complete their schooling (ICCW's sponsorship programme) and professional courses such as medical and engineering (under the Indira Gandhi scholarship scheme). Assistance is also provided to some till they complete their graduation.

Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards

The Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of awards are given for courage and promptitude under circumstances of great danger to the life or bodily injury of the rescuer, displayed in an act or a series of acts of humane nature, in saving life from drowning, fire, rescue operations in mines, etc. Recommendations for Jeevan Raksha Padak series of awards are received from the State Government/Union Territory, Administrations and Ministries /Departments of the Government of India.

Best Softwares For Teachers-MedicalBill,IT,Salarybill

2010-12-24T20:30:00.000+05:30

Medical reinbursement softwareDownload IncomeTax software final Download
Salary Bill Software Download
DA Software NEW for All Download

IGNOU Admissions: M.Ed. Special Education and B.Ed. Special Education

2010-12-24T19:43:00.000+05:30

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU), New Delhi, invites applications for admission into the following disciplines of Bachelor of Education (B Ed) and Master of Education (M Ed) Special Education programme, to be offered in the ensuing session 2011. Admissions are done on the basis of an entrance test

B Ed Special Education Disciplines

* Hearing Impairment

* Visual Impairment

* Mental Retardation

MEd Special Education Disciplines

* Hearing Impairment (MEDSEHM)

* Learning Disability (MEDSELD)

* Visual Impairment (MEDSEVI)

* Mental Retardation (MEDSEMR)

How to apply for B.Ed/ M.Ed at IGNOU

Interested candidates can download the application form and prospectus from the university’s official website: http://www.ignou.ac.in/. The downloaded application form, completed in all respects should be submitted at the concerned regional centre along with a DD/IPO of Rs 550 drawn in favor of IGNOU payable at New Delhi. Candidates can obtain the application form and prospectus through post from the Registrar (SRD), IGNOU, Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068 or from the Regional Centers of IGNOU by sending Rs 550 through DD/IPO drawn in favor of IGNOU payable at New Delhi/city of concerned Regional Centre. Applicants can also obtain the application form and prospectus by paying Rs 500 in cash at the respective sale counters. For further details, candidates can visit the university’s aforementioned website.

Last Date of submitting Application Form: January 10, 2011

For details visit: www.ignou.ac.in

A.P. SSC PUBLIC EXAMS - 2011 SCHEDULE( March 24 to April 7)

2010-12-24T19:38:00.000+05:30

First Language Paper(Telugu)– I (March 24)
First Language Paper(Telugu)– II (March 25);
Second Language(Hindi)–(March 26);
English Paper – I (March 28);
English Paper – II (March 29);
Maths Paper – I (March 30);
Maths Paper – II (March 31);
General Science Paper – I (April 1);
General Science Paper – II (April 2);
Social Studies Paper – I (April 6);
Social Studies Paper – II (April 7);

Recent Government G.O. & proceedings For Teachers & Govt Employers

2010-12-24T19:25:00.002+05:30

Opening of GPF Accounts - Special Vidya Volunteers DSC 2002

RC.No.488571D2-3/2010, Date: 20.12.2010 - Open the GPF accounts to the teachers or Spl Vidya Volunteers those who appointed in October 2002 DSC and also to the SGT/LP's appointed in earlier DSC's,
appointed subsequently as SAl Grade-1 pandits in DSC 2002 - Download

D.A. G.O.s Released for State Govt. Employees & Retired Employees

G.O.Ms.No.356, Dated: 06.12.2010 - ALLOWANCES - Dearness Allowance – Dearness Allowance to the State Government Employees from 1st July, 2010 – Sanctioned – Orders – Download
G.O.Ms.No.358, Dated: 09.12.2010 - Pension – Dearness Relief to Pensioners with effect from 01.07.2010 – Revised - Orders – Download

Rc.No.8878/ (D3-4) MB1 – 2010, Dated: 12-10-2010 - 16 points guidelines for sending medical reimbursement proposals

Rc.No.8878/ (D3-4) MB1 – 2010, Dated: 12-10-2010 - School Education Department – Medical Attendance – Medical Reimbursement proposals in respect of Teachers/HM’s and other Employees of Education Department – certain Instructions – Download

Procedure for claiming Family Pension G.O. Ms. No. 353, Dated: 04 -12-2010 released

G.O. Ms. No. 353, Dated: 04 -12-2010 - PENSIONS – Disbursement of Pension – Procedure for claiming Family Pension after the demise of the spouse or other member of the family - Orders - Download

Proc.Rc.No.174/E1-1/2010, Dated: 22/10/2010 Released for Sanctioning of Earned Leave to teachers for the workdone in Summer Vacation

Proc.Rc.No.174/E1-1/2010, Dated: 22/10/2010 - School Education - Election - Census 2010 - Sanctioning E.L.s in Summer Vacation to teachers - Download

Rc.No. 1827/C3-2/2009, Dated: 25/11/2010 - FAC Allowance Powers delegated to RJDSEs

Rc.No. 1827/C3-2/2009, Dated: 25/11/2010 - APES – FAC Arrangements to the post of HMs/MEOs –sanction of FAC allowance @ 1/5th of pay – Powers delegated to the RJDSEs in the State - Orders – Download

Fin.,Dept.,Clarification on rule 6g(i) of G.O.Ms.No. 52, Dated: 25/02/2010

Memo No.29300.D/175/ PC-I/A2/2010, Dated: 03.12.2010 - G.O.Ms.No.52, Finance(PC-I)Department, Dated: 25.02.2010 is not applicable to the Pay Fixations of the Employees under Automatic Advancement Scheme, vide Memo No.29300.D/175/ PC-I/A2/2010, dt.03.12.2010 - Download

G.O.Ms.No. 67, Dated: 20/11/2010 Released for Promotions on 1st of Every Month

G.O.Ms.No. 67, Dated: 20/11/2010 - School Education – General Rules relating to regulation of promotions and transfers of the categories of Headmasters Grade-II Gazetted, School Assistants and SGTs and their equivalent categories in the Andhra Pradesh School Educational Service Rules and A.P. School Educational Subordinate Service Rules working in the Government Schools and Z.P.P. and M.P.P. Schools in the State – Order - Download

Concessional Buspass facility to Govt. Employees

G. O. Ms. No. 650, Dated:9.11.2010 - SERVICES WELFARE – Concessional Bus Pass facility to the Government Employees – Enhancement of the ceiling limit on the existing scale of pay and continuation of the scheme based on the Recommendations of Pay Revision Commission, 2010 with regard to the sharing of Bus Pass facility - Amendment – Orders - Download

NOBEL PRIZE WINNERS FROM INDIA

2010-05-07T20:23:00.004+05:30

Nobel Prize winners from India are with due respect enlisted below, these are great people from India who showed the world the untapped potential India has, even though it may not have facilities and luxuries at par with the likes of USA,Britain and other big social economies but the talent, hard work and skill here is unfathomed.

VENKATRAMAN RAMAKRISHNAN Born in 1952 in Chidambaram, Tamil Nadu, India, he is a U.S. citizen. Indian origin senior scientist at the MRC Laborartory of Molecular Biology at Cambridge, Venkatraman Ramakrishnan, has been awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for 2009 along with two others. The Nobel Committee announced on Wednesday that the Tamil Nadu born Ramakrishnan shares the Nobel Prize with Thomas E Steitz (US) and Ada E Yonath (Israel) for their “studies of the structure and function of the ribosome”. Ramakrishnan graduated in B.Sc. in Physics from Baroda University in 1971 and did Ph.D. in Physics in 1976 from Ohio University.“This year’s Nobel Prize in Chemistry awards Venkatraman Ramakrishnan, Thomas A Steitz and Ada E Yonath for having showed what the ribosome looks like and how it functions at the atomic level,” the Nobel committee said. All three have used a method called X-ray crystallography to map the position for each and every one of the hundreds of thousands of atoms that make up the ribosome, it said. “This year’s three Laureates have all generated 3D models that show how different antibiotics bind to the ribosome. These models are now used by scientists to develop new antibiotics, directly assisting the saving of lives and decreasing humanity’s suffering,” the citation said.

AMARTYA SEN (b-1933) : Prof. Amartya Sen is the recipient of the Nobel Prize for Economics for the year 1998, becoming the first Asian to have been honored with the award. The Santiniketan-born economist who is a pioneer in Welfare Economics has to his credit several books and papers on aspects of welfare and development. An economist with a difference, Prof. Sen is a humanist. He has distinguished himself with his outstanding writings on famine, poverty, democracy, gender and social issues. The ‘impossibility theorem’ suggested earlier by Kenneth Arrow states that it was not possible to aggregate individual choices into a satisfactory choice for society as a whole. Prof. Sen showed mathematically that societies could find ways to alleviate such a poor outcome.

SUBRAMANIAN CHANDRASHEKAR (1910-1995) : The Nobel Prize for Physics in 1983 was awarded to Dr S. Chandrashekar, an Indian-born astrophysicist. Educated in Presidency College, Chennai, Dr. Chandrashekar happened to be the nephew of his Nobel forbear, Sir C.V. Raman. He later migrated to the United States where he authored several books on Astrophysics and Stellar Dynamics. He developed a theory on white dwarf stars which posts a limit of mass of dwarf stars known also as Chandrashekar Limit. His theory explains the final stages of stellar evolution.

MOTHER TERESA (1910-1997) : The Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Mother Teresa in 1979. Albanian parentage, Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu was born at Skopje, now in Yogoslavia. She joined the Irish order of the Sisters of Loretto at Dublin in 1928 and came to Kolkata in 1929 as a missionary, only to find the misery of the abandoned and the destitute. Concern for the poor and the sick prompted her to found a new congregation, Missionaries of Charity. Having become an Indian citizen, Mother Teresa served the cause of dying destitute’s, lepers and drug addicts, through Nirmal Hriday (meaning Pure Heart), the main centre of her activity. Her selfless service and unique devotion, not only to helpless fellow-Indians but also to the cause of world peace, earned her and India the first Nobel Peace Prize.

HARGOBIND KHORANA (b. 1922) : Hargobind Khorana was awarded the Nobel Prize for Medicine in 1968. Of Indian origin, Dr Khorana was born in Raipur, Punjab (now in Pakistan). He took his doctoral degree in Chemistry from Liverpool University and joined the University of Wisconsin as a Faculty Member in 1960. His major breakthrough in the field of Medicine—interpreting the genetic code and analyzing its function in protein synthesis—fetched him the Nobel Prize.

CHANDRASHEKAR VENKATARAMAN (1888-1970) : India’s first Nobel Prize for Physics was claimed in 1930 by the renowned physicist Sir C.V. Raman. Born at Thiruvanaikkaval near iruchirapalli in Tamil Nadu, Raman studied at Presidency College, Chennai. Later, he served as Professor of Physics at Calcutta University. Recipient of many honors and awards, including the title of ‘Sir’, Sir C.V. Raman received the Nobel Prize for an important optics research, in which he discovered that diffused light contained rays of other wavelengths—what is now popularly known as Raman Effect. His theory discovered in 1928 explains the change in the frequency of light passing through a transparent medium.

RABINDRANATH TAGORE (1861-1941) : Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian ever to receive a Nobel Prize. Popularly known as Gurudev, India’s Poet Laureate Tagore was born on 7 May 1861 in Kolkata. He was awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in recognition of his work Geetanjali, a collection of poems, in 1913. Tagore wrote many love lyrics. Geetanjali and Sadhana are among his important works. The poet, dramatist and novelist is also the author of India’s National Anthem. In 1901 he founded the famous Santiniketan which later came to be known as Vishwabharati University.

Earth Day-2010,APRIL22-A Day to Celebrate Earth

2010-04-22T12:34:00.000+05:30

A Day to Celebrate Earth

Earth Day is the largest, most widely celebrated international environmental event. Earth Day helps celebrate Earth’s unique place in the universe. It is the only planet in our solar system teeming with incredible biodiversity. Learning about and protecting this biodiversity is what Earth Day is all about. People all over the world celebrate our efforts to protect plants and animals and to clean up the world we live in. Most people celebrate Earth Day on April 22nd each year. In some countries, it is celebrated a month earlier on thevernal equinox.

Countries all over the world celebrate Earth Day in different ways. China created a stamp to commemorate Earth Day and the planet.

©XA Business

The First Earth Day

Senator Gaylord Nelson of the United States founded Earth Day. Earth Day was first celebrated on April 22, 1970 in the United States. Across the United States, 20 million people and thousands of local schools and communities participated in the first Earth Day. The huge turnout for the first Earth Day made it the largest organized celebration in the history of the United States. Earth Day’s success helped influence the government of the United States to create stronger laws to protect the environment.

Demonstrations are one way people voice their opinions about environmental practices and laws they disagree with. These people are protesting old-growth logging in an ancient forest in the Pacific Northwest of the United States.

Earth Day Goes International

On March 21, 1971, United Nations(UN) Secretary-General U Thant made Earth Day an international celebration. He spoke about it at a Peace Bell Ceremony at the United Nations in New York City. The United Nations Earth Day ceremony continues each year on the day of the vernal equinox (March 20th or 21st), with the ringing of the UN Peace Bell at the very moment of theequinox.

A Turnout of 200 Million!

In 1990, the first official International Earth Day was celebrated. About 200 million people from 141 nations took part in a celebration of environmental conservation. In many countries, the global event reminded presidents and other national leaders how important protecting Earth is to people.

A Summit to Save the Planet

Many of these leaders later took part in the first United Nations Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992. At the summit, global problems such as climate change and the worldwide loss ofindigenous cultures and wild species were discussed.

Why Celebrate Earth Day?

Earth Day reminds us we all share the same planet. Sharing Earth means taking responsibility for what we use and how we use it. It is a day to think of the environmental challenges we face and how to solve them. Protecting Earth is every person’s and every country’s responsibility.

Parties All Around the Globe

People traditionally celebrate Earth Day with the ringing of bells, often bells of peace. The tradition of bell ringing is practiced all over the world on Earth Day. Representatives from Palestine, Austria, and Russia have all rung a Peace Bell in a ceremony celebrating the protection of the environment and of Earth’s many species.

Children in India put on this “Save the Earth” skit to celebrate the planet and to raise environmental awareness.

A Rally in India

In India, one Earth Day was celebrated by approximately 1,200 kids. They held a rally during which they carried signs with slogans and messages about preserving all of nature. The children also performed skits about the environment. The India Habitat Center held painting and quiz competitions. At other events, kids presented a “Children’s Clean Air Manifesto” to the president’s wife. Then they held a Children’s Bicycle Rally to promote nonpolluting forms of transportation.

In Kenya, Earth Day is celebrated along with the country’s National Tree Planting Day. Citizens and students plant trees in order to preserve forests and keep the environment clean.

More Trees for Kenya

In Kenya, distinguished guests and schoolchildren planted 1,000 trees in Nairobi’s endangered Karura forest. The plantings were in honor of Earth Day and Kenya’s National Tree Planting Day on April 21.

Field trips and outdoor projects are a great way to learn more about Earth, your environment, and all the interesting things that live there.

Theme Parties in China

China celebrates Earth Day each year with a theme. One year the theme was Protection of Geographic Relics and Scientific Development. This theme highlighted the importance of preserving cultural history and artifacts. Another year the theme focused on sustainableuse of natural resources in China and all over the world.

Thorny devil lizards are one of the many unusual Australian wildlife species that depend on the mallee wilderness of Yellabinna to survive.

Earth Day Down Under

In Australia, a group dressed in animal costumes held a parade in which they carried flags and banners in support of protecting Yellabinna (yell-uh-BEE-nah), the world’s largest stretch of mallee wilderness. Another Earth Day celebration drew attention to air pollution by organizing a large “car-less” day. Many central Sydney streets were blocked off to cars. These car-free streets became the site of an Earth Day festival with music, theater, and educational exhibits.

Join the Earth Day Party

United Nations Secretary-General Kofi Annan rings the peace bell at a Peace Bell Ringing Ceremony.

Come join the party with millions of other kids and celebrate your Earth! Earth Day celebrations provide a chance to remember what an amazing planet we live on.

How have you celebrated Earth Day in the past? If you or your class has a great story, tell GLOBIO so that your story can be shared with kids around the world on Earth Day Everyday.

Making Earth-friendly Choices

There are many different things each of us can do to help protect species, keep Earth clean, and fix damage that has been done. For example, using fewer natural resources will help make sure there are enough resources to go around. It will also help make sure that future generations won’t run out of the things we all need, like clean water, air, and soil.

A Hole in Our Safety Zone

Scientists are worried about air pollution and its effects on the ozone layer. They use special technology and tools to carefully watch the hole that has developed over Antarctica. This is a mapping spectrometer image of the hole in the ozone layer above Antarctica.

©NASA

When we don’t use resources in a responsible way, we may create pollution that can damage water, soil, air, and other parts of the environment. For instance, certain types of air pollution have already created a hole in our planet’s ozone layer. The ozone layer is part of theatmosphere. It is made up of a special gas called ozone. The ozone layer helps keep us safe from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays.

Most scientists believe that as more air pollution is made, the ozone layer will become thinner and more holes will develop. This will allow even more ultraviolet rays to reach Earth. A thinner ozone layer may result in harm to people, animals, and plants.

Conservation of endangered species is an important part of Earth Day and taking care of the planet every day. At the David Sheldrick Wildlife Trust in Kenya in Africa, orphaned baby rhinoceroses and elephants are raised by keepers. Eventually, they are released back into their wild habitat.

Protecting Endangered Species

Along with pollution, things like habitatdestruction and poaching are causing some species to become endangered. Finding ways to protect and save endangered species is a primary goal of conservation groups. Earth Day celebrations are a great opportunity for these groups to teach us all about the planet and how every person can make a difference.

Think Globally, Act Locally

More cities around the world are making streets, roads, and special paths just for bicycles and pedestrians. On special days each week, month, or year, many cities close some of their roads to cars and other vehicles in order to promote walking and bicycle riding.

©G.George

Earth Day isn’t the only day when the world can and should celebrate the planet we all share. In fact, at GLOBIO we believe Earth Day Everyday should be theway to live.

Here are a few ways you can help Earth every day.

Walk or ride a bicycle to school, the park, or the store. Encourage your parents to walk or ride to work, too. This is a great way to help reduce the pollution created by cars, trucks, buses, trains, and airplanes.
Plant trees. Trees help keep the air clean.
Do not litter. Pick up litter on the sidewalk, street, beach, or riverbank. This will help keep the environment free ofcontaminants.
Create a compost pile for food scraps and plant waste from the garden. This is a good way to cut down on the amount of trash that goes into a landfill. As a bonus, compost helps create rich soil for gardening.
Recycle! Recycling is an important part of keeping Earth clean. It is very easy to do. By giving old things a new life we put less pressure on important resources all of us will need in the future to survive.

Rethink, Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

Understanding how long something takes to decompose in a garbage dump or landfill can help motivate all of us to reuse and recycle everything we can. The best thing any of us can do for the environment is to rethink the way we use things and to use less. The fewer resources and products we use, the less stuff there is to throw away and recycle. Can you guess how long it takes the things we use everyday to turn into soil in a landfill? Click below to find the answers.

Most things that are thrown away in an average bag of trash can be recycled. Open this picture and move your mouse around the sorted piles of trash to learn what can be recycled instead of thrown away.

Andhrapradesh PRC-2010 Total G.O.'s Relased on April 4th

2010-04-09T18:41:00.000+05:30

Andhra Pradesh State Govt. released G.O.Ms.No. 52 on 25/02/2010 to implement Revised Pay Scales under Pay Revision Commssion (PRC) - 2010.

Andhra Pradesh Revised Scales of Pay Rules, 2010 shall be deemed to have come into force on the 1st July, 2008.These rules shall apply to all the Government employees whether temporary, regular or permanent appointed before 1st July, 2008.

The Revised Pay Scales will be implemented notionally from 01.07.2008 with monetary benefit from 01.02.2010. The arrears for the month of February, 2010 will be credited into the GPF accounts of the employees. The benefit of the Revised Pay Scales 2010 will be paid in cash for the salary of March, 2010 payable in April, 2010

The Revised Master scale in RPS-2010:

6700-200-7300-220-7960-240-8680-260-9460-280-10300-300-11200-330-12190-360-13270-390-

14440-420-15700-450-17050-490-18520-530-20110-570-21820-610-23650-650-25600-700-27700-

750-29950-800-32350-850-34900-900-37600-970-40510-1040-43630-1110-46960-1200-51760-1300-55660(80)

G.O. Ms.No. 52(Detailed), Dated: 25/02/2010 Download (517 Pages)
G.O. Ms.No. 52(Simplified), Dated: 25/02/2010 Download (13 Pages)
Form for exercising option under Revised Scale of Pay Rules Download (1 Page)
G.O.Ms.No. 63, Dated: 09/03/2010 - Dearness Allowance(DA) - Download
G.O.Ms.No. 64, Dated: 09/03/2010 - House Rent Allowance(HRA) - Download
G.O.Ms.No. 65, Dated: 09/03/2010 - City Compensatory Allowance(CCA) - Download
Cir.Memo.No.1040/48/A1/PC.I/2010,Dated:10-03-2010 - Allowing H.R.A. to the Employees working around 8 kms periphery of a Qualified City/Town-Instructions - Download
Memo. No. 33327-A/549/A1/PC-I/2009, Dated: 13.3.2010 - Procedural Instructions for fixation of pay of employees and Audit of Claims – Instructions -Circular - Download
G.O.Ms.No. 93, Dated: 03/04/2010 - Automatic Advancement Scheme(AAS) - Download
G.O.Ms.No. 99, Dated: 06/04/2010 - ALLOWANCES - AP Civil Services (Travelling Allowance) Rules -Download
G.O.Ms.No.100, Dated: 06/04/2010 - Enhancement of Minimum Pension –Sanction of Dearness Relief and Medical Allowance to Pensioners& Family pensioners and other benefits - Download
G.O.Ms.No.101, Dated: 06/04/2010 – Emoluments for calculation of retirement Gratuity & Enhancement of maximum limit of Retirement Gratuity from Rs.3,50,000/- to Rs.7,00,000/- - Download
G.O.Ms.No.102, Dated: 06/04/2010 - Death Relief - Relief in case of death of pensioners in receipt of service pension – Raised to a minimum of Rs.10, 000/- - Download
G.O.Ms.No.103, Dated: 06/04/2010 - ALLOWANCES - AP Manual of Special Pays and Allowances - Risk Allowance - Download
G.O.Ms.No.107, Dated: 07/04/2010 - CONVEYANCE CHARGES - AP Civil Services (Travelling
Allowance) Rules - Download
G.O.Ms.No.108, Dated: 07/04/2010-ALLOWANCES -AP Manual of Special Pays and Allowances - Conveyance Allowance to the Blind and Physically Handicapped employees - Download
G.O.Ms.No.118, Dated: 07/04/2010 - ALLOWANCES - AP Manual of Special Pay & Allowances - HM Allowance - Download

Right to Education Act 2010 Start from 1st April 2010

2010-04-02T20:02:00.002+05:30

Right to Education Act

What is the act about?

Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education. This is stated as per the 86th Constitution Amendment Act added Article 21A. The right to education act seeks to give effect to this amendment
The government schools shall provide free education to all the children and the schools will be managed by school management committees (SMC). Private schools shall admit at least 25% of the children in their schools without any fee.
The National Commission for Elementary Education shall be constituted to monitor all aspects of elementary education including quality.

The text of the entire act can be Read Here

Main features of Right to Education 2009 act

History of the act

December 2002
86th Amendment Act (2002) via Article 21A (Part III) seeks to make free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for all children in the age group 6-14 years.
October 2003
A first draft of the legislation envisaged in the above Article, viz., Free and Compulsory Education for Children Bill, 2003, was prepared and posted on this website in October, 2003, inviting comments and suggestions from the public at large.
2004
Subsequently, taking into account the suggestions received on this draft, a revised draft of the Bill entitled Free and Compulsory Education Bill, 2004, was prepared and posted on the http://education.nic.in website.
June 2005
The CABE (Central Advisory Board of Education) committee drafted the ‘Right to Education’ Bill and submitted to the Ministry of HRD. MHRD sent it to NAC where Mrs. Sonia Gandhi is the Chairperson. NAC sent the Bill to PM for his observation.
14th July 2006
The finance committee and planning commission rejected the Bill citing the lack of funds and a Model bill was sent to states for the making necessary arrangements. (Post-86th amendment, States had already cited lack of funds at State level)
19th July 2006
CACL, SAFE, NAFRE, CABE invited ILP and other organizations for a Planning meeting to discuss the impact of the Parliament action, initiate advocacy actions and set directions on what needs to be done at the district and village levels.

FAQs

1. Why is the Bill important?
The Bill is important because it is the first step in the direction of the government’s active role in ensuring implementation of the Constitutional Amendment. And as important, the Bill:

Legislates provision of free and compulsory elementary and secondary education
Provides for a school in every neighborhood
Provides for a School Monitoring Committee – elected representatives of the community to ensure proper functioning
Mandates that no child in the age group 6-14 shall be employed

All this are right steps to lay the foundation for the development of a common public school system that can provide quality education to all the children, thus preventing exclusion of socially and economically disadvantaged population.
2. Why is the chosen age group 6 - 14?
The bill focuses on providing primary to high school education compulsorily to all children and also the education given in this age group would be the ground work for their future.

India clears right to education bill

Six years after an amendment was made in the Indian Constitution, the union cabinet cleared the Right to Education Bill. It is now soon to be tabled in Parliament for approval before it makes a fundamental right of every child to get free and compulsory education.
More than six decades after Independence, the Indian government has cleared the Right to Education Bill that makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for all children between the ages of 6 and 14.
The Union Cabinet has cleared the long-pending Right to Education Bill, which promises free and compulsory education to every child. The move should provide a much needed boost to the country’s education sector.
Key provisions of the Bill include: 25% reservation in private schools for disadvantaged children from the neighbourhood, at the entry level. The government will reimburse expenditure incurred by schools; no donation or capitation fee on admission; and no interviewing the child or parents as part of the screening process.
The Bill also prohibits physical punishment, expulsion or detention of a child and deployment of teachers for non-educational purposes other than census or election duty and disaster relief. Running a school without recognition will attract penal action.
Observing that it was an important promise to children, as education would become a fundamental right, India’s Finance Minister P Chidambaram said that it would be the legally enforceable duty of the Centre and the states to provide free and compulsory education.
He added that the human resources ministry would release the text of the Bill after consulting the Election Commission, in view of assembly polls in some states.
The Group of Ministers (GoM) entrusted with the task of scrutinising the Bill cleared the draft legislation early this month without diluting its content, which includes the contentious provision of 25% reservation in private schools at the entry level, for disadvantaged children in the neighbourhood. Some see this as a way of getting the private sector to discharge the State’s constitutional obligation.
The Right to Education Bill is the enabling legislation to notify the 86th constitutional amendment that gives every child between the age of six and 14 the right to free and compulsory education. But it has been 61 years in the making.
In 1937, when Mahatma Gandhi voiced the need for universal education he met with the same stonewalling about cost that dogs the issue today. The Constitution left it as a vague plea to the State to “endeavour to provide free and compulsory education to all children up to age 14”, but access to elementary school still remains elusive today.
It was only in 2002 that education was made a fundamental right in the 86th amendment to the Constitution.
In 2004, the government in power, the NDA, drafted a Bill but lost the elections before it could be introduced. The present UPA’s model Bill was then lobbed back and forth between the Centre and the states over the matter of funding and responsibility.
Critics of the Bill question the age provision. They say children below six years and above 14 should be included. Also, the government has not addressed the issue of shortage of teachers, low skill levels of many teachers, and lack of educational infrastructure in existing schools let alone the new ones that will have to be built and equipped.
The Bill had earlier faced resistance from the law and finance ministries on issues involving the states’ financial contributions. The law ministry expected problems to arise from the 25% reservation, while human resource development ministry estimates put the total cost at Rs 55,000 crore every year.
The Planning Commission expressed its inability to fork out the money; the state governments said they were unwilling to supply even part of the funding. The Centre was thus forced to think of footing the entire bill itself.
The draft Bill aims to provide elementary schools in every neighbourhood within three years – though the word “school” encompasses a whole spectrum of structures.
A set of minimum norms have been worked out as there’s the usual barrier of paperwork in remote rural and poor urban areas. The State is also obliged to tide over any financial compulsions that may keep a child out of school.
“Laws and Bills don’t make children go to school. Initially, there will be problems because while everyone must understand their social responsibility, what matters is whether the right children will have access to this programme. They say the fee component will be given by the government, but it’s not fair to put that cost on others,” says Lata Vaidyanthan, Principal, Modern School, Barakhamba Road, New Delhi.
Still, educationists who’ve rooted for the Bill argue that sharing social responsibility should be seen as a privilege, not a burden.
Source : InfoChange India

AP SSC(X-Class) Hall Tickets Click to Download

2010-03-17T20:35:00.000+05:30

SSC Regular Public Examinations starting from 22nd of this month & the Halltickets are available on net from today. Students are requested downloaded Hall Tickets should be attested Respective Head Master. Search can be done by any of fields, enter any part of Student Name min. 4 characters, any part of Father's Name min. 4 characters, and Select the District is Compulsory.

SSC March' 2010 Regular click here
SSC March' 2010 Private click here
SSC March 2010 Vocational click here
OSSC REGULAR 2010 click here
OSSC PRIVATE 2010 click here

Note: Students are requested downloaded Hall Tickets should be attested Respective Head Master.

Census-National Population Register (NPR) to begin from April 26

2010-03-17T20:32:00.000+05:30

Starting April 26, census officials in the State will begin working on one of the biggest official counts in the world – India's 15th census.

The nearly year-long process will be under way in eleven States and five Union Territories when census officers in Andhra Pradesh visit the first house.

More than a billion people, literate and unlettered, speaking in six thousand tongues will answer questions in forms printed in 16 languages. But this time around, the census enumerators and their supervisors will have two tasks ahead of them. Alongside every census form, there will be a second form, which will collect data for the National Population Register (NPR) - the first attempt at a national identity database.

After each household records its details, every person in the household records their details for the NPR – name, marital status, educational qualifications, occupation etc.

A year later, these forms will begin yielding the Unique Identification Cards, which will be issued to every citizen and ‘usual resident' in the country. These cards will carry the individual's photograph as well as fingerprint for authentication.

Gigantic task:

Before the mammoth process can begin, India's teeming towns and remote villages need to be broken down into blocks, each having not more than 150 households. Then census enumerators and their supervisors have to be trained.

First conference:

With six weeks to go, the State held the first conference of Principal Census Officers and District Census Officers on Saturday.

“We cannot leave anyone out,” Census Commissioner C. Chandramouli said repeatedly.

“We have to find a way of counting all kinds of people – nomadic groups, illegal settlers and migrants.” “We are quite confident of the process,” he said. More than 3,000 coastal villages in the county are almost at the end of the NPR process. They will be the first to receive UID cards, which will be issued from the middle of 2011.

Fingerprints:

“In the coastal villages, we covered almost everyone in the first round,” Dr. Chandramouli said.

“It will be more difficult to cover towns and cities because everyone has to be informed and persuaded of the need to come and provide their photographs and fingerprints as identification.”

KAKATIYA UNIVERSTIY ADMISSION NOTIFICATION FOR B.ED., (DISTANCE MODE) - 2009-10

2010-03-17T20:27:00.000+05:30

Applications are invited for admissions into B.Ed.,(DM) course 2009-10 through Entrance Test.
Eligibility: Teachers with a Bachelors Degree and TTC/B.Ed., serving in a Govt./Aided School & having atleast 2 Years experience.
The application form alongwith the information brochure can be obtained form the Office of the SDLCE, KU, WARANGAL/University PG Colleges Khammam, Karimnagar, GDC, Godavarikhani, GDC (Men) Adilabad on payment of Rs. 500/- DD of registration fee.
Application can be obtained by sending Rs.575/- DD in favour of Director, SDLCE, KU drawn from SBH/SBI/ANDHRA BANK Payable at WARANGAL.
Schedule:
Sale of Applications: 18-03-2010
Last date for sale & Submission of forms: 08-04-2010
Date of Entrance Test: 25-04-2010
Contact No.s: 0870-2461499, 2438899 Fax : 0870-2438000
For more Details Click Here

Osmania University B.Ed Entrance Test Notification In Distance Mode

2010-03-09T11:23:00.000+05:30

Applications are invited for Entrance Test and admission into B.Ed.(Distance Mode) 2009-2010.

Teachers with a Bachelor Degree serving in a recognized school located in OU local area and having at least 2 years experience of school teaching are eligible to apply.

The application form alongwith the information brochure can be obtained from the Directorate of Admissions, Near University Press, Osmania University on payment of Rs.100/- in cash.

The filled in application form and ICR sheet along with a demand draft for Rs.450/- (towards registration fee) should be submitted to the Director, Directorate of Admissions, Near University Press, Osmania University, Hyderabad – 500 609 on or before the last dates mentioned below.

The candidate can download a copy of application from and ICR sheet and apply to the Director, Directorate of Admissions, Osmania University with a Demand Draft for Rs.600/-. The demand drafts should be drawn on any nationalized bank in favour of “The Director, Directorate of Admissions, Osmania University” Payable at Hyderabad.

Sale of applications : 04.3.2010 to 23.3.2010

Last date for submission : 23.3.2010 upto 4 p.m.

With a late fee of Rs.200/ : 31.3.2010 upto 4 p.m.

Date of Entrance Test : 18.4. 2010.
Downloads:

APSCHE and Intel Contest on Best Integration of Technology in Education 2009 - 10

2010-03-09T11:20:00.002+05:30

Awards in best Colleges, Teacher and Student Teacher category...

APSCHE & Intel jointly announce Contest for Best Integration of Technology in Education. The Contest in collaboration with APSCHE will serve as a platform to identify and reward the outstanding and innovative strategies adopted by the Colleges of Education. The APSCHE and Intel Joint Contest would select the best Practices of Technology Integration in Education and felicitate the * Best Colleges of Education,* Best Teacher Educators and ,* Best Student Teachers. Eligibility for participation, All the Colleges of Education under APSCHE, Teacher Educators working in Colleges of Education in the state of Andhra Pradesh, Student Teachers
from Colleges of Education in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

For more details visit: http://www.apsche.org/
Click to download - Registration form
College of Education * Teacher Educator * Student Teacher
Registration (on or before) 30th April 2010.
Submission (on or before) 30th May 2010.
For Contest Details: Click here

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS - NOVEMBER, 2009 NOTIFICATION, APPLY FROM 22FEB

2010-02-27T10:46:00.001+05:30

The Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission issued NOTIFICATION NO:02/2010 to conduct the Departmental Tests for November, 2009 Session from 08/05/2010 to 13/05/2010.

REMITTANCE OF FEE:

THE FEE PAYABLE FOR EACH PAPER mentioned in the Time-Table of this notification SHALL BE Rs. 50/- (RUPEES FIFTY ONLY).
The applicant should pay Rs.25/- towards application fee for each Test, Rs. 20/- towards publication of results in APPSC Udyoga Samacharam for each test and examination fee @ Rs.50/- for each paper payable to the Secretary, A.P. Public Service Commission, Hyderabad through Challan inany branch of State Bank of India / A.P. ON-LINE Centre between from 22/02/2010 &17/03/2010(from 22/02/2010 to 13/03/2010 for payment of fees) After submission of the details inthe Online Form, the Challan will be generated in Downloadable/Printable PDF. Candidates are required to take printout of the challan. Through Challan Form candidates are required to pay the amount as indicated in the Challan in any branch of State Bank of India / A.P. ON-LINE Centre.
Website Address: http://www.apspsc.gov.in
Note: IPOs / Demand Drafts are not accepted
Exam Dates:
Paper Code 88: Departmental Test for Gazetted Officers of the Education Department,
First Paper (WITH BOOKS) - 10/05/2010 MONDAY FORENOON - 9.30 AM TO 12.30 PM
Paper Code 97: Departmental Test for Gazetted Officers of the Education Department,
Second Paper (WITH BOOKS) - 10/05/2010 MONDAY AFTERNOON - 2.00 PM TO 5.00 PM
Paper Code 141: The Accounts Test for Executive Officers (WITH BOOKS) - 11/05/2010 TUESDAY FORENOON - 9.30 AM TO 12.30 PM
For Detailed Notification Click Here

PRC-2008 G.O Relased on 25/02/2010

2010-02-25T19:16:00.003+05:30

PRC -2009 G.O dated 25/02/2010

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS - MAY, 2009 SESSION RESULTS RELEASED

2010-02-19T11:39:00.001+05:30

APPSC Departmental Tests - May, 2009 Session May and November 2008 Sessions Clubbed Notification No.5/2009 released. Now only some test results available. But results of all exams available in few days.
Requests of the candidates for issuance of Pass Certificate will not be entertained. The particulars of the successful candidates will be published in “APPSC UDYOGA SAMACHARAM” shortly.

Department Examination - May 2009 Session (May and November, 2008 Sessions clubbed)

Know your Hall-Ticket No.

Reference ID :

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS - MAY, 2009 SESSION (May and November 2008 Sessions Clubbed) NOTIFICATION NO.5/2009
SNo.	PAPER CODE	PAPER NAME
1.	141	THE ACCOUNTS TEST FOR EXECUTIVE OFFICERS (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON
2.	088 & 097	D.T. FOR GAZETTED OFFICERS OF EDUCATION DEPARTMENT PAPER - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR GAZETTED OFFICERS OF EDUCATION DEPARTMENT PAPER - II(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON.

For All Departmental Tests Results Click Here

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS NOTIFICATIONS, HALL TICKETS, RESULTS

2010-02-19T11:37:00.003+05:30

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS - MAY, 2009 SESSION RESULTS RELEASED

Department Examination - May 2009 Session (May and November, 2008 Sessions clubbed)

Know your Hall-Ticket No.

Reference ID :

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS - MAY, 2009 SESSION (May and November 2008 Sessions Clubbed) NOTIFICATION NO.5/2009
SNo.	PAPER CODE	PAPER NAME
1.	010	ACCOUNTS TEST FOR SUBORDINATE OFFICERS PART - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON.
2.	149	D.T. FOR GAZETTED & NON-GAZETTED STAFF OF A.P.P.S.C. (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON.
3.	008	ACCOUNTS TEST FOR SUBORDINATE OFFICERS PART - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 FORE NOON.
4.	055	PORT DEPARTMENT TEST (HIGHER GRADE) (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON.
5.	103	ENDOWMENTS DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER - I (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON.
5.	126	ENDOWMENTS DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON
6.	144	THE AGRICULTURAL DEPARTMENT TEST (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON
7.	146	THE ACCOUNTS TEST FOR THE EMPLOYEES OF LOCAL BODIES PAPER - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON.
7.	148	THE ACCOUNTS TEST FOR THE EMPLOYEES OF LOCAL BODIES PAPER - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON
8.	014	ACCOUNTS TEST FOR PUBLIC WORKS WORK-SHOP OFFICERS PAPER - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON.
8.	029	ACCOUNTS TEST FOR PUBLIC WORKS WORK-SHOP OFFICERS PAPER - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON
9.	141	THE ACCOUNTS TEST FOR EXECUTIVE OFFICERS (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON
10.	045	THE CIVIL JUDICIAL TEST PART - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON.
11.	145,147	THE CIVIL JUDICIAL TEST PART - II : PAPER - I (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON. THE CIVIL JUDICIAL TEST PART - II : PAPER - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON.
12.	060,068	D.T FOR EMPLOYEES OF A.P.G.L.I PAPER - I(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON. D.T FOR EMPLOYEES OF A.P.G.L.I PAPER - II(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON.
13.	084,093,105 & 123	LOCAL FUND AUDIT DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-I(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON.. LOCAL FUND AUDIT DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-II(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON.. LOCAL FUND AUDIT DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-III(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON LOCAL FUND AUDIT DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-IV(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON
14.	092,102	D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF A.P. COMMERCIAL TAXES SUBORDINATE SERVICES FIRST PAPER (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON. D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF A.P. COMMERCIAL TAXES SUBORDINATE SERVICESSECOND PAPER (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON
15.	098,108,127,136	CRIMINAL JUDICAL TEST FIRST PAPER-(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON. CRIMINAL JUDICAL TEST SECOND PAPER-(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON. CRIMINAL JUDICAL TEST THIRD PAPER-(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON. CRIMINAL JUDICAL TEST FOURTH PAPER-(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON.
16.	001, 009, 023, 034 & 053.	SUBORDINATE ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PAPER-I(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON.SUBORDINATE ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PAPER-II(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON.SUBORDINATE ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PAPER-III(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON.SUBORDINATE ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PAPER-IV(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON.SUBORDINATE ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PAPER-V(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON.
17.	002, 012 & 020	DEPUTY INSPECTOR'S TEST PAPER-I(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON.DEPUTY INSPECTOR'S TEST PAPER-II(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON.DEPUTY INSPECTOR'S TEST PAPER-III(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON.
18.	033, 048, 066 & 082.	JAIL DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-I(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON. JAIL DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-II(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON.JAIL DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-III(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON.JAIL DEPARTMENT TEST PAPER-IV(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON.
19.	095.	FISHERIES DEPARTMENT TEST-I(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON.
20.	132.	D.T. FOR STATIONARY, PRINTING AND STORES PURCHASE DEPARTMENT (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON.
21.	150.	D.T. FOR MINES AND GEOLOGY (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON.
22.	152.	D.T. FOR TECHNICAL STAFF OF A.P. ELECTRICAL INSPECTORATE SERVICE (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON.
23.	15, 24, 56 & 85	FISHERIES DEPARTMENT TEST - II PAPER - I (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON FISHERIES DEPARTMENT TEST - II PAPER - II (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON FISHERIES DEPARTMENT TEST - II PAPER - III (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON FISHERIES DEPARTMENT TEST - II PAPER - IV (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON
24.	22, 40, 57 & 75	LABOUR, FACTORIES AND BOILERS DEPARTMENT TEST PART – A (I) DIST.OFFICE MANUAL (WITHOUT BOOKS); (II) MANUAL OF CONCILIATION OFFICERS (WITH BOOKS) (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON LABOUR, FACTORIES AND BOILERS DEPARTMENT TEST PART – B (ACTS & RULES RELATING TO FACTORIES ADMINISTRATION) (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON LABOUR, FACTORIES AND BOILERS DEPARTMENT TEST PART – C (ACTS & RULES RELATING TO LABOUR ADMINISTRATION) (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON LABOUR, FACTORIES AND BOILERS DEPARTMENT TEST PART – D (ACTS & RULES AND REGULATIONS UNDER THE INDIAN BOILERS) (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON
25.	30, 63, 81, 113 & 138	DIVISIONAL TEST PART - I : PAPER - I (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON DIVISIONAL TEST PART - I : PAPER - II (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON DIVISIONAL TEST PART - II : PAPER - III (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON DIVISIONAL TEST PART - II : PAPER - IV (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON DIVISIONAL TEST PART - II : PAPER - V (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON
26.	032,065,090,115 and 047,080,101,130,143.	PART – I D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - I : PAPER - I (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - I : PAPER - II (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - I : PAPER - III (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - I : PAPER - IV (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON PART – II D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - II : PAPER - I (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - II : PAPER - II (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - II : PAPER - III (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - II : PAPER - IV (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR EMPLOYEES OF SERICULTURE DEPARTMENT PART - II : PAPER - V (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 AFTER NOON
27.	69 & 87	REVENUE DRAUGHTSMAN'S TEST PART - I (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON REVENUE DRAUGHTSMAN'S TEST PART - II (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON
28.	137 & 142	ACCOUNTS TEST FOR P.W.D. OFFICERS & SUBORDINATES PAPER – I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON ACCOUNTS TEST FOR P.W.D. OFFICERS & SUBORDINATES PAPER – II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON
29.	140	D.T. FOR ACCOUNTANTS IN A.P. ELECTRICITY DEPARTMENT (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON
30.	003, 013, 021, 035, 054 & 071	EXCISE DEPARTMENT TEST : TEST - A(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON EXCISE DEPARTMENT TEST : TEST - B(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON EXCISE DEPARTMENT TEST : TEST - C - FIRST PAPER(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON EXCISE DEPARTMENT TEST : TEST - C - SECOND PAPER(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON EXCISE DEPARTMENT TEST : TEST - D - FIRST PAPER(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON EXCISE DEPARTMENT TEST : TEST - D - SECOND PAPER(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON
31.	016, 025 & 039	FIRE SERVICE DEPARTMENT TEST PART - I:PAPER - I(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON FIRE SERVICE DEPARTMENT TEST PART - I:PAPER - II(WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON FIRE SERVICE DEPARTMENT TEST PART - II:FIRE SERVICE MANUAL(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON
32.	017, 026, 042, 061, 076 & 086	D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF FOREST DEPARTMENT FOREST LAW - FIRST PAPER (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF FOREST DEPARTMENT FOREST LAW - SECOND PAPER (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF FOREST DEPARTMENT LAND REVENUE - FIRST PAPER (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 AFTER NOON D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF FOREST DEPARTMENT LAND REVENUE - SECOND PAPER (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF FOREST DEPARTMENT OFFICE PROCEDURES AND ACCOUNTS - FIRST PAPER (WITHOUT BOOKS) HELD ON 25/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR OFFICERS OF FOREST DEPARTMENT OFFICE PROCEDURES AND ACCOUNTS - SECOND PAPER (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON
33.	018, 027, 043 & 062	THE REVENUE TEST PART - I PAPER - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON THE REVENUE TEST PART - I PAPER - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON THE REVENUE TEST PART - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON THE REVENUE TEST PART - III (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON
34.	[P.C. NOs. 031, 064, 089 & 114] and [P.C.NOs.046, 079, 100 & 129]	TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - I :PAPER - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - I :PAPER - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 AFTER NOON TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - I :PAPER - III (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - I :PAPER - IV (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 AFTER NOON TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - II :PAPER - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - II :PAPER - II (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - II :PAPER - III (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 22/08/2009 FORE NOON TREASURIES & ACCOUNTS SERVICE EXAMINATION PART - II :PAPER - IV (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 24/08/2009 FORE NOON
35.	051	ANIMAL HUSBANDRY DEPARTMENT TEST (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 19/08/2009 AFTER NOON
36.	071	INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT TEST (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 20/08/2009 FORE NOON
37.	088 & 097	D.T. FOR GAZETTED OFFICERS OF EDUCATION DEPARTMENT PAPER - I (WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 FORE NOON D.T. FOR GAZETTED OFFICERS OF EDUCATION DEPARTMENT PAPER - II(WITH BOOKS) HELD ON 21/08/2009 AFTER NOON

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS HALL-TICKETS AVAILABLE NOW

It is hereby informed to the candidates who have applied through ONLINE in response to the Commission’s Departmental Tests Notification No.5/2009, for which Examinations will be held from 19/08/2009 to 25/08/2009 that the Hall-Tickets for the Tests applied are available now. Hall Ticket Download Here

Physical Hall-tickets are not going to be sent to any candidate as per the practice that prevailed during the earlier departmental tests.In case of any doubt/clarification or difficulty in downloading the Hallticket, the candidates may contact the following staff / Officials at the Telephone / Mobile Numbers given against each.. 01. APPSC Help Desk 9246572520 or 9246290436
02. Additional Secretary 040 – 24744232 03. Assistant Secretary 9347071536

Dept Test May 2009 - HALL TICKETS - VERY IMP NOTICE : Due to technical issues Hall Ticket Numbers are changed . The first two digits (10) are replaced with (1). Ex: Hall Ticket No. 102701354 (nine digit) is changed to 12701354 (eight digit). If you have down loaded the hall ticket which shows nine digit hall ticket number (register no.), please download the new Hall Ticket with eight digit hall ticket number (register number).

APPSC DEPARTMENTAL TESTS NOTIFICATION RELEASED

DEPARTMENTAL TESTS-MAY 2009 Notification No. :5/2009, Dated: 10/06/2009 (May & Novemeber 2008 Sessions Clubbed)
The commission inviting the departmental tests applications from the candidates for May 2009 Session through ONLINE only from 15/06/2009 to 04/07/2009 on payment of Rs. 25/- towards Application fee for Each Test, Rs.20/- towards Publication of Results in APPSC Udyoga Samacharam for Each Test & Examination Fee prescribed @ Rs. 50/- for each paper. After submission of Application through ONLINE , challan will be generated by the system which alone shall be used & candidate have to pay the fee at any SBI Branches payable to the Secreatary, APPSC, HYDERABAD.
The Departmental Tests will be held by APPSC, Hyderabad from 19/08/2009 to 24/08/2009(EXCEPT ON 23/08/2009 - VINAYAKA CHATHURTHI) at 22 District Headquarters ( Except Rangareddy District which is clubbed with Hyderabad District). Detailed Notification, Instructions to the Candidates & Other full details are available at http://www.apspsc.gov.in

DEPARTMENTAL TEST RESULTS NOV-2007 SESSION RELEASED

::Departmental Test Results from APPSC, HYDERABAD Nov-2007 Session::

Gazetted Officers Test of the Education Department (Paper 88,97)> CLICK HERE
The Accounts Test for Executive Officers (Paper 141) CLICK HERE
For Other Tests Results CLICK HERE

WORLD'S BIGGEST MIGRATION OF HUMAN BEING ON EARTH,The Partition of India and Pakistan

2010-02-19T11:32:00.001+05:30

The Partition of India and Pakistan which took place on 14th August, 1947 is still known as the WORLD'S BIGGEST MIGRATION OF HUMAN BEING ON EARTH, where Over 1 million people migrated from India to Pakistan
Millions left for their promised new homeland with smiles on their faces as trains left both India and Pakistan.

This is a train to Pakistan being given a warm send-off.

In 1947, the border between India and its new neighbour Pakistan became a river of blood, as the exodus erupted into rioting.
These pictures are by Margaret Bourke-White from Khushwant Singh's book Train to Pakistan, Roli Books.

Overcrowded trains leaving for Pakistan following the partition.

Another image of people on the train to Pakistan.

Over 10 million people were uprooted from their homeland and travelled on foot, bullock carts and trains to their promised new home.

An aged and abandoned Muslim couple and their grand children sitting by the the roadside on this arduous journey.
"The old man is dying of exhaustion. The caravan has gone on," wrote Bourke-White.

In a couple of months in the summer of 1947, a million people were slaughtered on both sides in the religious rioting.
Here, bodies of the victims of rioting are picked up from a city street.

The massive exchange of population that took place in the summer of 1947 was unprecedented.
It left behind a trail of death and destruction. The Indian map was slashed to make way for a new country - Pakistan.

The street was short and narrow. Lying like the garbage across the street and in its open gutters were bodies of the dead

With the tragic legacy of an uncertain future, a young refugee sits on the walls of Purana Qila, transformed into a vast refugee camp in Delhi.

Men, women and children who died in the rioting were cremated on a mass scale.
Villagers even used oil and kerosene when wood was scarce.

WORLD'S BIGGEST MIGRATION OF HUMAN BEING ON EARTH