wireshark,wireshark download,wireshark lab, wireshark Labs,cisco,ccna 200-301,cisco webex

Wireshark Lab 0, Wireshark Lab 1, wireshark Lab 2, wireshark Lab 3, wireshark lab 4, wireshark lab 5, wireshark lab 5, wireshark lab 6

2021-10-23T02:43:00.006-07:00

Lab 0 Wireshark Lab: Getting Started

Taking Wireshark for a Test Run

1. List up to 10 different protocols that appear in the protocol column in the
unfiltered packet-listing window in step 7 above.
answer 1. SCTP
2. TCP
3. UDP
4. ICMP
5. ARP
6. OSPF
7. GRE
8. NetBIOS
9. IPX
10. VINES
2. How long did it take from when the HTTP GET message was sent until the HTTP
OK reply was received? (By default, the value of the Time column in the packet-
listing window is the amount of time, in seconds, since Wireshark tracing began.
To display the Time field in time-of-day format, select the Wireshark View pull
down menu, then select Time Display Format, then select Time-of-day.)
answer Time of start is 13:25:18.818210
Time of end is 13:25:19.196493
Time of used is 0.37872 sec
3. What is the Internet address of the gaia.cs.umass.edu (also known as www-
net.cs.umass.edu)? What is the Internet address of your computer?
answers IP of Src is 192.168.1.2
IP of Dst is 128.119.245.12
4. Print the two HTTP messages displayed in step 9 above. To do so, select Print
from the Wireshark File command menu, and select “Selected Packet Only” and
“Print as displayed” and then click OK.

Lab 2 Wireshark Lab: DNS
Lab 2 Wireshark Lab: DNS Subpages »
nslookup
1. Run nslookup to obtain the IP address of a Web server in Asia.
answer I would choose www.kmitl.ac.th. cause it is web server in Thailand.
result IP address of www.kmitl.ac.th is 161.246.34.11
2. Run nslookup to determine the authoritative DNS servers for a university inEurope.
answer I would choose www.manchester.ac.uk. because it is university in England.
3. Run nslookup so that one of the DNS servers obtained in Question 2 is queried forthe mail servers for Yahoo! mail.
Tracing DNS with Wireshark
4. Locate the DNS query and response messages. Are they sent over UDP or TCP?
answer DNS query and response messages sent over UDP.
5. What is the destination port for the DNS query message? What is the source portof DNS response message?
answer DNS query message destination port is 53.
DNS response message source port is 3411.
6. To what IP address is the DNS query message sent? Use ipconfig to determine theIP address of your local DNS server. Are these two IP addresses the same?
answer IP address of DNS query message sent is 192.168.1.2 , IP address of your local DNS server is 192.168.1.2 , two IP address are same.
7. Examine the DNS query message. What “Type” of DNS query is it? Does thequery message contain any “answers”?
answer Type of DNS query is PTR(Domain name pointer). , No query message contain any “answers”.
8. Examine the DNS response message. How many “answers” are provided? Whatdoes each of these answers contain?
answer 1 answer is provided.
answer contain is 32.98.170.64.in-addr.arpa: type PTR, class IN, www.ietf.org.
9. Consider the subsequent TCP SYN packet sent by your host. Does the destinationIP address of the SYN packet correspond to any of the IP addresses provided inthe DNS response message?
answer IP address of the SYN packet is 64.170.98.32
IP address of the DNS response message is 192.168.1.1
10. This web page contains images. Before retrieving each image, does your hostissue new DNS queries?
answer my host isn’t issue new DNS queries.
nslookup
11. What is the destination port for the DNS query message? What is the source portof DNS response message?
answer destination port for the DNS query message is 53. , sourece port of DNS response message is 53.

12. To what IP address is the DNS query message sent? Is this the IP address of yourdefault local DNS server?
answer IP address of DNS query message sent is 58.10.77.208 , yes, is the IP address of my default local DNS server.
13. Examine the DNS query message. What “Type” of DNS query is it? Does thequery message contain any “answers”?
answer Type of DNS query is A (Host address). no query message contian any answers.
14. Examine the DNS response message. How many “answers” are provided? Whatdoes each of these answers contain?
answer 1 answer are provided. , answer contain is www.mit.edu: type A, class IN, addr 18.7.22.83.
15. Provide a screenshot.
nslookup –type=NS mit.edu
16. To what IP address is the DNS query message sent? Is this the IP address of yourdefault local DNS server?
answer IP of DNS query message sent is 58.10.77.208 . , yes, is the IP address of my default local DNS server.
17. Examine the DNS query message. What “Type” of DNS query is it? Does thequery message contain any “answers”?
answer Type of DNS query is NS (Authoritative name server) , no query message contain.
18. Examine the DNS response message. What MIT name servers does the responsemessage provide? Does this response message also provide the IP addresses of theMIT name servers?
answer mit.edu: type NS, class IN, ns bitsy.mit.edu, addr 18.72.0.3
mit.edu: type NS, class IN, ns w20ns.mit.edu, addr 18.70.0.160
mit.edu: type NS, class IN, ns strawb.mit.edu, addr 18.71.0.151
19. Provide a screenshot.
nslookup www.aiit.or.kr bitsy.mit.edu
20. To what IP address is the DNS query message sent? Is this the IP address of yourdefault local DNS server? If not, what does the IP address correspond to?
answer IP of DNS query message sent is 58.10.77.208 . , yes, is the IP address of my default local DNS server.
21. Examine the DNS query message. What “Type” of DNS query is it? Does thequery message contain any “answers”?
answer Type of DNS query message in Standard query on PTR 3.0.72.18 is PTR . , no query message contain any answer.
Type of DNS query message in Standard query on A www.aiit.or.kr is A . , no query message contain any answer.
22. Examine the DNS response message. How many “answers” are provided? Whatdoes each of these answers contain?
answer 1 answer of DNS response message in Standard query on PTR 3.0.72.18 . , answer contain is 3.0.72.18.in-addr.arpa: type PTR, class IN, BITSY.MIT.EDU
1 answer of DNS response message in Standard query on A www.aiit.or.kr . , answer contain is www.aiit.or.kr: type A, class IN, addr 222.106.36.115
23. Provide a screenshot.

Lab 1 Wireshark Lab: HTTP

1. The Basic HTTP GET/response interaction
1. Is your browser running HTTP version 1.0 or 1.1? What version of HTTP is the server running?
answer browser running HTTP version is 1.1
server running HTTP version is 1.1
2. What languages (if any) does your browser indicate that it can accept to the server?
answer Accept-Language : th\r\n
3. What is the IP address of your computer? Of the gaia.cs.umass.edu server?
answer IP address of my computer is 192.168.1.2
IP address of gain.cs.umass.edu server is 128.119.245.12
4. What is the status code returned from the server to your browser?
answer response code : 200
5. When was the HTML file that you are retrieving last modified at the server?
answer Last-Modified: Fri , 13 Jun 2008 04:26:01 GMT \r\n
6. How many bytes of content are being returned to your browser?
answer Content-Length : 128
7. By inspecting the raw data in the packet content window, do you see any headers within the data that are not displayed in the packet-listing window? If so, name one.
answer Ethernet II, Src: CompalEl_80:aa:38 (00:0f:b0:80:aa:38), Dst: Shanghai_5c:8f:d4(00:08:5c:5c:8f:d4)
2. The HTTP CONDITIONAL GET/response interaction
8. Inspect the contents of the first HTTP GET request from your browser to the server.
Do you see an “IF-MODIFIED-SINCE” line in the HTTP GET?
answer I don’t see an “IF-MODIFIED-SINCE” line in the HTTP GET.
9. Inspect the contents of the server response. Did the server explicitly return the contents of the file? How can you tell?
answer first response of server is return Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1\r\n.
second response of server isn’t return Content-Type. because it return HTTP/1.1 304 not
modified.
10. Now inspect the contents of the second HTTP GET request from your browser to the server. Do you see an “IF-MODIFIED-SINCE:” line in the HTTP GET? If so, what information follows the “IF-MODIFIED-SINCE:” header?
answer yes,I see an “IF-MODIFIED-SINCE”. “
“IF-MODIFIED-SINCE” header is Fri , 13 Jun 2008 04:45:01 GMT \r\n
11. What is the HTTP status code and phrase returned from the server in response to this second HTTP GET? Did the server explicitly return the contents of the file? Explain.
answer Response Code : 304 , server isn’t return contents of the file.
3. Retrieving Long Documents
12. How many HTTP GET request messages were sent by your browser?
answer 1 time.
13. How many data-containing TCP segments were needed to carry the single HTTP response?
answer 5 TCP Segments.
[Reassembled TCP Segments (4809 bytes): #8(309), #9(1452), #16(1452), #17(1452), #19(144)]
Frame: 8, payload: 0-308 (309 bytes)
Frame: 9, payload: 309-1760 (1452 bytes)
Frame: 16, payload: 1761-3212 (1452 bytes)
Frame: 17, payload: 3213-4664 (1452 bytes)
Frame: 19, payload: 4665-4808 (144 bytes)
14. What is the status code and phrase associated with the response to the HTTP GET request?
answer Request Method: GET
Request URI: /wireshark-labs/HTTP-wireshark-file3.html
Request Version: HTTP/1.1
15. Are there any HTTP status lines in the transmitted data associated with a TCP-induced “Continuation”?
answer none
4. HTML Documents with Embedded Objects
16. How many HTTP GET request messages were sent by your browser? To which Internet addresses were these GET requests sent?
answer 4 HTTP GET request messages.
1. Internet addresses is gain.cs.umass.edu (128.119.245.12)
2. Internet addresses is www.aw-bc.com (165.193.123.218)
3. Internet addresses is manic.cs.umass.edu (128.119.240.90)
4. Internet addresses is www.pearsonhighered.com (165.193.123.255)
17. Can you tell whether your browser downloaded the two images serially, or whether they were downloaded from the two web sites in parallel? Explain.
answer I think my browser downloaded the two images on parallel because I see to observe time form Time column. which it is requested pictures in the same time by don’t wait last request is finished .
5 HTTP Authentication
18. What is the server’s response (status code and phrase) in response to the initial HTTP GET message from your browser?
answer Response Code : 401 , HTTP/1.1 401 Authorization Required.
19. When your browser’s sends the HTTP GET message for the second time, what new field is included in the HTTP GET message?
answer Authorization: Basic d2lyZXNoYXJrLXN0dWRlbnRzOm5ldHdvcms=\r\n
Credentials: wireshark-students:network
\r\n

Lab 3 Wireshark Lab: UDP
Lab 3 Wireshark Lab: UDP Subpages »

1. Select one packet. From this packet, determine how many fields there are in theUDP header. (Do not look in the textbook! Answer these questions directly fromwhat you observe in the packet trace.) Name these fields.
answer 4 fields in UDP header. that is Source Port,Destination Port,Length,CheckSum .
2. From the packet content field, determine the length (in bytes) of each of the UDPheader fields.
answer The UDP header consists of four (4) fields each:
source port number 2 bytes
destination port number 2 bytes
datagram size(Length) 2 bytes
checksum 2 bytes
3. The value in the Length field is the length of what? Verify your claim with yourcaptured UDP packet.
answer Length field is is a simple count of the number of bytes contained in the header and data sections. so The value in the Length field is 37. (Picture in a point 1 mention above)
4. What is the maximum number of bytes that can be included in a UDP payload?
answer The maximum size of a datagram varies depending on the operating environment. With a two-byte size field, the theoretical maximum size is 65535 bytes.
5. What is the largest possible source port number?
answer the largest source port number is 65535.
6. What is the protocol number for UDP? Give your answer in both hexadecimal anddecimal notation. (To answer this question, you’ll need to look into the IPheader.)
answer number protocol UDP is 0×11(hexadecimal),17(decimal).
7. Search “UDP” in Google and determine the fields over which the UDP checksumis calculated.
answer it used Pseudo Header Field in calculation checksum. as that is Source IP address,Destination IP address,IP payload length,protocol type (reference from web :http://www.erg.abdn.ac.uk/users/gerrit/udp-lite/).
8. Examine a pair of UDP packets in which the first packet is sent by your host andthe second packet is a reply to the first packet. Describe the relationship betweenthe port numbers in the two packets.
answer First packet source port is 1801 , Destination port is 53.
Second packet source port is 53 , Destination port is 1801.
Extra Credit
1. Capture a small UDP packet. Manually verify the checksum in this packet. Showall work and explain all steps.
answer UDP sender:
IP Source Address = 58.10.77.186
seperate into 16 bit = 00111010.00001010.01001101.10111010
IP Destination Address = 203.144.207.49
seperate into 16 bit = 11001011.10010000.11001111.00110001
Protocol: UDP (0×11) = 00010001
UDP Length: 53 = 00110101
calculated checksum :
00111010 00001010 + 01001101 10111010 01110111 10110000 + 11001011 10010000 10111100 00110001 + 11001111 00110001 01110011 00010001 + 00010001 00110101 01100010 00100100
10011101 11011011 1’s complement

UDP Receive:
IP Source Address = 203.144.207.49
seperate into 16 bit = 11001011.10010000.11001111.00110001
IP Destination Address = 58.10.77.186
seperate into 16 bit = 00111010.00001010.01001101.10111010
Protocol: UDP (0×11) = 00010001
UDP Length: 53 = 00110101
calculated checksum :
11001011 10010000 + 11001111 00110001 00000100 10100001 + 00111010 00001010 00111110 10101011 + 01001101 10111010 01110011 00010001 + 00010001 00110101 01100010 00100100 : result receive + 10011101 11011011 : result sender 11111111 11111111 : no error

Capturing a bulk TCP transfer from your computer to a remote server
1. What is the IP address and TCP port number used by the client computer (source) that is transferring the file to gaia.cs.umass.edu? To answer this question, it’s probably easiest to select an HTTP message and explore the details of the TCP packet used to carry this HTTP message, using the “details of the selected packet header window” (refer to Figure 2 in the “Getting Started with Wireshark” Lab if you’re uncertain about the Wireshark windows).answer source IP address is 58.10.77.120 , source TCP port is 5010 .
2. What is the IP address of gaia.cs.umass.edu? On what port number is it sendingand receiving TCP segments for this connection?answer IP address of gaia.cs.umass.edu is 128.119.245.12, port number of sendingand receiving TCP segments is 80 . (From picture sequence 1)
3. What is the IP address and TCP port number used by your client computer(source) to transfer the file to gaia.cs.umass.edu? answer IP address is Local IP , TCP port is Local port .
TCP Basics
4. What is the sequence number of the TCP SYN segment that is used to initiate the TCP connection between the client computer and gaia.cs.umass.edu? What is it in the segment that identifies the segment as a SYN segment?answer the sequence number of the TCP SYN segment that is used to initiate the TCP connection between the client computer and gaia.cs.umass.edu is 0 , SYS segment is 1 .
5. What is the sequence number of the SYNACK segment sent by gaia.cs.umass.edu to the client computer in reply to the SYN? What is the value of the ACKnowledgement field in the SYNACK segment? How did gaia.cs.umass.edu determine that value? What is it in the segment that identifies the segment as a SYNACK segment?answer sequence number of the SYNACK segment sent by gaia.cs.umass.edu to the client computer in reply to the SYN is 0 , value of the ACKnowledgement field in the SYNACK segment is 1 , SYNACK segment is 1.
6. What is the sequence number of the TCP segment containing the HTTP POST command? Note that in order to find the POST command, you’ll need to dig into the packet content field at the bottom of the Wireshark window, looking for a segment with a “POST” within its DATA field.answer sequence number of the TCP segment containing the HTTP POST command is FRAME 4 .
7. Consider the TCP segment containing the HTTP POST as the first segment in the TCP connection. What are the sequence numbers of the first six segments in the TCP connection (including the segment containing the HTTP POST)? At what time was each segment sent? When was the ACK for each segment received? Given the difference between when each TCP segment was sent, and when itsacknowledgement was received, what is the RTT value for each of the six segments? What is the EstimatedRTT value (see page 249 in text) after the receipt of each ACK? Assume that the value of the EstimatedRTT is equal to the measured RTT for the first segment, and then is computed using theEstimatedRTT equation on page 249 for all subsequent segments. Note: Wireshark has a nice feature that allows you to plot the RTT for each of the TCP segments sent. Select a TCP segment in the “listing of captured packets” window that is being sent from the client to the gaia.cs.umass.edu server. Then select: Statistics->TCP Stream Graph->Round Trip Time Graph.answer HTTP POST segment is No. 4,5,7,8,10,11. ACK segment is No. 6,9,12,14,15,16. Segment 1 Sequence Number is 1 Segment 2 Sequence Number is 777 Segment 3 Sequence Number is 2203 Segment 4 Sequence Number is 3629 Segment 5 Sequence Number is 5055 Segment 6 Sequence Number is 6481
send time ACK RTT Segment 1 0.359375 0.703125 0.34375 Segment 2 0.359375 0.734375 0.375 Segment 3 0.703125 1.062500 0.359375 Segment 4 0.703125 1.093750 0.390625 Segment 5 0.734375 1.109375 0.375 Segment 6 0.734375 1.140625 0.40625
Calculated EstimatedRTT : EstimatedRTT = 0.875 * EstimatedRTT + 0.125 * SampleRTT EstimatedRTT of Segment 1 = 0.34375 EstimatedRTT of Segment 2 = 0.875 * 0.34375 + 0.125 *0.375 = 0.3475 EstimatedRTT of Segment 3 = 0.875 * 0.3475 + 0.125 *0.359375 = 0.3489 EstimatedRTT of Segment 4 = 0.875 * 0.3489 + 0.125 *0.390625 = 0.3541 EstimatedRTT of Segment 5 = 0.875 * 0.3541 + 0.125 *0.375 = 0.3567 EstimatedRTT of Segment 6 = 0.875 * 0.3567 + 0.125 * 0.40625 = 0.3628
HTTP POST segmentACK segmentRound Trip Time Graph
8. What is the length of each of the first six TCP segments?answer Length of first TCP segment is 776 bytes and Length of the other TCP segments( 5 TCP segments ) is 1426 bytes (From picture HTTP POST segment mention below).
9. What is the minimum amount of available buffer space advertised at the received for the entire trace? Does the lack of receiver buffer space ever throttle the sender?answer minimum amount of available buffer space advertised at the received for the entire trace is 5840 bytes (First Connention) . No, doesn’t lack of receiver buffer space ever throttle the sender.
10. Are there any retransmitted segments in the trace file? What did you check for (in the trace) in order to answer this question?answer No, aren’t retransmitted segmensts in the trace file. I would check retransmitted segments from Time-Sequence Graph (Stevens).

11. How much data does the receiver typically acknowledge in an ACK? Can you identify cases where the receiver is ACKing every other received segment (see Table 3.2 on page 257 in the text).answer acknowledged sequence number acknowledged data ack1 1 776 ack2 777 1426 ack3 2203 1426 ack4 3629 1426 ack5 5505 1426 ack6 6481 1426 ack7 7907 1062 ack8 8969 1426 ack9 10395 1426 . . . . . . . . .
12. What is the throughput (bytes transferred per unit time) for the TCP connection?Explain how you calculated this value.answer average throughput of a connection = (0.75*W)/RTT W is window size ( bytes ) RTT is the current round-trip time Ex reference from 7 calculated first segment . window size of first segment is 65535 . RTT of first segment is 0.34375 . average throughput of a connection = (0.75*65535 )/0.34375 = 142,985.45 bytes/sec = 142 Kbytes/sec
TCP congestion control in action
13. Use the Time-Sequence-Graph(Stevens) plotting tool to view the sequence number versus time plot of segments being sent from the client to the gaia.cs.umass.edu server. Can you identify where TCP’s slowstart phase beginsand ends, and where congestion avoidance takes over? Comment on ways in which the measured data differs from the idealized behavior of TCP that we’ve studied in the text.answer From picture sequence 10 becaue it may be traffic on network(bottleneck link). when TCP have connected between Sender and Receiver , it have a one value(it is a windows size) that used to fix value of Information can be to send to Receivers. so windows size is a value of deal between Sender and Receiver how many have in segment before sending.
14. Answer each of two questions above for the trace that you have gathered when you transferred a file from your computer to gaia.cs.umass.eduanswer when have a lot of traffic on network. TCP sender have used AIMD algorithm to reduce window size value.

A look at the captured trace

IP
1. Select the first ICMP Echo Request message sent by your computer, and expand the Internet Protocol part of the packet in the packet details window. What is the IP address of your computer?answer IP address of my computer is 161.246.241.150
2. Within the IP packet header, what is the value in the upper layer protocol field?answer ICMP (0×01)
3. How many bytes are in the IP header? How many bytes are in the payload of theIP datagram? Explain how you determined the number of payload bytes.answer IP header = Total Length – Header Length = 56 – 20 = 36 . payload of the IP datagram is 0 bytes because Flags : 0×00 .
4. Has this IP datagram been fragmented? Explain how you determined whether ornot the datagram has been fragmented.answer this IP datagram hasn’t been fragmented because Flags : 0×00 0… = Reserved bit: Not set .0.. = Don’t fragment: Not set ..0. = More fragments: Not set
5. Which fields in the IP datagram always change from one datagram to the nextwithin this series of ICMP messages sent by your computer?answer 1. Identification 2. Time to live(TTL) 3. Checksum
6. Which fields stay constant? Which of the fields must stay constant? Which fieldsmust change? Why?answer 1. Version 2. Header length 3. Flag 4. Fragment offset 5. Protocol 6. Sourece 7. Destination
7. Describe the pattern you see in the values in the Identification field of the IPdatagramanswer Identification : This field contains a 16-bit value that is common to each of the fragments belonging to a particular message; for datagrams originally sent unfragmented it is still filled in
8. What is the value in the Identification field and the TTL field?answer Identification: 0×2772 (10098) Time to live: 1
9. Do these values remain unchanged for all of the ICMP TTL-exceeded replies sentto your computer by the nearest (first hop) router? Why?answer value of TTL isn’t changed becuase no send datagram to work with router.
Fragmentation
10. Find the first ICMP Echo Request message that was sent by your computer afteryou changed the Packet Size in pingplotter to be 2000. Has that message beenfragmented across more than one IP datagram?answer yes , message has been fragmented across more than one IP datagram.11. Print out the first fragment of the fragmented IP datagram. What information inthe IP header indicates that the datagram been fragmented? What information inthe IP header indicates whether this is the first fragment versus a latter fragment?How long is this IP datagram?answer Total length is 1500 . Flags : 0×02 0… = Reserved bit: Not set .0.. = Don’t fragment: Not set ..1. = More fragments: Not set
12. Print out the second fragment of the fragmented IP datagram. What information inthe IP header indicates that this is not the first datagram fragment? Are the morefragments? How can you tell?answer Total length is 520 . Flags : 0×00 0… = Reserved bit: Not set .0.. = Don’t fragment: Not set ..0. = More fragments: Not set Fragment offset: 1480
13. What fields change in the IP header between the first and second fragment?answer 1.Total length 2.Flag 3.Fragment offset 4.Checksum
14. How many fragments were created from the original datagram?answer 3 fragments were created from the original datagram.
15. What fields change in the IP header among the fragments?answer 1.Total length 2.Flag 3.Fragment offset 4.Checksum

Lab 6 Wireshark Lab: DHCP
Lab 6 Wireshark Lab: DHCP Subpages »

1. Are DHCP messages sent over UDP or TCP? answer UDP2. Draw a timing datagram illustrating the sequence of the first four-packet Discover/Offer/Request/ACK DHCP exchange between the client and server. For each packet, indicated the source and destination port numbers. Are the port numbers the same as in the example given in this lab assignment? answer
3. What is the link-layer (e.g., Ethernet) address of your host?answer Address of host is 00:0f:b0:80:aa:38 .4. What values in the DHCP discover message differentiate this message from the DHCP request message?answer values in the DHCP discover message differentiate DHCP request is option .
5. What is the value of the Transaction-ID in each of the first four(Discover/Offer/Request/ACK) DHCP messages? What are the values of the Transaction-ID in the second set (Request/ACK) set of DHCP messages? What is the purpose of the Transaction-ID field?answer Transaction-ID of first DHCP messages is 0×989ac758. Transaction-ID of second DHCP message is 0xd5d4e490. Transction-ID is a random number by client. its’ objective used to give client and DHCP server can defined DHCP message sending and DHCP message receving has relation together.6. A host uses DHCP to obtain an IP address, among other things. But a host’s IP address is not confirmed until the end of the four-message exchange! If the IP address is not set until the end of the four-message exchange, then what values are used in the IP datagrams in the four-message exchange? For each of the four DHCP messages (Discover/Offer/Request/ACK DHCP), indicate the source and destination IP addresses that are carried in the encapsulating IP datagram.answer Source IP address : 0.0.0.0 is special address. Destination IP address : 255.255.255.255 is broadcast IP address .
7. What is the IP address of your DHCP server?answer 192.168.1.8
8. What IP address is the DHCP server offering to your host in the DHCP Offer message? Indicate which DHCP message contains the offered DHCP address.answer 192.168.1.89. In the example screenshot in this assignment, there is no relay agent between the host and the DHCP server. What values in the trace indicate the absence of a relay agent? Is there a relay agent in your experiment? If so what is the IP address of the agent?answer relay agent has reponsibility to control send DHCP message across different subnet network. this lap is not relay agent because IP address is 0.0.0.0 .
10. Explain the purpose of the router and subnet mask lines in the DHCP offer message.answer router is used to get to know what IP address of router , that used by client on network. subnet mask is defined where is host on network or sub network.
11. In the example screenshots in this assignment, the host requests the offered IP address in the DHCP Request message. What happens in your own experiment?answer Host has requet the offered IP address in the DHCP Request message.
12. Explain the purpose of the lease time. How long is the lease time in your experiment?answer lease time is time to tell how long IP address can used. lease time in experiment is 1 hour.
13. What is the purpose of the DHCP release message? Does the DHCP server issue an acknowledgment of receipt of the client’s DHCP request? What would happen if the client’s DHCP release message is lost?answer DHCP release message is used to tell DHCP server,that client has already used IP address. if DHCP release message is lost then that IP address has used until expired time.
14. Clear the bootp filter from your Wireshark window. Were any ARP packets sent or received during the DHCP packet-exchange period? If so, explain the purpose of those ARP packets.answer ARP (Address Solution Protocal) is protocal. that used to mapped between IP address (Internet Protocal Address) with MAC Address (Media Access Control) .

Lab 7 Wireshark Lab: ICMP
Lab 7 Wireshark Lab: ICMP Subpages »

1. What is the IP address of your host? What is the IP address of the destination host? answer IP address of host is 58.10.77.118 , IP address of destination is 143.89.14.43 .
2.Why is it that an ICMP packet does not have source and destination port numbers?answer ICMP is on the network layer , in that layer isn’t have sourece and destination port numbers to used sending.
3. Examine one of the ping request packets sent by your host. What are the ICMP type and code numbers? What other fields does this ICMP packet have? Howmany bytes are the checksum, sequence number and identifier fields?answer Type: 8 Code : 0 Checksum : 2 bytes Identifier : 2 bytes Sequence number : 2 bytes4. Examine the corresponding ping reply packet. What are the ICMP type and code numbers? What other fields does this ICMP packet have? How many bytes are the checksum, sequence number and identifier fields?answer Type: 8 Code : 0 Checksum : 2 bytes Identifier : 2 bytes Sequence number : 2 bytes
5. What is the IP address of your host? What is the IP address of the target destination host? answer IP address of host is 58.10.77.118 , IP address of destination is 138.96.146.2 .
6. If ICMP sent UDP packets instead (as in Unix/Linux), would the IP protocol number still be 01 for the probe packets? If not, what would it be?answer no, ICMP sent packets is port 0×01(17) .
7. Examine the ICMP echo packet in your screenshot. Is this different from the ICMP ping query packets in the first half of this lab? If yes, how so?answer from picture on sequence 4 compare with picture below. it isn’t difference .
8. Examine the ICMP error packet in your screenshot. It has more fields than the ICMP echo packet. What is included in those fields?answer Type : 11 , Code : 0 , no Identifier Number .9. Examine the last three ICMP packets received by the source host. How are these packets different from the ICMP error packets? Why are they different?answer the last three ICMP packets is ICMP reply packet .10. Within the tracert measurements, is there a link whose delay is significantly longer than others? Refer to the screenshot in Figure 4, is there a link whose delay is significantly longer than others? On the basis of the router names, can you guess the location of the two routers on the end of this link?answer link delay is singificantly longer than other is 10 , 11 because host of link 10 is in Thailand but host of link 11 is in Germany .

Lab 8 Wireshark Lab: Ethernet and ARP

1. What is the 48-bit Ethernet address of your computer?Answer 00:0f:b0:80:aa:38
2. What is the 48-bit destination address in the Ethernet frame? Is this the Etherne address of gaia.cs.umass.edu? (Hint: the answer is no). What device has this as Ethernet address? [Note: this is an important question, and one that students sometimes get wrong. Re-read pages 468-469 in the text and make sure you understand the answer here.Answer 00:08:5c:5c:8f:d4 isn't IP address of Destination Host but is IP address of gateway .3. Give the hexadecimal value for the two-byte Frame type field. What do the bit( whose value is 1 mean within the flag field?Answer
4. How many bytes from the very start of the Ethernet frame does the ASCII “G” i “GET” appear in the Ethernet frame?Answer
5. What is the hexadecimal value of the CRC field in this Ethernet frame?Answer no hexadecimal value in the CRC field.
6. What is the value of the Ethernet source address? Is this the address of your computer, or of gaia.cs.umass.edu (Hint: the answer is no). What device has this as its Ethernet address?Answer Source Address is 00:08:5c:5c:8f:d4 . it is not address of my computer and gaia.cs.um.ass.edu but it is address of gateway .
7. What is the destination address in the Ethernet frame? Is this the Ethernet address of your computer?Answer Destination Address is 00:0f:b0:80:aa:38 .
8. Give the hexadecimal value for the two-byte Frame type field. What do the bit(s) whose value is 1 mean within the flag field?Answer
9. How many bytes from the very start of the Ethernet frame does the ASCII “O” in “OK” (i.e., the HTTP response code) appear in the Ethernet frame?Answer
10. What is the hexadecimal value of the CRC field in this Ethernet frame?Answer no hexadecimal value in the CRC field.
ARP Caching
11. Write down the contents of your computer’s ARP cache. What is the meaning of each column value?Answer Internet Address = IP Address Physical Address = Ethernet or MAC Address of client Type = type of dynamic
12. What are the hexadecimal values for the source and destination addresses in the Ethernet frame containing the ARP request message?Answer Source Address is 00:1b:fc:1d:99:41. Destination Address is ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff.
13. Give the hexadecimal value for the two-byte Ethernet Frame type field. What do the bit(s) whose value is 1 mean within the flag field?Answer
14. Download the ARP specification from ftp://ftp.rfc-editor.org/in-notes/std/std37.txt.A readable, detailed discussion of ARP is also at http://www.erg.abdn.ac.uk/users/gorry/course/inet-pages/arp.html.
a) How many bytes from the very beginning of the Ethernet frame does the ARP opcode field begin?Answer
b) What is the value of the opcode field within the ARP-payload part of theEthernet frame in which an ARP request is made?Answer Opcode: request (0×0001) is mean ARP Number 10 .
c) Does the ARP message contain the IP address of the sender?Answer Sender IP address: 192.168.1.1 (192.168.1.1)
d) Where in the ARP request does the “question” appear – the Ethernet address of the machine whose corresponding IP address is being queried?Answer ARP request appear in Target MAC address: 00:00:00_00:00:00 (00:00:00:00:00:00) .
15. Now find the ARP reply that was sent in response to the ARP request.a) How many bytes from the very beginning of the Ethernet frame does the ARP opcode field begin?Answer
b) What is the value of the opcode field within the ARP-payload part of the Ethernet frame in which an ARP response is made?Answer Opcode: reply (0×0002) is mean ARP Number 13.
c) Where in the ARP message does the “answer” to the earlier ARP request appear – the IP address of the machine having the Ethernet address whose corresponding IP address is being queried?Answer ARP message answer appear in Sender MAC Address .
16. What are the hexadecimal values for the source and destination addresses in the Ethernet frame containing the ARP reply message?Answer Ethernet Source Address is 00:0f:b0:80:aa:38. Ethernet Destination Address is 00:08:5c:5c:8f:d4.
17. Open the ethernet-ethereal-trace-1 trace file in . The first and second http://gaia.cs.umass.edu/wireshark-labs/wireshark-traces.zip ARP packets in this trace correspond to an ARP request sent by the computer running Wireshark, and the ARP reply sent to the computer running Wireshark by the computer with the ARP-requested Ethernet address. But there is yet another computer on this network, as indiated by packet 6 – another ARP request. Why is there no ARP reply (sent in response to the ARP request in packet 6) in the packet trace?Answer

Lab 9 Wireshark Lab: 802.11
Beacon Frames
1. What are the SSIDs of the two access points that are issuing most of the beacon frames in this trace? Answer SSID of first access points is 30 Munroe St. SSID of second access points is linksys12.2. What are the intervals of time between the transmission of the beacon frames the linksys_ses_24086 access point? From the 30 Munroe St. access point?Answer intervals of time between the transmisson of the beacon frames the linksys_ses_24086 access point is Beacon Interval: 0.102400 [Seconds] .intervals of time between the transmisson of the beacon frames the 30 Munroe St. access point is Beacon Interval: 0.102400 [Seconds] . 3. What (in hexadecimal notation) is the source MAC address on the beacon frame from 30 Munroe St? Recall from Figure 6.13 in the text that the source, destination, and BSS are three addresses used in an 802.11 frame. For a detailed discussion of the 802.11 frame structure, see section 7 in the IEEE 802.11 standards document (cited above).Answer Source address: Cisco-Li_f7:1d:51 (00:16:b6:f7:1d:51).4. What (in hexadecimal notation) is the destination MAC address on the beacon frame from 30 Munroe St??Answer Destination address: Broadcast (ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff).5. What (in hexadecimal notation) is the MAC BSS id on the beacon frame from 30 Munroe St? Answer BSS Id: Cisco-Li_f7:1d:51 (00:16:b6:f7:1d:51).6. The beacon frames from the 30 Munroe St access point advertise that the access point can support four data rates and eight additional “extended supported rates.” What are these rates?Answer Supported Rates: 1.0(B) 2.0(B) 5.5(B) 11.0(B). Extended Supported Rates: 6.0(B) 9.0 12.0(B) 18.0 24.0(B) 36.0 48.0 54.0 .
Data Transfer
7. Find the 802.11 frame containing the SYN TCP segment for this first TCP session (that downloads alice.txt). At what time is the TCP SYN sent?Answer TCP SYN sent 24.811093 Sec.What are three MAC address fields in the 802.11 frame? Which MAC address in this frame corresponds to the wireless host (give the hexadecimal representation of the MAC address for the host)? To the access point? To the first-hop router? Answer BSS Id: Cisco-Li_f7:1d:51 (00:16:b6:f7:1d:51). Source address: IntelCor_d1:b6:4f (00:13:02:d1:b6:4f). Destination address: Cisco-Li_f4:eb:a8 (00:16:b6:f4:eb:a8).What is the IP address of the wireless host sending this TCP segment? What is the destination IP address? Does this destination IP address correspond to the host, access point, first-hop router, or some other network-attached device? Answer IP address ของ wireless host คือ 192.168.1.109. Destination IP address คือ 128.119.245.12.
8. Find the 802.11 frame containing the SYNACK segment for this TCP session. Awhat time is the TCP SYNACK received?Answer TCP received 24.827751 Sec.What are three MAC address fields in the 802.11 frame containing the SYNACK? Which MAC address in this frame corresponds to the host? To the access point? To the first-hop router? Answer Destination address: 91:2a:b0:49:b6:4f (91:2a:b0:49:b6:4f). BSS Id: Cisco-Li_f7:1d:51 (00:16:b6:f7:1d:51). Source address: Cisco-Li_f4:eb:a8 (00:16:b6:f4:eb:a8).Does the sender MAC address in the frame correspond to the IP address of the device that sent the TCP segment encapsulated within this datagram? Answer sender MAC address is MAC address of access point. it is not TCP segment.
Association/Disassociation
9. What two actions are taken (i.e., frames are sent) by the host in the trace just after t=49, to end the association with the 30 Munroe St AP that was initially in place when trace collection began, and at what times are these frames sent?Answer time DHCP release is 49.583615 second. time Deauthentication is 49.609617 second.10. Examine the trace file and look for AUTHENICATION frames sent from the host to an AP and vice versa. When is the first AUTHENTICATION frame sent from the wireless host to the linksys_ses_24086 AP (which has a MAC address of Cisco_Li_f5:ba:bb) starting at around t=49? . Answer the first AUTHENTICATION frame sent from the wireless host to the linksys_ses_24086 AP is49.638857 second.
11. Does the host want the authentication to require a key or be open?Answer Host want the authentication to require be open system .
12. Do you see a reply AUTHENTICATION from the linksys_ses_24086 AP in the trace?Answer None.
13. Now let’s consider what happens as the host gives up (sometime after t = 63.0 ) trying to associate with the linksys_ses_24086 AP and now tries to associate with the 30 Munroe St AP. Look for AUTHENICATION frames sent from the host to and AP and vice versa. At what times are there an AUTHENTICATION frame from the host to the 30 Munroe St. AP, and when is there a reply AUTHENTICATION sent from that AP to the host in reply?Answer time AUTHENTICATION frame from the host to the 30 Munroe St. AP is 63.169071 second. time reply AUTHENTICATION sent from that AP to the host in reply is 63.169707 second.
14. Let’s continue on with the association between the wireless host and the 30 Munroe St AP that happens after t = 63.0. An ASSOCIATE from host to AP, and a corresponding ASSOCIATE RESPONSE frame from AP to host are used for the host to associated with an AP. At what time is there an ASSOCIATE REQUEST from host to the 30 Munroe St AP? When is the corresponding ASSOCIATE REPLY sent?Answer time ASSOCIATE REQUEST from host to the 30 Munroe St AP is 63.169910 second. time ASSOCIATE REPLY sent is 63.192101 second.
15. What transmission rates is the host willing to use? The AP? To answer this question, you will need to look into the parameters fields of the 802.11 wireless LAN management frame.Answer Transmission rate on the host willing to use is 1.0, 2.0, 5.5, 11.0, 6.0, 9.0, 12.0, 18.0, 24.0,36.0, 48.0 และ 54.0. Transmission rate on AP is 1.0, 2.0, 5.5, 11.0, 6.0, 9.0, 12.0, 18.0, 24.0, 36.0, 48.0 และ 54.0 .
Other Frame types
16. Consider the first PROBE REQUEST and the soonest subsequent PROBE RESPONSE PAIR occurs after t = 2.0 seconds in the trace. When are these frames sent and what are the sender, receiver and BSS ID MAC addresses for these frames? What is the purpose of these two types of frames? (To answer this last question, you’ll need to dig into the online references cited earlier in this lab).Answer the first PROBE REQUEST send on TIME 2.297613 second., So Destination address: Broadcast (ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff),Source address: IntelCor_1f:57:13 (00:12:f0:1f:57:13),BSS Id: Broadcast (ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff).the PROBE RESPONSE send on TIME 2.300697 second., So Destination address: IntelCor_1f:57:13 (00:12:f0:1f:57:13),Source address: Cisco-Li_f7:1d:51 (00:16:b6:f7:1d:51),BSS Id: Cisco-Li_f7:1d:51 (00:16:b6:f7:1d:51).

Lab 10 Wireshark Lab: SSL

1. For each of the first 8 Ethernet frames, specify the source of the frame (client or server), determine the number of SSL records that are included in the frame, and list the SSL record types that are included in the frame. Draw a timing diagram between client and server, with one arrow for each SSL record.answer 2. Each of the SSL records begins with the same three fields (with possibly different values). One of these fields is “content type” and has length of one byte. List all three fields and their lengths.answer Content Type : Handshake(22) has length 1 byte Version : TLS 1.0 (0×0301) has length 2 byte Length : 111 has length 2 byte
ClientHello Record
3. Expand the ClientHello record. (If your trace contains multiple ClientHello records, expand the frame that contains the first one.) What is the value of the content type?answer value of the content type is Handshake (22)4. Does the ClientHello record contain a nonce (also known as a “challenge”)? If so, what is the value of the challenge in hexadecimal notation?answer value of the challenge in hexadecimal notation is48ca936dccacffd6d73613ac9ed9bb1fe52ca43424577b37b16d26fdfe14ef98 .5. Does the ClientHello record advertise the cyber suites it supports? If so, in the first listed suite, what are the public-key algorithm, the symmetric-key algorithm, and the hash algorithm?answer yes, ClientHello record advertise the cyber suites it supports does. , So the first lisetd suite is Cipher Suite: TLSRSAWITHAES128CBCSHA (0×002f), So Public-key algorithm is RSA Symmetric-key algorithm is AES 128 Bit Cipher Block Chaining Hash algorithm is Secure Hash Algorithm
ServerHello Record
6. Locate the ServerHello SSL record. Does this record specify a chosen cipher suite? What are the algorithms in the chosen cipher suite?answer yes, Cipher Suite is TLSRSAWITHAES128CBCSHA (0×002f),So Public-key algorithm is RSA Symmetric-key algorithm is AES 128 Bit Cipher Block Chaining Hash algorithm is Secure Hash Algorithm
7. Does this record include a nonce? If so, how long is it? What is the purpose of theclient and server nonces in SSL?answer yes,record has length of nonce is 32 bit, it used to calculated common master secret.8. Does this record include a session ID? What is the purpose of the session ID?answer yes,the record include a session ID. session ID mean can reused so if value doesn’t zero mean client can updated parameter value but value dose zero mean client make connetion .9. Does this record contain a certificate, or is the certificate included in a separate record. Does the certificate fit into a single Ethernet frame?answer yes,record contain a certificate . yes,certificate fit into a single Ethernet frame.
Client Key Exchange Record
10. Locate the client key exchange record. Does this record contain a pre-master secret? What is this secret used for? Is the secret encrypted? If so, how? How long is the encrypted secret?answer yes,record contain a pre-master secret. it used to create master key and encrypted information has 130 bytes.
Change Cipher Spec Record (sent by client) and Encrypted Handshake Record
11. What is the purpose of the Change Cipher Spec record? How many bytes is the record in your trace?answer it uesed to tell server to changed status to encrypted state . , the record has 1 byte.12. In the encrypted handshake record, what is being encrypted? How?answer Finished handshake record so messages has contain has hash of Handshake message with hash algorithm. in this case used MD5.13. Does the server also send a change cipher record and an encrypted handshake record to the client? How are those records different from those sent by the client?answer yes, Encrypted Handshake Message is differented.
Application Data
14. How is the application data being encrypted? Do the records containing application data include a MAC? Does Wireshark distinguish between the encrypted application data and the MAC?answer application data is encrypted by AES algorithm that specific define in cipher suite so in normal case record has MAC value but wireshark cann’t show both of value because record has encrypted data.

The Most Updated 200-301 CCNA Dumps

2021-10-23T02:40:00.003-07:00

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

§ A. reduced operational costs

§ B. reduced hardware footprint

§ C. faster changes with more reliable results

§ D. fewer network failures

§ E. increased network security

Correct Answer: AC
Section: Automation and Programmability

2. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

§ A. ip address dhcp

§ B. ip helper-address

§ C. ip dhcp pool

§ D. ip dhcp client

Correct Answer: A
Section: IP Services

Explanation/Reference: If we want to get an IP address from the DHCP server on a Cisco device, we can use the command “ip address dhcp”.
Note: The command “ip helper-address” enables a router to become a DHCP Relay Agent.
Reference: Click here

3. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

§ A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices

§ B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

§ C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

§ D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Access

4. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

§ A. 2000::/3

§ B. 2002::5

§ C. FC00::/7

§ D. FF02::1

§ E. FF02::2

Correct Answer: DE
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all-node group is used to communicate with all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer address resolution. Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2).
Reference: Click here

5. Which option about JSON is true?

§ A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text

§ B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays

§ C. used for storing information

§ D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference: JSON data is written as name/value pairs.
A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value:
“name”:”Mark”
JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null..
For example:
{
“name”:”John”,
“age”:30,
“cars”:[ “Ford”, “BMW”, “Fiat” ]
}

6. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?

§ A. global unicast

§ B. unique local

§ C. link-local

§ D. multicast

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet.
Note: In the past, Site-local addresses (FEC0::/10) are equivalent to private IP addresses in IPv4 but now they are deprecated.
Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).

7. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?

§ A. enable secret

§ B. service password-encryption

§ C. username Cisco password encrypt

§ D. enable password

Correct Answer: B
Section: Security Fundamentals

8. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

§ A. OpenFlow

§ B. NETCONF

§ C. Thrift

§ D. CORBA

§ E. DSC

Correct Answer: AB
Section: Automation and Programmability

Explanation/Reference: OpenFlow is a well-known southbound API. OpenFlow defines the way the SDN Controller should interact with the forwarding plane to make adjustments to the network, so it can better adapt to changing business requirements.
The Network Configuration Protocol (NetConf) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) to install, manipulate and delete configuration to network devices.
Other southbound APIs are:
+ onePK: a Cisco proprietary SBI to inspect or modify the network element configuration without hardware upgrades.
+ OpFlex: an open-standard, distributed control system. It send “summary policy” to network elements.

9. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

§ A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.

§ B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

§ C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.

§ D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: This is an example of how two-factor authentication (2FA) works:
1. The user logs in to the website or service with their username and password.
2. The password is validated by an authentication server and, if correct, the user becomes eligible for the second factor.
3. The authentication server sends a unique code to the user’s second-factor method (such as a smartphone app).
4. The user confirms their identity by providing the additional authentication for their second-factor method.

10. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)

§ A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

§ B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

§ C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

§ D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

§ E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

Correct Answer: BD
Section: Automation and Programmability

Explanation/Reference: Cisco DNA Center offers 360-degree extensibility through four distinct types of platform capabilities:
+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller and enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation.
+ Process adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other IT and network systems to streamline IT operations and processes.
+ Domain adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other infrastructure domains such as data center, WAN, and security to deliver a consistent intent-based infrastructure across the entire IT environment.
+ SDKs allow management to be extended to third-party vendor’s network devices to offer support for diverse environments.

11. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.
Which type of security program is in place?

§ A. Physical access control

§ B. Social engineering attack

§ C. brute force attack

§ D. user awareness

Correct Answer: D
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: This is a training program which simulates an attack, not a real attack (as it says “The webpage that opens reports that it was safe”) so we believed it should be called a “user awareness” program.
Therefore the best answer here should be “user awareness”. This is the definition of
“User awareness” from CCNA 200- 301 Offical Cert Guide Book:
“User awareness: All users should be made aware of the need for data confidentiality to protect corporate information, as well as their own credentials and personal information. They should also be made aware of potential threats, schemes to mislead, and proper procedures to report security incidents. ” Note: Physical access control means infrastructure locations, such as network closets and data centers, should remain securely locked.

12. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?

§ A. TKIP with RC4

§ B. RC4

§ C. AES-128

§ D. AES-256

Correct Answer: D
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: We can see in this picture we have to type 64 hexadecimal characters (256 bit) for the WPA2 passphrase so we can deduce the encryption is AES-256, not AES-128.

Reference: Click here

13. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

§ A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image.

§ B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.

§ C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch.

§ D. A console password must be configured on the switch.

§ E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Click here

14. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

§ A. outside global

§ B. outsdwde local

§ C. inside global

§ D. insride local

§ E. outside public

§ F. inside public

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: NAT use four types of addresses:
* Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. The address is usually not an IP address assigned by the Internet Network Information Center (InterNIC) or service provider.
This address is likely to be an RFC 1918 private address.
* Inside global address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the InterNIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
* Outside local address – The IP address of an outside host as it is known to the hosts on the inside network.
* Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network. The owner of the host assigns this address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

§ A. 10.10.10.0/28

§ B. 10.10.13.0/25

§ C. 10.10.13.144/28

§ D. 10.10.13.208/29

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: Host A address fall within the address range. However, if more than one route to the same subnet exist (router will use the longest stick match, which match more specific route to the subnet). If there are route 10.10.13.192/26 and 10.10.13.208/29, the router will forward the packet to /29 rather than /28.

16. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

§ A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

§ B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

§ C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path.

§ D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

Correct Answer: D
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Click here

17. In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

§ A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.

§ B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

§ C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

§ D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference:
Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.
Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches.
Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh.
Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.

18. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

§ A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.

§ B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.

§ C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.

§ D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.

§ E. It supports protocol discovery.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: IP Services

Explanation/Reference: Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur:

1. The average queue size is calculated.
2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.
3. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop probability for that type of traffic.
4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped. WRED reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up). By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be used
fully at all times.

WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered (-> answer A is correct).

19. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

§ A. CDP

§ B. SNMP

§ C. SMTP

§ D. ARP

Correct Answer: B
Section: IP Services

Explanation/Reference: SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language used for the monitoring and management of devices in a network.
The SNMP framework has three parts:
+ An SNMP manager
+ An SNMP agent
+ A Management Information Base (MIB)
The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network management information, which consists of collections of managed objects.
With SNMP, the network administrator can send commands to multiple routers to do the backup.

20. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

§ A. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted.

§ B. The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch.

§ C. Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing.

§ D. The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings. This capability protects the network from certain man-in-the-middle attacks. After enabling DAI, all ports become untrusted ports.

21. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

§ A. runts

§ B. giants

§ C. frame

§ D. CRC

§ E. input errors

Correct Answer: DE
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error.
Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS math detects an error.
The “input errors” includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
The output below show the interface counters with the “show interface s0/0/0” command:

22. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

§ A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

§ B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits.

§ C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol.

§ D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

23. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

§ A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

§ B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

§ C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

§ D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric.

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

§ A. adminadmin123

§ B. default

§ C. testing1234

§ D. cisco123

Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: If neither the enable password command nor the enable secret command is configured, and if there is a line password configured for the console, the console line password serves as the enable password for all VTY sessions -> The “enable secret” will be used first if available, then “enable password” and line password.

25. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

§ A. Configure the version of SSH.

§ B. Configure VTY access.

§ C. Create a user with a password.

§ D. Assign a DNS domain name.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: In order to generate an RSA key for SSH, we need to configure the hostname and a DNS domain name on the router (a username and password is also required). Therefore in fact both answer C and answer D are correct.

26. Which output displays a JSON data representation?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: C
Section: Automation and Programmability

Explanation/Reference: JSON data is written as name/value pairs.
A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value:
“name”:”Mark”
JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null.
For example:
{
“name”:”John”,
“age”:30,
“cars”:[ “Ford”, “BMW”, “Fiat” ]
}
JSON can have empty object like “taskId”:{}

27. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

§ A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

§ B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password.

§ C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

§ D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization and Accounting.
+ Authentication: Specify who you are (usually via login username & password)
+ Authorization: Specify what actions you can do, what resource you can access
+ Accounting: Monitor what you do, how long you do it (can be used for billing and auditing)
An example of AAA is shown below:
+ Authentication: “I am a normal user. My username/password is user_tom/learnforever”
+ Authorization: “user_tom can access LearnCCNA server via HTTP and FTP”
+ Accounting: “user_tom accessed LearnCCNA server for 2 hours”. This user only uses “show” commands.

28. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

§ A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.

§ B. It drops the traffic.

§ C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.

§ D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: Untagged traffic from the device attached to the Cisco IP Phone passes through the phone unchanged, regardless of the trust state of the access port on the phone.
Reference: Click here

29. An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

§ A. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252

§ B. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248

§ C. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248

§ D. interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: A /30 subnet means subnet mask of 255.255.255.252. But 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 is a broadcast IP address; only 209.165.201.2/30 is the usable IP address.

30. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

§ A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.

§ B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.

§ C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.

§ D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

31. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

§ A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.

§ B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.

§ C. It moves the control plane to a central point.

§ D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.

§ E. It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: Automation and Programmability

32. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?

§ A. dual algorithm

§ B. metric

§ C. administrative distance

§ D. hop count

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: Administrative distance is the feature used by routers to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol.

33. Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

§ A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

§ B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports.

§ C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

§ D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: The VTP mode of SW2 is transparent so it only forwards the VTP updates it receives to its trunk links without processing them.

Reference: Click here

34. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

§ A. sniffer

§ B. mesh

§ C. flexconnect

§ D. local

Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Click here

35. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

§ A. YAML

§ B. JSON

§ C. EBCDIC

§ D. SGML

§ E. XML

Correct Answer: BE
Section: Automation and Programmability

Explanation/Reference: The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) REST API is a programmatic interface that uses REST architecture. The API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS messages that contain JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents.
Reference: Click here

36. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

§ A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

§ B. when the cable length limits are exceeded

§ C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

§ D. when Carriner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

§ E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Correct Answer: BC
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full-duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, noncompliant number of hubs in the network, or a bad NIC.
Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network.
Reference: Click here

37. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

§ A. 20

§ B. 90

§ C. 110

§ D. 115

Correct Answer: B
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: The Administrative distance (AD) of EIGRP is 90 while the AD of OSPF is 110 so EIGRP route will be chosen to install into the routing table.

38. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

§ A. It enables BPDU messages

§ B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

§ C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

§ D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: This comment

39. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

§ A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.

§ B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

§ C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

§ D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends the frame out all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

§ A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch.

§ B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

§ C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted.

§ D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: Dynamic ARP inspection is an ingress security feature; it does not perform any egress checking.

41. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?

§ A. 10.4.4.4

§ B. 10.4.4.5

§ C. 172.23.103.10

§ D. 172.23.104.4

Correct Answer: D
Section: IP Services

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

§ A. 192.168.16.0/21

§ B. 192.168.16.0/24

§ C. 192.168 26.0/26

§ D. 192.168.16.0/27

Correct Answer: D
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: The destination IP addresses match all four entries in the routing table but the 192.168.16.0/27 has the longest prefix so it will be chosen. This is called the “longest prefix match” rule.

43. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

§ A. 2000::/3

§ B. FC00::/7

§ C. FE80::/10

§ D. FF00::/8

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast and this is the IPv6 type of address the question wants to ask.
FE80::/10 range is used for link-local addresses. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet.
It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).

44. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

§ A. management interface settings

§ B. QoS settings

§ C. Ip address of one or more access points

§ D. SSID

§ E. Profile name

Correct Answer: DE
Section: Network Access

45. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

§ A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

§ B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

§ C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.

§ D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link.

§ E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: The reported distance (or advertised distance) is the cost from the neighbor to the destination. It is calculated from the router advertising the route to the network. For example in the topology below, suppose router A & B are exchanging their routing tables for the first time. Router B says “Hey, the best metric (cost) from me to IOWA is 50 and the metric from you to IOWA is 90” and advertises it to router A.

Router A considers the first metric (50) as the Advertised distance. The second metric (90), which is from NEVADA to IOWA (through IDAHO), is called the Feasible distance.

The reported distance is calculated in the same way of calculating the metric. By default (K1 = 1, K2 = 0, K3 = 1, K4 = 0, K5 = 0), the metric is calculated as follows:

-> Answer A is not correct.
Feasible successor is the backup route. To be a feasible successor, the route must have an Advertised distance (AD) less than the Feasible distance (FD) of the current successor route -> Answer B is correct.
Feasible distance (FD): The sum of the AD plus the cost between the local router and the next- hop router.
The router must calculate the FD of all paths to choose the best path to put into the routing table.
Note: Although the new CCNA exam does not have EIGRP topic but you should learn the basic knowledge of this routing protocol.

46. Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

§ A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

§ B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

§ C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

§ D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: The trunk still forms with mismatched native VLANs and the traffic can actually flow between mismatched switches. But it is absolutely necessary that the native VLANs on both ends of a trunk link match; otherwise a native VLAN mismatch occurs, causing the two VLANs to effectively merge.
For example with the above configuration, SW1 would send untagged frames for VLAN 999. SW2 receives them but would think they are for VLAN 99 so we can say these two VLANs are merged.

47. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

§ A. lldp timer

§ B. lldp holdtimt

§ C. lldp reinit

§ D. lldp tlv-select

Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference:
+ lldp holdtime seconds: Specify the amount of time a receiving device should hold the information from your device before discarding it
+ lldp reinit delay: Specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on an interface
+ lldp timer rate: Set the sending frequency of LLDP updates in seconds
Reference: Click here

48. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

§ A. Exchange

§ B. 2-way

§ C. Full

§ D. Init

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

49. Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?

§ A. The interface is not participating in OSPF.

§ B. A point-to-point network type is configured.

§ C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.

§ D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface.

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference:
From the output we can see there are Designated Router & Backup Designated Router for this OSPF domain so this is a broadcast network (point-to-point and point-to multipoint networks do not elect DR & BDR) -> Answer B is not correct.

By default, the timers on a broadcast network (Ethernet, point-to-point and point-to-multipoint) are 10 seconds hello and 40 seconds dead (therefore answer C is correct). The timers on a non- broadcast network are 30 seconds hello 120 seconds dead.

From the line “Neighbor Count is 3”, we learn there are four OSPF routers in this OSPF domain -> Answer D is not correct.

Reference: Click here

50. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

§ A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

§ B. Administratively shut down the ports.

§ C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99.

§ D. Configure the ports as trunk ports.

§ E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: Security Fundamentals

51. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

§ A. Bronze

§ B. Platinum

§ C. Silver

§ D. Gold

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice, Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.

Reference: Click here

52. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.
The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

§ A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

§ B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

§ C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is a symmetrical

§ D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table

Correct Answer: D
Section: IP Connectivity

53. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

§ A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

§ B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

§ C. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.

§ D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals

54. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

§ A. floating static route

§ B. host route

§ C. default route

§ D. network route

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: From the output, we see R1 will use the entry “O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/4576] via 10.10.10.1, …” to reach host 10.10.13.10. This is a network route.
Note: “B* 0.0.0.0/0 …” is a default route.

55. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: B
Section: Security Fundamentals

56. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?

§ A. The link is in a down state.

§ B. The link is in an error disables state

§ C. The link is becomes an access port.

§ D. The link becomes a trunk port.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Access

57. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

§ A. CPU ACL

§ B. TACACS

§ C. Flex ACL

§ D. RADIUS

Correct Answer: A
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: Whenever you want to control which devices can talk to the main CPU, a CPU ACL is used.
Note: CPU ACLs only filter traffic towards the CPU, and not any traffic exiting or generated by the CPU.
Reference: Click here

58. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

§ A. port-to-multipoint

§ B. broadcast

§ C. point-to-point

§ D. nonbroadcast

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: The default OSPF network type for HDLC and PPP on Serial link is point-to-point (while the default OSPF network type for Ethernet link is Broadcast).

59. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

§ A. passive

§ B. mode on

§ C. auto

§ D. active

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: From the neighbor status, we notice the “Flags” are SP. “P” here means the neighbor is in Passive mode.
In order to create an Etherchannel interface, the (local) SW1 ports should be in Active mode.
Moreover, the “Port State” in the exhibit is “0x3c” (which equals to “00111100 in binary format).
Bit 3 is “1” which means the ports are synchronizing -> the ports are working so the local ports should be in Active mode.

60. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

§ A. point-to-multipoint

§ B. point-to-point

§ C. broadcast

§ D. nonbroadcast

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: The Broadcast network type is the default for an OSPF enabled ethernet interface (while Point-toPoint is the default OSPF network type for Serial interface with HDLC and PPP encapsulation).
Reference: Click here

61. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

§ A. platform-as-a-service

§ B. software-as-a-service

§ C. network-as-a-service

§ D. infrastructure-as-a-service

Correct Answer: D
Section: Automation and Programmability

Explanation/Reference: Below are the 3 cloud supporting services cloud providers provide to customer:
+ SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS uses the web to deliver applications that are managed by a thirdparty vendor and whose interface is accessed on the clients’ side. Most SaaS applications can be run directly from a web browser without any downloads or installations required, although some require plugins.
+ PaaS (Platform as a Service): are used for applications, and other development, while providing cloud components to software. What developers gain with PaaS is a framework they can build upon to develop or customize applications. PaaS makes the development, testing, and deployment of applications quick, simple, and cost-effective. With this technology, enterprise operations, or a thirdparty provider, can manage OSes, virtualization, servers, storage, networking, and the PaaS software itself. Developers, however, manage the applications.
+ IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): self-service models for accessing, monitoring, and managing remote datacenter infrastructures, such as compute (virtualized or bare metal), storage, networking, and networking services (e.g. firewalls). Instead of having to purchase hardware outright, users can purchase IaaS based on consumption, similar to electricity or other utility billing.
In general, IaaS provides hardware so that an organization can install their own operating system.

62. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

§ A. autonomous

§ B. lightweight

§ C. bridge

§ D. mobility express

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: A Lightweight Access Point (LAP) is an AP that is designed to be connected to a wireless LAN (WLAN) controller (WLC). APs are “lightweight,” which means that they cannot act independently of a wireless LAN controller (WLC). The WLC manages the AP configurations and firmware. The APs are “zero touch” deployed, and individual configuration of APs is not necessary.
Reference: Click here

63. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

§ A. ipv6 address dhcp

§ B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

§ C. ipv6 address autoconfig

§ D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: The “ipv6 address autoconfig” command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the
interface.
Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA)
messages.
The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP
Server).
This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from:
+ Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address)
+ Link Prefix (obtained via RA)
Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address

64. Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

§ A. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

§ B. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5

§ C. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

§ D. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5

§ E. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Correct Answer: AE
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: Floating static routes are static routes that have an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance (AD) of another static route or dynamic routes. By default a static route has an AD of 1 then floating static route must have the AD greater than 1. Floating static route has a manually configured administrative distance greater than that of the primary route and therefore would not be in the routing table until the primary route fails.

65. Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?

§ A. show ip route

§ B. show ip interface

§ C. show interface

§ D. show cdp neighbor

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Access

66. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

§ A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

§ B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.

§ C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.

§ D. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding.

§ E. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: IP Connectivity

67. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

§ A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated.

§ B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.

§ C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects.

§ D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err disabled.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: PoE monitoring and policing compares the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value (either a configured maximum value or the port’s default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur:
– A syslog message is issued.
– The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled.
– The allocated power is freed.
Reference: Click here

68. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

§ A. management

§ B. protected frame

§ C. control

§ D. action

Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: There are three main types of 802.11 frames: the Data Frame, the Management Frame and the Control Frame. Association Response belongs to Management Frame. Association response is sent in response to an association request.
Reference: Click here

69. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

§ A. Enable NTP authentication.

§ B. Verify the time zone.

§ C. Disable NTP broadcasts.

§ D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server.

§ E. Set the NTP server private key.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: IP Services

Explanation/Reference: To configure authentication, perform this task in privileged mode:
Step 1: Configure an authentication key pair for NTP and specify whether the key will be trusted or untrusted.
Step 2: Set the IP address of the NTP server and the public key.
Step 3: Enable NTP client mode.
Step 4: Enable NTP authentication.
Step 5: Verify the NTP configuration.
Reference: Click here

70. Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.)

§ A. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

§ B. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

§ C. Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

§ D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

§ E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: The short syntax of static IPv6 route is:
ipv6 route <destination-IPv6-address> {next-hop-IPv6-address | exit-interface}

71. Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

§ A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.

§ B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

§ C. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.

§ D. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUS.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: Enabling the PortFast feature causes a switch or a trunk port to enter the STP forwarding-state immediately or upon a linkup event, thus bypassing the listening and learning states.
Note: To enable portfast on a trunk port you need the trunk keyword “spanning-tree portfast trunk”

72. Refer to exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

§ A. It is a broadcast IP address.

§ B. The router does not support/28 mask.

§ C. It belongs to a private IP address range.

§ D. It is a network IP address.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals

73. When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

§ A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup.

§ B. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary

§ C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup.

§ D. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table.

Correct Answer: A
Section: IP Connectivity

74. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

§ A. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

§ B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization.

§ C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.

§ D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Automation and Programmability

75. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

§ A. 172.9.0.0/16

§ B. 172.28.0.0/16

§ C. 192.0.0.0/8

§ D. 209.165.201.0/24

Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:
Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).

76. Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

§ A. 10.10.1.10

§ B. 10.10.10.20

§ C. 172.16.15.10

§ D. 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: OSPF uses the following criteria to select the router ID:
1. Manual configuration of the router ID (via the “router-id x.x.x.x” command under OSPF router configuration mode).
2. Highest IP address on a loopback interface.
3. Highest IP address on a non-loopback and active (no shutdown) interface.

77. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

§ A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

§ B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

§ C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25.

§ D. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: Router2 does not have an entry for the subnet 10.10.13.128/25. It only has an entry for 10.10.13.0/25, which ranges from 10.10.13.0 to 10.10.13.127

78. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

§ A. IKEv2

§ B. IKEv1

§ C. IPsec

§ D. MD5

Correct Answer: C
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: A site-to-site VPN allows offices in multiple fixed locations to establish secure connections with each other over a public network such as the Internet. A site-to-site VPN means that two sites create a VPN tunnel by encrypting and sending data between two devices. One set of rules for creating a siteto-site VPN is defined by IPsec.

79. Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration started to work as intended.Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)

§ A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

§ B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

§ C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.

§ D. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.

§ E. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: Security Fundamentals

80. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

§ A. on

§ B. auto

§ C. active

§ D. desirable

Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.

81. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

§ A. cost

§ B. adminstrative distance

§ C. metric

§ D. as-path

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: If a router learns two different paths for the same network from the same routing protocol, it has to decide which route is better and will be placed in the routing table. Metric is the measure used to decide which route is better (lower number is better). Each routing protocol uses its own metric.
For example, RIP uses hop counts as a metric, while OSPF uses cost.
Reference: Click here

82. R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

§ A. IS-IS

§ B. RIP

§ C. Internal EIGRP

§ D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: With the same route (prefix), the router will choose the routing protocol with lowest Administrative Distance (AD) to install into the routing table. The AD of Internal EIGRP (90) is lowest so it would be chosen. The table below lists the ADs of popular routing protocols.

Note: The AD of IS-IS is 115. The “EIGRP” in the table above is “Internal EIGRP”. The AD of “External EIGRP” is 170. An EIGRP external route is a route that was redistributed into EIGRP.

83. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

§ A. 0000.5E00.010a

§ B. 0005.3711.0975

§ C. 0000.0C07.AC99

§ D. 0007.C070/AB01

Correct Answer: A
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: With VRRP, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group.

84. Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

§ A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane.

§ B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management.

§ C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations.

§ D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Automation and Programmability

Explanation/Reference: Most traditional devices use a distributed architecture, in which each control plane is resided in a networking device. Therefore they need to communicate with each other via messages to work correctly.
In contrast to distributed architecture, centralized (or controller-based) architectures centralizes the control of networking devices into one device, called SDN controller -> Answer D is correct.

85. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

§ A. A network device has restarted.

§ B. An ARP inspection has failed.

§ C. A routing instance has flapped.

§ D. A debug operation is running.

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Services

Explanation/Reference: Usually no action is required when a route flaps so it generates the notification syslog level message (level 5).

86. Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

§ A. 0

§ B. 110

§ C. 38443

§ D. 3184439

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: Both the line “O 172.16.0.128/25” and “S 172.16.0.0/24” cover the host 172.16.0.202 but with the “longest (prefix) match” rule the router will choose the first route.

87. Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?

§ A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.

§ B. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route.

§ C. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes.

§ D. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1.

Correct Answer: A
Section: IP Connectivity

Explanation/Reference: Our new static default route has the Administrative Distance (AD) of 120, which is bigger than the AD of OSPF External route (O*E2) so it will not be pushed into the routing table until the current OSPF External route is removed.
For your information, if you don’t type the AD of 120 (using the command “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1”) then the new static default route would replace the OSPF default route as the default AD of static route is 1. You will see such line in the routing table:
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.13.0.1

88. Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected?

§ A. There is a native VLAN mismatch.

§ B. Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

§ C. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN.

§ D. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: From the output we see the native VLAN of Switch1 on Gi0/1 interface is VLAN 1 while that of Switch2 is VLAN 99 so there would be a native VLAN mismatch.

89. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

§ A. WEP

§ B. RC4

§ C. AES

§ D. TKIP

Correct Answer: C
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: Many routers provide WPA2-PSK (TKIP), WPA2-PSK (AES), and WPA2-PSK (TKIP/AES) as options.
TKIP is actually an older encryption protocol introduced with WPA to replace the very-insecure WEP encryption at the time. TKIP is actually quite similar to WEP encryption. TKIP is no longer considered secure, and is now deprecated. In other words, you shouldn’t be using it.
AES is a more secure encryption protocol introduced with WPA2 and it is currently the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK/

90. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

§ A. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

§ B. The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”.

§ C. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

§ D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Access

Explanation/Reference: Link aggregation (LAG) is a partial implementation of the 802.3ad port aggregation standard. It bundles all of the controller’s distribution system ports into a single 802.3ad port channel.
Restriction for Link aggregation:
– LAG requires the EtherChannel to be configured for `mode on’ on both the controller and the Catalyst switch -> Answer B is not correct.
– If the recommended load-balancing method cannot be configured on the Catalyst switch, then configure the LAG connection as a single member link or disable LAG on the controller -> Answer A is not correct while answer D is correct.
Reference: Click here

91. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

§ A. ASCII

§ B. base64

§ C. binary

§ D. decimal

§ E. hexadecimal

Correct Answer: AE
Section: Security Fundamentals

Explanation/Reference: When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 Preshared Key (PSK), we can choose the encryption key format as either ASCII or HEX.
Reference: Click here

92. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

§ A. overlay

§ B. northbound

§ C. underlay

§ D. southbound

Correct Answer: D
Section: Automation and Programmability

93. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?

§ A. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

§ B. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

§ C. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

§ D. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation
dot1q switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

Explanation: If the etherchannel was configured with mode “auto”, it was using PagP, so, we need to configure the other switch with “desirable” mode.

PagP modes: auto | Desirable
LACP modes: active | pasive

94. Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?

§ A. trunk mode mismatches

§ B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination

§ C. native VLAN mismatches

§ D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

95. What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two.)

§ A. It requires the use of ARP.

§ B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.

§ C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.

§ D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

Correct Answer: BD

96. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

§ A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a

§ B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1

§ C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4

§ D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
The leading 0’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

97. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

§ A. one-to-many communication model

§ B. one-to-nearest communication model

§ C. any-to-many communication model

§ D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group

§ E. the same address for multiple devices in the group

§ F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Correct Answer: BEF

Explanation: A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

98. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

§ A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

§ B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

§ C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

§ D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

§ E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation: Below is the list of common kinds of IPv6 addresses:

Loopback address	::1
Link-local address	FE80::/10
Site-local address	FEC0::/10
Global address	2000::/3
Multicast address	FF00::/8

99. What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

§ A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72

§ B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72

§ C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72

§ D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: There are two ways that an IPv6 address can be additionally compressed: compressing leading zeros and substituting a group of consecutive zeros with a single double colon(::). Both of these can be used in any number of combinations to notate the same address. It is important to note that the double colon (::) can only be used once within a single IPv6 address notation. So, the extra 0’s can only be compressed once.

100. Which IPv6 address is valid?

§ A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B

§ B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B

§ C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B

§ D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
The leading O’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

101. Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

§ A. anycast

§ B. broadcast

§ C. multicast

§ D. podcast

§ E. allcast

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation: IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in networking: unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing. A unicast address identifies a single network interface. The Internet Protocol delivers packets sent to a unicast address to that specific interface. An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces, usually belonging to different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to just one of the member interfaces, typically the nearest host, according to the routing protocol’s definition of distance. Anycast addresses cannot be identified easily, they have the same format as unicast addresses, and differ only by their presence in the network at multiple points. Almost any unicast address can be employed as an anycast address.
A multicast address is also used by multiple hosts, which acquire the multicast address destination by participating in the multicast distribution protocol among the network routers. A packet that is sent to a multicast address is delivered to all interfaces that have joined the corresponding multicast group.

102. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

§ A. ipv6 local

§ B. ipv6 host

§ C. ipv6 unicast-routing

§ D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: To enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router use the following command: ipv6 unicast-routing
If this command is not recognized, your version of IOS does not support IPv6.

103. Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

§ A. : :1

§ B. ::

§ C. 2000::/3

§ D. 0::/10

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: In IPv6 the loopback address is written as, ::1
This is a 128bit number, with the first 127 bits being ‘0’ and the 128th bit being ‘1’. It’s just a single address, so could also be written as ::1/128.

104. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)

§ A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B

§ B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B

§ C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B

§ D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B

§ E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B

Correct Answer: AE

105. Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

§ A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.

§ B. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.

§ C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.

§ D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.

§ E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.

§ F. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.

Correct Answer: DE

106. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration becomes the root bridge?

§ A. SW1

§ B. SW2

§ C. SW3

§ D. SW4

Correct Answer: C

107. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

§ A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

§ B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

§ C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

§ D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

§ E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation: A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chosen in the order below:
+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.
-> The loopback interface will be chosen as the router ID of RouterB ?

108. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)

§ A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.

§ B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface.

§ C. The interface is error-disabled.

§ D. The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.

§ E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.

Correct Answer: C D

109. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)

§ A. learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity

§ B. the interface is error-diabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address

§ C. it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses

§ D. it has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses

§ E. the security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address

Correct Answer: AC

110. Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.)

§ A. The security violation counter dose not increment

§ B. The port LED turns off

§ C. The interface is error-disabled

§ D. A syslog message is generated

§ E. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address

Correct Answer: AE

111. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)

§ A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network

§ B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined

§ C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100

§ D. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP

§ E. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170

Correct Answer: AC

112. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true?

§ A. Five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface.

§ B. A syslog message is generated when a violation occurs.

§ C. One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface.

§ D. One secure MAC address is dynamically configured on the interface.

Correct Answer: C

113. Refer to the exhibit. When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2,the packet has. Which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?

§ A. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2

§ B. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1

§ C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10

§ D. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: The source and destination IP addresses of the packets are unchanged on all the way. Only source and destination MAC addresses are changed.

114. Refer to the exhibit Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the severs at a remote site. When troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the severs from router R2. What is the most likely reason that the other users are experiencing connection failure?

§ A. interface ports are shut down on the remote servers

§ B. The DHCP address pool has been exhausted

§ C. The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch

§ D. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.

Correct Answer: D

115. After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two)

§ A. deploy load balancers

§ B. configure additional vlans

§ C. configure multiple VRRP groups

§ D. deploy POE switches

§ E. configure additional security policies

Correct Answer: AE

116. Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet.
Which action corrects the configuration issue?

§ A. Add the default-information originate command on R2.

§ B. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1.

§ C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.

§ D. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2.

Correct Answer: C
Section: IP Connectivity

117. Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?

§ A. {“key”:”value”}

§ B. [“key”,”value”]

§ C. {“key”,”value”}

§ D. (“key”:”value”)

Correct Answer: A

118. Which option best describes an API?

§ A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.

§ B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications

§ C. a stateless client-server model

§ D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data

Correct Answer: A

119. Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?

§ A. show ipv6 interface

§ B. show access-list

§ C. show ipv6 access-list

§ D. show ipv6 route

Correct Answer: C

120. Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?

§ A. transport input telnet ssh

§ B. transport input telnet

§ C. no transport input telnet

§ D. privilege level 15

Correct Answer: A

121. AAA stands for authentication, authorization, and accounting

§ A. False

§ B. True

Correct Answer: B

122. What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router?

§ A. It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server.

§ B. It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server.

§ C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server

§ D. It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server.

Correct Answer: C

123. Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP?

§ A. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp

§ B. show interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

§ C. show ip interface dhcp

§ D. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

§ E. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief

Correct Answer: D

124. Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true?

§ A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses

§ B. applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses

§ C. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses

§ D. can be configured only on Gigabit interface

Correct Answer: A

125. Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?

§ A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5

§ B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop

§ C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop

§ D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop

Correct Answer: A

126. Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true?

§ A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.

§ B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.

§ C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.

§ D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.

Correct Answer: B

127. What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command?

§ A. displaying OSPF-related interface information

§ B. displaying general information about OSPF routing processes

§ C. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis

§ D. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis

Correct Answer: A

128. How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?

§ A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports

§ B. to determine the hardware platform of the device

§ C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices

§ D. all of the above

Correct Answer: D

129. How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?

§ A. TTL

§ B. MAC address forwarding

§ C. Collision avoidance

§ D. Port blocking

Correct Answer: D

130. Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.)

§ A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel.

§ B. STP does not block EtherChannel links.

§ C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports.

§ D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel.

§ E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.

Correct Answer: AE

131. Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)

§ A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address.

§ B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address.

§ C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges.

§ D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware.

§ E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90.

§ F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.

Correct Answer: ADE

132. Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.)

§ A. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network.

§ B. Scalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network.

§ C. The logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems.

§ D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required.

§ E. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.

Correct Answer: ADE

133. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)

§ A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer

§ B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network

§ C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer

§ D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach

Correct Answer: AB

134. You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network – one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?

§ A. Change the maximum paths to 2

§ B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance

§ C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2

§ D. Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address

Correct Answer: BC

135. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?

§ A. IS-IS

§ B. EIGRP

§ C. OSPF

§ D. BGP

§ E. RIP

Correct Answer: BE

136. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

§ A. 192.168.14.4

§ B. 192.168.12.2

§ C. 192.168.13.3

§ D. 192.168.15.5

Correct Answer: A

137. Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)

§ A. 0

§ B. 1

§ C. 1005

§ D. 1006

§ E. 4096

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation/Reference: VLAN 1 is a system default VLAN, you can use this VLAN but you cannot delete it. By default VLAN 1 is use for every port on the switch.
Standard VLAN range from 1002-1005 it’s Cisco default for FDDI and Token Ring. You cannot delete VLANs 1002-1005. mostly we don’t use VLAN in this range.

138. Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three)

§ A. 192.168.2.0

§ B. 10.4.3.0

§ C. 10.0.0.0

§ D. 172.16.0.0

§ E. 172.16.4.0

§ F. 192.168.0.0

Correct Answer: ACD

139. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)

§ A. to enable intra-enterprise communication

§ B. to implement NAT

§ C. to connect applications

§ D. to conserve global address space

§ E. to manage routing overhead

Correct Answer: AD

140. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?

§ A. NAT

§ B. 6to4 tunneling

§ C. L2TPv3

§ D. dual-stack

Correct Answer: B

141. Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three)

§ A. to speed up convergence

§ B. to reduce routing overhead

§ C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.

§ D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.

§ E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.

§ F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration.

Correct Answer: ABE

142. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

§ A. It supports VLSM.

§ B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.

§ C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.

§ D. It increases routing overhead on the network.

§ E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

§ F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference: The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as authentication of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.
OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.

143. Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?

§ A. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

§ B. show ipv6 eigrp topology

§ C. show ipv6 eigrp traffic

§ D. show ipv6 eigrp events

Correct Answer: D

144. Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?

§ A. start of frame delimiter

§ B. Type field

§ C. preamble

§ D. Data field

Correct Answer: C

145. Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?

§ A. standby 10 preempt

§ B. standby 10 version 1

§ C. standby 10 priority 150

§ D. standby 10 version 2

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: The “preempt” command enables the HSRP router with the highest priority to immediately become the active router.

146. Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?

§ A. no additional config is required

§ B. standby 1 track ethernet

§ C. standby 1 preempt

§ D. standby 1 priority 250

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: Simply because that will be the default behavior routers would follow in the event all other routers in the HSRP group fail, then it would not keep attributes such as priority or preemption.
What preemption does in summary is to make sure that the configured Priority on all routers within the same HSRP group is always respected. That is, if R1 is configured on the HSRP group with a priority of 150 but he stands as active since all other routers currently subscribed to that group have a priority 150, then will router will preempt the current active router and will take over hence becoming the new active router.
With preemption disabled, the new router does not preempt the current active router, unless routers in the group have to renegotiate their roles based on each router’s priority at the time of negotiation.

147. You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity.
The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?

§ A. ip default-gateway

§ B. ip route

§ C. ip default-network

§ D. ip address dhcp

§ E. ip address dynamic

Correct Answer: D

148. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

§ A. The designated port

§ B. The backup port

§ C. The alternate port

§ D. The root port

Correct Answer: D

149. Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)

A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode on

B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active

C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode auto

D. interface port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk

E. interface port-channel 10
no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: BE

150. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

§ A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN

§ B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN

§ C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064

§ D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only

Correct Answer: A

151. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to arouter, the DHCP clients behind the device connot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?

§ A. Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients

§ B. Activate the dhcp pool

§ C. Correct the subnet mask

§ D. configure the default gateway

Correct Answer: D

152. Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

§ A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

§ B. The router will return the packet to its source.

§ C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.

§ D. The router will drop the packet.

Correct Answer: C

153. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

§ A. sniffer

§ B. mesh

§ C. flexconnect

§ D. local

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: In previous releases, whenever a FlexConnect access point disassociates from a controller, it moves to the standalone mode. The clients that are centrally switched are disassociated.
However, the FlexConnect access point continues to serve locally switched clients. When the FlexConnect access point rejoins the controller (or a standby controller), all clients are disconnected and are authenticated again. This functionality has been enhanced and the connection between the clients and the FlexConnect access points are maintained intact and the clients experience seamless connectivity. When both the access point and the controller have the same configuration, the connection between the clients and APs is maintained.
Reference: Click here

154. Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1 ?

§ A. 1

§ B. 90

§ C. 110

§ D. 120

Correct Answer: B

155. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?

§ A. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1

§ B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

§ C. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

§ D. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference: The default AD of static route is 1 so we need to configure another number for the static route.

156. Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?

§ A. LLDP

§ B. EEM

§ C. CDP

§ D. NTP

Correct Answer: D

157. Which effete does the aaa new-model configuration command have?

§ A. It enables AAA services on the device

§ B. It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA

§ C. It associates a RADIUS server to an group.

§ D. It configures a local user on the device.

Correct Answer: A

158. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?

§ A. It sends the traffic to VLAN 10.

§ B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100.

§ C. It drops the traffic.

§ D. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference: Since SW-1 is configured native VLAN is VLAN10, so traffic coming out of VLAN-10 is untagged, & goes directly to SW-2 Native VLAN: VLAN100, due to VLAN mismatch.

159. Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two)

§ A. channel-group 10 mode on

§ B. channel-group 10 mode auto

§ C. channel-group 10 mode passive

§ D. channel-group 10 mode desirable

§ E. channel-group 10 mode active

Correct Answer: D E

160. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

§ A. 00000000

§ B. 11111100

§ C. 11111111

§ D. 11111101

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference: A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7, which means that IPv6 Unique Local addresses begin with 7 bits with exact binary pattern as 1111 110 -> Answer B is correct.
Note: IPv6 Unique Local Address is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet.

161. Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

§ A. They determine the optimal within an autonomous system.

§ B. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems.

§ C. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol.

§ D. Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing.

§ E. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing.

Correct Answer: BC

162. What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?

§ A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01

§ B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff

§ C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c

§ D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08

§ E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff

Correct Answer: B

163. You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?

§ A. Reload the OSPF process.

§ B. Specify a loopback address

§ C. Reboot the router.

§ D. Save the router configuration

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: Once an OSPF Router ID selection is done, it remains there even if you remove it or configure another OSPF Router ID. So the least disruptive way is to correct it using the command “clear ip ospf process”.

164. Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)

§ A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name

§ B. All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.

§ C. All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name

§ D. The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain

§ E. All switches must use the same VTP version.

Correct Answer: AE

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Click here

165. Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.)

§ A. the native VLAN

§ B. the trunking protocol

§ C. the VTP domain

§ D. the spanning-tree priority

§ E. the spanning tree protocol

Correct Answer: AC

166. Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?

§ A. RIP

§ B. OSPF

§ C. IGRP

§ D. EIGRP

Correct Answer: D

167. Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?

§ A. VLAN 1

§ B. VLAN 5

§ C. VLAN 10

§ D. VLAN 20

Correct Answer: A

168. Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

§ A. mismatched autonomous system numbers

§ B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10

§ C. mismatched process IDs

§ D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers

§ E. use of the same router ID on both devices

Correct Answer: DE

169. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)

§ A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems

§ B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device

§ C. They can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured.

§ D. The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system

§ E. The two devices must have matching timer settings

Correct Answer: AB

170. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two)

§ A. whether the NTP peer is statically configured

§ B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized

§ C. the configured NTP servers

§ D. whether the clock is synchronized

§ E. the NTP version number of the peer

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation/Reference: Below is the output of the “show ntp status” command. From this output we learn that R1 has a stratum of 10 and it is getting clock from 10.1.2.1.

171. Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?

§ A. source

§ B. static

§ C. pool

§ D. overload

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference: By adding the keyword “overload” at the end of a NAT statement, NAT becomes PAT (Port Address Translation). This is also a kind of dynamic NAT that maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address (many-to-one) by using different ports. Static NAT and Dynamic NAT both require a one-to-one mapping from the inside local to the inside global address. By using PAT, you can have thousands of users connect to the Internet using only one real global IP address. PAT is the technology that helps us not run out of public IP address on the Internet.
This is the most popular type of NAT.
An example of using “overload” keyword is shown below:
R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 1 interface ethernet1 overload

172. Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)

§ A. whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface

§ B. the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system

§ C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured

§ D. Which neighbor adjacencies are established

§ E. the length of time that a route has been known

Correct Answer: CE

173. Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?

§ A. NAT pool

§ B. dynamic NAT

§ C. static NAT

§ D. one-way NAT

Correct Answer: A

174. Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?

§ A. lldp run

§ B. lldp enable

§ C. lldp transmit

§ D. cdp run

§ E. cdp enable

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a industry standard protocol that allows devices to advertise, and discover connected devices, and there capabilities (same as CDP of Cisco). To enable it on Cisco devices, we have to use this command under global configuration mode:
Sw(config)# lldp run

175. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true ?

§ A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched

§ B. The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched

§ C. The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched

§ D. The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched

Correct Answer: A

176. Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

§ A. ntp sever

§ B. ntp peer

§ C. ntp authenticate

§ D. ntp master

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference: To configure a Cisco device as an Authoritative NTP Server, use the ntp master [stratum] command.
To configure a Cisco device as a NTP client, use the command ntp server <IP address>. For example:
Router(config)#ntp server 192.168.1.1. This command will instruct the router to query 192.168.1.1 for the time.

177. Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?

§ A. LLDP

§ B. CDP

§ C. IP SLA

§ D. EEM

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: IP SLA allows an IT professional to collect information about network performance in real time.
Therefore it helps determine whether the QoS on the network is sufficient for IP services or not.
Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager (EEM) is a powerful and flexible subsystem that provides realtime network event detection and onboard automation. It gives you the ability to adapt the behavior of your network devices to align with your business needs.

178. Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration?

§ A. static NAT translation

§ B. a DHCP pool

§ C. a dynamic NAT address pool

§ D. PAT

Correct Answer: C

179. In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?

§ A. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor

§ B. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor

§ C. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor

§ D. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: Although CDP is a Layer 2 protocol but we can check the neighbor IP address with the “show cdp neighbor detail” command. If the neighbor does not has an IP address then CDP still operates without any problem.
But the IP address of that neighbor is not provided.

180. Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two.)

§ A. NTP uses UDP over IP.

§ B. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients.

§ C. Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers.

§ D. Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients.

§ E. NTP uses TCP over IP.

Correct Answer: AB

181. Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?

§ A. lldp timer 5000

§ B. lldp holdtime 5

§ C. lldp reinit 5000

§ D. lldp reinit 5

Correct Answer: D

182. Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?

§ A. Router loopback address

§ B. Router IP address

§ C. Router priority

§ D. Router tracking number

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference: In the case of an equal priority, the router with the highest IP address for the respective group is elected as active. Furthermore, if there are more than two routers in the group, the second highest IP address determines the standby router and the other router/routers are in the listen state.

183. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?

§ A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.

§ B. It runs on the network layer.

§ C. It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches.

§ D. It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.

Correct Answer: A

184. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?

§ A. The interface number

§ B. The port priority

§ C. The VLAN priority

§ D. The hello time

Correct Answer: B

185. When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?

§ A. Passive

§ B. Desirable

§ C. On

§ D. Auto

§ E. Active

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: The LACP is Link Aggregation Control Protocol. LACP is an open protocol, published under the 802.3ad.
The modes of LACP are active, passive or on. The side configured as “pasive” will waiting the other side that should an Active for the Etherchannel to be established.
PAgP is Port-Aggregation Protocol. It is Cisco proprietary protocol. The mode are On, Desirable or Auto. Desirable – Auto will establish a EtherChannel.
An example of how to configure an Etherchannel:
SwitchFormula1>enable
SwitchFormula1#configure terminal
SwitchFormula1(config)# interface range f0/5 -14
SwitchFormula1(config-if-range)# channel-group 13 mode ?
active Enable LACP unconditionally
auto Enable PAgP only if a PAgP device is detected
desirable Enable PAgP unconditionally
on Enable Etherchannel only
passive Enable LACP only if a LACP device is detected

186. Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?

§ A. show hsrp

§ B. show sessions

§ C. show interfaces

§ D. show standby

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference: The following is sample output from the show standby command:

187. Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?

§ A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224

§ B. Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255

§ C. Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224

§ D. Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224

§ E. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31

§ F. Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31

Correct Answer: A

188. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?

§ A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

§ B. to allow communication with devices on a different network

§ C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

§ D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

§ E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

§ F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Correct Answer: AE

189. Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

§ A. show ip ospf link-state

§ B. show ip ospf lsa database

§ C. show ip ospf neighbors

§ D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference: The “show ip ospf database” command displays the link states. Here is an example:
Here is the lsa database on R2.
R2#show ip ospf database
OSPF Router with ID (2.2.2.2) (Process ID 1)
Router Link States (Area 0)
Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count2.2.2.2 2.2.2.2 793 0x80000003 0x004F85 210.4.4.4 10.4.4.4 776 0x80000004 0x005643 1111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 755 0x80000005 0x0059CA 2133.133.133.133 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000005 0x00B5B1 2 Net Link States (Area 0) Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum10.1.1.1 111.111.111.111 794 0x80000001 0x001E8B10.2.2.3 133.133.133.133 812 0x80000001 0x004BA910.4.4.1 111.111.111.111 755 0x80000001 0x007F1610.4.4.3 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000001 0x00C31F

190. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

§ A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

§ B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255

§ C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

§ D. No further routing configuration is required.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference: Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined to a different VLAN will be sent to the C-router. The C-router will have knowledge of all three networks since they will appear as directly connected in the routing table. Since the C-router already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.

191. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

§ A. port-to-multipoint

§ B. broadcast

§ C. point-to-point

§ D. non-broadcast

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: The default OSPF network type for HDLC and PPP on Serial link is point-to-point (while the default OSPF network type for Ethernet link is Broadcast).

192. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

§ A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240

§ B. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252

§ C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

§ D. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252

§ E. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240

§ F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
The binary version of 20 is 10100.
The binary version of 16 is 10000.
The binary version of 24 is 11000.
The binary version of 28 is 11100.
The subnet mask is /28. The mask is 255.255.255.240.
Note:
From the output above, EIGRP learned 4 routes and we need to find out the summary of them:
+ 192.168.25.16
+ 192.168.25.20
+ 192.168.25.24
+ 192.168.25.28
-> The increment should bE. 28 ?16 = 12 but 12 is not an exponentiation of 2 so we must choose 16 (24). Therefore the subnet mask is /28 (=1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.11110000) = 255.255.255.240
So the best answer should be 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

193. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0.

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

§ A. FastEthernet0 /0

§ B. FastEthernet0 /1

§ C. Serial0/0

§ D. Serial0/1.102

§ E. Serial0/1.103

§ F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation/Reference: The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:
+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000) + Network address:
192.168.12.64
+ Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127
Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF.

194. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

§ A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

§ B. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

§ C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

§ D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

§ E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

§ F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Correct Answer: D

195. Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

§ A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.

§ B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.

§ C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.

§ D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.

§ E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.

§ F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Correct Answer: DF

Explanation/Reference: This question is to examine the conditions for OSPF to create neighborhood. So as to make the two routers become neighbors, each router must be matched with the following items:
1. The area ID and its types;
2. Hello and failure time interval timer;
3. OSPF Password (Optional);

196. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

§ A. 10.1.1.2

§ B. 10.154.154.1

§ C. 172.16.5.1

§ D. 192.168.5.3

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: The highest IP address of all loopback interfaces will be chosen -> Loopback 0 will be chosen as the router ID.

197. Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

§ A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

§ B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected

§ C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C

§ D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: This question is to examine the understanding of the interaction between EIGRP routers. The following information must be matched so as to create neighborhood. EIGRP routers to establish, must match the following information:
1. AS Number;
2. K value.

198. Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

§ A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.

§ B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.

§ C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.

§ D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.

§ E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment, DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the conflict.

199. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

§ A. This design will function as intended.

§ B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.

§ C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

§ D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.

§ E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: Each interface on a router must be in a different network. If two interfaces are in the same network, the router will not accept it and show error when the administrator assigns it.

200. What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

§ A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

§ B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

§ C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point

§ D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Correct Answer: C

201. A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

§ A. Device(Config)#lldp run

§ B. Device(Config)#cdp run

§ C. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

§ D. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Correct Answer: A

202. What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

§ A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

§ B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

§ C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

§ D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

§ E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Correct Answer: CE

203. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

§ A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

§ B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

§ C. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

§ D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Correct Answer: A

204. Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

§ A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

§ B. it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

§ C. it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

§ D. it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

Correct Answer: A

205. R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

§ A. route with the lowest cost

§ B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP

§ C. route with the shortest prefix length

§ D. route with the lowest administrative distance

Correct Answer: D

206. What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

§ A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops

§ B. It provides variable latency

§ C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

§ D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Correct Answer: A

207. Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

§ A. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

§ B. enable SLAAC on an interface

§ C. disable the EUI-64 bit process

§ D. explicitly assign a link-local address

Correct Answer: B

208. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

§ A. longest prefix

§ B. metric

§ C. cost

§ D. administrative distance

Correct Answer: A

209. Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1

B. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

C. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

D. R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Correct Answer: C

210. Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

§ A. TKiP encryption

§ B. AES encryption

§ C. scrambled encryption key

§ D. SAE encryption

Correct Answer: D

211. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

§ A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

§ B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

§ C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical

§ D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Correct Answer: B

212. Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

§ A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

§ B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

§ C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

§ D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Correct Answer: D

213. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

§ E. Option E

Correct Answer: AC

214. What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

§ A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

§ B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

§ C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

§ D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Correct Answer: C

215. Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

§ A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

§ B. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

§ C. It load-balances traffic between all three routes

§ D. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

Correct Answer: A

216. What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

§ A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

§ B. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

§ C. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

§ D. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

Correct Answer: A

217. While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

§ A. The packets fail to match any permit statement

§ B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

§ C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

§ D. The ACL is empty

§ E. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Correct Answer: BC

218. How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

§ A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

§ B. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

§ C. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

§ D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Correct Answer: A

219. How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

§ A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

§ B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

§ C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

§ D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Correct Answer: B

220. What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

§ A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

§ B. FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC

§ C. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

§ D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

Correct Answer: A

221. Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

§ A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

§ B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

§ C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

§ D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Correct Answer: A

222. What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

§ A. A TCP connection has been torn down

§ B. An ICMP connection has been built

§ C. An interface line has changed status

§ D. A certificate has expired.

Correct Answer: C

223. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

§ A. SW1

§ B. SW2

§ C. SW3

§ D. SW4

Correct Answer: C

224. What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

§ A. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

§ B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

§ C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

§ D. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

§ E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

Correct Answer: BC

225. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

§ A. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

§ B. This is a root bridge

§ C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

§ D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

§ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Correct Answer: CE

226. Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

§ A. RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

§ B. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

§ C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

§ D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

§ E. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

Correct Answer: CD

227. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?

§ A. switchport access vlan 67

§ B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

§ C. switchport private-vlan association host 67

§ D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

Correct Answer: D

228. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

§ A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

§ B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

§ C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding

§ D. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

§ E. The data can pass through the cladding

Correct Answer: AC

229. Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

§ A. OSPF area

§ B. OSPF MD5 authentication key

§ C. iPv6 address

§ D. OSPf process ID

§ E. OSPf stub flag

Correct Answer: AD

230. Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

§ A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

§ B. Router2 is using the default hello timer.

§ C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

§ D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Correct Answer: B

231. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

§ A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

§ B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

§ C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

§ D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

Correct Answer: C

232. A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

§ A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

§ B. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

§ C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

§ D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Correct Answer: C

233. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

§ A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

§ B. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

§ C. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

§ D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Correct Answer: D

234. Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

§ A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

§ B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

§ C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

§ D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

Correct Answer: D

235. A corporate office uses four floors in a building

* Floor 1 has 24 users
* Floor 2 has 29 users
* Floor 3 has 28 users
* Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

§ A. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

§ B. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

§ C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

§ D. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Correct Answer: D

236. By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

§ A. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

§ B. it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

§ C. it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

§ D. it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

Correct Answer: A

237. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

§ A. R2 is using the passive-interface default command

§ B. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

§ C. R2 should have its network command in area 1

§ D. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size

Correct Answer: D

238. What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

§ A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

§ B. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

§ C. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

§ D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

§ E. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

Correct Answer: AD

239. How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

§ A. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

§ B. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

§ C. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

§ D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

Correct Answer: D

240. Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

§ A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

§ B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11

§ C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1

§ D. The frame is dropped

Correct Answer: A

241. What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

§ A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

§ B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

§ C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

§ D. to support load balancing via static routing

§ E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Correct Answer: AC

242. Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

§ A. floating static route

§ B. host route

§ C. default route

§ D. network route

Correct Answer: C

243. How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

§ A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

§ B. Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller

§ C. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.

§ D. The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.

Correct Answer: A

244. What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

§ A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

§ B. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

§ C. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

§ D. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Correct Answer: A

245. Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)

§ A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.

§ B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

§ C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.

§ D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

§ E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

Correct Answer: CE

246. The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

§ A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

§ B. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

§ C. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

§ D. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

Correct Answer: A

247. Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?

§ A. multicast

§ B. unique local

§ C. link-local

§ D. global unicast

Correct Answer: D

248. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

§ A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

§ B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.

§ C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.

§ D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.

§ E. It uses the default administrative distance.

§ F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

Correct Answer: AE

249. Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

§ A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

§ B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

§ C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

§ D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

§ E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

§ F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Correct Answer: BDE

250. Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

§ A. Router2

§ B. Router3

§ C. Router4

§ D. Router5

Correct Answer: B

251. Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A. int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode active

B. int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode desirable

C. int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode passive

D. int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode auto

E. int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode on

Correct Answer: AC

252. What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

§ A. exactly one active router

§ B. one or more standby routers

§ C. one or more backup virtual routers

§ D. exactly one standby active router

§ E. exactly one backup virtual router

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
A: exactly one active router: Only one Active Router per HSRP group will be elected based on highest
priority. In case of equal priority, Highest IP address will be elected as Active Router.
B: one or more standby routers : There can be one or more Standby Routers.
C, D And E are incorrect: Wrong terminology.

253. What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

§ A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.

§ B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.

§ C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.

§ D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Correct Answer: C

254. If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

§ A. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface

§ B. the IP address of the console management interface

§ C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces

§ D. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces

§ E. the priority value until a loopback interface is configured

Correct Answer: C

255. Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

§ A. 2000::/3

§ B. FC00::/7

§ C. FE80::/10

§ D. FF00::/12

Correct Answer: D

256. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.)

§ A. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces.

§ B. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSP

§ C. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery.

§ D. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.

§ E. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router.

§ F. It maintains neighbor relationships

Correct Answer: CF

257. What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)

§ A. It allows switches to read frame tags.

§ B. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.

§ C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network.

§ D. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.

§ E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.

Correct Answer: CE

258. Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

§ A. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

§ B. reports device errors to a controller

§ C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

§ D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

Correct Answer: D

259. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.)

§ A. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery.

§ B. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.

§ C. It maintains neighbor relationships.

§ D. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces.

§ E. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router.

§ F. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.

Correct Answer: AC

260. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)

§ A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices

§ B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device

§ C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches

§ D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails

§ E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

§ F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

Correct Answer: DE

261. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?

§ A. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity.

§ B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

§ C. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected.

§ D. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

Correct Answer: B

262. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

A.
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.
R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp
R1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.
R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

Correct Answer: BC

263. Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

A.
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: B

264. On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

§ A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch

§ B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch

§ C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches

§ D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Different VLANs can’t communicate with each other , they can communicate with the help of Layer3 router. Hence , it is needed to connect a router to a switch , then make the sub-interface on the router to connect to the switch, establishing Trunking links to achieve communications of devices which belong to different VLANs.

265. Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?

§ A. Show ip DHCP database.

§ B. Show ip DHCP pool.

§ C. Show ip DHCP binding.

§ D. Show ip DHCP server statistic.

Correct Answer: C

266. Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

§ A. DHCP client

§ B. access point

§ C. router

§ D. PC

Correct Answer: C

267. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A.
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
access-list 100 permit ip any any

interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip access-group 100 in

B.
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
access-list 100 permit ip any any

line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in

C.
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23
access-list 100 permit ip any any

interface Gigabit Ethernet0/0
ip access-group 100 in

D.
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23
access-list 100 permit ip any any

line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in

Correct Answer: B

268. Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

§ A. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts

§ B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

§ C. ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

§ D. enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Correct Answer: A

269. Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?

§ A. partner

§ B. open

§ C. public

§ D. private

Correct Answer: D

270. What is a characteristic of the REST API?

§ A. evolved into what became SOAP

§ B. used for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP

§ C. considered slow, complex, and rigid

§ D. most widely used API for web services

Correct Answer: D

271. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?

§ A. data link

§ B. access

§ C. core

§ D. network

§ E. network access

Correct Answer: C

272. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5:

access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5

access-list 100 permit ip any any

Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?

§ A. inbound on router A Fa0/0

§ B. outbound on router B Fa0/0

§ C. outbound on router A Fa0/1

§ D. inbound on router B Fa0/1

Correct Answer: A

273. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?

§ A. electing the designated router

§ B. establishing neighbor adjacencies

§ C. injecting the default route

§ D. exchanging link-state advertisements

Correct Answer: B

274. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity?

§ A. The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address.

§ B. The inside global address is incorrect.

§ C. The NAT configuration on interface S0/0/1 is incorrect.

§ D. Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside

Correct Answer: A

275. Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement?

§ A. Cisco ACI

§ B. cloud services

§ C. APIC-EM

§ D. data center

Correct Answer: B

276. A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?

§ A. VSAT

§ B. ISDN

§ C. Frame Relay

§ D. Ethernet WAN

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Ethernet WAN uses many Ethernet standards and it connects easily to existing Ethernet LANs. It provides a switched, high-bandwidth Layer 2 network capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure. ISDN, while capable of supporting both voice and data, does not provide high bandwidth. VSAT uses satellite connectivity to establish a private WAN connection but with relatively low bandwidth. Use of VSAT, ISDN, and Frame Relay require specific network devices for the WAN connection and data conversion between LAN and WAN.

277. Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.)

§ A.
R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

§ B.
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

§ C.
R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

§ D.
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127

§ E.
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

Correct Answer: AD

278. Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology?

§ A. GRE over IPsec

§ B. dynamic multipoint VPN

§ C. MPLS VPN

§ D. IPsec virtual tunnel interface

Correct Answer: B

279. What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)

§ A. to prevent other users from accessing the system

§ B. to escalate access privileges

§ C. to gather information about the network and devices

§ D. to scan for accessibility

§ E. to retrieve and modify data

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation: Gathering information about a network and scanning for access is a reconnaissance attack. Preventing other users from accessing a system is a denial of service attack. Attempting to retrieve and modify data, and attempting to escalate access privileges are types of access attacks.

280. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

§ A. Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.

§ B. Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.

§ C. Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

§ D. Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: OSPF elections of a DR are based on the following in order of precedence:

§ highest pritority from 1 -255 (0 = never a DR)

§ highest router ID

§ highest IP address of a loopback or active interface in the absence of a manually configured router ID. Loopback IP addresses take higher precedence than other interfaces.

In this case routers R1 and R3 have the highest router priority. Between the two, R3 has the higher router ID. Therefore, R3 will become the DR and R1 will become the BDR.

281. The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

§ A. There is a duplex mismatch

§ B. There is a speed mismatch

§ C. There is a protocol mismatch

§ D. The interface is shut down

§ E. The interface is error-disabled

Correct Answer: B E

282. In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

§ A. It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

§ B. It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

§ C. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

§ D. It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

§ E. It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

Correct Answer: C E

283. What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

§ A. It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

§ B. It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

§ C. It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

§ D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Correct Answer: D

284. Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?

§ A. 209.165.200.0/27

§ B. 10.10.10.0/28

§ C. 0.0.0.0/0

§ D. 10.10.13.0/24

Correct Answer: C

285. Refer to Exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

§ A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

§ B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

§ C. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

§ D. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

§ E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Correct Answer: A B

286. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

§ A. 207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

§ B. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

§ C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

§ D. 207.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

Correct Answer: C

287. Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

§ A. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

§ B. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

§ C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

§ D. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

Correct Answer: D

288. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLANs 10, 11, 12, and 13 What is the next step in the configuration?

§ A. Add PDA to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 for VLAN segmentation

§ B. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

§ C. Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter VLAN routing

§ D. Add PC A to the same subnet as the File Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication

Correct Answer: B

289. When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII formar?

§ A. 6

§ B. 8

§ C. 12

§ D. 18

Correct Answer: B

290. Refer to the exhibit Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

§ A. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own

§ B. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same

§ C. The source MAC address is changed

§ D. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff

Correct Answer: B

291. An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

§ A. switch#lldp port-description

§ B. switch(config)#lldp port-description

§ C. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description

§ D. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description

Correct Answer: B

292. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?

§ A. S1

§ B. S2

§ C. S3

§ D. S4

Correct Answer: B

293. Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

§ A. Loopback 0

§ B. 10.0.1.4

§ C. 10.0.1.50

§ D. 10.0.1.3

Correct Answer: C

294. When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

§ A. forwarding

§ B. backup

§ C. standby

§ D. listening

Correct Answer: C

295. An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the applic secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

§ A. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor

§ B. the application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted

§ C. The application requires an aadministrator password to reactivate after a configured interval

§ D. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor

Correct Answer: A

296. Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

§ A. modify priority

§ B. modify process ID

§ C. modify hello interval

§ D. modity network type

Correct Answer: C

297. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

A.
R1(config)#username admin
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234

B.
R1(config)#username admin
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234
R1(config-line)#transport input telnet

C.
R1(config)#username admin secret p@ss1234
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#login local
R1(config)#enable secret p@ss1234

D.
R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#login local
Correct Answer: D

298. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:75
SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97
SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D
SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19

§ A. SW1

§ B. SW2

§ C. SW3

§ D. SW4

Correct Answer: C

299. An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.3.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 . Which configuration should be used?

A.
enable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
route-map permit 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0
ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside

B.
enable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.254
ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside

C.
enable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside

D.
enable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside

Correct Answer: C

300. An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor .What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

§ A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

§ B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

§ C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

§ D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Correct Answer: B

301. Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

§ A. firewall

§ B. switch

§ C. access point

§ D. wireless controller

Correct Answer: A

302. What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

§ A. local port ID

§ B. lowest path cost to the root bridge

§ C. lowest neighbor’s bridge ID

§ D. lowest neighbor’s port ID

Correct Answer: B

303. Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1.0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1.1.0/24?

§ A. eBGP

§ B. static

§ C. OSPF

§ D. EIGRP

Correct Answer: B

304. A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

§ A. enable dynamic MAC address learning

§ B. implement static MAC addressing.

§ C. enable sticky MAC addressing

§ D. implement auto MAC address learning

Correct Answer: C

305. Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

§ A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

§ B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

§ C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

§ D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference: Although the spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary command will ensure a switch will have a bridge priority value lower than other bridges introduced to the network, the spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 command ensures the bridge priority takes precedence over all other priorities.

306. An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

§ A. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides

§ B. configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

§ C. configure the same router ID on both routing processes

§ D. Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.

§ E. configure both interfaces with the same area ID

Correct Answer: A E

307. What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

§ A. SMTP

§ B. SNMP

§ C. TCP

§ D. FTP

Correct Answer: B

308. Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?

§ A. learning

§ B. forwarding

§ C. blocking

§ D. listening

Correct Answer: B

309. What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

§ A. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

§ B. encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

§ C. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

§ D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

§ E. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Correct Answer: D E

310. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

§ A. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

§ B. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

§ C. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

§ D. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

Correct Answer: A

311. A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

§ A. collision

§ B. CRC

§ C. runt

§ D. late collision

Correct Answer: D

312. Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

§ A. WSA

§ B. Firepower

§ C. ASA

§ D. FireSIGHT

Correct Answer: A

313. Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

§ A. 1,6,11

§ B. 1,5,10

§ C. 1,2,3

§ D. 5,6,7

Correct Answer: A

314. Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

§ A. worm

§ B. malware

§ C. DDoS

§ D. man-in-the-middle

Correct Answer: D

315. What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

§ A. controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

§ B. controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

§ C. Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

§ D. Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

§ E. controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Correct Answer: C D

Explanation: Cisco DNA Center Device Management
3. Monitor the cloud for software update
5. Uses CLI templates to apply a consistent configuration to multiple devices at an individual location
6. Uses NetFlow to analyse potential security threats throughout the network and take appropriate action on that traffic Traditional device management
2. Manages device configuration on a per-device basis
4. Security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS Implements changes via an SSH terminal

316. What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

§ A. data plane

§ B. control plane

§ C. policy plane

§ D. management plane

Correct Answer: B

317. Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

§ A. broadband cable access

§ B. frame-relay packet switching

§ C. dedicated point-to-point leased line

§ D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Correct Answer: A

318. Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

§ A. internal BGP route

§ B. /24 route of a locally configured IP

§ C. statically assigned route

§ D. route learned through EIGRP

Correct Answer: D

319. Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

§ A. asychronous routing

§ B. single-homed branches

§ C. dual-homed branches

§ D. static routing

§ E. dynamic routing

Correct Answer: A C

320. A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

§ A. enable AAA override

§ B. enable RX-SOP

§ C. enable DTIM

§ D. enable Band Select

Correct Answer: D

321. What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

§ A. ISATAP

§ B. GRE over iPsec

§ C. iPsec over ISATAP

§ D. GRE

Correct Answer: B

322. An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

§ A. configure switchport nonegotiate

§ B. configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

§ C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto

§ D. configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Correct Answer: C

323. Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

§ A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

§ B. a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

§ C. usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

§ D. a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

Correct Answer: A

324. What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

§ A. register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

§ B. use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

§ C. send LWAPP packets to access points.

§ D. monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: Lightweight APs (LAPs) is devices require no initial configuration. LAPs use the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) to communicate with a WLAN controller (WLC), as shown in the below figure. Controller-based APs are useful in situations where many APs are required in the network. As more APs are added, each AP is automatically configured and managed by the WLC.

325. What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

§ A. infrastructure-as-a-service.

§ B. Software-as-a-service

§ C. control and distribution of physical resources

§ D. services as a hardware controller.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: The hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines on a host computer and allocates physical system resources to them.

326. Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

§ A. syslog

§ B. NetFlow

§ C. IP SLA

§ D. SNMPv3

Correct Answer: D

327. What is the function of a server?

§ A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

§ B. It provides shared applications to end users.

§ C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

§ D. It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Correct Answer: B

328. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

§ A. Ansible

§ B. JSON

§ C. Chef

§ D. Puppet

Correct Answer: D

329. A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

§ A. switchport port-security violation access

§ B. switchport port-security violation protect

§ C. switchport port-security violation restrict

§ D. switchport port-security violation shutdown

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference: Click here

330. Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

§ A. BPDUfilter

§ B. PortFast

§ C. Backbonefast

§ D. BPDUguard

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference: PortFast
Spanning Tree Portfast causes layer 2 switch interfaces to enter forwarding state immediately,
bypassing the listening and learning states. It should be used on ports connected directly to end hosts
like servers or workstations. Note: If portfast isn’t enabled, DHCP timeouts can occur while STP
converges, causing more problems.
Reference: Click here

331. What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

§ A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

§ B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN

§ C. moves packets within a VLAN

§ D. moves packets between different VLANs

§ E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Correct Answer: C, E

332. A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

§ A. infrastructure-as-a-service

§ B. platform-as-a-service

§ C. business process as service to support different types of service

§ D. software-as-a-service

Correct Answer: D

333. Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

§ A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

§ B. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

§ C. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

§ D. Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

§ E. Inspect packets for malicious activity.

Correct Answer: A,D

Explanation: Cisco is very clear about the purpose of this layer. Its only role is to forward traffic, the fastest it can. Here you don’t apply any policy, as you must try to reduce the load of the core so it can focus on routing.
Reference: Click here

334. When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

§ A. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

§ B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

§ C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

§ D. spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Correct Answer: B

335. What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

§ A. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

§ B. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

§ C. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

§ D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

§ E. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

Correct Answer: B,C

336. What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

§ A. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

§ B. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

§ C. to pass traffic between different networks

§ D. forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Correct Answer: C

337. Refer to the exhibit. After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

§ A. Switch 1

§ B. Switch 2

§ C. Switch 3

§ D. Switch 4

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, which consists of the priority value and the MAC address. Because the priority values of all of the switches are not avalable, the MAC address is used to determine the root bridge. Because S3 has the lowest MAC address, S3 becomes the root bridge.

338. An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

§ A. switchport mode trunk

§ B. switchport mode dynamic desirable

§ C. switchport mode dynamic auto

§ D. switchport nonegotiate

Correct Answer: B

339. What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

§ A. transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

§ B. transfers files between file systems on a router

§ C. transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

§ D. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

Correct Answer: D

340. What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closet? (Choose two)

§ A. configure static ARP entries

§ B. enable the PortFast feature on ports

§ C. implement port-based authentication

§ D. configure ports to a fixed speed

§ E. shut down unused ports

Correct Answer: C,E

341. What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

§ A. different nonoverlapping channels

§ B. different overlapping channels

§ C. one overlapping channel

§ D. one nonoverlapping channel

Correct Answer: A

342. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

§ A. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

§ B. ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

§ C. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

§ D. ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

§ E. ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Correct Answer: C

343. What is a function of a remote access VPN?

§ A. used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

§ B. used exclusively when a user is connected to a company’s internal network

§ C. establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

§ D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

Correct Answer: D

344. Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

§ A. read

§ B. create

§ C. replace

§ D. update

Correct Answer: D

345. What is a DHCP client?

§ A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

§ B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

§ C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

§ D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Correct Answer: B

346. What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

§ A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

§ B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

§ C. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

§ D. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Correct Answer: B

347. When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

§ A. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

§ B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

§ C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

§ D. spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Correct Answer: C

348. An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

§ A. configure IEEE 802.1p

§ B. configure IEEE 802.1q

§ C. configure ISL

§ D. configure DSCP

Correct Answer: B

349. Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

§ A. HTTPS

§ B. RADIUS

§ C. TACACS+

§ D. HTTP

Correct Answer: A

350. In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

§ A. management plane

§ B. control plane

§ C. policy plane

§ D. data plane

Correct Answer: D

351. Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

§ A. enforcing routing policies

§ B. marking interesting traffic for data polices

§ C. attaching users to the edge of the network

§ D. applying security policies

Correct Answer: A

352. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured to support DHCP?

§ A. on the router closest to the server

§ B. on the router closest to the client

§ C. on every router along the path

§ D. on the switch trunk interface

Correct Answer: B

353. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

§ A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

§ B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

§ C. access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

§ D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Already a statement is there in last to allow SSH Traffic for network 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127, but
Second statement says deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255, so how it will work once it is denied. So the
right answer is remove the — no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255.

354. What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

§ A. to mitigate delays over slow links

§ B. to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

§ C. to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

§ D. be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time.

355. Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

§ A. Ansible

§ B. Python

§ C. Puppet

§ D. Chef

Correct Answer: A

356. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

§ A. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

§ B. It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

§ C. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2.

§ D. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Correct Answer: B

357. Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

§ A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

§ B. ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

§ C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

§ D. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

Correct Answer: D

358. What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

§ A. Enable dynamic ARP inspection

§ B. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

§ C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

§ D. Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Correct Answer: C

359. Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

§ A. 802.1x

§ B. IP Source Guard

§ C. MAC Authentication Bypass

§ D. 802.11n

Answer: A

360. What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

§ A. SNMP

§ B. DNS lookup

§ C. syslog

§ D. NTP

Answer: B

361. How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

§ A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

§ B. Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

§ C. The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

§ D. It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

Answer: A

362. When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured? (Choose two)

§ A. relay agent information

§ B. database agent

§ C. address pool

§ D. smart-relay

§ E. manual bindings

Answer: B C

363. Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

§ A. ip helper-address

§ B. ip address dhcp

§ C. ip dhcp pool

§ D. ip dhcp relay

Answer: A

364. Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

§ A. in the MAC address table

§ B. in the CAM table

§ C. in the binding database

§ D. in the frame forwarding database

Answer: C

365. Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

§ A. intrusion detection

§ B. user awareness

§ C. physical access control

§ D. network authorization

Answer: C

366. A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

§ A. 802.1q trunks

§ B. Cisco vPC

§ C. LLDP

§ D. LACP

Answer: D

367. In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

§ A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

§ B. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

§ C. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

§ D. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

Answer: A

368. Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

§ A. listening

§ B. blocking

§ C. forwarding

§ D. learning

§ E. speaking

Answer: C D

369. Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?

§ A. forwarding

§ B. listening

§ C. blocking

§ D. learning

Answer: A

370. Refer to the exhibit. An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:”% Connection refused by remote host” Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

§ A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

§ B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

§ C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

§ D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

Answer: A

371. What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

§ A. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

§ B. support standalone or controller-based architectures

§ C. serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

§ D. provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

Answer: A

372. What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

§ A. No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

§ B. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

§ C. The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

§ D. The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Answer: B

373. What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

§ A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

§ B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

§ C. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

§ D. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Answer: B

374. Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

§ A. action

§ B. management

§ C. control

§ D. data

Answer: B

375. How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

§ A. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

§ B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

§ C. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

§ D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Answer: D

376. Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

§ A. read

§ B. update

§ C. create

§ D. delete

Answer: A

Explanation: GET: This method retrieves the information identified by the request URI. In the context of the RESTful web services, this method is used to retrieve resources. This is the method used for read operations (the R in CRUD).
https://hub.packtpub.com/crud-operations-rest/

377. With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

§ A. Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

§ B. Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

§ C. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

§ D. Accept: application/json

Answer: D

Explanation: Accept header is a way for a client to specify the media type of the response content it is expecting and Content-type is a way to specify the media type of request being sent from the client to the server.

378. Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

§ A. wireless access point

§ B. firewall

§ C. wireless LAN controller

§ D. router

Answer: B

379. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1?

§ A. It forwards it out G0/3 only

§ B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

§ C. It drops the frame.

§ D. It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

Answer: B

380. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

§ A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

§ B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

§ C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

§ D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

Answer: A

381. A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

§ A. a DHCP Relay Agent

§ B. DHCP Binding

§ C. a DHCP Pool

§ D. DHCP Snooping

Answer: A

382. Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

§ A. TACACS server

§ B. wireless access point

§ C. RADIUS server

§ D. wireless LAN controller

Answer: D

383. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

§ A. The port transitions to STP blocking

§ B. The port transitions to the root port

§ C. The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

§ D. The port goes into error-disable state

Answer: D

384. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

§ A. Configure the version of SSH

§ B. Configure VTY access.

§ C. Create a user with a password.

§ D. Assign a DNS domain name

Answer: D

385. What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

§ A. 1.544 Mbps

§ B. 2.048 Mbps

§ C. 34.368 Mbps

§ D. 43.7 Mbps

Answer: A

Explanation: Point to Point T1 A Point to Point T1 service is a private data connection securely connecting two or more locations with T1 data speeds (1.54Mbps).

386. An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

§ A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

§ B. switchport trunk native vlan 10

§ C. switchport mode trunk

§ D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Answer: B

387. How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

§ A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

§ B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

§ C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

§ D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Answer: A

388. What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

§ A. VTP

§ B. DTP

§ C. egress traffic

§ D. ingress traffic

Answer: D

389. Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

§ A. policy plane

§ B. management plane

§ C. control plane

§ D. data plane

Answer: C

390. What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

§ A. initiates a ping request to the URL

§ B. prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

§ C. continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

§ D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Answer: D

391. What is a DNS lookup operation?

§ A. DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

§ B. serves requests over destination port 53

§ C. DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

§ D. responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Answer: D

392. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

§ A. Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

§ B. Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

§ C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

§ D. Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Answer: C

393. What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

§ A. connects each switch to every other switch in the network

§ B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

§ C. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

§ D. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

Correct Answer: B

394. Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

§ A. disk

§ B. applications

§ C. VM configuration file

§ D. operating system

Correct Answer: A

395. Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

§ A. WPA2 + AES

§ B. WPA + AES

§ C. WEP

§ D. WPA + TKIP

Correct Answer: A

396. Refer to the exhibit. After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface’s configuration?

§ A. Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface’s configuration.

§ B. Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

§ C. Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

§ D. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface’s configuration.

Correct Answer: D

397. What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

§ A. on the public-facing interface of a firewall

§ B. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

§ C. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

§ D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Correct Answer: D

398. What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

§ A. Layer 2 forwarding

§ B. coordinating VTNs

§ C. tracking hosts

§ D. managing the topology

§ E. protecting against DDoS attacks

Correct Answer: B D

399. If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

§ A. The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

§ B. The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

§ C. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

§ D. The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

Correct Answer: C

400. Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

§ A. Router2(config)#ntp passive

§ B. Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

§ C. Router2(config)#ntp master 4

§ D. Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

Correct Answer: C

401. Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

§ A. partial mesh

§ B. full mesh

§ C. point-to-point

§ D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: C

402. Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

§ A. The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

§ B. The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

§ C. The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

§ D. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Correct Answer: D

403. When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

§ A. default-router

§ B. default-gateway

§ C. ip helper-address

§ D. dns-server

Correct Answer: A

404. What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

§ A. Layer 2 switch

§ B. load balancer

§ C. firewall

§ D. LAN controller

Correct Answer: C

405. How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

§ A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

§ B. give it a value in the private VLAN range

§ C. assign it as VLAN 1

§ D. configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Correct Answer: A

406. Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

§ A. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

§ B. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

§ C. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

§ D. switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

Correct Answer: C

407. Refer to Exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

408. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

409. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

§ A. Switch 1

§ B. Switch 2

§ C. Switch 3

§ D. Switch 4

Correct Answer: B

410. What is a benefit of VRRP?

§ A. It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

§ B. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

§ C. It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

§ D. It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

Correct Answer: B

411. Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

§ A. ARP

§ B. DHCP

§ C. CDP

§ D. DNS

Correct Answer: B

412. Refer to the exhibit. An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

413. How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

§ A. lt drops the frame immediately.

§ B. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

§ C. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

§ D. It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

Correct Answer: C

414. Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

§ A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

§ B. The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

§ C. The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

§ D. The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Correct Answer: A

415. What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

§ A. Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

§ B. Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

§ C. allows application developers to interact with the network

§ D. integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The Southbound Interface

In a controller-based network architecture, the controller needs to communicate to the networking devices. In most network drawings and architecture drawings, those network devices typically sit below the controller, as shown in Figure 16-5. There is an interface between the controller and those devices, and given its location at the bottom part of drawings, the interface came to be known as the southbound interface, or SBI, as labeled in Figure 16-5.

FIGURE 16-5 Centralized Control Plane and a Distributed Data Plane

416. Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

§ A. PortFast

§ B. BPDU guard

§ C. UplinkFast

§ D. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: C

417. What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

§ A. latency

§ B. port security violation

§ C. shutdown command issued on the port

§ D. nothing plugged into the port

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode, the switch will automatically force the switchport into an error disabled (err-disable) state when a violation occurs. While in this state, the switchport forwards no traffic. The switchport can be brought out of this error disabled state by issuing the errdisable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and reenabling the switchport.

418. An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

§ A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

§ B. Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

§ C. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

§ D. Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Correct Answer: A

419. Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

§ A. array

§ B. string

§ C. object

§ D. Boolean

Correct Answer: C

420. What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

§ A. The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

§ B. Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

§ C. Users experience poor wireless network performance.

§ D. Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

Correct Answer: C

421. Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

§ A. virtual routing and forwarding

§ B. network port ID visualization

§ C. virtual device contexts

§ D. Server Virtualization

Correct Answer: D

422. Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? (Choose two)

§ A. CAR

§ B. CBWFQ

§ C. PQ

§ D. PBR

§ E. FRTS

Correct Answer: B C

Explanation: Type of queuing methods are available:* First-In-First-Out (FIFO)* Priority Queuing (PQ)* Custom Queuing (CQ)* Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)* Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)* LowLatency Queuing (LLQ)

423. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

A. interface gi0/1
no cdp enable

B. interface gi0/1
clear cdp table

C. interface gi0/0
no cdp advertise-v2

D. interface gi0/0
no cdp run

Correct Answer: A

424. What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

§ A. connect wireless devices to a wired network

§ B. support secure user logins to devices or the network

§ C. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

§ D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Correct Answer: A

425. What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

§ A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter

§ B. Both have a 9 micron core diameter

§ C. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

§ D. Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Correct Answer: A

426. Refer to the exhibit.

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

§ A. Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

§ B. Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

§ C. Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

§ D. Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

Correct Answer: B

427. What describes the operation of virtual machines?

§ A. Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

§ B. In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

§ C. Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

§ D. Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Correct Answer: D

428. Refer to the exhibit. Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

§ A. Branch-1

§ B. Branch-2

§ C. Branch-3

§ D. Branch-4

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Dynamic ARP inspection is an ingress security feature; it does not perform any egress checking.

429. When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

§ A. 0

§ B. 2

§ C. 4

§ D. 6

Correct Answer: D

430. Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

§ A. Interface errors are incrementing

§ B. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

§ C. High usage is causing high latency

§ D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: reliability 255/255: When the input and output errors increase, they affect the reliability counter. This indicates how likely it is that a packet can be delivered or received succesfully. Reliability is calculated like this: reliability = number of packets / number of total frames. The value of 255 is the highest value meaning that the interface is very reliable at the moment. The calculation above is done every 5 minutes.

431. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

432. Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

§ A. OpenFlow

§ B. REST API

§ C. NETCONF

§ D. Southbound API

Correct Answer: B

433. Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

§ A. role-based access control

§ B. biometrics

§ C. multifactor authentication

§ D. physical access control

Correct Answer: D

434. Which network action occurs within the data plane?

§ A. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

§ B. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

§ C. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

§ D. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Correct Answer: A

435. Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

§ A. forwarding remote client/server traffic

§ B. facilitates spanning-tree elections

§ C. processing inbound SSH management traffic

§ D. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

Correct Answer: A

436. A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

437. Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

§ A. Internet Group Management Protocol

§ B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

§ C. Cisco Discovery Protocol

§ D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: C

438. What is the benefit of using FHRP?

§ A. reduced management overhead on network routers

§ B. balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

§ C. higher degree of availability

§ D. reduced ARP traffic on the network

Correct Answer: C

439. An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

§ A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

§ B. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

§ C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

§ D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Correct Answer: D

440. A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

§ A. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

§ B. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

§ C. ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

§ D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

Correct Answer: B

441. What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

§ A. OpenFlow

§ B. Java

§ C. REST

§ D. XML

Correct Answer: A

442. What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

§ A. OpenFlow

§ B. OpenStack

§ C. OpFlex

§ D. REST

Correct Answer: D

443. When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

§ A. Unicode

§ B. base64

§ C. decimal

§ D. ASCII

Correct Answer: D

444. Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

§ A. Reassociation Request

§ B. Probe Request

§ C. Authentication Request

§ D. Association Request

Correct Answer: A

445. An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

§ A. Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

§ B. 11ac MU-MIMO

§ C. OEAP Split Tunnel

§ D. Client Band Select

Correct Answer: D

446. What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

§ A. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

§ B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

§ C. composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

§ D. used without tracking or registration

Correct Answer: D

447. Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

§ A. switchport mode trunk

§ B. switchport mode dot1-tunnel

§ C. switchport mode dynamic auto

§ D. switchport mode dynamic desirable

Correct Answer: C

448. What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

§ A. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

§ B. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

§ C. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

§ D. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

§ E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

Correct Answer: B E

449. An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

§ A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

§ B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

§ C. ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

§ D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Correct Answer: A

450. Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

§ A. redundancy

§ B. console

§ C. distribution system

§ D. service

Correct Answer: C

451. An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

§ A. logging trap 5

§ B. logging trap 2

§ C. logging trap 4

§ D. logging trap 3

Correct Answer: C

452. Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

§ A. RADIUS

§ B. TACACS+

§ C. SCP

§ D. Telnet

§ E. SSH

Correct Answer: D E

453. Refer to the exhibit. How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Answer: A

454. Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

§ A. password-encrypt

§ B. enable password-encryption

§ C. enable secret

§ D. service password-encryption

Answer: D

455. What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

§ A. allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites.

§ B. provides direct connections between subscribers

§ C. supports Layer 2 VPNs

§ D. supports application optimization

Answer: B

456. An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

§ A. hypervisor

§ B. router

§ C. straight cable

§ D. switch

Correct Answer: A

457. Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

§ A. cookbook

§ B. task

§ C. playbook

§ D. model

§ E. recipe

Correct Answer: B C

Explanation: Ansible playbooks: “files that provide actions and logic about what Ansible should do.”
“The playbook will list tasks and choices based on those results, like “Configure all branch routers in these locations, and if errors occur for any device, do these extra tasks for that device”.”

458. Refer to the exhibit. Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

§ A. 192.168.1.17

§ B. 192.168.1.61

§ C. 192.168.1.64

§ D. 192.168.1.127

§ E. 192.168.1.254

Correct Answer: AB

459. Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

§ A. Eliminating training needs

§ B. Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

§ C. Policy-derived provisioning of resources

§ D. Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

§ E. Reducing hardware footprint

Correct Answer: C D

460. What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

§ A. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

§ B. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

§ C. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

§ D. physical workstations are configured to share resources

Correct Answer: C

461. A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

§ A. Clock timezone

§ B. Clock summer-time-recurring

§ C. Clock summer-time date

§ D. Clock set

Correct Answer: D

462. Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

§ A. 200

§ B. 301

§ C. 404

§ D. 500

Correct Answer: A

463. Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

§ A. Layer 2 switch

§ B. Router

§ C. Load balancer

§ D. firewall

Correct Answer: B

464. What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

§ A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

§ B. It centralizes the data plane for the network.

§ C. It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

§ D. It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

Correct Answer: A

465. Refer to me exhibit. Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

§ A. It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

§ B. It discards the packets.

§ C. It floods packets to all learned next hops.

§ D. It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Referring to routing table, 10.10.10.0/28 supports network from 10.10.10.0-10.10.10.15.
Gateway of last resort is not set

So traffic destined to 10.10.10.16 will be discarded.

466. When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

§ A. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

§ B. broadcast to all ports

§ C. forwarded to the first available port

§ D. flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference: A switch builds its MAC address table by recording the MAC address of each device connected to each of its ports. The switch uses the information in the MAC address table to send frames destined for a specific device out the port, which has been assigned to that device.
Reference: Click here

467. Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?

§ A. conserve public IPv4 addressing

§ B. preserve public IPv6 address space

§ C. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

§ D. support the NAT protocol

Correct Answer: A

468. Refer to the exhibit. R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

§ A. Option

§ B. Option

§ C. Option

§ D. Option

Correct Answer: D

469. After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

§ A. Enable the allow AAA Override

§ B. Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

§ C. Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

§ D. Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

Correct Answer: A

470. Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

§ A. alert

§ B. critical

§ C. notice

§ D. debug

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference: Specifying a level causes messages at that level and numerically lower levels to be displayed at the destination.
From Table 3 : informational level = 6, debugging level = 7, notice/notifications level = 5
Reference: Click here

471. Refer to the exhibit. Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

§ A. the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

§ B. the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

§ C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

§ D. the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

Correct Answer: C

472. What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

§ A. It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

§ B. It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

§ C. It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.

§ D. It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Correct Answer: A

473. Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

§ A. DTP

§ B. FTP

§ C. SMTP

§ D. TFTP

Correct Answer: B

474. Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the softwaredefined architecture?

§ A. control layer and the infrastructure layer

§ B. application layer and the infrastructure layer

§ C. control layer and the application layer

§ D. application layer and the management layer

Correct Answer: A

475. Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

§ A. The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

§ B. The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

§ C. The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

§ D. The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Correct Answer: C

476. When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

§ A. IPsec tunnel mode with AH

§ B. IPsec transport mode with AH

§ C. IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

§ D. IPsec transport mode with ESP

Correct Answer: C

477. Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

§ A. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

§ B. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

§ C. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

§ D. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

§ E. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Correct Answer: B D

Explanation/Reference: We choose option B instead of option D because the destination is a host. Therefore, we use a host route meaning that all bits of the ipv6 destination address must match (prefix-length of /128). Also, the next hop address should be that of R3 (fd00:13::3) since the question asks that packets for the host must be forwarded through it.

478. What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

§ A. Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

§ B. Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

§ C. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

§ D. explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

Correct Answer: C

479. What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

§ A. After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

§ B. After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

§ C. The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

§ D. Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Correct Answer: B

480. How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

§ A. enable dynamic ARP inspection

§ B. manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

§ C. activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

§ D. configure extended VLANs

Correct Answer: B

481. Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two)

§ A. Telnet

§ B. SSH

§ C. HTTP

§ D. HTTPS

§ E. TFTP

Correct Answer: A C

482. When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

§ A. DHCP relay agent

§ B. DHCP server

§ C. DHCPDISCOVER

§ D. DHCPOFFER

Correct Answer: A

483. Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

§ A. FIFO

§ B. WFQ

§ C. PQ

§ D. WRED

Correct Answer: C

484. On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

§ A. DHCP

§ B. STP

§ C. SNMP

§ D. DNS

Correct Answer: A

485. What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

§ A. Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

§ B. Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

§ C. ensures a loop-free physical topology

§ D. forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Correct Answer: D
Source: Click here

486. What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

§ A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

§ B. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

§ C. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

§ D. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Correct Answer: D

487. How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

§ A. reducing bandwidth usage

§ B. by reducing packet loss

§ C. by differentiating voice and video traffic

§ D. by increasing jitter

Correct Answer: C

488. What are network endpoints?

§ A. act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network

§ B. a threat to the network if they are compromised

§ C. support inter-VLAN connectivity

§ D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

Correct Answer: B

489. What does physical access control regulate?

§ A. access to spec fie networks based on business function

§ B. access to servers to prevent malicious activity

§ C. access :o computer networks and file systems

§ D. access to networking equipment and facilities

Correct Answer: D

490. What must be considered when using 802.11a?

§ A. It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

§ B. It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

§ C. It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

§ D. It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference: 802.11a and 802.11b are not compatible since 802.11a operates at the 5GHz frequency band and 802.11b operates at the 2.4GHz band. The 2.4 GHz frequency band with a channel width of 22 MHz only has 3 non-overlapping channels (1, 6 and 11) whereas the 5 GHz band has 23 non-overlapping channels with a 20 MHz channel width. Therefore, 802.11a is preferred over 802.11b and 802.11g when many non-overlapping channels are required since they both operate at 2.4GHz unlike 802.11a.

491. An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled. Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

§ A. Enable LLDP globally

§ B. Disable autonegotiation

§ C. Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

§ D. Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: LDDP-MED is used only between network devices (such as switches) and endpoint devices (such as phones). For network-to-network connections, LLDP is used.

Check table 2, protocol uses: Click here

492. Which two events occur automatically when a device Is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

§ A. The device Is assigned to the Global site.

§ B. The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

§ C. The device Is placed into the Provisioned state.

§ D. The device Is placed into the Managed state.

§ E. The device is assigned to the Local site.

Correct Answer: A D

Explanation: Device in Global Site: When you successfully add, import, or discover a device, Cisco DNA Center places the device in the Managed state and assigns it to the Global site by default. Even if you have defined SNMP server, Syslog server, and NetFlow collector settings for the Global site, Cisco DNA Center does not change these settings on the device.

Check table 2, protocol uses: Click here

493. What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two)

§ A. Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

§ B. Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

§ C. Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

§ D. Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

§ E. Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Correct Answer: B C

Explanation/Reference: “A switch will never generate a topology change notification for an interface that has portfast enabled.”
Source: Click here
“Another major benefit of the STP portfast feature is that the access ports bypass the earlier 802.1D STP states (learning and listening) and forward traffic immediately.”
Source: Click here

494. A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

§ A. configure port in the native VLAN

§ B. configure ports in a black hole VLAN

§ C. configure in a nondefault native VLAN

§ D. configure ports as access ports

Correct Answer: B

495. Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

§ A. propagates VLAN information between switches

§ B. listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

§ C. provides DDoS mitigation

§ D. rate-limits certain traffic

Correct Answer: D

496. Which plane is centralized by an SON controller?

§ A. management-plane

§ B. control-plane

§ C. data-plane

§ D. services-plane

Correct Answer: B

497. Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

§ A. Dynamic ARP Inspection

§ B. using a non-default native VLAN

§ C. 802.1x

§ D. DHCP snooping

Correct Answer: C

498. What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

§ A. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

§ B. Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

§ C. Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

§ D. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

§ E. Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

Correct Answer: C D

499. Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

§ A. 84

§ B. 110

§ C. 128

§ D. 192

§ E. 193

Correct Answer: E

500. What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

§ A. serves as the network aggregation point

§ B. provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

§ C. designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

§ D. is the backbone for the network topology

§ E. physical connection point for a LAN printer

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation/Reference: The distribution layer aggregates the data received from the access layer switches before it is transmitted to the core layer for routing to its final destination. In Figure 1-6, the distribution layer is the boundary between the Layer 2 domains and the Layer 3 routed network.
Reference: Click here

501. What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

§ A. DTP

§ B. STP

§ C. VTP

§ D. 802.10

Correct Answer: B

502. What Is a syslog facility?

§ A. Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

§ B. password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

§ C. group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

§ D. set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

Correct Answer: D

503. Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

§ A. between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

§ B. between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

§ C. between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

§ D. between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Correct Answer: B

504. Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

§ A. access ports

§ B. Layer 3 main Interfaces

§ C. Layer 3 suninterfaces

§ D. trunk ports

Correct Answer: A

505. An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the access port of the IP phone. Which configuration must be used?

A)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport priority extend cos 7

B)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport voice vlan untagged

C)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport voice vlan dot1p

D)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport priority extend trust

Correct Answer: A

506. Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

§ A. bridge

§ B. route

§ C. autonomous

§ D. lightweight

Correct Answer: D

507. What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

§ A. They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

§ B. They allow encrypted traffic.

§ C. They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

§ D. They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

§ E. They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Correct Answer: D,E

508. What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

§ A. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

§ B. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN

§ C. It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN

§ D. It is at most 32 characters long.

§ E. IT provides secured access to a WLAN

Correct Answer: A, D

509. In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

§ A. expedited forwarding

§ B. traffic policing

§ C. round-robin scheduling

§ D. low-latency queuing

Correct Answer: D

510. Refer to the exhibit. Which change to the configuration on Switch allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

§ A. Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

§ B. Change the LACP mode to active

§ C. Change the LACP mode to desirable

§ D. Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Correct Answer: B

511. What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

§ A. access – core – distribution – access

§ B. access – distribution – distribution – access

§ C. access – core – access

§ D. access -distribution – core – distribution – access

Correct Answer: D

512. How does WPA3 improve security?

§ A. It uses SAE for authentication.

§ B. It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

§ C. It uses RC4 for encryption.

§ D. It uses TKIP for encryption.

Correct Answer: A

513. Where does wireless authentication happen?

§ A. SSID

§ B. radio

§ C. band

§ D. Layer 2

Correct Answer: D

514. How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

§ A. Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

§ B. Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

§ C. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

§ D. Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Correct Answer: C

515. What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

§ A. It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

§ B. It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

§ C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

§ D. It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

§ E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

Correct Answer: C,E

516. Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

§ A. 0050.0c05.ad81

§ B. 0007.c061.bc01

§ C. 0000.5E00.0101

§ D. 0500.3976.6401

Correct Answer: C

517. Which type of traffic Is sent with pure iPsec?

§ A. broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

§ B. multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

§ C. spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

§ D. unicast messages from a host at a remote site lo a server at headquarters

Correct Answer: D

518. What is the purpose of an SSID?

§ A. It provides network security

§ B. It differentiates traffic entering access posits

§ C. It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

§ D. It identifies a WLAN

Correct Answer: D

519. What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

§ A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

§ B. Both cable types support LP connectors

§ C. Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

§ D. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Correct Answer: A

520. What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

§ A. encrypts data before sending between data resources

§ B. devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

§ C. uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

§ D. offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: – Control Connection: The control connection uses very simple rules for communication. Through control connection, we can transfer a line of command or line of response at a time. The control connection is made between the control processes. The control connection remains connected during the entire interactive FTP session.
– Data Connection: The Data Connection uses very complex rules as data types may vary. The data connection is made between data transfer processes. The data connection opens when a command comes for transferring the files and closes when the file is transferred.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/sw_upgrades/interlink/r2_0/user/ugftpc1.html

521. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

522. Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

§ A. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

§ B. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

§ C. small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

§ D. small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Small_Enterprise_Design_Profile/SEDP/chap2.html

523. In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

§ A. Control

§ B. Management

§ C. Data

§ D. application

Correct Answer: C

524. Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

§ A. Option A

§ B. Option B

§ C. Option C

§ D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

525. Refer to the exhibit. Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

§ A. between zones 1 and 2

§ B. between zones 2 and 5

§ C. between zones 3 and 4

§ D. between zones 3 and 6

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Zones 3 and 4 both have Channel 11 that is overlapped.
Zones 3 and 6 do not overlap at all.

526. Which device permits or denies network traffic based on a set of rules?

§ A. access point

§ B. firewall

§ C. wireless controller

§ D. switch

Correct Answer: B

527. Refer to the exhibit. The entire MAC address table for SW1 is shown here:

SW1#show mac-address-table

Mac Address Table

Vlan Mac Address Type Ports

000c.8590.bb7d DYNAMIC Fa0/1

010a.7a17.45bc DYNAMIC FaO/3

7aa7.4037.8935 DYNAMIC FaO/4

SW1#

What does SW1 do when Br-4 sends a frame to Br-2?

§ A. It inserts the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forwards the frame to Br-2.

§ B. It maps the Layer 2 MAC address for FaO/3 to the Layer 3 IP address and forwards the frame.

§ C. It performs a lookup in the MAC address table for Br-4 and discards the frame due to a missing entry.

§ D. It floods the frame out of all ports except on the port where Br-2 is connected.

Correct Answer: A