Xperience Quiz

Vizag Steel Plant Management Trainee Recruitment Exam (Arithmetic)

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Tue, 01 Jan 2013 10:01:00 +0000

Section - I Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)

1. Four prime numbers are written in ascending order of their magnitudes the product of the first three is 385 and that of the last three is 1001. The largest given prime number is?

a. 11

b. 13

c. 17

d. 19

Answer: (B)

2. Mahavir deposited in the bank from Monday to Saturday the amounts of Rs. 87.80, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 3677.98, Rs. 92899.01, Rs. 66 and Rs. 554945.19 respectively. Find his total deposit for this week?

a. Rs. 651879.61

b. Rs. 652779.61

c. Rs. 650879.51

d. Rs. 655889.71

Answer: (A)

3. Amar deposited in Vijay Bank Rs. 259206.16 on Monday. Rs. 201890.48 on Tuesday, Rs. 284.16 on Wednesday. He withdrew Rs. 50000.00 on Thursday. He again deposited Rs. 230.01 on Friday and Rs. 72.62 on Saturday. Find his total balance in the bank for this week?

a. Rs. 501783.43

b. Rs. 501683.43

c. Rs. 511693.43

d. Rs. 511683.43

Answer: (D)

4. I was born on October 17, 1927. How old I was on Jan. 26, 1978?

a. 49 years and 101 days

b. 50 years and 100 days

c. 50 years and 101 days

d. 50 years and 103 days

Answer: (C)

5. Find the total of the following amount

Rs. 1230.79, Rs. 11368.08, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 10314.89, Rs. 64.8, Rs. 101.00 and Rs. 3677.98

a. Rs. 27961.1

b. Rs. 26961.17

c. Rs. 26951.17

d. Rs. 25961.17

Answer: (B)

6. How many pieces, each of length 4.5 m can be cut of 225 m of wire?

a. 40

b. 54

c. 56

d. 50

Answer: (D)

7. Parkash and Girish were travelling together. Prakash paid Rs. 200 for their stay in a hotel and Girish paid taxi fare of Rs. 80. If they have to share these expenses equally, then

a. Prakash should pay Rs. 60 to Girish

b. Girish should pay Rs. 120 to Prakash

c. Girish should pay Rs. 60 to Prakash

d. Prakash should pay Rs. 120 to Girish

Answer: (C)

8. Sum of the numbers from 1 to 20 is

a. 210

b. 110

c. 220

d. 105

Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following is equal to 115 x 15?

a. 105 x 10 + 115 x 5

b. 11 x 515

c. 1151 x 5

d. 110 x 15 + 5 x 15

Answer: (D)

10. The unit's digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is

a. 0

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

Answer: (B)

11. The smallest natural number by which the product of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible is

a. 16

b. 32

c. 48

d. 96

Answer: (A)

12. The number of prime factors of (6)10 x (7)17 x (55)27 is

a. 54

b. 64

c. 81

d. 91

Answer: (D)

13. The total income of Hazari and Murari is Rs. 3000. Hazari spends 60% of his income and Murari spends 80% of his income. If their savings are equal. Find the income of Hazari

a. Rs. 2000

b. Rs. 3000

c. Rs. 1500

d. Rs. 1000

Answer: (D)

14. Bholanath save 25% if his income, but due to dearness the expenses increased by 25%, still he saves Rs. 30. Find his income
a. Rs. 400

b. Rs. 480

c. Rs. 450

d. Rs. 475

Answer: (B)

15. In a city 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich 10% are illiterate. What percentage of the poor population is illiterate?

a. 36%

b. 60%

c. 40%

d. None of these
Answer: (A)

LIC AAO Solved Paper 2008

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 21 Mar 2012 03:30:00 +0000

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PAPER

1. In which of the following years the Government of India nationalised the general insurance business under the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act?

(1) 1970

(2) 1972

(3) 1976

(4) 1973

(5) 1981

Answers: (1)

2. When was the Kalka-Shimla Railway Line added to the UNESCO's World Heritage List?

(1) April 18.2008

(2) July 8. 2008

(3) August 15, 2007

(4) January 26,2008

(5) March 23, 2008

Answer: (2)

3. The famous Kailasanath Temple at Kanchi was built by was built by:

(1) Mahendravarman I

(2) Narasimhavarman II

(3) Nandivarman II

(4) Dantivarman

(5) None of these

Answers: (2)

4. Shivaji ceded the forts to the Mughals by which treaty?

(1) Chittor

(2) Pune

(31 Purandar

(4) Toma

(5) None of these

Answers: (3)

5. The Life Insurance Corporation of India was established in September 1956 under an Act of the Indian Parliament. The Government of India invested a capital of ------ in this corporation.

(1) Rs.5 •crore

(2) Rs. 4 crore

(3) Rs. 7 crore

(4) Rs. (3 crore.

(5) None of these

Answers: (1)

6. Bindusara sent Asoka to quell the rebellion in...

(1) Swamagiri

(2) Taxila

(3) Uijain

(4) Tosali

(5) None of these

Answers: (3)

7. 'Royal Asiatic Society' was founded by

(1) Sir William Jones

(2) Sir John Marshall

(3) R. D. BaneIjee

(4) Sir William Bentick

(5) None of these

Answers: (1)

8. The first Sultan of Delhi. who attempted the conquest of South India was

(1) gutb-ud-din Mubarak

(2) Nasir-ud-din Khusrav Shah I

(3) Ala-ud-din Khilji

(4) Jala-ud-din Firoz

(5) None of these

Answers: (3)

9. Which of the following countries in February 2008 lifted a ban on Islamic headscarves at varsities?

(1) Turkey

(2) Germany

(3) Kuwait

(4) Afghanistan

(5) Indonesia

Answers: (1)

10. Mahaballpuram is an important city that reveals the interest in arts of...

(1) Pallavas

(2) Cheras

(3) Pandyas

(4) Chalukyas

(5) None of these

Answers: (1)

11. The renowned musician duo: Tansen and Baiju Bawra, flourishes during the reign of

(1) Jehangir

(2) Bahadur Shah zafar

(3) Akbar

(4) ShahJahan

(5) None of these

Answers: (3)

12. Lord Mahavira died at

(1) Saravana Belagola

(2) Lumbini Garden

(3) KaIugumaIai

(4) Pavapuri

(5) None of these

Answers: (4)

13. The Indus people knew the use of Weights and Measures, which is proved by the discovery of the seal at

(1) KaIibangan

(2) Harappa

(3) Chanhudaro

(4) Lothal

(5) None of these

Answers: (2)

14. Which language was mostly used for• the propagation of Buddhism?

(I) Sanskrit

(2) Prakrit

(3) Pall

(4) Sauraseni

(5) None of these

Answers: (3)

15. The 11th National Conference on e-Governance was held in February 2008 at -

1) Chennai

(2) Guwahati

(3) Jaipur

(4) Chandigarh

(5) None of these

Answers: (4)

16. Which of the following statements about Kharif and Rabi is not-correct?

(1) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in late Spring

(2) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in Autumn

(3) Rabi season begins in Autumn after the rains and harvested in late Spring.

(4) Important Kharif crops are rice, millets. jute, maize and cotton; important Rabi crops are wheat, gram. barley and linseed

(5) None of these

Answers: (1)

17. Raniganj Coal Mine is situated in

(1) Bihar

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) West Bengal

(4) Maharashtra

(5) None of these

Answers: (3)

18. Bosnia-Herzegovina formed the parts of

(1) Czechoslovakia

(2) Yugoslavia

(3) Bulgaria

(4) Azerbaijan

(5) None of these

Answers: (2)

19. Major producer of sugar is

(1) Australia

(2) Cuba

(3) India

(4) Mauritius

(5) None of these

Answers: (2)

20. In the north-east of the Deccan plateau is?

(1) Chhola Nagpur plateau

(2) Malawa plateau

(3) Deccan plateau

(4) Vindhyan Range

(5) None of these

Answers: (1)

General Awareness Questions (SBI PO) Part-3

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 16 Mar 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Awareness Sample Questions 2010

1. Who is the President of Nasscom?

(A) Kiran Karnik

(B) Narayana Murthy

(D) Devang Mehta

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

2. Which of the following awards is not given for excellence in the field of literature?

(A) Booker Prize

(B) Nobel Prize

(D) Arjun Award

(E) Bharatiya Gnanpith Award

Answer: (D)

3. ‘Singur’ which was in news is a place in_____________

(A) Orissa

(B) West Bengal

(D) Bihar

(E) Maharashtra

Answer: (B)

4. Who amongst the following is the author of the book series named as ‘Harry Potter’?

(A) J. K. Rowling

(B) Lindsay Lohan

(D) Sandra Bullock

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

5. Which of the following Satellites recently dedicated to nation helps Direct to Home Television Ser-vice in India?

(A) Matsat

(B) Edusat

(D) Insat–IB

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

6. Many a times we read some news items about the ‘West Bank’. ‘West Bank’ is situated at the western side of the river__________

(A) Mississippi

(B) Amazon

(D) Jordan

(E) None of these

Answer: (D)

7. Which of the following phenomenon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’?

(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect

(B) Fox Fire

(D) Radioactivity

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following instruments is not issued by a bank?

(A) Demand Draft

(B) Pay Order

(D) Credit Card

(E) National Saving Certificate

Answer: (E)

9. Name of Jyoti Randhawa is associated with which of these following games?

(A) Golf

(B) Badminton

(D) Chess

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

10. Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its education portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India?

(A) Microsoft (B) Infosys

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

11. Polly Umrigar who died was a well known___________

(A) Cricketer

(B) Tennis Player

(D) Chess Player

(E) Hockey Player

Answer: (A)

12. In India Census is done after a gap of every____________

(A) Five years

(B) Seven years

(D) Ten years

(E) Fifteen years

Answer: (D)

13. Prof. Muhammad Yunus the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking?

(A) Core Banking

(B) Micro Credit

(D) Real Time Gross Settlement

(E) Internet Banking

Answer: (B)

14. Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary General?

(A) Mr. Shyam Saran

(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan

(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

15. Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of_______

(A) Italy

(B) Canada

(D) South Africa

(E) Britain

Answer: (E)

General Awareness Questions (SBI PO) Part-2

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 14 Mar 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Awareness Sample Questions 2010

1. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates?

(A) Microsoft Secrets

(B) The Road Ahead

(D) e-commerce

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following is the name of the social network service run by the Google on the internet?

(A) Online Space

(B) Orkut

(D) Wikipedia

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following states is a relatively new addition?

(A) Goa

(B) Delhi

(D) Himachal Pradesh

(E) Bihar

Answer: (C)

4. DOT stands for___________

(A) Disc Operating Therapy

(B) Department of Telephones

(D) Damage on Time

(E) None of these

Answer: (E)

5. Which of the following States/ parts of India is completely land locked having no contact with sea?

(A) Karnataka

(B) Orissa

(D) North-East

(E) None of these

Answer: (D)

6. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following services?

(A) Telecom

(B) Trade

(D) Transport

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

7. At present for the ATMs in India, the most commonly used net-work communication mode is__________

(A) Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT)

(B) General Packet Radio Ser-vice (GPRS)

(D) Dial-in Connection

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following is not a foreign bank operating in India?

(A) DBS Bank Ltd.

(B) Sonali Bank

(D) Shinhan Bank

(E) All are Foreign Banks

Answer: (E)

9. Who is the author of the book ‘Future Shock’?

(A) Alvin Toffler

(B) Tom Peters

(D) Kenneth Blanchard

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

10. Apex fares are________

(A) more than the normal fare

(B) less than the normal fare

(D) applicable to late night flights only

(E) applicable to international flights only

Answer: (B)

11. Who amongst the following is the Director of the film ‘Water’ which was in news?

(A) Vidhu Vinod Chopra

(B) Mrinal Sen

(D) Mahesh Bhatt

(E) None of these

Answer: (E)

12. The 10th plan period is upto_______

(A) 2007

(B) 2008

(D) 2010

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

13. OPEC is a group of countries which are_______

(A) exporting oil

(B) Producing cotton

(D) developing and poor

(E) nuclear powers

Answer: (A)

14. Intel Company mainly produces______

(A) Hard disks

(B) VCDs

(D) Software

(E) None of these

Answer: (E)

15. Who amongst the following is the M.D./Chairman of one of the major Steel Companies?

(A) Shri L. N. Mittal

(B) Shri K. K. Birla

(D) Shri Mukesh Ambani

(E) Shri Anil Agarwal

Answer: (A)

General Awareness Questions (SBI PO) Part-1

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 09 Mar 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Awareness Sample Questions 2010

1. What is the population of India?

(A) 98 crores

(B) More than 2 billion

(D) Less than 96 crores

(E) 96 crores

Answer: (C)

2. Thermostat is an instrument used to_________

(A) measure flow of current

(B) measure intensity of voltage

(D) regulate velocity of sound

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

3. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with________

(A) Football (B) Cricket

(E) Lawn Tennis

Answer: (E)

4. GNP stands for_________

(A) Gross National Product

(B) Group Net Product

(D) Group Networking Process

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

5. ‘Acoustics’ is the science of the study of_________

(A) Light (B) Sound

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

6. Noise pollution is measured in the unit called_____

(A) micron

(B) nautical miles

(D) ampere

(E) decibel

Answer: (E)

7. ‘Heavy Water’ is used in which of the following types of Indus-tries?

(A) Sugar

(B) Nuclear Power

(D) Coal

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

8. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Indomi-table Spirit’?

(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(D) Mr. Natwar Singh

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following is not the name of popular IT/Software Company?

(A) Wipro

(B) Mastek

(D) IBM

(E) Infosys

Answer: (C)

10. ‘Yen’ is the currency of_________

(A) South Korea

(B) China

(D) Malaysia

(E) None of these

Answer: (E)

11. Baichung Bhutia whose name was in news is a well known__________

(A) Music Director of Indian films

(B) English author of Indian origin

(D) Politician

(E) Sports Personality

Answer: (E)

12. ‘Richter Scale’ is used to measure which of the following?

(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves

(B) Intensity of Earthquake

(D) Flow of electric current

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

13. Which of the following best explains ‘e-governance’?

(A) Improving the functioning of government

(B) Teaching government employees the basics of computing

(D) Framing of cyber-laws of chatting on internet

(E) Convergence of e-mail and video-conferencing

Answer: (C)

14. CAS is associated with which of the following?

(A) Legal System Reforms

(B) Piped gas line

(D) Mobile phone regulation

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

15. Tata Steel recently acquired the Corus, a steel giant situated in_____

(A) South Africa

(B) Ukraine

(D) Italy

(E) Britain

Answer: (E)

16. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the Organization/Agency working in the field of Space Research?

(A) ISBN

(B) ISRO

(D) INTACH

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

17. ‘Handshaking’ in networking parlance means

(A) connecting computers to a hub

(B) distributed Networks

(D) sending e-mail

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

18. VAT stands for

(A) Value And Tax

(B) Value Added Tax

(D) Virtual Assessment Technique

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

19. Alzheimer’s disease is the ailment of which of the following organs /parts of the human body?

(A) Kidney

(B) Heart

(D) Stomach

(E) Brain

Answer: (E)

20. Global warming is a matter of concern amongst the nations these days. Which of the following countries is the largest emitter of greenhouse gases in the World?

(A) U.S.A.

(B) China

(D) Britain

(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

Computer Sample Paper 2010

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 07 Mar 2012 03:30:00 +0000

COMPUTER SAMPLE PAPER

1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.

A. 20

B. 75

C. 85

D. 99

Answer: C

2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.

A. $100,000 each

B. $377 million

C. five employees each

D. $1 million

Answer: B

3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):

A. young hacker.

B. trusted employee with no criminal record.

C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.

D. overseas young cracker.

Answer: B

4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:

A. hackers.

B. insiders.

C. overseas criminals.

D. young teenage computer geniuses.

Answer: B

5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:

A. spooling.

B. identity theft.

C. spoofing.

D. hacking.

Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer

6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:

A. spooling

B. identity theft

C. spoofing

D. hacking

Answer: B

7. Malicious software is known as:

A. badware.

B. malware.

C. maliciousware.

D. illegalware.

Answer: B

8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:

A. worm.

B. Trojan horse.

C. virus.

D. macro virus.

Answer: B Moderate

9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:

A. Trojan horse.

B. virus.

C. time bomb.

D. time-related bomb sequence.

Answer: B

10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:

A. e-mail virus.

B. macro virus.

C. Trojan horse.

D. Time bomb.

Answer: A

11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?

A. Time bomb

B. Worm

C. Melissa virus

D. Macro virus

Answer: B

12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:

A. memory or disk space.

B. time.

C. CD drive space.

D. CD-RW.

Answer: A

13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:

A. time-related bomb sequence.

B. virus.

C. time bomb.

D. Trojan horse.

Answer: C

14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:

A. time-related bomb sequence.

B. virus.

C. time bomb.

D. Trojan horse.

Answer: C

15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?

A. A virus

B. Spybot

C. Logic bomb

D. Security patch

Answer: B

16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:

A. more complicated.

B. more difficult.

C. easier.

D. slower.

Answer: C

17. HTML viruses infect:

A. your computer.

B. a Web page in the HTML code.

C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.

D. No

Answer: B

18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an

operating system are known as:

A. security breach fixes.

B. refresh patches.

C. security repairs.

D. security patches.

Answer: D

19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:

A. a virus.

B. a Trojan horse.

C. cracking.

D. a denial of service attack.

Answer: D

20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.

A. Biometrics

B. Bio measurement

C. Computer security

D. Smart weapon machinery

Answer: A

21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?

A. User logins

B. Passwords

C. Computer keys

D. Access-control software

Answer: B

22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:

A. love.

B. Fred.

C. God.

D. 123.

Answer: D

23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):

A. hacker-proof program.

B. firewall.

C. hacker-resistant server.

D. encryption safe wall.

Answer: B

24. The scrambling of code is known as:

A. encryption.

B. a firewall.

C. scrambling.

D. password-proofing.

Answer: A

25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):

A. cryptology source.

B. encryption key.

C. encryption software package.

D. cryptosystem.

Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography

26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):

A. encryption program.

B. surge protector.

C. firewall.

D. UPS.

Answer: D

27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.

A. encryption program

B. surge protector

C. firewall

D. UPS

Answer: B

28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:

A. don’t borrow disks from other people.

B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.

C. download shareware and freeware with caution.

D. disinfect your system.

Answer: B

29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.

A. encryption

B. firewall software

C. PGP

D. private and public keys

Answer: C

30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.

A. Computer forensics

B. Computer crime

C. Hacking

D. Cracking

Answer: B

31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.

A. logins

B. passwords

C. encryption

D. lock and key

Answer: B

32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :

A. privacy rights.

B. personal ethics.

C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.

D. personal space.

Answer: A

33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.

A. 20 million dollars

B. 100 million dollars

C. 1 billion dollars

D. 100 billion dollars

Answer: D

34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?

A. Autonomous system

B. Missile defence auto-system

C. Smart weapon

D. Independent system

Answer: D

35. Security procedures can:

A. will eliminate all computer security risk.

B. reduce but not eliminate risks.

C. are prohibitively expensive.

D. are inaccessible for the average home user.

Answer: B

Fill in the Blank:

36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.

Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging

37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.

Answer: crime

38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.

Answer: Internet

39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.

Answer: Theft

40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.

Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft

41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.

Answer: notebook

42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.

Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy

43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.

Answer: macro virus

44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.

Answer: worms

45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.

Answer: Antivirus

46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.

Answer: nothing or free

47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.

Answer: Hackers or hacking

48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.

Answer: Cracking

49. DoS stands for ___________.

Answer: denial of service

50. DDoS stands for ___________.

Answer: distributed denial of service

51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.

Answer: Webjackers

52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.

Answer: Audit-control

53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.

Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography

54. PGP stands for ___________.

Answer: Pretty Good Privacy

55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.

Answer: user identifier or user ID

56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.

Answer: attachments

Matching:

57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:

I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998

II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online

III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001

IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals

V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court

VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm

VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product

Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D

58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:

I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies

II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word

III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer

IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy

V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt

VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software

Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E

General Knowledge Sample Paper

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 02 Mar 2012 03:30:00 +0000

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE : (SOLVED PAPER)

1. The Baikonur Cosmodrome is the world’s first and largest operational space launch facility. In which country is it located?

(A) France

(B) Kazakhstan

(D) Germany

Answer: B

2. The International Hockey Federation has decided to allot the next Hockey World Cup in 2010 to India. In which year Hockey World Cup tournament started?

(A) 1971

(B) 1974

(D) 1977

Answer: A

3. Which among the following clubs has won the Spanish league title for the first time in three years on May 17, 2009?

(A) Barcelona

(B) Inter Millan

(D) Manchester United

Answer: A

4. Recently Suranjoy Singh of India sizzled with a Gold on the concluding day of the European Grand Prix boxing as India finished their campaign with four medals. This contest held in?

(A) Czech Republic.

(B) Hungary

(D) Austria

Answer: A

5. Recently 12-member Sikkim Cabinet was sworn in and Pavan Kumar Chamling becomes CM for the ________?

(A) 2nd time

(B) 3rd time

(C) 4th time

(D) 5th time

Answer: C

6. Who among the following has been nominated to become the U.S. Attorney for Southern District of New York, by US President Barack Obama?

(A) Preet Bharara

(B) Suresh Modi

(D) Suresh Kalmadi

Answer: A

7. The government formed the panel after many ex-servicemen returned their medals to protest the rejection of their ‘one rank one pension’ demand. Who is heading this panel?

(A) K.M. Chandrasekhar

(B) R Balakrishanan

(D) T. Raja Shekhar

Answer: A

8. Recently India’s Jayanta Talukdar, Rahul Banerjee and Mangal Singh Champia, earned India a gold medal in the recurve team event of the archery World Cup Stage I. In which country this event held?

(A) Croatia

(B) Russia

(D) Czech Republic.

Answer: A

9. Recently Madhu Kannan has joined as managing director & chief executive officer (CEO) of which exchange?

(A) Bombay Stock Exchange

(B) National Stock Exchange

(D) None of these

Answer: A

10. Who has won his maiden International Tennis Federation (ITF) title at Delhi Lawn Tennis Association on April 25, 2009?

(A) Yuki Bhambari

(B) Vishnu Vardhan

(D) Mahesh Bhupti

Answer: A

11. What is the name of the first setellite launched by Iran on Feb 3, 2009?

(A) Shahab

(B) Hatf

(D) Omid

Answer: D

12. Recently Indian Navy commissioned INS Airavat. Which among the following terms precisely describes INS Airavat?

(A) Landing Ship Tank

(B) Water jet Propelled Fast Attack Craft

(D) GPS Craft

Answer: A

13. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) recently has entered the Limca Book of Records as the largest animal rights organisation. (May 11, 2009). In which year PETA began?

(A) 1995

(B) 2000

(D) 1980

Answer: D

14. ‘Open Market Operation’ is a part of

(A) Income Policy

(B) Fiscal Policy

(C) Credit Policy

(D) Labour Policy

Answer: C

15. SDR, the currency of the IMF, is in the form of

(A) Paper Currency

(B) Gold

(D) Book keeping entry only

Answer: D

General Knowledge Sample Paper 2010

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 29 Feb 2012 03:30:00 +0000

1) Who is the author of the book” Sahibs Who Loved India”?

a) Jagdish

b) Khushwant Singh

c) Chetan Bhagat

d) Nadeem Aslam

Answer: B

2) Who received the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development?

a) Mohamed ElBradei

b) Wen Jiabo

c) Taro Aso

d) Nicholas Sarkhosay

Answer: A

3) Which country will be setting up a world Biggest Telescope?

a) Japan

b) France

c) China

d) India

Answer: C

4) At which place was G-20 Summit held?

a) Washington

b) New York

c) Chicago

d) Los Angeles

Answer: A

5) “Lisbon Treaty” is the treaty accepted / adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently?

a) NATO

b) SAARC

c) European Union

d) NSG

Answer: C

6) Beri-Beri is the deficiency disease caused by the vitamin

a) B1

b) B5

c) A

d) C

Answer: A

7) Who has been appointed as President of Zambia?

a) Dawada Kairaba

b) Isatov Njle

c) Levy

d) Rupia Banda

Answer: D

8) Who is the Pepsico Chief?

a) Indira Nooyi

b) Indira Mukerjee

c) Kiran Mazumdar

d) Deepa Mirza

Answer: A

9) “Fehmida Mizza” is a woman speaker of National Assembly of

a) Indonesia

b) Iran

c) Pakistan

d) Afghanistan

Answer: C

10) Who is called the “Grand Old Man Of India”?

a) Mahatma Gandhi

b) Dadabhai Naoroji

c) Gokhale

d) Tilak

Answer: B

11) Cabinet Mission came to India in which year?

a) 1942

b) 1932

c) 1916

d) 1946

Answer: D

12) Which five year plan has the objective “Garibi Hatao”?

a) first

b) fifth

c) seventh

d) eighth

Answer: B

13) Which river is declared as "national river”?

a) Ganga

b) Yamuna

c) Cauveri

d) Krishna

Answer: A

14) “No country for old men” is a

a) book

b) film

c) Drama

d) Poem

Answer: B

15) Hathigumbha inscription belongs to

a)Ashoka

b)Kharavela

c)Harsha

d)Sasaka

Answer: B

16) He thought that his mother was not happy ……him

a) in

b) since

c) with

d) for

Answer: C

17) Do you really agree?

(A) /that he has blamed us

(B)/ for the dispute, especially you and I

(C)/ No error

(D)?

Answer: C

18) “ENDEAVOUR” finds the synonym

a) fail

b) success

c) attempt

d) try again

Answer: C

19) “FABULOUS” find the antonym

a) rich

b) luxury

c) prudence

d) poor

Answer: C

20) The soldiers fought courageously …. The enemy troops

a) against

b) with

c) to

d) for

Answer: B

SBI - Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 24 Feb 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Awareness: (Solved Paper)

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Answer: (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech food grain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the food grains to people living below poverty line?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Answer: (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Answer: (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt.?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribal’s who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008)?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Answer: (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0・7 per cent to 1・5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Answer: (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Answer: (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Answer: (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Answer: (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Answer: (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Answer: (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Answer: (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following States has decided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Answer: (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Answer: (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Answer: (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Answer: (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Answer: (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Answer: (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Answer: (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Answer: (B)

35. Which of the following diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Answer: (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

General Knowledge Sample Paper 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 22 Feb 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Knowledge: (Solved Paper)

1. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2008 has been conferred on—
(A) Dr. Mohammad El Bardei
(B) Hosni Mubarak
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Nelson Mandela
Answer: (A)

2. The prestigious Jnanpith award winner for 2005 is—
(A) Abdul Rahman Rahi
(B) Kunwar Narayan
(C) Ravindra Kelekar
(D) Satyavarat Shastri
Answer: (B)

3. ‘The Bikini Murders’ is a book by—
(A) Erez Mandela
(B) J. V. Braun
(C) Farukh Dhondy
(D) Martin Dupuls
Answer: (C)

4. LTTE’s administrative headquarters is situated at—
(A) Batticaola
(B) Kilinochchi
(C) Puthumu Rippu
(D) Ariviyal Nakar
Answer: (B)

5. UNO recently banned Pakistan based terrorist organization—
(A) JKLF
(B) United Taliban Front
(C) Al-Humijat
(D) Jamat-ud-Dawa
Answer: (D)

6. The six important inscriptions which have recently come to light in Tamil Nadu’s 1200 year old Shiva Temple reveal—
(A) Early Chola history
(B) Early Kushans history
(C) Early Mauryan history
(D) Early Sangam history
Answer: (A)

7. LITE is the proposed Maiden Moon Mission of—
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Britain
(D) Japan
Answer: (C)

8. The 2008 World Snooker Champion is—
(A) Pankaj Advani
(B) Colm Gilcreest
(C) Thepchai Un-Nooh
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

9. The male sports man chosen as Athlete of the Year 2008 is—
(A) Usain Bolt
(B) Dayron Robles
(C) Angelo Taylor
(D) Henry Rono
Answer: (A)

10. The Champion of 2008 Formula one Races is—
(A) Kim Raikkonen
(B) Lewis Hamilton
(C) Felipe Massa
(D) Robert Kubica
Answer: (B)

11. According to Forbes latest list, the fourth richest Indian is—
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Kushal Pal Singh
(C) Sunil Mittal
(D) Lakshmi Mittal
Answer: (C)

12. India ranks………..on Global Gender-Gap Index.
(A) 115th
(B) 113th
(C) 110th
(D) 111th
Answer: (B)

13. IBEx is—
(A) NASA’s Probe
(B) EU’s Probe
(C) EU NASA joint Probe
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

14. According to Forbes Magazine the richest lady of India is—
(A) Indira Nooyi
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Savitri Jindal
(D) Teena Ambani
Answer: (C)

15. National Women Excellence Award 2008 has been given to—
(A) Pritika Kalra Gandhi
(B) Sheila Dixit
(C) Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shabana Azmi
Answer: (A)

16. The female Athlete of the Year Award has been conferred on—
(A) Yelena Isinbayeva
(B) Tirunesh Dibaba
(C) Pamela Jelimo
(D) Anne Frazer
Answer: (A)

17. World Junior Badminton Championship (Woman’s title) has been won by—
(A) Sayaka Sato
(B) Fu Mingtian
(C) Saina Nehwal
(D) Xie Jing
Answer: (C)

18. India’s first 3G Technology-based mobile phone service of MTNL was launched on—
(A) December 15, 2008
(B) December 11, 2008
(C) December 10, 2008
(D) December 8, 2008
Answer: (B)

19. The new Chief Minister of Mizoram is—
(A) P. A. Sangma
(B) Mr. Lalthanhawla
(C) R. Lalzirliana
(D) H. Liansailova
Answer: (B)

20. According to National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) the number of farmers who committed suicides during 2007 is—
(A) 16,632
(B) 4,238
(C) 11,026
(D) 1, 21,617
Answer: (A)

21. India–U.S. Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement was signed on—
(A) October 11, 2008
(B) October 20, 2008
(C) October 15, 2008
(D) October 5, 2008
Answer: (A)

22. The IIM Review Committee which recommended higher government control on IIMs is headed by—
(A) M. K. Prasad
(B) R.C. Bhargava
(C) Ravi Kumar
(D) C. Rangrajan
Answer: (B)

23. India launched its first Moon Mission Chandrayaan-1 on—
(A) October 10, 2008
(B) October 15, 2008
(C) October 20, 2008
(D) October 22, 2008
Answer: (D)

24. The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle which put Chandrayaan-1 into its orbit is—
(A) PSLV-C-9
(B) PSLV-C-8
(C) PSLV-C-11
(D) PSLV-C-7
Answer: (C)

25. India is the ……country to send Moon Mission.
(A) Fifth
(B) Fourth
(C) Sixth
(D) Seventh
Answer: (B)

26. The number of instruments which the spacecraft Chandrayaan carried is—
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 11
(D) 9
Answer: (C)

27. Union Cabinet has cleared Right to Education Bill which is the enabling legislation to notify—
(A) The 91th Constitutional Amendment
(B) the 86th Constitutional Amendment
(C) the 95th Constitutional Amendment
(D) the 93rd Constitutional Amendment
Answer: (B)

28. On October 15, 2008 the……IBSA Summit concluded in New Delhi.
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
Answer: (A)

29. The IBSA Dialogue Forum was formalized through the adoption of the Brasilia Declaration in—
(A) 2004
(B) 2003
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (B)

30. ACD stands for—
(A) Asian Cooperative Dialogue
(B) Asia Cooperation Dialogue
(C) Asia China Dialogue Forum
(D) Asian-Chinese Dialogue
Answer: (B)

31. The number of member countries who participated in Asia-Europe Meeting Summit held on October 24-25, 2008 was—
(A) 45
(B) 40
(C) 35
(D) 30
Answer: (A)

32. The new-President of Maldives is—
(A) Abdul Gayoom
(B) Mohammad Anni Nasheed
(C) Mohammad Irshad
(D) Abdul Qadir
Answer: (B)

33. Which of the following states has topped in Governments’ Primary Education Development Index?
(A) Delhi
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (C)

34. EDI stands for—
(A) Enforcement Directorate Index
(B) Education Development Infrastructure
(C) Education and Development Identity
(D) Education Development Index
Answer: (D)

35. Which one of the following is not the winner of 2008 Nobel Prize in Medicine?
(A) Professor Herald Zur Hausen
(B) Martin Chalfi
(C) Prof. Luc Montagnier
(D) Francoise Barre-Sinoussi
Answer: (B)

36. Which one of the following is not the winner of 2008 Nobel Prize in Physics?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Makoto Kobayashi
(C) Toshihide Maskawa
(D) Yoichiro Nambu
Answer: (A)

37. Which one of the following has not won the 2008 Nobel Prize in Chemistry?
(A) Martin Chalfi
(B) Roger Y. Tsien
(C) Osamu Shimomura
(D) Franco Basse Sinoussi
Answer: (D)

38. Traditionally, the first of Nobel Prizes awarded each year in the category of—
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Medicine
(D) Literature
Answer: (C)

39. The Alternative Nobel Prizes are—
(A) Magsaysay Awards
(B) Right to Livelihood Awards
(C) Global Energy Awards
(D) Grammy Awards
Answer: (B)

40. National Consumer Rights Day is observed on—
(A) December 4
(B) December 7
(C) December 24
(D) December 10
Answer: (C)

SBI - Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 17 Feb 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General English: (Solved Paper)

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshava, the washer man had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the donkey. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study!’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. When everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.
‘How can I help you?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washer man agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care.
After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you? You think you are so clever that you ran away? Come home at once!’
The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey!’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now!’ he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washer man kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who will talk with you and share your troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his donkey, sadder and wiser.

1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher?
(A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings
(B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature
(C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava
(D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid
(E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey
Answer: (B)

2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working?
(A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends
(B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous
(C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems
(D) He regarded the donkey as his friend and confided in him
(E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise
Answer: (E)

3. How did Keshava get his donkey back?
(A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders
(B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey
(C) He asked the village headman for help
(D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher.
(b) The teacher was cunning by nature.
(c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly.
(A) Both (a) & (c)
(B) Both (b) & (c)
(C) Only (b)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day?
(A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion
(B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout
(C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings
(D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders?
(A) He did not agree with their views on different issues
(B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees
(C) He wanted them to get justice for him
(D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard?
(A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree
(B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree
(C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey
(D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months?
(a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training.
(b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey.
(c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey properly.
(A) None
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. trick
(A) joke
(B) skill
(C) mislead
(D) technique
(E) lunny
Answer: (C)

10. remained
(A) pending
(B) waited
(C) lasted
(D) survived
(E) continued
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. real
(A) false
(B) imitated
(C) dishonest
(D) imagine
(E) genuine
Answer: (A)

12. deep
(A) low
(B) distracted
(C) flat
(D) awake
(E) sleep
Answer: (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary funds to study ahead.
(A) further to study
(B) of studying more
(C) to study onward
(D) for higher studies
(E) No Correction Required
Answer: (D)

14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers.
(A) a source of additional
(B) an additionally source
(C) an additional source
(D) additionally the source
(E) No Correction Required
Answer: (C)

15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and accommodation.
(A) since you belong to
(B) whoever belongs
(C) for belonging to
(D) to belong in
(E) No Correction Required
Answer: (A)

16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger.
(A) is looking over
(B) will be looked after
(C) will look out
(D) looks down on
(E) No Correction Required
Answer: (E)

17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me.
(A) if I am successful in
(B) how should I successfully
(C) whether I could successfully
(D) that I would succeed to
(E) No Correction Required
Answer: (C)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct (E)
Answer: (B)

19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct (E)
Answer: (E)

20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All Correct (E)
Answer: (B)

21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D) All Correct (E)
Answer: (A)

22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All Correct (E)
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) I was pleased by their reaction.
(b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to those affected by the earthquake.
(c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations.
(d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed.
(e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office.
(f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me.

23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Answer: (A)

24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Answer: (E)

25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Answer: (A)

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (C)

29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its shareholders. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (B)

30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (D)

31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) / want to see it. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (A)

32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural area. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (E)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Today, twenty-two years after the bank … (33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff … (34)… about twenty-three lakhs borrowers. We decided to operate … (35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their office. Many people in rural areas found this … (36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the … (37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also … (38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep … (39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is …(40)… from the loan.

33. (A) origin
(B) commence
(C) existed
(D) began
(E) inaugurated
Answer: (E)

34. (A) assemble
(B) cope
(C) interact
(D) deal
(E) handle
Answer: (E)

35. (A) differently
(B) similar
(C) reverse
(D) opposite
(E) identically
Answer: (A)

36. (A) worried
(B) upset
(C) panicking
(D) anxious
(E) threatening
Answer: (D)

37. (A) principle
(B) discipline
(C) opportunity
(D) chance
(E) advantage
Answer: (A)

38. (A) worth
(B) vary
(C) disburse
(D) contrast
(E) diver
Answer: (B)

39. (A) consistently
(B) regular
(C) often
(D) frequently
(E) daily
Answer: (B)

40. (A) benefiting
(B) serving
(C) welfare
(D) obliged
(E) progress
Answer: (A)

General Knowledge Sample Paper 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 15 Feb 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Knowledge: (Solved Paper)

1. The Chairman of Anti Doping Panel constituted by the Government is—
(A) Jasmeet Singh
(B) Dinesh Dayal
(C) Dr. Vikas Ahluwalia
(D) Dinesh Khanna
Answer: (B)

2. This year National Games have been held in—
(A) Sikkim
(B) Assam
(C) Kerala
(D) Jharkhand
Answer: (D)

3. Which of the following was not the base of LTTE before being captured by Sri Lankan forces?
(A) Muridke
(B) Elephant Pass
(C) Kilinochchi
(D) Mullaithivu
Answer: (A)

4. DRDO came into existence in—
(A) 1960
(B) 1958
(C) 1962
(D) 1965
Answer: (B)

5. This year Pankaj Advani has been given—
(A) Padma Vibhushan
(B) Padma Bhushan
(C) Padma Shri
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

6. Who among the following has not been honoured with Padma Vibhushan?
(A) Dr. Gurdip Singh Randhawa
(B) D. P. Chattopadhyay
(C) Govind Narain
(D) Chandrika Prasad Srivastava
Answer: (A)

7. ‘India and China—A Thousand Years of Cultural Relations’ is the book written by—
(A) Probodh Chandra Bagchi
(B) K. Bikram Singh
(C) Romila Thapar
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

8. World Consumer Rights Day is observed on—
(A) March 12
(B) March 15
(C) March 23
(D) March 24
Answer: (B)

9. The Government of India has declared……as the National Day for the Girl Child.
(A) February 25
(B) January 27
(C) March 22
(D) January 24
Answer: (D)

10. In 2007-08, Enrollment rate for Muslim children increased to—
(A) 8・41%
(B) 10・49%
(C) 9・39%
(D) 7・25%
Answer: (B)

11. The 75th edition of Ranji Trophy was won by—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Railways
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Mumbai
Answer: (D)

12. Recently, the scientist who came into news is—
(A) Albert Einstein
(B) Charles Darwin
(C) Newton
(D) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer: (B)

13. In the Interim Budget 2009-10 the Government of India has allocated for its flagship programs, the amount of—
(A) Rs. 112,571 crore
(B) Rs. 122, 841 crore
(C) Rs. 131,317 crore
(D) Rs. 451,311 crore
Answer: (C)

14. The new Prime Minister of Zimbabwe is—
(A) Robert Mugabe
(B) Morgan Tsvangirai
(C) Thabo Mbeki
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

15. In recently held elections in Israel, the political party which emerged largest in terms of number of seats is—
(A) Likud Party
(B) Kadima Party
(C) Labour Party
(D) Yisrael Beiteinu
Answer: (A)

16. 35th National Games will be held in—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Answer: (D)

17. Prashant Prakash and Kalki Koechlin are the winners of—
(A) Padma Shree
(B) Metro Plus Playwright Award
(C) Assam Ratna
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

18. The winner of Duleep Trophy is—
(A) East Zone
(B) South Zone
(C) West Zone
(D) North Zone
Answer: (C)

19. The Punjab Gold Cup has been won by—
(A) Poland
(B) The Netherlands
(C) England
(D) Norway
Answer: (B)

20. World Social Forum meeting was recently held in—
(A) Paris
(B) Belem
(C) Davos
(D) Moscow
Answer: (B)

21. The controversial Pakistani scientist who was recently in news is—
(A) Abdul Jamal
(B) Shah Mahmood Qureshi
(C) Kazi Hussain
(D) Abdul Qadir Khan
Answer: (D)

22. The new Chairman of Satyam Computer Services is—
(A) Kiran Karnik
(B) Prem Chand Gupta
(C) Habil Khorkiwala
(D) R. N. Mittal
Answer: (A)

23. In Iraqi Parliamentary elections Prime Minister Nouri-Al-Maliki’s candidates have won in—
(A) 14 provinces
(B) 9 provinces
(C) 8 provinces
(D) 7 provinces
Answer: (B)

24. In the latest ICC ODI (Team) ranking, India has occupied—
(A) No. 2 position
(B) No. 3 position
(C) No. 4 position
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)

25. The Sustainable Leadership Award has been given to—
(A) R. K. Pachauri
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Ban Ki-Moon
(D) Arundhati Roy
Answer: (C)

26. ‘QUARK 2009’ is—
(A) An exhibition on peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy
(B) India’s ambitious project to Mars
(C) India-Russia joint noval exercise
(D) Annual-National level technical festival of BITs Pilani
Answer: (D)

27. ‘Best Executive 2008’ by Asia-money magazine has been given to—
(A) S. M. Natrajan
(B) O. P. Bhatt
(C) Ravinder Zutshi
(D) C. B. Bhav
Answer: (B)

28. Twelve new frog species have been found in—
(A) Konkan region
(B) Malwa
(C) Eastern Ghats
(D) Western Ghats
Answer: (D)

29. Sheik Sharif Ahmed is the new President of—
(A) Uganda
(B) Rwanda
(C) Somalia
(D) Morocco
Answer: (C)

30. India’s Moon Impact Probe (MIP) landed on Moon’s Surface on—
(A) November 10, 2008
(B) November 11, 2008
(C) November 14, 2008
(D) November 15, 2008
Answer: (C)

31. Stolt Valor which was recently hijacked by sea-pirates belongs to—
(A) Germany
(B) Japan
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Saudi Arabia
Answer: (B)

32. During the Egyptian President’s visit to India in November 2008 five pacts were signed with Egypt. Which of the following was not signed?
(A) Pact in the field of health and medicine
(B) Agreement on purchasing petrol at cheaper rate
(C) An extradition treaty
(D) Agreement on abolition of visa for specific categories
Answer: (B)

33. Hosni Mubarak, Egyptian President who recently visited India, has been the President of his country since—
(A) 1971
(B) 1981
(C) 1961
(D) 1990
Answer: (B)

34. On November 12, 2008 India test fired successfully Shourya missile. It is a—
(A) Air to air missile
(B) Air to surface missile
(C) Surface to surface missile
(D) Surface to sea missile
Answer: (C)

35. ITR stands for—
(A) International Tariff Rate
(B) Integrated Trial Rate
(C) Integrated Trial Range
(D) Integrated Test Range
Answer: (D)

36. Recently National River Status has been granted to—
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Ganga
(C) Sindhu
(D) Brahmaputra
Answer: (B)

37. Pt. Bhimsen Joshi who has been declared ‘Bharat Ratna’ winner was born in—
(A) Gadag
(B) Palakkad
(C) Pune
(D) Mysore
Answer: (A)

38. Under the revised pay scale of Judges as approved by the Union Cabinet on November 27, 2008, which of the following pairs/matches is not correct?
(A) Chief Justice of India—Rs. 1 lakh per month
(B) Chief Justice of the High Court—Rs. 90,000 per month
(C) Judge of the High Court—Rs. 80,000 per month
(D) Judge of the Supreme Court—Rs. 85,000 per month
Answer: (D)

39. The Security forces of India launched……to flush out terrorists which wreaked havoc in Mumbai in the last week of November 2008.
(A) Operation Liberate Mumbai
(B) Operation Sea Storm
(C) Operation Black Tornadoes
(D) Operation Thunder storm
Answer: (C)

40. The highest number of electoral college votes during U.S.A. Presidential Election belongs to—
(A) California
(B) Florida
(C) Connecticut
(D) Virginia
Answer: (A)

41. In U.S.A. Presidential election, 2008 Barack Obama got—
(A) 371 electoral college votes
(B) 320 electoral college votes
(C) 364 electoral college votes
(D) 360 electoral college votes
Answer: (C)

42. The author of which of the following is not Barack Obama?
(A) Dream from My Father
(B) Thoughts on Reclaiming Dream
(C) It Takes a Nation: How Strangers Became Family
(D) My Great America
Answer: (D)

43. European Union-Russia summit was held recently at—
(A) Nice
(B) Bonn
(C) St. Petersburg
(D) London
Answer: (A)

44. Abu Dhabi was recently in news for hosting—
(A) Arab Women’s Conference
(B) OPEC Summit
(C) APEC Summit
(D) Arab League Summit
Answer: (A)

45. By an agreement between Iraq and the U.S.A., the latter has committed to withdraw its troops from Iraq by—
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2009
(D) 2012
Answer: (B)

46. BIMSTEC is—
(A) Seven-member nation organization
(B) Eight-member nation organization
(C) Nine-member organization
(D) Six-member nation organization
Answer: (A)

47. Recently BIMSTEC held its—
(A) Third Summit
(B) Fourth Summit
(C) Second Summit
(D) Fifth Summit
Answer: (C)

48. Which of the following countries leads space launch tally?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) E.U.
Answer: (B)

49. The headquarters of APEC (Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation) is situated at—
(A) Kuala Lumpur
(B) Singapore
(C) Lima
(D) Santiago
Answer: (B)

50. Who has recently been made the first ambassador to the Geneva based Global fund to fight Aids, tuberculosis and malaria?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Britney Spears
(C) Carla Bruni
(D) Zinedine Zidane
Answer: (C)

SBI Clerk Reasoning Exam 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 10 Feb 2012 03:30:00 +0000

Reasoning: (Solved Paper)

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Answer: (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Answer: (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Answer: (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Answer: (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer: (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements: All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions:
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Answer: (C)

12. Statements: All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions:
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Answer: (A)

13. Statements: All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions:
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Answer: (B)

14. Statements: Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions:
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Answer: (D)

15. Statements: All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions:
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Answer: (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow: 489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Answer: (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Answer: (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Answer: (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Answer: (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these:
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 ￡ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as c.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9c$7c%
(B) c9$7%c
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*￡$
(B) #89*￡#
(C) $89*￡#
(D) $89*￡$
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #￡$21*
(B) ￡$21*3
(C) ￡$21*#
(D) #￡$21#
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2c9%#2
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

General Knowledge Sample Paper 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 08 Feb 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Knowledge: (Solved Paper)

1. The Rs. 12,400 crore manned space mission of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is scheduled for launch by—
(A) 2020
(B) 2015
(C) 2030
(D) 2012
Answer: (B)

2. India plans a manned mission to the moon by—
(A) 2020
(B) 2025
(C) 2030
(D) 2012
Answer: (A)

3. A Judge (of a High Court) may be removed from his office by the President in the manner provided in clause (4) of ……… for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court.
(A) Article 125
(B) Article 124
(C) Article 126
(D) Article 127
Answer: (B)

4. In order to remove judges of the Supreme Court or High Court through impeachment proceedings a motion is addressed to the President signed by at least—
(A) 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha
(B) 50 members of Rajya Sabha or 150 members of Lok Sabha
(C) 80 members of Lok Sabha or 30 members of Rajya Sabha
(D) 60 members of Lok Sabha or 70 members of Rajya Sabha
Answer: (A)

5. Recently India and US have signed a pact on—
(A) petroleum
(B) bio fuels
(C) atomic energy
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

6. According to the UNICEF’s flagship report, ‘State of the World’s Children’ (2009) the number of women dying every year in India in Child Births is—
(A) 75000
(B) 77000
(C) 70000
(D) 78000
Answer: (D)

7. The Planning Commission has approved an ambitious scheme known as the Van Panchayat Yojna aiming at achieving the target of covering …………… of India’s geographical area with trees.
(A) 35%
(B) 40%
(C) 33%
(D) 28%
Answer: (C)

8. The Latest Forest Survey of India says that only ………… of the country’s land was covered with trees.
(A) 30%
(B) 22%
(C) 23%
(D) 20%
Answer: (C)

9. India has recently signed a pact for supply of reactors with—
(A) Areva
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Russia
(D) Japan
Answer: (A)

10. The last U.S.A. military base in Central Asia which was voted out by Kyrgyzstan’s Parliament was situated at—
(A) Manas
(B) Astana
(C) Bishkek
(D) Tashkant
Answer: (A)

11. Currently the Prime Minister of Iceland is—
(A) Geir Haarde
(B) Hugo Chavez
(C) Johanna Sigurdardottir
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

12. ……… Delhi Sustainable Development Summit (DSDS) was organised by The Energy and Resource Institute (TERI) in New Delhi recently—Fill in the blank with—
(A) Tenth
(B) Ninth
(C) Eleventh
(D) Eighth
Answer: (B)

13. BDR stands for—
(A) Border Development Force
(B) Border District Development
(C) Bangladesh Rifles
(D) Bangladesh Development Rifles
Answer: (C)

14. Zillur Rahman is the new President of—
(A) Malaysia
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Maldives
(D) Kazakhstan
Answer: (B)

15. Slumdog Millionaire won the Oscar Awards in—
(A) Eight categories
(B) Seven categories
(C) Six categories
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)

16. The Oscar Award for Best Actress has been bagged by—
(A) Dustin Lance Black
(B) Kate Winslet
(C) Vicky Christina
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

17. Sean Penn has got the Oscar Award 2009 for—
(A) Best Actor
(B) Best Director
(C) Adapted Screenplay
(D) Original Song
Answer: (A)

18. According to a recent report the percentage of all immigrant founded companies in last ten years founded by Indian immigrant is—
(A) 26%
(B) 30%
(C) 35%
(D) 40%
Answer: (A)

19. STPF stands for—
(A) Special Task Protection Force
(B) Special Tiger Protection Force
(C) Special Tiger Police Force
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

20. According to the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP) report the country which tops the World Hunger Chart is—
(A) Sierra Leone
(B) India
(C) Somalia
(D) Pakistan
Answer: (B)

21. ‘Daughters of Shame’ is a book written by—
(A) Jasvinder Sanghera
(B) Mehar Fatima Hussain
(C) Kermit Roosevelt
(D) Shazia Aziz
Answer: (A)

22. Earth Day is observed on—
(A) April 22
(B) April 17
(C) April 30
(D) April 24
Answer: (A)

23. The winner of Chappell-Hadlee Trophy is—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Australia
(C) India
(D) West Indies
Answer: (B)

24. NPs Aulakh has been appointed as the new Chief of—
(A) National Security Guard
(B) Research and Analysis Wing
(C) Central Bureau of Investigation
(D) National Investigation Agency
Answer: (A)

25. According to recent estimates of Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) during 2008-09 India’s national income will grow at—
(A) 8・8%
(B) 10%
(C) 7・1%
(D) 8・5%
Answer: (C)

26. The winner of Australian Open Tennis Women’s Singles Title is—
(A) Dinara Safin
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Venus Williams
Answer: (B)

27. Navin Chawla has been appointed as the new—
(A) Director General of Border Security Force
(B) National Security Guards Chief
(C) Central Bureau of Investigation Chief
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
Answer: (D)

28. The winner of Australian Open Tennis Men’s Singles Title is—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Mahesh Bhupati
(C) Andy Murray
(D) Rafael Nadal
Answer: (D)

29. Indian Cricket team is the number …………… team in the latest ICC’s One Day ranking.
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
Answer: (B)

30. G-20 Finance Ministers meeting recently took place in—
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) New Delhi
(D) Horsham
Answer: (D)

31. Who among the following personalities recently visited India?
(A) Hillary Clinton
(B) Bill Clinton
(C) Martin Luther King III
(D) Martin Luther King IV
Answer: (C)

32. The World Wide Web (WWW) on March 13, 2009 marked its—
(A) 25th anniversary
(B) 30th anniversary
(C) 20th anniversary
(D) 35th anniversary
Answer: (C)

33. Luther L. Terry Award has been given to—
(A) K. Srinath Reddy
(B) K. Vishwanath
(C) Ronald M. Davis
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)

34. Who has recently overtaken Warren Buffet as world’s richest man?
(A) Mukesh Ambani
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Bill Gates
(D) Ratan Tata
Answer: (C)

35. The President of which of the following countries visited India in March 2009—
(A) Yugoslavia
(B) Benin
(C) Macedonia
(D) Turkey
Answer: (B)

36. According to Economist Intelligence Unit recent Survey the world’s costliest city is—
(A) New York
(B) Mumbai
(C) Washington
(D) Tokyo
Answer: (D)

37. The former Israeli President who has been charged with rape is—
(A) Benjamin Nitinyahu
(B) Shimon Peres
(C) Moshe Katsav
(D) Ariel Sharon
Answer: (C)

38. According to Tobacco Atlas in India roughly the number of people who are consuming tobacco is—
(A) 250 million
(B) 230 million
(C) 220 million
(D) 225 million
Answer: (B)

39. INS Viraat—the sole aircraft carrier in the Indian Ocean of the Indian Navy will celebrate its ………… in
November 2009.
(A) Golden Jubilee
(B) Silver Jubilee
(C) Diamond Jubilee
(D) Platinum Jubilee
Answer: (A)

40. India recently launched Interceptor Missile on March 6, 2009 for—
(A) the fourth time
(B) the fifth time
(C) the third time
(D) the second time
Answer: (C)

41. The Chief Guest on 60th Republic Day of India was—
(A) Kazakhstan’s President
(B) Uzbekistan’s President
(C) Tajikistan’s President
(D) Kyrgyzstan’s President
Answer: (A)

42. The number of members of Global Advisory Council constituted by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 30
Answer: (A)

43. This year Pravasi Bhartiya Divas was celebrated in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Madras
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
Answer: (C)

44. Which of the following recently celebrated its Platinum Jubilee?
(A) Indian Space Research Organisation
(B) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(C) Indian National Science Academy
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

45. The new Research and Analysis wing Chief is—
(A) Radha Vinod Raju
(B) M. N. Prasad
(C) J. K. Sodhi
(D) K. C. Verma
Answer: (D)

46. Which of the following Indian cricketers has not been inducted in ICC’s Hall of Fame?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Bishen Singh Bedi
Answer: (A)

47. According to a recently published report, the State/Union Territory which has occupied top spot in Education index is—
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Kerala
(C) Pondicherry
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (C)

48. The runner-up in Australian Open 2009 (Men’s Singles) is—
(A) Rafael Nadal
(B) Mahesh Bhupati
(C) Roger Federer
(D) Andy Murray
Answer: (C)

49. The runner-up in Australian Open (Women’s Singles) 2009 is—
(A) Dinara Safin
(B) Venus William
(C) Serena William
(D) Sania Mirza
Answer: (A)

50. The winner of Parsvanath International Open Chess Tournament is—
(A) Mikhail Ulibin
(B) Surya Shekhar Ganguly
(C) Samresh Jung
(D) O. Sullevan
Answer: (B)

General Awareness Sample Paper

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 27 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Awareness: (Solved Paper)

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability
Answer: (d)

2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency
Answer: (a)

3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
Answer: (b)

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
Answer: (c)

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
Answer: (a)

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (d)

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
Answer: (b)

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
Answer: (b)

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (a)

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
Answer: (b)

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.
Answer: (d)

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
Answer: (a)

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
Answer: (a)

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
Answer: (b)

15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
Answer: (c)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
Answer: (b)

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
Answer: (d)

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
Answer: (a)

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
Answer: (a)

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
Answer: (b)

21. Gober gas (Bio-gas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
Answer: (a)

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
Answer: (b)

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
Answer: (b)

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
Answer: (a)

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
Answer: (a)

26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
Answer: (d)

27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
Answer: (c)

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
Answer: (d)

29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
Answer: (d)

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
Answer: (a)

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
Answer: (c)

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"
(d) "all other things decreasing"
Answer: (c)

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
Answer: (c)

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
Answer: (a)

35. India's biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
Answer: (c)

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
Answer: (d)

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (d)

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called?
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
Answer: (a)

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
Answer: (a)

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
Answer: (b)

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
Answer: (d)

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
Answer: (a)

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
Answer: (b)

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
Answer: (a)

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer: (c)

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
Answer: (c)

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
Answer: (d)

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
Answer: (d)

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
Answer: (b)

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
Answer: (a)

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
Answer: (c)

52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
Answer: (d)

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
Answer: (d)

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
Answer: (b)

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
Answer: (a)

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
Answer: (b)

57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
Answer: (c)

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
Answer: (d)

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
Answer: (c)

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
Answer: (d)

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
Answer: (a)

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
Answer: (a)

63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
Answer: (a)

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
Answer: (a)

65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
Answer: (d)

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
Answer: (a)

67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
Answer: (b)

68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
Answer: (b)

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
Answer: (a)

70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
Answer: (a)

71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
Answer: (b)

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
Answer: (d)

73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
Answer: (a)

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
Answer: (d)

75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
Answer: (a)

SBI Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 25 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

Quantitative Aptitude: (Solved Paper)

Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 =?
(A) 1156
(B) 1200
(C) 1188
(D) 1176
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 =?
(A) 1050
(B) 1024
(C) 1048
(D) 1036
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

3. 3.5 + 11.25 × 4.5 – 32.5 =?
(A) 18・275
(B) 21・625
(C) 32・375
(D) 25・45
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) =?
(A) 3520
(B) 3515
(C) 3495
(D) 3490
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 =?
(A) 14328
(B) 14438
(C) 13428
(D) 13248
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 =?
(A) 36.585
(B) 30.082
(C) 32.085
(D) 35.066
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103
(A) 33
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ?
(A) 594
(B) 572
(C) 581
(D) 563
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3.5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37: 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond?
(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a ratio of 4: 5: 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively?
(A) 13: 10: 18
(B) 10: 13: 17
(C) 13: 15: 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233.5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years?
(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Answer: (E)

18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per liter of milk, when he sells 240 liters of milk?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3.5
(C) Rs. 2.5
(D) Rs. 1.5
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. When serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced?
(A) 8.2 hours
(B) 6.5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7.2 hours
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 =?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Answer: (C)

23. 37.35 + 13.064 × 3.46 =?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Answer: (B)

24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 =?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(C) 1196
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
Answer: (A)

Dena Bank Clerical Grade Staff Recruitment 2008

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 20 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

English Language: (Solved Paper)

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

An old tailor and his wife lived on the outskirts of a city. They had a daughter whom they both loved very much and as she was about to be married they took great pains to save money. The man toiled for long hours and his wife worked too. With the money they saved they purchased a few ornaments and kept them in a small wooden box for safekeeping. One day their hut caught fire. The man and his wife escaped just in time but the fire spread rapidly and soon engulfed the whole house. The neighbours soon gathered around and would not allow the man to risk his life and enter the house to save the precious ornaments. They drew water from nearby wells to pour onto the fire. A young traveller saw the poor man in tears and said, “Why are you so upset? Your house can soon be rebuilt". "It is not my house that I am shedding tears for", the tailor replied, "But the ornaments that we have bought for our daughter. Now we shall not be able to give her the wedding gift we worked so hard for!" The traveller thought for a while and seeing the plight of the poor man decide to help, but for a price. "I will help you on condition that I will give you only what I like." The poor man was so desperate to salvage a few of the ornaments at least that he agreed.
The young man entered the house carefully and located the box hidden exactly where the old man had said it would be. He came out of the house with the box, opened it, removed the ornaments and returned the box to the tailor. The old man was bewildered. "But the ornaments are mine. Why have you done this?" the tailor asked. "I agreed to give you what I liked and so I have given you the box", the young man retorted cheekily. The neighbours were annoyed with the young man but could think of no solution. The old man had agreed to the condition after all. But his wife intervened. "Let us go to the magistrate. He is a just man. Surely he will find a solution. "The young man was not willing to go to the magistrate but the neighbours insisted. When he heard the story the magistrate realized the young man had taken advantage of the poor tailor. "You told the tailor that you would give him what you liked and he agreed, is that correct?" he asked. "Yes, I will give you what I like were my exact words", the young man replied. "do you like the ornaments?" the magistrate questioned. "Yes of course!" Well as you like the ornaments you have to give them back to the old man as was agreed between you. "The young man realized that he had been outwitted.

1. Why did the tailor work very hard?
(1) To save money so that his wife and he could live comfortably in their old age.
(2) To have enough money to give his daughter a lavish wedding.
(3) To earn enough to rebuild his house.
(4) To buy his daughter ornaments as a wedding gift with the money he earned.
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)

2. How did the neighbours react when they saw the fire?
(1) They attempted to put out the fire
(2) They prevented the tailor from saving the ornaments because they were jealous of his new wealth.
(3) They requested the young traveller to rescue the ornaments.
(4) They stood by and allowed the fire to burn down the house.
(5) All of them only gathered around and comforted the tailor.
Answer: (1)

3. Which of the following can be said about the tailor?
(1) He was greedy and cared only about saving the ornaments he owned.
(2) He was cheated by the traveller.
(3) He was dishonest because he had no intention of honouring the agreement he had made with the young man.
(4) He had a poor memory and could not remember exactly where he had kept the ornaments.
(5) He did not want to risk his own life to save the ornaments.
Answer: (2)

4. Why did the tailor cry during the fire?
(1) Only his wife and he could escape and he did not know where his daughter was.
(2) He was afraid for the young man's safety.
(3) He was worried about the cost of rebuilding his house.
(4) His neighbours had refused to help him to rescue the ornaments.
(5) He was helpless to save the ornaments he had bought for his daughter.
Answer: (5)

5. Which of the following is TRU about the traveller?
(a) He was a cheat
(b) He wanted a reward for rescuing the ornaments.
(c) He did the old man a good turn by saving the ornaments.
(1) Only (a)
(2) Both (a) & (b)
(3) Only (c)
(4) Only (b)
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)

6. Why did the tailor agree to the condition that the young man had laid down?
(a) He was afraid to save the ornaments himself.
(b) His wife advised him to do so.
(c) It was important to him to save the ornaments.
(1) All (a), (b) & (c)
(2) Both (a) & (b)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (c)
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)

7. How was the dispute resolved?
(1) The magistrate confiscated the ornaments and did not give them to either the tailor or the traveller.
(2) The magistrate took the tailor's side and sent the young man to jail.
(3) The neighbours requested the young man to return the ornaments to the tailor.
(4) The young man felt sorry for the tailor and returned the ornaments.
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The young man had difficulty locating the ornaments inside the hut.
(2) The neighbours support the young man's claim
(3) The young man was the rightful owner of the ornaments.
(4) The tailor and his wife were badly hurt in the fire.
(5) The young man wanted a reward for helping the tailor.
Answer: (5)

9. What did the young man do with the box that he recovered from the burning house?
(1) He emptied the contents and gave the empty box to the tailor
(2) He kept the box and refused to hand it over.
(3) He hid the box.
(4) He handed the box over to the magistrate.
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)

10. What was the magistrate's opinion about the young man?
(a) He was a helpful person who had risked his life for the tailor.
(b) He was a cheat.
(c) He deserved to be punished and sent to jail.
(1) Only (a)
(2) Both (b) and (c)
(3) Only (b)
(4) Only (c)
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)

Q. 11-13. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. Plight
(1) Sight
(2) Nature
(3) Health
(4) Purpose
(5) Difficulty
Answer: (5)

12. Pains
(1) Sadness
(2) Efforts
(3) Aches
(4) Insults
(5) Cramps
Answer: (2)

13. Just
(1) Even
(2) Right
(3) Strict
(4) Objective
(5) Deserved
Answer: (2)

Q. 14-15. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

14. Desperate
(1) Hopeful
(2) Careful
(3) Unimportant
(4) Critical
(5) Hopeless
Answer: (1)

15. Annoyed
(1) Agreed
(2) Enjoyed
(3) Patient
(4) Happy
(5) Worried
Answer: (4)

Q.16-25. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error'. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

16. The new project is (1) to big for (2) the trainee to handle (3) on his own (4) No error (5)
Answer: (2)

17. The explanation that (1) he gave for (2) missing the meeting (3) were not satisfactory (4). No error. (5)
Answer: (4)

18. Mr. Singh's son has applied (1) to the post (2) of Assistant Manager (3) in a construction company (4). No error. (5)
Answer: (2)

19. The manager has sent (1) many reminders to Mr Rao (2) to repay the loan but (3) has not received no reply. (4) No error. (5)
Answer: (4)

20. Beside the Chairman (1) all the Committee members (2) were present (3) at the shareholders meeting. (4) No error. (5)
Answer: (1)

21. He submitted (1) the request for compensation (2) of time but (3) it was denied (4). No error. (5)
Answer: (4)

22. Unfortunately today many (1) parents cannot afford (2) to send its (3) children to school (4). No error. (5)
Answer: (3)

23. He was convinced (1) that he (2) loss the account (3) because of bad luck. (4) No error. (5)
Answer: (3)

24. Many customers have (1) complained because (2) his goods was (3) inferior in quality. (4). No error.(5)
Answer: (3)

25. In his opinion (1) every senior citizens (2) will benefit (3) from the new rule. (4) No error. (5)
Answer: (2)

Q. 26-30. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and there is ‘No correction required', mark (5) as the answer.

26. We usual have a meeting of all department heads every Friday.
(1) as usual has
(2) as usually have
(3) usually have
(4) unusually have
(5) No correction required
Answer: (3)

27. Over fifty per cent of people in the country not have any access to banking services.
(1) have not any
(2) are having not
(3) does not have
(4) do not have any
(5) No correction required
Answer: (4)

28. Anil's friends have convinced him withdrawn his resignation.
(1) in withdrawing him
(2) for withdrawal of
(3) to withdraw from his
(4) to withdraw his
(5) No correction required
Answer: (4)

29. India and China have many large number of educated workers than Brazil.
(1) a larger number
(2) the largest number
(3) large numbers
(4) very larger number
(5) No correction required
Answer: (1)

30. Many accidents at the factory are caused of workers do not read warning signs.
(1) is the cause of
(2) are caused by
(3) are caused because
(4) are a cause of
(5) No correction required
Answer: (3)

Q. 31-35. In each sentence below, four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) & (4). One of these boldly printed words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence or grammatically incorrect. The number of that word is the answer. If there is no error of any of the above types, the answer is (5) i.e. "All correct".

31. Shareholders used to be liable (1) for the debts (2) of the company in proportion (3) to the size (4) of their holdings. (4) All correct. (5)
Answer: (1)

32. The popular (1) understanding (2) of the incidence (3) was that he had resigned. (4) All correct. (5)
Answer: (3)

33. He was felicitated (1) for his roll (2) in resolving (3) the conflict (4) in the region. All correct. (5)
Answer: (2)

34. He firmly (1) denied (2) that the document (3) existed. (4) All correct. (5)
Answer: (5)

35. Today banks offer (1) the facility (2) of instant (3) transfer (4) of funds to their customers. All correct. (5)
Answer: (3)

Q. 36-40. Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) His friend, however, used to lose his temper at the slightest excuse.
(b) Socrates however quietly said, "I was expecting this, after thunder comes rain."
(c) One day this friend decided to test Socrates' self-control.
(d) Since Socrates paid no attention to the insults he emptied a bucket of water over him.
(e) Socrates, the Greek philosopher tried hard to control himself and never lost his temper.
(f) He began to shout at the philosopher and even insulted him.

36. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Answer: (5)

37. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Answer: (1)

38. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
Answer: (3)

39. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Answer: (3)

40. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
Answer: (5)

Q. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Though most of us know him (41) for his lightning and kite experiment, Ben Franklin was first and (42) a printer. Born humbly in Boston in 1706, he was the fifteenth (43) seventeen children of a poor candle maker. At the (44) age of seventeen he went to Philadelphia, where after working for others he (45) his own printing shop. Printing (46) Ben to writing and writing to publishing and publishing to business success and (47). He was passionate about writing and to satisfy this (48) he taught himself science, philosophy and languages. In time he became the (49) known writer of the English speaking world and many of his works remain (50) read even today.

41.
(1) except
(2) best
(3) hardly
(4) greatly
(5) sometimes
Answer: (2)

42.
(1) previous
(2) only
(3) foremost
(4) above
(5) lastly
Answer: (3)

43.
(1) between
(2) before
(3) with
(4) besides
(5) of
Answer: (5)

44.
(1) elder
(2) early
(3) delicate
(4) old
(5) tough
Answer: (3)

45.
(1) set
(2) establish
(3) opened
(4) shared
(5) purchase
Answer: (3)

46.
(1) led
(2) send
(3) showed
(4) followed
(5) take
Answer: (1)

47.
(1) failure
(2) character
(3) fame
(4) defeat
(5) poverty
Answer: (3)

48.
(1) call
(2) worry
(3) problem
(4) conflict
(5) need
Answer: (5)

49.
(1) best
(2) well
(3) fine
(4) leading
(5) excellent
Answer: (1)

50.
(1) partly
(2) wisely
(3) rarely
(4) widely
(5) almost
Answer: (4)

SBI Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 18 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge

1. A keyboard is this kind of device—
(A) black
(B) input
(C) output
(D) word Processing
(E) None of these

Answer: (B)

2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—
(A) disk
(B) data
(C) file
(D) floppy
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling
(B) pushing
(C) downloading
(D) transferring
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

6. Which part of the computer helps to store information?
(A) Disk drive
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar
(B) button
(C) dialog box
(D) window
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer
(B) menu
(C) icon
(D) button
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug
(B) debug
(C) cursor
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

15. Promotion in Marketing means—
(A) passing an examination
(B) elevation from one grade to another
(C) selling the products through various means
(D) selling the product in specific areas
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

17. Sources of Sales Leads are—
(A) Data Mining
(B) Market Research
(C) Media Outlets
(D) Promotional Programs
(E) All of these
Answer: (E)

18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage
(B) output
(C) input
(D) information
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

19. Which part of the computer displays the work done?
(A) RAM
(B) printer
(C) monitor
(D) ROM
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

21. Market Expansion means—
(A) hiring more staff
(B) firing more staff
(C) buying more products
(D) buying more companies
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—
(A) program
(B) command
(C) user response
(D) processor
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

23. Effective marketing helps in—
(A) developing new products
(B) creating a competitive environment
(C) building demand for products
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel?
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Programs
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

25. A Call in Marketing means—
(A) to phone the customers
(B) to visit the customers
(C) to visit the marketing site
(D) to call on prospective customers
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

26. Delivery Channel means—
(A) maternity wards
(B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

27. Processing involves—
(A) inputting data into a computer system
(B) transforming input into output
(C) displaying output in a useful manner
(D) providing relevant answers
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking?
(A) All the customers
(B) All the educated customers
(C) All the computer educated customers
(D) Only creditors
(E) All of these
Answer: (C)

29. Innovation mean—
(A) Product Designing
(B) New ideas
(C) Impulse
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan?
(A) All the customers
(B) Students
(C) Only poor students
(D) Students having promising educational track record
(E) All of these
Answer: (B)

31. Service after sale is not the function of—
(A) Marketing staff
(B) Seller
(C) Director of the company
(D) Employees of the company
(E) All of the above are wrong
Answer: (A)

32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.
(A) fairs
(B) village fairs
(C) door to door campaign
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

33. Market Survey means—
(A) Market Research
(B) Market Planning
(C) Marketing Strategies
(D) Market Monitering
(E) All of these
Answer: (A)

34. ………can be done through digital Banking?
(A) Mobile phone
(B) Internet
(C) Telephone
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities?
(A) Devotion to the work
(B) Submissive
(C) Sympathy
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

36. The rural marketing is not required because—
(A) rural people do not understand marketing
(B) it’s not practical from the cost point of view
(C) it is sheer wastage of time
(D) All are wrong
(E) All are correct
Answer: (D)

37. Planned-cost service means—
(A) Costly products
(B) Extra profit on the same cost
(C) Extra work by seller
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

38. Internet marketing means—
(A) Self-marketing
(B) Core Groups monitoring
(C) Employees marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

39. The aim of successful marketing is—
(A) to increase the sale
(B) to increase the profit
(C) to increase the output of sellers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

40. The networking becomes……through networking.
(A) very difficult
(B) dull
(C) easy
(D) has no role in marketing
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

Corporation Bank Probationary Officer Exam 2007

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 13 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Knowledge: (Solved Paper)

1. Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of –
(a) Italy
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) South Africa
(e) Britain
Answer: (E)

2. Justice A.R.Lakshmanan’s name was recently in news as he has taken over as the-
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chairman of the 18th Law Commission
(c) Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(e) None of these
Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following was the name of the space shuttle which brought Sunita Williams and few others on the earth recently?
(a) California
(b) Mir Space
(c) Boston Marathon
(d) Edwards
(e) Atlantis
Answer: (E)

4. The Government of India recently announced a special Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana so that States can better their Agricultural output and performance. The size of the package is around –
(a) Rs. 20,000 crore
(b) Rs. 25,000 crore
(c) Rs. 30,000 crore
(d) Rs. 35,000 crore
(e) Rs. 40,000 crore
Answer: (B)

5. Which of the following organizations/agencies has recently floated a Private Equity (PE) Fund with an initial corpus of Rs. 100 crore to help its client to further expand their business activities?
(a) NABARD
(b) SIDBI
(c) ECGC
(d) IDBI Bank
(e) None of these
Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its educational portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Infosys
(c) Wipro
(d) TCS
(e) None of these
Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following monuments of India is now one of the Seven New Wonders of the World?
(a) Mughal Garden of the Rashtrapati Bhawan
(b) Dal Lake of Srinagar
(c) Gol Gumbaj of Bijapur
(d) Victoria Memorial of Kolkata
(e) Taj Mahal
Answer: (E)

8. The Indian Navy recently commissioned its new Warship ‘INS Jalashwa’. The ship is acquired from-
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) Germany
(e) U.S.A
Answer: (E)

9. Which of the following activities does not form a part of the functions of a well established Banking Company?
(a) Liquidity Management
(b) Forex Management
(c) Outsourcing Back room operators
(d) Enhancing/Forecasting/Monitoring cash flow
(e) Frequency Modulation of Delivery channels
Answer: (E)

10. A steeprise in the share prices of which of the following Group of Companies recently has made its Chairman India’s first only trillionire?
(a) Aditya Birla Group of Companies
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Tata Group of Companies
(d) Wipro
(e) None of these
Answer: (B)

11. Which of the following events is not associated with the game of Tennis?
(a) French Open
(b) Australian Open
(c) US Open
(d) Formula Renault V-6
(e) Wimbledon
Answer: (D)

12. Which of the following organizations has celebrated recently its silver jubilee?
(a) ECGC
(b) State Bank of India
(c) SIDBI
(d) SEBI
(e) NABARD
Answer: (E)

13. Who among the following cricketers completed 15,000 runs in ODIs?
(a) Rahul Dravid
(b) Ricky Ponting
(c) Brian Lara
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
(e) Sourav Ganguly
Answer: (D)

14. Which of the following State Governments has set up a committee to consider the claim of the Gujjar community to be included in the list of scheduled tribes?
(a) Punjab
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana
(e) Rajasthan
Answer: (E)

15. With the purpose of raising capital in the share market, the first public issue of share of the company to the investors is called…………..
(a) Initial public proposal
(b) Inclusive proposal
(c) Mutual fund
(d) Haze fund
(e) None of these
Answer: (A)

16. Who among the following chess players won the GM Open Championship, organized recently in Luxembourg?
(a) Vishwanath Anand
(b) Koneru Humpy
(c) K.Shashikaran
(d) P.Harikrishna
(e) None of these
Answer: (B)

17. Which of the following events took place on July 21, 1969, which termed as ‘universal wonder’ in the human history?
(a) Landing of Apollo-II on moon
(b) Invention of atom bomb
(c) Invention of Super computer
(d) Heart transplant
(e) None of these
Answer: (A)

18. Which of the following pairs of countries is the largest arms as per data issued by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, Sweden?
(a) India-China
(b) China-Pakistan
(c) India-Pakistan
(d) Iran-China
(e) None of these
Answer: (A)

19. Recently, Francisco Totty of Italy announced his retirement from international matches. Francisco Totty is a famous player of …………..
(a) Lawn Tennis
(b) Football
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
(e) Golf
Answer: (B)

20. Finance Minister of India, recently, expressed his concern over the falt in production of food grains in India. What has been the approximate quantity of food production during the last few years?
(a) 100 million tonnes
(b) 150 million tonnes
(c) 200 million tonnes
(d) 250 million tonnes
(e) 300 million tonnes
Answer: (C)

21. What approximate amount of help has Mayawati sought from the Center to expedite the development of backward areas of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Rs. 50,000 crore
(b) Rs. 60,000 crore
(c) Rs. 70,000 crore
(d) Rs. 80,000 crore
(e) Rs. 1, 00,000 crore
Answer: (D)

22. Charges of corruption against the Chief Justice were dismissed and termination of his service was cancelled by the Supreme Court of which of the following countries:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) Iran
(e) None of these
Answer: (C)

23. What percentage of rural income is obtained from agricultural activities of the country as per data given to press by the Union Finance Minister in an interview?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 43%
(e) 53%
Answer: (A)

24. In which of the following States, the Government of India is planning to set up a ‘National Institute of Handloom Technology’?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these
Answer: (E)

25. ‘Novartis’ a Swiss based firm is operating in India in big way- Novartis has its business in which of the following sectors in India?
(a) Textile
(b) Diamond Mining
(c) Pharma
(d) Paper Newsprint
(e) Steel and Iron
Answer: (C)

Economic Awareness Model Paper

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 11 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

Financial Awareness/ Economic Awareness: (Solved Question Paper)

1. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India?
(A) 1975
(B) 1947
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
Answer: (A)

2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia
(C) J. S. Mathur
(D) Sushma Nath
Answer: (A)

3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for?
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s Education
(D) Development of Rural India
Answer: (C)

4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All
Answer: (A)

5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
Answer: (A)

6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?
(1) It does not accept deposits.
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(3) Lack of human interface.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
Answer: (D)

7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
Answer: (B)

9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?
(1) Better human resource management
(2) Adequate capital to support risks
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)

10. The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:
(A) Government of India
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
Answer: (D)

11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
Answer: (B)

12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
(A) Union Government
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B)

13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of-
(A) IDA
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) IFC
Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) Bearer cheques
(B) Credit cards
(C) Demand drafts
(D) Gift cheques
Answer: (B)

15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
(A) 1999
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
Answer: (A)

16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
Answer: (B)

17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
Answer: (B)

18. In India, income tax is levied by
(A) Union Government
(B) State Governments
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) RBI
Answer: (A)

19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
Answer: (B)

20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
(A) National Bank
(B) Cooperative Bank
(C) Scheduled Bank
(D) Unscheduled Bank
Answer: (C)

State Bank of India Management Executive Recruitment Exam

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 06 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Knowledge: (Solved Paper)

1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) IMF
(D) It is known by its name
Answer: (A)

2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1920
(C) 1928
(D) 1947
Answer: (A)

3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
Answer: (B)

4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
Answer: (B)

5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
Answer: (D)

6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
Answer: (C)

7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Chanakya
(C) Machiavelli
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)

8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) ICICI
Answer: (B)

9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money
(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these
Answer: (B)

10. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) Bearer cheques
(B) Credit cards
(C) Demand drafts
(D) Gift cheques
Answer: (B)

11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour?
(A) The length of time involved in the buying process
(B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity
(C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit
(D) The complexity of an order
Answer: (A)

12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process?
(A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation
Answer: (A)

13. Needs differ from wants because:
(A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs
(B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants
(C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future
(D) Needs and wants are exactly the same
Answer: (A)

14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Love
(C) Security
(D) Physiological
Answer: (A)

15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form?
(A) The choice set
(B) The awareness set
(C) The total set
(D) The pre-evaluation set
Answer: (A)

16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by large numbers of the company's target market as:
(A) A primary reference group.
(B) A tertiary reference group.
(C) A secondary reference group.
(D) A non-reference group.
Answer: (B)

17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase?
(A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good
(B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product
(C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product
(D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier
Answer: (A)

18. Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit?
(A) Supplier
(B) Gatekeeper
(C) Decision maker
(D) User
Answer: (B)

19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit?
(A) User
(B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Buyer
Answer: (C)

20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System?
(A) Marketing research
(B) Decision support system
(C) Production monitoring system
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)

SBI Clerk Recruitment 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 04 Jan 2012 03:30:00 +0000

General Knowledge: (Solved Paper)

1. Which of the following places was known as a centre of learning in ancient India?
(1) Nalanda
(2) Ujjain
(3) Allahabad
(4) None of these
Answer: (1)

2. The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of the particles themselves is Called?
(1) Conduction
(2) Convection
(3) Radiation
(4) None of these
Answer: (1)

3. Only zero and one are used for operating
(1) Calculator
(2) Computer
(3) Abacus
(4) Typewriter
Answer: (2)

4. Transistor is
(1) Semi-conductor
(2) Inductor
(3) Modulator
(4) Demodulator
Answer: (1)

5. Computer cannot
(1) Send message
(2) Abstract thought
(3) Read files
(4) Play music
Answer: (2)

6. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?
(1) Wax
(2) Starch
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
Answer: (1)

7. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?
(1) Vitamin B
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin A
(4) Vitamin E
Answer: (3)

8. Which of the following is the vaccine for tuberculosis?
(1) OPT
(2) BCG
(3) Salk vaccine
(4) Rubella vaccine
Answer: (2)

9. Horns, nails and hair are
(1) Soluble fats
(2) Insoluble carbohydrates
(3) Keratin proteins
(4) Complex lipids
Answer: (3)

10. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections?
(1) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
(2) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(3) Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Governor of the State concerned
Answer: (3)

11. Which is an ore of aluminium?
(1) Chromite
(2) Cuprite
(3) Bauxite
(4) Siderite
Answer: (3)

12. Kalidas was
(1) A poet during the Gupta period.
(2) A dramatist during Harshvardhana’s reign.
(3) An astronomer during Gupta period.
(4) None of these
Answer: (1)

13. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles?
(1) Plain
(2) Convex
(3) Concave
(4) Spherical
Answer: (2)

14. The compilation Meri Ekyawan Kavitayen is by
(1) A.B. Vajpayee
(2) Harivansh Rai Bachchan
(3) Dharam Vir Bharti
(4) Shiv Mangal Singh Suman
Answer: (1)

15. ‘Equinox’ means
(1) Days are longer than nights.
(2) Days and nights are equal.
(3) Days are shorter than nights
(4) None of these
Answer: (2)

16. Who was known as “Nightingale of India”?
(1) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
(2) Sarojini Naidu
(3) Suraiya
(4) None of these
Answer: (2)

17. Gaya is associated with Lord Buddha, where he
(1) was born
(2) attained enlightenment
(3) died
(4) delivered his first sermon
Answer: (2)

18. Chemical change does not take place in
(1) souring of milk into curd
(2) rusting of iron in atmosphere
(3) burning of magnesium ribbon in air
(4) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire
Answer: (4)

19. Who is the highest wicket-taker in Indian Cricket team?
(1) Javagal Srinath
(2) Anil Kumble
(3) Maninder Singh
(4) Kapil Dev
Answer: (2)

20. Which country leads in production of aluminium and aluminium goods?
(1) Australia
(2) The US
(3) Russia
(4) Japan
Answer: (2)

21. The Nathu La Pass, which has increased Indian trade with a neighbour, lies between India and which country?
(1) Pakistan
(2) Bhutan
(3) Nepal
(4) China
(5) Tibet
Answer: (4)

22. The Banking Codes and Standards Boards has been formed to provide fair treatment to:
(1) Employees’ Unions
(2) Member Banks
(3) Officers
(4) SBI
(5) Customers
Answer: (5)

23. In India, the CRR at present is approximately:
(1) Less than 5%
(2) 10% to 15%
(3) 5% to 10%
(4) 20%
(5) 35%
Answer: (2)

24. The present salary of an MP is (Rs per month)
(1) 2,500
(2) 5,000
(3) 7,500
(4) 15,000
(5) 16,000
Answer: (5)

25. Which river was recently found to be the longest?
(1) Amazon
(2) Nile
(3) Mississippi
(4) Ganga
(5) Yangtze Kiang
Answer: (1)

26. The highest Indian mountain-peak is:
(1) Mt Everest
(2) Nanga Parbat
(3) Dhaulagiri
(4) Godwin Austin
(5) Annapurna
Answer: (2)

27. Basel II norms will lead to:
(1) Capital A/c convertibility
(2) Better Stock Exchanges
(3) Better CRR
(4) Increased savings
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)

28. Rice is which kind of crop?
(1) Rabi
(2) Evergreen
(3) Kharif
(4) Inter-seasonal
(5) Monsoon
Answer: (5)

29. ‘Jog falls’ are in:
(1) Kerala
(2) J & K
(3) U.P.
(4) Uttaranchal
(5) Karnataka
Answer: (5)

30. The capitals of the new States Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttaranchal are:
(1) Raipur, Ranchi, Dehradun
(2) Ranchi, Patna, Nainital
(3) Raniganj, Patna, Dehradun
(4) Patna, Raipur, Nainital
(5) None of the above
Answer: (1)

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam, 2009

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 30 Dec 2011 03:30:00 +0000

Reasoning: (Solved Paper)

1. In a certain code ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘$@2*c’ and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘β64@%’. How is
‘DELAY’ written in that code?
(A) β4*2%
(B) β4@2%
(C) %42@β
(D) %4@2β
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

2. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ARILT using each letter only once in that word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer: (C)

3. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D?
(A) Cousin
(B) Nephew
(C) Aunt
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

Directions—(Q. 4–6) The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below—
394 632 783 576 895

4. If the positions of the first and the second digit within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number?
(A) 632
(B) 783
(C) 576
(D) 895
(E) 394
Answer: (E)

5. If the first and second digits of each of the numbers are added the resulting sum of which of the following numbers will not be exactly divisible by 3?
(A) 895
(B) 394
(C) 576
(D) 632
(E) 783
Answer: (A)

6. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576
(B) 895
(C) 783
(D) 394
(E) 632
Answer: (A)

7. If ‘A’ is coded as 1, ‘B’ as 3, ‘C’ as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word ‘FAZED’ ?
(A) 81
(B) 79
(C) 77
(D) 80
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

8. Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as FAN: HEAT?
(A) Water: Drink
(B) Light: Night
(C) Teach: Student
(D) Air: Breathe
(E) Food: Hunger
Answer: (B)

9. Q types faster than R but not as fast as V.T types faster than R S types faster than V. Who amongst the five of them types the fastest?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) S
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

10. If ‘B ×C’ means ‘B, is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’
means ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P ×Q’ mean?
(A) M is the brother-in-law of Q
(B) M is the uncle of Q
(C) M is the son-in-law of Q
(D) M is the mother-in-law of Q
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–17) Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below
it—
A group of seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N; P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q.
The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.

11. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

12. What is the profession of C?
(A) Terminal operator
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Economist
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

13. For which Bank does B work?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) L
(D) Either M or S
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

14. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S?
(A) Clerk
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Terminal Operator
(D) Forex Officer
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

15. For which Bank does D work?
(A) Q
(B) L
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

16. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

17. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct?
(A) Forex OfficerM
(B) ClerkL
(C) Agriculture OfficerQ
(D) Agriculture OfficerS
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

Directions—(Q. 18 –23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements:
Some stones are rocks. All rocks are boulders.
Some boulders are mountains. All hills are mountains.
Conclusions:
I. Some stones are mountains.
II. Some hills are boulders.
III. Some boulders are stones.
IV. All mountains are hills.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

19. Statements:
All arrows are bows. All bows are swords.
Some swords are daggers. All daggers are knives.
Conclusions:
I. All knives are bows.
II. Some swords are knives.
III. All bows are arrows.
IV. All arrows are swords.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

20. Statements:
Some pianos are violins. Some violins are drums.
All drums are guitars. No guitar is a flute.
Conclusions:
I. Some guitar are pianos.
II. Some drums are flutes.
III. Some pianos are drums.
IV. No flute is a drum.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only either II or IV follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

21. Statements:
Some airplanes are helicopters. All helicopters are gliders.
All gliders are kites. All kites are balloons.
Conclusions:
I. Some helicopters are balloons.
II. All kites are airplanes.
III. All balloons are gliders.
IV. All helicopters are kites.
(A) Only IV follows
(B) Only either II or III follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

22. Statements:
All kings are warriors. All soldiers are warriors.
All sentries are warriors. Some sentries are soldiers.
Conclusions:
I. Some sentries are kings.
II. All warriors are soldiers.
III. Some warriors are sentries.
IV. Some soldiers are kings.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Answer: (E)

23. Statements:
All plastics are glasses. Some glasses are wood.
Some woods are metals. All metals are cloths.
Conclusions:
I. Some cloths are wood.
II. Some woods are both cloths and glasses.
III. Some glasses are plastics.
IV. Some cloths are metals.
(A) None follows
(B) All follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

Directions—(Q. 24–25) Read the information given below carefully and then answer the questions that follow. In a certain code language:
I. ‘she likes apples’ is written as ‘pic sip dip’.
II. ‘parrot likes apples lots’ is written as ‘dip pic tif nit’.
III. ‘she likes parrots’ is written as ‘tif sip dip’.

24. How is ‘parrot’ written in that code language?
(A) pic
(B) dip
(C) tif
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

25. Which of the following statements is not necessary in order to answer the above question?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) All are required
(E) Either II or III
Answer: (B)

Directions—(Q. 26 –30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W

26. Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end?
(A) @
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) U
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

27. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer: (A)

28. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ # ?
(A) U V E
(B) V # E
(C) 7 U 8
(D) V 7 #
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
Answer: (C)

29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above
arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
(D) V 5 U
(E) P S 6
Answer: (A)

30. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a consonant?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer: (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—

(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) If both statement I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both statement I and II are effects of some common cause.

31. I. The government has amended tax laws to boost exports.
II. The export sector has been passing through difficult times due to heavy tax burdens.
Answer: (B)

32. I. Budgetary allocation for building a better railway network e.g. constructing new railway
lines has increased.
II. There has been a substantial drop in the number of passenger opting for air travel.
Answer: (D)

33. I. The production of pulses has dropped for the third consecutive year.
II. India has decided to import pulses this year.
Answer: (A)

34. I. The Bank has provided a link on its website to obtain feedback
from customers.
II. Customers have been complaining about poor services in the Bank’s branches.
Answer: (B)

35. I. Indian citizens are willing to incur the cost of using environment friendly technology.
II. Many countries are taking steps to cut their carbon emissions.
Answer: (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon the degree of its truth or falsity. Mark answer—

(A) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statements of facts given.
(B) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) If the ‘data are inadequate’ i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the data is likely to be true or false.
(D) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) If the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot be drawn from the given facts or contradicts the given facts.

The pace of recruitment has unmistakably picked up in the last few months. After two abysmal
quarters the business sentiment has turned positive. A flurry of hiring activity has been observed across the manufacturing sector and the IT and ITES sector catering to telecom and legal process outsourcing. The advent of new players and an aggressive expansion of telecom giants has seen a bullish outlook for the industry with a promise of exponential growth. But is the worst over for businesses across the spectrum? Firms are going back to the drawing board and dusting off their plans to see if there is scope for at least incremental hiring in specific domains where they want to build expertise. Besides that there are few signs to show that there is a broad based revival in the market.

36. Companies in various sectors have projected higher business growth in the near future.
Answer: (B)

37. The telecom sector has experienced negative growth in the past few years.
Answer: (D)

38. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of
employees.
Answer: (C)

39. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.
Answer: (D)

38. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of
employees.
Answer: (C)

39. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.
Answer: (C)

40. Most companies across sectors have decided to increase their manpower requirement
manifold.
Answer: (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four
combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter:
T A G R S D N E V U X P
Digit/Symbol Code:
@ 4 9 # % 3 ©5 1 β7 6

Conditions—
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel only the first letter may be coded and no code may be given to the last letter.
(ii) If both the first and last letters are vowels then both are to be coded as $.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then the codes are to be interchanged.

41. DESGRT
(A) 35%9#
(B) 35%9#@
(C) @5%9#3
(D) 359%#@
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

42. NERSPU
(A) @5#%6@
(B) @5#56©
(C) ©5#%6
(D) ©5#%6β
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)

43. XNTPGA
(A) 7©@694
(B) 7©@964
(C) 4©@69
(D) 7©@69
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

44. ESVNTU
(A) $%1©@$
(B) 5%1©@β
(C) $%1©@β
(D) $%1©β 5
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

45. UXPTGN
(A) ©76@9β
(B) $76@9©
(C) β 76@9©
(D) β 76@9B
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Given answer—
(A) If only Course of action I follows.
(B) If only Course of action II follows.
(C) If either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
(D) If neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
(E) If both courses of action I and II follow.

46. Statement: An increasing number of graduates produced by Indian universities are unemployable.
Courses of action:
I. Colleges and Institutes of higher learning should be given greater autonomy to decide course content.
II. World class foreign universities should be encouraged to set up campuses in India.
Answer: (A)

47. Statement: Heavy rains hit the state during October, just before the State Assembly elections and caused heavy damage to standing crops in most parts of the state.
Courses of action:
I. Elections should be postponed to give candidates the opportunity to campaign.
II. The Government should announce a relief package for those who are affected.
Answer: (B)

48. Statement: Cell phone users have found that tariff plans are not as attractive as promoted by telecom companies and complained to regulatory authority about the same.
Courses of action:
I. The regulatory authority should direct telecom companies to be transparent on the tariff structure of all plans.
II. The government should restrict the number of telecom companies operating in the country.
Answer: (A)

49. Statement: A number of school children in the local schools have fallen ill after the consumption of their subsidised tiffin provided by the school authority.
Courses of action:
I. The tiffin facility of all schools should be discontinued with immediate effect.
II. The government should implement a system to certify the quality of tiffin provided by the school.
Answer: (B)

50. Statement: The dolphin population in India has been decreasing sharply over the past few years.
Courses of action:
I. Dolphins should be declared an endangered species and be bred in aquariums or protected areas.
II. Locals should be enlisted to protect dolphins.
Answer: (E)

Directions—(Q. 51 –60) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
A Research Institute is recruiting liberation to digitise its information resources among other duties.
Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must:
I. be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01 112009.
II. have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 per cent marks.
III. have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
IV. have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a University Library.
However if the candidate fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—

(a) at (II) above but the candidates has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria fulfilled he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(b) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year’s
experience in a research institute he/ she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1112009.
Mark answer:
(A) If he/she is to be shortlisted.
(B) If he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(C) If he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(D) If he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

51. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on
July 21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.
Answer: (B)

52. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per cent in his graduation.
Answer: (D)

53. Vaishali Shetty has a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC
NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 per cent. Her
first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to December 2001.
Answer: (B)

54. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and
Information Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1 101974. Since July 2005, he has
been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Answer: (A)

55. A graduate in Library Science with 69 per cent Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi
University for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the
Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the
required date.
Answer: (A)

56. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she
has as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Answer: (A)

57. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam. in June, 2000. He has a degree in Library and Information Science with 62 per cent. His date of birth is 17101973.
Answer: (B)

58. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She
obtained 63 per cent at graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she
was 26.
Answer: (E)

59. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this
he was a University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He
graduated in 1991 with 68 per cent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the
specified date.
Answer: (A)

60. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he
began working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research institute.
He obtained 65 per cent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library
Science in 2007. His date of birth is 22101974.
Answer: (D)

Indian Bank Probationary Officer Exam, 2010

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Wed, 28 Dec 2011 03:30:00 +0000

English Language: (Solved Paper)

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

1. We have accepted over two billion dollars from them yet it is been used to build hospital in the area—
(A) that is yet to use
(B) although it has been used
(C) not yet being used
(D) which will be used
(E) No correction required
Answer: (C)

2. People have respond in favour the government’s efforts to resolve the budget crisis—
(A) Favourably responded
(B) Response in favour of
(C) Responded favourably to
(D) Been responding favourably
(E) No correction required
Answer: (C)

3. Striking this deal will enable the company to expand its operations in Europe—
(A) Strike this deal that
(B) To strike off this deal
(C) By striking this deal to
(D) This deal was struck which
(E) No correction required
Answer: (E)

4. We admire they are taking this step despite the numerous risks involved—
(A) Them to take
(B) Them for taking
(C) That they have taken over
(D) How their taking of
(E) No correction required
Answer: (B)

5. The management has been left with no option else to change the branch timings to avoid losing business.
(A) but to change
(B) except the change of
(C) unless it changes with
(D) other than the changing
(E) No correction required
Answer: (A)

Directions—(Q. 6 –20) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions—

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S. as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia.

Why should the sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with scepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short the world has not changed, it has just moved places.

The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008, policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there’s evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the underlying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China, where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective. Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in the first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly $ 1.1 trillion. Exuberance over a quick recovery –which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter–has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hindsight. But investors –who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far, and that the slightest bit of negative economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking steps to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, “there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening.” And without a major shift in thinking, the easy money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years, Asia may be heading for another disheartening plunge.

6. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?
(1) Reluctance of Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus
(2) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies at high prices
(3) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries

(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2)
Answer: (D)

7. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?
(A) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economics than on the US economy
(B) Economies has become interlinked on account of globalisation
(C) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(D) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?
(A) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(B) The government’s only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(C) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(D) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(E) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US
Answer: (B)

9. Why do experts predict that Asian policy makers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?
(1) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time
(2) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels
(3) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens
(A) None
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Answer: (D)

10. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?
(A) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(B) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the U.S.
(C) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(D) The GDP of China was below expectations
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

11. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?
(1) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable
(2) The government has decided to tighten credit
(3) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures

(A) Only (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)

12. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?
(A) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(B) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(C) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic principles
(D) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(E) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals
Answer: (C)

13. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?
(A) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(B) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(C) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(D) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

13. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?
(A) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(B) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(C) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(D) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(1) All Asian economies are recovering at the same pace
(2) Experts are apprehensive about the state of Asian economies despite their recovery
(3) Developed countries should implement the same economies reforms as Asian ones

(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Answer: (D)

15. According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative impact on the Asian stock markets?
(1) Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries
(2) Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009
(3) Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank

(A) None
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Answer: (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–18) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

16. Fuel
(A) Petrol
(B) Stimulate
(C) Sustain
(D) Heat
(E) Charge
Answer: (B)

17. Flooded
(A) Surged
(B) Saturated
(C) Overflowed
(D) Deluge
(E) Overcome
Answer: (C)

18. Evaporated
(A) Dehydrated
(B) Melted
(C) Vaporised
(D) Vanished
(E) Dodged
Answer: (D)

Directions—(Q. 1920) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Buoyed
(A) Heavy
(B) Stifled
(C) Numbed
(D) Dull
(E) Abated
Answer: (E)

20. Sharp
(A) Blunt
(B) Incomplete
(C) Naive
(D) Indistinct
(E) Gradual
Answer: (E)

Directions—(Q. 2 1 –30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of that part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (E).

21. Arranging such a large amount (A) /of funds now will be a problem why (B) / banks are usually not open (C) /so early in the morning. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (C)

22. He had telephoned yesterday to (A) /ask how much of the youth (B) /who attend our classes would be (C) /interested in working for a textile company. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (B)

23. Though he has promoted to (A) / the bank’s board as a director (B) / he continues to carry out (C) / all his current responsibilities. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (A)

24. The Board’s decision has provided (A) / employees with the opportunity (B) / to acquire upto 100 (C) / shares by the company. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (D)

25. If the manufacturing sector continues (A) / to grow at the same rate for (B) / the next few months, I think it (C) / has a high growth rate this year. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (D)

26. The government is working (A) / out a new system to compensate (B) / those companies to sell (C) / products below the market price. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (C)

27. The success of the (A) / government sponsor job guarantee programme (B) / has resulted in a (C) / drastic drop in poverty. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (B)

28. We were forced into react (A) / as no organisation can (B) / afford to adhere to (C) / these outdated regulations. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (A)

29. We had extensively discussions (A) / with the participants and (B) / obtained their feedback (C) / regarding our new services. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (A)

30. Their failure to inspect (A) / our factories is a (B) / clear indications that our (C) / license will not be renewed. (D) No error (E)
Answer: (C)

Directions—(Q. 31 –35) In each question below a sentence with four words is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

31. Though these programmes have proved (A) to be extremely (B) effective (C) they do have certain drawbacks. (D) All correct (E)
Answer: (E)

32. According to these estimates (A) our profitable (B) margin (C) will be higher if we adopt (D) this approach. All correct (E)
Answer: (B)

33. In order to confront (A) the threat (B) of global warming it is imperative (C) that we work altogether. (D) All correct (E)
Answer: (D)

34. Any failure (A) to complicit (B) with these fundamental (C) regulations will result in a fine. (D) All correct (E)
Answer: (B)

35. Every organization needs to be proactive (A) in devising (B) stratergies (C) to ensure the retention (D) in staff. All correct (E)
Answer: (C)

Directions—(Q. 36 –40) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. However if this happens it will cause problems for the elderly who mainly use cheques.
2. The use of cheques has fallen dramatically in the past few years.
3. Thus cheques may be phased out gradually making sure that the needs of all consumers including the elderly are met.
4. This is because more and more consumers are transferring money electronically by direct debit or credit cards.
5. Without cheques they are likely to keep large amounts of cash in their homes making them
vulnerable to theft.
6. British banks have thus voted to phase cheques out in favour of these more modern payment methods.

36. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Answer: (A)

38. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Answer: (D)

39. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Answer: (E)

40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 1
Answer: (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The World Diabetes Congress has determined that India has the largest number of diabetics in the world. Apart from the loss of productivity, the … (41)… burden is alarming – $ 2.8 billion annually. Sedentary jobs,... (42)… of electronic entertainment, changing diet patterns and … (43)… dependence on automobiles have driven the activity … (44)… of Indians’ lives especially in cities.

The … (45)… is, therefore, to make people physically … (46)… and requires interventions which impact a large … (47)… of the population. Admittedly physical activity is a … (48)… of choice and is strongly driven by … (49)… preferences. But policymaking needs to shift to … (50)… moderate levels of physical activity in the daily lives of people. One way to accomplish this is to create walk able communities that give residents a variety of destinations within walking distance.

41. (A) economic

(B) finance
(C) subsidy
(D) physical
(E) health
Answer: (B)

42. (A) broadcast
(B) spread
(C) prevalent
(D) expand
(E) widespread
Answer: (E)

43. (A) totally
(B) entirely
(C) grown
(D) mutual
(E) increasing
Answer: (E)

44. (A) most
(B) out
(C) from
(D) through
(E) outside
Answer: (B)

45. (A) ultimatum
(B) hazard
(C) sensitivity
(D) challenge
(E) dispute
Answer: (A)

46. (A) equip
(B) built
(C) active
(D) trained
(E) qualified
Answer: (C)

47. (A) section
(B) scale
(C) degree
(D) per cent
(E) piece
Answer: (A)

48. (A) want
(B) matter
(C) scarcity
(D) right
(E) lack
Answer: (B)

49. (A) showing
(B) given
(C) special
(D) personal
(E) individually
Answer: (D)

50. (A) pursuit
(B) indulge
(C) introduce
(D) insist
(E) attract
Answer: (C)

Bank PO Recruitment Exam (Model Paper)

noreply@blogger.com (Shivani Saini) — Fri, 23 Dec 2011 03:30:00 +0000

REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE

1. ‘Captain' is related to a ‘Team' in the same way as ‘Director' is related to
a) Supervisor
b) Employee
c) Organisation
d) Union
e) Customer
Answer: (C)

2. Find the odd one out of the following options
a) Aunt
b) Child
c) Father
d) Niece
e) Relation
Answer: (E)

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh?
a) Brother
b) Brother-in-law
c) Father-in-law
d) Data not sufficient
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

4. If ‘fork' is called ‘plate', ‘plate' is called 'knife', ‘knife' is called ‘jug', ‘jug' is called ‘glass', ‘glass' is called ‘cup' and ‘cup' is called ‘fork', by what do we cut fruit?
a) spoon
b) jug
c) glass
d) saucer
e) none of these
Answer: (B)

5. If ‘a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to ‘Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY'?
a) 33
b) 40
c) 37
d) 73
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
a) JOENQF
b) JMCPQD
c) JOEPSF
d) HMCNQD
e) None of these
Answer: (C)

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?
a) Seeta
b) Geeta
c) Gayatri
d) Data not sufficient
e) None of these
Answer: (D)

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?
a) Mahesh
b) Kamal
c) Raman
d) Harry
e) Cannot be determined
Answer: (B)

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T' and without repeating any letter?
a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) None
e) None of these
Answer: (A)

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Five
e) None of these
Answer: (D)

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 8
e) None of these
Answer: (C)

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
a) Two
b) Five
c) Four
d) Three
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
a) #
b) 7
c) U
d) 9
e) None of these
Answer: (A)

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) G$M
b) K9Q
c) ?D7
d) 2MU
e) PCI
Answer: (E)

16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means ‘he has won','le ki ba' means ‘she has lost' and ‘in se pe' means ‘he always won'. Which word in that language means ‘he'?
a) In
b) pe
c) se
d) Data not sufficient
e) None of these
Answer: (D)

17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X?
a) Sister
b) Cousin
c) Aunt
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
a) TNAVERSBO
b) TNVARESBO
c) NTAVERSBO
d) VANTRESBO
e) None of these
Answer: (E)

19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
a) ? + % « # Ś
b) ? + % Ś # «
c) ? + « % # Ś
d) Ś # « % + ?
e) None of these
Answer: (A)

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?
a) SWORN: NSOWR
b) FUNDS: FSDUN
c) GLAZE : EGZAL
d) LOWER: RLEWO
e) None of these
Answer: (E)

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go' advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

21. Who advertises watches?
a) Deepa
b) Kamal
c) Aman
d) Priyanka
e) None of these
Answer: (C)

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
a) Go-watch
b) Come-computer
c) Go-soap
d) Come-soap
e) Come-watch
Answer: (D)

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
a) Go
b) Fun
c) Come
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Answer: (A)

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
a) Jitu advertises soap
b) Jitu advertises watches
c) Kamal advertises computers
d) Kamal works for Fun
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

25. What will Jitu advertise?
a) Chocolates
b) Watches
c) Computers or watches
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Answer: (C)

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?
a) 3 ½ hours
b) 2 ½ hours
c) 4 ½ hours
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Answer: (A)

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Three
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

28. Find the odd one out
a) 2
b) 7
c) 11
d) 13
e) 9
Answer: (E)

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?
a) BDHEKLQT
b) BDEHKLQT
c) BDEHLKQT
d) BDEJMLQT
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.
a) 9
b) 21
c) 17
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Answer: (E)

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these'.
Letters M Q I N E Y U G R
Numeric Codes 2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY
a) 1%28
b) ?732?
c) 17328
d) ?7328
e) None of these
Answer: (C)

32. GENIR
a) ?173?
b) 6%39
c) 6%79
d) 61739
e) None of these
Answer: (B)

33. QUERI
a) 5%93
b) ?413?
c) ?4139
d) ?419?
e) None of these
Answer: (D)

34. EINUM
a) 1%72
b) 0%42
c) 1374?
d) 1%43
e) None of these
Answer: (E)

35. UNGRE
a) Ś769 Ś
b) 4769 Ś
c) 47691
d) Ś7691
e) None of these
Answer: (A)

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (B) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (C) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (D) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (E) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.
Answer: (A)

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.
Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.
Answer: (C)

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.
Answer: (E)

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.
Conclusions:
I. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.
Answer: (B)

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.
Answer: (E)

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:
Give answer (A) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (D) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (E) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket' written in a code language?
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket' is written as ‘do si ha'.
II. ‘play cricket now' is written as ‘ha si ma'.
Answer: (D)

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O, P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.
Answer: (E)

43. When is Rahul's birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.
Answer: (B)

44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.
Answer: (A)

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From the school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house.
Answer: (C)

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the first and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
a) 359
b) 972
c) 526
d) 487
e) 251
Answer: (A)

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) None of these
Answer: (D)

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
a) None
b) Two
c) One
d) Three
e) All five
Answer: (C)

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
a) 251
b) 359
c) 487
d) 526
e) 972
Answer: (C)

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
a) 972
b) 526
c) 487
d) 251
e) 359
Answer: (E)