Xuxu @ USM

Course Registration (SOM)

2012-07-25T14:03:00.001+08:00

Latest Information on Course Registration For School of Management’s Students

A. Latest Curriculum Structure For Management Program Starting From The Intake of Academic Session 2011/2012

Program Requirement	Course Code Classification	No of Units
Common Core	T	59
Major Core	T	20
Elective	E	16
Minor	M	20
University	U	21
Total:		136

3 courses below originally set as Core (T) typed subject is changed toElective (E) typed subject:-

i. ATW112E/2 to AEW112E/2 : Business Communication I

ii. ATW113E/2 to AEW113E/2 : Business Communication II

iii. ATW125/4 to AEW125/4 : Business Statistics

(For Management students’ intake in Academic Session 2011/2012 who had registered the 3 courses above as Core (T) typed, courses, the school will change them automatically to Elective (E) typed courses.)

B. Curriculum Structure for Accounting Program Starting From The Intake of Academic Session 2007/2008

Program Requirement	Course Code Classification	No of Units
Common Core	T	48
Major Core	T	62
Elective	E	12
University	U	15
Total:		137

C. Management Student Starting From The Intake of Academic Session 2011/2012 with Major International Business

1. Registration of AIP311 course (4 units) is replaced with AIW311 course (4 units) as Core Course (T).

2. Registration of AIP351 course (4 units) is replaced with AIW351 course (3 units) as Core Course (T).

3. Registration of AIW398 course (4 units) is replaced with AIP398 course (3 units) as Elective Course (E).

D. Management Student Starting From The Intake of Academic Session 2010/2011 with Major Marketing

1. Registration of AMP348 course (4 units) is replaced with AMW348 course (4 units) as Core Course (T).

E. Accounting Student – 4 courses are reduced from 4 units to 3 units

1. Registration of ATW104 course (4 units) is replaced with ATW101 course (3 units).

2. Registration of ATW125 course (4 units) is replaced with ATW123 course (3 units).

3. Registration of ATW242 course (4 units) is replaced with ATW241 course (3 units).

4. Registration of ATW262 course (4 units) is replaced with ATW261 course (3 units).

F. Registration for ATW211/3 Course & ATW212/4 Course

1. ATW211 course (3 units) is meant for Management students from the intake of Academic Session 2011/2012 and above.

2. ATW212 course (4 units) is meant for Management students from the intake of Academic Session 2010/2011 and before.

G. Registration for ATU397/4 Course & ATP397/4 Course

1. ATU397 course (4 units) is meant for Management students from the intake of Academic Session 2011/2012 and above.

2. ATP397 course (4 units) is meant for Management students from the intake of Academic Session 2010/2011 and before.

H. Registration for AOW354/3 Course & AOW353/3 Course

1. AOW354 course (3 units) is meant for Management students from the intake of Academic Session 2011/2012 and above.

2. AOW353 course (3 units) is meant for Management students from the intake of Academic Session 2010/2011 and before.

Open publication - Free publishing - More course

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

Pertukaran Program Pengajian

2012-07-23T20:59:00.003+08:00

Pengumuman

Sebarang penukaran Program Pengajian hanya boleh dilakukan SEBELUM tamat pengajian pada Semester 1. Pelajar akan bertukar ke Program Pengajian baharu pada Semester 2 tertakluk pada perakuan dan kekosongan tempat.

~Seksyen Pengambilan & Kemasukan Pelajar USM

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

USM Main Campus Bus Service Route Guide

2012-07-22T16:06:00.001+08:00

Open publication - Free publishing - More bus

USM Main Campus Bus Service

Service Hours:-

Monday – Thursday : 8:00 am – 10:30 pm

Friday : 8:00 am – 12:00 noon & 2:30 pm – 10:30 pm

Saturday : 8:00 am – 7:00 pm

Sunday : Not Available

Red:-

Padang Kawad – Indah Kembara – DK S, T, U, V & W – Padang Kawad

Purple:-

Padang Kawad – Indah Kembara – Bakti Permai I – Bakti Permai II – Pusat Sejahtera – SK 1, 2, 3 & 4 – Dewan Budaya – Eureka – Fajar Harapan – Aman Damai I – Aman Damai II – Indah Kembara – Padang Kawad

Yellow:-

Aman Damai II – Bakti Permai I – Bakti Permai II – Pusat Sejahtera – SK 1, 2, 3 & 4 – School of Languages, Literacy & Translation (SoLLaT) – School of Housing, Building & Planning (HBP) – School of Management (SOM) – Eureka – Fajar Harapan – Aman Damai I – Aman Damai II

Blue:-

Padang Kawad – Indah Kembara – Bakti Permai I – Bakti Permai II – Pusat Sejahtera – SK 1, 2, 3 & 4 – School of Languages, Literacy & Translation (SoLLaT) – School of Housing, Building & Planning (HBP) – School of Management (SOM) – Eureka – Fajar Harapan – Aman Damai I – Aman Damai II – Indah Kembara – Padang Kawad

Red	Purple	Yellow	Blue
Padang Kawad	Padang Kawad	Aman Damai II	Padang Kawad
Indah Kembara	Indah Kembara	Bakti Permai I	Indah Kembara
DK S, T, U, V & W	Bakti Permai I	Bakti Permai II	Bakti Permai I
Padang Kawad	Bakti Permai II	Pusat Sejahtera	Bakti Permai II
	Pusat Sejahtera	SK 1, 2, 3 & 4	Pusat Sejahtera
	SK 1, 2, 3, & 4	SoLLaT	SK 1, 2, 3 & 4
	Dewan Budaya	HBP	SoLLaT
	Eureka	SOM	HBP
	Fajar Harapan	Eureka	SOM
	Aman Damai I	Fajar Harapan	Eureka
	Aman Damai II	Aman Damai I	Fajar Harapan
	Indah Kembara	Aman Damai II	Aman Damai I
	Padang Kawad		Aman Damai II
			Indah Kembara
			Padang Kawad

**Note: The colour of the bus is the colour of the card in front of the bus, NOT the colour of the whole bus.

**Indah Kembara, Aman Damai, Bakti Permai, Fajar Harapan, Cahaya Gemilang are Hostels.

USM RST:-

Bus Stop (USM RST) – Tekun – Saujana & Restu – Bus Stop (USM RST)

Main Campus – Engineering Campus Shuttle Bus Service

**Only available on all working days

Schedule:-

8:30 am Departs from Engineering Campus to Main Campus

11:00 am Departs from Main Campus to Engineering Campus

3:30 pm Departs from Engineering Campus to Main Campus

5:00 pm Departs from Main Campus to Engineering Campus

Pick Up Locations:-

For Engineering Campus:-

In front of Administration Building AD
In front of Cafeteria A at SDA

For Main Campus:-

In front of the Islamic Center / Eureka
In front of the Chancellery

Note:-

It can only accommodate 22 passengers per bus and available on a first come first serve basis.
A van is used as a substitute in the event of the mini bus is scheduled for maintenance.
However, the van may only accommodate 7 passengers.
Postal services run as usual.

Data Re-arranged by Leslie Wong

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

PTPTN Guide 2012/2013

2012-07-19T23:16:00.000+08:00

PTPTN Manual Guide 2012/2013

PTPTN Guide 2012/2013 (Chi)

Open publication - Free publishing - More ptptn

PTPTN Guide 2012/2013 (En)

Open publication - Free publishing - More ptptn

Click the following link to download the manual:-
PTPTN Guide 2012 (Chi)
PTPTN Guide 2012 (En)
PTPTN - Surat Pengesahan Pendapatan

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

PIMPIN Siswa 简介

2012-07-19T11:43:00.002+08:00

PIMPIN Siswa 开始于2009/2010入学的新生。今年2012/2013已经迈入了第四个年头了。

PIMPIN Siswa 是自从 USM 被高等教育部肯定与迈入 APEX 后所进行的其中一项提升学生素质的计划。

PIMPIN Siswa 是每一位新生都必须 (COMPULSORY) 参与的活动。

它是一个三天两夜的露营。

它的独特之处在于所有的营内的活动都是理大管理层与各学院的教授合作所写下的。

它是唯一一项在大马高等教育学府里，集合管理层 (USM Staffs) ，各学院教授 (Lecturers)，学长 (Seniors) 与新生的活动。

每一批将近 4000 位人力资源参与这一项活动。

它把校园内的每一个成员都融入了在一个活动力。

它是一个全方位的训练，除了课上教学 (Academic)。

也许很多人都会对露营有所抗拒。但是，只要带着学习的态度，你一定会有不一样的收获。

Stay tuned for more sharing.

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

Appeal for Entry into USM

2012-07-13T13:11:00.000+08:00

Applicants who applied for the undergraduate programmes at Universiti Sains Malaysia (USM) can check their result from 13 July 2012 onwards.
Those get the offered from USM need to click ACCEPT (TERIMA) or REJECT (TOLAK) before 22 July 2012.
For those who did not get the offer may log in with their reference number and password at Pohon@USM. Then, click RAYUAN from 13 - 22 July 2012.
For any queries, call 1300 888 876 or email admissions@usm.my
This phone line will be opened during the office hour, 08:30 am to 05:00 pm only on weekdays.

USM Admissions
Seksyen Pengambilan Pelajar
Bahagian Pengurusan Akademik
Jabatan Pendaftar
Universiti Sains Malaysia
11800 Pulau Pinang.
T: 1300 888 876
F: 04-653 3328
E: admissions@usm.my
W: http://www.admissions.usm.my/

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

List of Institutions Offering Scholarship and Loan

2012-07-12T23:09:00.001+08:00

List of Institutions Offering Scholarship and Loan

NO.

LOGO

NAME & ADDRESS

TEL NO. & FAX

Perbadanan Tabung Pendidikan Tinggi Nasional (PTPTN)
Lembah Lot G2, Tingkat Bawah Wisma Chase Perdana Off Jalan Semanthan , Damansara Height
http://www.ptptn.gov.my

Tel

03 20927788

Majlis Amanah Rakyat (MARA)
Bangunan Medan Mara , No 21 Jalan Raja Laut 50609 Kuala Lumpur
www.mara.gov.my

Tel

03 26915111

Fax

03 26913620

Jabatan Perkhidmatan Awam(JPA)

Public Service Department, Block C1 & C2, Complex Federal Government Administrative Centre, 625100 W.Putrajaya http://www.jpa.gov.my

Tel

03 88853000

03 88854000

Yayasan Tunku Abdul Rahman(YTAR)

A-10-12, Menara UOA Bangsar,
59000 Bangsar,
Kuala Lumpur.
www.yayasantar.org.my

Tel

03 2283 6063

03 2283 6073

Fax

03 2283 6052

Yayasan Telekom Malaysia (YTM)

Unit Pentadbiran Biasiswa, Yayasan Telekom Malaysia, Aras 9 Utara Menara TM, Jln Pantai Baharu 50672 Kuala Lumpur http://ytm.tm.com.my

Tel

Fax

Kuok Foundation Berhad
19th floor, Wisma Jerneh, 38 Jln Sultan Ismail, 50250 Kuala Lumpur

Tel

03 21425319

Fax

03 21456609

Yayasan Perak
Tingkat 1, Wisma Yayasan Perak, No 111, Jln Sultan Idris Shah, 3000 Ipoh Perak
www.yayasanperak.com.my

Tel

05 25522929

Fax

05 2531701

Yayasan Selangor

Menara Yayasan Selangor, No 18 A Jln Persiaran Barat Petaling Jaya 46000 Selangor
www.yayasanselangor.org.my

Tel

03 79551212

Fax

03 79541790

Yayasan Negeri Sembilan

Tingkat 11, Bangunan Yayasan Negeri Sembilan, Jalan Yam Tuan 7000, Seremban Negeri Sembilan
www.yns.gov.my

Tel

06 7628056

Fax

06 7631420

Yayasan Kelantan Darul Naim
Tingkat 5, Kompleks YAKIN, Jln Gajah Mati. 15000, Kota Bharu Kelantan
http://yakin.kelantan.gov.my

Tel

Fax

Yayasan Terengganu
Bangunan Yayasan Terengganu, Jln Sulatan Ismail, 20200 Kuala Terengganu
www.ytrg.terengganu.gov.my

Tel

09 6221733

Fax

09 6232944

Yayasan Pahang
Kompleks Yayasan Pahang, Tanjung Lumpur, 26060 Kuantan, Pahang Darul Makmur
www.yp.org.my

Tel

09 5181800

Fax

09 5181888

Yayasan Johor

Aras 2,Wisma YPJ Holdings, No 5 Jln Seri Perkasa 1\3 Tmn Tampoi Utama, 81200 Johor Bharu

Tel

07 2416161

Fax

07 2416401

Yayasan Sarawak
Level 9 & 10, wisma Satok, 93400 Kuching, Sarawak
www.yayasansarawak.org.my

Tel

082 248688

Fax

082 429206

Lembaga Biasiswa Negeri Kedah

Pejabat Setiausaha Kerajaan Negeri Kedah, Aras2, Blok c, Wisma Darul Aman, 05503 Alor Star. Kedah Darul Aman
www.ibnk.gov.my

Tel

04 7744449

Fax

04 7744456

Kerajaan Negeri Perak Darul Ridzuan

Pejabat Setiausaha Kerajaan Negeri Perak, Bangunan Perak Darul Ridzuan, Jln Panglima Bukit Gantang Wahab,30000 Ipoh, Perak www.perak.gov.my

Tel

05 2531957

Fax

05 2545323

Kerajaan Negeri Pulau Pinang

Pejabat Setiausaha Negeri Pulau Pinang, Paras 25 Komtar 10503 Pulau Pinang
www.penang.gov.my

Tel

04 2621957

Fax

04 2613203

Golden Hope Plantation
9-20th Floor Menara Pnb 201-A Jalan Tun Razak. Kuala Lumpur 50400, Wilayah Persekutuan
http://www.goldenhope.com.my

Tel

09-6220707

Fax

09-6275524

Tabung Amanah Pendidikan Negeri Melaka (TAPNM)

Aras 3, Blok B, Seri Negeri 75450 Ayer Keroh, Melaka
tapem@melaka.gov.my

Tel

09-7717000

Fax

09-7717006

Kementerian Pengajian Tinggi (KPTM), Blok E3, Parcel E,
Pusat Pentadbiran Kerajaan Persekutuan,
62505 Putrajaya
www.mohe.gov.my

Tel

03 8883 5000

Fax

03 88893921

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

Keputusan Permohonan Kemasukan Ke IPTA 2012/2013

2012-07-12T16:55:00.003+08:00

Keputusan Permohonan Kemasukan Ke IPTA Bagi Program Pengajian Lepasan STPM / Matrikulasi / Asasi / Diploma / Setaraf (Ijazah Pertama)
Sesi Akademik 2012/2013
Bermula Jam 12:00 tengah hari, 13 Julai 2012.

Semakan:-
1. Internet:-
- http://pohon.usm.my (USM)
- http://upu.mohe.gov.my
- http://www.jpt.uum.edu.my
- http://jpt.utm.my

2. SMS:-
- Taip [UPU <> RESULT <> No KP] dan hantar ke 15888

3. Telefon:-
- Helpline : 03-8870 6777
- Talian Am : 03-8870 6755 / 6766
- Hotline UPU : 03-6670 6767

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C11 (2)

2012-06-16T22:00:00.000+08:00

Chapter 11

26) A firm's marketing mix consists of the following four elements:

A) product, price, promotion, and place

B) passion, pride, promotion, and place

C) passion, pleasure, product, and price

D) enthusiasm, passion, product, and price

E) place, promotion, passion, and product

27) A firm's ________, in the context of its marketing mix, is the good or service it offers to its target market.

A) conception

B) idea

C) formation

D) product

E) invention

28) A ________ is something that takes on a physical form, such as an MP3 player or a laptop computer. A ________ is an activity or benefit that is intangible, such as an airplane trip or advice from an attorney.

A) product, service

B) service, component

C) component, service

D) formation, service

E) service, product

29) A(n) ________ is an early user of a firm's product who is willing to give a testimonial regarding his or her experience with the product.

A) tribute account

B) reference account

C) approval report

D) appreciation account

E) acknowledgment report

30) Before Kim Green opened her jiffy print store, she processed several large print jobs for local merchants for free, to demonstrate the quality of her service and to solicit feedback. Two of the merchants wrote favorable reviews of Kim's service, and agreed to let Kim post the reviews on her company's Web site. The companies that wrote the favorable reviews are referred to as:

A) appreciation reports

B) acknowledgement accounts

C) referent accounts

D) tribute reports

E) approval reports

31) The amount of money consumers pay to buy a product is its:

A) price

B) fee

C) value

D) cost

E) charge

32) Which element of the marketing mix is the only one that produces revenue?

A) product

B) place (or distribution)

C) advertising

D) price

E) promotion

33) In ________, the list price of an item is determined by adding a markup percentage to a product's cost.

A) cost-based pricing

B) compliance-based pricing

C) value-based pricing

D) competitive-based pricing

E) economic-based pricing

34) Pat Walker owns an environmental services company. The way Pat prices her services is to figure her cost and then add a 22 percent markup. The method that Pat uses to determine her prices is called:

A) economic-based pricing

B) value-based pricing

C) competitive-based pricing

D) cost-based pricing

E) conformity-based pricing

35) In ________, the list price is determined by estimating what consumers are willing to pay for a product and then backing off a bit to provide a cushion.

A) value-based pricing

B) tactical pricing

C) strategic pricing

D) cost-based pricing

E) economic-based pricing

36) Michael Jones owns a Web design firm. The way Michael prices his products is to determine what consumers are willing to pay, and then he backs off a bit to provide a cushion. The method that Michael used to determine his prices is called:

A) predatory pricing

B) technical pricing

C) cost-based pricing

D) competitive-based pricing

E) value-based pricing

37) According to the textbook, most experts recommend ________ pricing because it hinges on the perceived value of a product or service.

A) value-based

B) cost-based

C) competitive-based

D) tactical

E) strategic

38) Karen Simon recently purchased a digital camera. She considered three cameras, a Kodak that was priced at $139.00, a Panasonic priced at $189.00, and a Nikon priced at $229.00. Karen couldn't tell much difference between the cameras, so she bought the Nikon, figuring that because it was the most expensive of the three, it must be the best. According to the textbook, Karen was making a:

A) price-quality attribution

B) price-merit attribution

C) cost-value acknowledgement

D) cost-worth attribution

E) price-worth acknowledgement

39) ________ refers to the activities the firm takes to communicate the merits of its product to its target market.

A) Sponsorship

B) Advertising

C) Endorsement

D) Promotion

E) Price

40) The Google program called ________ allows advertisers to buy keywords on the Google Home Page.

A) AdSense

B) Adcenter

C) AdWords

D) Search Marketing

E) AdGoogle

41) Efforts to establish and maintain a company's image with the public are referred to as:

A) open relations

B) public relations

C) civic relations

D) community relations

E) advertising

42) Every year thousands of electronic products manufacturers gather in Las Vegas to display their products and to see what their competitors are up to. This type of event is called a:

A) trade show

B) promotions show

C) deal show

D) goods show

E) skill show

43) Twitter, Facebook and company blogs are examples of:

A) public media

B) group media

C) shared media

D) social media

E) community media

44) The idea behind blogs is that they:

A) familiarize people with a business and help build an emotional bond between a business and its customers

B) are an effective recruiting tool and they help businesses network with government officials

C) help build an emotional bond between a business and its customers and are an effective platform for product development

D) are an effective tool for product development and familiarize people with a business

E) are an effective tool for recruiting and they familiarize people with a business

45) The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 11 focuses on Moxsie, an online retailer that sells fashion items made by independent designers. Moxsie has accelerated its growth by:

A) partnering with an influential Web site and soliciting feedback from customers

B) running Google AdSense ads and soliciting feedback from customers

C) utilizing viral marketing and putting in place a formal sales process

D) utilizing guerrilla marketing techniques and entering into a strategic alliance with Google

E) co-branding its site with another online retailer and putting a formal sales process in place

46) ________ marketing is a low-budget approach to marketing that relies on ingenuity, cleverness, and surprise rather than traditional techniques.

A) Rebel

B) Bug

C) Catching

D) Guerrilla

E) Revolutionary

47) A(n) ________ is a route a product takes from the place it is made to the customer who is the end user.

A) trade channel

B) product channel

C) allotment channel

D) promotion channel

E) distribution channel

48) A firm's sales process:

A) is typically not put in place until a year or more after a startup launches

B) describes a firm's branding strategy

C) depicts the steps it goes through to identify prospects and close sales

D) describes its social media strategy

E) depicts the steps it goes through to identify its target market and positioning strategy

49) The first step in the formal sales process described in the book is:

A) qualify the lead

B) make the sales presentation

C) prospect for sales leads

D) meet objections and concerns

E) make the initial contact

50) Which of the following statements is untrue regarding a firm's sales process?

A) A formal sales process helps a firm fine tune its approach to sales and build uniformity into the process.

B) Following a formal or structured process to generate and close sales benefits a firm.

C) A "sales process" is equally valuable whether a firm is selling directly to customers or through intermediaries.

D) A firm's sales process depicts the steps it goes through to identify its target market.

E) A formal sales process involves a number of identifiable steps.

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C11

2012-06-16T21:00:00.000+08:00

Chapter 11

1) True You Cosmetics, the company profiled in the opening feature in Chapter 11, sells cosmetics products. The company's marketing efforts to date have focused heavily on:

A) Google AdWords and AdSense

B) print advertising

C) radio

D) social media

E) television advertising

2) Andy Sanders owns a sporting goods store that appeals to hunters and fishermen. The market that Andy is trying to appeal to is called his:

A) focal market

B) objective market

C) target market

D) critical market

E) intention market

3) The first step in selecting a target market is to study the industry in which the firm intends to compete and determine the different potential target markets in that industry. This process is called:

A) market positioning

B) market splitting

C) market targeting

D) market subdividing

E) market segmentation

4) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in regard to the process of selecting a target market and position strategy?

A) creating a unique positioning strategy, selecting a target market, segmenting the market

B) segmenting the market, creating a unique positioning strategy, selecting a target market

C) segmenting the market, selecting a target market, creating a unique positioning strategy

D) selecting a target market, creating a unique positioning strategy, segmenting the market

E) creating a unique positioning strategy, segmenting the market, selecting a target market

5) Brenda Berry is thinking about starting a computer company. After doing some research, she has decided that the computer industry can be divided into the following product categories: handheld computers, laptops, tablet computers, PCs, minicomputers, and mainframes. She is now trying to decide which product category she is the most interested in competing in. The process that Brenda is going through is called:

A) market splitting

B) market subdividing

C) market segmentation

D) market dividing

E) market separating

6) Once a firm has segmented the market, the next step is to:

A) decide on a position within the segment

B) select a critical market

C) select a target market

D) select a focal market

E) immediately decide on the "4Ps" of the marketing strategy

7) A ________ is a place within a market segment that represents a narrower group of customers with similar interests.

A) position market

B) niche market

C) slot market

D) spot market

E) gap market

8) Research in Motion (RIM) is a handheld computer company that focuses specifically on business users that need dependable access to e-mail and the Internet while away from their office. For RIM, this specific type of user within the large business market segment is referred to as its:

A) gap market

B) task market

C) position market

D) hole market

E) niche market

9) A(n) ________ is the set of attributes—positive or negative—that people associate with a company.

A) emblem

B) logo

C) symbol

D) brand

E) trade name

10) Which of the following selections is incorrect regarding a firm's "positioning" strategy?

A) Position is concerned with how the firm is situated relative to its competitors.

B) A firm's decision about how to position itself relative to its competitors starts with a product or service idea that is tested and refined through feasibility analysis and marketing research.

C) Position is concerned with how a firm is situated relative to competitors.

D) Once a firm positions itself in a certain way, it must be able to follow through with a product or service offering that lives up to the image it has created.

E) After selecting a positioning strategy, the firm's next step is to select a target market.

11) A ________ illustrates a firm's positioning strategy relative to its major rivals.

A) product attribute map

B) positioning analysis grid

C) positioning plot

D) competitive analysis grid

E) positioning diagram

12) A product attribute map is used to help a firm determine:

A) if it is emphasizing benefits rather than features

B) if its branding strategy is appropriate

C) if its market segmentation is correct

D) if its positioning strategy is appropriate

E) if its target market is appropriate

13) Nike's familiar phrase "Just do it" is an example of a(n):

A) attention-line

B) tagline

C) notice-line

D) catchline

E) grabline

14) InstyMed's phrase "We make patients better quicker" is an example of a(n):

A) tagline

B) grabline

C) notice-line

D) catchline

E) attention-line

15) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the concept of branding?

A) Brands cannot be built through advertising, public relations, sponsorships, social media, or similar techniques.

B) A company doesn't normally want its customers to identify with its brand.

C) Startups usually start with an established brand.

D) A brand can be one of a company's most valuable assets.

E) A brand can denote a negative impression of a company.

16) Some companies monitor the integrity of their brands through a program of:

A) brand administration

B) brand persistence

C) brand determination

D) brand resolution

E) brand management

17) The What Went Wrong feature in Chapter 11 focuses on Ugobe, the company that made Pleo, a small robotic baby dinosaur. Ugobe failed primarily because it didn't establish a clear:

A) positioning strategy

B) branding strategy

C) social media strategy

D) financial strategy

E) advertising strategy

18) According to the textbook, a brand is all of the following except:

A) reputation

B) collection of memories

C) a pledge

D) a promise

E) a written warranty

19) Creating ________ means creating awareness and a sense of anticipation about a company and its offerings.

A) ruckus

B) noise

C) clatter

D) clamor

E) buzz

20) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the process of building a company's brand?

A) A firm's name, logo, Web site design, and even its letterhead are part of its brand.

B) One of the keys to effective branding is to create a strong personality for a firm.

C) Some companies monitor the integrity of their brands through brand management.

D) Startups must build a brand from scratch, which starts with selecting the company's name.

E) Most experts recommend a heavy reliance on advertising in building a firm's brand.

21) ________ is a term that denotes the set of assets and liabilities that are linked to a brand and enable it to raise a firm's valuation.

A) Trademark equity

B) Brand equity

C) Logo equity

D) Trademark value-added

E) Trade name strength

22) According to the textbook, a successful brand can increase the market value of a company by:

A) 5 to 10 percent

B) 20 to 30 percent

C) 40 to 50 percent

D) 50 to 75 percent

E) 75 to 100 percent

23) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature in Chapter 11 focuses on Airbnb, the company that created a marketplace for people to list, discover, and book unique spaces in people's homes or apartments while traveling. According to the feature, Airbnb was able to generate substantial buzz about its service via the use of:

A) Facebook

B) Google AdSense

C) blogs

D) newspaper ads

E) Twitter

24) A firm's ________ is the set of controllable, tactical marketing tools that it uses to produce the response it wants in the target market.

A) tactical mix

B) promotional blend

C) organizational mix

D) marketing mix

E) selling mix

25) Which of the following is not one of the four elements that constitute a firm's marketing mix?

A) price

B) promotion

C) passion

D) place (or distribution)

E) product

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C10 (2)

2012-06-15T17:00:00.000+08:00

Chapter 10

26) ________ are limited partnerships of money managers who raise money in "funds" to invest in startups and growing firms.

A) Venture capital firms

B) Business angels

C) Institutional investors

D) Investment bankers

E) Business capitalists

27) Venture capital firms are ________ of money managers who raise money in "funds" to invest in startups and growing firms.

A) limited partnerships

B) finance associations

C) consortiums

D) collations

E) strategic partnerships

28) In 2010, venture capital firms funded ________ deals .

A) 800

B) 3,276

C) 1,265

D) 6,211

E) 7,255

29) According to a source cited in the textbook, venture capitalists anticipate that the percentage of investments that will be home runs is about ________ or less.

A) 20 percent

B) 50 percent

C) 5 percent

D) 33 percent

E) 45 percent

30) Once a venture capitalist makes an investment in a firm, subsequent investments are made in rounds and are referred to as:

A) later funding

B) successive funding

C) subsequent backing

D) follow-on funding

E) ensuing backing

31) An important part of obtaining venture capital funding is going through ________, which refers to the process of investigating the merits of a potential venture and verifying the key claims made by the business plan.

A) appropriate diligence

B) fit diligence

C) due diligence

D) prior diligence

E) responsible diligence

32) In regard to the stages (or rounds) of venture capital funding, the stage of funding that occurs when an investment is made very early in a venture's life to fund the development of a prototype and feasibility analysis is referred to as:

A) seed funding

B) second-stage funding

C) first-stage funding

D) mezzanine financing

E) startup funding

33) The first sale of stock by a firm to the public is referred to as a(n):

A) original public submission

B) first unrestricted offering

C) preemptive initial offering

D) original open offering

E) initial public offering

34) A(n) ________ is an institution, such as Credit Suisse First Boston, that acts as an underwriter or agent for a firm engaged in an initial public offering.

A) venture bank

B) statutory bank

C) fiduciary bank

D) investment bank

E) public bank

35) As part of drumming up support for an IPO, the investment bank typically takes the top management team of the firm wanting to go public on a ________, which is a whirlwind tour that consists of meetings in key cities where the firm presents its business plan to groups of investors.

A) pitch show

B) road show

C) pitch tour

D) road trip

E) tornado tour

36) Debt financing involves:

A) raising venture capital or securing a private placement

B) selling corporate bonds or selling stock via an IPO

C) getting a grant or selling corporate bonds

D) getting a loan or raising venture capital

E) getting a loan or selling corporate bonds

37) Historically, commercial banks:

A) have been a good source of funds for startup firms

B) have not funded startup firms at all

C) have been a good source of funds for manufacturing firm startups but not for service firm startups

D) have been a good source of funds for service firm startups but not for manufacturing firm startups

E) have not been a good source of funds for startup firms

38) There are two major advantages of getting a loan versus investment capital:

A) the money doesn't have to be paid back and lenders typically take an active interest in their borrowers

B) banks are reliable sources of funding for startups and interest payments are tax deductible

C) the money doesn't have to be paid back and no ownership in the firm is surrendered

D) no ownership in the firm is surrendered and interest payments are tax deductible

E) banks are reliable sources of funding for startups and lenders typically take an active interest in borrowers

39) The most notable SBA program available to small businesses is the:

A) SBA 1060 Guaranty

B) Code 604 Guaranty Program

C) 7(A) Guaranty Program

D) SBA 101 Program

E) Small Business 401 Program

40) According to a survey conducted by the National Small Business Association between August 2008 and December 2009, between ________ percent of business owners utilized vendor credit.

A) 12 and 18

B) 17 and 21

C) 22 and 29

D) 35 and 40

E) 52 and 58

41) ________ is a financial transaction whereby a business sells its accounts receivable to a third party at a discount in exchange for cash.

A) Factoring

B) Vendor credit

C) Peer-to-peer lending

D) Crowdfunding

E) Leasing

42) Prosper is the best known:

A) factor

B) provider of SBA guaranteed loans

C) peer-to-peer lending network

D) provider of vendor credit

E) crowdfunding network

43) A(n) ________ is a written agreement in which the owner of a piece of property allows an individual or business to use the property for a specified period of time in exchange for payments.

A) assurance

B) loan

C) guarantee

D) warranty

E) lease

44) The major advantage of leasing is that:

A) it enables a company to have access to average or above average facilities and equipment

B) it enables a company to acquire the use of assets with little or no down payment

C) it is cheaper in the long run than purchasing

D) a lease agreement is easier to negotiate than a purchase agreement

E) it is easier to obtain credit on a lease than a purchase

45) The ________ is a competitive grant program that provides over $1 billion per year to small businesses for early-state and development projects.

A) SBTA Program

B) SBIR Program

C) SBAP Program

D) SAIR Program

E) SBTR Program

46) Which "phase" of the SBIR Program is intended to demonstrate the proposed innovation's technical feasibility?

A) Phase I

B) Phase II

C) Phase III

D) Phase V

E) Phase X

47) The SBIR is a ________, meaning that firms that qualify have the potential to receive more than one grant to fund a particular proposal.

A) two-phase program

B) three-phase program

C) six-phase program

D) nine-phase program

E) twelve-phase program

48) The main difference between the SBIR and the STTR programs is that the STTR program requires the participation of:

A) an attorney

B) a venture capitalist

C) researchers working at universities or other research institutions

D) a certified public accountant

E) a government agency in conducting the research

49) Which of the following statements is incorrect about grant programs?

A) Granting agencies are very visible and well-known, so it's normally not hard to find one.

B) The federal government has grant programs beyond the SBIR and STTR programs.

C) It's important to avoid grant-related scams.

D) There are a limited number of organizations that offer new businesses grants.

E) There are private foundations that grant money to both existing and startup firms.

50) The What Went Wrong? feature in Chapter 10 focuses on GoCrossCampus, a company that developed a strategy game in which students from opposing schools competed online to conquer each other's campuses. Which of the following was not identified as one of the reasons that led to GoCrossCampus's failure?

A) The company never generated the revenue it needed to be a viable ongoing business.

B) The fund-raising process was time-consuming.

C) Products were released quickly, and in some cases before they were ready.

D) Having five cofounders proved to be problematic.

E) The company was never able to raise investment capital.

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C10

2012-06-15T14:00:00.000+08:00

Chapter 10

1) inDinero, the company profiled in the opening feature for Chapter 10, is described by its cofounders as "the fastest way for small businesses to manage their finances." Which of the following is not true about inDinero's founding story?

A) In 2009, inDineor's founders applied to TechStars, which is a Boulder, CO-based seed-stage fund/incubator, and were turned down.

B) The idea for inDinero originated in mid-2009 while its cofounders were still in college.

C) In April 2010, the founders of inDinero applied to Y Combinator, an organization that provides seed-stage funding, mentorship, and networking opportunities to participants, and were turned down.

D) inDinero reportedly has over 15,000 users .

E) In late 2009 and early 2010, the founders of inDinero tried to raise angel funding and were unsuccessful.

2) According to the textbook, many entrepreneurs go about the task of raising capital haphazardly because:

A) they are uncomfortable talking about money and they haven't written a business plan

B) they lack experience in this area and because they don't know much about their choices

C) they are focused on the nuts and bolts of starting their business

D) they haven't completed a feasibility analysis or business plan

E) they are intimidated by the process and they are unsure of how much money they need

3) Kimberly Jones is the founder of a company in the medical equipment industry. Kimberly's firm is still in the feasibility analysis stage and doesn't have a product that is ready to sell. The company is spending about $25,000 per month and expects to maintain that level of spending until it reaches profitability. The $25,000 a month is Kimberly's:

A) consumption rate

B) utilization rate

C) burn rate

D) usage rate

E) liquidity rate

4) The three reasons startups need funding are:

A) cash flow challenges, capital investments, and lengthy product development cycles

B) business research, cash flow challenges, and costs associated with building a brand

C) bonuses for members of the new venture team, attorney fees, and lengthy product development cycles

D) attorney fees, capital investments, and marketing research

E) bonuses for members of the new venture team, marketing research, and personnel costs

5) In startup firms, inventory must be purchased, employees must be trained and paid, and advertising must be paid for before cash is generated from sales. Which of the following reasons that motivate firms to seek funding or financing is illustrated in this example?

A) cash flow challenges

B) marketing costs

C) personnel costs

D) capital investments

E) lengthy product development cycles

6) For startup firms, the cost of buying real estate, building facilities, and purchasing equipment often exceeds the firm's ability to provide funds for those needs on its own. Which of the following reasons that motivate firms to seek funding or financing is illustrated in this example?

A) lengthy product development cycles

B) costs associated with building a brand

C) cash flow challenges

D) capital investments

E) personnel costs

7) Peter Simmons owns an electronic games company. Although Peter's game designers and programmers are very good, it takes 2-3 years to develop a good electronic game. This example illustrates the need for funding or financing referred to as:

A) personnel costs

B) marketing costs

C) costs associated with building a brand

D) lengthy product development cycles

E) cash flow challenges

8) For startup firms, some products are under development for years before they generate earnings. The upfront costs often exceed a firm's ability to fund these activities on its own. Which of the following reasons that motivate firms to seek funding or financing is illustrated in this example?

A) cash flow challenges

B) marketing costs

C) capital investments

D) personnel costs

E) lengthy product development cycles

9) According to our textbook, the seed money that gets a company off the ground typically comes from:

A) angel investors

B) venture capitalists

C) commercial banks

D) governmental agencies

E) the founders of the firm

10) Jason Graham's startup, which is in the electronics industry, was launched on January 1, 2009. However, prior to its formal launch, Jason spent many hours working on his business, particularly during the feasibility analysis stage. The time and effort that entrepreneurs put into their venture, that can't be easily measured from a financial point of view, is referred to as:

A) effort equity

B) intangible equity

C) sweat equity

D) worry equity

E) fret equity

11) According to the textbook, beyond their own funds, the second source of funds for many new ventures is:

A) government grants

B) business angels

C) friends and family

D) banks

E) venture capital

12) Bill and Megan Tempelton are planning to open a smoothie restaurant near a large soccer complex in Greeley, Colorado, and need $75,000 to get started. They have $15,000 of their own money, which leaves $60,000. After getting turned down by a couple of banks, they decided to turn to their relatives and acquaintances for help. Fortunately, they were able to raise the money through a gift from Bill's grandfather, a loan from Megan's parents, and a small investment by Bill's best friend in college, Kevin. The money that an entrepreneur raises in this manner is referred to as:

A) friends and family

B) bootstrapping

C) networking money

D) compassion money

E) legacy money

13) Amy Clark just opened a soup and salad restaurant near Golden Gate Park in San Francisco. Rather than borrow money or raise funds from investors, Amy used her creativity and ingenuity and figured out how to get her business up and running without the need for external funding. Amy is utilizing a technique referred to as:

A) networking

B) reaching

C) scrounging

D) prospecting

E) bootstrapping

14) Which of the following was not identified in the textbook as a common (and sound) bootstrapping strategy?

A) coordinate purchases with other businesses

B) hire interns

C) minimize personal expenses

D) buy rather than lease equipment

E) obtain payments in advance from customers

15) Equity financing (or funding) means:

A) exchanging partial ownership in a firm, usually in the form of stock, for funding

B) getting a grant or outright gift

C) getting a loan

D) getting a lease

E) getting a loan guarantee

16) Which of the following is not a source of equity funding?

A) initial public offering

B) angel investors

C) private placement

D) venture capital

E) government grants

17) Equity investors typically have a ________ investment horizon.

A) 1 to 3 year

B) 2 to 4 year

C) 3 to 5 year

D) 4 to 6 year

E) 5 to 7 year

18) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding equity funding?

A) Equity investors expect to get their money back, along with a substantial capital gain, through the sale of their stock.

B) Angel investors are a common source of equity funding.

C) Equity funding is not a loan.

D) Equity investors are very demanding.

E) Equity investors fund the majority of the plans they consider.

19) The three most common forms of equity funding are:

A) friends and family, venture capital, bank loans

B) SBIR grants, SBA guaranteed loans, bank loans

C) initial public offerings, business angels, venture capitalists

D) friends and family, business angels, bootstrapping

E) SBIR grants, venture capital, initial public offerings

20) Which of the following set of characteristics places a startup in the strongest position to apply for equity funding?

A) weak cash flow, high leverage, low-to-moderate growth, unproven management

B) strong cash flow, low leverage, audited financials, good management, healthy balance sheet

C) unique business idea, strong cash flow, low-to-moderate growth, broad market

D) strong cash flow, high leverage, low-to-moderate growth, unproven management

E) unique business idea, high growth, niche market, proven management

21) A brief carefully constructed statement that outlines the merits of a business opportunity is called a(n):

A) subway speech

B) sway speech

C) bootstrap speech

D) teaser speech

E) elevator speech

22) The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 10 focuses on TechStars and Y Combinator: A New Breed of Start-Up Incubators. TechStars is headquartered in ________ while Y Combinator is headquartered in ________.

A) the Silicon Valley, Chicago

B) Boulder, CO, New York City

C) Austin, TX, New York City

D) the Silicon Valley, Austin, TX

E) Chicago, Boulder, CO

23) According to a study cited in the textbook, ________ of private companies meet the criterion established by business angels for investment.

A) 2 percent to 4 percent

B) 10 percent to 15 percent

C) 18 percent to 30 percent

D) 32 percent to 48 percent

E) 60 percent to 70 percent

24) Which of the following statement is not correct regarding business angels?

A) Business angels invest in more startups on a yearly basis than venture capitalists.

B) The number of angel investors has decreased dramatically over the past decade.

C) Business angels usually take a seat on the board of directors of the firms in which they invest.

D) Business angels are valuable because of their willingness to make relatively small investments.

E) Business angels are difficult to find.

25) According to the textbook, the unique value provided by business angels is:

A) they are willing to make relatively large investments

B) they are willing to make relatively small investments

C) they require a fairly low rate of return on their money

D) they invest money but typically don't take a seat on a company's board of directors

E) they are easy to find

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C9 (2)

2012-06-14T23:00:00.000+08:00

Chapter 9

26) Kate Harrison is in the process of launching an educational services firm. She plans to incorporate the firm. Because the firm will be incorporated, Kate is legally required to have a:

A) board of investors

B) board of advisors

C) customer advisory board

D) board of directors

E) panel of advisors and peers

27) A board of directors is typically made up of both:

A) junior and senior directors

B) inside and outside directors

C) experienced and inexperienced directors

D) novice and expert directors

E) paid and unpaid directors

28) The panel of individuals who are elected by a corporation's shareholders to oversee the management of the firm is called the:

A) board of advisors

B) accountability panel

C) advisory team

D) panel of directors

E) board of directors

29) A board of directors is typically made up of both inside and ________ directors.

A) leading

B) subordinate

C) specialist

D) outside

E) impartial

30) In the context of boards of directors, a(n) ________ is a person who is also an officer of the firm.

A) outside director

B) junior director

C) inside director

D) expert director

E) senior director

31) In the context of boards of directors, a(n) ________ is someone who is not employed by the firm.

A) outside director

B) inside director

C) external director

D) impartial director

E) peripheral director

32) James Williams is the Chief Operating Officer of a startup in the health food industry. He is also a member of his firm's board of directors. In board of directors terminology, James is a(n):

A) inside director

B) outside director

C) expert director

D) junior director

E) senior director

33) Keith Barnes is a general partner in a venture capital firm that just funded South Florida Software, a software firm in Coral Gables, Florida. South Florida Software is incorporated, and Keith has taken a seat on the firm's board of directors. In board of directors terminology, Keith is a(n):

A) subordinate director

B) senior director

C) distant director

D) inside director

E) outside director

34) A board of directors has three formal responsibilities:

A) periodically update the firm's business plan, declare dividends, and write the firm's marketing plan

B) appoint the officers of the firm, declare dividends, and oversee the affairs of the corporation

C) write the firm's strategic plan, declare dividends, and conduct the annual meeting

D) appoint the officers of the firm, conduct the annual meeting, and submit the firm's annual report to the Securities & Exchange Commission

E) provide funding to the firm, write the firm's strategic plan, and submit the firm's annual report to the Securities & Exchange Commission

35) A board of directors has three formal responsibilities: appoint the officers of the firm, oversee the affairs of the corporation, and:

A) conduct the annual meeting

B) provide funding for the firm

C) submit the firm's annual report to the stockholders

D) declare dividends

E) write the firm's strategic plan

36) A board of directors has three formal responsibilities: appoint the officers of the firm, declare dividends, and:

A) write the firm's strategic plan

B) conduct the annual meeting

C) provide funding for the firm

D) represent the firm in public relations activities

E) oversee the affairs of the corporation

37) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding boards of directors?

A) If a new venture organizes as a corporation, it is not legally required to have a board of directors, but it is strongly recommended.

B) A board is typically made up of both inside and outside directors.

C) The board is responsible for declaring dividends.

D) Most boards meet formally three or four times a year.

E) The boards for publicly traded companies are required by law to have audit and compensation committees.

38) According to the textbook, although a board of directors has formal governance responsibilities, its most useful role is to:

A) provide guidance and support to the firm's managers

B) submit papers on behalf of the firm to the SEC

C) represent the firm in public relations activities

D) conduct the firm's annual meeting

E) provide funding to the firm

39) Andy Zackery just launched a firm in the sporting goods industry. On the day the company was launched, Andy issued a press release, indicating that the vice president of Brunswick, a highly respected sporting goods company, had agreed to serve on his board of directors. Andy knows that such a high quality appointment will send an important message to his potential clientele. This phenomenon is referred to as:

A) championing

B) signaling

C) profiling

D) indicating

E) trumping

40) Melissa Jones just launched a firm in the wireless communications industry. Shortly after the company was launched, Melissa announced that a prominent Silicon Valley venture capitalist had agreed to serve on her board of directors. Melissa knows that such a high quality appointment will send an important message to her potential business partners and clientele. This phenomenon is referred to as:

A) trumping

B) championing

C) profiling

D) signaling

E) indicating

41) Which of the following was not identified in the textbook as an attribute of an effective board of directors?

A) homogeneous set of experiences and talents

B) customer-focused point of view

C) ability and willingness to stand up to the CEO and top managers of the firm

D) strong communication with the CEO

E) decisiveness

42) Which of the following was not identified in the textbook as an attribute of an effective board member?

A) strong personal and professional networks

B) unknown in their field

C) investment and/or operating experience

D) ability and willingness to mentor the CEO and the top managers of the firm

E) pattern recognition skills

43) A(n) ________ is a panel of experts who are asked by a firm's managers to provide counsel and advice on an ongoing basis.

A) consultation board

B) idea panel

C) counseling panel

D) advisory board

E) suggestion panel

44) William Woods recently launched a printing company. One thing William is thinking about creating is a panel of experts who can provide him ongoing direction and advice regarding the future of his business. William is thinking about creating a(n):

A) analysis panel

B) discussion board

C) advisory board

D) suggestion panel

E) accountability panel

45) Amy Phillips founded a cosmetics firm several years ago. Her firm has grown rapidly and is financially successful. One thing that Amy attributes her success to is that early on she assembled a panel of experts who provided her ongoing direction and advice about her business. What Amy created is called a(n):

A) consultation panel

B) suggestion panel

C) idea board

D) accountability panel

E) advisory board

46) Which of the following statements about advisory boards is incorrect?

A) The fact that a corporation has a board of directors does not preclude it from establishing one or more advisory boards.

B) An advisory board can be established for general purposes or can be set up to address a specific issue or need.

C) Similar to a board of directors, an advisory board has legal responsibility for the firm in certain areas.

D) An advisory board is a panel of experts who are asked by a firm's managers to provide counsel and advice on an ongoing basis.

E) A growing number of startups are forming advisory boards.

47) Which of the following statements about advisory boards is incorrect?

A) If a firm has a board of directors it is not permitted to have an advisory board.

B) Many people are more willing to serve on a company's board of advisors than its board of directors because it requires less time and there is no potential legal liability involved.

C) Most boards of advisers have between 5 and 15 members.

D) A growing number of startups are forming advisory boards.

E) An advisory board can be established for general purposes or can be set up to address a specific issue or need.

48) According to the textbook, most boards of advisers have between:

A) 5 and 15 members

B) 2 and 4 members

C) 10 and 18 members

D) 2 and 3 members

E) 4 and 7 members

49) The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 9 focuses on iConclude, a company that set up a customer advisory board. The main point of the feature is:

A) the proper time to set up a customer advisory board is just after a business has been launched

B) the members of a firm's customer advisory board should be as diverse as possible

C) a customer advisory board can be a good source of new product or service ideas

D) the main purpose of a customer advisory board is to assess customer satisfaction

E) setting up a customer advisory board before a business is launched can be a useful way of getting feedback while a product is being developed

50) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the typical role of consultants in business startups?

A) give professional advice

B) international consulting firms, like Accenture and Bearing Point, are financially beyond the reach of most small firms

C) consultants fall into two categories: paid consultants and consultants who are made available for free

D) give expert advice

E) help manage the day-to-day activities of the firm

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C9

2012-06-14T22:00:00.001+08:00

Chapter 9

1) Scripped, the company profiled in the opening feature for Chapter 9, offers Web-based screenwriting software. Which of the following statements best reflects Scripped's personnel policy?

A) Scripped has hired aggressively and now has approximately 40 employees.

B) Its three cofounders are its only employees.

C) Scripped was founded by two UCLA MBA students and quickly grew to 10 employees.

D) Its founder is its only employee.

E) It has avoided building a large staff. Its formal employees consist of its three cofounders and an individual obtained in a merger.

2) A ________ is the group of founders, key employees, and advisers that move a new venture from an idea to a fully functioning firm.

A) new venture panel

B) startup team

C) new venture team

D) new project team

E) startup cadre

3) Jenny Templeton is preparing to launch a home security firm. The team of people that will launch Jenny's firm are as follows: Jenny (CEO), Brent (VP-Finance), Carrie (VP-Sales), a four-person Board of Directors, a five-person Board of Advisors, and Jenny's primary investor, who will assume an advisory role. The group of people that will launch Jenny's firm is called its:

A) startup squad

B) new venture panel

C) new venture team

D) startup cadre

E) startup troop

4) The fact that companies often falter because the people who start the firms can't adjust quickly enough to their new roles and because the firm lacks a "track record" with outside buyers and sellers, is referred to as the:

A) liability of preparedness

B) liability of newness

C) burden of novelty

D) burden of freshness

E) millstone of innovation

5) Savanna Combs opened a clothing boutique two years ago. Unfortunately, the boutique failed after 18 months. Savanna attributes the failure of her boutique to the facts that her employees couldn't adjust quickly enough to their new roles and that her boutique lacked a "track record" with outside buyers and sellers, which made it difficult to form partnerships and make sales. Savanna suffered from what research calls the:

A) burden of novelty

B) millstone of innovation

C) liability of newness

D) liability of preparedness

E) burden of newness

6) The high failure rate among new ventures is due in part to the liability of newness, which refers to the fact that new companies often falter because:

A) they are underfunded and the founders of the firms don't move quickly enough to put together boards of directors and boards of advisors that can provide them direction and advice

B) the founders of the firms underestimate the complexities involved with starting a new business and the firms lack a "track record" with outside buyers and sellers

C) the people who start the firms can't adjust quickly enough to their new roles and the firms lack a "track record" with outside buyers and sellers

D) the people who start the firms can't adjust quickly enough to their new roles and they are underfunded

E) the founders of the firms underestimate the complexities involved with starting a new business and they don't move quickly enough to establish business partnerships

7) Which of the following was not identified in the textbook as an element of a new venture team?

A) board of advisors

B) suppliers and vendors

C) key employees

D) lenders and investors

E) management team

8) According to the textbook, studies show that more than one individual starts ________ of all new firms.

A) 20 to 25 percent

B) 50 to 70 percent

C) 5 to 15 percent

D) 30 to 40 percent

E) 75 to 90 percent

9) The What Went Wrong feature in Chapter 9 focuses on Deever, a 2008 startup that helped software developers use cloud-based services to "test" their code in an expedient manner. According to the feature, one of the primary reasons Deever failed was:

A) it lacked a cofounder who loved the business side of running a startup

B) the cofounders couldn't get along

C) it didn't build a robust partnership network

D) it didn't solicit advice from attorneys, bankers or business consultants

E) it didn't have a Board of Advisors

10) Which of the following statements is untrue regarding founding teams?

A) The members of heterogeneous teams are diverse in terms of their abilities and experiences.

B) The members of homogenous teams are very similar in terms of their abilities and experiences.

C) Teams that have worked together before have an edge.

D) Studies show that more than one individual starts 50 to 70 percent of all new firms.

E) It is generally believed that new ventures started by an individual have an advantage over new ventures started by a team.

11) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding founding teams?

A) The members of heterogeneous teams are diverse in terms of their abilities and experiences.

B) Teams that are working together for the first time have an advantage over teams that have worked together before.

C) The psychological support that cofounders of a new business can offer one another is an important element of a firm's success.

D) The members of homogeneous teams are very similar in terms of their abilities and experiences.

E) Studies show that more than one individual starts 50 to 70 percent of all new teams.

12) The members of heterogeneous teams are:

A) diverse in terms of their abilities and experiences

B) diverse in terms of their abilities, but very similar in terms of their experiences

C) similar in terms of their abilities and experiences

D) diverse in terms of their experiences, but very similar in terms of their abilities

E) sometimes diverse in terms of their abilities and experiences and sometimes similar along the same dimensions

13) The members of homogeneous teams are:

A) diverse in terms of their abilities and experiences

B) diverse in terms of their abilities, but very similar in terms of their experiences

C) similar in terms of their abilities and experiences

D) diverse in terms of their experiences, but very similar in terms of their abilities

E) sometimes diverse in terms of their abilities and experiences and sometimes similar along the same dimensions

14) According to the textbook, which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the size and composition of the founding team of a firm?

A) There is no relationship between a founding team's size and its effectiveness.

B) A founding team larger than four people is typically too large to be practical.

C) The members of a homogeneous founding team are similar in terms of their abilities and experiences.

D) The members of a heterogeneous founding team are diverse in terms of their abilities and experiences.

E) A founding team can be too big, causing communication problems and increasing potential for conflict.

15) According to the textbook, prior entrepreneurial experiences:

A) is one of the poorest predictors of future entrepreneurial performance

B) is one of the most consistent predictors of future entrepreneurial performance for entrepreneurs under 50 years of age but not for entrepreneurs over 50 years of age

C) is one of the most consistent predictors of future entrepreneurial performance

D) is one of the most consistent predictors of future entrepreneurial performance in service firms but not in manufacturing firms

E) has no relationship to future entrepreneurial performance

16) Which of the following statements is not true regarding the attributes of the founder or founders of a firm?

A) Evidence suggests that important entrepreneurial skills are enhanced through higher education.

B) Founders with prior entrepreneurial experience are more likely to avoid costly mistakes.

C) Founders with experience in the same industry as their new ventures will typically have "blinders" on and are typically not as effective as founders new to the industry.

D) Founders with broad social and professional networks have an advantage.

E) New ventures that are started by a team rather than an individual have an advantage.

17) Which of the following qualities was not identified in the textbook as a preferred attribute of the founder or founders of a firm?

A) prior entrepreneurial experience

B) firm started by a team

C) relevant industry experience

D) prior experience working in a government or university position

E) higher education

18) The process of building and maintaining relationships with people whose interests are similar or whose relationship could bring advantages to the firm is called:

A) linking

B) socializing

C) networking

D) associating

E) connecting

19) Ned Kite is a four time business owner. One thing that has served Ned well throughout his entrepreneurial career is his ability to build and maintain relationships with people whose interests are similar or whose relationships could bring advantages to his new ventures. According to the textbook, Ned is a good:

A) networker

B) socializer

C) linker

D) assembler

E) connector

20) A(n) ________ is a chart that depicts the most important skills that are needed in a new venture and where skills gaps exist.

A) expertise report

B) talent profile

C) abilities summary

D) skills profile

E) talent summary

21) Jason Andersen just finished writing a business plan for a new type of office supply store. One thing Jason included in the "Management Team & Company Structure" section of his business plan is a chart that depicts the most important skills that are needed for his business and where skills gaps exist. Jason included a(n)________ in his business plan.

A) skills profile

B) talent report

C) abilities profile

D) expertise report

E) talent summary

22) A skills profile is a chart that depicts the:

A) preferable skills and abilities of the members of a firm's board of advisors

B) preferable skills and abilities of the members of a firm's board of directors

C) most important skills that are needed in a business startup and where skills gaps exist

D) skills and abilities that will be needed for a firm to maintain an aggressive growth strategy

E) the skills of a company's customers and how those skills impact the product and services a company provides

23) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature in Chapter 9 focuses on how business founders overcome a lack of business experience. Which of the following was not mentioned as a practical way for a new business founder to overcome a lack of business experience?

A) hiring consultants from a major consulting firm, like Bain & Company or McKinsey & Company

B) taking on a partner that has business experience

C) getting help from a Small Business Development Center

D) joining a Meetup group

E) participating in online forums

24) A 2011 survey conducted by the University of Maryland's School of Business and Network Solutions asked small business owners how well they competed with other companies for good employees, and only ________ said they were successful.

A) 16 percent

B) 28 percent

C) 30 percent

D) 46 percent

E) 66 percent

25) If a new venture organizes as a corporation, it is legally required to have a(n) ________, which is a panel of individuals who are elected by a corporation's shareholders to oversee the management of the firm.

A) board of advisors

B) review team

C) team of advisors

D) accountability panel

E) board of directors

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

HTU 223 TITAS Final Exam June 2012

2012-06-14T15:06:00.001+08:00

HTU 223 – Tamadun Islam dan Tamadun Asia (TITAS)

Final Exam June 2012

Berasaskan prinsip Islam Hadhari yang pertama iaitu Keimanan dan Ketakwaan kepada Allah, bincangkan konsep tiada paksaan dalam agama dan berikan contoh-contoh untuk menyokong jawapan anda. [40 markah]
Huraikan faktor-faktor kelahiran dan kemerosotan tamadun dengan memberi contoh-contoh yang sesuai. [30 markah]
Jelas dan bincangkan sumbangan Tamadun Melayu dalam pembinaan Dasar Kebudayaan Kebangsaan Malaysia. [30 markah]
Huraikan secara mendalam DUA konsep Konfucianisme berikut dan nyatakan kepentingan setiap konsep tersebut dalam kehidupan masyarakat Cina pada masa kini.
[a] Ren
[b] Xiao [30 markah]
Bincangkan secara mendalam LIMA konsep utama dalam agama Hindu yang saling berkaitan tentang lingkaran kelahiran dan kematian. [30 markah]

More relevant details about TITAS, click HERE.

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C8 (2)

2012-06-13T16:00:00.000+08:00

Chapter 8

26) Which financial statement records all of a firms revenues and expenses for a given period and shows whether the firm is making a profit or experiencing a loss?

A) balance sheet

B) owner's equity statement

C) statement of cash flows

D) forecast

E) income statement

27) On a firm's income statement, net sales consists of:

A) operating expenses minus cost of sales

B) total sales minus allowances for returned goods and discounts

C) cost of sales minus allowances for returned goods and discounts

D) cost of sales minus operating expenses

E) total sales minus operating expenses

28) According to the textbook, the three numbers that receive the most attention when evaluating an income statement are:

A) depreciation, interest income, and income tax expense

B) cost of sales, gross profit, and operating expenses

C) net sales, cost of sales, and operating expenses

D) gross profit, net sales, and incomes tax expense

E) gross profit, other income, and net income

29) A firm's profit margin, or return on sales, is computed by dividing:

A) net income by net sales

B) gross profit by net sales

C) net income by gross profit

D) net income by cost of sales

E) operating income by gross profit

30) A(n) ________ is a snapshot of a company's assets, liabilities, and owners' equity at a specific point in time.

A) income statement

B) statement of cash flows

C) effectiveness statement

D) balance sheet

E) efficiency statement

31) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding how balance sheets are prepared?

A) The left hand side of a balance sheet shows a firm's assets.

B) The assets on a balance sheet are shown in order of liquidity.

C) Assets are recorded at fair market value rather than cost.

D) The right hand side of a balance sheet shows a firm's liabilities and its owners' equity.

E) Intellectual property receives value in some cases and in some cases it does not.

32) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature in Chapter 8 focuses on a scenario involving the selection of a new CEO for New Venture Fitness Drinks. The lesson learned from the feature was:

A) compare a firm's financial ratios against its primary competitors and industry norms to fairly assess how well a firm is performing financially

B) income statements are more effective in assessing how well a firm is performing financially than are balance sheets and statements of cash flow

C) the most powerful instrument for understanding how well a firm is performing financially is the statement of cash flows

D) ratio analysis is ineffective

E) look at multiple years of an income statement rather than a single year to fairly assess how well a firm is performing financially

33) Real estate, buildings, equipment and furniture are classified as ________ on a company's balance sheet.

A) intermediate term assets

B) fixed assets

C) other assets

D) permanent assets

E) current assets

34) Cash plus items that are readily convertible to cash, such as accounts receivable, marketable securities, and inventories are classified as ________ on a firm's balance sheet.

A) other assets

B) intermediate term assets

C) temporary assets

D) current assets

E) fixed assets

35) Which of the following is an example of a long-term liability?

A) accounts payable

B) real estate mortgage

C) accrued expenses

D) current portion of real estate mortgage

E) owners' equity

36) When evaluating a balance sheet, the two primary questions are:

A) whether a firm has sufficient short-term assets to cover its short-term debts and whether it is profitable

B) whether a firm is profitable and whether a firm is financially sound

C) whether its costs of sales is going up and whether it is generating excess cash that could be used to pay down debt or pay dividends

D) whether a firm has sufficient short-term assets to cover its short-term debts and whether it is financially sound

E) whether a firm is profitable and whether it is generating excess cash that could be used to pay down debt or pay dividends

37) A firm's working capital is its:

A) inventory and accounts receivable minus its current liabilities

B) current assets minus its current liabilities

C) total assets minus its total liabilities

D) cash and cash equivalents minus its current liabilities

E) accounts receivable minus its total accounts payable

38) A firm's ________ is its current assets divided by its current debt.

A) working share

B) present share

C) working capital

D) owners' equity

E) current ratio

39) Which of the financial statements used by businesses to keep track of their financial affairs is the most similar to an ordinary person's end-of-the month bank statement?

A) income statement

B) balance sheet

C) statement of cash flows

D) statement of ratio analysis

E) statement of owners' equity

40) The statement of cash flows is divided into three separate activities:

A) profitability activities, stability activities, and investing activities

B) stability activities, earning activities, and financing activities

C) operating activities, capital activities, and liquidity activities

D) spending activities, earning activities, and capital activities

E) operating activities, investing activities, and financing activities

41) In the context of a firm's statement of cash flows, ________ include the purchase, sale, or investment in fixed assets, such as real estate, equipment, and buildings.

A) operating activities

B) investing activities

C) capital activities

D) financing activities

E) liquidity activities

42) In the context of a firm's statement of cash flows, ________ include cash raised during the period by borrowing money or selling stock and/or cash used during the period by paying dividends, buying back outstanding stock, or buying back outstanding bonds.

A) investing activities

B) financing activities

C) operating activities

D) liquidity activities

E) capital activities

43) According to the textbook, the most practical way to interpret or make sense of a firm's historical financial statements is through:

A) profit analysis

B) regression analysis

C) the preparation of pro forma financial statements

D) ratio analysis

E) percentage analysis

44) Kevin Pierce was reading the business plan of New Venture Fitness Drinks, and noticed that prior to its financial forecasts, New Venture Fitness Drinks placed an explanation of the sources of the numbers for the forecast and the assumptions used to generate them. This explanation is called a(n):

A) forecast sheet

B) forecast hypothesis

C) estimate statement

D) assumption sheet

E) hypothesis sheet

45) In the context of computing the cost of sales, the common way to do this is to use the percent-of-sales method, which is a method for expressing:

A) each expense item as a percentage of net sales

B) each expense item as a percentage of gross profit

C) each expense item as a percentage of net income

D) each expense item as a percentage of operating income

E) each expense item as a percentage of cost of sales

46) If a firm determines it can use the percentage-of-sales method and it follows the procedure described in the textbook, then the net result is that each expense item on its income statement (with the exception of those items that can be individually forecast) will grow at the same rate as sales. This approach is called the:

A) continuous percentage method of forecasting

B) stable fraction method of forecasting

C) regular proportion method of forecasting

D) constant ratio method of forecasting

E) steady percentage method of forecasting

47) A firm's pro forma financial statements are similar to its historical financial statements except that:

A) they do not include the income statement

B) they are required by the SEC in all cases

C) they look back rather than forward

D) they look forward rather than back

E) they do not include the statement of cash flows

48) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature for Chapter 8 focuses on Wise Acre Frozen Treats, a company that made organic popsicles from unrefined sweeteners. According to the feature, Wise Acre Frozen Treats failed largely because:

A) it grew too quickly, which overwhelmed its cash flow

B) it was not careful enough in preparing its pro forma financial statements

C) it was not efficient in the way it utilized its assets

D) it spent too much money on marketing

E) it did not compare its financial ratios to industry peers

49) The ________ provides a firm a sense of how its activities will affect its ability to meet its short-term liabilities and how its finances will evolve over time.

A) pro forma balance sheet

B) pro forma statement of cash flows

C) pro forma income statement

D) pro forms expense statement

E) pro forma statement of owners' equity

50) According to the textbook, the most important function of the pro forma statement of cash flows is to project whether the firm will have sufficient:

A) income to meet its payroll on a weekly or monthly basis

B) income to exceed industry norms

C) cash to meet its needs

D) inventory to meet its sales and production forecasts

E) short-term assets to cover its short-term liabilities

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C8

2012-06-13T15:00:00.000+08:00

Chapter 8

1) Klymit, the company profiled in the opening feature in Chapter 8, makes cold weather apparel products and related accessories. According to the feature, one of the prominent challenges Klymit has faced is:

A) cash flow management

B) constructing realistic pro forma financial statements

C) defining its core strategy

D) hiring qualified personnel

E) finding reliable partners

2) Financial management deals with two things—managing a company's finances and:

A) operations management

B) inventory control

C) raising money

D) production management

E) supply chain management

3) Which of the following was not identified as one of the four main financial objectives of a firm?

A) stability

B) efficiency

C) timeliness

D) liquidity

E) profitability

4) The four main financial objectives of a firm are:

A) efficiency, effectiveness, strength, and flexibility

B) power, success, efficiency, and effectiveness

C) control, effectiveness, liquidity, and power

D) success, strength, liquidity, and profitability

E) profitability, liquidity, efficiency, and stability

5) Match the financial objective with its correct definition.

A) stability/the overall health of the financial structure of the firm, particularly as it relates to its debt-to-equity ratio

B) profitability/how productively a firm utilizes its assets

C) liquidity/a company's ability to make a profit

D) efficiency/a company's ability to meet its short-term obligations

E) profitability/the overall health of the financial structure of the firm, particularly as it relates to its debt-to-equity ratio

6) ________ is a company's ability to meet its short-term financial obligations.

A) Liquidity

B) Profitability

C) Effectiveness

D) Stability

E) Efficiency

7) A company's ability to productively utilize its assets relative to its revenue and its profits is referred to as:

A) efficiency

B) effectiveness

C) stability

D) liquidity

E) profitability

8) Money owed to a company by its customers is referred to as:

A) accounts obtainable

B) accounts payable

C) accounts receivable

D) inventory

E) accounts collectable

9) Amanda Still owns a seafood restaurant in Clearwater, Florida. She is currently owed $19,000 by a corporation that she catered a meeting for and $2,000 on an overdue account. Amanda has $21,000 in:

A) accounts receivable

B) inventory

C) accounts collectable

D) accounts obtainable

E) accounts payable

10) A company's merchandise, raw materials, and products waiting to be sold is called its:

A) set aside

B) accumulation

C) reserve

D) inventory

E) stock

11) Peggy Owens owns a store that sells exercise equipment. Each January 1, she makes a very accurate account of all her merchandise and products waiting to be sold that are in her store. On January 1, Peggy is taking account of her store's:

A) long-term assets

B) owners' equity

C) accounts payable

D) accounts receivable

E) inventory

12) Southwest Airlines uses its assets very productively. Its turnaround time, or the time that its airplanes sit on the ground while they are being loaded and unloaded, is the lowest in the airline industry. In terms of the primary financial objectives of a firm, this attribute is a measure of Southwest's:

A) efficiency

B) effectiveness

C) stability

D) liquidity

E) profitability

13) The strength and vigor of a firm's overall financial posture is referred to as:

A) liquidity

B) effectiveness

C) stability

D) profitability

E) efficiency

14) A financial statement is a(n):

A) set of ratios which depict relationships between a firm's financial items

B) estimate of a firm's future income and expenses

C) hybrid statement of cash flows

D) itemized forecast of a company's income, expenses, and capital needs

E) written report that quantitatively describes a firm's financial health

15) ________ are an estimate of a firm's future income and expenses, based on its past performance, its current circumstances, and its future plans.

A) Calculation statements

B) Forecasts

C) Statements of cash flow

D) Financial statements

E) Prediction statements

16) ________ are itemized forecasts of a company's income, expenses, and capital needs and are also an important tool for financial planning and control.

A) Profitability statements

B) Financial statements

C) Owners' equity statements

D) Budgets

E) Statements of cash flows

17) Match the financial term with its proper definition.

A) forecasts/depict relationships between items on a firm's financial statements

B) forecasts/written report that quantitatively describes a firm's financial health

C) budgets/itemized forecasts of a company's income, expenses, and capital needs

D) financial ratios/written report that quantitatively describes a firm's financial health

E) financial statements/an estimate of a firm's future income and expenses

18) In regard to budgets, which of the following statements is not true?

A) Budgets include an itemized forecast of a company's expenses.

B) Budgets are a poor tool for financial control.

C) Budgets are an important tool for financial planning.

D) Budgets include an itemized forecast of a company's capital needs.

E) Budgets include an itemized forecast of a company's income.

19) ________ depict relationships between items on a firm's financial statements.

A) Financial proportions

B) Fiscal relations

C) Fiscal projections

D) Monetary balances

E) Financial ratios

20) The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 8 focuses on buying groups, and recommends that small businesses seek out buying groups to participate in. What is a "buying group" in the context of the feature?

A) a partnership that bands small businesses together to attain volume discounts on common products and services that they buy

B) a partnership that bands small businesses together to collectively make the commitment to "buy local" at every available opportunity

C) a partnership that bands small businesses together to get the best prices possible from foreign importers and manufacturers

D) a partnership that bands small businesses together to get the best possible terms from finance companies

E) a partnership that bands small businesses together to get the best possible rates on property and liability insurance

21) ________ reflect past performance and are usually prepared on a quarterly and annual basis.

A) Chronological financial statements

B) Ad-hoc financial statements

C) Historical financial statements

D) Concurrent financial statements

E) Pro forma financial statements

22) ________ are projections for future periods based on forecasts and are typically completed for two to three years into the future.

A) Chronological financial statements

B) Pro forma financial statements

C) Ad-hoc financial statements

D) Concurrent financial statements

E) Historical financial statements

23) Which of the following statements about pro forma financial statements is incorrect?

A) Pro forma financial statements are projections for future periods based on forecasts.

B) Pro forma financial statements are typically completed for two to three years into the future.

C) Pro forma financial statements are required by the SEC.

D) Most companies consider their pro forma financial statements to be confidential and reveal them to outsiders only on a "need to know basis."

E) Pro forma financial statements are strictly planning tools.

24) Which of the following selections correctly matches the financial statement with its description?

A) income statement/tells how much a firm is making or losing

B) income statement/depicts the structure of a firm's assets and liabilities

C) balance sheet/shows where a firm's cash is coming from

D) balance sheet/tells how much a firm is making or losing

E) statement of cash flows/depicts the structure of a firm's assets and liabilities

25) A firm's ________ reflects the results of its operations over a specified period and shows whether it is making a profit or is experiencing a loss.

A) statement of cash flows

B) income statement

C) forecast

D) balance sheet

E) operating budget

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C7 (2)

2012-06-12T06:48:00.001+08:00

Chapter 7

26) A(n) ________ details the responsibilities and the ownership shares of the partners involved with an organization.

A) partnership agreement

B) industry contract

C) business pledge

D) business agreement

E) partnership pledge

27) Which of the following is not an advantage of a general partnership?

A) Business losses can be deducted against the partners' other sources of income.

B) The skills and abilities of more than one individual are available to the firm.

C) The liquidity of each partner's investment is low.

D) Creating one is relatively easy and inexpensive compared to a c corporation or limited liability company.

E) It is not subject to double taxation.

28) A ________ partnership is a modified form of a general partnership.

A) restricted

B) limited

C) partial

D) constrained

E) fractional

29) Which of the following statements about limited partnerships is incorrect?

A) A limited partnership is a modified form of a general partnership.

B) Limited partnerships are common in real estate and oil and gas exploration.

C) A limited partnership is usually formed to raise money or to spread out the risk of a venture without forming a corporation.

D) Both the limited partners and the general partners are responsible for the debts and obligations of the partnership.

E) A limited partnership contains two classes of owners: general partners and limited partners.

30) A ________ sets forth the rights and duties of the general partners and limited partners, along with the details of how the partnership will be managed and eventually dissolved.

A) partnership accord

B) restricted partnership agreement

C) business partnership agreement

D) limited partnership concurrence

E) limited partnership agreement

31) According to the textbook, ________ are common in real estate development, oil and gas exploration, and motion picture ventures.

A) sole proprietorships

B) limited liability companies

C) Subchapter S Corporations

D) limited partnerships

E) general partnerships

32) A separate legal entity organized under the authority of a state is referred to as a:

A) limited partnership

B) conglomerate

C) general partnership

D) sole proprietorship

E) corporation

33) Corporations are organized as either:

A) permanent corporations or temporary corporations

B) general corporations or limited corporations

C) voluntary corporations or statutory corporations

D) C corporations or subchapter S corporations

E) regular corporations or limited liability corporations

34) Large firms like 3M, Google, Oracle, and Microsoft, that trade on organized stock exchanges, are:

A) limited partnerships

B) limited liability companies

C) subchapter S corporations

D) C corporations

E) general partnerships

35) Most C corporations have two classes of stock:

A) premium and normal

B) common and preferred

C) standard and substandard

D) regular and special

E) ordinary and distinct

36) Which of the following is true regarding common stock and preferred stock?

A) Preferred stock is rarely issued.

B) Common stock is rarely issued.

C) Common stock is issued more broadly than preferred stock.

D) Preferred stock is issued more broadly than common stock.

E) Common stock and preferred stock are issued in the same amount.

37) ________ is typically issued to conservative investors who have preferential rights over common stockholders in regard to dividends and to the assets of the corporation in the event of liquidation.

A) Restricted stock

B) Partial stock

C) Preferred stock

D) Common stock

E) Limited liability stock

38) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding common stock?

A) Common stock is issued more narrowly than preferred stock.

B) The common stockholders have voting rights.

C) The common stockholders get paid after the creditors in the event of the liquidation of the corporation.

D) Common stock is the form of stock that most shareholders of a corporation own.

E) The common stockholders elect the board of directors.

39) A corporation is formed by filing ________ with the Secretary of State's office in the state of incorporation.

A) certificate of intent to incorporate

B) articles of business

C) corporate credentials

D) a corporation permit

E) articles of incorporation

40) A disadvantage of corporations is that they are subject to ________, which means that a corporation is taxed on its net income and when the same income is distributed to shareholders in the form of dividends it is taxed again on shareholders' personal income tax returns.

A) double taxation

B) dual toll

C) double duty

D) double assessment

E) dual harm

41) Corporations that trade their stock on organized exchanges like the New York Stock Exchange and the NASDAQ are called:

A) national corporations

B) civil corporations

C) public corporations

D) premier corporations

E) common corporations

42) In a ________, the voting stock is held by a small number of individuals and is very thinly or infrequently traded.

A) public corporation

B) private corporation

C) narrow corporation

D) cautious public corporation

E) closely held corporation

43) If the owners of a corporation don't file their annual paperwork, neglect to pay their annual fees, or commit fraud, a court could ignore the fact that a corporation has been established and the owners could be held personally liable for the actions of the corporation. This chain of events is referred to as:

A) vacating the corporate status

B) yielding the corporate privilege

C) surrendering the corporate shield

D) piercing the corporate veil

E) capitulating the corporate doctrine

44) ________ are a special form of incentive compensation. These plans provide employees the option or right to buy a certain number of shares of their company's stock at a stated price over a certain period of time.

A) Corporate options

B) Collective plans

C) Share plans

D) Stock options

E) Dividends

45) Which of the following is a disadvantage of a C Corporation?

A) Income is subject to double taxation.

B) limited liability

C) Raising capital is easier than a partnership or sole proprietorship.

D) Stock is liquid if traded on a major stock exchange.

E) No restrictions exist on the number of shareholders.

46) Which of the following is an advantage of a C Corporation?

A) Setting up and maintaining one is more difficult than for a sole proprietorship or a partnership.

B) Stock is liquid if traded on a major stock exchange.

C) Business losses cannot be deducted against the shareholders' other sources of income.

D) Income is subject to double taxation.

E) Small shareholders typically have little voice in the management of the firm.

47) A ________ combines the advantages of a partnership and a C corporation.

A) subchapter S corporation

B) limited partnership

C) general partnership

D) sole proprietorship

E) subchapter K corporation

48) Which of the following is not one of the standards that a business must meet to qualify for status as a subchapter S corporation?

A) The business must be a subsidiary of another corporation.

B) All shareholders must agree to have the corporation formed as a subchapter S corporation.

C) It can have no more than 100 members (husbands and wives count as one member).

D) It can have only one class of stock issued and outstanding.

E) The shareholders must be U.S. citizens.

49) The ________ is a form of business organization that is rapidly gaining popularity in the United States. The concept originated in Germany and was first introduced in the United States in the state of Wyoming.

A) limited partnership

B) general partnership

C) limited liability company

D) subchapter S corporation

E) C corporation

50) In which form of business ownership are the owners called "members"?

A) general partnership

B) limited partnership

C) limited liability company

D) subchapter C corporation

E) C corporation

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C7

2012-06-12T06:48:00.000+08:00

Chapter 7

1) Xplosafe, the company profiled in the opening feature for Chapter 7, interviewed four attorneys before selecting the attorney they now use. They selected the attorney they did for two reasons:

A) his fees were the lowest and he is an entrepreneur himself

B) his references were the strongest and he is a former examiner for the U.S. Copyright Office

C) he is the President of the Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, bar association and he had experience working with startups

D) he is a startup entrepreneur himself and he is a former examiner for the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office

E) he had more experience working with startups and he agreed to alter his fee structure to charge less at the beginning and more as Xplosafe became profitable

2) According to the textbook, the single most important thing the founders of an entrepreneurial venture can do is:

A) start a board of advisors

B) establish business partnerships

C) make money

D) select a limited liability corporation as opposed to an S-corporation

E) establish a strong ethical culture for their firms

3) According to the 2009 National Business Ethics Survey, a total of ________ of the employees surveyed said they had observed misconduct or unethical behavior in the past year.

A) 12 percent

B) 21 percent

C) 32 percent

D) 49 percent

E) 60 percent

4) According to Chapter 7, which of the following forms of misconduct or unethical behavior was observed by the highest percentage of the U.S. workforce?

A) company resource abuse

B) employee privacy breach

C) health or safety violations

D) lying to outside stakeholders

E) discrimination

5) Which of the following is the most important thing that an entrepreneur, or team of entrepreneurs, can do to build a strong ethical culture in their organization?

A) implement an ethics training program

B) write a mission statement

C) lead by example

D) hire an ethics compliance officer

E) write a code of conduct

6) A ________ is a formal statement of an organization's values on certain ethical and social issues.

A) code of conduct

B) code of behavior

C) code of performance

D) code of principles

E) code of morals

7) "Don't be evil" is the corporate motto for:

A) Facebook

B) Twitter

C) Zynga

D) Apple Inc.

E) Google

8) A situation that involves doing something that is beneficial to oneself or the organization, but may be unethical, is called a(n):

A) ethical quandary

B) ethical predicament

C) ethical dilemma

D) principled quandary

E) just dilemma

9) A(n) ________ is a written document that deals with issues such as the relative split of the equity among the founders of the firm, how individual founders will be compensated for the cash or the "sweat equity" they put into the firm, and how long the founder will have to remain with the firm for their shares to fully vest.

A) entrepreneurs' agreement

B) creators' agreement

C) founders' agreement

D) initiators' agreement

E) originators' agreement

10) Most founders' agreements include a ________, which legally obligates the departing founder to sell to the remaining founders his or her interest in the firm if the remaining founders are interested.

A) redemption clause

B) buyback clause

C) statutory purchase clause

D) voluntary recoup clause

E) shareholder surrender clause

11) Which of the following is typically not included in the founders' agreement for a firm?

A) marketing plan

B) legal form of business ownership

C) buyback clause

D) apportionment of stock

E) identity and proposed titles of the founders

12) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature in Chapter 6 focuses on the topic of vesting company stock. According to the feature, a typical startup's vesting schedule lasts ________ and includes a 12-month cliff.

A) 12 months

B) 12 months to 24 months

C) 24 months to 36 months

D) 36 months to 48 months

E) 48 months to 60 months

13) The What Went Wrong? feature in Chapter 7 focuses on the failure of Green Plant, a company that sold smoothie drinks. Green Plant failed in part because it was sued by Jamba Juice for:

A) copyright infringement

B) trademark infringement

C) violating a nondisclosure agreement

D) theft of trade secrets

E) patent infringement

14) A(n) ________ agreement binds an employee or another party to not disclose a company's trade secret. A ________ agreement prevents an individual from competing against a former employer for a specific period of time.

A) nondisclosure, noncompete

B) non breach-of-trust, nonchallenge

C) voluntary truth, nonparticipate

D) binding confidentiality, noncompete

E) ethics, nonparticipate

15) Trevor Parsons just took a job with Twitter. As part of his employment contract, Trevor signed an agreement that states that he will not disclose any of Twitter's trade secrets. The agreement that Trevor signed is called a(n):

A) nondisclosure agreement

B) non breach-of-trust agreement

C) ethics agreement

D) binding confidentiality agreement

E) legitimacy agreement

16) Rachael James just took a job with IKEA. As part of her employment agreement, IKEA required Rachael to sign an agreement, which states that if she leaves IKEA, she will not work for a firm that competes against IKEA for at least two years. The agreement that Rachael signed is called a:

A) nondisclosure agreement

B) nonparticipate agreement

C) nonchallenge agreement

D) noncompete agreement

E) noncontend agreement

17) ________ is the process in which an impartial third party helps those involved in a dispute reach an agreement.

A) Conciliation

B) Reconciliation

C) Negotiation

D) Appeasement

E) Mediation

18) Which of the following statements regarding business licenses and permits is incorrect?

A) Most business licenses and permits can wait until after a business is launched to be obtained.

B) A business license can be obtained at the city clerk's office in the community where the business will be located.

C) If a business will be run out of a home, a home occupation business license is often required.

D) Some business licenses are hard to get.

E) The business licenses and permits that are needed vary by city, county, and state.

19) All businesses that plan to use a fictitious name, which is any name other than the business owner's name, need a(n):

A) unreal business name permit

B) fabricated business name permit

C) invented business name permit

D) conjured business name permit

E) fictitious business name permit

20) Which form of business ownership is a particularly poor choice for an aggressive entrepreneurial firm?

A) C corporation

B) sole proprietorship

C) subchapter S corporation

D) limited partnership

E) limited liability corporation

21) Which of the following is not one of the four factors identified in the textbook as critical in selecting a form of business ownership?

A) the cost of setting up and maintaining the legal form

B) the number and types of investors involved

C) accounting considerations

D) tax considerations

E) the extent to which personal assets can be shielded from the liabilities of the business

22) The simplest form of business entity is the:

A) sole proprietorship

B) general partnership

C) C Corporation

D) limited liability company

E) subchapter S corporation

23) All of the following are advantages of a sole proprietorship except:

A) creating one is easy and inexpensive

B) unlimited liability

C) it is not subject to double taxation

D) the owner maintains complete control of the business

E) business losses can be deducted against the sole proprietor's other sources of income

24) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding sole proprietorships?

A) There is one owner.

B) Sole proprietor is in full control.

C) Business ends at the owner's death or loss of interest in the business.

D) Liquidity of the investment is high.

E) Money must be raised by the sole proprietor.

25) Partnerships are organized as either:

A) specific or general partnerships

B) narrow or broad partnerships

C) inward or outward partnerships

D) general or limited partnerships

E) partial or full partnerships

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C6 (2)

2012-06-12T06:47:00.001+08:00

Chapter 6

26) A company's ________ defines the products and markets on which it will concentrate.

A) tactical analysis

B) business mission

C) product/market scope

D) supplier/buyer scope

E) basis of differentiation

27) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the "core strategy" component of a firm's business model?

A) A firm's core strategy describes how it competes relative to its competitors.

B) The product a firm chooses has little impact on its core strategy and business model.

C) A company's product/market scope defines the products and markets on which it will compete.

D) From a broad perspective firms typically choose one of two generic strategies: cost leadership or differentiation.

E) The generic strategy a firm chooses greatly affects its business model.

28) From a broad perspective, firms choose one of two generic strategies to position themselves in the marketplace. These are:

A) high quality and low cost

B) discount pricing and premium pricing

C) value and low cost

D) cost leadership and differentiation

E) cost premium and separation

29) Kendra Johnson is starting a firm in the shoe industry. Her shoes will be very high quality and will be priced at the top end of the market. Kendra has chosen the generic strategy referred to as:

A) value pricing

B) differentiation

C) competitive superiority

D) separation

E) quality plus

30) Jared King is starting a firm in the electronic games industry. The firm will produce games similar to popular games on the market, but they won't be as sophisticated and will be priced at the low end of the market. Jared has chosen the generic strategy referred to as:

A) price reduction

B) differentiation

C) quality plus

D) cost leadership

E) cost differentiation

31) Firms that have a ________ strategy strive to have the lowest costs in the industry, relative to competitors' costs, and typically attract customers on that basis. In contrast, firms using a ________ strategy compete on the basis of providing unique or different products and typically compete on the basis of quality, service, timeliness, or some other important dimension.

A) differentiation, cost leadership

B) cost emphasis, quality leadership

C) cost leadership, differentiation

D) price reduction, quality plus

E) cost differentiation, quality plus

32) Match the business model component with its explanation:

A) core strategy/how a firm structures and nurtures its partnerships

B) customer interface/how a firm acquires and uses its resources

C) strategic resources/how a firm acquires and uses its resources

D) partnership network/how a firm competes

E) core strategy/how a firm interfaces with its customers

33) Susan Spector is in the process of putting together the business model for her startup and is currently working on her core competencies and strategic assets. Which of the components of her business model is Susan working on?

A) core strategy

B) strategic resources

C) partnership network

D) customer interface

E) feasibility analysis

34) A ________ is a resource or capability that serves as a source of a firm's competitive advantage over its rivals.

A) foundational competency

B) core competency

C) distinctive attribute

D) center attribute

E) core element

35) Zappo's competence in customer service, Apple's competence in designing consumer products, and Netflix's competence in supply chain management are examples of ________, which serve as each of these respective firms' competitive advantage of their rivals.

A) foundational competencies

B) core competencies

C) core elements

D) distinguishing attributes

E) foundational attributes

36) ________ is the process of adapting a firm's core competencies to exploit new opportunities.

A) Resource leverage

B) Capacity proficiency

C) Ability leverage

D) Aptitude embellishment

E) Capacity extension

37) ________ are anything rare and valuable that a firm owns.

A) Tactical assets

B) Tactical properties

C) Deliberate assets

D) Strategic assets

E) Operational assets

38) In a business model context, the three components of a firm's partnership network are:

A) business mission, partners, and strategic assets

B) core competencies, suppliers, and target customer

C) suppliers, partners, and other key relationships

D) business mission, product/market scope, and basis for differentiation

E) pricing structure, fulfillment and support, and target customer

39) A supplier is a company that:

A) purchases a company's products

B) helps a firm put together its network of contacts

C) provides startups with funding

D) provides startups with business advice

E) provides parts or services to another company

40) The network of companies that participate in the production of a product, from the acquisition of raw materials to the final sale, is referred to as the:

A) input chain

B) participation chain

C) supply chain

D) involvement network

E) contribution chain

41) A hub and wheel configuration with a local firm at the hub organizing the interdependencies of a complex array of firms is referred to as a:

A) trade association

B) strategic alliance

C) network

D) joint venture

E) consortia

42) An arrangement between two or more firms that establishes an exchange relationship but has no joint ownership involved is called a:

A) network

B) trade association

C) consortia

D) joint venture

E) strategic alliance

43) A ________ is a group of organizations with similar needs that band together to create a new entity to address those needs.

A) joint venture

B) network

C) consortia

D) strategic alliance

E) trade association

44) Organizations (typically nonprofit) that are formed by firms in the same industry to collect and disseminate trade information, offer legal and technical advice, furnish industry-related training, and provide a platform for collective lobbying are called:

A) strategic alliances

B) trade associations

C) networks

D) joint ventures

E) consortia

45) ________, a relatively new approach to partnering, takes place when a service provided comes inside a partner's facilities and helps the partner design and manage its supply chain.

A) Permeating

B) Infiltrating

C) Penetrating

D) Fulfilling

E) Insourcing

46) The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 6 focuses on 99designs, an online company that features a "crowdsourcing" model for getting design work done. 99designs' approach to partnering with ________ is the essence of its disruptive business model.

A) professional art studios

B) freelance designers

C) art students

D) Google, Yahoo, and Microsoft

E) art teachers

47) In a business model context, the three components of a firm's customer interface are target customer, fulfillment and support, and:

A) pricing structure

B) product/market scope

C) basic for differentiation

D) strategic assets

E) business mission

48) A firm's ________ is the limited group of individuals or businesses that it goes after or tries to appeal to.

A) target objective

B) goal objective

C) intention market

D) target market

E) object market

49) Gary Smith just launched a firm in the sports drink industry. He has decided to focus his efforts on appealing to extreme sports enthusiasts (examples include hang gliders, rock climbers, and parachutists). In Gary's case, extreme sports enthusiasts represent his firm's:

A) target objective

B) target market

C) goal objective

D) intention market

E) object market

50) Fulfillment and support describes:

A) how a firm manages its customer relationships

B) the way a firm's product or service "goes to market" or how it reaches its customers

C) how a firm manages its employees

D) the products and markets on which a firm will compete

E) how a firm competes relative to its competitors

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C6

2012-06-12T06:47:00.000+08:00

Chapter 6

1) Stroome, the focus on the opening feature for Chapter 6, has developed a new Web-based service for editing and remixing video. Stroome's initial business model is based on making money in the following two ways:

A) subscription fees and licensing its software to film producers

B) a "freemium" pricing model and white labeling its site

C) online advertising and affiliate fees

D) white labeling its site and subscription fees

E) Google AdSense and affiliate fees

2) The opening feature in Chapter 6 focuses on Stroome, an exciting new Web-based service for editing and remixing video. The idea for Stroome emerged in:

A) a graduate communications class at the University of Southern California

B) a student-run incubator at the University of Illinois

C) a technology commercialization class at Cornell

D) a city-owned new business incubator in Cleveland

E) a business plan class at Kansas State

3) Catherine Smith has just finished writing a business plan for a startup in the medical products industry. She has now reached the point where she needs to develop a plan for how her firm will compete, use its resources, structure its relationships, interface with customers, and create value to sustain itself on the basis of the profits it earns. Jennifer needs to establish her firm's:

A) tactical plan

B) feasibility plan

C) business model

D) business template

E) operating plan

4) In regard to business models, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) There is a standard business model that most firms follow.

B) A firm's business model is inherently dependent on the collection of resources it controls and the capabilities it possesses.

C) It is dangerous for a company to assume that it can be successful by simply copying the business model of another firm.

D) A firm's business model is its plan or diagram for how it competes.

E) It is often difficult to determine what another firm's business model is.

5) The term ________ refers to initiatives, such as Netflix in movie rentals and Zipcar in car sharing, which revolutionize how products are sold in an industry.

A) product model modernism

B) business model innovation

C) feasibility analysis innovation

D) value innovation

E) opportunity innovation

6) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature in Chapter 6 focuses on three business model innovators: Warby Parker, Shopkick, and SunRun. What is Shopkick's business model innovation?

A) rewarding shoppers by the number of times they visit a Web site

B) rewarding shoppers by simply walking into a retail store

C) rewarding shoppers by the amount of time they spend in a particular store

D) rewarding shoppers by the number of times they visit a particular store

E) rewarding shoppers by the number of times they "tweet" about a particular store on Twitter

7) Which of the following is not one of the purposes of a business model?

A) serves as an ongoing extension of feasibility analysis

B) serves as a template for conducting industry analysis

C) focuses attention on how all the elements of a business fit together

D) describes why the network of participants needed to make a business idea viable is willing to work together

E) articulates a company's core logic to all stakeholders

8) In the WebHouse example included in Chapter 6, WebHouse failed because:

A) it did not complete a feasibility analysis

B) it did not write a complete business plan

C) it couldn't motivate its suppliers or customers to participate at a sufficient scale to support the overhead of the business

D) it charged too much for its services

E) it failed to focus on developing a core strategy

9) The ________ is the string of activities that moves a product from the raw material stage, through manufacturing and distribution, and ultimately to the end user.

A) consequence sequence

B) business chain

C) meaning chain

D) value chain

E) worth procession

10) Which of the following is not a "primary" activity in the value chain?

A) inbound logistics

B) marketing and sales

C) service

D) technology development

E) outbound logistics

11) Which of the following is a "primary" activity in the value chain?

A) resource procurement

B) technology development

C) outbound logistics

D) firm infrastructure

E) human resource management

12) According to the textbook, by studying a product's or service's value chain an organization can:

A) identify ways to create additional value and assess whether it has the means to do so

B) determine if its business plan needs to be revised

C) determine if it is cost effective to manufacture the product or sell the service

D) determine if an attractive niche market is available

E) determine if a product or service will be successful in the marketplace

13) Two fatal flaws can render a business model untenable from the beginning. These are:

A) failure to complete a business plan and failure to get funding

B) a complete misread of the customer and utterly unsound economics

C) failure to copy the industry leader's business plan and a complete misread of the customer

D) failure to complete a business plan and overemphasizing the importance of feasibility analysis

E) overemphasizing the importance of feasibility analysis and utterly unsound economics

14) Which of the following is a "support" activity in the value chain?

A) inbound logistics

B) service

C) marketing and sales

D) outbound logistics

E) resource procurement

15) ________ involves a firm's relationship with its suppliers and involves all the activities of receiving, storing, and shipping component parts to the place where they will be added to the final product.

A) Resource procurement

B) Operations

C) Outbound logistics

D) Technology development

E) Inbound logistics

16) ________ involves all the activities required to manufacture a product.

A) Resource procurement

B) Administration

C) Operations

D) Outbound logistics

E) Inbound logistics

17) Two fatal flaws can render a business model untenable from the beginning. These are utterly unsound economics and:

A) a complete misread of the customer

B) failure to copy the industry leader's business plan

C) overemphasis on the importance of feasibility analysis

D) overemphasis on the importance of industry analysis

E) failure to complete a business plan prior to developing a business model

18) The four components of a firm's business model are:

A) marketing plan, core strategy, business plan, and customer interface

B) core strategy, strategic resources, partnership network, and customer interface

C) economic environment, social environment, technological environment, and legal-regulatory environment

D) opportunity recognition, feasibility analysis, business plan, and human resource plan

E) marketing plan, operating plan, financial plan, and human resource plan

19) Which of the following is not one of the components of a firm's business model?

A) core strategy

B) strategic resources

C) partnership network

D) business plan

E) customer interface

20) The What Went Wrong? feature in Chapter 6 focuses on Joost, a company that launched in 2006 as a premier online video service that aggregated and streamed premium video online. Joost failed just three years after it launched. According to the feature, Joost's most critical mistake dealt with subtle aspects of its business model. In particular, its:

A) core strategy wasn't focused

B) pricing model was misguided

C) partnership network never came together

D) customer interface was poorly conceived

E) customer service strategy was poorly executed

21) Jeff Mommer is starting an environmentally friendly lawn and garden service. One thing that Jeff has worked hard on is determining how his company will compete in the marketplace. This element of Jeff's business model is referred to as:

A) core strategy

B) strategic resources

C) partnership network

D) fulfillment and support

E) customer interface

22) Which of the following are the primary elements of a startup's core strategy?

A) target customer, fulfillment and support, pricing structure

B) suppliers, partners, other key relationships

C) pricing structure, suppliers, strategic assets

D) core competencies, strategic assets, funding model

E) mission statement, product/market scope, basis for differentiation

23) Steven Tanner is in the process of putting together the business model for his startup and is currently working on his mission statement, product/market scope, and basis for differentiation. Steven is working on the ________ component of his business model.

A) core strategy

B) strategic resources

C) partnership network

D) customer interface

E) feasibility analysis

24) A firm's ________ describes why it exists and what its business model is supposed to accomplish.

A) mission statement

B) vision statement

C) feasibility statement

D) duty statement

E) responsibility statement

25) "Organize all the world's information and make it universally accessible and useful" is Google's:

A) function

B) duty

C) credo

D) purpose statement

E) mission statement

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C5 (2)

2012-06-11T16:19:00.000+08:00

Chapter 5

26) Windspire is starting a firm in the small-scale wind-generated power industry. This industry is still so new that no standard operating procedures have been developed. Small-scale wind-generated power is an example of a(n) ________ industry.

A) mature

B) declining

C) emerging

D) global

E) fragmented

27) The primary

opportunity existing for startups in emerging industries is to:

A) consolidate the industry and establish industry leadership as a result of doing so

B) win customers by placing an emphasis on service and process innovation

C) pursue a niche strategy, which focuses on a narrow segment of the industry that might be encouraged to grow through product or process innovation

D) capture a first-mover advantage

E) pursue a cost reduction strategy, which is accomplished through achieving lower costs than industry incumbents through process innovation

28) A(n) ________ industry is one that is characterized by a large number of firms of approximately equal size.

A) fragmented

B) mature

C) declining

D) emerging

E) global

29) The primary opportunity existing for startups in fragmented industries is to:

A) pursue a niche strategy, which focuses on a narrow segment of the industry that might be encouraged to grow through product or process innovation

B) win customers by placing an emphasis on service and process innovation

C) capture a first-mover advantage

D) pursue a cost reduction strategy, which is accomplished through achieving lower costs than industry incumbents through process innovation

E) consolidate the industry and establish industry leadership as a result of doing so

30) A(n) ________ industry is an industry that is experiencing slow or no increase in demand.

A) declining

B) global

C) mature

D) emerging

E) fragmented

31) According to the textbook, InstyMeds in prescription drug sales, Fresh Healthy Vending in food vending, and Daisy Rock in guitars are example of entrepreneurial firms who are exploiting opportunities in ________ industries.

A) emerging

B) fragmented

C) declining

D) mature

E) emerging

32) According to the textbook, Nucor in steel, JetBlue in airlines, and Cirque du Soleil in circuses are examples of entrepreneurial firms who are exploiting opportunities in ________ industries.

A) fragmented

B) emerging

C) declining

D) global

E) mature

33) Opportunities for leadership, niche, harvest and divestment are associated with ________ industries.

A) mature

B) emerging

C) declining

D) fragmented

E) global

34) According to the textbook, PharmaJet, in needleless injection systems, and d'light, in solar-powered lanterns, are examples of entrepreneurial firms who are exploiting opportunities in ________ industries.

A) global

B) declining

C) mature

D) emerging

E) fragmented

35) The What Went Wrong? feature in Chapter 5 focuses on Eclipse Aviation. What was Eclipse Aviation's goal?

A) to create a new segment in the private jet industry called very light jets.

B) to create a more affordable line of private two-seat and four-seat propeller planes

C) to create ultra-luxurious private jets

D) to create a low-cost airline to compete head-to-head with Southwest Airlines

E) to create a new segment in the passenger jet industry called very heavy jets

36) A(n) ________ industry is an industry that is experiencing significant international sales.

A) global

B) mature

C) fragmented

D) declining

E) emerging

37) The two most common strategies pursued by firms in global industries are the ________ strategy and the ________ strategy.

A) inclusive, multidomestic

B) multidomestic, global

C) multidomestic, worldwide

D) inclusive, global

E) home, worldwide

38) Firms that pursue a(n) ________ strategy compete for market share on a country-by-country basis and vary their product or service offerings to meet the demands of the local market.

A) inclusive

B) universal

C) multidomestic

D) contemporary

E) worldwide

39) Shelly James recently launched a firm in the fruit drink industry, and has already exported her fruit drinks to 9 different countries. One thing that Shelly's firm is doing is that it is varying the tastes of the fruit drinks it sells on a country by country basis to meet the demands of the local markets. Shelly's firm is pursuing a ________ strategy.

A) global

B) home

C) universal

D) contemporary

E) multidomestic

40) Katherine Chapman recently launched a firm in the clothing industry, targeting teens ages 13-17. One thing Katherine thinks she has accomplished is producing products that have universal appeal, so she will not vary her approach from country to country. Katherine is pursuing a ________ strategy.

A) universal

B) multidomestic

C) contemporary

D) global

E) home

41) According to the textbook, the first step in a competitor analysis is to:

A) develop a marketing plan

B) develop the strategic plan

C) study the strength of the industry

D) study the external environment

E) determine who the competition is

42) According to the textbook, the three different types of competitors a business will face are:

A) potential, direct, and upcoming

B) indirect, fleeting, and future

C) serious, cautious, and future

D) direct, indirect, and future

E) potential, fleeting, and indirect

43) In the context of competitor analysis, businesses that offer identical or similar products are referred to as:

A) immediate competitors

B) direct competitors

C) indirect competitors

D) straight competitors

E) urgent competitors

44) Aquafina operates in the bottled water industry. The companies that offer identical or similar products and go after the same customers that Aquafina does are Dasani and Zephyrhills. Dasani and Zephyrhills are Aquafina's:

A) direct competitors

B) indirect competitors

C) future competitors

D) impending competitors

E) potential competitors

45) In the context of competitor analysis, ________ offer close substitutes to the product sold by the firm completing the analysis.

A) potential competitors

B) direct competitors

C) indirect competitors

D) impending competitors

E) future competitors

46) In the beverage industry, soda, fruit juice, and sports drinks are ________ competitors of bottled water.

A) occasional

B) infrequent

C) indirect

D) direct

E) future

47) In the context of competitor analysis, ________ are companies that are not yet direct or indirect competitors but could move into one of these roles at any time.

A) stable competitors

B) roundabout competitors

C) impending competitors

D) approximate competitors

E) future competitors

48) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature in Chapter 5 focuses on three firms that are doing well in crowded industries for two reasons:

A) they have effectively differentiated themselves from their competitors and they have captured a first-mover advantage

B) they have passionate leaders and they run savvy promotional campaigns

C) they have captured a first-mover advantage and they have unique business models

D) they create meaningful value for customers at a fair price and they have differentiated themselves from their competitors

E) they are low-cost leaders and they run savvy promotional campaigns

49) The information that is gathered by a firm to learn about its competitors is referred to as:

A) a feasibility appraisal

B) a workable appraisal

C) a practical assessment

D) a viable assessment

E) competitive intelligence

50) Amy has just launched a firm in the sports drink industry. She has decided to complete a grid to see how she stacks up against her competitors. Along the horizontal axis of the grid, she lists her firm along with her major competitors. Along the vertical axis of the grid, she lists the main competitive factors in her industry. Amy is completing a:

A) strategic analysis spreadsheet

B) tactical analysis framework

C) competitive analysis grid

D) strategic analysis grid

E) behavioral analysis spreadsheet

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C5

2012-06-11T16:18:00.000+08:00

Chapter 5

1) Element Bars, the company profiled in the opening feature for Chapter 5, has a unique position in its industry. It has positioned itself as:

A) a generic energy bar company that resells energy bars to companies who want to create their own branded energy bars

B) a niche energy bar company that sells in high-end outlets, like 5 star hotels and spas

C) a premium energy bar company that only uses the most wholesome and healthy ingredients, and makes special bars for vegetarians and vegans

D) a low-cost energy bar company that makes energy bars more accessible to people in all income brackets and still offers healthy ingredients

E) a customizable energy bar company that sells to individuals online and also to companies who want to create their own branded energy bars

2) Jeremy Banks recently started a new firm in the financial services industry. Prior to starting his firm, he spent considerable time doing research on the potential of the industry. The research that Jeremy was doing is called:

A) industry analysis

B) sector analysis

C) commercial analysis

D) business analysis

E) target market analysis

3) A(n) ________ is a group of firms producing a similar product or service, such as soft drinks, electronic games, or computers.

A) cluster

B) division

C) sector

D) industry

E) network

4) Once a firm decides to enter an industry and chooses a market in which to compete, it must gain an understanding of its competitive environment. This challenge can be undertaken by completing a(n):

A) business analysis

B) industry analysis

C) competitor analysis

D) strategic analysis

E) market analysis

5) Each quarter, Cindy Anderson, who owns a chain of card and gift shops, does a detailed analysis of her firm's competitors. This analysis is called:

A) competitor analysis

B) challenger analysis

C) strategic analysis

D) participant analysis

E) industry analysis

6) Which of the following is an example of an industry-level factor as opposed to a firm-level factor?

A) a firm's assets

B) a firm's culture

C) the teamwork among a firm's employees

D) a firm's products

E) threat of substitutes

7) According to the textbook, which of the following statements is accurate regarding the importance of industry versus firm-specific factors as it pertains to firm profitability?

A) Virtually all the studies have concluded that industry-specific factors are more important than firm-specific factors.

B) Virtually all the studies have concluded that firm-specific factors are more important than industry-specific factors.

C) Virtually all the studies have concluded that industry-specific factors are of almost no importance.

D) Virtually all the studies have concluded that firm-specific factors are of almost no importance.

E) Virtually all the studies have concluded that firm-specific factors and industry-specific factors are of equal importance.

8) In various studies, researchers have found that from ________ of the variation in firm profitability is directly attributable to the industry in which a firm competes.

A) 4 to 12 percent

B) 8 to 30 percent

C) 18 to 42 percent

D) 22 to 56 percent

E) 34 to 70 percent

9) Industries that sell products to seniors, such as the eyeglass industry and the hearing aid industry, are benefiting from the aging of the population, which is an important:

A) environmental trend

B) business trend

C) commerce trend

D) statutory trend

E) competitive trend

10) The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 5 focuses on three things that are important for startups to become active in to learn the ins and outs of their industries. The three items focused on in the feature are?

A) local Chambers of Commerce, trade journals, and networking events

B) Facebook, industry-related e-mail listservs, and trade shows

C) trade associations, trade shows, and trade journals

D) networking events, blogs, and Facebook

E) local Chambers of Commerce, city or university-sponsored incubators, and trade associations

11) According to the textbook, the five competitive forces included in the five-forces model determine:

A) the average rate of new business starts in an industry

B) the average growth rate for the firms in an industry

C) the average rate of return for the firms in an industry

D) the average sales for the firms in an industry

E) the average failure rate for the firms in an industry

12) According to the textbook, how do well-managed firms respond to the five-forces that determine industry profitability?

A) They switch industries if the forces are too compelling.

B) They focus on one force intently and excel by overcoming that force.

C) They overcome each of the forces.

D) They ignore the forces.

E) They try to position their firms in a way that avoids or diminishes the forces.

13) In general, industries are more attractive when:

A) the majority of the threats are high

B) the majority of the threats are low

C) the threat of each of the forces is neutral—neither low nor high

D) the threat of each of the five forces is high

E) the threat of each of the five forces is low

14) The price of prescription medicine is high, partly because when someone is sick there is no real alternative to buying medicine if they want to get better. Which of Porter's five forces explains how this aspect of the prescription medicine industry helps keep profitability high?

A) rivalry among existing firms

B) threat of new entrants

C) threat of substitutes

D) bargaining power of buyers

E) bargaining power of suppliers

15) Which of Porter's five forces is most closely associated with the concept "barrier to entry"?

A) bargaining power of suppliers

B) rivalry among existing firms

C) threat of new entrants

D) bargaining power of buyers

E) threat of substitutes

16) Which of the following is not one of the major sources of barriers to entry?

A) economies of scale

B) cost advantages independent of size

C) buyer group concentration

D) access to distribution channels

E) government and legal barriers

17) Shelly Brunner owns a sports themed restaurant which is located in an upscale business district in Chicago. One advantage that Shelly has is that she bought the lot she built her restaurant on 25 years ago when lots in the area were selling for $50,000. Shelly knows that several potential competitors have looked at bare lots near his business but haven't been willing to pay the asking prices, which are as high as $500,000. Which of the six major sources of barriers to entry is causing a disincentive for new firms to enter Shelly's industry?

A) capital requirements

B) economies of scale

C) product differentiation

D) government and legal barriers

E) cost advantage independent of size

18) Some industries, like the athletic shoe industry, are dominated by a small number of firms with strong brands. These industries are difficult to break into without spending heavily on advertising. The barrier to entry that the firms in these types of industries have erected is referred to as:

A) government and legal barriers

B) capital requirements

C) product differentiation

D) cost advantages independent of size

E) access to distribution channels

19) Which of Porter's five forces is most directly influenced by the following factors: number and balance of competitors, degree of difference between products, growth rate of an industry, and level of fixed costs?

A) threat of new entrants

B) rivalry among existing firms

C) threat of substitutes

D) bargaining power of buyers

E) bargaining power of suppliers

20) If a startup pioneers an industry or a new concept within an industry, the name recognition the startup establishes may create a formidable nontraditional barrier to entry referred to as a(n):

A) unique business model

B) aggressive supremacy

C) competitive superiority

D) first-mover advantage

E) aggressive tactical advantage

21) According to the example provided in Chapter 5, www.1800contacts.com possesses a nontraditional barrier to entry referred to as:

A) unique business model

B) strength of management team

C) access to distribution channels

D) Internet domain name

E) first-mover advantage

22) Which of the following was not identified in the textbook as a nontraditional barrier to entry?

A) inventing a new approach to an industry and executing the idea in an exemplary fashion

B) unique business model

C) capital requirements

D) strength of management team

E) passion of management team and employees

23) Supplier concentration, switching costs, attractiveness of substitutes, and threat of forward integration are factors that have a direct impact on:

A) threat of new entrants

B) bargaining power of buyers

C) rivalry among existing firms

D) threat of substitutes

E) bargaining power of suppliers

24) John Petersen is thinking about starting a firm in the specialty chemical industry. In the industry analysis John has been conducting, one thing he has noticed is that the specialty chemical industry is characterized by the following factors: high supplier concentration, high switching costs for buyers when they switch from one supplier to another, and no attractive substitutes for the products that most of the suppliers provide. These factors concern John because they tell him that the profitability of the specialty chemical industry is suppressed by the:

A) threat of substitutes

B) bargaining power of buyers

C) rivalry among existing firms

D) bargaining power of suppliers

E) threat of new entrants

25) The five industry types discussed in the book include:

A) launching, fragmented, leveled-off, declining, and global

B) emerging, climbing, mature, declining, and worldwide

C) emerging, fragmented, mature, declining, and global

D) climbing, peaking, plateaued, declining, and international

E) launching, consolidated, plateaued, mature, and worldwide

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW401 Sample Questions - C4 (2)

2012-06-10T23:27:00.000+08:00

Chapter 4

26) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the executive summary of a business plan?

A) It is a short overview of the entire business plan.

B) In many instances an investor will first ask for a copy of a firm's executive summary and will request a copy of the full business plan only if the executive summary is sufficiently convincing.

C) It is arguably the most important section of the business plan.

D) It should not exceed two single-spaced pages.

E) The executive summary is the first thing that should be written in preparing a business plan.

27) Paul Hempken just spoke to an investor, who is interested in his business idea. Paul offered to send the investor a copy of his full business plan, but the investor asked for a short overview of the business plan instead. What portion of his business plan should Paul send the investor?

A) marketing plan

B) executive summary

C) elevator pitch

D) company description

E) operations plan

28) According to the textbook, in many instances an investor will first ask for a copy of a firm's ________ and will request a copy of the full business plan only if that portion of the plan is sufficiently convincing.

A) appendix

B) industry analysis

C) operations plan

D) financial plan

E) executive summary

29) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the industry analysis portion of a firm's business plan?

A) It is important to focus simultaneously on a business's industry and its target market.

B) Industry structure refers to how concentrated or fragmented an industry is.

C) Most industries have 6 to 10 key success factors that should be reported in the industry analysis.

D) Industry trends should be discussed, which include both environmental and business trends.

E) The industry analysis should conclude with a brief statement of your beliefs regarding the long-term prospects for the industry.

30) A company's mission statement should be placed in the ________ section of its business plan.

A) marketing plan

B) management team and company structure

C) company description

D) market analysis

E) industry analysis

31) Industry structure refers to how:

A) concentrated or fragmented an industry is

B) traditional or progressive an industry is

C) innovative or conservative an industry is

D) hierarchical or flat an industry is

E) large or small an industry is

32) A(n) ________ describes why a company exists and what it aspires to become.

A) tactical statement

B) values statement

C) mission statement

D) operations statement

E) strategic statement

33) A(n) ________, in a business plan context, is a noteworthy event in the past or future development of a business.

A) aspiration

B) intention

C) signpost

D) milestone

E) target

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124

34) The ________ section of a business plan breaks the industry into segments and zeroes in on the specific segment (or target market) to which the firm will try to appeal.

A) competitive analysis

B) current status

C) market analysis

D) marketing plan

E) operations plan

35) A competitor analysis should be included in the ________ section of a business plan.

A) market analysis

B) industry analysis

C) company description

D) management team and company structure

E) operations plan

36) The Partnering for Success feature in Chapter 4 focuses on the types of partnerships that are common in business plans. According to the feature, businesses often make partnering an essential part of their business plans because they:

A) want to obtain a key customer

B) want to increase their visibility

C) want to reduce risk

D) what to appear legitimate

E) have limited resources

37) The ________ section of the business plan addresses the basic logic of how profits are earned in the business.

A) Economics of the Business

B) Operations Plan

C) Executive Summary

D) Design and Development plan

E) Market Analysis

38) Operating leverage is highest in companies that have:

A) a service rather than a manufacturing emphasis

B) virtually no fixed costs

C) equal variable costs and fixed costs

D) a high proportion of variable costs relative to their fixed costs

E) a high proportion of fixed costs relative to their variable costs

39) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the marketing plan section of a business plan?

A) The marketing plan focuses on how the business will market and sell its product or service.

B) The two most important items to include in a marketing plan are (1) overall marketing strategy and (2) the nuts and bolts of marketing a firm's product in terms of product, price, promotion, and place.

C) The best way to describe a company's marketing plan is to begin by talking about its competitors.

D) A firm's marketing strategy refers to its overall approach for marketing its products and services.

E) A firm's overall approach to marketing typically boils down to how it positions itself in its market and how it differentiates itself from its competitors.

40) A computer-generated image of an invention that displays the invention as a 3D model that can be viewed from all sides and rotated 360 degrees is called a(n):

A) virtual prototype

B) concept visualization

C) abstract prototype

D) virtual design

E) usability test

41) A prototype is:

A) a form of opportunity recognition

B) a tool for evaluating the industry a new firm plans to enter

C) a financial model

D) the first physical depiction of a new product

E) a tool for evaluating the organizational prowess of a new firm

42) What section of the business plan deals with the day-to-day operations of a company?

A) financial plan

B) marketing plan

C) operations plan

D) industry analysis

E) executive summary

43) The facilities and equipment that a business needs should be described in the ________ section of its business plan.

A) marketing plan

B) management team and company structure

C) company description

D) market analysis

E) operations plan

44) According to the textbook, many investors and others who read business plans look first at the executive summary and then go directly to the ________ section of the business plan to make their preliminary assessment.

A) management team and company structure

B) product (or service) design and development plan

C) industry analysis

D) marketing plan

E) operations plan

45) A(n) ________ is a graphic representation of how authority and responsibility are distributed within a company.

A) organizational chart

B) personnel chart

C) human resources chart

D) administrative chart

E) directional chart

46) The document that lays out specifically how much money a firm needs, where the money will come from, and what the money will be used for is referred to as a(n):

A) sources and uses of funds statement

B) assumptions sheet

C) pro forma financial statement

D) credit and debit statement

E) capital and operational budgeting statement

47) Kate Payne was reading the business plan for New Venture Fitness Drinks, and noticed that prior to its financial statements, New Venture Fitness Drinks placed an explanation of the sources of the numbers for the statements and the assumptions used to generate them. This explanation is called a(n):

A) estimate sheet

B) hypothesis sheet

C) assumptions sheet

D) forecast sheet

E) forecast hypothesis

48) According to the textbook, the ________ are the heart of the financial section of a business plan.

A) financial ratios

B) pro forma financial statements

C) budgets

D) sources and uses of funds statements

E) break-even analyses

49) Most business plan writers interpret or make sense of a firm's historical and/or pro forma financial statements through:

A) ratio analysis

B) assumptions analysis

C) scenario analysis

D) proportion analysis

E) relative analysis

50) According to the textbook, the first rule in making an oral presentation is to:

A) follow instructions

B) be creative

C) emphasize all the positive aspects of a business venture

D) appear confident

E) do something out of the ordinary

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

ATW401 Sample Questions - C4

2012-06-10T23:24:00.000+08:00

Chapter 4

1) Lincoln & Lexi, the company profiled in the opening feature for Chapter 4, was founded to:
A) sell consulting services to e-commerce sites
B) provide nannie and tutoring services
C) sell jewelry online
D) sell iPhone apps for casual gamers
E) sell children's clothing through home parties and baby showers

2) Martin Nelson is thinking about launching a small business consulting company. To get advice on how to proceed, he stopped by his local Small Business Administration (SBA) office. The SBA advisor told Martin that one of the first things he needs to do is to sit down and write a 25 to 35 page narrative that describes what his new business plans to accomplish and how it plans to accomplish it. The SBA advisor is telling Martin to write a(n):
A) tactical plan
B) marketing plan
C) operations plan
D) business plan
E) feasibility analysis

3) Which of the following is the main purpose for writing a business plan?
A) The plan helps the company develop a "road map" to follow.
B) The plan introduces potential investors and other stakeholders to the business opportunity.
C) Both A and B are equally important.
D) Neither A nor B captures the true purpose of a business plan.
E) Reason A is the most important for experienced entrepreneurs and reason B is the most important for inexperienced entrepreneurs.

4) According to the textbook, a business plan is best described as a(n):
A) narrative description of a new business
B) contract
C) budget
D) agreement
E) marketing initiative

5) According to the textbook, only ________ of the 600 entrepreneurs that participated in a recent Wells Fargo/Gallup Small Business Study indicated that they had started their venture with a business plan.
A) 12 percent
B) 31 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 6 percent
E) 48 percent

6) A business plan is important for two reasons: it forces the founding team to systematically think through every aspect of their new venture and:
A) it is a budget
B) it is a public relations document that can be used to promote the firm
C) it is a contract that is signed by the founders of the firm
D) it is a financial analysis
E) it communicates the merits of a new venture to outsiders, such as investors and bankers

7) Which of the following statement is incorrect about business plans?
A) Writing a business plan forces a firm's founders to systematically think through each aspect of their new venture.
B) For most new ventures, the business plan is a dual-purpose document used both inside and outside the firm.
C) A business plan is typically 25 to 35 pages long.
D) A large percentage of entrepreneurs do not write business plans for their new ventures.
E) The business plan should be written while the feasibility analysis is being completed.

8) The document that does the best job of introducing potential investors and other stakeholders with the business opportunity the firm is pursuing and how it plans to pursue it is the:
A) business plan
B) feasibility analysis
C) opportunity analysis
D) industry analysis
E) marketing plan

9) There are two primary audiences for a business plan:
A) a firm's employees and officials with the SEC
B) a firm's customers and its competitors
C) investors and other external stakeholders and public relations firms
D) officials with the SEC and public relations firms
E) a firm's employees and investors and other external stakeholders

10) There are two primary audiences for a business plan: investors and other external stakeholders and:
A) officials with the SEC
B) a firm's employees
C) a firm's competitors
D) a firm's customers
E) public relations firms

11) Which of the following is not an individual, group or institution that normally reads a company's business plan?
A) board of directors
B) potential alliance partners and major customers
C) state and local government officials
D) key recruits for jobs with the new firm
E) rank-and-file employees

12) Which of the following is not a recommended guideline for writing a business plan?
A) To make the best impression, a business plan should follow an unconventional structure and stand out in some dramatic way.
B) A business plan needs to project a sense of anticipation and excitement about the possibilities that surround a new venture.
C) For most plans, 25 to 35 pages is sufficient.
D) A business plan should look sharp, but not a lot of money should be spent on the physical appearance of the plan.
E) Shy away from using a lot of boldfaced type, italics, clip art, and different font sizes and colors when preparing a business plan.

13) Which of the following is not one of the "red flags" listed in the textbook that raises questions about one of more aspects of a company's business plan?
A) founders with none of their own money at risk
B) defining the market size too narrowly
C) a poorly cited plan
D) sloppiness in any area
E) overly aggressive financials

14) Which of the following is one of the "red flags" listed in the textbook that raises questions about one or more aspects of a company's business plan?
A) takes several days or weeks to complete
B) founders that have their own money at risk
C) defining the market size too broadly
D) less than 50 pages long
E) directed towards both an external and an internal audience

15) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding business plans?
A) A firm's business plan is typically the first aspect of a proposed venture that will be seen by an investor.
B) To make the best impression, a business plan should follow an unconventional structure, so it will stand out.
C) A business plan has both an external and an internal audience.
D) A company's business plan is typically written by its founders.
E) Potential investors are typically keenly interested in a company's business plan.

16) For most business plans ________ pages are sufficient.
A) 40 to 50
B) 30 to 40
C) 15 to 20
D) 25 to 35
E) 5 to 10

17) There are three types of business plans:
A) functional business plan, full business plan, feasibility plan
B) summary business plan, contingency plan, full business plan
C) functional business plan, contingency plan, full business plan
D) opportunity plan, feasibility plan, full business plan
E) summary business plan, full business plan, operational business plan

18) Zachery Mays is in the very early stages of putting together a business startup, and is thinking about writing a business plan to request funds to conduct a feasibility analysis and write a more complete business plan. What type of business plan should Zachery write at this point?
A) full business plan
B) tactical business plan
C) summary business plan
D) operational business plan
E) strategic business plan

19) A(n) ________, which is typically 25 to 35 pages long, works best for new ventures who are at the point where they need funding or financing.
A) tactical business plan
B) strategic business plan
C) summary business plan
D) full business plan
E) operational business plan

20) A(n) ________, which is intended to be a blueprint for a company's operations, is 40-100 pages long and is meant primarily for an internal audience.
A) operational business plan
B) full business plan
C) deliberate business plan
D) summary business plan
E) tactical business plan

21) Edward Andrews has decided to write a business plan that is intended to be read primarily by his staff, which will present a blueprint for his company's entire operation and will provide guidance to operational managers. Edward should write a(n):
A) operational business plan
B) tactical business plan
C) strategic business plan
D) summary business plan
E) functional business plan

22) Match the business plan with its appropriate length:
A) operational business plan, 10-15 pages
B) full business plan, 25-35 pages
C) summary business plan, 25-35 pages
D) full business plan, 40 to 100 pages
E) operational business plan, 25-35 pages

23) Match the business plan with its appropriate emphasis:
A) summary business plan, works best for companies who are at the point where they need funding or financing; serves as a "blueprint" for the company's operations
B) operational business plan, works best for companies in the early stages of development that want to "test the waters" to see if investors are interested in their idea
C) full business plan, works best for companies in the early stages of development that want to "test the waters" to see if investors are interested in the idea
D) summary business plan, is meant primarily for an internal audience; works best as a tool for creating a blueprint for a company's operations and providing guidance to operational managers
E) summary business plan, works best for companies in the early stages of development that want to "test the waters" to see if investors are interested in their idea

24) The Savvy Entrepreneurial Firm feature for Chapter 4 focuses on three companies: Box.net, Pixability, and Groupon. The overarching point of the feature is:
A) most business plan require major changes after the business is launched and the founder's start getting customer feedback
B) the degree to which business plans pan out as their founders envisioned varies
C) most business plans require only minor changes after the business is launched and the founders start getting customer feedback
D) the most effective business plans take four to eight weeks to complete
E) most business plans are quickly discarded after the business is launched

25) The ________ is a short overview of the entire business plan.
A) summary statement
B) executive summary
C) managerial review
D) founder's introduction
E) abstract

Xuxu | http://USM.xuxuchuah.com |

Xuxu @ USM

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Keputusan Permohonan Kemasukan Ke IPTA Bagi Program Pengajian Lepasan STPM / Matrikulasi / Asasi / Diploma / Setaraf (Ijazah Pertama) Sesi Akademik 2012/2013 Bermula Jam 12:00 tengah hari, 13 Julai 2012.

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C11 (2)

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C11

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C10 (2)

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C10

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C9 (2)

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C9

HTU 223 TITAS Final Exam June 2012

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C8 (2)

ATW 401 Sample Questions - C8

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C7

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C6

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ATW 401 Sample Questions - C5

ATW401 Sample Questions - C4 (2)

ATW401 Sample Questions - C4

Keputusan Permohonan Kemasukan Ke IPTA Bagi Program Pengajian Lepasan STPM / Matrikulasi / Asasi / Diploma / Setaraf (Ijazah Pertama)
Sesi Akademik 2012/2013
Bermula Jam 12:00 tengah hari, 13 Julai 2012.