YOUTH POWER --YES

2015-10-05T16:27:00.001+05:30

PROPOSAL ON NEW EDUCATION POLICY FOR INDIA

The Government has initiated the consultation process of formulating a New Education Policy to meet the changing dynamics of the population’s requirement with regard to quality education, innovation and research, aiming to make India a knowledge superpower by equipping its students with the necessary skills and knowledge. A multiple level consultative process involving all stakeholders, such as, educationists, teachers, and students across all levels is being undertaken. The online consultation process is going on www.MyGov.in portal and nearly 21,500 suggestions have been received on 33 identified themes. A consultation meeting was held on 2ist March 2015 under the Chairpersonship of Union Minister of Human Resource Development with the State Education Ministers and State Education Secretaries to discuss the consultative process on formulation of New Education Policy (NEP) mainly focusing on the grass root consultative process which are to take place from village and move upwards to the Block, District and State levels. The summary record of the discussions can be accessed from www.mhrd.gov.in. Presently, the State Governments have initiated action for conducting the grassroots level consultations.

This information was given by Union Minister of Human Resource Development Smt. Smriti Irani in a written reply to the Rajya Sabha Question today.

2015-10-05T16:21:00.001+05:30

2014-04-07T13:13:00.000+05:30

LOK SABHA ELECTIONS IN INDIA

Essentials of Effective segmentation

2014-03-25T15:55:00.003+05:30

Essentials of Effective segmentation

The five main essentials of effective segmentation to ensure that it is effective are that they must be measurable, actionable, accessible, substantial and differential. If each of these requirements are met a market segment then market segmentation is likely to occur in a successful and effective way.

Measurable. A market segment must be measurable in terms of its size in purchasing power and profiles. While there are some aspects of segmentation that are difficult to measure, wherever possible it is a process that should be doable.
Actionable. In order for effective segmentation to occur a market segment must also be actionable. This means that effective programs can be designed for serving and attracting the segments.
Accessible. A market segment should also be accessible, i.e. They should be easy to reach and serve.
Substantial. For effective segmentation, a market segment should be large or profitable enough to serve. They should be the largest possible homogeneous group that is worth pursuing with a marketing program that has been tailored.
Differential. Market segments need to be distinguishable conceptually and must respond in different ways to the different marketing mix programs and elements.

These requirements help determine whether market segments will contribute towards effective segmentation or not. Breaking down the requirements into these categories allow them to be analyzed and addressed individually to make the process as efficient as possible.

An effective process of market segmentation makes it possible to break down people or organizations into sub sets that share one or more characteristics. This causes them to demand a product or service that is based on qualities of these functions.

While market segments may be theoretically 'ideal', they are actually developed quite differently by different organizations. These ideals are developed in accordance to a product differentiation strategy in order to give a company a temporary commercial advantage.

Long term External Finance for a Multinational Comapny

2014-03-25T15:54:00.001+05:30

Long term External Finance for a Multinational Comapny (MNCs)

A multinational company can raise operating funds through a medley of sources, mostly by leveraging the expansive scope of its activities and its connection with global financial centers. These sources run the gamut from equity issuance and sales of debt products to government subsidies and financing agreements through private channels.

1. Equity Issuance

A cash-strapped global organization works in tandem with investment bankers to analyze conditions on global equity markets, determine the best time for stock issuance and figure out better ways to prevent money problems in the future. Given its global presence, the business effectively can cope with a dearth of affordable financing on the domestic front, drawing up strategies to raise money overseas. The major equity markets where a multinational company can raise money range from the New York Stock Exchange and the Tokyo Stock Exchange to the London Stock Exchange and the Hong Kong Stock Exchange.

2. Selling Debt Products

In discussing external financing options, the top leadership of a multinational company may get wistful at the mention of bond issuance. This is because the practice involves a thorough understanding of international credit markets and investor risk appetite, along with a keen awareness of the regulatory procedures the organization must follow to register its bonds before selling them. Bonds -- also known as debentures -- are debt products a multinational firm issues on global markets, most of which also serve as platforms for stock issuance. Simply put, the organization can sell bonds and stocks on the same exchange. Besides bonds, a global business can fund its operations by selling commercial paper, which is a debt instrument that becomes due within 270 days.

3. Private Sources

A multinational organization often relies on private sources to cope with commercial tedium, understand the operational magnitude of a temporary cash crunch, and figure out the best ways to master the competitive currents in a sector or country. When in need of fresh money, the business can reach out to private lenders, such as banks and insurance companies. Given its international footprint, the company may negotiate a loan or line of credit arrangement with a bank's home-country management and direct segment chiefs to follow up with the financial institution's local branches. A global company also can raise cash through hedge funds, private equity funds and asset management companies.

4. Government Subsidies

To foster economic prosperity and expand industrial activities in a sector, public officials grant subsidies to multinational companies that meet certain requirements. For example, the government provides grants to domestic businesses engaging in oil and gas exploration overseas or those with significant export businesses.

2014-03-06T15:21:00.001+05:30

SEATS Projection for the General Election -2014 (Lok Sabha)

BHARTIYA JANATA PARTY (BJP) 185

INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS (INC) 105

AITMC 20

DMK 09

AIADMK 18

SAMAJWADI PARTY 14

RASTRIYA LOK DAL 1

SAD 10

SHIV SENA 5

NCP 10

RJD 6

LJP 5

BSP 11

TDP 11

TRS 8

YRS CONGRESS 7

LEFT FRONT 14

BJD 18

AAP 4

JANATA DAL (UNITED) 9

JANATA DAL (SECULAR ) 2

OTHERS / MARGIN'S SEATS 71

2013-11-01T11:33:00.001+05:30

The RTI Act FAQs

2013-03-31T18:24:00.000+05:30


Quiz Question 1	Long title of the RTI Act talks of how many types of Information Commissions?
Your Answer	B. Two
Correct Answer	B. Two
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 2	The Preamble argues that it is expedient to provide for furnishing certain information to citizens who:
Your Answer	C. Desire to have it.
Correct Answer	C. Desire to have it.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 3	The Preamble seeks to hold Governments and their instrumentalities accountable to:
Your Answer	B. The governed
Correct Answer	B. The governed
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 4	The Preamble to the RTI Act states that transparency of information is vital to:
Your Answer	B. Contain corruption
Correct Answer	B. Contain corruption
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 5	The RTI Act gives right to information to the following:
Your Answer	B. Any citizen
Correct Answer	B. Any citizen
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 6	Right to information’ includes the right to obtaining information in the form of:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 7	Right to information’ includes the right to taking:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 8	The definition of "information" under Section 2 (f) includes:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 9	The DOPT Office Memorandum No.11/2/2008-IR dated 10 July, 2008 on ‘compilation of information’ states as follows:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 10	The DOPT Office Memorandum No. 1/20/2009-IR dated 23rd June, 2009 clarified that the file noting can be disclosed except file noting containing information exempt from disclosure under the following Section of the RTI Act:
Your Answer	B. Section 8
Correct Answer	B. Section 8
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 11	DOPT advises that the public authority should update information under Section 4 (1) (b):
Your Answer	D. None of the above
Correct Answer	B. As and when any development takes place.
Reason	No Explanation

Quiz Question 12	Section 4 (1) (a) states that a public authority should:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 13	Section 4 (1) (b) (xi) states that a public authority should publish:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 14	The obligations of a public authority are basically the obligations of:
Your Answer	D. The head of the authority
Correct Answer	D. The head of the authority
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 15	Under Section 4 (1) (b), the public authority is obliged to update information:
Your Answer	B. Every year
Correct Answer	B. Every year
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 16	For what reasons can a PIO reject an RTI request under the "RTI Act, 2005"?
Your Answer	A. Any reason(s) as specified in S(s). 8 and / or 9 i.e information exempted under the "RTI Act, 2005".
Correct Answer	A. Any reason(s) as specified in S(s). 8 and / or 9 i.e information exempted under the "RTI Act, 2005".
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 17	It is alright for an APIO to decide whether information should be given on an RTI application with or without consulting the PIO concerned.
Your Answer	A. No. Not at all.
Correct Answer	A. No. Not at all.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 18	There is an upper limit for the number of PIOs and APIOs to be appointed by a Public Authority (PA) as per the "RTI Act, 2005".
Your Answer	B. No. There is no such limit, whatsoever, as per the "RTI Act, 2005"
Correct Answer	B. No. There is no such limit, whatsoever, as per the "RTI Act, 2005"
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 19	The "RTI Act, 2005" says that the transfer of applications from a Public Authority to another should
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 20	What is the time limit for a "Public Information Officer" for providing requested information concerning the life and liberty of a person?
Your Answer	C. It has to be provided within 48 hours.
Correct Answer	C. It has to be provided within 48 hours.
Reason	Correct

\
Quiz Question 21	APIO has to forward applications for information to:
Your Answer	A. PIO
Correct Answer	A. PIO
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 22	APIO has to forward first appeals to:
Your Answer	C. First Appellate Authority
Correct Answer	C. First Appellate Authority
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 23	Following provision of the RTI Act explains about deemed PIOs:
Your Answer	A. Section 5(5)
Correct Answer	A. Section 5(5)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 24	Following provision of the RTI Act requires communication of ‘the reasons for rejection’ when a PIO rejects a request:
Your Answer	C. Section 7(8)
Correct Answer	C. Section 7(8)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 25	Transfer of an application should be made as soon as practicable but in no case later than:
Your Answer	B. Five days from the date of receipt of the application.
Correct Answer	B. Five days from the date of receipt of the application.
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 26	Following provision of the RTI Act explains about first appeals by requesters:
Your Answer	A. Section 19(1)
Correct Answer	A. Section 19(1)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 27	Following provision of the RTI Act explains about first appeals by third parties:
Your Answer	A. Section 19(2)
Correct Answer	A. Section 19(2)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 28	Time limit for disposal of first appeal by the first appellate authority:
Your Answer	B. 30 - 45 days
Correct Answer	B. 30 - 45 days
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 29	Time limit for filing first appeal by a requester under sub-section (1) of Section 19 is:
Your Answer	B. 30 days from the receipt of PIO’s decision
Correct Answer	B. 30 days from the receipt of PIO’s decision
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 30	What is the time limit for filing first appeals by the third party under Section 19(2):
Your Answer	B. Within 30 days from the date of PIO`s order
Correct Answer	B. Within 30 days from the date of PIO`s order
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 31	Exemptions under the RTI Act can be divided into how many categories?
Your Answer	A. Three categories
Correct Answer	B. Two categories
Reason	No Explanation

Quiz Question 32	Preamble to the Right to Information Act talks of some ‘other public interests’ They include the following
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 33	‘Reasonable restrictions’ on the right to freedom of speech and expression imposed by the Constitution include the following
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 34	The RTI Act, through section 24, partially excludes the following from the ambit of the Act:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 35	Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India imposes ‘Reasonable restrictions’ on the right to freedom of speech and expression
Your Answer	A. Article 19(2)
Correct Answer	A. Article 19(2)
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 36	According to Section 7 (1) of the RTI Act, PIOs can only reject a request under the following provisions
Your Answer	A. Sections 8 and 9 of the RTI Act
Correct Answer	A. Sections 8 and 9 of the RTI Act
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 37	According to Section 7 (1) of the RTI Act, the following clauses of Section 8(1) contain perpetual exemptions
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 38	According to Section 7 (8) of the RTI Act, the PIO, when rejecting a request, has to communicate to the person making the request
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 39	Examples of fiduciary relationships
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 40	Section 8(3) imposes certain time limit on exemptions. Clauses (b), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) and (j) of Section 8(1) are time limited exemptions, which are no longer valid exemptions after
Your Answer	A. 20 years from the date of the record
Correct Answer	A. 20 years from the date of the record
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 41	According to Section 8 (1) (j) the following officer may disclose the exempt information in larger public interest
Your Answer	B. Appellate authority
Correct Answer	C. Both of the above
Reason	No Explanation

Quiz Question 42	Section 8 (1) (j) is
Your Answer	B. A qualified exemption
Correct Answer	B. A qualified exemption
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 43	Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights recognizes privacy as a human right?
Your Answer	A. Article 12
Correct Answer	A. Article 12
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 44	Which clause under Section 8 (1) of the RTI Act talks of invasion of the privacy?
Your Answer	C. Clause (j)
Correct Answer	C. Clause (j)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 45	Which section of the Indian Penal Code prohibits disclosure of identity of a victim of sexual offence?
Your Answer	A. Section 228A
Correct Answer	A. Section 228A
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 46	The document, ‘Ten Principles on the Right to Know’, argues that there is high public interest in disclosure of information related to threats to the following
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 47	Which NGO successfully won an appeal for disclosure of Income Tax Returns filed by political parties in 2008?
Your Answer	A. Association for Democratic Reforms
Correct Answer	A. Association for Democratic Reforms
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 48	Which Section of the RTI Act defines ‘public interest’’?
Your Answer	D. None of the above
Correct Answer	D. None of the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 49	Who formulated ‘Ten Principles on the Right to Know’?
Your Answer	B. Open Society Justice Initiative
Correct Answer	B. Open Society Justice Initiative
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 50	Who formulated “The Public’s Right to Know: Principles on Freedom of Information”?
Your Answer	A. ARTICLE 19
Correct Answer	A. ARTICLE 19
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 51	Excluded organisations are required to take approval for disclosure of information from
Your Answer	A. Information Commission
Correct Answer	A. Information Commission
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 52	How many amendments were made to the Second Schedule as on 31 August 2012?
Your Answer	B. Four amendments
Correct Answer	B. Four amendments
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 53	How many Intelligence and Security Organisations are there in the Second Schedule as on 31 August 2012?
Your Answer	B. 25
Correct Answer	B. 25
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 54	Maximum time limit for disclosure of information by excluded organisations
Your Answer	B. 45 days from the date of the receipt of request
Correct Answer	B. 45 days from the date of the receipt of request
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 55	Which Section of the RTI Act explains about excluded organisations?
Your Answer	C. Section 24
Correct Answer	C. Section 24
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 56	After the enactment of the "RTI Act, 2005", what is the status of the "Freedom of Information Act, 2002"?
Your Answer	C. It has been repealed.
Correct Answer	C. It has been repealed.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 57	Consider the following statements about "Bar on jurisdiction of courts" vis-avis the "RTI Act, 2005". i) No court shall entertain any suit, application or other proceeding in respect of any order made under this Act. ii) No such order shall be called in question otherwise than by way of an appeal under this Act. Which of these statements is true?
Your Answer	D. Both i) & ii) are true.
Correct Answer	D. Both i) & ii) are true.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 58	The "RTI Act, 2005" will supersede
Your Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Correct Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 59	What is the time span mentioned in the "RTI Act, 2005" for making orders for removing difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the "RTI Act, 2005"?
Your Answer	A. 2 years from the commencement of the Act.
Correct Answer	A. 2 years from the commencement of the Act.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 60	Who has the power to remove the difficulties arising in giving effect to the provisions of the "RTI Act, 2005"?
Your Answer	B. The Central Government.
Correct Answer	B. The Central Government.
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 61	According to Rule 3 of the Right to Information Rules, 2012, an application for information under the RTI Act should be accompanied by a fee of:
Your Answer	A. 10
Correct Answer	A. 10
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 62	The Right to Information Rules, 2012 mandate the application, excluding any annexures and addresses of the PIO, should not contain more than:
Your Answer	A. 500 words
Correct Answer	A. 500 words
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 63	The Right to Information Rules, 2012 supersede the following Rules
Your Answer	C. Both of the above
Correct Answer	C. Both of the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 64	Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for inspection of records, for each subsequent hour of inspection:
Your Answer	C. 5
Correct Answer	C. 5
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 65	Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for providing information, for a Diskette or floppy:
Your Answer	B. 50
Correct Answer	B. 50
Reason	Correct

Chapter 14 Employees Right To Information Completed
Quiz Question 66	The “right to information and consultation of workers” is claimed as a social value in:
Your Answer	C. Europe
Correct Answer	C. Europe
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 67	Which article of the Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union recognizes “right to information and consultation of workers” as a Fundamental right?
Your Answer	B. Article 27
Correct Answer	B. Article 27
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 68	Which provision of the RTI Act mandates all the public authorities to provide reasons for administrative decisions taken by them?
Your Answer	B. Section 4 (1) (d)
Correct Answer	B. Section 4 (1) (d)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 69	Who ruled that employees are entitled to access transfer guidelines pertaining to clerical staff?
Your Answer	C. Kerala High Court
Correct Answer	C. Kerala High Court
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 70	Who ruled that employees are entitled to have access to their Annual Confidential Reports?
Your Answer	A. The Supreme Court
Correct Answer	A. The Supreme Court
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 71	In case of rejection of the request, onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified shall be on:
Your Answer	A. The PIO, who denied the request.
Correct Answer	A. The PIO, who denied the request.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 72	What is the time limit for the third party to make a submission in writing or orally?
Your Answer	B. 10 days
Correct Answer	B. 10 days
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 73	Which provision of the RTI Act provides for partial disclosure of information?
Your Answer	C. Section 10
Correct Answer	C. Section 10
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 74	Which provision of the RTI Act provides for third party appeal?
Your Answer	C. Section 19(2)
Correct Answer	C. Section 19(2)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 75	Which provision of the RTI Act requires a ‘communication of rejection to the requester’ to be sent by the PIO in case of rejection of the request?
Your Answer	B. Section 7(8)
Correct Answer	B. Section 7(8)
Reason	Correct

THE RTI ACT 2005

2013-03-24T19:05:00.000+05:30


Quiz Question 1	RTI is closely aligned with the `Fundamental Right` in the `Constitution of India` of
Your Answer	B. Right to Freedom (of Speech and Expression)`
Correct Answer	B. Right to Freedom (of Speech and Expression)`
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 2	The first State to introduce the a law on RTI was
Your Answer	A. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer	A. Tamil Nadu
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 3	The `Preamble` of the `RTI Act, 2005` says that "informed citizenry and transparency of information" are vital to
Your Answer	A. functioning of democracy.
Correct Answer	D. All the above.
Reason	Incorrect. The correct answer is d. - All the above.

Quiz Question 4	Which organisation is known to have taken up the first grassroots initiative for people`s RTI?
Your Answer	C. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan` (MKSS)
Correct Answer	C. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan` (MKSS)
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 5	Applications for information - under the `RTI Act, 2005` - can also be submitted to completely privately owned organisations.
Your Answer	A. False.
Correct Answer	A. False.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 6	Is the `RTI Act, 2005` applicable to the Union Territories?
Your Answer	D. Yes, without any exceptions or caveats.
Correct Answer	D. Yes, without any exceptions or caveats.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 7	Right to information is available under the `Right to Information Act, 2005`
Your Answer	D. to all Indian citizens.
Correct Answer	D. to all Indian citizens.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 8	Who receives applications under the `RTI Act, 2005`?
Your Answer	D. Only a. and b.
Correct Answer	D. Only a. and b.
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 9	One of the following about the Annual Report of an Information Commission is true.Identify it.
Your Answer	B. An Information Commission should forward a copy of its "Annual Report" to the Appropriate Government concerned.
Correct Answer	B. An Information Commission should forward a copy of its "Annual Report" to the Appropriate Government concerned.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 10	Rules can be made by Appropriate Governments or Competent Authorities by notifying the rules: i) in the Official Gazette. ii) by publishing them on the website of the Appropriate Government. iii) by publishing them on the websites of Information Commissions - as applicable.
Your Answer	A. i) as per the `RTI Act, 2005`
Correct Answer	A. i) as per the `RTI Act, 2005`
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 11	The `RTI Act, 2005` says that the transfer of applications from a Public Authority to another should
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 12	Which of the following statements about the "Annual Reports" of Information Commissions are true? i) They should state the number of requests made to each Public Authority. ii) The number of decisions where applicants were not allowed access to documents. iii) the provisions invoked and the number of times they were invoked. iv) the amount of charges collected by each Public Authority under this Act.
Your Answer	C. All i), ii), iii) & iv).
Correct Answer	C. All i), ii), iii) & iv).
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 13	According to the `RTI Act, 2005`, as far as exempted organisations are concerned, the exemption applies to i) certain organisations of the Central Government as listed in the 2nd Schedule and to the information submitted by these organisations to this Government. ii) certain organisations of the State Governments as may be notified by them in the Official Gazette, but NOT to the information furnished by these organisations to the respective State Governments.
Your Answer	C. Both i) & ii) are true.
Correct Answer	C. Both i) & ii) are true.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 14	Of the following, information not exempted from disclosure is:
Your Answer	C. Information which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature.
Correct Answer	C. Information which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 15	Public Interest test would apply to i) copyright subsisting in a person other than the State. ii) information received in confidence from foreign government. iii) trade or commercial secrets protected by law while disclosing third party information.
Your Answer	B. Only ii)
Correct Answer	B. Only ii)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 16	The `RTI Act, 2005` will supersede
Your Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Correct Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 17	An RTI application can be sent
Your Answer	D. Through any of these means.
Correct Answer	D. Through any of these means.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 18	Consider the following statements pertainng to a `Third Party` under the `RTI Act, 2005`: i) A `Third Party` has no say whatsoever in a PIO`s decision to disclose information about it. ii) A `Third Party` has no right of first appeal after the lapse of 30 days after receiving the order of a PIOs decision to disclose information related to it. iii) A PIO has to apply the "Public Interest Test" before deciding to give / not to give information about a `Third Party`, if the latter has requested that the information should not be disclosed. Which of these statements are true?
Your Answer	C. ii) & iii)
Correct Answer	C. ii) & iii)
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 19	Which of the following are true?
Your Answer	A. A PIO has to offer reasonable assistance to an applicant to reduce an oral application into writing.
Correct Answer	D. All are true.
Reason	Incorrect. The answer is d. - All are true.

Quiz Question 20	Which of the following statements about further fees to be charged under the `RTI Act, 2005` are true? i) The fees to be charged should be reasonable. ii) Details of such fees should be provided alongwith the caluclations of the fees to be paid. iii) An applicant has the right to appeal the further fees charged and should be provided all information about this. iv) It is up to the applicant whether to pay fees or not, but information has to be provided in any case. v) Information provided after the specified time limits should be provided free of cost.
Your Answer	C. Only i), ii), iii) & v) are true.
Correct Answer	C. Only i), ii), iii) & v) are true.
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 21	(Second) Appeals on information pertaining to a person`s life and liberty should be decided by Information Commissions within
Your Answer	D. No such time limit has been specified.
Correct Answer	D. No such time limit has been specified.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 22	There could be a time limit for deciding appeals of a `Third Party` by an Information Commission
Your Answer	D. There is no such provision for time limit for hearing third party`s appeals at all in the `RTI Act, 2005`.
Correct Answer	D. There is no such provision for time limit for hearing third party`s appeals at all in the `RTI Act, 2005`.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 23	The time limit specified in the `RTI Act, 2005` for the Central / State Information Commissions to decide on (second) appeals is
Your Answer	C. No such time limit has been specified.
Correct Answer	C. No such time limit has been specified.
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 24	Would the action in good faith provision be applicable if a PIO unknowingly discloses exempted information.
Your Answer	A. Yes. It applies to any action of any official under the `RTI Act` or any rule thereunder.
Correct Answer	A. Yes. It applies to any action of any official under the `RTI Act` or any rule thereunder.
Reason	Correct


Quiz Question 25	The grounds for a complaint could be i) being asked to pay an unreasonablevamount of fee. ii) being given incomplete or false information. iii) any matter relating to requesting or obtaining access to records.
Your Answer	A. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	A. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 26	The grounds for a complaint could be i) inability to submit a request to the PIO. ii) refusal to access information under the RTI Act. iii) not getting a response to a request for information.
Your Answer	D. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	D. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 27	While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to i) receive evidence on affidavit. ii) requisition record or copies thereof from any court or office. iii) issue summons for examination of witnesses or documents.
Your Answer	B. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	B. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct

Quiz Question 28	While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to i) summon and enforce attendance of persons. ii) compel them to give evidence on oath and produce documents or things. iii) Require discovery and inspection of documents.
Your Answer	C. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	C. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENTS (PSA)

2013-02-01T20:33:00.001+05:30

Reasoning Ability

BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to

1) UY

2) UX

3) UZ

4) VY

5) None of these

Ans. 1 (2)

Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P

and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored

the highest?

1) P

2) T

3) R

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans. 2 (3)

Pointing to a gir l, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother 's only child.' How is the

girl related to Nidhi?

1) Sister

2) Self

3) Cousin sister

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.3 (4)

In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME

written in that code?

1) 8%o51

2) 85%8

3) 8@51

4) 8%31

5) None of these

Ans.4 (1)

In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days' is

written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language?

1) sa

2) na

3) sa or na

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.5 (3)

In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in that

code?

1) TBODMNHS

2) DOBTMNHS

3) TBODSHNM

4) DOBTOPJU

5) None of these

Ans.6 (2)

The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged,

similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of

the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the r earrangement?

1) 1

2) 5

3) 7

4) 9

5) None of these

Ans.7 (1)

How many such pair s of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as

many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans. 8 (3)

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter

only once in each word?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans. 9 (2)

10.

The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the

digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.10 (3)

11.

In a row of twenty- five children facing North, W is fifth to the r ight of R, who is sixteenth

from the right end of the row. What is W's position fr om the right end of the row?

1) Eleventh

2) Tenth

3) Twelfth

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.11 (1)

Directions (Q. 12-14):

Study the following, infor mation carefully and answer the questions,

which follow:

Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organised in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play

each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday

but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day.

Play B was organised on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was or ganised on

Tuesday.

12.

On which day was play B organised?

1) Thursday

2) Friday

3) Wednesday

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.12 (2)

13.

On which day was no play organised?

1) Monday

2) Wednesday

3) Thursday

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.13 (1)

14.

Which play was organised on Wednesday?

1) A

2) C

3) D

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.14 (3)

15.

If ‘‚’ means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'x’ and '-' means '÷', then 24 -4÷6 x3+4 =?

1) 36

2) 24

3) 8

4) 4

5) None of these

Ans.15 (5)

16.

What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498

1) 7

2) 1

3) 2

4) 5

5) None of these

Ans.16 (2)

17.

Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English

alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so

obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the

right end after the rearrangement?

1) Q

2) K

3) P

4) B

5) None of these

Ans.17 (3)

18.

Meena correctly remembers that her father 's birthday is after eighteenth May but before

twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's

Birthday is before twenty- fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was

definitely their father's birthday?

1) Twentieth

2) Nineteenth

3) Eighteenth

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Ans.18 (5)

Directions (Q. 19-20):

Study the following

infor mation and answer the questions given below:

(i) 'P÷ Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.

(ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.

(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.

(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.

19.

Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of T?

1) M÷K+T

2) M x K+T

3) M x K-T

4) M ÷ K - T

5) None of these

Ans.19 (4)

20.

Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T?

1) H +J+T

2) T x K + H

3) H +J x T

4) H - J + T

5) None of these

Ans.20 (1)

Directions (Q. 21-25):

Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given

below:

832 965 748 259 614

21.

Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?

1) 2

2) 5

3) 8

4) 9

5) 4

Ans. 21 (5)

22.

Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest number?

1) 11

2) 15

3) 10

4) 7

5) None of these

Ans.22 (2)

23.

If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged,

which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?

1) 5

2) 1

3) 6

4) 4

5) 3

Ans.23 (1)

24.

If the positions of the fir st and the second digits of each of the number s are interchanged,

which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number ?

1) 8

2) 6

3) 7

4) 5

5) None of these

Ans.24 (5)

25.

Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third

highest number?

1) 6

2) 4

3) 1

4) 7

5) None of these

Ans.25 (3)

Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three

conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at var iance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide

which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding

commonly known facts.

26.

Statements:All stones ar e poles.

All poles are desks.

Some desks are nets.

All nets are days.

Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones.

II.Some desks are stones.

III.Some days ar e desks.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only I and III follow

3) Only II and III follow

4) All I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.26 (3)

27.

Statements: Some months are weeks.

Some weeks are years.

All years are buses.

All buses are trains.

Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks.

II. Some buses are weeks.

III.Some trains are months.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only II and III follow

3) Only I and III follow

4) All, I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.27 (1)

28.

Statements: Some stations are r ails.

All rails are rivers.

All rivers are papers.

Some papers are cards.

Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations.

II.Some rivers are stations.

III. Some cards are rivers.

1) Norte follows

2) Only I follows

3) Only II follows

4) Only III follows

5) Only II and III follow

Ans.28 (3)

29. Statements: All windows are roofs.

All roofs are glasses.

Some glasses ar e plates.

Some plates ar e car pets.

Conclusions: I. Some plates are windows.

II. Some glasses ar e windows.

III. Some carpets are roofs.

1) None follows

2) Only I follows

3) Only II follows

4) Only III follows

5) Only I and II follow

Ans.29 (3)

30.

Statements: All trees are jungles.

All jungles are houses.

All houses are buildings.

All buildings are villages.

Conclusions: I . Some villages are houses.

II. Some buildings are jungles.

III. Some houses are trees.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only II and III follow

3) Only I and III follow

4) All I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.30 (4)

31.

Statements: Some books are calendars.

No calendar is a paper.

All papers are pencils.

Some pencils are chairs.

Conclusions: I. Some chairs are books.

II. No chair is a book.

III. Some pencils are calendars.

1) None follows

2) Only either I or II follows

3) Only either I or II and III follow

4) Only III follows

5) Only n follows

Ans.31 (2)

Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:

M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI @D7F88WN6#V©J*Y

32.

Which of the following is the ninth to the r ight of the seventeenth from the right end of the

above arrangement?

1) N

2) $

3)4

4) W

5) None of these

Ans.32 (1)

33.

Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above

arrangement?

1) U

2) D

3) E

4) ©

5) None of these

Ans.33 (5)

34.

How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately

preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.34 (3)

35.

How many such consonants ar e there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately

followed by a symbol but not immediately pr eceded by a number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.35 (3)

36.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) P5A

2) 4AE

3) QIK

4) F8@

5) VN*

Ans.36 (5)

37.

If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement ar e dropped, which of the

following will be the twelfth from the left end?

1) E

2) K

3) Z

4) D

5) None of these

Ans.37 (5)

Directions (Q. 38-43):

In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by

four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the

combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding

system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer.

If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None

of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 © 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE

G F J H B D. N R Q T U .

Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded

as the code for the even digit.

(ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be

interchanged.

(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code

for the symbol.

(iv) If both the fir st and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.

38.

9@374%

1) EIMQBF

2) FBQMIE

3) ZIMQBZ

4) FIMQBF

5) None of these

Ans.38 (4)

39.

29©$#1

1) HEANRD

2) DEANRH

3) DEANRD

4) HEANRH

5) None of these

Ans.39 (1)

40.

*479@©

1) UBQEIA

2) ZBQEIA

3) ZBQEIZ

4) ABQEIU

5) None of these

Ans.40 (3)

41.

% 286$3

1) FDGTNF

2) FDGTNM

3) FGDTNM

4) WGTNZ

5) None of these

Ans.41 (2)

42.

54#*@6

1) PBURIT

2) PBRUIP

3) TBRUIP

4) TBRUIT

5) None of these

Ans.42 (5)

43.

$63©94

1) NTMAEN

2) BTMAEB

3) ZTMAEB

4) NTMAEB

5) None of these

Ans.43 (2)

Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following infor mation carefully and answer the questions given

below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of

A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second

to the right of G

44.

Who is to the immediate left of D?

1) H

2) C

3) G

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.44 (2)

45.

Who is second to the right of E?

1) B

2) G

3) H

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.45 (1)

46.

Who is third to the left of B?

1) E

2) H

3) F

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.46 (5)

47.

What is the position of G with respect to A?

1) Third to the left

2) Third to the right

3) Fifth to the left

4) Fourth to the right

5) Fifth to the right

Ans.47 (4)

48.

In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the

second persons?

1) BGC

2) EFB

3) DAH

4) AEF

5) GCD

Ans.48 (3)

Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with

the following meaning as illustr ated below:

'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.

'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'.

'P © Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.

'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be tr ue, find which of

the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer

accordingly.

49.

Statements: D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T

Conclusions: I. J @ T

II. J%T

III. D@T

1) Only I is true

2) Only II is tr ue

3) Only either I or II is true

4) Only IV is true

5) Only either I or II and III are tr ue

Ans.49 (5)

50.

Statements: R@N,N©D, O$J, J#B

Conclusions: I. R @ J

II. J@N

III. B@D

1) None is true

2) Only I is true

3) Only II is tr ue

4) Only III is true

5) Only I and III are true

Ans.50 (3)

51.

Statements: W © B, B % V, V $ R, R@K

Conclusions: I . K © B

II. R#B

III.V@W

1) Only I and II are true

2) Only I and III are true

3) Only II and III are true

4) AII I, II and III are true

5) None of these

Ans.51 (3)

52.

Statements: H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D © R

Conclusions: I . D © M

II. R@M

III. H$T

1) None is true

2) Only I is true

3) Only II is tr ue

4) Only III is true

5) Only I and II are true

Ans.52 (2)

53.

Statements: B % J, J @ K, K © T, T $ F

Conclusions: I . F @ K

II. B@K

III.B@F

1) Only I and II are true

2) Only I and III are true

3) Only II and III are true

4) All I, II and III are true

5) None of these

Ans.53 (1)

54.

Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N

Conclusions: I . N @ M

II. F$M

III. K©B

1) Only I is true

2) Only II is tr ue

3) Only III is true

4) Only II and III are true

5) None is true

Ans.54 (5)

Directions (55-60):

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of

input and rearrangement.

Input : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38

Step I : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38

Step I I : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38

Step I II : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38

Step I V : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then

Step V : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then

Step VI : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18

and step VI is the last step of the r earrangement of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the

appropriate step for the given input.

55.

Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the

rearrangement?

1) Five

2) Six

3) Four

4) Seven

5) None of these

Ans.55 (2)

56.

Step I I of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to

complete the rearr angement?

1) Three

2) Four

3) Five

4) Six

5) None of these

Ans.56 (2)

57.

Step I II of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely

be the input?

1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34

2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79

3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Ans.57 (4)

58.

Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?

1) VI

2) VII

3) VIII

4) IX

5) None of these

Ans.58 (1)

59.

Step I I of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step

VI?

1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15

2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there

3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there

4) There will be no such step

5) None of these

Ans.59 (4)

60.

Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

1) IX

2) VIII

3) VII

4) VI

5) None of these

Ans.60 (5)

Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following infor mation carefully and answer the questions given

below:

Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager -HR in an organisation.

The candidate must

(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05- 2010.

(ii) be postgraduate in Personnel

Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks.

(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five

years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation.

(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her or ganisation sometime during the past

three years.

(v) have secured at least 45 per cent mar ks in the selection process.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at

(A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per

cent mar ks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualificat ion work experience out of which at

least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to

Chair man.

In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the cour ses of

action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and

mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other

than the infor mation provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-

0572010.

Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.

Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.

Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.

61.

Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years

in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager -HR after completing his

postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last

year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process.

62.

Sheetal Jha has been working in an or ganisation for the past twenty years out of which ten

years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with

70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent mar ks in

the selection process.

63.

Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection

process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve

years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks.

He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years.

64.

Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which

nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent

marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection

process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back.

65.

Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen year s,

out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in

Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the

selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year .

66.

Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as

Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per

cent mar ks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation dur ing the last two

years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th

December 1971.

67.

Akash Shastri was born on 12th Apr il 1967. He has been. wor king for the past sixteen years,

out of which six years as Senior Manager -HR, in an organisation after completing his

postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in

his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

68.

Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven year s as

Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per

cent mar ks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th.

69.

Sunetra Govil was born on 5th Apr il 1964. She has been wor king for the past seventeen

years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager -HR, in an or ganisation. She has secured 48 per

cent mar ks in the selection process. She has also secur ed 69 per cent mar ks in her post-

graduation in Per sonnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her

organisation last year.

70.

Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thir teen years,

out of which nine years as Senior Manager -HR, after completing his post- gr aduation in HR with

67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He has

successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years.

Answers :(Q.61- 70)

Q.No. Person (i) (ii)/(A) (iii)/(B) (iv) ( V) Ans

61. Pranab v v v v v 1

62. Sheetal v v v v 3

63. Prabir v (v) v v v 4

64. Shailesh v v (v) v v 5

65. Navin v v v v × 2

66. Meera

v v v v 2

67. Akash v (v) v v v 4

68. Shekhar v v v v v 1

69. Sunetra v v v v 3

70. Mohit v v (v) v v 5

Directions (Q. 71-75):

Below in each question ar e given two statements (A) and (B). These

statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a

common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the

statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship

between these two statements.

Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.

Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.

Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.

Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

71.

(A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current crop.

(B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat crop.

Ans.71 (1)

72.

(A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy

road.

(B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the

footpath on the main r oad, blocking pedestrian movement.

Ans.72 (2)

73.

(A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a dilapidated

condition.

(B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the remaining

students to a make-shift school.

Ans.73 (1)

74.

(A) The braking system of the tourist bus car rying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a

stiff climb on a hilly road.

(B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the

remaining.

Ans.74 (1)

75.

(A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools from

the next academic year.

(B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower than

that of the neighbouring states.

CBSE PSA

2013-01-27T13:15:00.001+05:30

STUDY MATERIALS:

of the Date

Here are some shortcuts/tips to find out the day of the week from the given date. You can play these trick as instructed, with your parents or friends and prove your talent to them.

Day of the Week:
January has 31 days. It means that every date in February will be 3 days later than the same date in January(28 is 4 weeks exactly). The below table is calculated in such a way. Remember this table which will help you to calculate.

January	0
February	3
March	3
April	6
May	1
June	4
July	6
August	2
September	5
October	0
November	3
December	5

Step1: Ask for the Date. Ex: 23^rd June 1986
Step2: Number of the month on the list, June is 4.
Step3: Take the date of the month, that is 23
Step4: Take the last 2 digits of the year, that is 86.
Step5: Find out the number of leap years. Divide the last 2 digits of the year by 4, 86 divide by 4 is 21.
Step6: Now add all the 4 numbers: 4 + 23 + 86 + 21 = 134.
Step7: Divide 134 by 7 = 19 remainder 1.
The reminder tells you the day.

Sunday	0
Monday	1
Tuesday	2
Wednesday	3
Thursday	4
Friday	5
Saturday	6

Answer: Monday

Beauty of Mathematics:
Here are some funny math interesting facts. All the below tricks are based around the sequential manipulation of the numbers being used for input and output.

Beauty of Mathematics

Sequential Inputs of numbers with 8

1 x 8 + 1 = 9

12 x 8 + 2 = 98

123 x 8 + 3 = 987

1234 x 8 + 4 = 9876

12345 x 8 + 5 = 98765

123456 x 8 + 6 = 987654

1234567 x 8 + 7 = 9876543

12345678 x 8 + 8 = 98765432

123456789 x 8 + 9 = 987654321

Sequential 1's with 9

1 x 9 + 2 = 11

12 x 9 + 3 = 111

123 x 9 + 4 = 1111

1234 x 9 + 5 = 11111

12345 x 9 + 6 = 111111

123456 x 9 + 7 = 1111111

1234567 x 9 + 8 = 11111111

12345678 x 9 + 9 = 111111111

123456789 x 9 + 10 = 1111111111

Sequential 8's with 9

9 x 9 + 7 = 88

98 x 9 + 6 = 888

987 x 9 + 5 = 8888

9876 x 9 + 4 = 88888

98765 x 9 + 3 = 888888

987654 x 9 + 2 = 8888888

9876543 x 9 + 1 = 88888888

98765432 x 9 + 0 = 888888888

Numeric Palindrome with 1's

1 x 1 = 1

11 x 11 = 121

111 x 111 = 12321

1111 x 1111 = 1234321

11111 x 11111 = 123454321

111111 x 111111 = 12345654321

1111111 x 1111111 = 1234567654321

11111111 x 11111111 = 123456787654321

111111111 x 111111111 = 12345678987654321

Without 8

12345679 x 9 = 111111111

12345679 x 18 = 222222222

12345679 x 27 = 333333333

12345679 x 36 = 444444444

12345679 x 45 = 555555555

12345679 x 54 = 666666666

12345679 x 63 = 777777777

12345679 x 72 = 888888888

12345679 x 81 = 999999999

Sequential Inputs of 9

9 x 9 = 81

99 x 99 = 9801

999 x 999 = 998001

9999 x 9999 = 99980001

99999 x 99999 = 9999800001

999999 x 999999 = 999998000001

9999999 x 9999999 = 99999980000001

99999999 x 99999999 = 9999999800000001

999999999 x 999999999 = 999999998000000001

......................................

Sequential Inputs of 6

6 x 7 = 42

66 x 67 = 4422

666 x 667 = 444222

6666 x 6667 = 44442222

66666 x 66667 = 4444422222

666666 x 666667 = 444444222222

6666666 x 6666667 = 44444442222222

66666666 x 66666667 = 4444444422222222

666666666 x 666666667 = 444444444222222222

......................................

Age Calculation

Here you can find the age using some tricks. You can play these trick as instructed, with your parents or friends and prove your talent to them.

Age Calculation

Age Calculation Tricks:
Step1: Multiply the first number of the age by 5. (If <10 05.="" 5="" as="" consider="" ex="" if="" is="" it="">100, ex: 102, then take 10 as the first digit, 2 as the second one.)
Step2: Add 3 to the result.
Step3: Double the answer.
Step4: Add the second digit of the number with the result.
Step5: Subtract 6 from it.

Maths Trick 1

STEP 1
Ask a friend to write down a number (any number with more than 3 digits will do, but to save time and effort you might suggest a maximum of 8 digits).
Example: 83 972 105

STEP 2
Ask them to add the digits.
Example: 8+3+9+7+2+1+0+5 = 35

STEP 3
Ask them to subtract this number from the original one.
Example: 83 972 105 – 35 = 83 972 070

STEP 4
Ask them to select any digit from this new number and strike it out, without showing you.
Example: 83 972 070

STEP 5
Ask them to add the remaining digits and write down the answer they get.
Example: 8+3+9+7+0+7+0 = 34

STEP 6
Ask them to tell you the number they get (34) and you will tell them which number they struck out.

SOLUTION
The way you do this is to subtract the number they give you from the next multiple of 9. The answer you get is the number they struck out.
Example: The next multiple of 9 here is 36 (9 x 4 =36)
36 – 34 = 2 and there you have your answer, easy isn’t it!

Note: If the number they give you after step 5 is a multiple of 9, there are two possible answers then you simply tell them that this time they crossed out either a 9 or a zero.

Maths Trick 2

Amazing 1089...

Step 1
Take two pieces of paper and hand one to a friend.
On yours, without letting them see, write the number 1089, then fold the paper to keep it hidden.
Step 2
Ask them to think of a 3-digit number but, before they write it down, ask them to put the numbers in order from greatest to smallest. Don't let them show what they've written.
Example: 543
Step 3
Below their number, ask them to write the same digits, but in reverse order, from smallest to greatest.
Example: 345
Step 4
Now, ask them to subtract the new lower number from the original one they wrote.
Example: 198
Step 5
Next, ask them to reverse the order of that number.
Example: 891
Step 6
Then, get them to add this latest number and the previous number together and show you the result.
Example: 891 + 198 = 1089
Step 7
Finally, you can reveal your own number, which (if they have calculated correctly) will be exactly what they have written...
1089

Maths Trick 3

Try this one in your head, using mental maths...

Step 1
Ask a friend to think of a number between 1 and 10.
Example: 8
Step 2
Get them to double it.
Example: 16
Step 3
Ask them to add 10 to the answer.
Example: 26
Step 4
Then get them to divide by 2.
Example: 13
Step 5
Ask them to tell you what number they now have.
Example: 13
Step 6
You subtract 5 from this and tell them what their original number was.
Example: 13 - 5 = 8
Note: If you wish to take turns to practice your mental maths, you can also use 2 and 3 digit numbers to make it harder!

Magic Squares

A magic square is a set of integers arranged in a square in such away that each row, each column (and often the two diagonals as well) sum to the same number.
For example: This 3 x 3 magic square's rows, columns and diagonals each add up to the number 15.

4	9	2
3	5	7
8	1	6

This 4 x 4 magic square's rows, columns and diagonals each add up to the number 34.

3	6	10	15
13	12	8	1
16	9	5	4
2	7	11	14

Squares

The result of squaring a number can also be arrived at by progressively adding consecutive odd numbers as shown below.

1²	= 1	= 1
2²	= 4	= 1+3
3²	= 9	= 1+3+5
4²	= 16	= 1+3+5+7
5²	= 25	= 1+3+5+7+9
6²	= 36	= 1+3+5+7+9+11
7²	= 49	= 1+3+5+7+9+11+13
8²	= 64	= 1+3+5+7+9+11+13+15
9²	= 81	= 1+3+5+7+9+11+13+15+17
10²	= 100	= 1+3+5+7+9+11+13+15+17+19

Did you know...

The Numbers 1 to 9

The sum of 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9 = 45

Multiply 123456789 by 2 and you get 246913578,
the sum of which is 45
The "stations" of the nine times table all add up to nine.
9, 18, 27, 36, 45, 54, 63, 72, 81, 90

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENTS

2013-01-27T12:55:00.000+05:30

SUGGESTIONS :

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is
LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these

5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related
to ……….
(A) JM

(B) IL

(C) JL

(D) IK

(E) None of these

6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in
descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED
written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in
that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper

(B) Iron

10. What should come next in the following number series ?

9898798769876598765498765

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these

11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following

five numbers ?

254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9

12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th
July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but
before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many
students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D
scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who
among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P

Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.

Conclusions :

I. Some ponds are tents.

II. Some ponds are desks.

17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.

Conclusions :

I. Some rats are chairs.

II. Some rats are pens.

18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.

Conclusions :

I. Some nets are forests.

II. Some nets are huts.

19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.

Conclusions :

I. Some buses are tables.

II. Some rooms are tables.

20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.

Conclusions :

I. Some dogs are trees.

II. Some bricks are trees.

Page|5

21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.

Conclusions :

I. Some roots are goats.

II. No root is goat.

22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.

Conclusions :

I. Some paints are pots.

II. Some bangles are paints.

Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the

questions given below—

B#AR58E%MF4J1U@H2©9TI6*W3P#K7$Y

23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of
the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these

24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?

Page|6

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will
be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these

28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I

Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols

followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to findout which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based onthe following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark(E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.

Digit/Symbol :

4%39$18@©2#56*7d

Letter Code :

PMITRQJFHAEUNBGL

Conditions :

(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to
be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.

(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these

31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these

32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these

33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these

34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these

35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these

36. 46*389

(A) PNBIJT

(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are

used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out
which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give
answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K

Conclusions : I. K d J

II. K % J

38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W

Conclusions : I. W % T

II. H © N

39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T

Conclusions : I. V % F

II. F @ T

40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H

Conclusions : I. H % D

II. W @ B

41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R

Conclusions : I. R $ F

II. M © F

42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J

Conclusions : I. R @ H

II. J % H

Page|9

43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E

Conclusions : I. E d B

II. D @ V

Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given
below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the
left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the
right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate

47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate

48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the

third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are
given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the
following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The
operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even
number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be
divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted
from the first number.

50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these

51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these

52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210

Page|11

(E) None of these

53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these

54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these

55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read
both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased
over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the
previous year.

57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad

II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.

58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the
annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual
examination.

59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.

II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.

60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food
habits.

Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the five

answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the

sequence were continued ?

Answers with Hints

1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 987654
11. (D) 963, 84 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.

B#ARE%MFJU@H ©TI*WP#K$Y

11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)

56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (B) In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time
after shifting one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded
part of the designs form after rotating 90° anticlockwise in the two designs and forms
after rotating 90° clockwise in a simple square design with this also.
62. (D) In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design ‘<’ forms after rotating 45°
and 90° anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design ‘^’ forms after rotating
90° and 180° anticlockwise respectively.
63. (E)
64. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line
increase in sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower
side and one curved line is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower
side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right
and from upper side to lower side and is also missing 1 and 2 respectively from back side.
65. (C) In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then
one side anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side
each time then forward side respectively.
66. (E) In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then
this design shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These
designs rotate 90° clockwise each time with this change also.
67. (B)
68. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal
lines reverse in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left
respectively.
69. (B) In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and
shifting one side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side.
So these sequences continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next
side anticlockwise after reversing from outside to inside.
70. (E) 71. (A)
72. (C) In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left
corner beome on the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines
respectively.
73. (B)
74. (E) In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from
upper left corner. These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two
lines after forming upto lower left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars
form on the place of circles from back side.
75. (D) In each subsequent figure the ‘square’ forms one side clockwise first and then
half side anticlockwise respectively. Similarly, the ‘circle’ shifts half side, one side, one
and half side, two side and two and half side anticlockwise respectively in each
subsequent figure also

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT (PSA)

2013-01-27T12:44:00.003+05:30

Concepts of Qualitative Aptitudes:

One of the most paralyzing moments in conducting qualitative research is beginning analysis, when researchers must first look at their data in order to see what they should look for in their data. Although temporally and conceptually overlapping processes, data analysis should be distinguished from interpretation. Practical suggestions for beginning analysis include getting a sense of the whole, extracting the facts, identifying key topics or major storylines and dimensionalizing their informational content, and using frameworks to reduce data.

Here we have both a quantitative result, and a qualitative assessment of the same game. Which do we care more about—the result, or the game? The points, or the passion? Which we find more important or illuminating will depend on what we are interested in. If we are team managers or fanatical fans, we may care more about the result than about how it was achieved. If we are neutral spectators, then we may care more about the quality of the game than about the result—in which case the match report confirms our worst fears of a no scoring draw! In social research as in everyday life, our assessment of quantitative and qualitative data is likely to reflect the interests we bring to it and the use we want to make of it.We use quantitative data in a whole range of everyday activities, such as shopping, cooking, travelling, watching the time or assessing the Government’s economic performance. How long? How often? How much? How many? We often ask and answer questions such as these using quantitative data. Suppose I take 30 minutes to jog 5 miles to a shop and spend ￡5 on a litre of Chilean wine and 100 grams of Kenyan green beans. My behaviour may seem somewhat eccentric, but the terms in which it is expressed—minutes, miles,pounds, litres and grams—are entirely familiar. Each of these is a unit of measurement, in terms of which we can measure quantity. How do we measure quantities? We can count the coins or notes. We use a watch to tell the time. We weigh the beans on a weighing machine. We can use a milometer to check on distance and a measuring jug for volume. In each case, we have a measuring device which can express variations in quantity in terms of an established scale of standard units. But what is it that varies? We use minutes to measure time, miles to measure distance, pounds to measure expenditure, litres to measure volume and grams to measure weight. Time, distance, expenditure, volume and weight can be thought of as variables which can take on a range of different values. We don’t always agree on

how to measure our variables—we could have used kilometres, dollars, pints and ounces. But the important point is that for each of these variables we can confidently measure numerical differences in the values they can adopt. This is possible because we can establish a unit of measurement agreed upon as a common standard which is replicable, i.e. it can be applied again and again with the same results (Blalock 1960).While ‘quantities’ permeate our everyday life, they are most likely to be used in a physical or physiological context, where measurement in terms of standard units is well established. We readily accept conventional measures of time, space and weight. Even in a physical context, though, we make qualitative as well as quantitative assessments. Is the bus dirty? Is the meal appetizing? Is the view breathtaking?These involve assessments for which we either cannot or do not use concepts which can be measured in quantitative terms. In a psychological or social context, we are much more likely to rely on qualitative assessment. Is this person sympathetic? Is this city exciting? Is this book interesting? These are areas where we tend to rely on qualitative assessment rather than on some quantitative measure.By comparison with quantities, qualities seem elusive and ethereal. We often use‘quality’ as a measure of relative worth, as when referring to a ‘quality performance’or ‘a person of quality’, or asking whether something is of good or poor quality. Suppose I have just watched a film and I am asked what I thought of it. What was the film like? My evaluation will refer to the qualities of the film. Was it entertaining, or profound? Did it make me laugh or cry? Was the plot plausible? Were the characters convincing? Was the acting good? Was the script well crafted? These questions are all concerned with what I made of the film. But my evaluation

of the film cannot be separated from how I understood and interpreted it. Quality is a measure of relative value, but based on an evaluation of the general character or intrinsic nature of what we are assessing. What was the story? What was the point of the film? What values did it express? Did the film achieve what it set out to do? In short, what did the film mean to me? Whereas quantitative data deals with numbers, qualitative data deals with meanings. Meanings are mediated mainly through language and action. Language is not a matter of subjective opinion. Concepts are constructed in terms of an intersubjective language which allows us to communicate intelligibly and interact effectively .

PSA 2013

2013-01-27T12:39:00.003+05:30

CBSE PSA FOR CLASS IX AND XI ( PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENTS),2013

SUGGESTIONS:

ABOUT:

Quantitative reasoning is the application of mathematical concepts and skills to solve real-world problems. In order to perform effectively as professionals and citizens, students must become competent in reading and using quantitative data, in understanding quantitative evidence and in applying basic quantitative skills to the solution of real-life problems.

QUANTITATIVE REASONING : The question generally comes under this section are of the following nature viz Qunatitative Comparison , Problem Solving and Data Interpretation .In this section students needs to solve the problems using basic concepts of Arithmetic Algebra Geometry and Data Analysis.

Q1:

Which of the numbers below represents the following: Six million, four hundred sixty-two thousand, three hundred fifty-one.

A: 6,351,462

B: 6,462,000

C: 6,462,351

D: 600,462,351

Q2:

Compare the following numbers and use symbols to show the relationship. 4,912,641 4,931,221

2013-01-26T17:49:00.002+05:30

HAPPY REPUBLIC DAY.....................................................JAI HIND,JAI HIND,JAI HIND

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT (PSA)

2013-01-26T01:00:00.001+05:30

CBSE PSA ,2013

ABOUT

However, the so called ‘syllabus’ for both types of tests remains the same, and roughly comprises of the following:

Questions on properties of numbers, divisibility, LCM, HCF, remainder theorem and their applications.
Basic arithmetic and its applications like calculating simple and compound interest, ratio and proportion, profit, loss and discount, mixtures and work-time or time-speed based problems, essentially commercial mathematics.
Basic algebra and its applications like simple and quadratic equations, series, exponents, polynomials, functions.
Geometry and mensuration. Comprising of primarily two dimensional figures, and application of basic theorems.
Modern maths: Set theory, Venn diagrams, permutation, combination and probability.

Although the syllabus and breadth of areas remain the same in both types of exams, there is a huge difference in types of questions that are asked and hence the approach to prepare and attempt questions also varies.

The quant in these exams (SNAP, IRMA, etc) is what could be primarily called a Speed and Accuracy Test. The number of questions is large, but most of the questions are either direct formula-based questions or direct application of a basic concept. The premium is on speed. Those who can solve questions quickly rule the roost. Consider few sample questions:

A trader bought two watches for Rs 2,000 each. One he sold at 5 per cent profit and the second at 7 per cent loss. Calculate net profit/loss.

This is a simple question of calculating a percentage (2 per cent) on Rs 2,000, which is 40.

Consider another question. If today a father is four times as old as his son and five years ago he was five times as old as his son, find their present ages. This again is a simple application of algebra, or substituting the given options.

For this type of quantitative aptitude , the following preparation strategy is suggested:

Leave no area unprepared, as coverage is more important than depth. Even dreaded topics like probability and permutation and combinations should not be left.
Cram and make yourself familiar with all basic formulae (for mensuration, algebra, logarithms and modern maths) and theorems (for geometry) as a starting point. Practise them well to the extent that you become well-versed with their application in basic questions.
Each functional area in quant has five to 10 standard sub-areas associated with it and each such sub-area has two to three basic concepts involving standard questions related with it. For example in work-time and time-speed questions, the sub-areas are relative speed, pipes and cisterns, boats, circular motion, clocks and work efficiency. You should familiarise yourself with each sub-area and standard questions. Again, practise well so as to solve any similar question quickly, efficiently and correctly. Remember, this will potentially comprise 80 per cent of quantitative aptitude section. You have to ensure 100 percent accuracy in them.
Many questions require nothing but faster calculation; hence it is sine qua non that you have complete mastery over the multiplication tables of first 30 natural numbers and the squares, cubes and square roots of the first 20 numbers. Memorising reciprocals of the first 30 numbers is also helpful in dividing faster. You will find it extremely useful in arithmetic problems like computing compound interest.
While attempting questions, divide your attempts into multiple rounds (at least two). In round one, attempt only those questions, of which you are 100 percent sure, and solving them is just a matter of time. The prime test of this ‘doability’ is that you should not have one iota of doubt that you can solve the question. If there are certain questions that you have solved earlier and hence know are doable but time-consuming, put a circle over them and return to them if time permits in the second round. Similarly, questions where nothing strikes your mind in first 10 to 15 seconds are best left. Put a different symbol — say a sign of interrogation — over all such questions and you can return to them in your third round. For questions about which you have no clue in first five seconds, put a cross in front of them and leave. They are a potential round four questions, subject to availability of time.

The big challenge

The syllabus of quantitative aptitude sections of these exams as mentioned earlier is same as for other exams. The difference lies in nature of questions. Here not merely the width but the depth and clarity of basic concepts, along with complete mastery over first principles, is an absolute necessity.

Although the questions derive from basic concepts, application is of a high degree. For example, although in geometry the basic theorems involved are the same (around a dozen), a single question may involve application of multiple theorems or a single theorem will only become applicable when some further construction is done in the question. Mere familiarity with the topic and basic formulae is not going to help you score well here.
Let’s see what extra must be done. Following guidelines will be helpful:

You need to identify your ‘areas of strength’. Areas of strength are those areas where your grip over the first principles is very clear, you are psychologically at ease even with the difficult questions and can easily comprehend and solve newer type questions. Typically this will be the area where you were ahead of your friends, either from day one, or were able to grasp fundamentals swiftly. You probably invest maximum time in solving problems in this area, and also enjoy it. Statistically, your accuracy is also highest for such topics. Your mock test scores will also indicate that. Everyone has few of these areas. It could be number system or geometry or algebra. You really need to introspect and cogitate to discover your areas of strength and further groom them to become your ‘milch cows’.
The larger trick lies in picking the sitters from other areas, and scoring heavily in areas of strength. Invest more time in solving difficult questions from these areas of strength. If the number is consistently 10 to 15, then you are on the right track. If it is lesser then you need to identify another such area of strength. The logic is simple, and can be explained using an analogy drawn from cricket. Every batsman has few pet shots, using which he scores most of his runs, say a pull, flick and cut. He is only average with other shots, but the mastery over these few shots is such that he rarely leaves an opportunity to score using them. You also need to identify, develop and hone your areas of strength in the same way.
People who are really good at quantitative aptitude are those who have got a larger number of areas of strength and keep on adding more to their repertoire. To further bolster your areas of strength, start modifying and altering questions from them after solving them. Better still, try to frame your own questions in areas of strength. The exercise of framing one's own questions is very helpful in further mastery.
Now again, while attempting the actual paper or mock tests, the operating logic is simple. The surface-level questions, if any, should be done in round one. Then one should invest time in questions from one’s areas of strength. However there is a caveat: no matter how good you are in one particular sphere, there still could be questions, which you cannot solve, so the criterion of reasonable time investment per question has to be kept in mind. As per this criterion, if you are clueless about a question after investing two minutes even in your area of strength, the chances are that it is beyond you at that point. Leave it; there are other battles to be fought.

In the end, at the cost of sounding clichéd, I may add that mastering quantitative aptitude is not a fixed rigid goal but a process, which can be refined to no end. Applying patience and perseverance can help you in achieving this task.

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT 2013 MODEL PAPERS

2013-01-26T00:54:00.002+05:30

Common Error (Articles, Prepositions)

1. Articles: There are three articles in English—a, an and the. A and an are called indefinite article.The is the definite article. An article is placed before a noun. If there is an adjective before a noun, the article is placed before the adjective:

a train,
a fast train,
an incident,
an unusual incident
Note: We can never use a singular count noun alone, that is, without a/an/the/my/some/any etc.

2. A/an: Singular count nouns take the indefinite article a/an with them:

a ball
an egg
a dog
an elephant

Uncount nouns do not generally take an article with them. we do not generally say

a milk
a beauty
a wisdom
for milk, beauty, wisdom cannot be counted.

3. We use a with singular count nouns beginning with a consonant sound:

a girl
a map
a university
a union
a one-sided affair
a one-rupee note

Note: That the words university, union, and one begin with a vowel but no a vowel sound. University and union begin with the yoo sound while one begins with the w sound.
Well-known words which begin with a vowel but take a with them are:

European
uniform
union
unit
universal
usual
useful
eau-de-cologne

4. An: An is used before words beginning with a vowel sound:

an umbrella
an opportunity
an honest boy
an honourable person

The letter h in honest and honourable is not sounded. Common words in English which begin with an unsounded h are:

heir
heiress
honest
honorary
honourable
hour
hourly

5. In abbreviations, if consonants begin with a vowel sound, they take an before them:

an M.P.
an S.P.

But if consonants begin with a consonant sound, they take a before them:

a Ph.D.
a B.Ed.

6. Note the use of a in the following phrases:

a pity a shame
a pleasure a noise
a rage a nuisance
a headache a toothache
a bad cold in a whisper
in a low voice in a loud voice
to be at a loss

7. The definite Article the: The, the definite article, is a weakended form of that. It is pronounced as (di:) when it preceded a vowel sound and as do before a consonant sound. In meaning also, it is weaker than that. Instead of pointing out, it defines, particularises or singles out:
I have read the book you are talking of. (not any book but a particular book that is being referred to)
The artists who came to seem me today are quite accomplished. (not any artists but the ones who came to see me today)

8. In the examples given in § 7, the book and the artists are particularised by two adjective clauses. In certain cases, a noun's being particular may be clear from the context and it may not have any defining expression with it. The is also prefixed to such a noun:
Shut the door. (the door of the room in which we are sitting)
He was brought before the Principal. (The Principal of the institution in which he was studying)
The king pardoned him. (the king we are talking about at the moment)

9. If I am looking at the picture of a room, I can talk about the ceiling, the floor, because there is only one ceiling and one floor, but I cannot talk about the wall if there are more than one walls in the picture because I would not be talking about the only one. I can, however, talk about the left wall and the right wall because there is only one left wall and one right wall in the picture.

10. More about the: We use the definite article the

with superlatives and the words used in the superlative sense:
the best student in the class
the Chief Justice
the Prime Minister
when special emphasis almost equivalent to the use of the superlative is intended:
He is the leader today. (the greatest leader)
This is just the thing. (the right thing)
This is the way to solve this problem. (the proper way).
even in comparative degrees when one of the two items is singled out in preference to the other:
He is the moon, the world, (But not: He is the finer batsman than others. The correct form would be : He is a finer bats man than others.)
with things of which there is only one in our world, or things which are otherwise well known but do not begin with a capital letter:
the sun, the moon, the world, the equator, the north, the east.
in place of possessive adjectives:
I hit him on the head. (= his head) Disappointment stared him in the face.( = his face)
with common nouns when one noun is used to represent the whole class or species:
The horse is a faithful animal.
The lion is the king of animals.
with an adjective with a plural notion to indicate a class of persons:
The rich should help the poor. (We can say: Rich men should help poor men But not: The rich men should help the poor men.×)
as an adverb in case of certain comparatives:
The more we get, the more we want.
The harder you work, the better it will be.
to suggest distribution: (= each)
We can buy oranges by the dozen.
Cloth is sold by the metre.

Exercise

Fill in the blanks with a, an or the where necessary:

1. —— more you read, —— more you know.
2. —— stone hit him on —— head.
3. —— fox is —— very clever animal.
4. Only —— rich can afford ——comforts of ——modern times.
5. I have —— elder brother and —— younger sister. —— sister is —— wiser of the two.
6. If you are looking for —— entertaining as well as educative magazine, this is —— magazine for you.
7. —— sun rises in — east and sets in —west.
8. India is a little to —— north of —— equator.
9. —— oranges are sold by —— dozen.

11. Articles with Proper Nouns

1. Proper nouns, as a rule, do not take articles with them:
Shakespeare was a great playwright. (Shakespeare)
Samudragupta was a great warrior. (Samudragupta)

2. But if a proper noun is used as a common noun, it may take with it some article:
He is a good playwright but not a Shakespeare. (not as great a playwright as Shakespeare)
Kalidas is the Shakespeare of India. (as great a playwright for India as Shakespeare is for England)

3. We need the definite article the with the names of:

• Rivers the Ganga, the Yamuna

• Seas and oceans the Red Sea, the Atlantic Ocean

• Mountain ranges the Alps, the Himalayas

• Holy books the Bible, the Ramcharit Manas

• Trains, ships the Himgiri Express, the Ashoka (the name of a ship).

• Newspapers and the Pioneer, magazines the Hindustan Times, the Filmfare, the portstar

• Well-known the Gateway of India, buildings the Red Fort, the Qutub Minar

• Countries (if their name contains a common noun) the U.S.A.,

the U.K. (In United States of America, States is a common noun.)

• Peoples, parties the English, the French, the Whigs

• The whole families the Khans, the Kapurs

Prepositions

Prepositions of Time
A number of prepositions may be used to denote time: from Monday; after my return; during the night; till tomorrow; before the bell rings; a quarter to ten. In most cases, it is easy to decide which preposition to use. The following prepositions, however, need special attention.

1. At, on, in

At usually denotes a definite point of time but can also be used for indefinite periods:
at 7 p.m.; at this moment; (Definite at midnight; point of time)
at the end of the class;
at night; at dawn; (indefinite at Durga Puja; at Diwali. periods)
On is used with days and dates:
on Monday; on 1st May;
on the annual day; on a May afternoon.
In is used with parts of the day, and with months, years, seasons:
in the morning; in September;
in 2004; in winter.
In is also used with the future tense to show the period in which an action will happen:
in a week; in four hours.
In and within. In means at the end of; within means before the end of:
I shall be back in a week. (when a week is over)
I shall be back within a week. (before a week is over)

2. By

By refers to a point of future time and denotes the latest time at which an action will be over:
The competition will be over by 6 p.m.
(It should be over before it is 6 p.m., but the latest time at which it can be over is 6 p.m.)
They will have declared the result by tomorrow evening.

3. For

For is used with periods of time to show the duration of an action. It is mostly used with perfect continuous tenses though it may be found with other tenses as well:
This discussion has been going on for two hours.
I have worked in this office for two years.
For may sometimes be omitted also:
I have been busy the whole morning.(for the whole morning)

4. Since

Since marks the point of time at which an action began. It is used only if the action has continued till the time of speaking; hence it is found with perfect continuous tenses. Unlike for, it can never be ommitted:
She has been teaching in this college since 2001.
A cool breeze has been blowing since morning.

5. From

From denotes the starting point of an action and is used in all cases except when the action has continued till the moment of speaking. It is almost invariably used with to or till:
The examination will be held from 8 a.m. to 11 a.m.
He was the Chief Minister of the state from 1999 to 2002.

6. At, in

At has the idea of an exact point and is, therefore, used with houses, villages, small towns. In has the idea of a larger area and is used while speaking of bigger towns, states, countries, etc.:
at Karol Bagh in New Delhi;
at Ambala; in England;
at the end; in the middle.
At conveys the idea of a general neighbourhood; in conveys the idea of something contained:
We say at the table to take our lunch.
Please wait for me at the Regal PVR.
Turn left at the next crossing.
There are two Pepsi bottles in the refrigerator.
You will find the stapler in the drawer.

7. On, upon

On is used while speaking of things at rest; upon is used with things in motion:
The file is on the table.
The dog sprang upon the table.

8. Above, over

Both above and over mean higher than. Sometimes we can use either of them:
The flags waved over our heads.
The flags waved above our heads.
But over can also mean coverning, or vertically above:
My father put a blanket over me.
There is a fan exactly over the table.

9. Below, under

Both below and under mean lower than and sometimes we can use either of them. But under means vertically below. It also has the idea of contact:
There was a beautiful lake below us in the valley.
His shoes were lying under the table.
She put the keys of the wardrobe under her pillow.

10. Into

Into denotes movement towards the interior of something:
He jumped into the well.
One stream flows into another.
Figuratively: We have entered into an agreement to export handicrafts to some European countries.

11. For

For is used to denote direction when the verb shows the beginning of a movement:
The children leaves for the school at 7 a.m.
We shall soon set off for Mumbai.

12. Against

Against shows pressure or contact:
He threw the goods against the wall.
Prepositions of direction from. Most common among these are: from, off, out of:

13. From

From is used with the point of departure:
He brought these books from the market.
He had already gone from home.

14. Out of

It is the opposite of into. It means from the interior of:
He took a few books out of the Cupboard.

EXERCISE------

Common Error (MCQ )

Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence.

1. Agriculture in America has — industrial progress.
(1) kept pace with (2) kept paces along
(3) kept its pace for
(4) kept pace together with
(5) None of these

2. He is — if he does not meet this situation boldly.
(1) unworthy of his salt
(2) not worth his salt
(3) not of worth to his salt
(4) not worth of the salt
(5) None of these

3. I know I have a copy of the book you need, but at the moment, I can't — it.
(1) lay my hands on (2) lie my hand
(3) lay my fingers on (4) lay my hands to
(5) None of these

4. Due to industrial recession, retrenchment of jobs is — in big and small units alike.
(1) order for the day (2) the daily order
(3) the order of the day (4) the order every day
(5) None of these

5. It is due to lack of careful advance planning that your scheme has
(1) come upon grief (2) come out with grief
(3) come to grief (4) come in grief.
(5) None of these

Directions: In each of these questions, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar, idiom or syntax. Identify that part and mark it as the answer.

6. (1) She was as pretty
(2) if not prettier than
(3) any other girl who had come
(4) to participate in the meeting
(5) None of these

7. (1) If one reads the newspaper regularly
(2) you will be surprised at the improvement
(3) in your overall reading skills
(4) from day to day.
(5) None of these

8. (1) After finding the problem,
(2) the mechanic cleaned the carburettor,
(3) started the engine
(4) and found it working smoothly
(5) None of these

9. (1) The only people in the theatre
(2) on that stormy night
(3) were the staff of the theatre
(4) and me (5) None of these

10. (1) She was wearing a wig that was
(2) far more attractive than
(3) the other women who had
(4) their natural hair
(5) None of these

One-Word Substitution

A person who is out to destroy all government and order                   Anarchist

Government by the people                                                  Democracy

The whole mass of air surrounding the earth                               Atmosphere

One who is not sure of the existence of God                               Agnostic

A medicine which prevents infection by killing germs                      Antiseptic

One who does something not professionally but for pleasure                Amateur

A statement open to more than one interpretation                          Ambiguous

One who makes an official examination of accounts                      Auditor

Marrying more than one wife or more than one husband at a time            Polygamy

The science that studies plants                                           Botany

The science which studies natural processes of living things              Biology

People working together in the same office or department                  Colleagues

The state of remaining unmarried                                          Celibacy

The action of bringing into completion                                    Consummation

To give one's authority to another                                        Delegate

Study of the relation of living things to environment                     Ecology

The action of looking within or into one's own mind                       Introspection

One incapable of being tired                                              Indefatigable

A letter, poem, etc. whose author is unknown                              Anonymous

Work for which no salary is paid                                          Honorary

One who looks at the bright side of things                                Optimist

One who cannot read or write                                              Illiterate

A game or battle in which neither party wins                              Draw

Holding established opinions                                              Orthodox

Hater of women                                                            Misogynist

The study of the origin and physical and cultural development of mankind  Anthropology

The science which studies the crust of the earth                          Geology

The science which studies animals                                         Zoology

EXERCISE--------

One-Word Substitution (MCQ )

1. A house for storing grains
(1) Cellar
(2) Store
(3) Godown
(4) Granary
(5) None of these
2. A name adopted by an author in his writings
(1) Title
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Nickname
(4) Pseudonym
(5) None of these
3. Through which light cannot pass
(1) Dull
(2) Dark
(3) Obscure
(4) Opaque
(5) None of these
4. Stealing from the writings of others
(1) Copyright
(2) Reframing
(3) Reproducing
(4) Plagiarism
(5) None of these
5. A short stay at a place
(1) Halt
(2) Interlude
(3) Intermission
(4) Sojourn
(5) None of these
6. Constant effort to achieve something
(1) Perseverance
(2) Attempt
(3) Enthusiasm
(4) Vigour
(5) None of these
7. A person not sure of the existence of God
(1) Theist
(2) Atheist
(3) Agnostic
(4) Cynic
(5) None of these
8. Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass or stones
(1) Oleograph
(2) Mosaic
(3) Tracery
(4) Relief
(5) None of these
9. A person who travels to a sacred place as an act of religious devotion
(1) Hermit
(2) Pilgrim
(3) Saint
(4) Merchant
(5) None of these
10. Food which agrees with one's taste

(1) Pungent
(2) Palatable
(3) Sensuous
(4) Edible
(5) None of these

Antonyms & Synonyms

Synonyms

Abandon : Leave, forsake.
Abridge : Shorten, curtail.
Abundant : Plentiful.

Behaviour : Demeanour.
Bias : Predilection.
Brutal : Savage, cruel.

Callous : Hard, cruel.
Calm : Quiet, tranquil.
Casual : Uncertain.

Damage : Loss, harm, injury.
Decorate : Adron, embellish.
Deformity : Malformation, disfigurement.

Earnest : Serious, solemn.
Emergency : Exigency.
Exceptional : Unusual, rare.

False : Untrue, spurious.
Fascinate : Charm, enchant.
Ferocious : Fierce, savage.

Geniune : Real.
Gigantic : Colossal, great.
Guilt : Sin, crime.

Haughty : Arrogant, proud.
Hazardous : Dangerous, risky, perilous.
Humility : Modesty, politeness.

Illiterate : Unlearned, ignorant.
Imperious : Authoritative, dictatorial.
Impertinent : Impudent, insolent, shameless.

Jolly : Jovial, merry.
Judicious : Discreet, prudent.

Knavery : Fraud.

Laborious : Assiduous, industrious.
Lament : Grieve, mourn.
Lethargy : Sluggishness.

Magnificent : Splendid, grand.
Marvellous : Wonderful.
Meagre : Small.

Nice : Pleasant, agreeable.
Notable : Remarkable, memorable.
Notorious : Infamous.

Obliterate : Destory, efface.
Obsolete : Antiquated.
Opportune : Timely.

Pensive : Thoughtful.
Perennial : Permanent, perpetual.
Persuade : Induce, urge.

Quaint : Queer, odd, singular.
Queer : Strange, odd.
Questionable : Doubtful.

Radiant : Bright, brilliant.
Refined : Elegant.
Rejoice : Delight.

Sacred : Holy, consecrated, pious.
Satiate : Satisfy.
Scanty : Slender, meagre.

Talkative : Garrulous.
Temperate : Moderate.
Thankful : Grateful, obliged.

Ugly : Repulsive.
Urbane : Polite, courteous, suave.
Urge : Press, incite.

Vacillatge : Waver
Venerable : Respectable.
Vigilance : Watchfulness.

Wealthy : Rich.
Wickedness : Evil.
Wild : Savage.

Yield : Surrender
Yielding : Submissive.

Zeal : Passion.
Zenith : Top, summit.

Antonyms

Ability : Disability.
Accept : Reject, refuse.
Acquit : Convict.

Barbarous : Civilized.
Barren : Fertile.
Base : Noble.

Callous : Soft, tender.
Care : Neglect.
Censure : Praise, applaud.

Danger : Safety.
Deep : Shallow.
Delight : Despleasure, sorrow.

Early : Late.
Elevation : Depression.
Emancipate : Enslave.

Fabulous : Actual, real.
Failure : Success.
Fickle : Constant.

Gain : Loss.
Genuine : False.
Gloomy : Gay.

Happiness : Sorrow, sadness.
Help : Hinder.
Honour : Dishonour, shame.

Imperative : Optional.
Increase : Decrease.
Inhale : Exhale.

Joyful : Sad, depressed.
Junior : Senior.
Justice : Injustice.

Kind : Cruel.
Knowledge : Ignorance.

Lack : Plenty.
Legal : Illegal.
Legible : Illegible.

Mad : Sane.
Malice : Goodwill.
Master : Servant.

Natural : Artificial.
Noble : Base, Ignoble.
Normal : Abnormal.

Obstinate : Yielding.
Offensive : Pleasing, defensive.
Optional : Compulsory.

Part (n) : Yielding.
Part (v) : Join.
Particular : General.

Quick : Slow, tardy.

Raise : Lower.
Rash : Steady, cautious.
Rear : Front.

Sacred : Unholy, profane.
Satisfaction : Dissatisfaction.
Scanty : Plentiful.

Tedious : Lively.
Temperate : Intemperate.
Thankful : Thankless.

Ugly : Beautiful.
Union : Disunion, discord, split.
Urban : Rural.

Vain : Modest.
Violent : Gentle.
Virtue : Vice.

Wane : Wax
Want : Abundance.
War : Peace.

Yield : Resist.
Youth : Age.

Zeal : Indifference.
Zenith : Nadir.

EXERCISE-------

Antonyms & Synonyms (MCQ )

Directions (Q. No. 1-10): In this section each item consists of a word or a phrase which is bold in the sentence given. It is followed by four words or phares. Selecte the word or phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the bold word or phrase.
1. The world media has tended to focus far more upon occasional discord than on our spectacular achievements.
(1) Tranquillity
(2) Harmony
(3) Failure
(4) Confusion
(5) None of these
2. The evidence Indira gave in support of her theory was quite copious.
(1) Unsatisfactory
(2) Unconvincing
(3) Poor
(4) Scanty
(5) None of these
3. Self-reproach is not always very good thing.
(1) Self-esteem
(2) Self-assurance
(3) Self-justification
(4) Self-satisfaction
(5) None of these
4. The dictator quelled the uprising.
(1) Fostered
(2) Defended
(3) Supported
(4) Fomented
(5) None of these
5. The drug gave him instant relief from pain.
(1) Final
(2) Complete
(3) Genuine
(4) Delayed
(5) None of these
6. His radical views made him unpopular.
(1) Conservative
(2) Narrow
(3) Outmoded
(4) Childish
(5) None of these
7. The Indian cricketers put up a dismal performance in Australia.
(1) Cheerful
(2) Spirited
(3) Bright
(4) Memorable
(5) None of these
8. He was poor and arrogant.
(1) Modest
(2) Obedient
(3) Timid
(4) Earnest
(5) None of these
9. The injection was given to the patient to alleviate the pain.
(1) Elevate
(2) Sharpen
(3) Aggravate
(4) Promote
(5) None of these
10. There is quite tenuous evidence for it.
(1) Substantial
(2) Enough
(3) Reasonable
(4) Ample
(5) None of these

Idioms and Phrases

Back out — to withdraw from a promise, contract : I felt grieved when he backed out of his promise to help me.

Back up — to support; to sustain : He backed up his report with relevant statistics.

Bear upon — to be relevant to : This argument does not bear upon the subject under discussion.

Blow up — to explode : The mine blew up and all the labourers working inside were killed.
— to reprimand or scold : If you continue to be negligent, the teacher will blow you up.

Break down — of a car; a piece of machinery; to go wrong so that it will not function : The car broke down on our way to Mumbai.
— to collapse; to succumb to uncontrollable weeping : She broke down completely on hearing the news of her husband's death.
— to succumb to a nervous collapse through overwork or worry : He worked so hard that his health broke down near the examination.

Break off — to end; to discontinue; to desist : We had to break off our conversation when he arrived. She broke off in the middle of the story. She did not like his nature and broke off the engagement.

Break up — to disperse; to dissolve : The college will break up for the Puja holidays on 25th October. The meeting will break up after the President has addressed the audience.

Bring up — to rear : Those brought up in adversity are able to cope with life better.

Call forth — to provoke : The minister's views on the disinvestment policy of the government called forth a good deal of bitter criticism.

Call out — to shout : I called out to him but he disappeared in the dark.
— to announce by calling or shouting : The Manager called out to the peon that he was being immediately fired.

Call upon — to order; to require : I was unfortunately called upon to give evidence against him.

Carry on — to continue : If you carry on working hard, your business will soon flourish.
— to manage : He carried on his business so well that he soon amassed a huge fortune.

Cast away — to throw aside : You must cast away all your apprehensions and accept the offer.

Catch up with — to overtake; to draw level : Last week I had to stay late at the office to catch up with some pending files.

Come off — to take place : The prize distribution came off on Tuesday last.
— to turn out successful : His speeches at the conference always came off beautifully.

Cry down — to deprecate; to make little of : You must not unneccessarily cry down the conduct of others.

Cry out against — to complain loudly against : The opposition parties cried out against the fast pace of the globalisation of the Indian economy.

Cut out — designed for : Your were cut out to be a lecturer in a college.

Drop in — to visit casually : On my way to the college, I dropped in at Mira's place.

Drop out — As the race progressed, many children dropped out.

Fall back — to recede; to retreat : On seeing the armed guards, the civilians fell back.

Fall down — from a higher position to a lower one : The branch gave way and he fell down into the canal.

Fall off — to withdraw; to drop off : Some of our subscribers have fallen off. Friends fall off in adversity.

Fall under — to come under : This colony does not fall under my jurisdiction.

Get along — to prosper; to progress; to proceed : Well, doctor, how is your patient getting along? It is simply impossible to get along with him.

Get on with — to live pleasantly together; to progress : How are you getting on with your studies?

Get into — to be involved in : It is easy to get into scandals but hard to come out unscathed.

Give in — to surrender; to yield : I gave into her repeated requests and accepted the offer.

Give over — not to do any longer : It is time you gave over pretending that you have access to the Prime Minister.

Go after — to follow; to pursue : The policeman went after the thief but the latter managed to escape in the dark of the night.

Go down — to be accepted : The terrorist attack on WTC will go down in history as one of the worst acts of terrorism.

Go without — to remain without : he is so poor that sometimes he has to go without food.

Go by — to follow : I am sorry to disappoint you but we have to go by the rules.
— to elapse (used of time) : Months have gone by but I have not called upon him.

Hang about — to loiter near a place : Last evening I say your friend hanging about your house.

Hang upon — to depend upon : The success of any venture hangs upon the seriousness with which it is undertaken.

Hold out — to endure; to refuse to yield : How long can you hold out against starvation?
— to continue : Sugar stocks are not likely to hold out very long.
— to offer : She held out her hand to the Prince.

Hold to — abide by : Whatever resistance there might be, I will hold to my decision.

Keep off — to ward off : His stern looks keep off the flatterers.
— to maintain : They have been trying to keep up their standard of living though there has been a considerable decline in their income.

Keep up with — to keep pace with : You read too fast; I cannot keep up with you.

Knock out — to win by hitting the opponent insensible in a boxing bout : The challenger was knocked out in two minutes.

EXERCISE-------

Idioms and Phrases (MCQ )

1. Anurag has made a laughing stock of the braggart:
(1) Foolish
(2) Laugh
(3) Laughing store-house
(4) Look ridiculous
(5) none of these
2. The two women are so jealous that at the drop of a hat they start insulting each other:
(1) When hat falls
(2) When any one drops a hat
(3) For no reason at all
(4) One every occasion
(5) none of these
3. To bite the dust
(1) To be defeated in battle
(2) To learn a lesson
(3) To be ashmed of
(4) To work very hard (5) none of these
4. Between the devil and the deep sea
(1) in a dilemma
(2) a man who is drowing
(3) to be evil-tempered
(4) a deep sea diver
(5) none of these
5. His oily tongue has won him promotion.
(1) flattery
(2) soft speech
(3) word power
(4) fluency in speech
(5) none of these
6. He cannot win the election, it is a wild goose chase.
(1) useless effort
(2) good effort
(3) desperate effort
(4) baseless effort
(5) none of these
7. The casting vote of the chairman clinched the issue.
(1) decided
(2) started
(3) finished
(4) closed
(5) none of these
8. He cannot make both ends meet.
(1) control affairs
(2) earn enough
(3) work hard
(4) manage the business
(5) none of these
9. He is in the habit of chewing the cud.
(1) forgeting things
(2) accusing others
(3) to muse on
(4) crying over split milk
(5) none of these

Sentence Correction (MCQ )

1. The adaptation of mammals to almost all possible

(1)

modes of life parallels the reptiles in the

(2)

Mesozoic time, and except for greater intelligence,

(3)

the mammals do not seem to have done much better than corresponding reptilian

(4)

forms. No error

(5)

2. Sancho ran as fast as he could walk to help his

                  (1)            (2)

master whom he found lying on the ground and

(3)

not able to stir, such a blow he and Rozinante

(4)

had received. No error

(5)

3. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him, as he was fortunate I rejoice at it. No error

        (1)            (2)            (3)                    (4)            (5)

4. The people of Orleans, when they first saw her in their city thought she was an angel. No error

               (1)              (2)                  (3)                (4)              (5)

5. Chemical compounds with barium, cobalt and strontium are responsible to many of the vivid  colour in fireworks. No error

                       (1)                             (2)               (3)

2. A. Guruji had been undergoing a terrific strain for over five decades in devoting his body, mind, heart, and soul to the causes of service to humanity and the spread of spiritual enlightenment.
B. The excessive strain of long tour abroad came as a severe low to his health, but he still refused to rest, continuing his studies, talks and writings with unabated vigour and enthusiasm.
C. This had already undermined his health but he was never one to reserve any time or attention to his own well being.
D. In fact it required great vigilance to prevent him from giving advice and blessings to his devotees and disciples even when he could hardly speak on account of the strain.
(1) ABCD
(2) BADC
(3) BDAC
(4) ACBD
(5) None of these
3. A. A totally personal agenda will never bring about this level of fulfillment because that has to result from integration – and not be a substitute for it.
B. One's consciousness then becomes centred in the identity of the soul.
C. Realising ourselves and our potential entails becoming a pure reflection and manifestation of the inner self.
D. Since the soul lives by different laws and values, there is a fundamental conflict in human nature that must be resolved if integration and fulfilment is to be complete.
(1) DCAB
(2) ABCD
(3) CBDA
(4) CABD
(5) None of these
4. A. Time will be called out not just by bartenders but also by gambling machines in the Australian state of Victoria.
B. TS Eliot would have got a poem out of this.
C. Natural lighting has also been made mandatory in some casmos so that fully addicted punters do not mistake the fluorescent lighting for some kind Alladin's lamp that can summon a Djinn to take care of home and hearth.
D. From July 4, clocks will be fitted to 27,500 gambling machines down under to remind punters that it's time to return home and tend to their familiar obligations.
(1) DACB
(2) DABC
(3) CABD
(4) BADC
(5) None of these
5. A. Naturally, the committee assumes that anybody interested in national heritage is fluent in Latin.
B. So avers the National Heritage committee's new report, recalling the inscription in memory of Sir Christopher Wren.
C. But for those readers whose classics are a bit rusty, it translates as: "If you seek a monument to him, look about you".
D. "Si momentum requires, circumstance".
(1) BCAD
(2) DBAC
(3) DCBA
(4) ADCB
(5) None of these
6. A. In India, home to 2,500-3, 750 tigers (half the world's total), they are being poached at the rate of at least one a day.
B. The threat has, however, sparked off another, though smaller, crisis – a spate of recriminations between conservations organisations.
C. As anyone with a letter-box, a TV set and an environmental consceience will know, the tiger may soon be extinct in the wild.
D. It does't take a mathematician to work out that, if those rates continue, there may be no Bengal tigers left outside zoos, within a decade.
(1) DCBA
(2) CDBA
(3) CBAD
(4) CADB
(5) None of these
7. A. Malignancies were diagnosed in three family members on the basis of this abnormality and then surgically removed.
B. It appears to be the first instance in which this specific abnormality – in this case an exchange of material between the chromosomes number three and eight in all cells of the person's body – has been traced from generation to generation and thus permitted identification of cancer patients before they had any symptoms.
C. An inherited genetic abnormality has been linked to a specific type of kidney cancer in a family in which ten members were affected over three generations.
D. The discovery by scientists at Beth Israel Hospital in Boston, USA, provides a potentially important clue to the origin of at least some cancers.
(1) DCAB
(2) CBDA
(3) ABCD
(4) DABC
(5) None of these
8. A. In what has since become the first, legendary tale of computer forensics, Dr. Stoll spent a year of meticulous work tracking and recording the hacker's movements.
B. This was an intriguing problem for Clifford Stoll.
C. In August 1986, an astronomer at the University of California, noticed a 75 percent discrepancy in the accounts for a computer in his library.
D. When he investigated, he found that somebody had broken into his computer and used it for a short time without permission just enough to unbalance the accounts.
(1) CABD
(2) CBDA
(3) CBAD
(4) CDBA
(5) None of these
9. A. A curved titanium plate with five tiny screws would hold the bone in place and help reform the damaged margin of the eye.
B. Deftly, he replaced the wedge of bone in Tenneh's face.
C. Intravenous antibiotics would take care of any lingering infection.
D. When he'd eliminated most of the diseased tissue, he stopped.
(1) ABCD
(2) DCAB
(3) DCBA
(4) ACBD
(5) None of these
2. PROLOGUE : NOVEL
(1) preamble : constitution
(2) sketch : drawing
(3) movement : symphony
(4) index : book
(5) None of these
3. EXPAND : VOLUME
(1) ascent : flight
(2) proliferate : number
(3) bend : flexibility
(4) cool : temperature
(5) None of these
4. RUST : CORROSION
(1) vapour : flammability
(2) dew : condensation
(3) crystal : purification
(4) solution : precipitation
(5) None of these
5. CLAIM : LEGITIMATED
(1) hypothesis : confirmed
(2) verdict : appealed
(3) counterargument : doubted
(4) proposition : repeated
(5) None of these
6. CRIME : PUNISHMENT
(1) lawyer : judge
(2) court : room
(3) accused : defendant
(4) homicide : penalty
(5) None of these
7. NUTS : BOLTS
(1) nitty : gritty
(2) bare : feet
(3) naked : clothed
(4) hard : soft
(5) None of these
8. BEE : HONEY
(1) wolf : cub
(2) spider : web
(3) goat : cheese
(4) ant : hill
(5) None of these
9. TRANSISTOR : RADIO
(1) sound : stereo
(2) sand : grains
(3) awl : wrench
(4) cement : driveway
(5) None of these

Comprehension

Directions (Q.1–11): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
What is immediately needed today is the establishement of a Wrold Government or an International Federation of mankind. It is the utmost necessity of the world today, and all those persons who wish to see all human beings happy and prosperous naturally feel it keenly. Of course, at times we feel that many of the problem of our political, social, linguistic and cultural life would come to an end if there were one Govenment all ovet the world. Travellers, businessmen, seekers of knowledge and teachers of righteousness knowvery well that great impediments and obstructions are faced by them when they pass from one country to another, exchange goods, get information, and make an efforts to spread their good gospel among their fellow-men. In the past, religious sects divided one set of people against another, colour of skin or shape of the body set one against the other.
But today when philosophical light has exploded the darkness that was created by religious differences, and when scientific knowledge has flasified the superstitions, they have enabled human beings of all religious views and of all races and colours to come in frequent contactwith one another . It is the governments of various countries that keep poeple of one country apart from, those of another. They create artificial barriers, unnatural distinctions, unhealthy isolation, unnecessary fears and dangers in theminds of common menwho by their naturewant to live in friendshipwith their fellow-men.But all these evilswould cease to exist if there were one Government all over the world.
1. What divides people of a country against another?
(a) Different religions
(b) Different language
(c) Different social and political systems of different people
(d) Government of various countries
2. What is the urgent heed of the world today?
(a) The establishment of an international economic order.
(b) The establishment of a world government.
(c) The creation of a cultural international social order.
(d) The raising of an international spiritual army.
3. What will the world Government be expected to do?
(a) it will arrange for interplanetary contacts
(b) it will end all wars for all time to come
(c) it will bring about a moral regeneration of mankind
(d) it will kill the evil spirit inman
4. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning as the word "righteousness" as used in the passage.
(a) rectitude (b) religiosity
(c) requirement (d) scrupulousness5. Which of the following problems has not been mentioned in the passage as likely to be solved with the establishment of world Government?
(a) Social Problems (b) Political Problems
(c) Cultural Problems (d) Economic Problems
6. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word 'implediments' as used in the passage.
(a) handicaps (b) furtherance
(c) providence (d) hindrances
7. The most appropriate title of the above passage may be ...........
(a) The evils of the world order.
(b) The man can make his destiny.
(c) The need of world Government.
(d) The role of Religion in theModern Times.
8. What was the factor, according to the passage, that set one man against another?
(a) Material prosperity of certain people in the midst of grinding poverty.
(b) Superior physical strength of some persons.
(c) Colour of skin or shape of the body.
(d) Some people being educated and other illiterate.
9. The theory of racial superiority stands falsified today by ........
(a) knowledge derived from scientific advances.
(b) the ascendancy of peoplewhowere here to fore considered of inferior racial stock.
(c) the achievements of the so called backward countries in every field of life.
(d) the precedence given to the physical powers of different races.
10. In the part religious sects .............
(a) united the people with one another.
(b) Interfered in political affairs.
(c) did a good job by way of spreading message of
love and peace.
(d) divided one set of people from another.

Comprehension (MCQ )

The window offered a view of the house opposite. The two families did not speak to each other because of a property dispute. One day, Ruchira's textbooks lay untouched as the young girl's gaze was on the happenings in the house opposite. There were two new faces in the neighbouring household – that of an elderly widow and a girls aged sixteen. Some times the elderly lady would sit by the window, doing the young girl's hair. On other days she was absent.
The new young neighbour's daily routine could be seen through the window – she cleaned the rice paddy; split nuts, put the cushions in the sun to air them. In the afternoons while the men were all at world some of the women slept and others played cards. The girl sat on the terrace and read. Sometimes she wrote. One day there was hindrance. She was writing when the elderly woman snatched the unfinished letter from her hands. Thereafter the girl was not to be seen on the terrace. Sometimes during the day sounds came from the house indicating that a massive argument was going on inside.
A few days passed. One evening Ruchira noticed the girl standing on the terrace in tears. The evening prayer was in progress. As she did daily, the girl bowed several times in prayer. Then she went downstairs.
That night Ruchira wrote a letter. She went out and posted it that very instant. But as she lay in bed that night, she prayed fervently that her offer of friendship wouldn't reach its destination. Ruchira then left for Madhupur and returned when it was time for college to start. She found the house opposite in darkness, locked. They had left.
When she stepped into her room she found the desk piled with letters – one had a local stamp on it with her name and address in unfamiliar handwriting. She quickly read it. They continued to write to each other for the next twenty years.
1. Why did Ruchira write a letter to her new neighbour?
(1) She wanted to offer her, her help.
(2) She wanted to be friends with her.
(3) To apologize for her family's behaviour towards her family.
(4) To encourage her to continue learning to read and write.
(5) None of these

2. Which of the following can be said about Ruchira?
(1) She used to spy on her neighbours because she didn't trust them.
(2) She was at home because she was studying.
(3) She did not speak to her neighbours because they did not own property.
(1) None
(2) Only (2)
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Only (3)
(5) All of these
3. How did the new young neighbour spend her days?
(1) She was busy writing letters to Ruchira.
(2) She used to daydream about her past experiences.
(3) She would attend to the needs of the widow.
(4) She spent her time learning to read and write.
(5) None of these
4. Why was the young neighbour prevented from sitting on the terrace?
(1) She used to while away her time instead of working
(2) The old woman could no longer keep an eye on her.
(3) She had not finished writing the letter she was asked to.
(4) She had been writing a letter which she wasn't supposed to.
(5) None of these
5. What was the major argument in the house about?
(1) There were too many people living there, which resulted in arguments.
(2) The young girl was insisting on attending college.
(3) The young girl had been wasting her time instead of working.
(4) The old woman did not guard the young girl closely.
(5) None of these
6. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The young girl was very devout and prayed everyday.
(2) Only two letters were exchanged between the two girls.
(3) The new young neighbour was a servant.
(4) The afternoon was a time to relax for everyone.
(5) None of these
7. Why did the young girl wish that the letter would not reach its destination?
(1) She was going away and would not be able to see if her neighbour was glad to receive it.
(2) She was afraid that it would lead to a quarrel between the two families.
(3) She was afraid that her neighbour would be angry when she received her letter.
(1) None
(2) Only (1)
(3) Only (3)
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(5) All of these
Directions (Q.8-10): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the world printed in bold as used in the passage.
8. Hindrance
(1) handicapped
(2) delay
(3) interruption
(4) difficult
(5) None of these
9. Offered
(1) forward
(2) willing
(3) volunteered
(4) provided
(5) None of these
10. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word piled as used in the passage.
(1) low
(2) empty
(3) blank
(4) nothing
(5) None of these

Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. One of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case.

The Reserve Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of money, the government securities and the foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of the economy and (48) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated, with an (49) on institutional and infrastructural development and improvements in market microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50) putting in place appropriate systems and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments of the financial market. These developments by improving the depth and liquidity in domestic financial markets have (52) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates, which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in size and depth of financial market has (54) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.

1. (1) interest
(2) participation
(3) step
(4) role
(5) None of these

2. (1) point
(2) tune
(3) view
(4) pursuit
(5) None of these

3. (1) decisively
(2) reluctantly
(3) visibly
(4) particularly
(5) None of these

4. (1) equilibrium
(2) emphasis
(3) appeasement
(4) overload
(5) None of these

5. (1) by
(2) for
(3) against
(4) upon
(5) None of these

6. (1) trivial
(2) jubilant
(3) fastidious
(4) significant
(5) None of these

7. (1) addressed
(2) contributed
(3) initiated
(4) evolved
(5) None of these

8. (1) measures
(2) activism
(3) debacle
(4) efficiency
(5) None of these

9. (1) paved
(2) repaired
(3) dug
(4) elevated
(5) None of these

10. (1) revolutionised
(2) indiscriminate
(3) flexible
(4) arbitrary
(5) None of these

Answers:

1. (3 ) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10.(3)

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT 2013 MODEL PAPERS

2013-01-26T00:53:00.000+05:30

Syllogism

TThe word ‘Syllogism’ is also referred to ‘Logic’. Syllogism is an important section of logical reasoning and hence, a working knowledge of its rules is required on the part of the candidate. Hence, it can be expressed as the ‘Science of thought as expressed in language’. The questions based on syllogism can be solved by using Venn diagrams and some rules devised with the help of analytical ability. With this unique characteristic, this test becomes an instrument of teaching the candidates to follow the rules and work as per the instructions without an error. Here, only the basic concept and rules, which have a bearing on reasoning faculty could alone help. There are some terminology which are used in syllogism.

Proposition

It is also referred to as ‘Premises’. It is a sentence which asserts that either a part of, or the whole of, one sets of objects-the set identified by the subject term in the sentence expressing that sentence either is included in, or is excluded from, another set-the set identified by the predicate term in that sentence.

Types of Proposition

Categorical Proposition: There is relationship between the subject and the predicate without any condition.

Example : I. All beams are logs.
II. No rod is stick.

Hypothetical Proposition: There is relationship between subject and predicate which is asserted conditionally.

Example : I. If it rains he will not come.
II. If he comes, I will accompany him.

Disjunctive Proposition In a disjunctive proposition the assertion is of alteration.

Example : I. Either he is brave or he is strong.
II. Either he is happy or he cannot take revenge.

Parts of Proposition

It consists of four parts.

1. Quantifier: In quantifier the words, ‘all’, ‘no’ and ‘some’ are used as they express quantity. ‘All’ and ‘no’ are universal quantifiers because they refer to every object in a certain set. And quantifier ‘some’ is a particular quantifier because it refers to at least one existing object in a certain set.

2. Subject: It is the word about which something is said.

3. Predicate: It is the part of proposition which denotes which is affirmed or denied about the subject.

4. Copula: It is the part of proposition which denotes the relation between the subject and predicate.

Four-fold classification of categorical proposition: On the basis of quality and quantity of proposition we can classify them in four categories. To draw valid inferences it is necessary to have a clear
understanding of the A, E, I, O relationship as given in the table.

1. Universal affirmative or A-type proposition.

2. Universal negative or E-type proposition.

3. Particular affirmative or I-type proposition.

4. Particular negative or O-type proposition.

Rules for Mediate Inference

First introduced by Aristotle, a syllogism is a deductive argument in which conclusion has to be drawn from two propositions referred to as premises.
Now consider an example.
Statement: I. Vinay is a boy. II. All boys are honest.
Conclusion I. Vinay is honest.

First two sentences I and II are called propositions and the sentence I is called conclusion. This conclusion is drawn from above given two propositions.

Types of Questions Asked in the Examination

There are mainly two types of questions which may be asked under this

1. When premises are in specified form Here premise is in specified form. Here mainly two propositions are given. Propositions may be particular to universal; universal to particular; particular to particular; universal to universal.
2. When premises are in jumbled/mixed form Here at least three or more than three proposition are given. Here pair of two propositions out of them follow as same as in specified form.

Type 1 Premises in Specified Forms

Case 1: The conclusion does not contain the middle term Middle term is the term common to both the premises and is denoted by M. Hence, for such case, conclusion does not contain any common term belong to both premises.

Example 1

Statement: I. All men are girls.
II. Some girls are students.
Conclusions I. All girls are men.
II. Some girls are not students.

Solution. Since, both the conclusions I and II contain the middle term ‘girls’ so neither of them can follow. Venn diagram Representation: All possible cases can be drawn by using Venn diagram.

Analogy (MCQ)

Direction (Q. No. 1-9): Each of the questions consists of two capitalised words which have a certain relationship to each other. Followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair that is related to each other in the same way as the capitalised pair.

1. PEST : IRKSOME
(1) salesclerk : courteous
(2) expert : proficient
(3) enigma : unexpected
(4) leader : non-descript
(5) None of these

2. PROLOGUE : NOVEL
(1) preamble : constitution
(2) sketch : drawing
(3) movement : symphony
(4) index : book
(5) None of these

3. EXPAND : VOLUME
(1) ascent : flight
(2) proliferate : number
(3) bend : flexibility
(4) cool : temperature
(5) None of these

4. RUST : CORROSION
(1) vapour : flammability
(2) dew : condensation
(3) crystal : purification
(4) solution : precipitation
(5) None of these

5. CLAIM : LEGITIMATED
(1) hypothesis : confirmed
(2) verdict : appealed
(3) counterargument : doubted
(4) proposition : repeated
(5) None of these

6. CRIME : PUNISHMENT
(1) lawyer : judge
(2) court : room
(3) accused : defendant
(4) homicide : penalty
(5) None of these

7. NUTS : BOLTS
(1) nitty : gritty
(2) bare : feet
(3) naked : clothed
(4) hard : soft
(5) None of these

8. BEE : HONEY
(1) wolf : cub
(2) spider : web
(3) goat : cheese
(4) ant : hill
(5) None of these

9. TRANSISTOR : RADIO
(1) sound : stereo
(2) sand : grains
(3) awl : wrench
(4) cement : driveway
(5) None of these

Probability

Probability is used to indicate a possibility of an event to occur. It is often used synonymously with chance.

In any experiment if the result of an experiment is unique or certain, then the experiment is said to be deterministic in nature.
If the result of the experiment is not unique and can be one of the several possible outcomes then the experiment is said to be probabilistic in nature.

Various Terms Used in Defining Probability

(i) Random Experiment: Whenever an experiment is conducted any number of times under identical conditions and if the result is not certain and is any one of the several possible outcomes, the experiment is called a trial or a random experiment, the outcomes are known as events.
eg, When a die is thrown is a trial, getting a number 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 is an event.

(ii) Equally Likely Events: Events are said to be equally likely when there is no reason to expect any one of them rather than any one of the others.
eg, When a die is thrown any number 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 may occur. In this trial, the six events are equally likely.

(iii) Exhaustive Events: All the possible events in any trial are known as exhaustive events. eg, When a die is thrown, there are six exhaustive events.

(iv) Mutually Exclusive Events: If the occurrence of any one of the events in a trial prevents the occurrence of any one of the others, then the events are said to be mutually exclusive events. eg, When a die is thrown the event of getting faces numbered 1 to 6 are mutually exclusive.

Classical Definition of Probability

If in a random experiment, there are n mutually exclusive and equally likely elementary events in which n elementary events are favourable to a particular event E, then the probability of the event E is defined as P (E)

• If the probability of occurrence of an event E is P(E) and the probability of non-occurrence is P, then,

the sum of the probabilities of success and failure is 1. Also, 0 ≤ P(E) ≤ 1 and 0 ≤ P ≤ 1.

• If P(E) = 1, the event E is called a certain event and if P(E) = 0, the event E is called an impossible event.

• If E is an event, then the odds in favour of E are defined as P(E) : P(E) and the odds against E are defined

as P(E): P. Hence, the odds in favour of E are the odds against E are

Addition Theorem on Probability

Independent and Dependent Events

Simple Event : An event which cannot be further split is called a simple event. The set of all simple events in a trial is called a sample space.
Compound Event : When two or more events occur in relation with each other, they are called compound events.
Conditional Event: If El and E2 are events of a sample space S and if E2 occurs after the occurrence of El, then the event of occurrence of E2 after the event El is called conditional event of E2 given El. It is denoted by E2/El.

‘Smart’ Facts

When a die is rolled six events occur. They are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6}
When two dice are rolled 36 events occur. They are [(1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (1,6), (2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6), (3,1), (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6), (4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6), (5,1), (5,2), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5), (5,6), (6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)]
When a coin is tossed 2 events occur. They are {H, T}
When two coins are tossed 4 events occur. They are {HH, HT, TH, T T}
When three coins are tossed 8 events occur. They are {HHH HHT, HTH, HT T, T HH, THT, T TH, T T T}

In a pack of 52 cards there are 26 red cards and 26 black cards. The 26 red cards are divided into 13 heart cards and 13 diamond cards. The 26 black cards are divided into 13 club cards and 13 spade card. Each of the colours, hearts, diamonds, clubs and spades is called a suit. In a suit, we have 13 cards (ie, A, K, Q, J, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3 and 2)

Mix Graphs

You can compare several categories by a graph of the cumulative type. These are usually bar or line graphs where the height of the bar or line is divided up proportionately among different quantities.

Q. In 1986, roughly what percent of the federal prisoners received from the courts were guilty in other offenses?

(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 30

The total number of prisoners in 1986 was about 20,000, and guilty in other offences was about 5,000.

Since the correct answer is (c).

In DI section of the question paper, the intention should be to attempt all questions as skipping them would amount to losing precious scoring opportunities. There are two approaches to arrive at the solution. One is to work on the data to arrive at the correct answer. The other one is the Elimination method which requires working backwards by eliminating the wrong choices. Though the elimation method is more time consuming, it may still be preferred where direct solution involves enormous calculation of data.

At times, examiners pose rather difficult data sets at the beginning of the sections. These are intended to be ‘SPEED BRAKERS’ which take away much of precious time. Therefore, as a rule, scan the whole section quickly before actually attempting the questions and start with easier part of the section.

In some exams, data are presented in more than one table or graph. The objective is to test not only quantitative skills but also relational and analytical ability. Recently, in some exams the questions in this section are being framed in caselet (paragraph) form, beginning with probability and reasoning questions. It is left to the reader to study the case, call out requisite data and arrange it in a suitable form for meaningful interpretation. It is best to arrange data with rough sketch to hasten comprehension.

Important Tips: These will help in saving time, reducing mistakes and finding solution easily.

1. Get a general picture of the information by looking at the entire table or graph.

2. Read the table title, nomenclatures of columns and rows.

3. Simplify the questions being asked. Break down lengthy questions into smaller parts.

4. Use only the information given for finding solutions. Select the appropriate data for answering a question.

5. Eliminate impossible choices.

6. Avoid lengthy calculations.

7. Try to interpret through trends of the data in the graph. Whenever possible, try to answer the questions by visualizing rather than by computing.

8. Where calculation is required prefer approximate values at the first stage. Go for exact calculation where values are close and require exact answer.

9. Be careful to use proper units.

10. Make correct use of your knowledge of basic mathematical rules, principles and formulae.

11. Don’t confuse in decimals and percent ages. For example, 0.5% = 0.005.

12. Use pencil or straight edge of the answer sheet to read the graph and find approximate values.

13. Focus your answer on the question actually asked and not on what the question should be in your opinion.

14. Never do anything that is unnecessary.

15. Last, but not the least, make sure that the answer is sensible and reasonable.

16. Verbal

17. 1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

18. Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

19. A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

20. 2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

21. 3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

22. 4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

23. 5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

24. 6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?
(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

25. 7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these

26. 8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?
(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

27. Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

28. A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:

29. 9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these

30. 10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these

31. 11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these

32. 12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?
(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these

33. 13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these

34. Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

35. Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:

36. 14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these

37. 15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

38. Answers

39. 1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (5) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (2)

40. Non Verbal

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52. Answers

53. 1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (2)

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT 2013 MODEL PAPERS

2013-01-26T00:51:00.001+05:30

Numerical Ability)

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000
2. Rs. 78,500
3. Rs. 80,000
4. Rs. 85,000
5. Rs. 87,500
Answer: (5)

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 24
4. 22
5. 23
Answer: (2)

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:
1. 10
2. 16
3. 20
4. 22
5. 18
Answer: (2)

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320
2. Rs. 345
3. Rs. 355
4. Rs. 380
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately :
1. 10.4 km/hr
2. 10.8 km/hr
3. 12 km/hr
4. 14 km/hr
5. 13 km/hr
Answer: (2)

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19
2. 27/29
3. 35/256
4. 1/121
5. 35/121
Answer: (4)

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%
2. 10.25%
3. 15%
4. 11%
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 20%
4. 28%
5. 33%
Answer: (4)

14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in $ million)?
1. 418
2. 592
3. 5790
4. 585
5. None of these
Answer: (4)

15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year?
1. 86 crore
2. 107.5 crore
3. 103.95 crore
4. 101 crore
5. None of these
Answer: (3)

2013-01-26T00:39:00.001+05:30

CBSE EXAM 2013

2013-01-13T19:04:00.003+05:30

CBSE EXAM 2013

2013-01-13T19:03:00.004+05:30

CBSE EXAM 2013

2013-01-13T19:02:00.004+05:30

CBSE EXAM 2013

2013-01-13T19:01:00.003+05:30

CBSE EXAM 2013

2013-01-13T18:59:00.001+05:30

YOUTH POWER --YES

Essentials of Effective segmentation

Long term External Finance for a Multinational Comapny

SEATS Projection for the General Election -2014 (Lok Sabha)

BHARTIYA JANATA PARTY (BJP) 185

INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS (INC) 105

AITMC 20

The RTI Act FAQs

THE RTI ACT 2005

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENTS (PSA)

CBSE PSA

Beauty of Mathematics

Age Calculation

Age Calculation

Maths Trick 2

Amazing 1089...

Maths Trick 3

Try this one in your head, using mental maths...

Did you know...

The Numbers 1 to 9

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENTS

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT (PSA)

PSA 2013

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT (PSA)

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT 2013 MODEL PAPERS

One-Word Substitution

One-Word Substitution (MCQ )

Antonyms & Synonyms (MCQ )

Idioms and Phrases (MCQ )

Sentence Correction (MCQ )

Sentence Arrangements (MCQ )

Analogy (MCQ)

Comprehension

Comprehension (MCQ )

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT 2013 MODEL PAPERS

Mix Graphs

Important Tips: These will help in saving time, reducing mistakes and finding solution easily.

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT 2013 MODEL PAPERS

CBSE EXAM 2013

CBSE EXAM 2013

CBSE EXAM 2013

CBSE EXAM 2013

CBSE EXAM 2013