Ab Pappu bhi padhega

IBPS PO Prelims 2021

2021-10-22T08:36:00.052+05:30

Directions (1-4): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.. Q1. The role played by human rights organisations in documenting (A) and questioning state component (B) and excesses is a necessary functioning(C) of civil society activism (a) BAC (b) None of these (c) CAB (d) BCA (e) ACB Q2. The C&AG’s observations in its divisible (A) audit report relate to the denial of States’ financial (B) in the share(C) taxes pool. (a) CBA (b) BAC (c) ACB (d) None of these (e) BCA Q3. Many countries have chosen to ignore the connection between biodiversity and well-being, and pursuit (A) ecological capital in prosperity (B) of financial depleted (C). (a) None of these (b) CAB (c) ABC (d) BCA (e) CBA Q4. Gandhi’s repeated thought (A) on service to all human beings from all traditions of emphasis (B) was the essence (C) of his nonviolent democratic theory. (a) ABC (b) ACB (c) CAB (d) BAC (e) None of these Directions (5-7): Which of the phrase/ word from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No replacement required” as the answer. Q5. A truck had assumingly collide with a car. (a) evidently collided (b) consequently met (c) virtually received (d) tremendously mishap (e) No replacement required Q6. The politicians makes vague promise about tax cuts. (a) has promises (b) would recalled policies (c) made vague promises (d) should conflict promise (e) No replacement required Q7. Students feel autonomous when they are able to willing engage time and energy to their studies (a) Readily devoted (b) full assign (c) willingly devote (d) cooperate willingly (e) None of these Directions (8-12): In each of the questions given below, a sentence has been divided into FIVE parts. Rearrange the parts of the sentence to make a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful statement. Q8. (A) a health bulletin released by the Delhi government (B) in the Capital in the past 24 hours taking (C) as many as 3,227 new COVID-19 cases were reported (D) the total number of cases (E) to 2,76,325, according to (a) EACDB (b) CBDEA (c) No rearrangement required (d) BDCEA (e) DEABC Q9. (A) The Delhi High Court allowed (B) the CBI and ED’s appeal (C) former Telecom Minister A. Raja and others (D) for an early hearing on its leave to appeal (E) against the 2G case verdict acquitting (a) ABDEC (b) CBDAE (c) DABEC (d) BDECA (e) No rearrangement required Q10. (A) intensify their agitation from October 1, (B) which will include an indefinite “rail roko” (C) protest and the social boycott of political leaders (D) farmer outfits announced (e) that they would (a) No rearrangement required (b) CBDAE (c) DEABC (d) BDECA (e) ACDBE ANSWER S1. Ans.(e) Sol. ACB is the correct sequence. The role played by human rights organisations in documenting and questioning state functioning and excesses is a necessary component of civil society activism S2. Ans.(e) Sol. BCA is the correct sequence. The C&AG’s observations in its financial audit report relate to the denial of States’ share in the divisible taxes pool. S3. Ans.(b) Sol. CAB is the correct sequence Many countries have chosen to ignore the connection between biodiversity and well-being, and depleted ecological capital in pursuit of financial prosperity. S4. Ans.(d) Sol. BAC is the correct sequence. Gandhi’s repeated emphasis on service to all human beings from all traditions of thought was the essence of his non-violent democratic theory. S5. Ans.(a) Sol. The correct phrase to replace the incorrect phrase is “evidently collide”. ‘Collide’ means hit by accident when moving. Since the sentence is in past perfect form, ‘collided’ should be used. All the other given options are either grammatically incorrect or contextually meaningless. S6. Ans.(c) Sol. The correct phrase to replace the incorrect phrase is “made vague promises”. All the other given options are either grammatically incorrect or contextually meaningless. S7. Ans.(c) Sol. Option (c) is the correct choice. Students feel autonomous when they are able to willingly devote time and energy to their studies S8. Ans.(b) Sol. Going through the given parts of the sentence it can be seen that given sentence is talking about the increase in the number of cases of COVID-19 in the capital. So, on the basis of this it can be seen that the correct arrangement would be CBDEA and the sentence thus formed S9. Ans.(a) Sol. Given sentence is talking about the appeal made by the CBI and ED’s regarding early hearing of the appeal against the 2G case verdict. So, on the basis of this information it can be seen that correct arrangement would be ABDEC and the sentence thus formed is: The Delhi High Court allowed the CBI and ED’s appeal for an early hearing on its leave to appeal against the 2G case verdict acquitting former Telecom Minister A. Raja and others. S10. Ans.(c) Sol. Given sentence is talking about the declaration of farmer outfits about intensifying their agitation. So, on the basis of this information it can be seen that correct arrangement would be DEABC and the sentence thus formed is: Farmer outfits announced that they would intensify their agitation from October 1, which will include an indefinite “rail roko” protest and the social boycott of political leaders.

CURRENT AFFAIRS

2021-10-21T11:26:00.003+05:30

1. ‘ब्राइट स्टार’ अभ्यास (Exercise Bright Star) किस देश में आयोजित एक बहुराष्ट्रीय सैन्य अभ्यास है? उत्तर – मिस्र ‘ब्राइट स्टार’ अभ्यास (Exercise Bright Star) एक बहुराष्ट्रीय सैन्य अभ्यास है, जो मिस्र में हर दो साल में एक बार आयोजित किया जाता है। इस वर्ष के अभ्यास में अमेरिका सहित 21 देशों की भागीदारी होगी। इस तरह का पहला अभ्यास वर्ष 1980 में मिस्र और इज़रायल के बीच शांति संधि पर हस्ताक्षर करने के बाद आयोजित किया गया था। अंतिम ब्राइट स्टार अभ्यास 2018 में आयोजित किया गया था, जिसमें 16 प्रतिभागी राष्ट्र शामिल थे। ➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖ 2. भारत ने किस देश के साथ एशिया के हरित विकास के वित्तपोषण के लिए 1.2 बिलियन डॉलर के पैकेज की घोषणा की है? उत्तर – यूके भारत और यूनाइटेड किंगडम ने 1.2 बिलियन डॉलर के पैकेज की घोषणा की है, जिसका उद्देश्य एशियाई देशों के हरित विकास के लिए वित्तपोषण में सुधार करना है। इस पैकेज में 1 बिलियन डॉलर का निवेश शामिल है, जो हरित प्रौद्योगिकी पर काम करने वाले व्यवसायों का समर्थन करने के लिए यूके के विकास वित्त संस्थान CDC का निवेश होगा। भारत में हरित परियोजनाओं के लिए निजी पूंजी जुटाने के लिए क्लाइमेट फाइनेंस लीडरशिप इनिशिएटिव (CFLI) इंडिया पार्टनरशिप भी शुरू की गई है। ➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖ 3. पत्रकारों के लिए ‘पत्रकार कल्याण कोष’ योजना किस राज्य में लागू की गयी है? उत्तर – छत्तीसगढ़ छत्तीसगढ़ राज्य सरकार ने ‘पत्रकार कल्याण कोष’ नाम की योजना लागू की है। इस योजना के तहत, COVID में जान गंवाने वाले पत्रकारों के परिवारों को वित्तीय सहायता प्रदान की जाएगी। इसके अलावा, इस योजना के तहत, पत्रकारों को COVID रोग के इलाज के लिए 2 लाख रुपये की राशि दी जाएगी। राज्य ने वरिष्ठ पत्रकार सम्मान निधि योजना के तहत वरिष्ठ पत्रकार को मासिक पेंशन 5000 रुपये से बढ़ाकर 10,000 रुपये करने का भी निर्णय लिया है। ➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖ 4. “स्वास्थ्य विज्ञान विश्वविद्यालय विधेयक” किस राज्य की विधानसभा द्वारा पारित किया गया है? उत्तर – ओडिशा ओडिशा की विधान सभा ने हाल ही में स्वास्थ्य विज्ञान विश्वविद्यालय विधेयक 2021 पारित किया है। यह विधेयक राज्य के सभी चिकित्सा और पैरामेडिकल संस्थानों को एक ही स्वास्थ्य विज्ञान विश्वविद्यालय के तहत लाने का प्रयास करता है। वर्तमान में, राज्य के विभिन्न चिकित्सा और पैरामेडिकल संस्थान विभिन्न विश्वविद्यालयों से संबद्ध (affiliated) हैं। ➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖➖ 5. विश्व स्टाम्प प्रदर्शनी ‘फिलानिप्पन 2021’ (World Stamp Exhibition ‘Philanippon 2021’) कहाँ आयोजित की गई थी? उत्तर – जापान फिलानिप्पन 2021 (Philanippon 2021) विश्व स्टाम्प प्रदर्शनी है, जो हाल ही में टोक्यो, जापान में आयोजित की गई। जापान में डाक सेवा की स्थापना को चिह्नित करने के लिए 1971 से जापान में हर 10 साल में यह कार्यक्रम आयोजित किया जाता है। इस वर्ष जापान की डाक सेवा की 150वीं वर्षगांठ के रूप में चिह्नित किया गया। 6. प्रधानमंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी ने 07 से 17 सितम्बर को किस पर्व के रूप में मनाने की घोषणा की है? उत्तर : शिक्षक पर्व 2021. 7. देश के औद्योगिक विकास में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाने वाले राजस्थान स्टेट इंडस्ट्रियल डेवलपमेन्ट इन्वेस्टमेंट कॉर्पोरेशन लिमिटेड (रीको) को किस अवार्ड से सम्मानित किया गया है? उत्तर : SIIDC के राष्ट्रीय पुरस्कार। 8. चीनी राष्ट्रपति शी जिनपिंग ने ने अपनी सेना पीपल्स लिबरेशन आर्मी की पश्चिम थिएटर कमान के लिए किसे नया कमांडर नियुक्त किया है? उत्तर : जनरल वांग हाईजियांग। 9. कश्मीर के किस 23 वर्षीय युवक ने घाटी से कन्याकुमारी तक की 3600 किमी की दूरी को 8 दिन 01 घंटे, 37 मिनट में पूरी कर विश्व रिकॉर्ड बना दिया है? उत्तर : आदिल तेली। 10. बिहार विधानसभा के पूर्व अध्यक्ष एवं 9 बार विधायक रहे किस कांग्रेस नेता का निधन हो गया है? उत्तर : सदानंद सिंह। 11. आंध्र प्रदेश राज्य सरकार ने रजनीश कुमार को किस पद पर नियुक्त किया है? उत्तर : राज्य सरकार के आर्थिक सलाहकार। 12. आज के दिन (08 सितम्बर) को विश्वभर में किस दिवस के रूप में मनाया जा रहा है? उत्तर : विश्व साक्षरता दिवस। 13. देश में पिछले 24 घंटे में कोरोना के कितने नए मामले सामने आये हैं? उत्तर : 37,875 (369 मौतें). 14. ब्रिटेन की किस कंपनी ने फ्रांस से लेकर अमेरिका में भारतीय सम्पत्तियों को जब्त करने से जुड़े मामलों को एक अरब डॉलर में वापस लेने की घोषणा की है? उत्तर : केयर्न एनर्जी। 15. तालिबान सरकार ने अफगानिस्तान में किसे अपना प्रधानमंत्री एवं उपप्रधानमंत्री घोषित किया है? उत्तर : मुल्ला मोहम्मद हसन अखुंद (प्रधानमंत्री), मुल्ला बरादर एवं हनफी (उपप्रधानमंत्री)।

SUCCESS MIRROR DEC -2011 For IBPS Clerk Exam

2011-11-18T19:52:00.001+05:30

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BANK EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

2011-11-09T18:47:00.001+05:30

1. Where did the representatives of 27 countries meet in November 2011 to evolve a consensus-based mechanism that will ensure stability and prosperity in the wartorn Afghanistan? (External Affairs Minister S.M.Krishna attended this conference)
1) Kabul
2) Istanbul
3) Islamabad
4) New Delhi
5) New York

2. Nabam Tuki was sworn in as the new Chief Minister of which of the following states in November 2011?
1) Sikkim
2) Manipur
3) Meghalaya
4) Tripura
5) Arunachal Pradesh

3. Agriculture accounts for what per cent of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
1) 16%
2) 28%
3) 56%
4) 32%
5) 25%

4. Michael Chilufya Sata has become the President of which of the following African countries?
1) Tanzania
2) Zambia
3) Malawi
4) Mozambique
5) Zimbabwe

5. The Union Cabinet has approved the Mines and Mineral Development and Regulation (MMDR) Bill, 2011. This bill provides for mining companies to keep aside what per cent of their net profits for a Mineral Development Fund to be used for the rehabilitation of project-affected people in the tribal areas of India?
1) 25%
2) 26%
3) 49%
4) 30%
5) 35%

6. Who is the Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister and the Director-General of the Defence Research & Development Organization (DRDO)?
1) V.G.Sekaran
2) Avinash Chander
3) V.K.Saraswat
4) Radhakrishna
5) Kasturi Rangan

7. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) has been appointed as external auditor of which of the following organizations?
1) IAEA & WTO
2) WTO & UNESCO
3) UNICEF & UNESCO
4) IAEA & WIPO
5) None of these

8. Which of the following days is observed as The International Day of Non-Violence?
1) January 30
2) October 31
3) October 2
4) October 24
5) January 12

9. Anwar al-Awlaki, an influential leader of the al-Qaeda, was killed in a drone attack recently. In which country was he killed by the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) of the USA?
1) Pakistan
2) Yemen
3) Saudi Arabia
4) USA
5) Afghanistan

10. Who has become the first woman jawan in the Indian Army?
1) Poonam Kaur
2) Dimple Singla
3) Shanti Tigga
4) Nandana Sen
5) None of these

11. The Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and Hamid Karzai signed the Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA) in New Delhi in October 2011. Hamid Karzai is the President of which of the following countries?
1) Syria
2) Oman
3) Pakistan
4) Afghanistan
5) Iran

12. Bhagwat Jha Azad passed away recently. He was the former Chief Minister of which of the following states?
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Bihar
4) Jammu & Kashmir
5) Uttarakhand

13. Saul Perlmutter, Adam Reiss and Brian Schmidt have jointly won the 2011 Nobel Prize in which of the following subjects?
1) Physics
2) Chemistry
3) Medicine
4) Literature
5) Economics

14. Global ratings firm Moody's Investors Service has downgraded which Indian bank's Bank Financial Strength Rating (BFSR), or Standalone rating, to 'D+' from 'C-' ?
1) SBI
2) IOB
3) OBC
4) Canara Bank
5) Vijaya Bank

15. A memorandum of understanding (MoU) was signed between the Indian Council for Cultural Relations and the University of Lausanne to establish Rabindranath Tagore Chair on Indian Studies in October 2011. In which country is this university situated?
1) Denmark
2) Switzerland
3) Sweden
4) Norway
5) Netherlands

16. Who defended the double trap gold medal in the Shooting World Cup Finals in Al Ain, United Arab Emirates in October 2011?
1) Ronjan Sodhi
2) Hu Binyuan
3) Gagan Narang
4) Abhinav Bindra
5) None of these

17. Which of the following international agencies granted full membership to Palestine recently?
1) UNO
2) UNESCO
3) WTO
4) IMF
5) None of these

18. Renault will launch its compact car "Pulse" in India in 2012. To which country does this car maker belong?
1) USA
2) Germany
3) Italy
4) Japan
5) France

19. President Pratibha Patil visited Switzerland recently. Who is the President of Switzerland?
1) Micheline Calmy-Ray
2) Cristina Fernandez
3) Mary McAleese
4) Rosa Otunbayeva
5) None of these

20. Who became the first cricketers ever to be convicted for fixing a part of a match in November 2011?
1) Salman Butt & Salim Malik
2) Salman Butt & Mohammad Asif
3) Mohammad Asif & Salim Malik
4) Herschelle Gibbs & Salman Butt
5) None of these

21. Which of the following countries is not a member of BASIC?
1) China
2) India
3) Brazil
4) South Africa
5) Australia

22. Which of the following sports personalities were commissioned as Honorary Lieutenant Colonel in the Territorial Army in November 2011?
1) Abhinav Bindra & Sachin Tendulkar
2) Viswanathan Anand & Gagan Narang
3) Abhinav Bindra & Gagan Narang
4) Mahendra Singh Dhoni & Vijender Singh
5) Mahendra Singh Dhoni & Abhinav Bindra

23. Who, at the age of 24, became the youngest Formula One driver to win back-to-back world championships in October 2011?
1) Sebastian Vettel (Germany)
2) Jenson Button (UK)
3) Fernando Alonso (Spain)
4) Mark Webber (Australia)
5) Lewis Hamilton (UK)

24. Who is the author of the book "Revolution 2020"?
1) Arundhati Roy
2) Amitav Ghosh
3) Chetan Bhagat
4) Sharmila Bose
5) None of these

25. Representatives from BASIC countries met in which of the following cities to seek consensus on climate change issues to pave the way for the Durban climate change conference at the end of this year?
1) Beijing
2) New Delhi
3) Mumbai
4) Shanghai
5) None of these

26. Identify the incorrect statement
1) The State Bank Group has 25,000 ATMs, out of which SBI alone has 20,087.
2) The State Bank Group now has 18,181 branches, out of which SBI alone has 13,500 plus branches.
3) SBI will add 10,000 ATMs annually for the next three years.
4) The 9,000th rural, semi-urban (RUSU) branch of the State Bank Group was opened at Sundargarh in Orissa recently.
5) H.S. Upendra Kamath assumed charge as Chairman of State Bank of India in April 2011.

27. Who has taken over as Chairman of the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) from April 1, 2011?
1) M.V. Nair
2) M.D. Mallya
3) K.R.Kamath
4) Alok Misra
5) None of these

28. Who has been elected as chairman of the executive board of the Indian School of Business (ISB)?
1) Anil Ambani
2) Rahul Bajaj
3) Sunil Mittal
4) Adi Godrej
5) N.R. Narayana Murthy

Answers
1) 2 2) 5 3) 1 4) 2 5) 2 6) 3 7) 4 8) 3 9) 2 10) 3 11) 4 12) 3 13) 1 14) 1 15) 2 16) 1 17) 2 18) 5 19) 1 20) 2 21) 5 22) 5 23) 1 24) 3 25) 1 26) 5 27) 2 28) 4

How to Improve English Knowledge Methods and Tips!

2011-11-01T10:19:00.002+05:30

As we know in today`s world life has become so dynamic that one needs to change as per the circumstances nearby him which is occurring day by day so as to keep himself upgraded in track of development . It is said that 32 dialects are used by the Indians and over 12000 types of languages are spoken in India by its people. So India has got innumerable languages in its culture that it is difficult to understand one`s language the north Indian find it difficult to understand the language of a south Indian similarly it is difficult for a Bengali to communicate with a Kashmiri as both are unaware of each other’s language. So in this case the only language which comes to aide, to remove the language barrier of one is none other than English. English is the only language which is generally accepted by the whole world as giving it as a tag of officially accepted and recognized language throughout the world. English thus has gained a lot of popularity in the whole world by the booming of the IT and BPO sectors in nations of the world.

We all know that English is must nowadays to success in interview, exams etc. So you have to well versed in English language whether in writing or in speaking. Ya, it is difficult for those who studied in regional medium language schools. But it should not be excuse for your failure because there are lots of people who studied in regional medium but now they are more efficient in English language than English medium school student. Its all depend on your interest or passion to learn something. We are here sharing tips to learn English language. Please also share your comments which are you perfect or interested method to learn English language. Best of luck!!

Here are some tips to enhance English knowledge are as stated below

Proper Knowledge of English Language- In order to enhance the skills of English one should go through the books of standard 12 of grammars so it will provide the vital knowledge of noun, pronoun adjectives and so many much more it will teach the individual about the proper usage of grammar in English which are widely used in common day to day language and thus it will also make the base of an individual too much strong in English. As it deals with the fundamentals of English recommended books is of ray & martin.

English Newspaper, Novels and Journals

Thorough and daily reading of newspaper, novel, journals and magazine helps an individual a lot in understanding and framing of a language and it becomes easy for him to perceive the language of English and thus he can master them if done regularly. And reading helps him in cracking so many entrance exams which were difficult for him in past but now its easy for him. Thus his knowledge of GK and interview increases. NEWS CHANNELS- watching and following of English news channels helps a lot in increasing the vocabulary of an individual. It also helps in getting the pronunciations right by watching the debate shows which are telecast on English news channels recommended channels BBC, CNN, etc.

Group Discussion

its better to use the language of English in normal discussion of a topic in which one individual is talking about in general with his friends or colleagues with whom one interacts its good to use the language in daily topics which will help him in understanding the frame , usage, of language and thus he will attain the position of articulate person.

PRACTICE

It is said that practice makes a man perfect and it’s true. It is said that if one needs to improve himself he should do it on a regular basis of 21 days after that it will become his habit to do that particular work on time and this is the only one way to achieve its goal and conquering his fears and thus he can easily perceive the language (English) for which he is doing the hard work so one needs to read, write, and speak English regularly so in order to attain masterism.

Tips to Minimize Negative Marks in Bank Exams

2011-11-01T10:18:00.003+05:30

The candidates who are taking their bank exam for their first times are more worried about their negative marks. Negative marks in the bank exam are rewarded to each and every one for every wrong answer, which starts with 0.25 to 0.50. So the candidates always try to minimize their negative marks as if they not then these negative marks will lead them to failure. Here we will discuss about the topic on how to minimize negative marking in bank exams. Here are some of the tips on how to minimize negative marking in the bank exam:

Study previous years question paper

Studying the previous year question paper will help you to get information about how the questions are given in the bank exam, the format of question paper; the pattern of question paper etc. will help you in your bank exam. By reading the previous question paper you will also came to know that which part of question will take how must time to solve in this way you can also be able to utilize the correct time. www.jagronjosh.com is a very good website to check previous and current year question paper with solved answer.

Practice the previous question papers

Practice makes a man perfect so keep practicing the previous question papers. As all the banks want that the candidate should complete 120-150 questions in 3 hours, it being essential for the applicants to figure out short cut method, easy problem skill so that the candidate could save their precious time. This could only be done by practicing the papers.

Go for the mock test papers!

The best idea is to spend some time in solving out the mock test papers as they act as a guide to the candidates for understanding the exact criteria of the examiners. Mock test papers provide an overview of what the paper in actual is likely to be and hence, candidates get a proper practice session before going down for a big shot.

Reduce swaying answers

The most pathetic condition is found when a candidate answers the questions on a random basis where he or she has no idea of the answer is really hinting about, hence, it creates a negative image of the candidate and the examiners carelessly goes through the paper and provides whatever marks as he thinks to be fit. Swaying of answer can sometimes also in form of answering the questions in random orders which creates a lot of confusion in the minds of the examiner and irritates him all the way.

The ideal solution

The ideal solution to reduce the negative marks in your paper is to be very precise in approach which allows the examiner to understand your position properly and even if the paper is not well answered, the examiner will believe that the candidate has a fair approach and his answers are not vague. Keep the answers simple and if you do not have any idea about a particular answer, well leaver it blank, the examiner will think that the candidate answers only those of which he knows and it will create a positive image.

IBPS GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs QUESTION ANSWARE 2011

2011-10-20T10:29:00.002+05:30

IBPS GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1. Which period is called the ‘banking swadeshi’ period when many Indians established many banks? 1)1870-1940 2)1910-1947 3)1906-1911 4)1947-1991 5)1942-1947
2. The banks established in Swadeshi period are …………? 1) Bank of India 2) Corporation bank 3) Indian Bank 4) Bank of Baroda 5) All of the above
3. In which part of India, many banks are established, which is called the ‘Cradle of Indian Banking System’? 1) Northern Assam 2) Southern Tamilnadu 3) Eastern Rajasthan 4) Southern Karnataka 5) Western Maharastra
4. The most banks in India failed between ………… Not less than 100 banks failed due to various reasons? 1) 1923-1928 2) 1953-1958 3) 1923-1948 4) 1903-1928 5) 1913-1918

5. Which party issued a paper by name ‘Stray thoughts on Bank Nationalization’ signaling the nationalization of banks in India? 1) Communist Party of India 2) Janatha Party 3) Congress Party 4) Republican Party 5) National Conference
6. Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertaking) Bill passed in ……………paving way to the nationalization of banks in India? 1) 1974 2) 1969 3) 1975 4) 1981 5) 1961
7. Who said the nationalization of banks is the ‘masterstroke of political sagacity’? 1) Indira Gandhi 2) Raj Narayan 3) Jayaprakash Narayan 4) Jawahar Lal Nehru 5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
8. How many banks were nationalized in 1969? 1) 18 2) 6 3) 14 4) 20 5) 5
9. Which bank was not nationalized in 1969? 1) Allahabad Bank 2) Bank of Baroda 3) State Bank of India 4) Bank of India 5) Bank of Maharastra
10. How many banks were nationalized as a second dose in 1980? 1) 4 2) 9 3) 6 4) 18 5) 12
11. Bad debts mean …………? 1) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid 2) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid 3) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within 2 years 4) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid within 8 years 5) None
12. GST council (Goods and Services Taxes Council) in the Constitution 115th Amendment Bill headed by ………… to make recommendations the taxes to be levied, goods to be exempted, GST rate etc? 1) Prime Minister 2) Finance Minister 3) Commerce Minister 4) Revenue Minister 5) Finance Secretary
13. The current limit of External borrowings is $ 20 billion. This Current limit is now raised to $ ………… billion? 1) 21 2) 40 3) 70 4) 60 5) 30
14. …………is not the provision of the National Land Acquisition and Rehabilitation & Resettlement Bill? 1) In the given area, least 80% of the population must agree to acquisition of land by the government. 2) Land owners to be compensated with twice the registered or stamp value of the land in urban areas and six times in rural areas. 3) Single law has the provisions of Acquisition of land and rehabilitation 4) The government can appoint middle man to have talks with the local population to decrease the compensation 5) Compensation reflects the market rates
15. Food Security Bill proposed by National Advisory Council (NAC) proposes 90% ration in Rural Areas and …………% ration in Urban Areas. (National Advisory Council headed by Sonia Gandhi) 1) 50 2) 70 3) 100 4) 90 5) 25
16. The Union government decisions are given. Pick the correct one? 1) National Legal Aid and Reforms commission coming soon 2) Supreme Court ordered the return of 156 hectares of land to farmers in Uttar Pradesh, allocated to construct posh buildings. 3) The postal department issues postal stamps on President of India’s house Rastrapathi Bhavan 4) Five PIO ( Person of India Origin) universities will be set up in the future. 5) All of above
17. Project ‘Surakhya’ an Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF) introduced by …………? 1) Odisha 2) Chattisgarh 3) Arunachal Pradesh 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Goa
18. ‘Nanhe Haath Kalam Ke Saath’ ( tiny hands with pen) phase II announced against the social evil of Child Labour by …………? 1) Karnataka 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Rajasthan 5) Goa
19. SAARC Interior Ministers conference was recently held in …………? 1) Sri Lanka 2) India 3) Afganistan 4) Bhutan 5) Nepal
20. Mahatma Gandhi led ………….listed in the top ten of the most influential protests in the world as mentioned by ‘Time magazine’? 1) Non-cooperation Movement 2) Swadeshi Movement 3) Salt Satyagraha 4) Quit India Movement 5) Champaran Satyagraha
21. A person who expects share prices in general to decline and who is likely to indulge in SHORT SALES is called …………? 1) Bear 2) Bull 3) Dog 4) Duck 5) Lame Duck
22. ………… was re elected as the UN Secretary General? 1) Irina Bocova 2) Robert Zollick 3) Ban Ki-moon 4) Hillay Clinton 5) Christine Legarde
23. Meghdoot awards conferred by …………? 1) Air India 2) Department of Water Resources 3) Postal Department 4) Department of Communications 5) Supreme Court
24. ‘Areva’ a French company belongs to following sector? 1) Nuclear 2) Toy 3) Auto makers 4) Mobiles 5) Book
25. In the list of nationalized banks, which bank was merged with Punjab National Bank in 1993? 1) Bank of India 2) Bank of Baroda 3) Andhra Bank 4) New Bank of India 5) Central Bank of India
26. …………was the prime minister of India during the nationalization of banks in 1969 and in 1980? 1) Jawahar Lal Nehru 2) Lal Bahadur Sastri 3) Indira Gandhi 4) Morarji Desaii 5) P.V.Narasimha Rao
27. Who among the following is not the present Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India? 1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) Subhir Gokarn 3) Y.Malegam 4) Anand Sinha 5) H. R.khan
28. On 3 August 2011, ……….. panel submitted its report to Reserve Bank of India on ‘customer service in banks’ 1) Rangarajan 2) Malegam 3) Subba Rao 4) H.R.Khan 5) Damodaran
29. …………firmly tell many rules and regulations relating to Non-Performing Assets? 1) Banking Regulation Act 1949 2) Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999 3) SEBI Act 1992 4) Indian Contract Act 1872 5) Negotiable instrument act 1881
30. On 30 June 2011 …………liberalized FDI norms by allowing the Indian companies to pay in the form of Equity in to the foreign suppliers instead of payment in the form of foreign exchange? 1) SEBI 2) Ministry of Finance 3) Ministry of Commerce 4) FDA 5) RBI
31. …………tied up with Met Life to enter in to insurance business recently? 1) Andhra Bank 2) Union Bank of India 3) Corporation bank 4) Allahabad Bank 5) Punjab National Bank
32. …………started, the saga of Liberlization of banks as a prime minister? 1) Indira Gandhi 2) Nehru 3) Lal Bahadur Sastri 4) P.V.Narasimha Rao 5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
33. Which committee suggested the banking reforms? 1) Kalia 2) Deepak Mohanty 3) Narasimham 4) Syamala Gopinath 5) Goparia
34. The decade 1990-2000 is the era of Techsavvy private banks. Which are established during this period? 1) Global Trust Bank 2) UTI bank 3) ICICI 4) HDFC 5) All of above
35. Global Trust Bank was merged with ……..? 1) HDFC 2) Oriental Bank of Commerce 3) State Bank of India 4) Syndicate Bank 5) IDBI
36. …………was merged with HDFC bank? 1) Bank of Rajasthan 2) Global Trust Bank 3) Centurion Bank 4) Bank of Bombay 5) Imperial Bank of India
37. …………has offered to India a loan of Rs.6,800 crore for building 24,000 km of all weather roads in the rural seven economically poor and hilly areas States 1) IMF 2) IFC 3) World Bank 4) IDA 5) ADB
38. India’s first indigenous payment gateway is …………? 1) India Expenditure 2) India Payment 3) India Challan 4) India Pay 5) India Rupee
39. …………opened a Lockless branch at Shani Shingnapur (Maharastra) respecting the local customs? 1) State Bank of India 2) Bank of Maharastra 3) Union Bank of India 4) ICICI 5) UCO bank
40. …………and Life Insurance Corporation of India( LIC) tie up to launch Credit-Card services to the customers and employees of LIC? 1) Axis Bank 2) ICICI 3) State Bank of India 4) HDFC 5) Kotak Mahendra Bank
41. Tehri Hydro Development Corporation got $ 648 million from …………? 1) IMF 2) IDA 3) ADB 4) AFD 5) IBRD
42. On 10 August 2011, in which state National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) proposed to give huge loans in the endosulfan-hit areas? 1) Odisha 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) West Bengal 5) Kerala
43. The best alternative banking service to branch banking to be the part of Financial Inclusion? 1) Establishment of small branches 2) Setup ATMs 3) Issuing of ATM cards 4) Giving Credit Cards 5) Mobile banking
44. Giving focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities is the main theme of …………scheme? 1) PURA 2) JNNURM 3) MGNREGA 4) IAY 5) RAY
45. ………..became first state to sign an agreement on Emission Reduction Purchase with the World Bank to curb the carbon emissions? 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Himachal Pradesh 3) Haryana 4) Goa 5) Maharashtra
46. MENA (Middle East and North Africa) region is the familiar for ………… industry? 1) Toy 2) Leather 3) Petroleum 4) Cotton 5) Fruits
47. The Award list given. Pick the correct one? 1) 12th IIFA (International Indian Film Academy) top awards announced in Toranto 2) Life Achievement Award got by Asha Bhonsle 3) Best film award got by Dabangg 4) Best Actor Award got by Shahrukh Khan 5) All of above
48. Guido Mantega used the word ‘Currency War’ referring …………? 1) India 2) China 3) New Zeland 4) Russia 5) USA

ANSWERS:

1)3 2)5 3)4 4)5 5)3 6)2 7)3 8)3 9)3 10)3 11)2 12)2 13)5 14)4 15)1 16)5 17)1 18)4 19)4 20)3 21)1 22)3 23)3 24)1 25)4 26)3 27)3 28)5 29)1 30)5 31)5 32)4 33)3 34)5 35)2 36)3 37)3 38)4 39)5 40)1 41)5 42)5 43)5 44)2 45)2 46)3 47)5 48)2.

IBPS CLERKS EXAM COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MCQs QUESTION ANSWERE 2011

2011-10-20T10:21:00.002+05:30

1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as ....
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these
ANS (A)
2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
(D) identify theft
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______ software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
9. The following are all computing devices , except.........
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
16. URL stands for ........
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?
(A) Capture , process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these
ANS ()
19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these
ANS ()
23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
25. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as .....
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these
ANS (c)
30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
ANS ()
32. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
(D) user
(E) None of these
ANS ()
38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
40. Making a field ______ means that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None pf these
ANS ()
42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
44. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system's information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
46. The internet is ......
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
(D) logging in
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam. 2011 SOLVED PAPER|Computer Knowledge

2011-10-16T09:54:00.001+05:30

Computer Knowledge

(Held on 17-4-2011)

1. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media ?
(A) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large amount of data and information
(B) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
(C) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. A ……… is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
(A) blog
(B) hit
(C) link
(D) view
(E) success
Ans : (C)

3. The ……… is the term used to describe the window that is currently being used.
(A) Web Window
(B) display area
(C) WordPad Window
(D) active window
(E) monitor
Ans : (D)

4. CPU is an abbreviation for—
(A) central programming unit
(B) central processing unit
(C) computer processing unit
(D) computer protocol unit
(E) central protocol unit
Ans : (B)

5. A microprocessor is the brain of the computer and is also called a(n)—
(A) microchip
(B) macrochip
(C) macroprocessor
(D) calculator
(E) software
Ans : (A)

6. Storage and memory differ with respect to which of the following characteristics ?
(A) Price
(B) Reliability
(C) Speed
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. What are two examples of freeware ?
(A) WinZip and Linux
(B) Shareware and file sharing
(C) Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar
(D) Instant messaging and the Google toolbar
(E) Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel
Ans : (D)

8. If a disk drive fails but the computer application running and using it can continue processing, this application is said to have been designed with this feature—
(A) 100 per cent uptime
(B) fault tolerance
(C) high reliability
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. What is e-commerce ?
(A) Buying and selling international goods
(B) Buying and selling products and services over the Internet
(C) Buying and selling products and services not found in stores
(D) Buying and selling products having to do with computers
(E) Buying and selling of electronic goods
Ans : (B)

10. What are the four things needed to connect to the Internet ?
(A) Telephone line, modem, computer, and an ISP
(B) Modem, computer, PDA and ISP
(C) Telephone line, PDA, modem and computer
(D) Computer, ISP, modem and communication software
(E) Monitor, keyboard, mouse, modem
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following functions are not performed by servers ?
(A) Email processing
(B) Database sharing
(C) Processing Web sites
(D) Storage
(E) Word processing
Ans : (E)

12. Which media have the ability to have data/information stored (written) on them by users more than once ?
(A) CD-R disks
(B) CD-RW disks
(C) Zip disks
(D) OptiDisks
(E) Both CD-RW disks and Zip disks
Ans : (A)

13. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called—
(A) downloading
(B) uploading
(C) FTP
(D) JPEG
(E) downsizing
Ans : (C)

14. The………controls a client computer’s resources.
(A) application program
(B) instruction set
(C) operating system
(D) server application
(E) compiler
Ans : (D)

15. To reload a Web page, press the ……… button.
(A) Redo
(B) Reload
(C) Restore
(D) Ctrl
(E) Refresh
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following could be digital input devices for computers ?
(A) Digital camcorder
(B) Microphone
(C) Scanner
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. The………enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.
(A) tab box
(B) pop-up helper
(C) tab row
(D) address bar
(E) Esc key
Ans : (A)

18. You can use the………bar to type a URL and display a Web page, or type a keyword to display a list of related Web pages.
(A) menu
(B) Title
(C) Search
(D) Web
(E) Address
Ans : (E)

19. Storage media such as a CD read and write information using—
(A) a laser beam of red light
(B) magnetic dots
(C) magnetic strips
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. Vendor-created program modifications are called—
(A) patches
(B) antiviruses
(C) holes
(D) fixes
(E) overlaps
Ans : (D)

21. Cache and main memory will lose their contents when the power is off. They are—
(A) dynamic
(B) static
(C) volatile
(D) non-volatile
(E) faulty
Ans : (C)

22. The collection of links throughout the Internet creates an interconnected network called the—
(A) WWW
(B) Web
(C) World Wide Web
(D) All of the above
(E) Wide Area Web
Ans : (D)

23. Every computer has a(n) ………;
many also have.
(A) operating system, a client system
(B) operating system; instruction sets
(C) application programs; an operating system
(D) application programs; a client system
(E) operating system; application programs
Ans : (E)

24. Main memory works in conjunction with—
(A) special function cards
(B) RAM
(C) CPU
(D) Intel
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

25. A sales clerk at a checkout counter scanning a tag on an item rather than keying it into the system, is using—
(A) input automation
(B) item data automation
(C) scanning automation
(D) source data automation
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. A(n)……is composed of several computers connected together to share resources and data.
(A) Internet
(B) network
(C) backbone
(D) hyperlink
(E) protocol
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information—
(A) floppy diskette
(B) hard disk
(C) permanent disk
(D) optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. Microsoft Office is an example of a—
(A) closed-source software
(B) open-source software
(C) horizontal-market software
(D) vertical-market software
(E) compiler
Ans : (A)

29. A popular way to learn about computers without ever going to a classroom is called—
(A) i-learning
(B) isolated learning
(C) e-learning
(D) close learning
(E) Distance Learning
Ans : (C)

30. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage is a—
(A) spammer
(B) hacker
(C) instant messenger
(D) programmer
(E) analyst
Ans : (B)

31. Which of the following is an example of storage devices ?
(A) Magnetic disks
(B) Tapes
(C) DVDs
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. The………folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
(A) Inbox
(B) Outbox
(C) Drafts
(D) Sent Items
(E) Address Book
Ans : (C)

33. Which of the following is an example of an optical disk ?
(A) Digital versatile disks
(B) Magnetic disks
(C) Memory disks
(D) Data bus disks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. The main job of a CPU is to—
(A) carry out program instructions
(B) store data/information for future use
(C) process data and information
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

35. ……are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
(A) Phishing trips
(B) Computer viruses
(C) Spyware scams
(D) Viruses
(E) Phishing scams
Ans : (E)

36. An example of a processing device would be—
(A) a magnetic ink reader
(B) a tablet PC
(C) special function cards
(D) scanners
(E) keyboards
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following is not a type of computer software which can be bought ?
(A) Off-the-shelf
(B) Tailor-made
(C) Custom-developed
(D) Off-the-shelf with alterations
(E) All of these can be purchased
Ans : (D)

38. You can use………to copy selected text, and ……… to paste it in a document.
(A) CTRL + C, CTRL + V
(B) CTRL + C, CTRL + P
(C) CTRL + S, CTRL + S
(D) SHIFT + C, ALT + P
(E) CTRL + D, CTRL + A
Ans : (A)

39. Video processors consist of ……… and ……, which store and process images.
(A) CPU and VGA
(B) CPU and memory
(C) VGA and memory
(D) VGI and DVI
(E) VGA and VGI
Ans : (C)

40. The main memory of a computer can also be called—
(A) primary storage
(B) internal memory
(C) primary memory
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. Computer software can be defined as—
(A) the computer and its associated equipment
(B) the instructions that tell the computer what to do
(C) computer components that act to accomplish a goal
(D) an interface between the computer and the network
(E) the interaction between the computer and its database
Ans : (B)

42. When speaking of computer input and output, input refers to—
(A) any data processing that occurs from new data input into the computer
(B) retrieval of data or information that has been input into the computer
(C) data or information that has been entered into the computer
(D) the transmission of data that has been input into the computer
(E) Both (C) and (D) above
Ans : (E)

43. A ……… is a set of rules.
(A) resource locator
(B) domain
(C) hypertext
(D) URL
(E) protocol
Ans : (E)

44. The connection between your computer at home and your local ISP is called—
(A) the last mile
(B) the home stretch
(C) the home page
(D) the backbone
(E) the vital mile
Ans : (C)

45. All of the logic and mathematical calculations done by the computer happen in/on the—
(A) system board
(B) central control unit
(C) central processing unit
(D) mother board
(E) memory
Ans : (C)

46. There are several primary categories of procedures. Which of the following is not a primary category of procedures ?
(A) Testing
(B) Backup and recovery
(C) Firewall development
(D) Design
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. The operating system called UNIX is typically used for—
(A) desktop computers
(B) laptop computers
(C) supercomputers
(D) Web servers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

48. The………file format is a method of encoding pictures on a computer.
(A) HTML
(B) JPEG
(C) FTP
(D) URL
(E) DOC
Ans : (B)

49. Press………to move the insertion point to the Address box, or to highlight the URL in the Address box.
(A) ALT + D
(B) ALT + A
(C) SHIFT + TAB
(D) TAB + CTRL
(E) CTRL + S
Ans : (A)

50. Computer systems are comprised of—
(A) hardware, programs, information, people and networks
(B) hardware, software, procedures, networks and people
(C) hardware, programs, information, people and procedures
(D) hardware, programs, processors, procedures, networks and people
(E) hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people
Ans : (A)

How to Prepare for IBPS CWE Clerk Exam

2011-10-14T20:29:00.001+05:30

As there are many fields in the CWE (clerks)so you need a good knowledge in each and every field which will come in exam. There could also be some students good in reasoning and general English Language, but not good in aptitude then there is no job in bank for these types of students. There is no need to get perfect in each and every section, but you have to just set target for each section so that you can easily qualify in all sections. This is quite enough to get good marks in CWE. Let us discussed some of the section to get very good marks.

General Awareness

One of the important sections of Bank Exams is General Awareness. Very high marks can be scored by any of the candidate in this field which will increase their overall marks. Almost about 95% of general awareness paper consists of current affairs as you are quite aware of the fact that current affairs are an integral part of bank exams so you need to keep a close eye on the current affairs so that you can easily solve General Awareness paper without facing any problem. Within 10 to 12 minutes you can easily solve about 80-90 % of these type of questions as these not require much time if you are well prepared for this so you don’t need to worry about the only thing you have to do is to get well prepared. As some of the study materials available in the market is not so good for your preparation so to prepare much well you can go to some sites where you can easily get the required study material which will help you in your good preparation for upcoming banking exams. Apart from reading various series of books you should also read good magazines as already mentioned by us earlier and you should also read good newspaper daily such as The Hindu, The Telegraph, and The Times of India etc. by reading articles and newspaper you can easily keep a close track on the current affairs which will help you in many ways. By this you can also get some help for your English Language section, both descriptive and objective and at the same time you will also get help for preparing for your upcoming interviews. So always be ready to read good newspaper and magazines. Economy, polity, books and authors, international events, finance, banking, minster and their department, latest scams, records, sports, awards and prizes etc. are the fields about which questions can be asked in General Awareness. Thus, we recommend you to finish the General Awareness section in 10 minutes time and it can be easily solved in this time if you are well prepared.

Reasoning

Reasoning is the section which has highest weightage so it is the most important section of the bank exams. Some of the students find it difficult to finish this section on time so they face problems in this section. As during the course of exam, students find it quite difficult to understand whether the answer choose by them is right or wrong thus you can say that problem of accuracy is also there. By the questions which are based on statements, assumption based questions, questions based on interface and judgmental type of questions people face much problem of accuracy. These questions are quite confusing and also consist of major mass of the questions. There are some more questions type apart from the type of questions mentioned earlier which can be frequently asked in bank exams are of two types Verbal and Non-Verbal. Verbal type of question consists of Number Series, Coding- Decoding, Test of Direction Sense, Number Ranking, Alphabet Series, Blood Relations, Problem on Age Calculations, Arithmetic Reasoning, Decision making, Analogy etc. The Non-Verbal type of questions consists of Non Verbal Series, Grouping Identical Figures and Relationship with other figure.

The reason behind designing the test of reasoning ability is that how well a person can think in a pressure, thus to look at this skill of the students the test of reasoning has been designed. Some of the students fail to get a obtain a good marks in this field which prevent them from scoring good marks even though they have scored high marks in all other fields, but according to me it is the field where you can obtain a high standard marks. There are many reasons why a student is not able to finish this section on time are lack of patience to handle the difficult paper, nervousness, lack of skill of leaving difficult questions, lack of time management etc. there could even more reason depending upon an individual. If you are able to keep your patient during the course of exam and if the basic thing is understood by you that the paper is same for everybody then you would be easily able to handle the difficult paper quite easily. You can buy books for this sections there are several books available in the market and you need to understand the basic concepts for all types of questions which we have mentioned earlier once you are quite cleared with the concepts then you can find that your speed is increasing. Your accuracy will also increase if you get a good hold over the concepts so we suggest you to read some good books and try to improve your concepts.

Quantitative Aptitude

Quantitative is one of the sections where you can get very high marks as the questions are basically based on your mathematical calculation and they are also quite simple in nature. Questions can come on square roots, LCM, HCF, bar diagrams, tables, ratio and proportion, Compound Interest, profit, loss and discount, pie charts etc. so to score good marks in this field you must have basic knowledge about math. Try to solve all the questions in your mind without using paper and pen for your calculation because by doing so you can easily solve the paper in less time. Thus, you need to strong your calculation speed which is the key factor here.

Computer Knowledge

Nowadays, some banks have also started asking questions about networking. However these questions are basic in nature it doesn’t require much knowledge any person with few basic knowledge in networking field can easily score good marks in this field. However, even though this section looks quite easy but you have to still prepare well for this section too as in any kind of competitive exam you can’t take any section lightly. Thus, the key in this section is that to prepare well and perform well. To prepare much well in this section you can easily buy some books and magazines from the market which will help you to get a hold over this section.

Marketing Section

Nowadays with increasing influence of marketing value some banks have based their question on the marketing section. However we have seen after going through the past few questions that the questions asked in this field are quite basic in nature and it doesn’t require much time. In this section most of the question you will get will be based on common sense and current happenings and some of the questions are also related to Corporates. Thus you need to apply mind and you must have some basic understanding of Marketing. Here also it is recommended by us that you must buy some books and magazines from where you can get some information about marketing which will help you to score brilliant marks in this section.

Descriptive Part

In this section the students are mainly required to write essay type answers to the questions which mainly rely on situations, national issue, current topics etc. In this section the questions are very basic in nature but though you have to prepare well in this field so as to score good marks. However if you are week in these type of questions then what you can do is that you should write essay and short notes on the current topics and situations etc. which will help you to improve your skill in this field too.

English

In this section the questions consists of comprehension, Para jumbles, idiom & phrases, fill in the blanks etc. To perform well in this section the right way adopted by you will be to read goo English newspaper daily. By reading the newspaper on a regular basis you can not only improve your comprehension skills but also you can build your understanding of the language. To build your vocabulary it is suggested by us to note the difficult word and look up for their meaning in dictionary. We also suggest you to read good English grammar books so that you can improve your grammar skill too. You can easily achieve high marks in this field if you are good in comprehension as because 15 questions here are based on paragraph. Reading newspaper and articles will help you to get hold over this part.

IBPS CLERK |General Awarness|SUCCESS MIRROR OCT 2011

2011-10-14T15:40:00.002+05:30

SUCCESS MIRROR OCT 2011

With

Indian Bank Exam 2011,Union Bank of of India Clerk Exam 2011 and Bank Of Baroda Clerk Exam 2011 Solved paper

To read this book Click Here

Current Affair: |SAMANYA GYAN DARPAN OCT 2011| E-Magzine

2011-10-14T15:34:00.001+05:30

SAMANYA GYAN DARPAN OCT 2011

TO read this magzine Click here

Bank Of Baroda(BOB) Interview Questions - Sample nterview of a candidate Year 2010

2011-10-02T13:34:00.001+05:30

Me: Hi Sirs, I am Vijay

Int1: So Ajay, tell me about yourself.

As i told you, my name i Ajay and im from Mangalore. I did my graduation in Business Management from Mangalore University. And as far as my hobbies concerned, i dont have any special activity which i do during my liesure. But i prefer watching TV, reading news paper and sometimes even read novels on free time.

Int2: You said you read news papers, which all news papers you read?
I usually read Times of India, But some times even i read the Hindu.

Int3: So tell me what were the headlines in yesterdays and todays news paper?
In yesterdays news paper, the headline was that the death of LTTE Chief and confusions over his death, ie whethere he is really killed or still alive? And in todays news papers, we can see Congress set to form the Goverment.

Int1: What are your opinion on Muthaliks action recently?( Since i belonged to Mlore, they specifically asked me this)
( I answered)

Int2: Tell us something about your hometown?
( I answered)

Int3: Who are the Prime Ministers of Nepal, Srilanka and Pakistan and what exactly is happening now in these countries?
( I answered)

Int1: Why do you want to join our Bank when you are getting a good package from your company?
( I answered)

Int3: See Ajay, we cannot pay the salary what your drawing now, it will be very less than what you are getting now. And you can be posted anywhere in India and you should be ready to relocate anywhere.

Sir, I am not really worried about my salary. I am a future oriented person. You are correct that I am drawing a very good salary now. But what if I do not get even a penny in the future. Now a days, due to the recession, most of the companies are closing down. People are going to the streets. In this situation, it is better of have something, than nothing. And most importantly it was dream to join banks. Coz it is one of the fields where you get name and fame.

And as far as my posting is concerned, i love to travel and search new places, learn their culture and their way of living. talk to new people, interact with them and all that. It is really a nice experience.

Int4: Ok vijay, thank you and best of luck.

BANKING TERMINOLOGY FOR BANK PO/CLERK BANKING AWARNESS Question paper 2011

2011-09-28T15:53:00.005+05:30

Accrued interest: Interest due from issue date or from the last coupon payment date to the settlement date. Accrued interest on bonds must be added to their purchase price.

Arbitrage: Buying a financial instrument in one market in order to sell the same instrument at a higher price in another market.

Ask Price: The lowest price at which a dealer is willing to sell a given security.

Asset-Backed Securities (ABS): A type of security that is backed by a pool of bank loans, leases, and other assets. Most ABS are backed by auto loans and credit cards – these issues are very similar to mortgage-backed securities.

At-the-money: The exercise price of a derivative that is closest to the market price of the underlying instrument.

Basis Point: One hundredth of 1%. A measure normally used in the statement of interest rate e.g., a change from 5.75% to 5.81% is a change of 6 basis points.

Bear Markets: Unfavorable markets associated with falling prices and investor pessimism.

Bid-ask Spread: The difference between a dealer’s bid and ask price.

Bid Price: The highest price offered by a dealer to purchase a given security.

Blue Chips: Blue chips are unsurpassed in quality and have a long and stable record of earnings and dividends. They are issued by large and well-established firms that have impeccable financial credentials.

Bond: Publicly traded long-term debt securities, issued by corporations and governments, whereby the issuer agrees to pay a fixed amount of interest over a specified period of time and to repay a fixed amount of principal at maturity.

Book Value: The amount of stockholders’ equity in a firm equals the amount of the firm’s assets minus the firm’s liabilities and preferred stock

Broker: Individuals licensed by stock exchanges to enable investors to buy and sell securities.

Brokerage Fee: The commission charged by a broker.

Bull Markets: Favorable markets associated with rising prices and investor optimism.

Call Option: The right to buy the underlying securities at a specified exercise price on or before a specified expiration date.

Callable Bonds: Bonds that give the issuer the right to redeem the bonds before their stated maturity.

Capital Gain: The amount by which the proceeds from the sale of a capital asset exceed its original purchase price.

Capital Markets: The market in which long-term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold.

Certificate of Deposits (CDs): Savings instrument in which funds must remain on deposit for a specified period, and premature withdrawals incur interest penalties.

Closed-end (Mutual) Fund: A fund with a fixed number of shares issued, and all trading is done between investors in the open market. The share prices are determined by market prices instead of their net asset value.

Collateral: A specific asset pledged against possible default on a bond. Mortgage bonds are backed by claims on property. Collateral trusts bonds are backed by claims on other securities. Equipment obligation bonds are backed by claims on equipment.

Commercial Paper: Short-term and unsecured promissory notes issued by corporations with very high credit standings.

Common Stock: Equity investment representing ownership in a corporation; each share represents a fractional ownership interest in the firm.

Compound Interest: Interest paid not only on the initial deposit but also on any interest accumulated from one period to the next.

Contract Note: A note which must accompany every security transaction which contains information such as the dealer’s name (whether he is acting as principal or agent) and the date of contract.

Controlling Shareholder: Any person who is, or group of persons who together are, entitled to exercise or control the exercise of a certain amount of shares in a company at a level (which differs by jurisdiction) that triggers a mandatory general offer, or more of the voting power at general meetings of the issuer, or who is or are in a position to control the composition of a majority of the board of directors of the issuer.

Convertible Bond: A bond with an option, allowing the bondholder to exchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock in the firm. A conversion price is the specified value of the shares for which the bond may be exchanged. The conversion premium is the excess of the bond’s value over the conversion price.

Corporate Bond: Long-term debt issued by private corporations.

Coupon: The feature on a bond that defines the amount of annual interest income.

Coupon Frequency: The number of coupon payments per year.

Coupon Rate: The annual rate of interest on the bond’s face value that a bond’s issuer promises to pay the bondholder. It is the bond’s interest payment per dollar of par value.

Covered Warrants: Derivative call warrants on shares which have been separately deposited by the issuer so that they are available for delivery upon exercise.

Credit Rating: An assessment of the likelihood of an individual or business being able to meet its financial obligations. Credit ratings are provided by credit agencies or rating agencies to verify the financial strength of the issuer for investors.

Currency Board: A monetary system in which the monetary base is fully backed by foreign reserves. Any changes in the size of the monetary base has to be fully matched by corresponding changes in the foreign reserves.

Current Yield: A return measure that indicates the amount of current income a bond provides relative to its market price. It is shown as: Coupon Rate divided by Price multiplied by 100%.

Custody of Securities: Registration of securities in the name of the person to whom a bank is accountable, or in the name of the bank’s nominee; plus deposition of securities in a designated account with the bank’s bankers or with any other institution providing custodial services.

Default Risk: The possibility that a bond issuer will default ie, fail to repay principal and interest in a timely manner.

Derivative Call (Put) Warrants: Warrants issued by a third party which grant the holder the right to buy (sell) the shares of a listed company at a specified price.

Derivative Instrument: Financial instrument whose value depends on the value of another asset.

Discount Bond: A bond selling below par, as interest in-lieu to the bondholders.

Diversification: The inclusion of a number of different investment vehicles in a portfolio in order to increase returns or be exposed to less risk.

Duration: A measure of bond price volatility, it captures both price and reinvestment risks to indicate how a bond will react to different interest rate environments.

Earnings: The total profits of a company after taxation and interest.

Earnings per Share (EPS): The amount of annual earnings available to common stockholders as stated on a per share basis.

Earnings Yield: The ratio of earnings to price (E/P). The reciprocal is price earnings ratio (P/E).

Equity: Ownership of the company in the form of shares of common stock.

Equity Call Warrants: Warrants issued by a company which give the holder the right to acquire new shares in that company at a specified price and for a specified period of time.

Ex-dividend (XD): A security which no longer carries the right to the most recently declared dividend or the period of time between the announcement of the dividend and the payment (usually two days before the record date). For transactions during the ex-dividend period, the seller will receive the dividend, not the buyer. Ex-dividend status is usually indicated in newspapers with an (x) next to the stock’s or unit trust’s name.

Face Value/ Nominal Value: The value of a financial instrument as stated on the instrument. Interest is calculated on face/nominal value.

Fixed-income Securities: Investment vehicles that offer a fixed periodic return.

Fixed Rate Bonds: Bonds bearing fixed interest payments until maturity date.

Floating Rate Bonds: Bonds bearing interest payments that are tied to current interest rates.

Fundamental Analysis: Research to predict stock value that focuses on such determinants as earnings and dividends prospects, expectations for future interest rates and risk evaluation of the firm.

Future Value: The amount to which a current deposit will grow over a period of time when it is placed in an account paying compound interest.

Future Value of an Annuity: The amount to which a stream of equal cash flows that occur in equal intervals will grow over a period of time when it is placed in an account paying compound interest.

Futures Contract: A commitment to deliver a certain amount of some specified item at some specified date in the future.

Hedge: A combination of two or more securities into a single investment position for the purpose of reducing or eliminating risk.

Income: The amount of money an individual receives in a particular time period.

Index Fund: A mutual fund that holds shares in proportion to their representation in a market index, such as the S&P 500.

Initial Public Offering (IPO): An event where a company sells its shares to the public for the first time. The company can be referred to as an IPO for a period of time after the event.

Inside Information: Non-public knowledge about a company possessed by its officers, major owners, or other individuals with privileged access to information.

Insider Trading: The illegal use of non-public information about a company to make profitable securities transactions

Intrinsic Value: The difference of the exercise price over the market price of the underlying asset.

Investment: A vehicle for funds expected to increase its value and/or generate positive returns.

Investment Adviser: A person who carries on a business which provides investment advice with respect to securities and is registered with the relevant regulator as an investment adviser.

IPO price: The price of share set before being traded on the stock exchange. Once the company has gone Initial Public Offering, the stock price is determined by supply and demand.

Junk Bond: High-risk securities that have received low ratings (i.e. Standard & Poor’s BBB rating or below; or Moody’s BBB rating or below) and as such, produce high yields, so long as they do not go into default.

Leverage Ratio: Financial ratios that measure the amount of debt being used to support operations and the ability of the firm to service its debt.

Libor: The London Interbank Offered Rate (or LIBOR) is a daily reference rate based on the interest rates at which banks offer to lend unsecured funds to other banks in the London wholesale money market (or interbank market). The LIBOR rate is published daily by the British Banker’s Association and will be slightly higher than the London Interbank Bid Rate (LIBID), the rate at which banks are prepared to accept deposits.

Limit Order: An order to buy (sell) securities which specifies the highest (lowest) price at which the order is to be transacted.

Limited Company: The passive investors in a partnership, who supply most of the capital and have liability limited to the amount of their capital contributions.

Liquidity: The ability to convert an investment into cash quickly and with little or no loss in value.

Listing: Quotation of the Initial Public Offering company’s shares on the stock exchange for public trading.

Listing Date: The date on which Initial Public Offering stocks are first traded on the stock exchange by the public

Margin Call: A notice to a client that it must provide money to satisfy a minimum margin requirement set by an Exchange or by a bank / broking firm.

Market Capitalization: The product of the number of the company’s outstanding ordinary shares and the market price of each share.

Market Maker: A dealer who maintains an inventory in one or more stocks and undertakes to make continuous two-sided quotes.

Market Order: An order to buy or an order to sell securities which is to be executed at the prevailing market price.

Money Market: Market in which short-term securities are bought and sold.

Mutual Fund: A company that invests in and professionally manages a diversified portfolio of securities and sells shares of the portfolio to investors.

Net Asset Value: The underlying value of a share of stock in a particular mutual fund; also used with preferred stock.

Offer for Sale: An offer to the public by, or on behalf of, the holders of securities already in issue.

Offer for Subscription: The offer of new securities to the public by the issuer or by someone on behalf of the issuer.

Open-end (Mutual) Fund: There is no limit to the number of shares the fund can issue. The fund issues new shares of stock and fills the purchase order with those new shares. Investors buy their shares from, and sell them back to, the mutual fund itself. The share prices are determined by their net asset value.

Open Offer: An offer to current holders of securities to subscribe for securities whether or not in proportion to their existing holdings.

Option: A security that gives the holder the right to buy or sell a certain amount of an underlying financial asset at a specified price for a specified period of time.

Oversubscribed: When an Initial Public Offering has more applications than actual shares available. Investors will often apply for more shares than required in anticipation of only receiving a fraction of the requested number. Investors and underwriters will often look to see if an IPO is oversubscribed as an indication of the public’s perception of the business potential of the IPO company.

Par Bond: A bond selling at par (i.e. at its face value).

Par Value: The face value of a security.

Perpetual Bonds: Bonds which have no maturity date.

Placing: Obtaining subscriptions for, or the sale of, primary market, where the new securities of issuing companies are initially sold.

Portfolio: A collection of investment vehicles assembled to meet one or more investment goals.

Preference Shares: A corporate security that pays a fixed dividend each period. It is senior to ordinary shares but junior to bonds in its claims on corporate income and assets in case of bankruptcy.

Premium (Warrants): The difference of the market price of a warrant over its intrinsic value.

Premium Bond: Bond selling above par.

Present Value: The amount to which a future deposit will discount back to present when it is depreciated in an account paying compound interest.

Present Value of an Annuity: The amount to which a stream of equal cash flows that occur in equal intervals will discount back to present when it is depreciated in an account paying compound interest.

Price/Earnings Ratio (P/E): The measure to determine how the market is pricing the company’s common stock. The price/earnings (P/E) ratio relates the company’s earnings per share (EPS) to the market price of its stock.

Privatization: The sale of government-owned equity in nationalized industry or other commercial enterprises to private investors.

Prospectus: A detailed report published by the Initial Public Offering company, which includes all terms and conditions, application procedures, IPO prices etc, for the IPO

Put Option: The right to sell the underlying securities at a specified exercise price on of before a specified expiration date.

Rate of Return: A percentage showing the amount of investment gain or loss against the initial investment.

Real Interest Rate: The net interest rate over the inflation rate. The growth rate of purchasing power derived from an investment.

Redemption Value: The value of a bond when redeemed.

Reinvestment Value: The rate at which an investor assumes interest payments made on a bond which can be reinvested over the life of that security.

Relative Strength Index (RSI): A stock’s price that changes over a period of time relative to that of a market index such as the Standard & Poor’s 500, usually measured on a scale from 1 to 100, 1 being the worst and 100 being the best.

Repurchase Agreement: An arrangement in which a security is sold and later bought back at an agreed price and time.

Resistance Level: A price at which sellers consistently outnumber buyers, preventing further price rises.

Return: Amount of investment gain or loss.

Rights Issue: An offer by way of rights to current holders of securities that allows them to subscribe for securities in proportion to their existing holdings.

Risk-Averse, Risk-Neutral, Risk-Taking:
Risk-averse describes an investor who requires greater return in exchange for greater risk.
Risk-neutral describes an investor who does not require greater return in exchange for greater risk.
Risk-taking describes an investor who will accept a lower return in exchange for greater risk.

Senior Bond: A bond that has priority over other bonds in claiming assets and dividends.

Short Hedge: A transaction that protects the value of an asset held by taking a short position in a futures contract.

Settlement: Conclusion of a securities transaction when a customer pays a broker/dealer for securities purchased or delivered, securities sold, and receives from the broker the proceeds of a sale.

Short Position: Investors sell securities in the hope that they will decrease in value and can be bought at a later date for profit.

Short Selling: The sale of borrowed securities, their eventual repurchase by the short seller at a lower price and their return to the lender.

Speculation: The process of buying investment vehicles in which the future value and level of expected earnings are highly uncertain.

Stock Splits: Wholesale changes in the number of shares. For example, a two for one split doubles the number of shares but does not change the share capital.

Subordinated Bond: An issue that ranks after secured debt, debenture, and other bonds, and after some general creditors in its claim on assets and earnings. Owners of this kind of bond stand last in line among creditors, but before equity holders, when an issuer fails financially.

Substantial Shareholder: A person acquires an interest in relevant share capital equal to, or exceeding, 10% of the share capital.

Support Level: A price at which buyers consistently outnumber sellers, preventing further price falls.

Technical Analysis: A method of evaluating securities by relying on the assumption that market data, such as charts of price, volume, and open interest, can help predict future (usually short-term) market trends. Contrasted with fundamental analysis which involves the study of financial accounts and other information about the company. (It is an attempt to predict movements in security prices from their trading volume history.)

Time Horizon: The duration of time an investment is intended for.

Trading Rules: Stipulation of parameters for opening and intra-day quotations, permissible spreads according to the prices of securities available for trading and board lot sizes for each security.

Trust Deed: A formal document that creates a trust. It states the purpose and terms of the name of the trustees and beneficiaries.

Underlying Security: The security subject to being purchased or sold upon exercise of the option contract.

Valuation: Process by which an investor determines the worth of a security using risk and return concept.

Warrant: An option for a longer period of time giving the buyer the right to buy a number of shares of common stock in company at a specified price for a specified period of time.

Window Dressing: Financial adjustments made solely for the purpose of accounting presentation, normally at the time of auditing of company accounts.

Yield (Internal rate of Return): The compound annual rate of return earned by an investment

Yield to Maturity: The rate of return yield by a bond held to maturity when both compound interest payments and the investor’s capital gain or loss on the security are taken into account.

Zero Coupon Bond: A bond with no coupon that is sold at a deep discount from par value.

IBPS Prectics Questin Paper Oct 2011

2011-09-28T15:50:00.003+05:30

1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949

2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body

3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies

4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings

5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products

6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks

7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development

8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support

9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks

10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline

11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor

12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits

13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.

14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit

15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee

16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures

17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization

18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances

19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals

20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks

21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions

22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory

23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.

24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement

25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations

26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month

27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts

28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance

29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice

30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.

31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution

32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits

33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs

34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly

35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis

36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)

37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.

38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management

39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan

40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products

41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance

42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing

43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan

45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate

46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.

47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit

48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package

49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance

50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments

51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit

52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects

53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers

54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans

55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company

56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services

57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards

58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal

59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC

60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT

61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting

62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity

63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC

64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182

65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account

66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above

67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee

68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%

69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR

70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.

71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee

72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor

73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15

74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI

75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555

76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note

77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan

78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these

79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits

81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.

82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)

83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.

84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one

85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC

86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks

87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.

88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit

89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI

90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit

91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control

92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system

93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate

94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969

95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank

96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent

97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government

98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate

99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores

100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad

Answers

1) d 2) c 3) d 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) d 9) a 10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d

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2011-09-20T22:27:00.003+05:30

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IBPS CLERKS EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS - SEP 2011

2011-09-20T09:21:00.005+05:30

1. _____Is a program which reproduces itself?
a) Virus
b) Software
c) a and b
d) None

2. ____Viruses that aim at the boot sector of a hard drive are infect-ing a very crucial component of the boot process?
a) File infection virus
b) Boot virus
c) Network virus
d) E-mail virus

3. _____Is the virus that they will attach themselves to EXE files, compressed files like ZIP files and driver files?
a) File infector virus
b) Boot virus
c) Network virus
d) E-mail virus

4. _____Is the virus, which is uniquely created to quickly spread throughout the local area network?
a) File infector virus
b)Boot virus
c) Network virus
d) E-mail virus

5. Which of the following are the main purposes of an operating system?
a) To provide an environment for a computer user to execute programs on a computer hardware in a convenient and efficient manner
b) To allocate separate resources of the computer as needed to solve the problem given
c) Supervision of the executions of user programs to prevent errors and improper use of computer d) All of the above

6. Define acronym 'spooling'?
a) Simultaneous Peripheral Operation On-line
b) Simultaneous Peripheral Operation Off-line
c) Simultaneous Peripheral Organization On-line
d) System Peripheral Operation On-line

7. Several programs are in a memory concurrently; the syste-m switches among the programs for efficient processing and minimal idle time is called____?
a) Multi tasking
b) Multi programming
c) Multi functioning
d) None of the above

8. ____ Is the using scheduling and multiprogramming to provide an economical interactive system of two or more users?
a) Time sharing
b)Time changing
c) Processing
d) None

9. ____Is a system with two or more central processing units?
a) No definition
b) Multi processor
c) Double processor
d) None

10. ____ Is the system where fast response is desirable, but not required?
a) Real time systems
b) Time sharing systems
c) a and b
d) None

11. ____Is the system where processing must be completed with in certain time constraints appropriate for the system?
a) Real time systems
b) Time sharing systems
c) a and b
d) None

12. ____Is the smallest block that can be read or written on a disk?
a) Sector
b) Track
c) Disk
d) None of the above

13. ____Is the collection of sectors all as same circumference on a single surface?
a) Track
b) Sector
c) Disk
d) None of the above

14. ____Is the time interval when a process uses Central Processing Unit only?
a) CPU burst
b) I/O burst
c) (a)And(b)
d) Either (a)or(b)

15. ____Is the time interval when a process uses I/O devices only?
a) CPU burst
b) I/O burst
c) (a)And(b)
d) Either (a)or(b)

16. ____Is simply consists of one or more attributes that determine other attributes?
a) Lock
b) Database
c) Key
d) None of the above

17. Be unique is the characteristic of the ____key?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Foreign
d) Candidate

18. A unique key can uniquely identify each ____ in a table?
a) Field
b) Row
c) File
d) Database

19. ____Is a database that treats all of its data as a collection of relations?
a) Relational database
b) Rational database
c) a and b
d) None

20. ____Is the precise set of instructions that describes how to perform a specific tasks?
a) Algorithm
b) Graph
c) Pie chart
d) None of the above

21. Which of the following is a programming language?
a) MS-Word
b) C++
c) Access
d) Power point

22. ____Is the process of writing the programs is commonly called?
a) Software
b) Coding
c) Debugging
d) None

23. ____Is the special program that converts programming language instructions into machine level instructions?
a) Modem
b) Central Processing Unit
c) Compiler
d)None of the above

24. After the program has been complied, the resulting set of instructions is called?
a) Final result
b) Information
c) Executable code
d) Source code

25. Which of the following is presen-tation application software?
a) MS-Power point
b) MS-Word
c) MS-Excel
d) MS-Access

26. ____Is a specific combination of a microprocessor family and an operating system?
a) Platform
b) Operating system
c) Central Processing Unit
d) None of the above

27. ____Platform comprises a windows operating system and an intel or intel compatible microprocessor?
a) Wintel
b) Macintosh
c) Normal platform
d) Java platform

28. Application software is?
a) System specific
b) User specific
c) Platform specific
d) None

29. An operating system runs multiple applications simultan-eously known as?
a) Multi tasking
b) Multi programming
c) Programming
d) None of the above

30. Which of the following language use interpreter?
a) C++
b) COBOL
c) BASIC
d) All of the above

31. ____Is a database program that stores information that can be manipulated, stored and filtered to meet your specific needs?
a) Access
b) Power point
c) Excel
d) None of the above

32. ____Creates multimedia presen-tations to display information in a graphical format?
a) Access
b) Power point
c) Excel
d) None of the above

33. ____Allows you develop spreadsheets that display data in various tabular and visual formats?
a) Access b) Power point
c) Excel
d) None of the above

34. FORTRAN is?
a) Formula translation
b) Formula generation
c) Format generation
d) Format translation

35. EEPROM stands for?
a) Electrically Erasable Program-mable Read Only Memory
b) Electrically Erasable Program-mable Run Only Memory
c) Electrically Efficiently Progr-ammed Read Only Memory
d) Efficiently Erasable Program-mable Read Only Memory

36. ____Generation computers are very big in size with less memory
a) Third Generation?
b) Fourth Generation
c) First Generation
d) Fifth Generation

37. EBCDIC stands for?
a) Extended Binary Cut Decimal Interchange Code
b) Extended Binary Coded Dedicated Interchange Code
c) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Inner Code
d) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

38. Computer can do every thing except?
a) Processing
b) Storing
c) Analyzing
d) Own decisions

39. ____Is a data model in which the data is organized into a tree like structure?
a) Hierarchical database model
b) Sequential model
c) Dimensional model
d) None

40. SQL stands for?
a) Structured Quest Language
b) System Query Language
c) Structured Query Language
d) Standard Query Language

Answers:
1) a 2) b 3) a 4) c 5) d 6) a 7) b 8) a 9) b 10) b 11) a 12) a 13) a 14) a 15) b
16) c 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) a 21) b 22) b 23) c 24) c 25) a 26) a 27) a 28) c 29) a 30) c
31) a 32) b 33) c 34) a 35) a 36) c 37) d 38) d 39) a 40) c

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011

2011-09-20T09:07:00.001+05:30

General Awareness
(Exam Held on 17-4-2011)

1. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of Free Trade Agreement, India has done with many countries ?
1. To provide support to entrepreneurs for setting up new projects in tiny/SSI sector.
2. For undertaking expansion of business.
3. To support technology up-gradation.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organisations issue the rules of global trade ?
(A) World Bank
(B) World Trade Organisation
(C) Foreign Exchange Dealers’ Association
(D) Directorate General and Foreign Trade
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. One single statement that depicts the financial position of a bank and/or business enterprise at a given point of time is called—
(A) Statement of product details
(B) Reconciliation Statement
(C) Balance Sheet
(D) Quarterly returns submitted to RBI
(E) Trading and manufacturing account
Ans : (C)

4. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates ?
(A) Reverse Repo Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) CRR
(E) Savings Rate
Ans : (B)

5. The Reverse mortgage scheme is launched to give benefit to which of the following groups of society ?
(A) Govt. employees
(B) Senior Citizens
(C) Unemployed youth
(D) War widows
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. What does the letter ‘M’ depict in the term SME as used in the financial world ?
(A) Maximum
(B) Medium
(C) Mercantile
(D) Mutual
(E) Ministry
Ans : (B)

7. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is deliberate efforts of some people to bring money earned through illegal activities in circulation. Which of the following acts is passed to prevent this activity ?
(A) Payment & Settlements Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) Prevention of Money laundering Act
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following organizations provides guarantee to the exporters ?
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
(C) Director General Foreign Trade
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) Registrar of companies
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Credit
(B) Rate
(C) Financial Status
(D) Discount
(E) Absolute zero
Ans : (E)

10. What is the full form of IRR as used in banking/financial sectors ?
(A) Internal Rate of Return
(B) Internal Revaluation Reserve
(C) Investment Reserve Ratio
(D) Internal Risk Return
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following organisations provides credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) ARCIL
(C) SEBI
(D) RBI
(E) CCIL
Ans : (A)

12. Banks need liquidity to meet which of the following objectives of banking ?
1.Meet deposit withdrawal
2.Fund loan demands
3.Maintain public confidence
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

13. According to latest Economic Survey, which of the following sectors will provide largest share to Indian economy in the days to come?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Exports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following group represents key industries ?
1. Crude oil, electricity
2. Petroleum refining and finished steel
3. Cement and coal
(A) Only group 1
(B) Only group 2
(C) Only groups 1 and 2
(D) Only group 3
(E) All groups 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is covered in the list of services for service tax purposes ?
1. Insurance/health services
2. Hotel accommodation/air travel services
3. Money changers/legal services
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following agencies is providing Unique Identity Cards to all Indian Residents ?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Ministry Foreign Affairs
(C) Govt. of Maharashtra
(D) Border Secutiry Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following banks ?
(A) Yes Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Citigroup
(D) HSBC
(E) State Bank of India
Ans : (C)

18. Banks make frequent changes in their product profile including introduction of new products etc. This is called—
(A) Product Control
(B) Product enhancement
(C) Product marketing
(D) Product enrichment
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Banking and financial services, all over the world, are regulated usually by Monetary Authority of the land. Who controls this function in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) IRDA
(E) FEDAI
Ans : (C)

20. As per guidelines of the RBI, banks are to provide appropriate banking facilities to habitations having population in excess of 2000 by which year ?
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. Which one of the following is the target fixed for maintaining fiscal deficit in the Union Budget of India ?
(A) 4•6 per cent of total budget
(B) 4•6 per cent of GDP
(C) 3•6 per cent of total budget
(D) 3•6 per cent of GDP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. FIMMDA stands for—
(A) Foreign Investment Markets & Derivatives Market Association
(B) Fixed Income Money Markets and Derivatives Association
(C) Fixed Income and Money Market Development Association
(D) Floating Income and Money Markets Derivative Assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

23. On which one of the following issues, a group of top business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed their concern to the Govt. of India ?
(A) Corporate Governance
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Inflation
(D) Governance deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Nobel Laureate Muhammed Yunus belongs to which one of the following countries ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Who is the author of the book ‘Darkness At Noon’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arthur Koestler
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. For which one of the following purposes, Mega Food Parks scheme was introduced by the Government of India ?
(A) To provide better price to farmers
(B) To improve the productivity of food crops
(C) To control the prices of food items
(D) To avoid wastage of fruits and vegetables stored for export
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following terms is not used in banking ?
(A) Debit Card
(B) Credit Card
(C) Kisan Card
(D) ELISA Test
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following is the reason, owing to which Government charges export duty on some export items ?
(A) It is to get benefit of high international prices
(B) To improve the tax collection targets
(C) It is as per international practices
(D) To ensure the smooth availability of the items in India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. Pipavav Port is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Gujarat
(E) West Bengal
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of our monetary policy ?
1. Anchor inflation expectations
2. Actively manage liquidity
3. Maintain interest rate regime consistent with price output and financial stability
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. With which one of the following fields was Pandit Bhimsen Joshi associated ?
(A) Dance
(B) Music
(C) Short-story writing
(D) Novels
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. For which of the following purposes, RBI has constituted a Working Group with Shri Deepak Mohanty as Chairman ?
(A) Deregulation of primary markets
(B) Deregulation of secondary markets
(C) Deregulation of Savings Bank Rates
(D) Introduction of Base Rate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Who is Kapil Sibal ?
(A) Coal Minister of India
(B) Civil Aviation Minister of India
(C) Telecom Minister of India
(D) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Which of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IBA
(C) RBI
(D) SBI
(E) NABARD
Ans : (E)

35. Colonel Muammar al Gaddafi is associated with which one of the following countries ?
(A) Libya
(B) Beharin
(C) Yemen
(D) Tunisia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. What is Gross Domestic Product ?
(A) It is the cost of production of all final goods and services made in the country
(B) It is the cost of services made within the borders of a country in a year
(C) It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country
(D) It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Power ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Uranium
(D) Copper
(E) Barium
Ans : (C)

38. In which one of the following States, India’s first Islamic Bank is proposed to be set up ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. In which one of the following States, Niyamgiri Bauxite Mining Project is proposed to be set ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
(E) Chhattisgarh
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Demand and Supply
(B) Ad Valoram Tax
(C) Break even
(D) HIV positive
(E) Cost benefit analysis
Ans : (D)

41. For which one of the following reasons Finance Minister denied entry of NRI funds for infra bonds ?
(A) It will bring in more liquidity in the country
(B) NRIs can withdraw their funds any time
(C) It will bring interest burden on the country
(D) It could lead to losses at the time of redemption because of fluctuations in the Indian Currency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. What is ‘financial inclusion’ ?
1. Easy access to bank accounts for safe parking of savings
2. Availability of cheap credits through appropriately designed loans for poor and low income households and small entrepreneurs
3. Availability of basic financial products like insurance
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

43. According to the Securities and Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill 2010, who amongst the following will be Vice-Chairman of joint commission to resolve differences amongst the financial regulators ?
(A) Finance Minsiter, GOI
(B) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
(C) SEBI Chairman
(D) Chairman, Central Vigilance Commission
(E) RBI, Governor
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following terms is used in Economics ?
(A) Keynesian
(B) Adsorption
(C) Affinity Matrix
(D) Gene Flow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

45. Which one of the following is the directive given to the Govt. of India in the Financial Stability Report submitted to it ?
(A) Focus on financial consistency
(B) To reduce fiscal deficit
(C) To ensure GDP growth
(D) To reduce revenue deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. In which one of the following States, Jangi-Thopon and Thopon-Powari Power Projects are proposed to be set up ?
(A) J & K
(B) H. P.
(C) U. P.
(D) Manipur
(E) Meghalaya
Ans : (B)

47. Which one of the following is the proposal under the Food Security Law ?
(A) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(B) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(C) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(D) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following are key policy rates used by RBI to influence interest rates ?
1. Bank Rate/the Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. CRR/SLR
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) Both 1 and 3
Ans : (C)

49. For giving cooking gas connection to poor families, which of the following one time subvention (in rupees) will be provided by the Planning Commission ?
(A) 500
(B) 600
(C) 750
(D) 1000
(E) 1400
Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following rates signal the RBI’s long term out-look on interest rates ?
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reverse Repo Rate
(C) Bank Rate
(D) SLR
(E) CRR
Ans : (C)

51. What do you understand by ‘Para Banking’ services ?
(A) Eligible financial services rendered by banks
(B) Utility services provided by banks
(C) Services provided through business correspondents
(D) Services provided to armed force personnel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

52. For which one of the following reasons, the Steel Ministry wants complete ban on export of iron ore from India ?
(A) The price of iron ore exports is not competitive
(B) The iron ore exports do not provide any value addition to exports
(C) The prices of iron ore are high and as such the exports of the ore should be banned
(D) Iron ore is a non-renewable resource like coal and petroleum products, hence it should be preserved
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

53. What is a cross Border Exchange ?
(A) Trading of foreign currency in India
(B) Trading of Indian rupee in exchange of other currencies/ goods
(C) Hawala transactions in Indian Rupee
(D) Unauthorized remittance of Indian Rupee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

54. What is Cartosat-2B ?
(A) It is an advanced remote sensing statellite built by ISRO
(B) It is a warhead developed by DRDO
(C) It is an educational project launched by UGC
(D) It is an advanced computer developed by IIT Kanpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

55. For which one of the following reasons RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter policy reviews ?
1. To realign its policies
2. To take steps and ensure smooth flow of credit
3. To provide guidance to the economy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following is the objective of Financial Stability and Development Council ?
(A) To address inter-regulatory issues only
(B) To focus on financial literacy only
(C) To focus on financial inclusion only
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A) , (B) and (C)
Ans : (C)

57. For which one of the following reasons has the Planning Com-mission decided to convert itself into a system Reforms Commission ?
(A) It is to make people to people contact
(B) It is to understand the problems of people
(C) It is to review the implementation of its policies
(D) It is aimed at changing economic profile of the country
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

58. Which one of the following sectors in India has attracted highest amount of Foreign Direct Investment during 2009-10 ?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Construction
(C) Wholesale and Retail Trade
(D) Financial Insurance, Real Estate
(E) Civil Aviation
Ans : (B)

59. Which of the following is/are a renewable source of energy ?
1. Wind
2.Solar
3. Thermal
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (E)

60. Expand the term SWIFT—
(A) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Telecommunications
(B) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Financial Telecommunications
(C) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Transfers
(D) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Fiscal Transactions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

61. For which one of the following reasons. NABARD has set up joint liability groups (JLG) of farmers ?
(A) To facilitate delivery of credit to farmers
(B) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through informal sources
(C) To facilitate better delivery of credit to share croppers and those who do not have their own land
(D) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through Panchayats
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

62. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Holding Company
(B) Post dated cheque
(C) Credit
(D) Time deposit
(E) Centripetal force
Ans : (E)

63. What is the extent of claim that can be entertained by a Lok Adalat ?
(A) Up to lakhs
(B) Up to 10 lakhs
(C) Up to 20 lakhs
(D) Up to 50 lakhs
(E) No limit
Ans : (A)

64. ‘ASHA’ is a scheme for providing which of the following services to the people in India ?
(A) Health Service
(B) Clean water
(C) Primary Education
(D) Employment for 100 days
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

65. Some private organizations are running e-choupals, to help which of the following section of society ?
(A) Farmers
(B) Small businessman
(C) Cooperative Credit Societies
(D) School-going children
(E) Unemployed youth
Ans : (A)

66. Which is the currency of U.A.E. ?
(A) Dirham
(B) Dinar
(C) Dollar
(D) Taka
(E) Pound Sterling
Ans : (A)

67. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A bend in the River’ ?
(A) Chetan Bhagat
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Anita Desai
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following terms is used in game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Scoop
(C) LBW
(D) Tee
(E) Back-hand drive
Ans : (C)

69. Which one of the following was India’s per cent GDP growth during 2009-10 ?
(A) 6•7
(B) 9•2
(C) 7•4
(D) 9•7
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

70. Which one of the following countries in Europe is facing financial crisis ?
(A) Ireland
(B) Portugal
(C) Rumania
(D) Hungary
(E) France
Ans : (D)

71. Which of the following schemes is launched for school children ?
(A) Rajlakshmi
(B) Kutir Jyoti
(C) Mid Day Meal
(D) Swajal Dhara
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

72. Loans of small or very small amounts given to low income group people are known as—
(A) Investment Loans
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Savings Loan
(D) Secured Loans
(E) Cash Credit Loans
Ans : (B)

73. Which of the following is the Central Bank of U.S.A. ?
(A) Federation of Banks in U.S.A.
(B) Citigroup U.S.A.
(C) Bank of America
(D) Central Bank of U.S.A.
(E) Federal Reserve System
Ans : (E)

74. Which one of the following countries was second biggest net importer of goods and services in the year 2009 ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Germany
(E) Russia
Ans : (B)

75. The activity of purchasing shares of various companies is called—
(A) On-line Trading
(B) Share Trading
(C) Real estate investment
(D) Corporate Trading
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

CAREER MAKERS SEPTEMBAR 2011

2011-09-19T15:56:00.003+05:30

to Download click here

POST EXAM DISCUSSION FOR CWE IBPS

2011-09-18T19:06:00.002+05:30

PLEASE WRITE WHAT IS YOUR ATTEMPT IN CWE PO.

CWE PO - DESCRIPTIVE PAPER - MODEL ONE

2011-09-15T15:18:00.006+05:30

CWE PO - DESCRIPTIVE PAPER - MODEL ONE (please like our blog with facebook like)

1)Please enter your email id in the "Follow by mail" counter. 2) Introduce this blog to your friends. 3) Please download the contents on to your PC/laptop and store. 4) Hindi version can be had by searching in google.co.in in Hindi. 5) Search different topics like Bank related general awareness, computer awareness, QA, Reasoning, English in the blog using labels. Also common searches like CWE PO, CWE CLERKS will get you many blogs. Best wishes.

COMMON WRITTEN EXAMINATION – BANK PO (SEPTEMBER 2011)--MODEL ONE

TIME : 60 MINUTES
DESCRIPTIVE PAPER

1. Write an essay on any one of the topics in about 500 words:
a) High population level is helping China and India to show progress in their economy.
b) Why I prefer a Bank job.
c) In spite of advancement of technology there is scope for improving customer service in Banking.
d) Savings habit helps families and the nation.
e) Infrastructure is the key for achieving a Nation's progress.
f) Advantages of cell phones as compared to disadvantages in the use of them.

2. Write a letter to your Bank Manager complaining about the rude treatment given to you by Mr. Asokan, Deputy Manager when you requested him for allotting a locker to you.
OR
Write a letter to the Head Office of your Bank praising the quality of service rendered by you branch since your opening a current account for your business with them about six months ago.

OR
Write a letter to your elder brother from the town in which you have just joined a new appointment describing the interesting features of the town, of the people with whom you are associated and of the work you are required to do.

OR

Write a letter as Manager of a Bank to a leading limited company dealing in construction business requesting them to open their current account with your Bank. Explain the nature of service you will be able to render to attract their account.

3. Write a precis of the following passage in one third of its length. Give a suitable title. (Strike out the draft after making fair copy)

While it is fascinating to try and understand animals in the wild, interacting with domestic animals, especially pets, can be delightfully enlightening. I will never forget the message conveyed to me by a little wild creature. I had reared a baby squirrel with a mind of her own. Once, intent on studying the construction of her teeth, I cupped her tiny body in the palm of my hand, held her head gently between my fingers, and tried to force open her jaw with my other hand. A polite paw pushed my hand away. I tried again, this time restricting her paw. Her other paw broke free, and she pushed my hand away a second time, this time, more emphatically. Refusing to acknowledge her unwillingness, I moved my hand towards her mouth once more – and this time she freed both her paws and clapped them over her month; a move that made it impossible for me to open her month-and left me stumped, amazed and chuckling with delight at her ingenuity! My baby squirrel had conveyed exactly what she felt; Leave my mouth alone, won’t you? Can’t you understand when I tell you politely? A little more complicated than the message sent by the thundering elephant – but just as clear!

The complexity of man – animal communication is probably a factor of not just the intelligence of the animal, but also the level of intimacy between the animal and the human. Our five-year-old mastiff understands that when visitors are present, he is not to enter the living room. One night, however, he stood persistently at the door, disregarding my husband’s commands to go out, repeatedly trying to attract my attention.

While hosts and guests pretended he didn’t exist and we all tried hard to ignore him, the dog drew increasingly uncomfortable, till suddenly, he walked in straight to me, refusing to look at my husband, apology in every step for having dared to disobey him. With all eyes riveted on him, he sat down on his haunches in front of me, eyes imploring. When I still did not understand, he shoved his muzzle into my palm, shaking his head so as to move my hand. And then it clicked – we had forgotten to feed him.!

Every single person present in the room understood what he was saying. “I am sorry to disobey you, but I’m terribly hungry and can I have my dinner please?”. The interesting thing is that he was communicating two different messages to two different people at the same time.

Animals of higher intelligence are also capable of understanding messages at a symbolic level-an ability often thought to be the preserve of human beings. Consider this story that was narrated to me some years ago; of a mahout in Kerala who, wanting to take a dip in the river, pulled up a long blade of grass, and tied it like a chain round his elephant’s leg. The gentle giant understood what was required of him, and obliged the master by allowing himself to be restrained by the symbolic chain.

Animals, in fact, often understood far more than we wish to communicate, since their understanding is based on non-verbal signals which are often very revealing. Like children, animals too pick up negative and positive ‘vibes’ – of anger, fear, dislike or of affection and kindness. Dogs and horses, specially, also seem to know when their masters are unwell or depressed, and go out of their way to show that they care.

In the wild, however, the scenario is different. While wild animals certainly pick up non-verbal cues from us, in the main, they do not volunteer to communicate with humans except when it is absolutely necessary. This is largely due to two seemingly contradictory reasons. One, man has isolated himself to such an extent that he is no longer an integral part of an interdependent biosphere. Two, he is a predator who preys on both carnivores and herbivores, and is a threat to practically every other species. For these reasons, wild animals avoid us whenever possible, and interaction with human beings threaten them or their young when we are threatened by them or when we observe them for work or for pleasure.

It is a sad commentary on the reputation of Nature’s most intelligent animals, that as a race, the only message we have effectively communicated to most of the natural world are those of threat, dominance, destruction and death. As creatures of superior intelligence who are now beginning to understand that our survival is dependent on theirs, it is imperative that we change this attitude. The moot point is, even if we succeed, how long will it take to reverse generations of signals sent by the old enemy, Man? Will it be possible, one day, to communicate to animals that we mean no harm and would like to be friends?

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I am posting Paper 2 also here because many candidate fail to notice this

COMMON WRITTEN EXAMINATION – BANK PO (SEPTEMBER 2011)--MODEL TWO

TIME : 60 MINUTES
DESCRIPTIVE PAPER

1. Write an essay on any one of the topics in about 500 words:
A) Opening up of banking sector for more leading private companies.
B) Gains made on account of Bank Nationalization
C) Monetary measures for reducing inflationary trend and its results
D) Banks in every day life of a common man.
E) Impact of media on our daily life.

2. You are Branch Manager of a Bank. Write a letter to Head office recommending installation of ATMs in your Office premises and also in the Extension counter in an Engineering college. Elaborate the progress your branch will be making on account of this move.
OR

You are the Chairman of local Business Establishments Committee. Write a letter to the Manger of local Bank branch requesting that banks' working hours should be increased by one hour in the evening to facilitate depositing of cash by your members into their account. Give additional reasons justifying your request.
OR
Your friend has been attending bank interviews for the last two years. He did not get selected in his fourth interview for which results were announced recently. He is feeling dejected. Write a letter to him in 150 words suggesting that if he prepares well for the future exams he will succeed.

3. . Write a precis of the following passage in one third of its length. Give a suitable title. (Strike out the draft after making fair copy)

An old tailor and his wife lived on the outskirts of a city. They had a daughter whom they both loved very much and as she was about to be married they took great pains to save money. The man toiled for long hours and his wife worked too. With the money they saved they purchased a few ornaments and kept them in a small wooden box for safekeeping. One day their hut caught fire. The man and his wife escaped just in time but the fire spread rapidly and soon engulfed the whole house. The neighbours soon gathered around and would not allow the man to risk his life and enter the house to save the precious ornaments. They drew water from nearby wells to pour onto the fire. A young traveller saw the poor man in tears and said, “Why are you so upset? Your house can soon be rebuilt.” “It is not my house that I am shedding tears for”, the tailor replied, “But the ornaments that we have bought for our daughter. Now we shall not be able to give her the wedding gift we worked so hard for!” The traveller thought for a while and seeing the plight of the poor man decided to help, but for a price. “I will help you on condition that I will give you only what I like.” The poor man was so desperate to salvage a few of the ornaments at least that he agreed.

The young man entered the house carefully and located the box hidden exactly where the old man had said it would be. He came out of the house with the box, opened it, removed the ornaments and returned the box to the tailor. The old man was bewildered. “But the ornaments are mine. Why have you done this?” the tailor asked. “I agreed to give you what I liked and so I have given you the box”, the young man retorted cheekily. The neighbours were annoyed with the young man but could think of no solution. The old man had agreed to the condition after all. But his wife intervened, “Let us go to the magistrate. He is a just man. Surely he will find a solution.” The young man was not willing to go to the magistrate but the neighbours insisted. When he heard the story the magistrate realised the young man had taken advantage of the poor tailor. “You told the tailor that you would give him what you liked and he agreed, is that correct?” he asked. “Yes. I will give you what I like were my exact words”, the young man replied. “Do you like the ornaments?” the magistrate questioned. “Yes of course!” “Well as you like the ornaments you have to give them back to the old man as was agreed between you.” The young man realised that he had been outwitted.

Descriptive Paper for CWE IBPS PO EXAM

2011-09-15T15:15:00.003+05:30

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BANKING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS - 2011

2011-09-09T18:30:00.002+05:30

1. R.B.I. has introduced a new series of 'Star' bank note. And that will be issued in denominations of?
Ans: Rs. 10, Rs. 20, Rs. 50

2. From which organisation RBI has bought 200 tonnes of gold?
Ans: International Monitory Fund

3. In India which is the biggest commercial bank in public sector?
Ans: State bank of India

4. Differential rate of interest scheme was introduced in which year?
Ans: 1972

5. From which date banks were allowed free to fix base rates by RBI?
Ans: April 1, 2011

6. Foreign Direct Investment limit in private sector banks is?
Ans: 74 percent

7. Chairman of the parliamentary committee on agricultural finance and credit flow?
Ans: N. Janardhan Reddy

8. First chairman of the private sector banks association is?
Ans: P.N. Joshi

9. RBI introduced Banking Ombudsman scheme in which year?
Ans: 1995

10. The proportion of Non-Banking financial companies assets in the total assets of the financial system?
Ans: 11 percent

11. Under which Act Local area banks can be established by private promoters?
Ans: Company Act - 1956

12. The RBI (Amendment) Bill 2005 related to?
Ans: Provide operational flexibility to central bank to fix SLR and CRR for different banks

13. Who is the chairman of the working group constituted by RBI to provide suggestions on regulating loans to organised sector?
Ans: S.C. Gupta

14. Monetary policy is a policy adopted by?
Ans: Reserve Bank of India

15. At the liquidity trap which will be very low?
Ans: The rate of interest

16. Interest rate policy is a part of which policy?
Ans: Monetary policy

17. Which is not an instrument of monetary policy?
Ans: Import duty

18. Financial market department was set up in RBI in?
Ans: July, 2005

19. Dena bank was established in?
Ans: July 19, 1969

20. With which bank on September 4, 1993, new bank of India was merged?
Ans: Punjab National Bank

21. Number of deputy Governors in RBI?
Ans: Four

22. Ways and means Advances was in force since?
Ans: 1977, April 1

23. The main function of NABARD?
Ans: Provide refinancing facility

24. In which circumstance Dear money policy will be adopted by Reserve Bank of India?
Ans: Inflation

25. Through which instrument recently RBI has decided to buy upto 12000 crore of Govt. bonds?
Ans: Open market

26. Name of the organisation that was established by State Bank of India for buying and selling the Govt. securities?
Ans: SBI Gilts limited

27. Stagflation refers to?
Ans: Inflation with recession

28. Growth in M0 (Reserve money) during 2009-10 was?
Ans: 17 percent

29. Growth in M1 (Narrow money) during 2009-10 was?
Ans: 18.6 percent

30. Which committee recommended the measurements like M0, M1, M2 and M3?
Ans: Y.V. Reddy committee

31. Growth in M3 during 2009-10 was?
Ans: 16.8 percent.

32. Greshnam's law states?
Ans: Bad money drives good money out of circulation

33. Time deposits with banks are included in which measures of money stock?
Ans: M3 and M4

34. The RBI can increase the demand deposit component of the money supply by?
Ans: Lowering reserve requirements and increasing the volume of reserves

35. Financiary issue implies?
Ans: The issue of currency notes without metallic banking

36. Open market operations means sale or purchase in the open market of?
Ans: Government Securities

37. In an economy high-powered money is equal to?
Ans: Monetary liabilities of Central Bank and Government money

38. Saving deposits are not a part of money stock measure M1 because?
Ans: They are not used as medium of exchange

39. Which factor does not affect the balance sheet of Reserve Bank of India?
Ans: Loan taken by one commercial bank from the other

40. The most liquid of all assets is?
Ans: Money

41. If Reserve Bank of India raises the Cash Reserve Ratio then?
Ans: The value of money multiplier decreases

42. Other things being equal, an increase in the supply of money?
Ans: Lower nominal interest rate and raises aggregate demand

43. The function of World Bank (IBRD) is?
Ans: Promote growth of International trade and equilibrium

44. The supply of money consists of ?
Ans: Notes, Coins and Demand deposits

45. Banking companies (Acquisition and transfer of Undertaking) Act was passed in?
Ans: 1970

46. Fiat money is?
Ans: Which is accepted temporary in lieu of gold

47. A rise in the money supply will lead to?
Ans: A rise in the demand, A rise in price level and a fall in the interest rate

48. CAR refers to?
Ans: Capital Adequacy Ratio

49. International liquidity is regulated by?
Ans: International Monetary Fund

50. A 'Soft Currency' is a currency that?
Ans: Which can not be used for setting international transactions because it does not command a value in the international market

51. General currency area means those nations with which trade takes place in terms of?
Ans: Hard Currencies

52. Euro issue means?
Ans: Bonds, Shares etc issued by Indian firms in European Capital markets

53. Market stabilisation scheme is a scheme aimed at?
Ans: Stabilisation of money supply and price level in the country by absorbing excess liquidity

54. Head quarter of World Bank is located at?
Ans: Washington

55. New issues ratio is defined as?
Ans: Primary issues by non-financial sector or total physical asset formation

56. Central Banking Enquiry committee was set up in?
Ans: 1931

57. Social control on banks was imposed in?
Ans: 1967

58. Bank of Hindustan was established in?
Ans: 1770

59. Presidency bank Act came into existence in?
Ans: 1876

60. Punjab National Bank was setup in 1895 at?
Ans: Lahore

61. Bank of India was set up in?
Ans: 1906

62. US Federal Reserve was established in?
Ans: 1913

63. Agricultural Refinance Corporation of India was set up in?
Ans: 1963

64. District Credit Plans were initiated in?
Ans: 1973

65. The main function of the National Credit Council?
Ans: To assist the Reserve Bank of India and the Government to allocate credit according to plan priorities

66. Reason for announcement of Social control over banks?
Ans: To secure a better alignment of the banking system to the needs of economic policy

67. Differential Rate of interest scheme aims at?
Ans: To cater to the need of the weaker sections of the society and for their upliftment

68. The maximum rate for bank loans was prescribed in addition to the minimum lending rates in?
Ans: 1976

69. Health Code System introduced in 1985 aims at?
Ans: To Strong traning the banking system.

70. At present, How banks have to classify their advances?
Ans: Standard assets, sub-standard assets, doubtful assets and loss assets

71. To strength the capital base of banks which system was introduced for banks including foreign banks in India?
Ans: Capital to - risk - weighted assets ratio

72. A new foreign currency Non-Resident Deposits (Banks) scheme was introduced in?
Ans: 1993 April

73. Income recognition norms were tightened further from march 2004. As per those norms how an asset was classified as non-performing asset?
Ans: If the amount is remained unpaid for a period of 90 days instead of six months earlier

74. Securitisation and Reconstruction of financial Assets and Enforcement of security interest act was enacted in?
Ans: 2002

75. The maximum permissible bank finance was phased out from?
Ans: April 1997

76. The present Repo rate as on 8th of September 2011?
Ans: 8%

77. Allahabad bank was set up in?
Ans: 1865

78. Oriental Bank of commerce was nationalized on?
Ans: April 15, 1980

79. How many million notes are driven out of circulation every year in India is about?
Ans: 5 million

80. Modernised currency notes press are under establishment at?
Ans: mysore and salboni

81. Coins are minted at which places?
Ans: Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Noida

82. RBI has decided to put into circulation coin of Rs. 5 and Rs. 2 with the theme of ?
Ans: XIX common wealth Games 2010 - Delhi

83. The small coins (Offences) Act was enacted in?
Ans: 1971

84. India millennium deposit scheme was launched by?
Ans: State Bank of India

85. Total number of bank branches of nationalized banks as on June 30, 2010?
Ans: 85,591

86. Current Authorisation scheme was introduced in?
Ans: 1965

87. A minimum lending rate was prescribed on all loans, except for the priority sector in?
Ans: 1973

88. Interest rate ceilings on NR & Deposits were linked to LIBOR/SWAP rates in?
Ans: July 2003

89. The evaluation of total operations and performance of the banks was under which system since July 1997?
Ans: CAMELS

90. The branch licensing policy for regional rural banks was rationalized in?
Ans: June 1995

91. The route of merger or amalgamation of RRB's was suggested by?
Ans: V.S.Vyas Committee

92. Expansionary monetary Policy coupled with a contraction of aggregate supply should?
Ans: Cause interest rates to fall in the short run

93. In an inflationary period, the appropriate policy for the Reserve Bank of India would be to?
Ans: Sell Government securities in the open market

94. Policy Initiatives of RBI during the contractionary policy and opted?
Ans: Increasing bank Rate, Increasing the CRR, Buying of Govt. Securities in the Open Market

95. If RBI wants to 'Sterilize' an inflow of foreign exchange, it should?
Ans: Sell Government securities in the Open market

96. An expansionary monetary and fiscal policy shifts?
Ans: Aggregate Demand to the right

97. A liquidity effect occurs under?
Ans: A money supply increase lowers the Rate of interest

98. A liquidity effect will normally result in an income effect because?
Ans: Lower interest rates will increase interest sensitive spending