BANK EXAM QUESTION PAPERS

Nainital Bank Limited Recruitment of Clerks Posts

2015-10-18T10:14:00.001+05:30

Nainital Bank Limited has given a notification for recruitment of 30 Clerk vacancies. Eligible candidates may apply online from 15-10-2015 to 10-11-2015.

Vacancy Details:
Total No of Posts: 30
Name of the Post: Clerk

Age Limit: Candidates age should be between 18-27 years as on 30-09-2015. Age relaxation is applicable as per rules.

Educational Qualification: Candidates should possess Graduation/ Post Graduation with minimum 45% marks and knowledge of Computer Operation.

Selection Process: Candidates will be selected based on written test and interview.

Application Fee: Candidates have to pay Rs. 800/- (Rupees eight hundred only) (Non- Refundable) through NEFT at The Nainital Bank Limited, NTB Recruitment A/C Clerks-2015 by means of a Payment Challan available in the Bank’s website and pay the application fee in NEFT Account No. 0011000000000658, IFSC Code is NTBL0NAI001.

How to Apply: Eligible candidates may apply online through website www.nainitalbank.co.in from 15-10-2015 to 10-11-2015.
Steps of online registration :
Step 1- Open the recruitment/Results page in the Bank’s website www.nainitalbank.co.in
Step 2 - Click on the APPLY NOW link of recruitment in the page.
Step 3 - Click on the Registration button in the top right corner of the page.
Step 4 - Fill your personal details in the page and click submit/next button.
Step 5 - In the next page fill all qualification details, professional details. Submit the data. A provisional registration number and password will be generated by the system and the same shall be sent to the candidate through e-mail of the concerned candidate.
Step 6 - Your Registration is completed.
Step 7 - After making payment of fee through NEFT (only mode of payment of fee), open the link http://www.nainitalbankcareer.com/Login.aspx .
Step 8 - Enter Registration Id, Password in the appropriate boxes, sent by the Bank to the candidates’ e-mail Id and then login.
Step 9 - Enter details of payment of FEE (NEFT) in the payment page carefully such as Transaction No., bank name and date of payment. Then Click Next.
Step 10 - Browse and Select the location where the Scanned Photograph / Signature file has been saved. Select the file by clicking on it. Then Click the ‘Upload’ button. Ensure the Guidelines for scanning and uploading of Photograph & Signature.
Step 11 - After clicking submit, the process of submission of on-line application will be completed and preview of all details will be shown.
Save the page for further references.

Important Dates :
Starting Date of Online Application: 15-10-2015.
Last Date for Submission of Online Application: 10-11-2015.

For more details click the following given link–
Recruitment Adverisement
Click here to Apply Online

Telangana State Co-operative Apex Bank Ltd.Recruitment of 89 Staff Assistant, Managers

2015-08-09T08:46:00.002+05:30

Applications are invited for appointment to the post of Staff Assistant and Manager (Scale –I) for filling up the following vacancies by direct recruitment, through IBPS.

Post Details:
1. Staff Assistant: 73 Posts
2. Manager (Scale-I): 16 Posts

Qualification (as on 01.08.2015): Graduation with 60% aggregate marks or Commerce Graduate with 55% aggregate.
Age (as on 01.08.2015): Above 18 years – Below 28 years i.e. candidates should have been born on or after 02.08.1987, but not later than 01.08.1997.

Selection Procedure: The selection of the candidates shall be made on the basis of the Online Test/ Examination and interview.

Opening date for Online registration of application: 07.08.2015.
Closing date for Online registration of application: 19.08.2015.
Date for Payment of application fee: 17.08.2015 to 19.08.2015.
Tentative date of online test for Manager (Scale-I): 08.09.2015.
Tentative date of online test for Staff Assistant: 10.09.2015.

Website: https://tscab.org/
Online Application: https://tscab.org/index.php/notifications

Sarva UP Gramin Bank Recruitment of 275 Officer & Office Assistant Posts

2015-08-07T08:28:00.001+05:30

Sarva UP Gramin Bank invites applications for the post of Officer in Middle Management Grade (Scale III), Officer in Middle Management Grade (Scale II), Officer in Junior Management (Scale I) Cadre and Office Assistant (Multipurpose) who have been declared qualified at the Online CWE-III for RRBs conducted by IBPS during September 2014.
Post Details:
1. Officer Scale-III: 3 Posts
2. Officer Scale-II (General Banking Officer): 9 Posts
3. Officer Scale-II (IT): 3 Posts
4. Officer Scale-II (Treasury Manager): 1 Post
5. Officer Scale-II (Agricultural Officer): 2 Posts
6. Officer Scale-I: 92 Posts
7. Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 165 Posts

Pre- Requisite Qualifications: Candidates who have been declared qualified in the RRBs-Online CWE conducted by IBPS in September 2014.

How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply online through Bank’s website.

Last Date for Online Registration: 20.08.2015.

Website:http://www.upgb.com/

For Notification Click Here

MARKETING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

2015-07-28T20:43:00.000+05:30

1. The fact that services are sold, produced and consumed at the same time refers to which of the
following service characteristics?
a) Intangibility
b) Inseparability
c) Variability
d) Perishability
e) None of the above

2. Electronic shopping, TV shopping is related with:
a) Advertising
b) Personal Selling
c) Direct Marketing
d) In direct Marketing
e) Personal buying

3. The purpose of which of the following type of advertising is to create repeat purchases?
a) Reminder
b) Reinforcement
c) Persuasive
d) Informative
e) None of the above

4. ______ is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
a) Mass marketing
b) Market segmentation
c) Market targeting
d) Market positioning
e) None of the above

5. The technique of focus on advertising of non-competitive brand with the other brand is called:
a) Cross-promotions
b) Tie-in promotions
c) Premiums
d) All the above
e) None of the above

6. Labelling, packaging are associated with:
a) Price mix
b) Product mix
c) Place mix
d) Promotion mix
e) Cost mix

7. Entry of laggards is in which stage of PLC (Product Life Cycle)?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
e) Fifth

8. ______ factors are the most popular bases for segmenting customer groups.
a) Geographic
b) Demographic
c) Psychographic
d) Behavioural
e) None of the above

9. A method in which various products are combined at the same price is:
a) Promotional pricing
b) Product-bundle pricing
c) Captive product pricing
d) Optional product pricing
e) All the above

10. Differentiation in pricing for various geographical customers:
a) Price skimming
b) Psychological pricing
c) Pricing variations
d) Geographical pricing
e) None of the above

11. According to the American Marketing Association, which of the following is marketing of products that are presumed to be environmentally safe?
a) Gray Marketing
b) Green Marketing
c) Global Marketing
d) Social Marketing
e) Internet Marketing

12. One of the following is not included in the 7 Ps of Marketing. Find the same ______.
a) Placement
b) Price
c) Production
d) Promotion
e) Product

13. Innovation in marketing is same as ______
a) Motivation
b) Perspiration
c) Aspiration
d) Creativity
e) Team work

14. A call marketing terms means?
a) A newly introduced product
b) Territory allocation for salesperson
c) A Call Centers
d) A Sales meeting
e) To visit a prospect

15. Bank ATMs are______
a) Delivery outlets
b) Market plans
c) Personalized Products
d) Tools for overcoming buyers resistance
e) Motivating tools

16. The USP of current account is ______
a) High minimum balance
b) No restrictions on transactions
c) No internet payable
d) Restricted deposits
e) Easy credits

17. The target group for SME Loan is ______
a) All salaried persons
b) Govt. undertakings
c) All entrepreneurs
d) All students
e)All housewives

18. ______ is a principle of enlightened marketing that requires a company seek real product and
marketing improvements.
a) Innovative marketing
b) Consumer-oriented marketing
c) Value marketing
d) Sense-of-mission marketing
e) None of the above

19. NAV is the price of______
a) Entire fund value
b) One unit of a fund
c) Surrender value
d) Average value of shares
e) Dividends paid in a year

20. A Master policy in the case of Life insurance indicates ______
a) Policy is sale
b) Policy is in the name of servant
c) Only one life is assured
d) There are several beneficiaries
e) Life assured should be a male

21. The biggest or greatest amount of involvement in a foreign market comes through which of the following?
a) Exporting
b) Joint venturing
c) Licensing
d) Direct investment
e) None of the above

22. Financial inclusion needs canvassing the accounts of ______
a) Financial Institutions
b) NRIs
c) HNIs
d) Housewives
e) Persons below a specified income level

23. Facilities for sale and purchase of agricultural products are available in ______
a) Commodity exchange
b) Regulated market
c) Stock exchange
d) Unregulated market
e) None of the above

24. The company that overlooks new and better ways to do things will eventually lose customers to
another company that has found a better way of serving customer needs is a major tenet of:
a) Innovative marketing
b) Consumer-oriented marketing
c) Value marketing
d) Sense-of-mission marketing
e) None of the above

25. All of the following would be ways to segment within the category of psychographic segmentation EXCEPT:
a) Social class
b) Occupation
c) Lifestyle
d) Personality
e) Creativity

26. In terms of execution styles, a family seated at the dinner table enjoying the advertised product would be an example of which of the following types of advertising?
a) Slice of life
b) Lifestyle
c) Mood or imagery
d) Personality symbol
e) Personality

27. A child in the United States is normally exposed to all of the following values EXCEPT:
a) Achievement and success
b) Activity and involvement
c) Material comfort
d) Collectivism
e) None of the above

28. ______ has contractual authority to sell a manufacturer's entire output.
a) Selling agents
b) Rack jobbers
c) Manufacturer's agents
d) Purchasing agents
e) None of these

29. Sellers that handle their own exports are engaged in:
a) Direct exporting
b) Indirect exporting
c) Licensing
d) Contract manufacturing
e) None of the above

30. More and more salespeople are being evaluated and compensated based on different measures than in the past. All of the following are illustrations of those measures EXCEPT:
a) Long-term customer satisfaction
b) Competitive predatory pricing performance
c) Full customer service
d) Retention rates
e) None of the above

31. ______ includes practices such as overstating the product's features or performance, luring the
customer to the store for a bargain that is out of stock, or running rigged contests.
a) Deceptive promotion
b) Deceptive packaging
c) Deceptive pricing
d) Deceptive cost structure
e) None of the above

32. The type of sales presentation approach that requires good listening and problem-solving skills is the:
a) Canned approach
b) Formula approach
c) Need-satisfaction approach
d) Critical-thinking approach
e) None of the above

33. In terms of special product life cycles, a ______ is a basic and distinctive mode of expression.
a) genre
b) style
c) fashion
d) fad
e) None

ANSWERS:
1) b 2) c 3) a 4) c 5) a 6) b 7) d 8) b 9) b 10) d
11) b 12) c 13) d 14) e 15) c 16) b 17) c 18) a 19) b 20) d
21) d 22) e 23) d 24) a 25) b 26) a 27) d 28) a 29) a 30) a 31) b 32) a 33) b

TENTATIVE CALENDER OF EXAMINATIONS FOR IBPS

2015-07-28T08:25:00.002+05:30

IBPS COMMON RECRUITMENT FOR CLERICAL CADRE (CWE CLERKS - V)

2015-07-28T08:08:00.001+05:30

The online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process for selection of personnel for Clerical cadre Posts in the Participating Organisations listed below is tentatively scheduled in December 2015 & January 2016.

Participating Organisations:
Allahabad Bank, Canara Bank, Andhra Bank, Central Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, Corporation Bank, Bank of India, Dena Bank Bank of Maharashtra, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Punjab National Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Syndicate Bank, UCO Bank, Union Bank of India, United Bank of India, Vijaya Bank, Any other bank or financial institution.

Qualification: Degree (Graduation) in any discipline.

Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory.

Age (As on 01.08.2015): Minimum: 20 years; Maximum: 28 years.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only from 11.08.2015 to 01.09.2015.

Mode of Payment: Candidates have the option of making the payment of requisite fees/ intimation charges through the Online mode only.

Online Examination (Preliminary): 05.12.2015, 06.12.2015, 12.12.2015, 13.12.2015.

Online Examination (Main): 02 & 03.01.2016

Website: http://www.ibps.in/

For Notification Click Here

Utkal Grameen Bank 213 Officer & Office Assistant Posts Recruitment

2015-07-28T08:02:00.001+05:30

Utkal Grameen Bank, Head Office, Bolangir invites applications for the post of Officer in Junior Management (Scale-I) cadre and Office Assistant(Multipurpose) from who have been declared qualified at the Online CWE for RRBs (CWE-III) conducted by IBPS during September/ October 2014.

Post Details:
1. Officer JM Scale-I: 77 Posts
2. Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 136 Posts

Pre- Requisite Qualifications: Candidates who have been declared qualified in the RRBs Online CWE-III conducted by IBPS in September/ October 2014.

How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply online through Bank’s website.

Last Date for Online Registration: 05.08.2015.

For Notification Click Here

Baroda Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank 136 Office Assistant Posts Recruitment

2015-07-28T08:00:00.001+05:30

Baroda Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank invites applications for the post of Office Assistant (Multipurpose) from who have been declared qualified at the Online CWE –III for RRBs conducted by IBPS during September/ October 2014.

Post Details:
Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 136 Posts

Pre- Requisite Qualifications: Candidates who have been declared qualified in the RRBs-Online CWE conducted by IBPS in September/ October 2014.

How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply online through Bank’s website.

Last Date for Online Registration: 05.08.2015.
Online Application: http://ibpsregistration.nic.in/ibps_bupgbk0715/

For Notification Click Here

Central Bank of India 51 Credit Officer, Manager Posts Recruitment

2015-07-28T07:58:00.002+05:30

Recruitment process for selection of personnel for Credit Officers and Security Officers in Middle Management Group (MMG), Scale II (Specialist Category).

Post Details:
1. Credit Officer: 25 Posts
Qualification: Graduate with Full time MBA/ PGDBM in Banking & Finance with aggregate of 60% Marks.

2. Manager (Security): 26 Posts
Qualification: Ex-Commissioned Officers of the Rank of Captain or above from Indian Army with minimum 5 years’ service or equivalent rank from Air Force, Navy and Para Military Forces.

Selection Procedure: Selection will be through on-line test and/or interview.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply only online only from 17.07.2015 to 01.08.2015.

Closing Date for On-line Registration: 01.08.2015.
Tentative Date of On-line Examination: 04.09.2015.

For Notification Click Here

Canara Bank 24 Manager-Security Posts Recruitment

2015-07-28T07:51:00.001+05:30

Canara Bank invites applications for recruitment to the post of Manager-Security in Middle Management Grade Scale-II.
.
Post Details:
Manager-Security (MMGS–II): 24 Posts

Qualification: Graduation in any discipline.

Experience: An Officer with 5 years of Commissioned Service in Army/ Navy/ Air Force and not below the rank of Captain or equivalent or an Officer not below the rank of Asst. Commandant in Para Military Forces with 5 years experience

Age limit: 25 – 40 Years.

Selection Procedure: Basis of Short-listing and Group Discussion and/ or Interview.

Last Date for Receipt of physical application: 10.08.2015.

For Notification Click Here

Andhra Pradesh GrameenaVikas Bank Recruitment notice

2015-07-25T09:07:00.003+05:30

Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank (APGVB) has issued notification for the recruitment of 244 Officer Scale-I, II & III, Office Assistant (Multipurpose) vacancies. Candidates who have been declared qualified at the Online CWE III for RRBs conducted by IBPS during September/ October 2014 can apply online from 23-07-2015 to 06-08-2015.

APGVB Vacancy Details:
Total No. of Posts: 244
Names of the Posts:
1. Officer Scale-III: 09 Posts
2. Officer Scale-II (General Banking Officer): 19 Posts
3. Officer Scale-II (IT): 02 Posts
4. Officer Scale-II (CA): 02 Posts
5. Officer Scale-II (Law): 01 Post
6. Officer Scale-II (Agricultural Officer): 17 Posts
7. Officer Scale-I: 92 Posts
8. Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 102 Posts

Age Limit: Candidates age should be above 21 years and below 40 years for Officer Scale-III, above 21 years to below 32 years for Officer Scale-II, above 18 years to below 28 years for Officer Scale-I, between 18 years and 28 years for Office Asst (Multipurpose) as on 01-06-2014. Age Relaxations are applicable as per the rules.

Educational Qualification: Candidates should have Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent for S.No-1, 2, 7 & 8, Degree from a recognized University in Electronics/ Communication/ Computer Science/ Information Technology for S.No-3, Certified Associate ship (CA) from Institute of Chartered Accountants of India for S.No- 4, Degree from a recognized University in Law or its equivalent for S.No-5, Degree in Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Dairy/ Animal Husbandry/ Forestry/ Veterinary Science/ Agricultural Engineering/ Pisciculture from a recognized university or its equivalent for S.No-6.

Selection Process: Selection are selected based on RRBs-CWE III conducted by IBPS in September/ October 2014 and Personal Interview.

Application Fee: Candidates should have to pay Rs. 40/- for SC/ ST/ PWD/ EXSM candidates & Rs. 150/- (including postage/ intimation charges) for all others. Requisite Application Fee may be paid to the Account Number 73108039138 through CBS at any of the Branches of Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank, by means of Payment challan available on our Bank’s website “apgvbank.in”.

How to Apply: Eligible candidates can apply online from the website http://www.apgvbank.in/ from 23-07-2015 to 06-08-2015. After submission of online application, take printout of the online application form and bring it along with required copies of documents for submission if shortlisted for interview.

Important Dates:
Starting Date for Online Registration: 23-07-2015.
Last Date for Online Registration: 06-08-2015.
Starting Date for Payment of Fee: 23-07-2015.
Last Date for Payment of Fee: 06-08-2015.
Last Date for Reprint: 21-08-2015.

For More Details:

Click here for Recruitment Advt

Click here for How to Apply

Click here to Apply Online

SBI PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM MARKETING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

2015-07-20T20:58:00.000+05:30

1. The fact that services are sold, produced and consumed at the same time refers to which of the
following service characteristics?
a) Intangibility
b) Inseparability
c) Variability
d) Perishability
e) None of the above

2. Electronic shopping, TV shopping is related with:
a) Advertising
b) Personal Selling
c) Direct Marketing
d) In direct Marketing
e) Personal buying

3. The purpose of which of the following type of advertising is to create repeat purchases?
a) Reminder
b) Reinforcement
c) Persuasive
d) Informative
e) None of the above

4. ______ is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
a) Mass marketing
b) Market segmentation
c) Market targeting
d) Market positioning
e) None of the above

5. The technique of focus on advertising of non-competitive brand with the other brand is called:
a) Cross-promotions
b) Tie-in promotions
c) Premiums
d) All the above
e) None of the above

6. Labelling, packaging are associated with:
a) Price mix
b) Product mix
c) Place mix
d) Promotion mix
e) Cost mix

7. Entry of laggards is in which stage
of PLC (Product Life Cycle)?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
e) Fifth

8. ______ factors are the most popular bases for segmenting customer groups.
a) Geographic
b) Demographic
c) Psychographic
d) Behavioural
e) None of the above

9. A method in which various products are combined at the same price is:
a) Promotional pricing
b) Product-bundle pricing
c) Captive product pricing
d) Optional product pricing
e) All the above

10. Differentiation in pricing for various geographical customers:
a) Price skimming
b) Psychological pricing
c) Pricing variations
d) Geographical pricing
e) None of the above

11. According to the American Marketing Association, which of the following is marketing of
products that are presumed to be environmentally safe?
a) Gray Marketing
b) Green Marketing
c) Global Marketing
d) Social Marketing
e) Internet Marketing

12. One of the following is not included in the 7 Ps of Marketing. Find the same ______.
a) Placement
b) Price
c) Production
d) Promotion
e) Product

13. Innovation in marketing is same as ______
a) Motivation
b) Perspiration
c) Aspiration
d) Creativity
e) Team work

14. A call marketing terms means?
a) A newly introduced product
b) Territory allocation for salesperson
c) A Call Centers
d) A Sales meeting
e) To visit a prospect

15. Bank ATMs are______
a) Delivery outlets
b) Market plans
c) Personalized Products
d) Tools for overcoming buyers resistance
e) Motivating tools

16. The USP of current account is ______
a) High minimum balance
b) No restrictions on transactions
c) No internet payable
d) Restricted deposits
e) Easy credits

17. The target group for SME Loan is ______
a) All salaried persons
b) Govt. undertakings
c) All entrepreneurs
d) All students
e)All housewives

18. ______ is a principle of enlightened marketing that requires a company seek real product and marketing improvements.
a) Innovative marketing
b) Consumer-oriented marketing
c) Value marketing
d) Sense-of-mission marketing
e) None of the above

19. NAV is the price of______
a) Entire fund value
b) One unit of a fund
c) Surrender value
d) Average value of shares
e) Dividends paid in a year

20. A Master policy in the case of Life insurance indicates ______
a) Policy is sale
b) Policy is in the name of servant
c) Only one life is assured
d) There are several beneficiaries
e) Life assured should be a male

21. The biggest or greatest amount of involvement in a foreign market comes through which of the following?
a) Exporting
b) Joint venturing
c) Licensing
d) Direct investment
e) None of the above

22. Financial inclusion needs canvassing the accounts of ______
a) Financial Institutions
b) NRIs
c) HNIs
d) Housewives
e) Persons below a specified income level

23. Facilities for sale and purchase of agricultural products are available in ______
a) Commodity exchange
b) Regulated market
c) Stock exchange
d) Unregulated market
e) None of the above

24. The company that overlooks new and better ways to do things will eventually lose customers to
another company that has found a better way of serving customer needs is a major tenet of:
a) Innovative marketing
b) Consumer-oriented marketing
c) Value marketing
d) Sense-of-mission marketing
e) None of the above

25. All of the following would be ways to segment within the category of psychographic segmentation EXCEPT:
a) Social class
b) Occupation
c) Lifestyle
d) Personality
e) Creativity

26. In terms of execution styles, a family seated at the dinner table enjoying the advertised product would be an example of which of the following types of advertising?
a) Slice of life
b) Lifestyle
c) Mood or imagery
d) Personality symbol
e) Personality

27. A child in the United States is normally exposed to all of the following values EXCEPT:
a) Achievement and success
b) Activity and involvement
c) Material comfort
d) Collectivism
e) None of the above

28. ______ has contractual authority to sell a manufacturer's entire output.
a) Selling agents
b) Rack jobbers
c) Manufacturer's agents
d) Purchasing agents
e) None of these

29. Sellers that handle their own exports are engaged in:
a) Direct exporting
b) Indirect exporting
c) Licensing
d) Contract manufacturing
e) None of the above

30. More and more salespeople are being evaluated and compensated based on different measures
than in the past. All of the following are illustrations of those measures EXCEPT:
a) Long-term customer satisfaction
b) Competitive predatory pricing performance
c) Full customer service
d) Retention rates
e) None of the above

31. ______ includes practices such as overstating the product's features or performance, luring the
customer to the store for a bargain that is out of stock, or running rigged contests.
a) Deceptive promotion
b) Deceptive packaging
c) Deceptive pricing
d) Deceptive cost structure
e) None of the above

32. The type of sales presentation approach that requires good listening and problem-solving skills is the:
a) Canned approach
b) Formula approach
c) Need-satisfaction approach
d) Critical-thinking approach
e) None of the above

33. In terms of special product life cycles, a ______ is a basic and distinctive mode of expression.
a) genre
b) style
c) fashion
d) fad
e) None

ANSWERS:
1) b 2) c 3) a 4) c 5) a 6) b 7) d 8) b 9) b 10) d
11) b 12) c 13) d 14) e 15) c 16) b 17) c 18) a 19) b 20) d
21) d 22) e 23) d 24) a 25) b 26) a 27) d 28) a 29) a 30) a
31) b 32) a 33) b

SBI PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM MARKETING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

2015-07-19T13:20:00.001+05:30

1. Which of the following information forms available to the marketing manager can usually be accessed more quickly and cheaply than other information sources?
a) Marketing intelligence
b) Marketing research
c) Customer profiles
d) External databases
e) Internal databases

2. Banks selling Insurance and Mutual funds is:
a) A relatively high level of diversification
b) An example of product diversification
c) Unlikely to reduce variability in the firm's profitability since the banks are all in same business
d) An example of related linked diversification
e) None of the above

3. An ideal marketing framework is designed to address three key management questions. Which of
the following is one of those questions?
a) Value Proposition - i.e. How can value propositions be made profitable?
b) Value chain - i.e. Are there weak links in the company's value chain?
c) Value network - i.e. How can a company effectively network?
d) Value exploration – i.e. How can a company identify new value opportunities?
e) All of the above

4. The biggest or greatest amount of involvement in a foreign market comes through which of the following?
a) Exporting
b) Joint venturing
c) Licensing
d) Indirect investment
e) Direct investment

5. A strategy wherein A "three-day cooling off period" in which buyers can cancel a contract after rethinking
it is to protect the consumer is called:
a) creative selling
b) high pressure selling
c) detail selling
d) hard core selling
e) detail hard core selling

6. The last stage in the selling process is:
a) Approach
b) Handling objections
c) Closing
d) Follow –up
e) None of the above

7. The more direct connections among businesses, the more ____ is the relatedness of the
diversification.
a) linked
b) constrained
c) integrated
d) intense
e) None of the above

8. _____ are products bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use in conducting a business.
a) Consumer products
b) Services
c) Industrial products
d) Specialty products
e) None of the above

9. All of the following would be forces that might be contained in a company’s microenvironment EXCEPT:
a) Economic forces
b) The company itself
c) Marketing channel firms
d) Suppliers
e) Dealers

10. Which of the following elements of marketing mix customer analyzes at the last, taking a decision of buying a particular product?
a) Promotion
b) Place
c) Price
d) Product
e) People

11. Which of the following is a value-reducing reason for diversification?
a) Enhancing the strategic competitiveness of the entire company
b) Expanding the business portfolio in order to reduce managerial employment risk
c) Gaining market power relative to competitors
d) Conforming to antitrust regulation
e) None of the above

12. _____ is the set of benefits a company promises to deliver its consumers to Satisfy their needs.
a) A money-back guarantee
b) An attribute
c) A value proposition
d) Good customer service
e) None of the above

13. When backed by buying power, wants become _____.
a) Demands
b) Social Needs
c) Exchanges
d) Self-Esteem needs
e) Social exchanges

14. The type of sales presentation approach that requires good listening and problem-solving skills is:
a) Canned approach
b) Formula approach
c) Need-satisfaction approach
d) Critical-thinking approach
e) All of the above

15. Marketing research firms, advertising agencies, and media firms would all be examples of which
of the following marketing intermediaries?
a) Financial intermediaries
b) Physical distribution firms
c) Marketing service agencies
d) Resellers
e) None of the above

16. If a company's objective were to reach masses of buyers that were geographically dispersed at a low
cost per exposure, the company would likely choose which of the following promotion forms?
a) Advertising
b) Personal selling
c) Public relations
d) Sales promotion
e) Marketing

17. The purchasing of firms in the same industry is called:
a) Unrelated diversification
b) Vertical integration
c) Networking the organization
d) Horizontal acquisition
e) None of the above

18. Which of the following is a disadvantage of primary market research?
a) Up to date
b) Expensive to collect
c) Focused
d) Exclusive
e) Inclusive

19. Companies selling mass consumer goods and services such as soft drinks, cosmetics, air travel and athletic shoes and equipment spend a great deal of time trying to establish a superior brand
image in markets is called _____.
a) Business markets
b) Global markets
c) Consumer markets
d) Nonprofit and governmental markets
e) Dealer markets

20. If a consumer describes a car as being the "most economical car on the market," then this descriptor
is a:
a) Rule
b) Attitude
c) Belief
d) Clue
e) Praise

21. Through _____, many companies today are strengthening their connections to all partners, form
providers of raw materials to components to final products that are carried to final buyers.
a) Partnership relationship marketing
b) Customized marketing
c) Direct marketing
d) Deviated marketing
e) Indirect marketing

22. Wal-Mart owned Sam's club is an example of a retail form called a(n):
a) factory outlet
b) super specialty store
c) seconds store
d) warehouse club
e) All of the above

23. The typical method of retail operation used by supermarkets and catalog showrooms is called:
a) Self-service retailing
b) Limited-service retailing
c) Full-service retailing
d) Service-merchandiser
e) None of the above

24. Using a successful brand name to introduce additional items in a given product category under the same brand name (such as new flavors, forms, colors, added ingredients, or package sizes) is called a(n):
a) Line extension
b) Brand extension
c) Multi-branding
d) New brands
e) None of the above

25. In terms of special product life cycles, a ____ is a basic and distinctive mode of expression.
a) genre
b) style
c) fashion
d) fad
e) shape

26. Customers buy from stores and firms that offer the highest ____
a) Customer perceived value
b) Concern form society’s interests
c) Company image
d) Level of customer satisfaction
e) Product quality

27. ____ consists of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers on the basis of needs, characteristics,
or behavior that might require separate products or marketing mixes.
a) Product differentiation
b) Market segmentation
c) Market targeting
d) Market positioning
e) Market differentiation

28. A(n) _____ is a retail store that carries a narrow product line with a deep assortment within that line.
a) shopping goods store
b) convenience store
c) specialty store
d) department store
e) None of the above

29. _____ is a strategy of using a successful brand name to launch a new or modified product in a new category.
a) Duo branding
b) Line extension
c) Brand extension
d) Multi-branding
e) Single branding

30. Minimizing pollution from production and all environmental impacts throughout the full Product life cycle is called _____
a) Design For Environment (DFE)
b) Green Marketing
c) Environmental Sustainability
d) Product Stewardship
e) Red Marketing

31. The product concept says that a company should:
a) Devote its energy to making continuous product improvements
b) Make promoting products the top priority
c) Market only those products with high customer appeal
d) Focus on the target market and make products that meet those customers' demands
e) All of the above

32. What went wrong with Coke in 1985?
a) Management defined its marketing research problem too narrowly
b) The research looked only at taste and not feeling about dropping the old Coke
c) No account of intangibles was taken
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

Answers
1) e; 2) b; 3) d; 4) e; 5) b; 6) d; 7) b; 8) c; 9) a; 10) a;
11) b; 12) c; 13) a; 14) c; 15) c; 16) a; 17) d; 18) b; 19) c; 20) c;
21) b; 22) d; 23) a; 24) a; 25) b; 26) a; 27) b; 28) c; 29) c; 30) b; 31) a; 32) d.

United India Insurance Company Ltd. Recruitment of 750 Assistant Posts

2015-07-02T08:26:00.001+05:30

United India Insurance Company Limited has issued notification for the recruitment of Assistant vacancies.
Post Details:
Assistant: 750 Posts (Andhra Pradesh: 24 Posts & Telangana: 26 Posts)
Age (as on 30.6.2015): Minimum Age- 18 years and Maximum Age- 28 years (as on 30.06.2015).
Qualification: Graduate or Pass in HSC / equivalent (12th pass) examination with 60% marks and knowledge of Regional Language i.e. Language of the State of Recruitment is essential.
Selection Process: Based on online examination, Interview & computer proficiency test.
How to Apply: Candidates may apply online through website.
Starting Date to Apply Online: 07.07.2015.
Last Date to Apply Online: 20.07.2015.
Tentative Date of Online Exam: 30.08.2015.

For Notification Click Here

IBPS Recruitment of Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts

2015-07-02T08:24:00.000+05:30

The online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process for selection of personnel for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts in the Participating Organisations listed below is tentatively scheduled in October 2015.
Details:
Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee
Qualifications: A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline. The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet/ Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduate on the day he/ she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online.
Age (As on 01.07.2015): Minimum- 20 years & Maximum- 30 years i.e. A candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.07.1985 and not later than 01.07.1995.
Selection Procedure: Marks obtained only in the main examination will be considered for shortlisting for interview and also for final merit listing.
How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only from 10.07.2015 to 01.08.2015.
On-line registration including Edit/ Modification of Application by candidates: 10.07.2015 to 01.08.2015.
Online Examination – Main: 31.10.2015.
Website: http://www.ibps.in/

For Notification Click Here

Vananchal Gramin Bank Recruitment of Office Asst, Officer Scale-I, II Posts

2015-07-02T08:13:00.001+05:30

Vananchal Gramin Bank invites applications for the post of Officer in Middle Management Grade (Scale II), Officer in Junior Management (Scale I) Cadre and Office Assistant (Multipurpose) from who have been declared qualified at the Online CWE for RRBs conducted by IBPS during September/ October 2014.
Post Details:
1. Officer Scale-II (General Banking Officer): 7 Posts
2. Officer Scale-I: 17 Posts
3. Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 25 Posts
Pre- Requisite Qualifications: Candidates who have been declared qualified in the RRBs Online CWE conducted by IBPS in September/ October 2014.
How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply online through Bank’s website.
Opening date for Online Registration: 07.07.2015.
Last Date for Online Registration: 22.07.2015.

For Notification Click Here

EXIM Bank Recruitment of Manager/ MM II, Admin Officer/ JMI Posts

2015-07-02T08:12:00.000+05:30

Recruitment of Officers in Junior/ Middle Management levels.
Post Details:
1. Manager/ MM II: 68 Posts
2. Administrative Officer/ JMI: 10 Posts
Qualification: CA, Any Degree, BE/ B.Tech, PG.
How to Apply: Candidates must fill in the On-line application form available on Exim Bank’s website.
Online link for applications opens on: 01.07.2015, Closes on: 22.07.2015.
Online Examinations will be tentatively conducted during: August 2015.

For Notification Click Here

SIDBI Recruitment of Asst. Manager, Secretary, Manager Posts

2015-07-02T08:09:00.004+05:30

The Bank invites applications for the posts of Officers i.e. Assistant Manager (Gr 'A') and Manager (Gr 'B') as indicated below.
Post Details:
I. Assistant Manager - Grade ‘A’
1. Premises - Civil Engineer: 03 Posts
2. Premises - Electrical Engineer: 01 Post
3. Security: 03 Posts
4. Catering & Hospitality: 01 Post
5. Merchant Banking: 01 Post
6. Economist: 01 Post
II. Private Secretary - Grade ‘A’
1. Secretarial: 05 Posts
III. Manager - Grade ‘B’
1. Premises - Civil Engineer: 01 Post
2. Premises - Electrical Engineer: 01 Post
3. Economist: 01 Post
Qualification: Any Degree, PG with Typing Knowledge.
How to Apply: Candidates are advised to apply Online only, through Bank's website.
Website: http://www.sidbi.in/
Closing of On-line Registration Gateway: 13.07.2015.

Assam Gramin Vikas Bank (AGVB) Recruitment of Officer Posts

2015-06-18T10:50:00.004+05:30

Assam Gramin Vikash Bank invites applications from Indian citizens, for the post of Officer in Middle Management Grade (Scale II), Officer in Junior Management (Scale I) Cadre and Office Assistant (Multipurpose) from Indian citizens who have been declared qualified at the Online CWE for RRBs conducted by IBPS during September/ October 2014. :

Officer Scale-II (IT) : 02 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 19400 - 28100
Officer Scale-II (CA) : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 19400 - 28100
Officer Scale-II (Law) : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 19400 - 28100
Officer Scale-II (Treasury Manager) : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 19400 - 28100
Officer Scale-II (Agriculture Officer) : 02 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 19400 - 28100
Officer JMG Scale-I : 46 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 14500 - 25700
Office-Assistant (Multipurpose) : 45 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 7200 - 19300

How to Apply : Apply Online at Assam Gramin Vikas Bank Website from 11/06/2015 to 25/06/2015.

Please visit http://www.agvbank.co.in/recruitment.php for detailed information and apply online.

State Bank of India Associated Bank Clerk Exam. English Solved Paper (Held on 15-2-2015)

2015-06-18T09:52:00.001+05:30

Directions– (Q. 1–5) The sentence has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that bests suits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. Ideally you should set aside funds to help you over situations such as a sudden medical emergency or unexpected expenses.
(A) come (B) turn (C) reach (D) pass (E) tide (Ans : A)

2. Organizations should implement some practices that the army follows……….younger staff with important conclusions.
(A) experiencing (B) nominating (C) responsible
(D) entrusting (E) supportive (Ans : D)

3. ……….from treaching young students about entrepreneurship we also provide funds to start and sustain their business for the short time.
(A) While (B) Whether (C) Apart (D) Further (E) Perhaps (Ans : C)

4. Cost of fuel is the second most crucial ……….is a person's decision to buy a car.
(A) event (B) advice (C) factor (D) opportunity (E) aspects (Ans : C)

5. The green revolution which started in the 1960's helps to reduce food scarcity and ………. improved the health of the economy.
(A) still (B) rapidly (C) expected (D) growing (E) extremely
(Ans : B)

Directions– (Q. 6–10) In this question sentence with for bold words were given. One of them from four words given in the bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. If any, that word will be your answer. If all words given in the bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark 'All Correct' as your answer.
6. According to the management the bank is likely to perform better in the next quarter.
(A) management (B) likely (C) perform (D) quarter (E) All correct (Ans : E)

7. It is difficult to gain access to the hospital because there is no permanent road.
(A) difficult (B) gain (C) access (D) permanent (E) All correct (Ans : D)

8. One of the most important tasks of the morden government is to run as efficient welfare system.
(A) most (B) tasks (C) morden (D) efficient (E) All correct (Ans : C)

9. Even experienced bankers were surprised by RDFs decision to cut rates prior to the budget.
(A) Even (B) experienced (C) surprised (D) prior (Ans : E)

10. The new generation is confident, tech-savvy and is not fearful of trying new things.
(A) generation (B) fearful (C) trying (D) things (E) All correct (Ans : B)

Directions– (Q. 11–14) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold will help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A group of employees was working in a software company, it was a team of thirty employees. They was young, energetic and dynamic team with keen enthusiasm and a desire to learn and grow. The management decided to teach the employees how to find real solutions to problems. The team was called to play a game in banquet hall. The group was quite surprised that they were called to playa game. Everyone reached the venue with various thoughts on their minds. As they entered the hall, they found the hall decorated beautifully with colourful decorated papers and balloons all over the place. It was more like a children's party area than a corporate meeting hall. Everyone was surprised and gazed at each other. Also there was a huge box of balloons was placed at the centre of the hall. The team leader asked everyone to pick a balloon from the box and asked them to blow it up. Everyone picked up the balloon and blow it up. Then the team asked them to write their names on their balloons carefully so that the balloons didn't burst. Everyone tried to write their names on their balloons, but not everyone was successful. A few balloons burst due to pressure and the people whose balloons were, were given another chance to pick a balloon. Those who failed to write their names even after the second the second chance were asked to leave the game.

After the second chance, twenty five employees qualified for the next level. All the balloons were collected and then put into a room. The team leader asked the employee to go to the room and pick the same balloon that had his/her name on it. Also he told them that no balloon should burst and warned them to be very careful. All the employees reached the room, where the balloons carrying their names were thrown here and there. They were searching for their respective balloons. While they were in a rush to find the respective balloons. They tried not to burst the balloons. Fifteen minutes passed away and no one was able to find the balloons carrying their own name.

The team was told that the second level of the game was over. Now was the time for third and final level. The employees were asked to pick any balloon in the room and give it to the person named on the balloon. Within a couple of minutes all balloons reached the hands of the respective employees and everyone reached the hall. The team leader then said "This is called as the new solution to a problem. Everyone is frantically haunting for solutions to problem without understanding the ideal way. Many times sharing and helping others gives you real solutions to all problems"

11. Which of the following cannot be said about the employees?
(a) Atleast one employee found the balloon when they were asked to pick up a balloon with their name on it.
(b) They participated whole. heartedly in the task.
(c) They all failed to follow the instructions given by the team leader in the end.
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (a) and (b) (C) All (a), (b) and (c)
(D) Only (b) (E) Only (a) and (c) (Ans : A)

12. Why was everyone surprised reaching on their corporate meeting hall ?
(A) Their team leader was dressed as a kid.
(B) Their seniors were missing from the hall.
(C) The hall was equipped with the latest and high technological gadgets.
(D) The hall was too small to accommodate all of them.
(E) Other than those given as options. (Ans : E)

13. Which of the following can be said about the management's idea of trying to teach their employees something?
(a) The idea did not indeed to teach anything for the people. who did not finish the task.
(b) The idea was ill received by all.
(c) The idea was creative.
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) and (c) (C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) and (c) (E) Only (a) and (b) (Ans : C)

14. Which one off the following aspects come across very strongly in the story?
(A) One should not worry about goals.
(B) One should be honest and sincere regarding one's work.
(C) One should be helpful towards others regardless what the end results in.
(D) One should look beyond personal goals to achieve success in a task.
(E) One should share one's problem with others to feel better. (Ans : D)

15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Qualified
(A) illiterate (B) ignorant (C) talled (D) pushed (E) silly
(Ans : B)

16. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Warned
(A) threatened (B) cautioned (C) pressurized (D) intermediated (E) bulfied (Ans : B)

17. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Dynamic
(A) vibrant (B) colorful (C) explosive (D) different (E) noisy (Ans : A)

18. Which of the following is true according to the story?
(A) The task was successful only after the employees were shown the right way to go about it.
(B) The only way to make a task successful is by helping others, otherwise the task fails.
(C) The employees who were asked to leave the game were disinterested in it.
(D) There were more than more four levels in the task.
(E) All the given statements are true. (Ans : A)

19. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Frantically
(A) nervously (B) secretively (C) crazily (D) calmly (E) minutely (Ans : D)

20. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the story?
(A) Sharing and caring (B) The game of balloons
(C) The company with a team leader (D) A friend in need is a friend indeed
(E) The twenty five employees (Ans : B)

Directions– (Q. 21–25) Rearrange the given six sentence/group of sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given question.
(a) Beena grow fertilizers by the day and was charming and polite, but as the goddess predicted she has to have a new outfit every day and for a while the king and queen were happy to let their her way, but soon realized that this had to stop.
(b) They longed for the child and prayed and prayed till finally one day their prayers were, but the goddess warned," you will soon have a little girl and though she will be a loving child. She will love new clothes too much and will be cursed if she covert another's clothes.
(c) They tried to get her mend her ways, but in vain and one day when Beena saw a beautiful girl simply dressed in a cotton sari and noticed how people were admiring the simply dressed girl she demanded the dress.
(d) The kingdom was at peace, subjects were happy and there was a bumper crop, but the King and Queen was very sad.
(e) As forefold, Beena turned into an onion. A plant with many layers to symbolize the many dresses she had.
(f) The king and Queen were ready to accept this flow and when the Queen gave birth to a baby girl the entire kingdom replaced.

21. Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) (a) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E) (f) (Ans : B)

22. Which of the following should be SIXTH (last) sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (D) (d) (E) (e) (Ans : E)

23. Which of the following should be FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (D) (d) (E) (f) (Ans : D)

24. Which of the following should be SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (D) (d) (E) (f) (Ans : B)

25. Which of the following should be THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) (a) (B) (b) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E) (f) (Ans : E)

Directions– (Q. 26–30) Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error mark 'no error' as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuations if any.

26. One night, freddle the box was/ prowling around/an actor's house when he/found an open window.
(A) One night, friddle the fox was (B) prowling around
(C) an actor's house when he (D) found an open window
(E) No error (Ans : C)

27. Millie was/a mouse who had/a cousin named Tora/living from the city.
(A) Millie was (B) a mouse who had (C) a cousin named Tora
(D) living from the city (E) No error (Ans : D)

28. In a jungle there lived / a lion who felt ashamed / of himself because / he was scared on chickens.
(A) In a jungle, there lived (B) a lion who felt ashamed (C) of himself because
(D) he was scared on chickens (E) No error (Ans : D)

29. The big bad wolf gobbled / up the little lamb so fast / that a bone was stick / in his throat.
(A) The big bad wolf gobbled (B) up the little lamb so fast (C) that a bone was stick
(D) in his throat (E) No error (Ans : C)

30. Hares are rather / noise animals who / love to bear / themselves talking.
(A) Hares are rather (B) noise animals who (C) love to bear
(D) themselves talking (E) No error (Ans : B)

Directions– (Q. 31–40) In the given passage there are blanks, each of which are numbered. Against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once in a town of Shimpola, there lived a rich and cunning money lender called Vidushan. He …(31) … money to poor people and … (32)… them to give their lands. The trouble people went to Subhadhar who …(33)… to visit their town soon.

One morning, a jeweler visited vidushan with some expensive looking jewellery. When vidushan asked for its price, the jeweler said it was worth a handful grain. He also said if you are …(34)… to give me a handful grain, give me a thousand gold coins and return the poor people's land as well". Geedy Vidushan was very …(35)… He gave the jeweler a handful of grains. The jeweler …(36)… to take it and took him to court. There he told the judge, "My Lord, I had asked him for a single grain that was the …(37)… of a full hand and he gave me a handful of grains. As per the …(38)… he should pay me a thousand of gold coins and return the poor people's land to them."
The judge …(39)… and adjudged the case in his …(40)… The jeweler was actually subhadhar and he had helped the poor get their lands back.

31. (A) lent (B) borrowed (C) grant (D) presented (E) showed (Ans : A)

32. (A) empowered (B) forced (C) punished (D) prevent (E) destroy (Ans : B)

33. (A) said (B) assuring (C) promise (D) guarantee (E) vouched (Ans : E)

34. (A) not (B) powerless (C) unqualified (D) unable (E) there (Ans : D)

35. (A) contents (B) delightful (C) blessed (D) happy (E) gladly (Ans : D)

36. (A) accepted (B) denies (C) loved (D) wanted (E) refused (Ans : E)

37. (A) lengthy (B) growth (C) extent (D) size (E) shapes (Ans : D)

38. (A) conditions (B) demands (C) position (D) state (E) will (Ans : A)

39. (A) yes (B) agreed (C) supporting (D) chose (E) ordered (Ans : B)

40. (A) honour (B) side (C) favour (D) worth (E) service (Ans : C)

State Bank of India (SBI) Recruitment of 2000 Probationary Officers

2015-04-12T07:52:00.004+05:30

SBI invited Online Applications from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment as Probationary Officers (POs) in State Bank of India. Candidates selected are liable to be posted anywhere in India. Preliminary Examination for Selection of PO will be conducted tentatively in June 2015.

Eligible candidates who willing to apply may submit their Online Application through the Official SBI Website statebankofindia.com or sbi.co.in from 13-04-2015 to 02-05-2015.

For details regarding age limit, eligibility, educational qualifications, how to apply, selection procedure and application form etc. Candidates may refer the notification given below.

State Bank of India (SBI) 2,000 Probationary Officer (PO) Vacancy 2015 Details :

Total No. of Post : 2,000 Posts

Name Of the Post : Probationary Officer (PO)

Pay Scale : Rs. 14500-25700/- basic pay Rs.16,900/-

Age Limit :

Candidate age should not below 21 years and not above 30 years as on 01-04-2015 i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02-04-1985 and not later than 01-04-1994 (both days inclusive)

Educational Qualification :

Candidate who wish to apply must possess Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central Government. Those who are in the Final year/ Semester of their Graduation may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview, they will have to produce proof of having passed the graduation examination on or before 01-09-2015.

Selection Process :

Candidate will be selected on the basis of their performance in Preliminary Examination, Main Examination, Group Discussion & Interview

Application Fee :

Candidates who wish to apply will have to pay Rs.100/- for SC/ST/PWD & Rs. 600/- for General and Others Candidates through online mode only by using Debit Cards (RuPay/Visa/MasterCard/Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets by providing information as asked on the screen.

Procedure to Apply :

The Aspiring applicants satisfying the eligibility criteria in all respect can submit their application only through ON-LINE mode. The On-line registration of applications is made available on Official SBI Website www.statebankofindia.com or www.sbi.co.in from 13-04-2015 to 02-05-2015.

Important dates :

Starting Date for Submission of Online Application : 13-04-2015
Last Date for Submission of Online Application : 02-05-2015
Payment of Fees (ONLINE) : 13-04-2015 to 02-05-2015
Date of Preliminary Examination : June 2015 (Tentatively)

More Details :

Candidates are advised to read Official Notification/Advertisement for details regarding Age limit, Educational Qualification, Physical Standards, Physical Test, General Information, Eligibility Conditions, the Syllabus and Scheme of Examination, Examination Centre, Procedure of Selection, Pay Scale, Examination Fee/Application Fee, How to apply Online/Offline, Concession and other important instructions etc.

Official Advertisement/Notification :

Click here for View Advertisement

Click here for Apply Online

Click here for Official Website

Marketing Aptitude/ Computer Knowledge Practice Questions

2015-01-25T18:12:00.001+05:30

1. Catalogues, mailings, telemarketing etc can be classified as:
1) Advertising
2) Sales promotion
3) Public relation
4) Direct marketing
5) None of these

2. Which of the following is a function of Packaging?
1) Protection
2) Promotion
3) Convenience
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

3. Which of the following is not a level of product?
1) Core
2) Augmented
3) Potential
4) Fragmented
5) None of the above

4. A Brand or part of the Brand which is legally protected is called as ___
1) Trade Mark
2) Brand Equity
3) Brand Name
4) Brand Valuation
5) None of the above

5. Which of the following is related to Brand Name?
1) Term
2) Words
3) Letters
4) Both 2 & 3
5) None of the above

6. Introduction, Growth ___ & ___ are the four stages of Product Life Cycle.
1) Maturity, Saturation
2) Maturity, Decline
3) Decline, Maturity
4) Saturation, Maturity
5) None of the above

7. A pure tangible good:
1) Bread
2) Milk
3) Books
4) Biscuits
5) All of the above

8. A stage in New Product Development:
1) Idea generation/ Screening
2) Business analysis
3) Developing & testing the product
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

9. ______ may favour buying a Product which is in its decline stage.
1) Innovators
2) Middle majority
3) Dare-devils
4) Laggards
5) None of the above

10. Low-price and high promotional spending is likely to succeed in _____markets.
1) Large
2) Small
3) International
4) Local
5) National

11. Which of the following are not the levels of the product under the customer value hierarchy?
1) Core benefit
2) Expected product
3) Augmented product
4) Potential product
5) None of these

12. Which of the following is not an element of MIS (Marketing Information System)?
1) Marketing Research
2) Decision Support System
3) Production Monitoring System
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

13. Price determination depends on:
1) Market demand for the product/ service
2) Perceived value of the product/ service
3) Buyer Psychology
4) Government Policy
5) Any of the above

14. A seller offering to the buyers, a range of products, is called __
1) Product Mix
2) Product lines
3) Product item
4) Potential product
5) None of these

15. A person who acts on behalf of some other person to sell a product/ service is known as ____
1) Principal
2) Dinar
3) Labour
4) Agent
5) Middleman

16. _____ has the advantage of being high in selectivity; low cost, immediacy and interactive
capabilities?
1) Direct mail
2) Outdoor
3) Online
4) Radio
5) None of these

17. The general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means:
1) Internet commerce
2) Web commerce
3) Computer commerce
4) Electronic commerce
5) None of these

18. When producers, wholesalers and retailers are in a unified system, they comprise a ___
1) Conventional marketing system
2) Power-based marketing system
3) Horizontal marketing system
4) Vertical marketing system
5) None of these

19. The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market:
1) Undifferentiated marketing
2) Differentiated marketing
3) Concentrated marketing
4) Turbo marketing
5) None of the above

20. Which of the following is not a transmission medium?
1) Telephone lines
2) Coaxial cables
3) Modem
4) Microwave systems
5) Hardware systems

21. Identify the IP address from the following:
1) 300.215.317.3
2) 302.215@417.5
3) 202.50.20.148
4) 202-50-20-148
5) 101.50. 2 0.148

22. Memory which can be read only is called ____.
1) RAM
2) Secondary Memory
3) EERAM
4) Dynamic Memory
5) ROM

23. Another name of endless loop:
1) Data traffic pattern
2) Data loop
3) Infinite loop
4) Feedback loop
5) Slot

24. Most popular hardware for multimedia creations:
1) PCs
2) Minicomputers
3) Mainframe Computers
4) WANs
5) Super Computers

25. The _____ settings are automatic and standard.
1) Default
2) CPU
3) Peripheral
4) User-friendly
5) None of the above

26. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system?
1) Language translator
2) Platform
3) User interface
4) Icon
5) None

27. The ___ folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
1) Drafts
2) Outbox
3) Address Book
4) Sent Items
5) Inbox

28. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as:
1) An ASCII code
2) A magnetic tape
3) An OCR scanner
4) A bar code
5) None of these

29. A collaborative network that uses Internet Technology to link business with their suppliers is?
1) Internet
2) Intranet
3) Extranet
4) WAN
5) LAN

30. A passive threat to computer security:
1) Malicious Intent
2) Sabotage
3) Accidental Errors
4) Espionage Agents
5) None of these

31. Which of the following is not a worksheet design criterion?
1) Efficiency
2) Adaptability
3) Description
4) Clarity
5) Capacity

32. A micro program is sequencer perform the operation:
1) Read
2) Write
3) Execute
4) Read and execute
5) Read and write

33. In Ms-Dos what command you will use to display system date?
1) Date
2) Ver
3) Disk
4) Format
5) Edit

34. Personnel, who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment refers to:
1) Console-operator
2) Programmer
3) People ware
4) System Analyst
5) Tester

35. The batch file uses the extension:
1) .BAT
2) .DOC
3) .PRG
4) .DOS
5) .DOEX

36. Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communication needs?
1) Front end processor
2) Multiplexer
3) Controller
4) Concentrator
5) All of the above

37. Data warehousing is a system of storing data on long term basis (say 5-10 years). It is ____:
1) Customer oriented and integrated
2) Non-volatile and time variant
3) Devoid of inconsistencies
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

38. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as ___
1) Sorting
2) Merging
3) Inserting
4) Deleting
5) Traversal

39. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data.
1) 1.40 MB
2) 1.44 GB
3) 1.40 GB
4) 1.44 MB
5) 1.80 MB

40. The output quality of a printer is measured by:
1) Dot per sq. inch
2) Dot per inch
3) Dots printed per unit time
4) Dot per half inch
5) All of the above

ANSWERS:
1) 4, 2) 4, 3) 4, 4) 1, 5) 4, 6) 2, 7) 5, 8) 4, 9) 4, 10) 1,
11) 5, 12) 5, 13) 5, 14) 1, 15) 4, 16) 3, 17) 4, 18) 4, 19) 3, 20) 3,
21) 3, 22) 5, 23) 3, 24) 1, 25) 1, 26) 3, 27) 2, 28) 4, 29) 3, 30) 3
31) 3, 32) 4, 33) 1, 34) 3, 35) 1, 36) 5, 37) 4, 38) 5, 39) 4, 40) 2

Marketing Aptitude / Computer Knowledge Practice Questions for Bank Exams

2015-01-25T17:47:00.000+05:30

1. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
1) They are collections of data
2) Every file has a filename
3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate computer on which it was created
4) All files contain data
5) None of these

2. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
1) Word
2) Printer
3) Monitor
4) Mouse
5) Scanner

3. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?
1) Keyboard
2) Disk
3) ALU
4) Mouse
5) Printer

4. The result of a formula in a cell is the ......
1) label
2) value
3) range
4) displayed value
5) None of these

5. Which of the following is not a storage medium?
1) hard disk
2) flash drive
3) DVD
4) CD
5) monitor

6. Choose the odd one out ............
1) Micro Computer
2) Minicomputer
3) Super Computer
4) Notebook Computer
5) Digital Computer

7. The ALU performs ................ operations.
1) logic
2) ASCII
3) algorithm-based
4) logarithm-based
5) final operations

8. ............ is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.
1) OS
2) ALU
3) CPU
4) Memory
5) Printer

9. In a sequence of events that takes place in an instruction cycle, the first cycle is ......
1) Story cycle
2) Execute cycle
3) Fetch cycle
4) Decode cycle
5) Code cycle

10. Peripheral devices such as printers and plotters are considered to be ............
1) hardware
2) software
3) data
4) information
5) None of these

11. Which of the following Excel charts represents only one value for each variable?
1) function
2) line
3) pie
4) bar
5) None

12. To see the document before the printout is taken, use ............
1) Insert Table
2) Paste
3) Format Painter
4) Cut
5) Print Preview

13. ALU works on the instructions and data held in the ...........
1) Notebook
2) Registers
3) Copy Pad
4) I/O devices
5) None of these

14. To move data from one part of the document to another, following is used .............
1) Cut and Paste
2) Copy and Paste
3) Cut and Delete
4) Copy and Undo
5) Cut and Insert

15. Another name for a pre-programmed formula in Excel is ...............
1) range
2) graph
3) function
4) cell
5) None of these

16. To save a document for the first time, ................ option is used
1) Save as
2) Save first
3) Save on
4) Copy
5) Paste

17. What is a device that can change images into codes for the computer?
1) mouse
2) printer
3) joystick
4) keyboard
5) scanner

18. Two basic types of graphics used in Word 2000 are .........
1) Auto shapes and Clip Art
2) Header and Footer
3) Drawing Objects and Pictures
4) Spelling and Grammer
5) Word Count

19. User can use .......... commands to search for and correct words in a document.
1) Print and Print Preview
2) Header and Footer
3) Find and Replace
4) Spelling and Grammer
5) Copy and Paste

20. What is the advantage of using basic HTML to create a document?
1) HTML is very easy to use
2) The document can be displayed by all word processors
3) The document can be displayed by all programs
4) The document can be displayed by all browsers
5) None of these

21. Which of the following is not correct with regard to Marketing?
1) Marketing is a management function
2) Marketing is a philosophy
3) Marketing is not related to business activity alone
4) Marketing means selling.
5) Objective of marketing is to achieve customer satisfaction.

22. Consumer may be defined as one who buys...
1) Goods
2) Services
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 nor 2
5) None

23. Which of the following is a part of Marketing Management?
1) Identification of Bbusiness opportunities
2) Understanding the customer needs
3) Producing according to customer needs
4) Delivering as per customer convenience
5) All the above

24. ............. describes changes in an individual's behaviour arising from experience.
1) Modeling
2) Motivation
3) Perception
4) Learning
5) None of the above

25. Below are the four alternatives showing stages of a consumer in arriving at a decision to purchase or reject a new product. Arrange them order wise.
a) Interest
b) Trail
c) Awareness
d) Evaluations
1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
3) (c), (a), (b), (d)
4) (a), (d), (b), (c)
5) None of these

26. If a company's objective were to reach masses of buyers that were geographically dispersed at a low cost per low cost per exposure, the company would likely choose which of the following promotion forms?
1) Advertising
2) Personal selling
3) Public relations
4) Sales promotion
5) None of the above

27. Using a successful brand name to introduce additional items in a given product category under the same brand name (such as new flavours, forms, colours, added ingredients, or package sizes) is called a(n):
1) Line extension
2) Brand extension
3) Multibranding
4) New brands
5) None of these

28. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):
1) Idea
2) Demand
3) Product
4) Service
5) None of these

29. If Surf − Excel is three pack sizes of 200 grams, 500 grams, 1 kg and are available in two types of packages. What is the product depth:
1) Two
2) Three
3) Six
4) Eight
5) Nine

30. ............. is the general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means.
1) Internet commerce
2) Web commerce
3) Computer commerce
4) Electronic commerce
5) None of the above

31. When a company enters a new product category for which its current brand names are not appropriate, it will likely follow which of the following brand strategies?
1) Product extension
2) Line extension
3) Market targeting
4) Market positioning
5) None of the above

32. In terms of special product life cycles, a .......... is a basic and distinctive mode of expression.
1) Genre
2) Style
3) Fashion
4) Fad
5) None of the above

33. ........ consists of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers on the basis of needs, characteristics or behaviour who might require separate products or marketing mixes.
1) Product differentiation
2) Market segmentation
3) Market targeting
4) Market positioning
5) None of the above

34. ......... is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
1) Mass Marketing
2) Market Segmentation
3) Market Targeting
4) Market Positioning
5) None of the above

35. ....... factors are the most popular bases for segmenting customer groups.
1) Geographic
2) Demographic
3) Psychographic
4) Behavioural
5) None

36. When an international seller sells a plant, equipment, or technology to another country and agrees to take payment in the resulting products, it is called .........
1) Barter
2) Buy - back
3) Counter purchase
4) Like-value exchange
5) None of these

37. The stage in the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trial is the:
1) Decline stage
2) Introducing stage
3) Growth stage
4) Maturity stage
5) None

38. A ...... is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to move the product through channels.
1) Push strategy
2) Pull strategy
3) Blocking strategy
4) Integrated strategy
5) None of these

39. A(n) ...... is a retail store that carries a narrow product line with a deep assortment within that line.
1) Shopping goods store
2) Convenience store
3) Speciality store
4) Department store
5) None of these

40. The term "Globalization" means .......
1) Opening the economy for world trade
2) Closing the economy
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 or 2
5) None of these

ANSWERS:
1-3, 2-1, 3-2, 4-2, 5-5, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-3, 10-1
11-3, 12-5, 13-2, 14-1, 15-3, 16-1, 17-5, 18-1, 19-4, 20-1
21-4, 22-5, 23-5, 24-4, 25-2, 26-1, 27-1, 28-3, 29-3, 30-4
31-4, 32-2, 33-2, 34-3, 35-2, 36-3, 37-2, 38-1, 39-3, 40-1

MARKETING KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

2015-01-25T17:34:00.000+05:30

1. The term marketing refers to:
a) New product concepts and improvements
b) Advertising and promotion activities
c) A philosophy that stresses more on customer value and satisfaction
d) Planning sales campaigns
e) None of these

2. In the history of marketing, when did the production period end?
a) In the late 1800s
b) In the early 1900s
c) In the 1920s
d) After the end of the Second World War
e) None of these

3. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase 'a stronger focus on social and ethical concerns in marketing' is characteristic of the ____ period.
a) production
b) sales
c) marketing
d) societal marketing
e) None of these

4. Which skills and capabilities will marketers need to increasingly have?
a) Market research
b) Digital and social media marketing
c) Strategic marketing
d) Sales
e) None of these

5. Which of the following is not part of the external marketing environment?
a) Political
b) Legal
c) Product
d) Socio-cultural
e) None of these

6. Tobacco advertising is now virtually banned in all marketing communication forms in many countries around the world. This can be explained as an influence of:
a) Technological environment
b) Legal environment
c) Economic environment
d) Ecological environment
e) None of these

7. Afirm has decided to alter its pricing and promotional strategies in response to slower than expected job growth and declining personal incomes. The firm is responding to changes in it's:
a) Socio-cultural environment
b) Political environment
c) Economic environment
d) Competitive environment
e) None of these

8. The process of collecting information about the external marketing environment is:
a) Environmental management
b) Environmental scanning
c) Marketing management
d) Marketing research
e) None of these

9. Which is NOT classified in buy classes?
a) New task
b) Information gathering
c) Modified re-buy
d) Straight re-buy
e) None of these

10. With respect to consumer behaviour, one's friends and relatives could be considered a/an:
a) Impersonal influence
b) Reference group influence
c) Perceptual influence
d) Institutional influence
e) None of these

11. Which of the following is not part of the consumer proposition acquisition process?
a) Motive development
b) Information gathering
c) Proposition evaluation
d) Perception
e) None of these

12. The purchasing department reorders on a routine basis, very often working from an approved list of suppliers. This is referred to as:
a) Straight re-buy
b) New task
c) Modified re-buy
d) Routine buying
e) None of these

13. Which sampling techniques are often selected in qualitative research?
a) Non-probability sampling
b) Probability sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Random sampling
e) None of these

14. What is the term used to describe the degree to which the data elicited in a study is replicated in a repeat study?
a) Replication
b) Pre-code
c) Reliability
d) Convenience
e) None of these

15. One thing that is usually true of focus groups is that:
a) Most groups involve a small number of participants
b) They usually average 5 to 10 minutes in length
c) The moderator's job is to keep the group busy for the entire time and not let anyone leave
d) The questions used are highly structured and response-driven
e) None of these

16. Which type of research methods are designed to elicit responses to predetermined, standardized questions from a large number of respondents?
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Non-probability
d) Probability
e) None of these

17. The ____ process commences at corporate level. Here the organization sets out its overall mission, purpose and values.
a) researching
b) strategic planning
c) controlling
d) managing
e) None of these

18. A statement about what an organization wants to become, which sets out an organization's future, is referred to as:
a) Mission
b) Values
c) Organizational goals
d) Vision
e) None of these

19. Astatement that sets out what the organization wishes to achieve in the long term is referred to as:
a) Mission
b) Vision
c) Values
d) Strategic context
e) None of these

20. Organizational values are important because they ___.
a) help shape mission statements
b) help increase sales
c) help guide behaviour and the recruitment and selection decisions
d) help define market research
e) None of these

21. A commonly used basis for segmenting consumer markets:
a) Organizational size
b) Demographics
c) Product type
d) Price
e) None of these

22. Which of the following is not an example of a behavioural variable?
a) Product usage
b) Media usage
c) Purchase occasion
d) Personality
e) None of these

23. ACORN, a segmentation analysis technique, stands for which of the following?
a) A Corresponding Official Residential Notation
b) A Classification of Reported Nationals
c) A Classification of Residential Neighbourhood
d) A Countrywide Official Resources Navigation
e) None of these

24. The family life cycle:
a) is a way to apply psychographic segmentation
b) refers to the process of family formation and dissolution
c) provides insights into the relationships among age, occupation, income and housing
d) is composed of the 11 stages of personal growth from infancy to retirement
e) None of these

25. Offerings move through a sequential, pre-determined pattern of development similar to the biological path that life forms follow. This is the concept of:
a) Process of diffusion
b) New product development
c) Product life cycle
d) Brand management
e) None of these

26. Which of the following is NOT a service innovation strategy?
a) Branded service innovation
b) Established service innovation
c) Incremental service innovation
d) Radical service innovation
e) None of these

27. ____ is concerned with value creation generated through novel or unusual service concepts.
a) Established service innovation
b) Radical service innovation
c) Generic service innovation
d) Incremental service innovation
e) None of these

28. At the highest end of innovation maturity, firms seek to integrate the services dimension as part of their total offer. This is known as:
a) Servitization
b) Reutilization
c) Diffusion
d) Productization
e) None of these

29. In marketing terms, ____ refers to what we get for what we pay.
a) Revenue
b) Cost
c) Value
d) Product
e) None of these

30. ____ act as cues by indicating to a potential customer that there is a bargain to be had.
a) Odd-number pricing
b) Sale signs
c) Relative price
d) Price surplus
e) None of these

31. ____vary according to the number of units of goods made or services sold.
a) Product assets
b) Price elasticity
c) Fixed costs
d) Variable costs
e) None of these

32. Costs which do not vary according to the number of units of product made or service sold:
a) Fixed costs
b) Moving assets
c) Working capital
d) Fixed capital
e) None of these

33. This is a hierarchy of effects or sequential model used to explain how advertising works:
a) ADD
b) AIDA
c) PESTLE
d) SWOT
e) None of these

34. AIDA stands for Awareness, ___, Desire and _____.
a) Interest; Action
b) Intensity; Appeal
c) Involvement; Action
d) Involvement; Appeal
e) None of these

35. Marketing communications is used to achieve one of two principal goals. The first concerns the
development of brand values. What is the other goal?
a) Increasing sales
b) Informing about products
c) Changing the behavior of target audiences
d) Channeling communication tools
e) None of these

36. Sharing of meaning created through the transmission of information:
a) Communication
b) Noise
c) Transfer
d) Understanding
e) None of these

37. Users are able to create content and become more involved with a brand through:
a) Door to door
b) Online communities
c) Direct mail
d) Telemarketing
e) None of these

38. A commercial activity, whereby one party permits another an opportunity to exploit an association with a target audience in return for funds, services or resources is referred to as:
a) Advertising
b) Exchange
c) Sponsorship
d) Public relations
e) None

39. These sell directly to end consumers and may purchase directly from manufacturers and/or deal with wholesalers:
a) Distributors
b) Franchising
c) Merchant
d) Retailers
e) None of these

40. These store goods for moderate to long periods:
a) Storage warehouses
b) Distribution centres
c) Haulage transport
d) Electronic data interchange
e) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) c; 2) c; 3) d; 4) b; 5) c; 6) b; 7) c; 8) b; 9) b; 10) b;
11) d; 12) a; 13) a; 14) c; 15) a; 16) a; 17) b; 18) d; 19) a; 20) c;
21) b; 22) d; 23) c; 24) b; 25) c; 26) a; 27) b; 28) a; 29) c; 30) b;
31) d; 32) a; 33) b; 34) a; 35) c; 36) a; 37) b; 38) c; 39) d; 40) a.

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE MCQs FOR ALL BANK EXAMS

2015-01-25T17:15:00.001+05:30

1. Connectivity is a concept related to
a) Transmitting information, either by computer or by phone
b) The interconnections within a computer
c) Using computer networks to link people and resources
d) Being in an active session with your computer
e) All the above

2. One of the most dramatic changes in connectivity and communications in the past five years has been _______
a) Mobile or wireless telephones
b) public and private discussion
c) Satellite uplinks
d) running programs on remote computers
e) land line phones

3. The four basic elements of any communication system include
a) peer-to-peer, videoconferencing, online photo-conferencing, net optical
b) Sending and receiving devices, communication channel, connection device, and data transmission specifications
c) Telephone lines, coaxial cables, fiber-optic cables, and communication channel
d) Software, hardware, communication channel, network
e) Telephone lines, peer-to-peer, videoconferencing

4. An older type of data communications channel, using multiple copper wires, is called ___ technology.
a) Microwave
b) fiber-optic cable
c) coaxial cable
d) twisted pair
e) wireless

5. A communications channel that is made up of a single copper core with a ground sheath around
it is called a ________.
a) Twisted pair channels
b) microwave
c) coaxial cable
d) fiber-optic cable
e) beam cable

6. Data is transmitted using light through a(n) ________ cable.
a) Twisted pair
b) fiber-optic
c) coaxial
d) microwave
e) all the above

7. Which physical connection is the fastest?
a) Twisted pair
b) coaxial cable
c) fiber-optics
d) microwaves
e) all are equal

8. Communication in a straight line is accomplished using ________.
a) Twisted pairs
b) fiber-optics
c) coaxial cables
d) infrared
e) microwaves

9. Most Web-enabled devices follow a standard known as
a) FireWire
b) Bluetooth
c) TCP/IP
d) Wi-Fi
e) Blue band

10. A relatively new technology that allows wireless connectivity is called ________.
a) Bluetooth
b) Black tooth
c) Blue band
d) Broadband
e) Wi-Fi

11. Bluetooth is a type of radio wave information transmission system that is good for about
a) 30 feet
b) 30 yards
c) 30 miles
d) 300 miles
e) 3000 yards

12. The telephone is an example of a(n) ________ signal.
a) analog
b) digital
c) modulated
d) demodulated
e) debug

13. Acredit card-sized expansion board that is inserted into portable computers that connects the modem to the telephone wall jack is the ________.
a) Internal modem
b) External modem
c) PC Card modem
d) Wireless modem
e) Dongle

14. A modem that is contained within the system unit is called a(n) ________ modem.
a) external
b) internal
c) wireless
d) Wi-Fi
e) Cable

15. A modem that doesn't need to be connected to a telephone line is the ________ modem.
a) external
b) internal
c) Broad band
d) DSL
e) wireless

16. Aspecial high-speed line used by large corporations to support digital communications is known as
a) satellite/air connection service lines
b) cable modems
c) Digital subscriber lines
d) T1, T2, T3 and T4 lines
e) All the above

17. An affordable technology that uses existing telephone lines to provide high-speed connections is called ________.
a) ISDN
b) microwave
c) cable modem
d) DSL
e) None of these

18. The capacity of a communication channel is measured in
a) Bandwidth
b) bit capacity
c) baud rate
d) data flow
e) baud flow

19. Voice band ________
a) Allows the user to download messages
b) is used for standard telephone communication
c) Is used in special leased lines to connect minicomputers and mainframes
d) Provides a high-speed communication channel
e) All the above

20. The greatest capacity for data transmission happens in ________ devices.
a) Voice band
b) medium band
c) big band
d) mega-band
e) broadband

21. The rules for exchanging data between computers are called
a) Interconnections
b) synchronous packages
c) Protocols
d) data transmission synchronization
e) rolls

22. The standard protocol for the Internet is___
a) TCP
b) IP protocol
c) IP address
d) TCP/IP
e) None

23. ______ is the process of breaking down information sent or transmitted across the Internet into
small parts called packets.
a) Protocol
b) bandwidth
c) reformatting
d) identification
e) calling

24. The systems developed to automatically translate text-based addresses to numeric IP addresses
is called________
a) DSL
b) DNS
c) SNL
d) SDN
e) SOD

25. A computer network must contain at least this number of computers.
a) Two
b) A few
c) Twenty
d) Hundreds
e) Three

26. Two or more computers connected so that they can communicate with each other and share information is called a______
a) Satellite
b) protocol
c) broadcast
d) Wi-Fi
e) network

27. Any device that is connected to a network is called a_______
a) Client
b) node
c) server
d) manager
e) HR

28. A device, connected to a network, that requests resources available from other devices is called a
a) User
b) Server
c) Host
d) NOS
e) Client

29. A device, connected to a network, that shares resources with other nodes is called a________
a) Client
b) server
c) host
d) NOS
e) User

30. The acronym NOS refers to the
a) Operating system on the clients
b) Network order system, or topology
c) Operating system of the network
d) network architecture
e) all the above

ANSWERS:
1) c 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) c 6) b 7) c 8) d 9) d 10) a
11) a 12) a 13) c 14) b 15) e 16) d 17) d 18) a 19) b 20) e
21) c 22) d 23) c 24) b 25) a 26) e 27) b 28) e 29) b 30) c