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cat standards categories

2017-02-13T07:50:00.002-08:00

The standards categories

Category	Maximum data rate	Usual application
CAT 1 (de facto name, never a standard)	Up to 1 Mbps (1 MHz)	analog voice (POTS) Basic Rate Interface in ISDN Doorbell wiring
CAT 2(de facto name, never a standard)	4 Mbps	Mainly used in the IBM cabling system for Token Ring networks
CAT 3	16 Mbps	Voice (analog most popular implementation) 10BASE-T Ethernet
CAT 4	20 Mbps	Used in 16 Mbps Token Ring, otherwise not used much. Was only a standard briefly and never widely installed.
CAT 5	100 MHz	100 Mbps TPDDI 155 Mbps ATM No longer supported; replaced by 5E. 10/100BASE-T 4/16MBps Token Ring Analog Voice
CAT 5E	100 MHz	100 Mbps TPDDI 155 Mbps ATM Gigabit Ethernet Offers better near-end crosstalk than CAT 5
CAT 6	Up to 250 MHz	Minimum cabling for data centers in TIA-942. Quickly replacing category 5e.
CAT 6E	MHz (field-tested to 500 MHz)	Support for 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GBASE-T) May be either shielded (STP, ScTP, S/FTP) or unshielded (UTP) This standard published in Feb. 2008. Minimum for Data Centers in ISO data center standard.
CAT 7 (ISO Class F)	600 MHz 1.2 GHz in pairs with Siemon connector	Full-motion video Teleradiology Government and manufacturing environments Fully Shielded (S/FTP) system using non-RJ45 connectors but backwards compatible with hybrid cords. Until February 2008, the only standard (published in 2002) to support 10GBASE-T for a full 100m.

IEEE Ethernet standards

2017-02-13T07:47:00.001-08:00

IEEE Ethernet standards

Ethernet is defined in a number of IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) 802.3 standards. These standards define the physical and data-link layer specifications for Ethernet. The most important 802.3 standards are:

· 10Base-T (IEEE 802.3) – 10 Mbps with category 3 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) wiring, up to 100 meters long.

· 100Base-TX (IEEE 802.3u) – known as Fast Ethernet, uses category 5, 5E, or 6 UTP wiring, up to 100 meters long.

· 100Base-FX (IEEE 802.3u) – a version of Fast Ethernet that uses multi-mode optical fiber. Up to 412 meters long.

· 1000Base-CX (IEEE 802.3z) – uses copper twisted-pair cabling. Up to 25 meters long.

· 1000Base-T (IEEE 802.3ab) – Gigabit Ethernet that uses Category 5 UTP wiring. Up to 100 meters long.

· 1000Base-SX (IEEE 802.3z) – 1 Gigabit Ethernet running over multimode fiber-optic cable.

· 1000Base-LX (IEEE 802.3z) – 1 Gigabit Ethernet running over single-mode fiber.

· 10GBase-T (802.3.an) – 10 Gbps connections over category 5e, 6, and 7 UTP cables.

Notice how the first number in the name of the standard represents the speed of the network in megabits per second. The word base refers to baseband, meaning that the signals are transmitted without modulation. The last part of the standard name refers to the cabling used to carry signals. For example, 1000Base-T means that the speed of the network is up to 1000 Mbps, baseband signaling is used, and the twisted-pair cabling will be used (T stands for twisted-pair).

windows server 2012 multiple choice questions

2015-05-09T06:16:00.003-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

1. Which terminology is being described below?
A ___ trust allows resources in your domain (the domain that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed more quickly by users in another domain (which is nested within another domain tree) in your forest

a. two-way, incoming, shortcut

b. one-way, outgoing, shortcut

c. two-way, incoming, forest

d. one-way, outgoing, forest

2. Which terminology is being described below?

Time synchronization is critical for the proper operation of many Windows services and line-of-business applications. The ___ uses the Network Time Protocol (NTP) to synchronize computer clocks on the network so that an accurate clock value, or time stamp, can be assigned to network validation requests and resource access requests

a. Network Services Shell (Netsh)

b. Windows Time service (W32time)

c. Listsvc

d. Fixmbr

3. You have decided to install Windows Server 2012 by choosing the Service Core Installation option. If you want to install, configure or uninstall server roles remotely, what tool would you use?

a. Windows PowerShell

b. Any of these

c. Server Manager

d. Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)

4. Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server.
Which type of virtual network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well any network traffic between the management operating system and the external network?

a. Internal virtual network

b. Private virtual network

c. External

d. All of the above

5. Which of the following features is available when Windows Server 2012 is installed using the GUI option but without the desktop experience feature installed?

a. Metro-style Start screen

b. Built-in help system

c. All of these

d. Windows Media Player

6. Server manager is a great tool for managing most of your server settings and configuration all in one central place. Which one of the following Server manager Features is used for Storage management, replication and searching?

a. Dynamic Host Configuration Server

b. Terminal Services

c. Domain Name Service

d. File Services

7. Server manager is a great tool for managing most of your server settings and configuration all in one central place. Which one of the following Server manager Features is used for management of Public Key Infrastructure?

a. Dynamic Host Configuration Server

b. WINS Server

c. Domain Name Service

d. Active Directory Certificate Services

8. Your IT manager is concerned that someone is trying to gain access to your company's computers by logging on with valid domain user names and various password attempts. Which audit policy should you monitor for these activities?

a. Policy Change

b. Account Logon

c. Privilege Use

d. Directory Service Access

9. Which terminology is being described below:

This trust is a manually created trust that shortens the trust path to improve the speed at which authentications, which occur between domain trees, are processed

a. Quick Trust

b. Simple Trust

c. Easy Trust

d. Shortcut Trust

10. Is the following statement about Hyper-V true or false?
Hyper-V does not support wireless networks

a. True

b. False

11. When you install Windows Server 2012, you can choose between Server Core Installation and Server with a GUI..
Which option would reduce the potential attack surface and servicing requirements?

a. Server Core Installation

b. Server with a GUI

c. Itanium based

d. None of the above

12. Managing Group Policy objects is a tiresome task. Which of the following Windows Server 2012 features could you use to save time when creating GPO’s with similar settings?

a. UAC

b. PXE boot

c. IFM

d. Starter GPO

13. RODC comes with a number of features that focus on heightened security with limited functionality to remote office users. Which of the following are features of RODC?

a. Filtered Attribute Sets

b. All of these

c. Read-only DNS

d. Unidirectional Replication

14. In Windows Server 2012, you can remove the Server Graphical Shell, resulting in the “Minimal Server Interface.” This is similar to a Server with a GUI installation except that some features are not installed.

Which of the following features is not installed in this scenario?

a. MMC

b. Windows Explorer

c. Control Panel (subset)

d. Server Manager

15. You have just finished installing Windows Server 2012 on a new server. Your colleague has informed you that its essential that you must activate Windows Server. Which of the following command line tools can be used to Activate Windows Server?

a. Cscript C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

b. Netdom C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

c. Ocsetup C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

d. Netsh C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

16. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.

a. 4

b. 8

c. 32

d. 64

17. The number of addresses in a class C block is?

a. 10000

b. 12000

c. 256

d. 100

18. Loopback address in IPV6?

a. 00:11

b. ::1

c. 1

d. 127.0.0.1

19. Which of the following data center type provide maximum uptime?

a. Tier0

b. Tier1

c. Tier2

d. Tier4

20. Which RAID types use parity for data protection?
a. RAID 11
b. RAID 0
c. RAID 12
d. RAID 5

21. What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID1?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5

22. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?

a. Leading zeroes are required

b. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.

c. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.

d. None of the above

23. Which file system provides you quota and security?

a. NTFS

b. FST

c. FAT

d. FAT32

24. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides _____ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) url
d) none of the mentioned

25. DHCP is used for
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned

26. Which of the following server is required to resolve Server name into IP and vice-versa?

a. WDS

b. DNS

c. FTP

d. IP SERVER

27. Which of the following disc type will be used for 10TB HDD drive?

a. MBR

b. GPT

c. SSD

d. SCSI

28. What must be installed before you install the DFS service on a server to create a domain based DFS namespace?

A. WSUS

B. File Services

C. WSRM

D. WDS

29. Which of the following local groups is added on a file server to enable a user at a remote site to take manual backups of a file server once a week to a removable USB 2.0 device, that will be then transported by courier to your organization’s head office location?

A. Remote Desktop Users

B. Administrators

C. Backup Operators

D. Power Users

30. Mukesh works in a company that has an AD DS forest that consists of a forest root domain plus five domains. He should create a group that contains 70 users who require access to resources in all six domains. All the user accounts are located in the forest root domain. Which of the following group scope he should use?

A. Universal

B. Domain local

C. Local

D. Global

31. Logical components of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) :

a) Domain controllers

b) Read‑only domain controllers (RODC)

c) Domains

d) folder

32. What is FSMO :

a) Flexible single master operations .

b) Flexible single master output .

c) Flexible source master operation.

d) None.

33. Worm is program or algorithm that :

a) Replicates itself automatically.

b) Does not replicate itself.

c) Does not infect computer programs.

d) All

34. Application that monitor activity with express permission :

a) Spyware

b) Adware

c) Malware

d) Spam

35. Outgoing mail server :

a) SMTP

b) POP3

c) IMAP

d) All

36. Incoming mail servers are (choose two) :

a) SMTP

b) POP3

c) IMAP

d) exchange

37. What is FQDN

a) The DNS Tree structure.

b) Active Directory replication method.

c) The complete domain name.

d) DNS servers outside of that network.

38. Forward Lookup Zones:

a) Resolves names to IP addresses

b) Resolves IP Addresses into name

c) None

d) All

39. A firewall is :

a) The firewall is resistant to attacks

b) The firewall is the only transit point between networks

c) The firewall enforces the access control policy

d) All

40. A Proxy Server is a computer program that :

a) acts as an intermediary between a web browser and a web server

b) To give users rapid access to popular web destinations

c) to store frequently requested pages

d) All

41. IPv4 Minimum packet size:

a) 576 bytes

b) 1280 bytes

c) 1024 bytes

d) None

42. IPv6 Allocate __ bits for internal subnetting :

a) 45

b) 48

c) 16

d) 64

43. In RODC the changes to Active Directory objects are

a) Possible

b) Not possible

44. The data link layer consists of two sub-layers which are (choose2):

a) Media Access Control (MAC)

b) Logical Link Control (LLC)

c) Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

d) User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

45. Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) and Wireless networks (IEEE 802.11) are the commonly used ___ technologies

a) LAN

b) WAN

c) MAN

d) None

46. A dynamic disk does not have a partition table

a) True

b) False

47. You cannot convert Dynamic back to basic without erasing all the data

a) True

b) False

48. POST is used for testing, identifying, initialising the RAM, CPU, DMA controllers, and various components of the chipset.

a) True

b) False

49. User limit in Windows Server 2012 Essentials Edition :

a) 25

b) 15

c) 30

d) 0

50. Windows Server 2012 Foundation Edition supports Active Directory Certificate Services

a) True

b) False

server 2012 multiple choice questions and answers

2015-05-09T06:06:00.000-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

1. Which terminology is being described below?

A ___ trust allows resources in your domain (the domain that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed more quickly by users in another domain (which is nested within another domain tree) in your forest

a. two-way, incoming, shortcut

b. one-way, outgoing, shortcut

c. two-way, incoming, forest

d. one-way, outgoing, forest

a. Network Services Shell (Netsh)

b. Windows Time service (W32time)

c. Listsvc

d. Fixmbr

3. You have decided to install Windows Server 2012 by choosing the Service Core Installation option. If you want to install, configure or uninstall server roles remotely, what tool would you use?

a. Windows PowerShell

b. Any of these

c. Server Manager

d. Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)

4. Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server.

Which type of virtual network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well any network traffic between the management operating system and the external network.

a. Internal virtual network

b. Private virtual network

c. External

d. All of the above

5. Which of the following features is available when Windows Server 2012 is installed using the GUI option but without the desktop experience feature installed?

a. Metro-style Start screen

b. Built-in help system

c. All of these

d. Windows Media Player

a. Dynamic Host Configuration Server

b. Terminal Services

c. Domain Name Service

d. File Services

a. Dynamic Host Configuration Server

b. WINS Server

c. Domain Name Service

d. Active Directory Certificate Services

a. Policy Change

b. Account Logon

c. Privilege Use

d. Directory Service Access

a. Quick Trust

b. Simple Trust

c. Easy Trust

d. Shortcut Trust

10. Is the following statement about Hyper-V true or false?
Hyper-V does not support wireless networks

a. True

b. False

c. sometime

11. When you install Windows Server 2012, you can choose between Server Core Installation and Server with a GUI..
Which option would reduce the potential attack surface and servicing requirements?

a. Server Core Installation

b. Server with a GUI

c. Itanium based

d. None of the above

12. Managing Group Policy objects is a tiresome task. Which of the following Windows Server 2012 features could you use to save time when creating GPO’s with similar settings?

a. UAC

b. PXE boot

c. IFM

d. Starter GPO

13. RODC comes with a number of features that focus on heightened security with limited functionality to remote office users. Which of the following are features of RODC?

a. Filtered Attribute Sets

b. All of these

c. Read-only DNS

d. Unidirectional Replication

14. In Windows Server 2012, you can remove the Server Graphical Shell, resulting in the “Minimal Server Interface.” This is similar to a Server with a GUI installation except that some features are not installed.

Which of the following features is not installed in this scenario?

a. MMC

b. Windows Explorer

c. Control Panel (subset)

d. Server Manager

15. You have just finished installing Windows Server 2012 on a new server. Your colleague has informed you that its essential that you must activate Windows Server. Which of the following command line tools can be used to Activate Windows Server?

a. Cscript C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

b. Netdom C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

c. Ocsetup C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

d. Netsh C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato

16. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.

a. 4

b. 8

c. 32

d. 64

17. The number of addresses in a class C block is ?

a. 10000

b. 12000

c. 256

d. 100

18. Loopback address in IPV6?

a. 00:11

b. ::1

c. 1

d. 127.0.0.1

19. Which of the following data center type provide maximum uptime?

a. Tier0

b. Tier1

c. Tier2

d. Tier4

20. Which two RAID types use parity for data protection?
a. RAID 1
b. RAID 2
c. RAID 3
d. RAID 5

21. What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID1?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5

22. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?

a. Leading zeroes are requited

b. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.

c. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.

d. None of the above

23. Which file system provides you quota and security?

a. NTFS

b. FST

c. FAT

d. FAT32

24. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides _____ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) url
d) none of the mentioned

25. DHCP is used for
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned

26. Which of the following server is require to resolve server name into ip and vice-versa?

a. WDS

b. DNS

c. FTP

d. IP SERVER

27. Which of the following disc type will be used for 10TB HDD drive?

a. MBR

b. GPT

c. SSD

d. SCSI

28. What must be installed before you install the DFS service on a server to create a domain based DFS namespace?

A. WSUS

B. File Services

C. WSRM

D. WDS

A. Remote Desktop Users

B. Administrators

C. Backup Operators

D. Power Users

A. Universal

B. Domain local

C. Local

D. Global

31. IIS stands for?

a. Internet Information Services

b. International internet service

c. Inter information service

d. Information internet server

32.

ccnp switching questions and answers

2013-09-27T00:06:00.003-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

CHAPTER 2

1. Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?

a. Ethernet hub

b. Layer 2 switch

c. Layer 3 switch

d. Router

2. When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the collision domain

spread?

a. No collision domain exists.

b. One switch port.

c. One VLAN.

d. All ports on the switch.

3. What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?

a. Source MAC address

b. Destination MAC address

c. Source switch port

d. IP addresses

4. What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM table?

a. The frame is forwarded to the default port.

b. The switch generates an ARP request for the address.

c. The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the receiving port).

d. The switch drops the frame.

5. In the Catalyst 6500, frames can be filtered with access lists for security and QoS

purposes. This filtering occurs according to which of the following?

a. Before a CAM table lookup

b. After a CAM table lookup

c. Simultaneously with a CAM table lookup

d. According to how the access lists are configured

6. Access list contents can be merged into which of the following?

a. CAM table

b. TCAM table

c. FIB table

d. ARP table

7. Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of these techniques?

a. Route caching

b. Netflow switching

c. Topology-based switching

d. Demand-based switching

8. Which answer describes multilayer switching with CEF?

a. The first packet is routed and then the flow is cached.

b. The switch supervisor CPU forwards each packet.

c. The switching hardware learns station addresses and builds a routing database.

d. A single database of routing information is built for the switching hardware.

9. In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after forwarding decisions are made?

a. Ingress queues

b. Egress queues

c. CAM table

d. TCAM

10. What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry?

a. 64 bits

b. 128 bits

c. 134 bits

d. 168 bits

11. Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When a packet is matched against an

access list, in what order are the TCAM entries evaluated?

a. Sequentially in the order of the original access list.

b. Numerically by the access list number.

c. Alphabetically by the access list name.

d. All entries are evaluated in parallel.

12. Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display the addresses in the CAM table?

a. show cam

b. show mac address-table

c. show mac

d. show cam address-table

CHAPTER 3

1. What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?

a. Spanning Tree Protocol

b. Token Ring

c. Ethernet

d. Switched Ethernet

2. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet

the same?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4

3. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet

different?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4

4. What is the maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX connection?

a. 100 feet

b. 100 m

c. 328 m

d. 500 m

5. Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the following?

a. Spanning-tree mode

b. Duplex mode

c. Quality of service mode

d. Error threshold

6. Which of the following cannot be automatically determined and set if the far end of

a connection doesn’t support autonegotiation?

a. Link speed

b. Link duplex mode

c. Link media type

d. MAC address

7. Which of these is not a standard type of gigabit interface converter (GBIC) or small

form factor pluggable (SFP) module?

a. 1000BASE-LX/LH

b. 1000BASE-T

c. 1000BASE-FX

d. 1000BASE-ZX

8. What type of cable should you use to connect two switches back to back using their

Fast Ethernet 10/100 ports?

a. Rollover cable

b. Transfer cable

c. Crossover cable

d. Straight-through cable

9. Assume that you have just entered the configure terminal command. To configure

the speed of the first Fast Ethernet interface on Cisco Catalyst switch module number

one to 100 Mbps, which one of these commands should you enter first?

a. speed 100 mbps

b. speed 100

c. interface fastethernet 1/0/1

d. interface fast ethernet 1/0/1

10. If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the first thing you should do?

a. Reload the switch.

b. Use the clear errdisable port command.

c. Use the shut and no shut interface-configuration commands.

d. Determine the cause of the problem.

11. Which of the following show interface output information can you use to diagnose a

switch port problem?

a. Port state.

b. Port speed.

c. Input errors.

d. Collisions.

e. All these answers are correct.

Chapter 4

1. A VLAN is which of the following?

a. Collision domain

b. Spanning-tree domain

c. Broadcast domain

d. VTP domain

2. Switches provide VLAN connectivity at which layer of the OSI model?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4

3. Which one of the following is needed to pass data between two PCs, each connected

to a different VLAN?

a. Layer 2 switch

b. Layer 3 switch

c. Trunk

d. Tunnel

4. Which Catalyst IOS switch command is used to assign a port to a VLAN?

a. access vlan vlan-id

b. switchport access vlan vlan-id

c. vlan vlan-id

d. set port vlan vlan-id

5. Which of the following is a standardized method of trunk encapsulation?

a. 802.1d

b. 802.1Q

c. 802.3z

d. 802.1a

6. What is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk encapsulation?

a. CDP

b. EIGRP

c. ISL

d. DSL

7. Which of these protocols dynamically negotiates trunking parameters?

a. PAgP

b. STP

c. CDP

d. DTP

8. How many different VLANs can an 802.1Q trunk support?

a. 256

b. 1024

c. 4096

d. 32,768

e. 65,536

9. Which of the following incorrectly describes a native VLAN?

a. Frames are untagged on an 802.1Q trunk.

b. Frames are untagged on an ISL trunk.

c. Frames can be interpreted by a nontrunking host.

d. The native VLAN can be configured for each trunking port.

10. If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a link between

them, which one will be negotiated?

a. ISL

b. 802.1Q

c. DTP

d. VTP

11. Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?

a. None

b. Only the native VLAN

c. All active VLANs

d. Only negotiated VLANs

12. Which command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using negotiation?

a. switchport mode trunk

b. switchport mode trunk nonegotiate

c. switchport mode dynamic auto

d. switchport mode dynamic desirable

13. Two hosts are connected to switch interfaces Fast Ethernet 0/1 and 0/33, but they

cannot communicate with each other. Their IP addresses are in the 192.168.10.0/24

subnet, which is carried over VLAN 10. The show vlan id 10 command generates the

following output:

Switch# show vlan id 10

VLAN Name Status Ports

—— ———————————————— ————- ———————————————

Users active Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, Fa0/4,

Fa0/5, Fa0/6, Fa0/7, Fa0/8,

Fa0/9, Fa0/10, Fa0/11,FA0/12,Fa0/13, Fa0/14, Fa0/15, Fa0/16,

Fa0/17, Fa0/18, Fa0/19, Fa0/20,

Fa0/21, Fa0/22, Fa0/23, Fa0/25,

Fa0/26, Fa0/27, Fa0/28, Fa0/31,

Fa0/32, Fa0/34, Fa0/35, Fa0/36,

Fa0/37, Fa0/39, Fa0/40, Fa0/41,

Fa0/42, Fa0/43, Fa0/46

The hosts are known to be up and connected. Which of the following reasons might

be causing the problem?

a. The two hosts are assigned to VLAN 1.

b. The two hosts are assigned to different VLANs.

c. Interface FastEthernet0/33 is a VLAN trunk.

d. The two hosts are using unregistered MAC addresses.

14. A trunk link between two switches did not come up as expected. The configuration

on Switch A is as follows:

Switch A# show running-config interface gigabitethernet0/1

interface GigabitEthernet0/1

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-10

switchport mode dynamic auto

no shutdown

The interface configuration on Switch B is as follows:

Switch B# show running-config interface gigabitethernet0/1

interface GigabitEthernet0/1

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode dynamic auto

switchport access vlan 5

no shutdown

Which one of the following reasons is probably causing the problem?

a. The two switches don’t have matching switchport trunk allowed vlan

commands.

b. Neither switch has a native VLAN configured.

c. Both switches are configured in the dynamic auto mode.

d. Switch B is configured to use access VLAN 5.

Chapter 5

1. Which of the following is not a Catalyst switch VTP mode?

a. Server

b. Client

c. Designated

d. Transparent

2. A switch in VTP transparent mode can do which one of the following?

a. Create a new VLAN

b. Only listen to VTP advertisements

c. Send its own VTP advertisements

d. Cannot make VLAN configuration changes

3. Which one of the following is a valid VTP advertisement?

a. Triggered update

b. VLAN database

c. Subset

d. Domain

4. Which one of the following is needed for VTP communication?

a. A Management VLAN

b. A Trunk link

c. An Access VLAN

d. An IP address

5. Which one of the following VTP modes does not allow any manual VLAN configuration

changes?

a. Server

b. Client

c. Designated

d. Transparent

6. Select all the parameters that decide whether to accept new VTP information:

a. VTP priority

b. VTP domain name

c. Configuration revision number

d. VTP server name

7. How many VTP management domains can a Catalyst switch participate in?

a. 1

b. 2

c. Unlimited

d. 4096

8. Which IOS command configures a Catalyst switch for VTP client mode?

a. set vtp mode client

b. vtp client

c. vtp mode client

d. vtp client mode

9. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

a. Limit the number of VLANs in a domain

b. Stop unnecessary VTP advertisements

c. Limit the extent of broadcast traffic

d. Limit the size of the virtual tree

10. Which VLAN number is never eligible for VTP pruning?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 1000

d. 1001

11. Which of the following might present a VTP problem?

a. Two or more VTP servers in a domain

b. Two servers with the same configuration revision number

c. A server in two domains

d. A new server with a higher configuration revision number

12. If a VTP server is configured for VTP version 2, what else must happen for successful

VTP communication in a domain?

a. A VTP version 2 password must be set.

b. All other switches in the domain must be version 2 capable.

c. All other switches must be configured for VTP version 2.

d. The VTP configuration revision number must be reset.

Chapter 6

1. If Fast Ethernet ports are bundled into an EtherChannel, what is the maximum

throughput supported on a Catalyst switch?

a. 100 Mbps

b. 200 Mbps

c. 400 Mbps

d. 800 Mbps

e. 1600 Mbps

2. Which of these methods distributes traffic over an EtherChannel?

a. Round robin

b. Least-used link

c. A function of address

d. A function of packet size

3. What type of interface represents an EtherChannel as a whole?

a. Channel

b. Port

c. Port channel

d. Channel port

4. Which of the following is not a valid method for EtherChannel load balancing?

a. Source MAC address

b. Source and destination MAC addresses

c. Source IP address

d. IP precedence

e. UDP/TCP port

5. How can the EtherChannel load-balancing method be set?

a. Per switch port

b. Per EtherChannel

c. Globally per switch

d. Can’t be configured

6. What logical operation is performed to calculate EtherChannel load balancing as a

function of two addresses?

a. OR

b. AND

c. XOR

d. NOR

7. Which one of the following is a valid combination of ports for an EtherChannel?

a. Two access links (one VLAN 5, one VLAN 5)

b. Two access links (one VLAN 1, one VLAN 10)

c. Two trunk links (one VLANs 1 to 10, one VLANs 1, 11 to 20)

d. Two Fast Ethernet links (both full duplex, one 10 Mbps)

8. Which of these is a method for negotiating an EtherChannel?

a. PAP

b. CHAP

c. LAPD

d. LACP

9. Which of the following is a valid EtherChannel negotiation mode combination between

two switches?

a. PAgP auto, PAgP auto

b. PAgP auto, PAgP desirable

c. on, PAgP auto

d. LACP passive, LACP passive

10. When is PAgP’s “desirable silent” mode useful?

a. When the switch should not send PAgP frames

b. When the switch should not form an EtherChannel

c. When the switch should not expect to receive PAgP frames

d. When the switch is using LACP mode

11. Which of the following EtherChannel modes does not send or receive any negotiation

frames?

a. channel-group 1 mode passive

b. channel-group 1 mode active

c. channel-group 1 mode on

d. channel-group 1 mode desirable

e. channel-group 1 mode auto

12. Two computers are the only hosts sending IP data across an EtherChannel between

two switches. Several different applications are being used between them. Which of

these load-balancing methods would be more likely to use the most links in the

EtherChannel?

a. Source and destination MAC addresses.

b. Source and destination IP addresses.

c. Source and destination TCP/UDP ports.

d. None of the other answers is correct.

13. Which command can be used to see the status of an EtherChannel’s links?

a. show channel link

b. show etherchannel status

c. show etherchannel summary

d. show ether channel status

Chapter 7

1. How is a bridging loop best described?

a. A loop formed between switches for redundancy

b. A loop formed by the Spanning Tree Protocol

c. A loop formed between switches where frames circulate endlessly

d. The round-trip path a frame takes from source to destination

2. Which of these is one of the parameters used to elect a root bridge?

a. Root path cost

b. Path cost

c. Bridge priority

d. BPDU revision number

3. If all switches in a network are left at their default STP values, which one of the following

is not true?

a. The root bridge will be the switch with the lowest MAC address.

b. The root bridge will be the switch with the highest MAC address.

c. One or more switches will have a bridge priority of 32,768.

d. A secondary root bridge will be present on the network.

4. Configuration BPDUs are originated by which of the following?

a. All switches in the STP domain

b. Only the root bridge switch

c. Only the switch that detects a topology change

d. Only the secondary root bridge when it takes over

5. Which of these is the single most important design decision to be made in a network

running STP?

a. Removing any redundant links

b. Making sure all switches run the same version of IEEE 802.1D

c. Root bridge placement

d. Making sure all switches have redundant links

6. What happens to a port that is neither a root port nor a designated port?

a. It is available for normal use.

b. It can be used for load balancing.

c. It is put into the Blocking state.

d. It is disabled.

7. What is the maximum number of root ports that a Catalyst switch can have?

a. 1

b. 2

c. Unlimited

d. None

8. What mechanism is used to set STP timer values for all switches in a network?

a. Configuring the timers on every switch in the network.

b. Configuring the timers on the root bridge switch.

c. Configuring the timers on both primary and secondary root bridge

switches.

d. The timers can’t be adjusted.

9. MAC addresses can be placed into the CAM table, but no data can be sent or received

if a switch port is in which of the following STP states?

a. Blocking

b. Forwarding

c. Listening

d. Learning

10. What is the default “hello” time for IEEE 802.1D?

a. 1 second

b. 2 seconds

c. 30 seconds

d. 60 seconds

11. Which of the following is the Spanning Tree Protocol defined in the IEEE 802.1Q

standard?

a. PVST

b. CST

c. EST

d. MST

12. If a switch has 10 VLANs defined and active, how many instances of STP will run using

PVST+ versus CST?

a. 1 for PVST+, 1 for CST

b. 1 for PVST+, 10 for CST

c. 10 for PVST+, 1 for CST

d. 10 for PVST+, 10 for CST

Chapter 8

1. Where should the root bridge be placed on a network?

a. On the fastest switch

b. Closest to the most users

c. Closest to the center of the network

d. On the least-used switch

2. Which of the following is a result of a poorly placed root bridge in a network?

a. Bridging loops form.

b. STP topology can’t be resolved.

c. STP topology can take unexpected paths.

d. Root bridge election flapping occurs.

3. Which of these parameters should you change to make a switch become a root bridge?

a. Switch MAC address

b. Path cost

c. Port priority

d. Bridge priority

4. What is the default 802.1D STP bridge priority on a Catalyst switch?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 32,768

d. 65,535

5. Which of the following commands is most likely to make a switch become the root

bridge for VLAN 5, assuming that all switches have the default STP parameters?

a. spanning-tree root

b. spanning-tree root vlan 5

c. spanning-tree vlan 5 priority 100

d. spanning-tree vlan 5 root

6. What is the default path cost of a Gigabit Ethernet switch port?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 19

e. 1000

7. What command can change the path cost of interface Gigabit Ethernet 3/1 to a

value of 8?

a. spanning-tree path-cost 8

b. spanning-tree cost 8

c. spanning-tree port-cost 8

d. spanning-tree gig 3/1 cost 8

8. What happens if the root bridge switch and another switch are configured with different

STP Hello timer values?

a. Nothing—each sends hellos at different times.

b. A bridging loop could form because the two switches are out of sync.

c. The switch with the lower Hello timer becomes the root bridge.

d. The other switch changes its Hello timer to match the root bridge

9. What network diameter value is the basis for the default STP timer calculations?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 7

d. 9

e. 15

10. Where should the STP PortFast feature be used?

a. An access-layer switch port connected to a PC

b. An access-layer switch port connected to a hub

c. A distribution-layer switch port connected to an access layer switch

d. A core-layer switch port

11. Where should the STP UplinkFast feature be enabled?

a. An access-layer switch.

b. A distribution-layer switch.

c. A core-layer switch.

d. All these answers are correct.

12. If used, the STP BackboneFast feature should be enabled on which of these?

a. All backbone- or core-layer switches

b. All backbone- and distribution-layer switches

c. All access-layer switches

d. All switches in the network

13. Which one of the following commands can be used to verify the current root bridge

in VLAN 10?

a. show root vlan 10

b. show root-bridge vlan 10

c. show spanning-tree vlan 10 root

d. show running-config

Chapter 9

1. Why is it important to protect the placement of the root bridge?

a. To keep two root bridges from becoming active

b. To keep the STP topology stable

c. So all hosts have the correct gateway

d. So the root bridge can have complete knowledge of the STP topology

2. Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting superior BPDUs?

a. STP Loop Guard

b. STP BPDU Guard

c. STP Root Guard

d. UDLD

3. Which of the following commands can you use to enable STP Root Guard on a

switch port?

a. spanning-tree root guard

b. spanning-tree root-guard

c. spanning-tree guard root

d. spanning-tree rootguard enable

4. Where should the STP Root Guard feature be enabled on a switch?

a. All ports

b. Only ports where the root bridge should never appear

c. Only ports where the root bridge should be located

d. Only ports with PortFast enabled

5. Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting BPDUs when

PortFast is enabled?

a. STP Loop Guard

b. STP BPDU Guard

c. STP Root Guard

d. UDLD

6. To maintain a loop-free STP topology, which one of the following should a switch uplink

be protected against?

a. A sudden loss of BPDUs

b. Too many BPDUs

c. The wrong version of BPDUs

d. BPDUs relayed from the root bridge

7. Which of the following commands can enable STP Loop Guard on a switch port?

a. spanning-tree loop guard

b. spanning-tree guard loop

c. spanning-tree loop-guard

d. spanning-tree loopguard enable

8. STP Loop Guard detects which of the following conditions?

a. The sudden appearance of superior BPDUs

b. The sudden lack of BPDUs

c. The appearance of duplicate BPDUs

d. The appearance of two root bridges

9. Which of the following features can actively test for the loss of the receive side of a

link between switches?

a. POST

b. BPDU

c. UDLD

d. STP

10. UDLD must detect a unidirectional link before which of the following?

a. The Max Age timer expires.

b. STP moves the link to the Blocking state.

c. STP moves the link to the Forwarding state.

d. STP moves the link to the Listening state.

11. What must a switch do when it receives a UDLD message on a link?

a. Relay the message on to other switches

b. Send a UDLD acknowledgment

c. Echo the message back across the link

d. Drop the message

12. Which of the following features effectively disables spanning-tree operation on a

switch port?

a. STP PortFast

b. STP BPDU filtering

c. STP BPDU Guard

d. STP Root Guard

13. To reset switch ports that have been put into the errdisable mode by UDLD, which

one of the following commands should be used?

a. clear errdisable udld

b. udld reset

c. no udld

d. show udld errdisable

Chapter 10

1. Which one of the following commands enables the use of RSTP?

a. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

b. no spanning-tree mode pvst

c. spanning-tree rstp

d. spanning-tree mode rstp

e. None. RSTP is enabled by default.

2. On which standard is RSTP based?

a. 802.1Q

b. 802.1D

c. 802.1w

d. 802.1s

3. Which of the following is not a port state in RSTP?

a. Listening

b. Learning

c. Discarding

d. Forwarding

4. When a switch running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU, what happens?

a. The BPDU is discarded or dropped.

b. An ICMP message is returned.

c. The switch begins to use 802.1D rules on that port.

d. The switch disables RSTP.

5. When does an RSTP switch consider a neighbor to be down?

a. After three BPDUs are missed

b. After six BPDUs are missed

c. After the Max Age timer expires

d. After the Forward timer expires

6. Which process is used during RSTP convergence?

a. BPDU propagation

b. Synchronization

c. Forward timer expiration

d. BPDU

7. What causes RSTP to view a port as a point-to-point port?

a. Port speed

b. Port media

c. Port duplex

d. Port priority

8. Which of the following events triggers a topology change with RSTP on a nonedge

port?

a. A port comes up or goes down.

b. A port comes up.

c. A port goes down.

d. A port moves to the Forwarding state.

9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of MST?

a. A reduced number of STP instances

b. Fast STP convergence

c. Eliminated need for CST

d. Interoperability with PVST+

10. Which of the following standards defines the MST protocol?

a. 802.1Q

b. 802.1D

c. 802.1w

d. 802.1s

11. How many instances of STP are supported in the Cisco implementation of MST?

a. 1

b. 16

c. 256

d. 4096

12. What switch command can be used to change from PVST+ to MST?

a. spanning-tree mst enable

b. no spanning-tree pvst+

c. spanning-tree mode mst

d. spanning-tree mst

Chapter 11

1. Which of the following arrangements can be considered interVLAN routing?

a. One switch, two VLANs, one connection to a router.

b. One switch, two VLANs, two connections to a router.

c. Two switches, two VLANs, two connections to a router.

d. All of these answers are correct.

2. How many interfaces are needed in a “router on a stick” implementation for inter-

VLAN routing among four VLANs?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. Cannot be determined

3. Which of the following commands configures a switch port for Layer 2 operation?

a. switchport

b. no switchport

c. ip address 192.168.199.1 255.255.255.0

d. no ip address

4. Which of the following commands configures a switch port for Layer 3 operation?

a. switchport

b. no switchport

c. ip address 192.168.199.1 255.255.255.0

d. no ip address

5. Which one of the following interfaces is an SVI?

a. interface fastethernet 0/1

b. interface gigabit 0/1

c. interface vlan 1

d. interface svi 1

6. What information must be learned before CEF can forward packets?

a. The source and destination of the first packet in a traffic flow

b. The MAC addresses of both the source and destination

c. The contents of the routing table

d. The outbound port of the first packet in a flow

7. Which of the following best defines an adjacency?

a. Two switches connected by a common link.

b. Two contiguous routes in the FIB.

c. Two multilayer switches connected by a common link.

d. The MAC address of a host is known.

8. Assume that CEF is active on a switch. What happens to a packet that arrives needing

fragmentation?

a. The packet is switched by CEF and kept intact.

b. The packet is fragmented by CEF.

c. The packet is dropped.

d. The packet is sent to the Layer 3 engine.

9. Suppose that a host sends a packet to a destination IP address and that the CEFbased

switch does not yet have a valid MAC address for the destination. How is the

ARP entry (MAC address) of the next-hop destination in the FIB obtained?

a. The sending host must send an ARP request for it.

b. The Layer 3 forwarding engine (CEF hardware) must send an ARP request

for it.

c. CEF must wait until the Layer 3 engine sends an ARP request for it.

d. All packets to the destination are dropped.

10. During a packet rewrite, what happens to the source MAC address?

a. There is no change.

b. It is changed to the destination MAC address.

c. It is changed to the MAC address of the outbound Layer 3 switch interface.

d. It is changed to the MAC address of the next-hop destination.

11. What command can you use to view the CEF FIB table contents?

a. show fib

b. show ip cef fib

c. show ip cef

d. show fib-table

12. Which one of the following answers represents configuration commands needed to

implement a DHCP relay function?

a. interface vlan 5

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

ip helper-address 10.1.1.10

b. interface vlan 5

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

ip dhcp-relay

c. ip dhcp pool staff

network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0

default-router 10.1.1.1

exit

d. hostname Switch

ip helper-address 10.1.1.10

Chapter 12

1. Where does a collision domain exist in a switched network?

a. On a single switch port

b. Across all switch ports

c. On a single VLAN

d. Across all VLANs

2. Where does a broadcast domain exist in a switched network?

a. On a single switch port

b. Across all switch ports

c. On a single VLAN

d. Across all VLANs

3. What is a VLAN primarily used for?

a. To segment a collision domain

b. To segment a broadcast domain

c. To segment an autonomous system

d. To segment a spanning-tree domain

4. How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical campus network design model?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 7

5. What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design?

a. To facilitate documentation

b. To follow political or organizational policies

c. To make the network predictable and scalable

d. To make the network more redundant and secure

6. End-user PCs should be connected into which of the following hierarchical layers?

a. Distribution layer

b. Common layer

c. Access layer

d. Core layer

7. In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution layer typically operate?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4

8. A hierarchical network’s distribution layer aggregates which of the following?

a. Core switches

b. Broadcast domains

c. Routing updates

d. Access-layer switches

9. In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the following are aggregated?

a. Routing tables

b. Packet filters

c. Distribution switches

d. Access-layer switches

10. In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined

to what?

a. One access-layer switch port

b. One access-layer switch

c. One switch block

d. The entire campus network

11. Which one or more of the following are the components of a typical switch block?

a. Access-layer switches

b. Distribution-layer switches

c. Core-layer switches

d. E-commerce servers

e. Service provider switches

12. What are two types of core, or backbone, designs?

a. Collapsed core

b. Loop-free core

c. Dual core

d. Layered core

13. What is the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect into a single

distribution-layer switch?

a. 1

b. 2

c. Limited only by the number of ports on the access-layer switch

d. Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switch

e. Unlimited

14. A switch block should be sized according to which two of the following parameters?

a. The number of access-layer users

b. A maximum of 250 access-layer users

c. A study of the traffic patterns and flows

d. The amount of rack space available

e. The number of servers accessed by users

15. What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose all that apply.)

a. IP address space is exhausted.

b. You run out of access-layer switch ports.

c. Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.

d. Traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches.

e. Network congestion occurs.

16. How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 8

17. What are the most important aspects to consider when designing the core layer in a

large network? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Low cost

b. Switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at

100 percent capacity

c. High port density of high-speed ports

d. A low number of Layer 3 routing peers

Chapter 13

1. Which one of the following do multilayer switches share when running HSRP?

a. Routing tables

b. ARP cache

c. CAM table

d. IP address

2. What HSRP group uses the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac11?

a. Group 0

b. Group 7

c. Group 11

d. Group 17

3. Two routers are configured for an HSRP group. One router uses the default HSRP priority.

What priority should be assigned to the other router to make it more likely to

be the active router?

a. 1

b. 100

c. 200

d. 500

4. How many routers are in the Standby state in an HSRP group?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. All but the active router

5. A multilayer switch is configured as follows:

interface fastethernet 1/1

no switchport

ip address 192.168.199.3 255.255.255.0

standby 1 ip 192.168.199.2

Which IP address should a client PC use as its default gateway?

a. 192.168.199.1

b. 192.168.199.2

c. 192.168.199.3

d. Any of these

6. Which one of the following is based on an IETF RFC standard?

a. HSRP

b. VRRP

c. GLBP

d. STP

7. What VRRP group uses the virtual MAC address 0000.5e00.01ff?

a. Group 0

b. Group 1

c. Group 255

d. Group 94

8. Which one of the following protocols is the best choice for load balancing redundant

gateways?

a. HSRP

b. VRRP

c. GLBP

d. GVRP

9. Which one of the following GLBP functions answers ARP requests?

a. AVF

b. VARP

c. AVG

d. MVR

10. By default, which of the following virtual MAC addresses will be sent to the next

client that looks for the GLBP virtual gateway?

a. The GLBP interface’s MAC address

b. The next virtual MAC address in the sequence

c. The virtual MAC address of the least-used router

d. 0000.0c07.ac00

11. Which one of these features is used to reduce the amount of time needed to rebuild

the routing information after a supervisor module failure?

a. NFS

b. NSF

c. RPR+

d. SSO

12. Which one of the following features provides the fastest failover for supervisor or

route processor redundancy?

a. SSL

b. SSO

c. RPR+

d. RPR

Chapter 14

1. For a Catalyst switch to offer Power over Ethernet to a device, what must occur?

a. Nothing; power always is enabled on a port.

b. The switch must detect that the device needs inline power.

c. The device must send a CDP message asking for power.

d. The switch is configured to turn on power to the port

2. Which one of these commands can enable Power over Ethernet to a switch interface?

a. inline power enable

b. inline power on

c. power inline on

d. power inline auto

3. What does a Cisco IP Phone contain to allow it to pass both voice and data packets?

a. An internal Ethernet hub

b. An internal two-port switch

c. An internal three-port switch

d. An internal four-port switch

4. How can voice traffic be kept separate from any other data traffic through an IP Phone?

a. Voice and data travel over separate links.

b. A special-case 802.1Q trunk is used to connect to the switch.

c. Voice and data can’t be separated; they must intermingle on the link.

d. Voice and data packets both are encapsulated over an ISL trunk.

5. What command configures an IP Phone to use VLAN 9 for voice traffic?

a. switchport voice vlan 9

b. switchport voice-vlan 9

c. switchport voice 9

d. switchport voip 9

6. What is the default voice VLAN condition for a switch port?

a. switchport voice vlan 1

b. switchport voice vlan dot1p

c. switchport voice vlan untagged

d. switchport voice vlan none

7. If the following interface configuration commands have been used, what VLAN numbers

will the voice and PC data be carried over, respectively?

interface gigabitethernet1/0/1

switchport access vlan 10

switchport trunk native vlan 20

switchport voice vlan 50

switchport mode access

a. VLAN 50, VLAN 20

b. VLAN 50, VLAN 1

c. VLAN 1, VLAN 50

d. VLAN 20, VLAN 50

e. VLAN 50, VLAN 10

8. What command can verify the voice VLAN used by a Cisco IP Phone?

a. show cdp neighbor

b. show interface switchport

c. show vlan

d. show trunk

9. When a PC is connected to the PC switch port on an IP Phone, how is QoS trust

handled?

a. The IP Phone always trusts the class of service (CoS) information coming

from the PC.

b. The IP Phone never trusts the PC and always overwrites the CoS bits.

c. QoS trust for the PC data is handled at the Catalyst switch port, not the

IP Phone.

d. The Catalyst switch instructs the IP Phone how to trust the PC QoS information.

10. An IP Phone should mark all incoming traffic from an attached PC to have CoS 1.

Complete the following switch command to make that happen:

switchport priority extend __________

a. untrusted

b. 1

c. cos 1

d. overwrite 1

11. What command can verify the Power over Ethernet status of each switch port?

a. show inline power

b. show power inline

c. show interface

d. show running-config

12. Which DSCP codepoint name usually is used for time-critical packets containing

voice data?

a. 7

b. Critical

c. AF

d. EF

Chapter 15

1. Which one of the following standard sets is used in wireless LANs?

a. IEEE 802.1

b. IEEE 802.3

c. IEEE 802.5

d. IEEE 802.11

2. Which one of the following methods is used to minimize collisions in a wireless LAN?

a. CSMA/CD

b. CSMA/CA

c. LWAPP

d. LACP

3. A wireless scenario is made up of five wireless clients and two APs connected by a

switch. Which one of the following correctly describes the wireless network?

a. BSS

b. ESS

c. IBSS

d. CBS

4. If a wireless access point is connected to a switch by a trunk port, which one of the

following is mapped to a VLAN?

a. Channel

b. Frequency

c. BSS

d. SSID

5. Which of the following terms represents a Cisco wireless access point that cannot operate

independently?

a. Autonomous AP

b. Roaming AP

c. Lightweight AP

d. Dependent AP

6. Suppose that an autonomous AP is used to support wireless clients. Which one of the

following answers lists the devices that traffic must take when passing from one wireless

client to another?

a. Through the AP only.

b. Through the AP and its controller.

c. Through the controller only.

d. None of these answers is correct; traffic can go directly over the air.

7. Suppose that a lightweight AP is used to support wireless clients. Which one of the

following answers lists the device path that traffic must take when passing from one

wireless client to another?

a. Through the AP only.

b. Through the AP and its controller.

c. Through the controller only.

d. None of these answers is correct; traffic can go directly over the air

8. A lightweight access point is said to have which one of the following architectures?

a. Proxy MAC

b. Tunnel MAC

c. Split-MAC

d. Fat MAC

9. How does a lightweight access point communicate with a wireless LAN controller?

a. Through an IPsec tunnel

b. Through an LWAPP or CAPWAP tunnel

c. Through a GRE tunnel

d. Directly over Layer 2

10. Which one of the following types of traffic is sent securely over an LWAPP tunnel?

a. Control messages

b. User data

c. DHCP requests

d. 802.11 beacons

11. Which one of the following must be consistent for a wireless client to roam between

lightweight APs that are managed by the same WLC?

a. SSID

b. Mobility group

c. VLAN ID

d. AP management VLAN

12. Which one of the following must be consistent for a wireless client to roam between

lightweight APs that are managed by two different WLCs?

a. VLAN ID

b. SSID

c. AP management VLAN

d. Mobility group

13. Which one of the following locations is appropriate for an LAP?

a. Access-layer switch port

b. Distribution-layer switch port

c. Core-layer switch port

d. Data center switch port

14. Which one of the following locations is appropriate for a WLC?

a. Access-layer switch port

b. Distribution-layer switch port

c. Core-layer switch port

d. Data center switch port

15. Which one of the following is the correct switch configuration for a port connected

to an LAP?

a. switchport mode trunk

b. switchport mode lap

c. switchport mode access

d. switchport mode transparent

16. Suppose an LAP/WLC combination is used to provide connectivity from SSID “staff’’

to VLAN 17. Which one of the following is the correct extent for the VLAN?

a. VLAN 17 exists on the LAP only.

b. VLAN 17 extends from the LAP to the access switch only.

c. VLAN 17 extends from the LAP to the WLC.

d. VLAN 17 extends from the LAP to the access switch and from the distribution

switch to the WLC.

Chapter 16

1. Which switch feature can grant access through a port only if the host with MAC address

0005.0004.0003 is connected?

a. SPAN

b. MAC address ACL

c. Port security

d. Port-based authentication

2. Port security is being used to control access to a switch port.Which one of these commands

will put the port into the errdisable state if an unauthorized station connects?

a. switchport port-security violation protect

b. switchport port-security violation restrict

c. switchport port-security violation errdisable

d. switchport port-security violation shutdown

3. If port security is left to its default configuration, how many different MAC addresses

can be learned at one time on a switch port?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 16

d. 256

4. The following commands are configured on a Catalyst switch port. What happens

when the host with MAC address 0001.0002.0003 tries to connect?

switchport port-security

switchport port-security maximum 3

switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002

switchport port-security violation shutdown

a. The port shuts down.

b. The host is allowed to connect.

c. The host is denied a connection.

d. The host can connect only when 0002.0002.0002 is not connected.

5. What protocol is used for port-based authentication?

a. 802.1D

b. 802.1Q

c. 802.1x

d. 802.1w

6. When 802.1x is used for a switch port, where must it be configured?

a. Switch port and client PC

b. Switch port only

c. Client PC only

d. Switch port and a RADIUS server

7. When port-based authentication is enabled globally, what is the default behavior for

all switch ports?

a. Authenticate users before enabling the port.

b. Allow all connections without authentication.

c. Do not allow any connections.

d. There is no default behavior.

8. When port-based authentication is enabled, what method is available for a user to

authenticate?

a. Web browser

b. Telnet session

c. 802.1x client

d. DHCP

9. The users in a department are using a variety of host platforms, some old and some

new. All of them have been approved with a user ID in a RADIUS server database.

Which one of these features should be used to restrict access to the switch ports in

the building?

a. AAA authentication

b. AAA authorization

c. Port security

d. Port-based authentication

10. With DHCP snooping, an untrusted port filters out which one of the following?

a. DHCP replies from legitimate DHCP servers

b. DHCP replies from rogue DHCP servers

c. DHCP requests from legitimate clients

d. DHCP requests from rogue clients

11. Which two of the following methods does a switch use to detect spoofed addresses

when IP Source Guard is enabled?

a. ARP entries

b. DHCP database

c. DHCP snooping database

d. Static IP source binding entries

e. Reverse path-forwarding entries

12. Which one of the following should be configured as a trusted port for dynamic ARP

inspection?

a. The port where the ARP server is located.

b. The port where an end-user host is located.

c. The port where another switch is located.

d. None; all ports are untrusted.

13. Which two of the following methods should you use to secure inbound CLI sessions

to a switch?

a. Disable all inbound CLI connections.

b. Use SSH only.

c. Use Telnet only.

d. Apply an access list to the vty lines.

14. Suppose you need to disable CDP advertisements on a switch port so that untrusted

devices cannot learn anything about your switch. Which one of the following interface

configuration commands should be used?

a. cdp disable

b. no cdp

c. no cdp enable

d. no cdp trust

Chapter 17

1. Which one of the following can filter packets even if they are not routed to another

Layer 3 interface?

a. IP extended access lists

b. MAC address access lists

c. VLAN access lists

d. Port-based access lists

2. In what part of a Catalyst switch are VLAN ACLs implemented?

a. NVRAM

b. CAM

c. RAM

d. TCAM

3. Which one of the following commands can implement a VLAN ACL called test?

a. access-list vlan test

b. vacl test

c. switchport vacl test

d. vlan access-map test

4. After a VACL is configured, where is it applied?

a. Globally on a VLAN

b. On the VLAN interface

c. In the VLAN configuration

d. On all ports or interfaces mapped to a VLAN

5. Which of the following private VLANs is the most restrictive?

a. Community VLAN

b. Isolated VLAN

c. Restricted VLAN

d. Promiscuous VLAN

6. The vlan 100 command has just been entered. What is the next command needed to

configure VLAN 100 as a secondary isolated VLAN?

a. private-vlan isolated

b. private-vlan isolated 100

c. pvlan secondary isolated

d. No further configuration necessary

7. What type of port configuration should you use for private VLAN interfaces that

connect to a router?

a. Host

b. Gateway

c. Promiscuous

d. Transparent

8. Promiscuous ports must be ______________ to primary and secondary VLANs, and

host ports must be ________________.

a. Mapped, associated

b. Mapped, mapped

c. Associated, mapped

d. Associated, associated

9. In a switch spoofing attack, an attacker makes use of which one of the following?

a. The switch management IP address

b. CDP message exchanges

c. Spanning Tree Protocol

d. DTP to negotiate a trunk

10. Which one of the following commands can be used to prevent a switch spoofing attack

on an end-user port?

a. switchport mode access

b. switchport mode trunk

c. no switchport spoof

d. spanning-tree spoof-guard

11. Which one of the following represents the spoofed information an attacker sends in a

VLAN hopping attack?

a. 802.1Q tags

b. DTP information

c. VTP information

d. 802.1x information

12. Which one of the following methods can be used to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?

a. Use VTP throughout the network.

b. Set the native VLAN to the user access VLAN.

c. Prune the native VLAN off a trunk link.

d. Avoid using EtherChannel link bundling

ccnp routing questions and answers

2013-09-27T00:03:00.003-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

OSPF Areas

1. A router chooses the Router ID based on which of the following?

A. Lowest IP address from any interface

B. Highest IP address from any interface

C. Lowest IP address from any loopback interface

D. Highest IP Address from any loopback interface

2. What are the three areas of OSPF operation? (Choose three.)

A. Link-state routing

B. SPF calculation

C. LSA flooding

D. Neighbor discover and adjacency formation

3. Which of the following is the IOS command to set the cost on an OSPF interface?

A. ipospf no-default cost

B. ipospf no-summary cost

C. ipospf cost cost

D. ipospf-cost cost

4. In what type of topology do all routers have a virtual connection to all other routers?

A. Full-mesh

B. Star

C. Hub-and-spoke

D. Bus

5. What does an OSPF neighbor status of down mean?

A. The connected interfaces are in a “line down, line protocol down” state.

B. No Hello packets have been transmitted from the interface.

C. The interface is administratively shut down.

D. No Hello packets have been received on the interface.

6. What does the OSPF neighbor status init mean?

A. Hello packets have been received from the OSPF neighbor.

B. The router is going to exchange LSA information.

C. The interface has been assigned to an area.

D. Adjacency information has been exchanged between neighbors.

7. What does the OSPF neighbor status 2Way mean?

A. That a router has received a Hello packet with its own Router ID listed as a neighbor.

B. That a router has received a Hello packet from the DR.

C. That a router is exchanging LSU packets.

D. That a router is waiting for the LSU from the DR.

8. What does the OSPF neighbor status ExStart mean?

A. The OSPF process is starting on the interface.

B. The router is establishing the Master/Slave roles for Database Description packet exchange.

C. All routing information is beginning to be exchanged between routers.

D. An LSA flood is about to start.

Review Questions 159

9. What does the OSPF neighbor status Loading mean?

A. Routers are loading (exchanging) full DD and LSR packets.

B. Routers are loading the topology database.

C. Routers are loading the link-state database.

D. Routers are sending LSR packets to request new LSA information.

10. What does the OSPF neighbor status Exchange mean?

A. Exchange of Hello packets

B. Exchange of routing updates

C. Exchange of full route information via LSR and Database Description packets

D. Exchange of ABR and ASBR information

11. What does the OSPF neighbor status Full indicate?

A. The OSPF topology database has been filled.

B. The OSPF topology databases are synchronized.

C. The neighbor database is synchronized.

D. The OSPF link-state table is full.

12. Which of the following network types have a DR and a BDR assigned?(Choose all that apply.)

A. Broadcast

B. Point-to-point

C. NBMA broadcast

D. NBMA point-to-point

E. NBMA point-to-multipoint

13. Which routers form adjacencies with routers designated as DROtheron a broadcast multi-access network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DROther

B. BDR

C. DR

D. RP

14. Which IP multicast address corresponds with AllSPFRouters?

A. 224.0.0.4

B. 224.0.0.5

C. 224.0.0.6

D. 224.0.0.7

15. Which of the following OSPF terms refers to a connected (or adjacent) router that is running an OSPF process, with the adjacent interface assigned to the same area?

A. Link

B. Neighbor

C. LSA

D. STP

16. What is the valid range for the cost metric for OSPF interfaces?

A. 1–255

B. 1–2046

C. 1–63,535

D. 1–65,535

17. Which method does Cisco use to calculate the cost of a link?

A. 1 x 108 / bandwidth

B. bandwidth / 1 x 108

C. Dijkstra’s Algorithm

D. 1 / bandwidth

18. What OSPF term refers to a network or router interface assigned to

any given interface?

A. Link

B. Area

C. LSA

D. STP

19. All OSPF networks must contain which of the following?

A. Route redistribution configuration

B. Area 0

C. A designated controller

D. A manually defined interface cost

20. Which of the following are advantages of OSPF over RIP? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. Speed of convergence

B. Simplicity to configure

C. Support for VLSMs

D. Scalability

Chapter 5 Interconnecting OSPF Areas

1. Which of the following are scalability issues with single area OSPF

networks? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Size of the routing table

B. Size of the OSPF database

C. Maximum hop count limitation

D. Recalculation of the OSPF database

2. Which of the following describes a router that connects to an external

routing process (e.g., EIGRP)?

A. ABR

B. ASBR

C. Type 2 LSA

D. Stub router

3. Which of the following makes use of route redistribution?

A. Stub area

B. Totally stubby area

C. ABR

D. NSSA

4. Which of the following describes the syntax used to summarize intraarea

routes on an ABR?

A. ip route summarize area-id network-address networkmask

B. summary-address network-address network-mask

C. area area-id range network-address network-mask

D. summary area-id network-address network-mask

5. Which IOS command shows information about a router’s OSPF database,

such as router link states and network link states?

A. debug ospf events

B. show ipospf border-routers

C. show ipospf neighbor

D. show ipospf database

6. What is the term given to describe a router connected to multiple

OSPF areas?

A. ABR

B. ASBR

C. Type 2 LSA

D. Stub router

7. As compared to a standard OSPF area, what is unique about a stub area?

A. It does not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

B. It does not receive Type 5 LSAs.

C. It makes use of route redistribution.

D. It is a concept specific to Cisco routers.

8. What is the IOS syntax to designate an area as a not-so-stubby area?

A. area area-id nssa

B. area area-id stub

C. area area-id no-summary

D. area area-id stub no-summary

Review Questions 197

9. What is an autonomous system boundary router (ASBR)?

A. Any OSPF router that is connected to an external routing process

B. Any OSPF router that is connected to an internal routing process

C. Any router that is connected to multiple OSPF areas

D. Any router that is connected to single OSPF areas

10. Which of the following can be described as a router that has all of its

interfaces in the same area?

A. Area border router

B. Internal router

C. Autonomous System Boundary Router

D. Designated router

11. Which of the following IOS commands shows an ABR’s internal

router routing table?

A. debug ospf events

B. show ipospf border-routers

C. show ipospf neighbor

D. show ipospf database

12. As compared to an OSPF stub area, what is unique about an OSPF

totally stubby area? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It does not receive Type 5 LSAs.

B. It is a Cisco-specific feature.

C. It does not receive summary Link State Advertisements.

D. It makes use of route redistribution.

13. Which of the following are design guidelines for setting up stub areas?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. Use only when a router within an area connects to an external

routing process (e.g., EIGRP).

B. Do not make the backbone area a stub area.

C. If you decide to make a particular area a stub area, be sure to configure

all the routers in the area as stubby.

D. Configure only the area’s ABR as stubby.

14. What is the IOS syntax to create a virtual link?

A. area source-area-id virtual-link destination-area-id

B. link area-id router-id

C. ospf map area-id router-id

D. area area-id virtual-link router-id

15. Which of the following IOS commands shows the state of adjacency

with neighbor routers?

A. debug ospf events

B. show ipospf border-routers

C. show ipospf neighbor

D. show ipospf database

16. Which of the following statements are true regarding Summary Link

Advertisements (SLAs)? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Type 3 LSAs are Summary Link Advertisements.

B. Totally stubby areas do not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

C. Type 4 LSAs are Summary Link Advertisements.

D. Stub areas do not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

17. Which of the following can be defined as a router that exists (wholly

or in part) in OSPF Area 0?

A. Backbone router

B. Autonomous system boundary router

C. Designated router

D. Area border router

18. Which of the following describes the syntax used to summarize external

routes on an ASBR?

A. ip route summarize area-id network-address networkmask

B. summary-address network-address network-mask

C. area area-id range network-address network-mask

D. summary area-id network-address network-mask

19. Which of the following IOS commands shows the formation of router

adjacencies?

A. debug ospf events

B. debugipospf border-routers

C. debug ipospf neighbor

D. debug ipospf database

20. Which of the following LSA types is referred to as an AS External Link

Advertisement?

A. Type 1 LSA

B. Type 2 LSA

C. Type 3 or Type 4 LSA

D. Type 5 LSA

IGRP AND EIGRP

1. When does EIGRP recalculate its topology table?

A. On a synchronized schedule

B. When an administrator uses the redirect command

C. Automatically every 120 seconds

D. Only when there is a change in the network topology

2. The neighbor table uses which of the following timers? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. SRTT

B. RTO

C. Hold timer

D. FwdDelay timer

E. MaxAge timer

3. When there are no feasible successors and only one link to a destination

network, even if the link cost is set to 100,000, the link will

always be in which of the following modes?

A. On

B. Standby

C. Active

D. Sending

4. Which of the following are not routed protocols supported by EIGRP?

A. TCP

B. IP

C. IPX

D. AppleTalk

5. What are benefits of using a link-state routing protocol? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. It uses the Hello protocol to establish adjacencies.

B. It uses several components to calculate the metric of a route.

C. Updates are sent only when changes occur in the network.

D. It is a better protocol than distance-vector is.

6. Which route type must be redistributed by a routing protocol if other

routers are to learn about it?

A. RIP

B. Default routes

C. Connected routes

D. Static routes

7. Why are passive interfaces used on interfaces where the router participates

in EIGRP Global mode processes?

A. To stop unwanted route information from entering the specified

interface

B. To allow route information to be filtered by an access list

C. To allow routes to be sent out the specified interface, but deny

route information to enter the interface

D. To allow routes to enter the interface, but deny any route information

to exit the specified interface

8. How is a feasible successor chosen when the successor fails (assuming

that a redundant route exists)? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The route with the next-lowest metric is chosen.

B. If a router doesn’t have a feasible successor, queries are multicast

to neighboring routers in search of a feasible successor.

C. The route is removed from the routing table.

D. The route is flagged as an active state.

9. Which command should be used to ensure proper metric conversion

when redistributing routes from different protocols?

A. distance distance-value

B. default-metric

C. distribute-list

D. default-information

10. How is EIGRP implemented on a router?

A. ip router eigrp autonomous-system-number

B. router ipeigrp autonomous-system-number

C. router eigrp process-id

D. router eigrp autonomous-system-number

11. Which of the following are not features of EIGRP? (Choose all that

apply.)

A. Incremental updates

B. Only one route per destination

C. Support for IP, IPX, and AT

D. Hybrid distance-vector and link-state routing protocol

E. Not a scalable protocol

F. Hello protocol used to establish adjacencies

12. Which of the following problems may occur if route redistribution

occurs?

A. Non-optimal route choices

B. Slow convergence

C. Routing loops

D. All of the above

13. When using the show ip route command, which of the following codes

indicate an EIGRP learned route?

A. D

B. R

C. S

D. I

14. When using EIGRP, the process number indicates which of the

following?

A. Link-state value

B. Autonomous system number

C. Path cost

D. Number of ACKs

15. Which of the following commands can be used to learn the number of

EIGRP packets sent and received?

A. show ipeigrp mail

B. show ipeigrp sent

C. show ipeigrp traffic

D. show ipeigrp data

E. show ipeigrp counters

16. Which of the following is not a route type recognized by IGRP?

A. Network

B. Interior

C. System

D. Exterior

17. Which of the following are used by IGRP to calculate the best path to

a destination network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Bandwidth

B. Load

C. Delay

D. Reliability

18. By default, what is the maximum number of feasible links that IGRP

may use to load balance over unequal-cost links?

A. Two

B. Four

C. Six

D. Eight

19. What is the maximum number of feasible successors that EIGRP can

place in its routing table?

A. Two

B. Four

C. Six

D. Eight

20. Which of the following algorithms is used by EIGRP to determine the

best path?

A. Open Shortest Path First

B. DUAL

C. Distance-vector

D. Link-state routing

E. Advanced Distance Vector

BGP

1. Which of the following are needed when configuring BGP?

A. Router ID

B. BGP process number

C. External neighbors

D. Internal peers

E. All of the above

2. Which command shows the BGP routes?

A. show ipbgp routes

B. show ipbgp all

C. show ip route bgp

D. show ipbgp paths

3. Which of the following is an example of properly enabling BGP on a

router and identifying an internal network?

A. router ipbgp 10

network 10.1.1.1 100

B. router bgp 10

network 10.1.1.1 remote-as 10

C. router bgp 100

neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100

D. router bgp 100

neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 200

4. Which of the following is an example of how to configure BGP with

an external BGP neighbor?

A. router ipbgp 10

network 10.1.1.1 100

B. router bgp 10

network 10.1.1.1 remote-as 10

C. router bgp 100

neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100

D. router bgp 100

neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 200

5. Which of the following are valid BGP show commands?

A. show ipbgp

B. show ipbgp paths

C. show ipbgp summary

D. show bgp all

E. show bgpip debug

6. In the command neighbor 172.16.2.2 remote-as 500, what is the

function of the remote-as syntax?

A. The syntax identifies the AS of the remote router that the local

router will initiate a session with.

B. It identifies the local remote ASN.

C. It tells the local router to find the remote autonomous system.

D. It allows BGP to bypass the TCP connection process because you

have identified the ASN.

7. Which of the following commands creates a route in the BGP table

and identifies the networks that are part of the internal AS?

A. aggregate-paths

B. show ipbgp

C. neighbors summary-only

D. network

8. Which of the following identifies the function of the clear ipbgp *

command?

A. It clears an identified entry in the BGP routing.

B. It clears all entries in the BGP table.

C. It clears all entries in the IGP’s topology table.

D. It resets IP sessions.

9. Which of the following BGP attributes informs neighboring AS routers

as to which link to use to receive traffic?

A. Atomic Aggregate

B. Next-hop

C. MED

D. Weight

10. In the following list of attributes, which of the following is a Cisco

proprietary attribute?

A. Weight attribute

B. Next-hop attribute

C. MED attribute

D. Atomic Aggregate attribute

11. Which of the following commands displays the status of all BGP

connections?

A. show ipbgp

B. show ipbgp status

C. show ipbgp all

D. show ipbgp summary

12. Using the clear ipbgp command, which syntax is used to identify

that the command is to affect inbound or outbound triggered updates?

A. inbound

B. soft

C. triggered

D. outbound

13. When using debug commands with BGP, which of the following displays

all the BGP events as they occur?

A. debugipbgp dampening

B. debug ipbgp summary

C. debugipbgp events

D. debugipbgp all

14. The Weight attribute can be set to a value in which of the following

ranges?

A. 1 through 65,535

B. 1 through 32,768

C. 1 through 512

D. 0 through 65,535

15. Using the BGP aggregate-address command, which of the following

syntaxes can be used to advertise routes as coming from your AS?

A. as-local

B. as-set

C. as-summary

D. as-well-known

16. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot a

problem with an external AS not receiving updates from your AS?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. show ipbgp events

B. show ipbgp neighbors

C. show ipbgp all

D. show ipbgp

17. To disable synchronization when all of the routers in an AS are running

BGP, which of the commands would be used?

A. disable synchronization

B. no ipbgp synchronization

C. synchronization disable

D. no synchronization

18. Which of the following attributes can be used to help identify the correct

networks for CIDR implementations?

A. Atomic Aggregate

B. Next-hop

C. MED

D. Weight

E. Local Preference

19. When using the neighbor command with the weight syntax, in

which range of values can the weight syntax be set?

A. No limit

B. 1 to 255

C. 0 to 65,535

D. 1 to 1000

20. Which of the following commands will begin a BGP process on a router and place you in BGP Configuration mode?

A. router enablebgp

B. router ipbgp 45323

C. router bgp 32455

D. router enablebgp 34657

BGP Scalability and Advanced Features

1. Access lists are read from top to bottom. Therefore, which of the following should be near the top?

A. Least restrictive

B. Most restrictive

C. Permit or deny

D. Deny only

2. Which of the following should be used to reduce the number of routes in a routing table?

A. EIGRP

B. DDR

C. Route carving

D. Route summarization

3. Which of the following are true of a prefix list? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Statements can be added at any time.

B. Statements can be assigned a sequence number.

C. Statements use the set command to tell the

prefix list what to do.

D. Any statements can be deleted at any time.

4. A router acting as a route reflector should have

a peer connection with which of the following routers?

A. Other route reflectors

B. The route reflector’s clients

C. Non-clients

D. All of the above

5. If multiple ISPs are connected to your network,

BGP can load balance over up to how many links?

A. Eight

B. Thirty-two

C. Six

D. One

6. You can define communities using which type of

filters?

A. Standard access lists

B. Route maps

C. Prefix lists

D. Extended access lists

7. Which of the following can be used to avoid

creating a full-mesh network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Confederations

B. Route maps

C. Prefix lists

D. Route reflectors

8. Which of the following commands shows the configured peer BGP

routers and the current connection state?

A. show ipbgp all

B. show cdpbgp neighbors

C. show running-config

D. show ipbgp neighbors

9. What router command mode is used to start BGP using the router bgp 100 command?

A. User mode

B. Privilege mode

C. Global Configuration mode

D. Interface Configuration mode

E. Route Map Configuration mode

10. What are two advantages of prefix lists overdistribute lists?

A. Less CPU usage

B. Easy to configure

C. Affect advertised routes and data coming into an interface

D. Can be configured on individual interfaces

11. Which of the following is not a way of managing routes advertised by BGP routers?

A. Using route maps

B. Using prefix lists

C. Using distribute lists

D. Using path filters

E. Using redistribution lists

12. You can lengthen the AS-PATH length by doing which of the following?

A. Add a new value using the ipbgp as-path value command.

B. Add false AS numbers

C. Add a new value using the set as-path extended command.

D. Use the bgp dampening command.

13. Statements in distribute lists are processed in which order? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The order in which they were entered

B. From the top down

C. The order given by the sequence number

D. All of the above

14. When configuring a prefix list, if the seq syntax is not used, in what sequence are numbers assigned and in what increment?

A. 1 (1,2,3…)

B. 5 (10,15,20…)

C. 10 (10,20,30…)

D. 25 (25,50,75…)

15. A BGP router not participating in a route reflector cluster is calledwhich of the following?

A. Non-cluster client

B. Non-BGP router

C. Non-client

D. Non-iBGP client

16. The COMMUNITIES attribute can contain a value in what range ofnumbers?

A. 1 to 1012

B. 1 to 255

C. 0 to 512

D. 1 to 4,294,967,200

17. Which of the following is not used in confederations?

A. iBGP

B. eBGP

C. Sub-ASes

D. Sequence numbers

E. Confederation identifier

18. Which command can be used to disable sequence numbering whencreating prefix lists?

A. ipbgp prefix-list sequence-number disable

B. no ip prefix-list sequence-number

C. disableipbgp prefix-list sequence-number

D. no ip prefix-list

19. Which of the following ranges of numbers can be assigned to a BGPdistribute list?

A. 299 to 399

B. 1 to 200

C. 1 to 199

D. 1 to 2,000

20. When creating prefix lists, which of the following are optional syntaxes?

A. list-name

B. ge

C. le

D. seq

ROUTE OPTIMIZATION

1. Which of the following is the metric used by RIP?

A. Ticks

B. Bandwidth

C. Delay

D. Hop count

2. Which of the following is the network address and subnet mask of the

default route?

A. 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255

B. 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

C. 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0

D. 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255

3. What are the two clauses used by route maps?

A. metric

B. match

C. access

D. set

4. Which of the following are Cisco proprietary protocols? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. RIP

B. IGRP

C. OSPF

D. EIGRP

5. Which of the following are metric components of IGRP? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. Delay

B. Hops

C. Bandwidth

D. Ticks

6. What number would we assign to the load component of an EIGRP

metric to indicate that a link was approximately 10 percent loaded?

A. 10

B. 1

C. 2.5

D. 25

7. What is the default MTU size metric component for an Ethernetinterface?

A. 1500 bytes

B. 1518 bytes

C. 64 bytes

D. 4000 bytes

8. What is the most desirable value for the reliability metric component?

A. 255

B. 0

C. 1

D. 100

9. Which of the following protocols share similar metrics?

A. RIP and OSPF

B. IGRP and EIGRP

C. BGP and RTMP

D. NLSP and RIP

10. What command, under the router eigrp 10 command, would you

enter to set the default metric for EIGRP to use, regardless of which

protocol was being distributed into the EIGRP process?

A. redistribute eigrp metric 56 10 255 1 1500

B. default-metric 56 10 255 1 1500

C. metric 10

D. default metric 10

11. Given the access list access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, what

command would allow only network 10.0.0.0/8 to be added to a

router’s routing table?

A. access-list 1 in

B. distribute-list 1 out

C. distribute-list 1 in

D. distribute 1 out

12. What happens to packets that are forwarded to the Null0 interface?

A. The packets are sent to the gateway of last resort.

B. The packets are policy-routed.

C. The packets are marked as discard eligible.

D. The packets are discarded.

13. Which of the following commands will display the default redistribution

metric for a protocol?

A. show ip route

B. trace

C. show ip protocols

D. debug ip route

14. Which of the following commands will redistribute manually configured

routes into a specified routing process?

A. redistribute connected

B. redistribute static

C. redistribute default

D. redistribute local

15. If a local interface is not part of a routing process, what command may

be used to inject its route into a routing process?

A. redistribute connected

B. redistribute static

C. redistribute default

D. redistribute local

16. Which of the following are possible applications of route maps?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. Load sharing

B. Directing different traffic types over different links

C. Route redistribution

D. Traffic prioritization

17. Given the command route-map routemail permit 20, what does

20 represent?

A. The sequence number of the route map

B. The access list number being used

C. The TCP port number being routed

D. The percent of bandwidth to be allocated

18. In order for IGRP and EIGRP to automatically redistribute routes into

each other, what must be true?

A. They must be advertising subnets of the same major network.

B. They must have the same process ID (the same Autonomous

System).

C. They must be in different areas.

D. They must both be in totally stubby areas.

19. What command could you use to view RIP updates as they occur?

A. show ip protocols

B. show ip route

C. show ip rip

D. debug ip rip

20. What does the command distribute-list 2 out do?

A. It prevents or permits the routes specified in access-list 2 from

being added to the local routing table.

B. It prevents or permits the routes specified in access-list 2 from

being advertised.

C. It redirects the routes specified in access-list 2 to the Null0

interface.

D. It redistributes routes specified in access-list 2 to all routing

protocols.

CCNP ROUTING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NEW

2013-09-22T22:53:00.003-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

CCNP ROUTING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1. Which of the following are scalability issues with single area OSPF

networks? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Size of the routing table

B. Size of the OSPF database

C. Maximum hop count limitation

D. Recalculation of the OSPF database

2. Which of the following describes a router that connects to an external

routing process (e.g., EIGRP)?

A. ABR

B. ASBR

C. Type 2 LSA

D. Stub router

3. Which of the following makes use of route redistribution?

A. Stub area

B. Totally stubby area

C. ABR

D. NSSA

4. Which of the following describes the syntax used to summarize intraarea

routes on an ABR?

A. ip route summarize area-id network-address networkmask

B. summary-address network-address network-mask

C. area area-id range network-address network-mask

D. summary area-id network-address network-mask

5. Which IOS command shows information about a router’s OSPF database,

such as router link states and network link states?

A. debug ospf events

B. show ip ospf border-routers

C. show ip ospf neighbor

D. show ip ospf database

6. What is the term given to describe a router connected to multiple

OSPF areas?

A. ABR

B. ASBR

C. Type 2 LSA

D. Stub router

7. As compared to a standard OSPF area, what is unique about a stub area?

A. It does not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

B. It does not receive Type 5 LSAs.

C. It makes use of route redistribution.

D. It is a concept specific to Cisco routers.

8. What is the IOS syntax to designate an area as a not-so-stubby area?

A. area area-id nssa

B. area area-id stub

C. area area-id no-summary

D. area area-id stub no-summary

9. What is an autonomous system boundary router (ASBR)?

A. Any OSPF router that is connected to an external routing process

B. Any OSPF router that is connected to an internal routing process

C. Any router that is connected to multiple OSPF areas

D. Any router that is connected to single OSPF areas

10. Which of the following can be described as a router that has all of its

interfaces in the same area?

A. Area border router

B. Internal router

C. Autonomous System Boundary Router

D. Designated router

11. Which of the following IOS commands shows an ABR’s internal

router routing table?

A. debug ospf events

B. show ip ospf border-routers

C. show ip ospf neighbor

D. show ip ospf database

12. As compared to an OSPF stub area, what is unique about an OSPF

totally stubby area? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It does not receive Type 5 LSAs.

B. It is a Cisco-specific feature.

C. It does not receive summary Link State Advertisements.

D. It makes use of route redistribution.

13. Which of the following are design guidelines for setting up stub areas?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. Use only when a router within an area connects to an external

routing process (e.g., EIGRP).

B. Do not make the backbone area a stub area.

C. If you decide to make a particular area a stub area, be sure to configure

all the routers in the area as stubby.

D. Configure only the area’s ABR as stubby

14. What is the IOS syntax to create a virtual link?

A. area source-area-id virtual-link destination-area-id

B. link area-id router-id

C. ospf map area-id router-id

D. area area-id virtual-link router-id

15. Which of the following IOS commands shows the state of adjacency

with neighbor routers?

A. debug ospf events

B. show ip ospf border-routers

C. show ip ospf neighbor

D. show ip ospf database

16. Which of the following statements are true regarding Summary Link

Advertisements (SLAs)? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Type 3 LSAs are Summary Link Advertisements.

B. Totally stubby areas do not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

C. Type 4 LSAs are Summary Link Advertisements.

D. Stub areas do not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

17. Which of the following can be defined as a router that exists (wholly

or in part) in OSPF Area 0?

A. Backbone router

B. Autonomous system boundary router

C. Designated router

D. Area border router

18. Which of the following describes the syntax used to summarize external

routes on an ASBR?

A. ip route summarize area-id network-address networkmask

B. summary-address network-address network-mask

C. area area-id range network-address network-mask

D. summary area-id network-address network-mask

19. Which of the following IOS commands shows the formation of router

adjacencies?

A. debug ospf events

B. debug ip ospf border-routers

C. debug ip ospf neighbor

D. debug ip ospf database

20. Which of the following LSA types is referred to as an AS External Link

Advertisement?

A. Type 1 LSA

B. Type 2 LSA

C. Type 3 or Type 4 LSA

D. Type 5 LSA

CCNP ROUTING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

2013-09-22T22:46:00.002-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos
CCNP ROUTING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1. A router chooses the Router ID based on which of the following?

A. Lowest IP address from any interface

B. Highest IP address from any interface

C. Lowest IP address from any loopback interface

D. Highest IP Address from any loopback interface

2. What are the three areas of OSPF operation? (Choose three.)

A. Link-state routing

B. SPF calculation

C. LSA flooding

D. Neighbor discover and adjacency formation

3. Which of the following is the IOS command to set the cost on an OSPF

interface?

A. ip ospf no-default cost

B. ip ospf no-summary cost

C. ip ospf cost cost

D. ip ospf-cost cost

4. In what type of topology do all routers have a virtual connection to all

other routers?

A. Full-mesh

B. Star

C. Hub-and-spoke

D. Bus

5. What does an OSPF neighbor status of down mean?

A. The connected interfaces are in a “line down, line protocol down”

state.

B. No Hello packets have been transmitted from the interface.

C. The interface is administratively shut down.

D. No Hello packets have been received on the interface.

6. What does the OSPF neighbor status init mean?

A. Hello packets have been received from the OSPF neighbor.

B. The router is going to exchange LSA information.

C. The interface has been assigned to an area.

D. Adjacency information has been exchanged between neighbors.

7. What does the OSPF neighbor status 2Way mean?

A. That a router has received a Hello packet with its own Router ID

listed as a neighbor.

B. That a router has received a Hello packet from the DR.

C. That a router is exchanging LSU packets.

D. That a router is waiting for the LSU from the DR.

8. What does the OSPF neighbor status ExStart mean?

A. The OSPF process is starting on the interface.

B. The router is establishing the Master/Slave roles for Database

Description packet exchange.

C. All routing information is beginning to be exchanged between

routers.

D. An LSA flood is about to start.

9. What does the OSPF neighbor status Loading mean?

A. Routers are loading (exchanging) full DD and LSR packets.

B. Routers are loading the topology database.

C. Routers are loading the link-state database.

D. Routers are sending LSR packets to request new LSA information.

10. What does the OSPF neighbor status Exchange mean?

A. Exchange of Hello packets

B. Exchange of routing updates

C. Exchange of full route information via LSR and Database Description

packets

D. Exchange of ABR and ASBR information

11. What does the OSPF neighbor status Full indicate?

A. The OSPF topology database has been filled.

B. The OSPF topology databases are synchronized.

C. The neighbor database is synchronized.

D. The OSPF link-state table is full.

12. Which of the following network types have a DR and a BDR assigned?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. Broadcast

B. Point-to-point

C. NBMA broadcast

D. NBMA point-to-point

E. NBMA point-to-multipoint

13. Which routers form adjacencies with routers designated as DROther

on a broadcast multi-access network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DROther

B. BDR

C. DR

D. RP

14. Which IP multicast address corresponds with AllSPFRouters?

A. 224.0.0.4

B. 224.0.0.5

C. 224.0.0.6

D. 224.0.0.7

15. Which of the following OSPF terms refers to a connected (or adjacent)

router that is running an OSPF process, with the adjacent interface

assigned to the same area?

A. Link

B. Neighbor

C. LSA

D. STP

16. What is the valid range for the cost metric for OSPF interfaces?

A. 1–255

B. 1–2046

C. 1–63,535

D. 1–65,535

17. Which method does Cisco use to calculate the cost of a link?

A. 1 x 108 / bandwidth

B. bandwidth / 1 x 108

C. Dijkstra’s Algorithm

D. 1 / bandwidth

18. What OSPF term refers to a network or router interface assigned to

any given interface?

A. Link

B. Area

C. LSA

D. STP

19. All OSPF networks must contain which of the following?

A. Route redistribution configuration

B. Area 0

C. A designated controller

D. A manually defined interface cost

20. Which of the following are advantages of OSPF over RIP? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. Speed of convergence

B. Simplicity to configure

C. Support for VLSMs

D. Scalability

CCNP QUESTION AND ANSWERS

2013-08-25T23:15:00.002-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

CCNP ROUTING AND SWITCHING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS number 001

1. Which of the following can you use to alleviate congestion in an internetwork

(if used correctly)?

A. Repeaters

B. Routers

C. DLC

D. Switches

E. Bridges

2. Choose the three layers Cisco uses for building its hierarchical internetwork

model.

A. Fundamental

B. Distribution

C. IGRP

D. Core

E. Backbone

F. Access

3. Identify the characteristics of a scalable internetwork.

A. Reliability

B. Responsiveness

C. Efficiency

D. Adaptability

E. Accessibility

F. All of the above

4. What is the primary function of the Core layer?

A. To distribute client/server router information

B. To provide an optimized and reliable transport structure

C. To provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as

to services

D. To provide access to corporate resources for a workgroup or users

on a local segment

5. What is the primary function of the Distribution layer?

A. To distribute client/server router information

B. To provide an optimized and reliable transport structure

C. To provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as

to services

D. To provide access to corporate resources for a workgroup or users

on a local segment

6. What is the purpose of the Access layer?

A. To distribute client/server router information

B. To provide an optimized and reliable transport structure

C. To provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as

to services

D. To provide access to corporate resources for a workgroup or users

on a local segment

7. How do LAN switches improve performance on a LAN?

A. By filtering via logical address

B. By regenerating the digital signal

C. By employing packet-switching that permits high-speed data

exchanges

D. By employing frame-switching that permits high-speed data

Exchanges

8. What is a benefit of bridge segmentation?

A. Regeneration and propagation

B. Segmenting, or breaking up, your network into smaller, more

manageable pieces

C. LAN queuing

D. Forwarding the frame before reception is complete

9. How does cut-through switching provide better performance than

other switching methods?

A. By using LAN queuing

B. By using microsegmentation

C. By receiving the entire frame onto onboard buffers, running a

CRC, and then forwarding the frames out the destination port

D. By forwarding the frame before reception is complete

10. LAN segmentation with switches is also called what?

A. Filtering

B. Microsegmentation

C. Bridging

D. Routing

11. Which Cisco layer governs access to Core layer resources?

A. Distribution

B. Core

C. Backbone

D. Access

12. Which layer should have the most redundancy?

A. Backbone

B. Core

C. Distribution

D. Access

13. How do bridges filter a network?

A. By logical address

B. By IP address

C. By hardware address

D. By digital signaling

14. How do routers filter a network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. By logical address

B. By IP address

C. By digital signaling

D. By hardware address

E. By IPX address

15. How do switches segment a network?

A. By logical address

B. By IP address

C. By hardware address

D. By IPX address

16. What is a drawback of filtering a network with bridges?

A. It segments the network.

B. It creates internetworks.

C. It forwards all broadcasts.

D. It filters frames.

17. How can you reduce routing table entries?

A. Route summarization

B. Incremental updates

C. IP filtering

D. VLANs

18. Which Cisco IOS features are available to help reduce bandwidth

usage? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Access lists

B. Snapshot routing

C. Compression of WANs

D. TTL

E. DDR

F. Incremental updates

19. Which Cisco IOS features serve to provide stability and availability?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. Reachability

B. Convergence

C. Alternative path routing

D. Snapshot routing

E. Tunneling

F. Dial backup

G. Load balancing

20. Which Cisco layer is responsible for breaking up collision domains?

A. Core

B. Backbone

C. Distribution

D. Access

THINK LIKE AS A HACKER THEN YOU WILL BE A CRACKER solved version

2013-08-21T22:17:00.001-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

1. .The equation of XOR gate is ___________
Y= AB
Y= A+B
Y = A
Y= A + B

2.When a decimal is represented by its exact equivalent, it is known as the __________

Binary Coded Decimal
Hexa Decimal
Decimal
Octal

3. _____ adds two binary digits and produces two binary outputs called Sum and Carry.
Half Adders
Full Adders
Binary Adders
None of the above

4. 2’s complement of 01101 is __________
10111
001101
01110
10011

5.In this ___________system, the digits are 0to 9 and A to F.
Binary
Octal
Hexadecimal
Decimal

6.Read the following statement and state True or False
a.    In 8085 Microprocessor, 8 bit Internal data bus carries instructions and data between the CPU registers
b.    In Microprocessors, Oscillators are not Crystal-, LC- or RC- Controlled
False, True
False, False
True, True
True, False

7. Read the following statement and state True or False
a.    Pins 1 and 2 serve to connect a crystal, LC circuitry or RC circuitry network to X1 and X2
b.    Pin 3 Carries the RESET OUT Signal
True, True
False, False
True, False
False, True

8. Read the following statement and state True or False
a.    Repeated Subtraction is the only method to convert Decimal number to Binary
b.    In order to convert a hexadecimal number to binary, each hexadecimal digit has to be converted to its 4 bit equivalent

False, False
True, False
True, True
False, True

9.Read the following statement and state True or False
a.    One of the two coding method is, EBCDIC
b.    ASCII was developed by a committee with representatives from a variety of computer manufacturers

True, True
False, False
False, True
True, False

10. In an AND gate Input A is 0 and Input B is 1, and the output is passed through the Inverter, what could be the final output from the circuit?
1
-1
0
none of the above

11. Read the following statement and state True or False
a.    An Inverter is a gate with only one input signal and multiple output signals
b.    An non inverting amplifier isolates two other circuits
True, True
False, False
False, True
True, False

12. Read the following statement and state True or False
a.    A half Adder is a logic circuit that adds 2 bits
b.    Arithmetic Logic Units Process Hexadecimal numbers
True, True
False, False
False, True
True, False

13. Which of the following tools is used to control the movement of slides during a presentation?
Slide Effects
Slide Show
Custom Animation
Slide Transition

14. Which of the following key combinations is used to print a presentation in PowerPoint 2010
Ctrl + P

15. Which of the following is used to save or export a Portable Document Format (PDF) file?
ANSWER:- XPS

16. Which of the following keys will you use if you want to erase on-screen annotations of a presentation in PowerPoint 2010?
L
B
P
E

17. Which of the following keys will you use if you want to end a presentation in PowerPoint 2010?
Spacebar
Home
Hyphen
Backspace

18. You type a document and you want to insert header from third page. Which of the following technique will you use to accomplish the task?
Go to the third page and insert header
Use a Quick Style
Use page break
Use section break

19. John prepares a document. He inserts some tables in it. In one table, John wants to divide a cell into two rows and four columns. What should he do to accomplish the task?
Use the Split Cells option
Use the Merge Cells option
Draw lines in the cell to divide it
Use the Split Table option

20. Sam works in an office and he is assigned with the task of preparing a document. He uses Microsoft Word 2010 for creating documents. He inserts a picture in the document. He wants to apply sepia tone to the picture. Which of the following will he choose on the Format tab to accomplish the task?

Change Picture
Color
Picture Effects
Reset Picture

21. You work in an office and you are assigned with the task of writing a document. In the document, there are some words that need reference. What will you do to give the reference for the words on the same page?
Type the reference at the end of the page
Create footnote
Create header
Create footer

22. You review a document and you want to add some suggestions to a part of the document. What will you do to accomplish the task?
Insert a footer
Enable Track Changes
Insert a caption
Insert a comment

23. You work in an office and you are assigned with the task of typing a document. In the document, some words have the same type of formatting. What will you do to ease the task of applying the same type of formatting to
different words?
Create a Quick Style
Create a template
Select all the words together and apply the formatting
Create a theme

24. John wants to send letters to invite his fifty friends on his birthday party. What will he do to ease the task of creating fifty letters?
Use a Quick Style
Use Mail Merge
Use building blocks
Use a template

25. You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. You have created a document in Microsoft Office Word. You need to view the document as it will appear on the printed page. Which of the following views will you use to accomplish the task?
Web Layout
Draft
Print Layout
Full Screen Reading

26. Sam prepares a document. He inserts some tables in it. In one table, Sam wants to combine four cells   into a single cell. What should he do to accomplish the task?

Use Banded Columns optioN
Use Merge Cells option
Use Split Cells option
Use Split Table option

27. John works as an Office Assistant for HappyTech Inc. He is assigned with the task of creating invitation cards for his colleagues. There are about 200 employees in the company. What should he do to ease the creation of cards?
Create individual invitation cards
Create a Quick Style
Create a theme
Create a template

28. Which of the following resources is MOST important for accessing remote virtual environments on
a client machine?

Network speed
CPU speed
High speed memory
Drive space

29. user sent an email requesting that a technician check if a computer is on and connected to the
Internet so the user can login from home. Which of the following commands in the command
prompt would a technician use to verify if the computer is on and connected without having to go
to the computer?
NSLOOKUP
NETSTAT
PING
IPCONFIG

30. A technician recently removed spyware from a computer and now the user is getting error
messages about system files. Which of the following tools would a technician use to verify all
system files are intact and in their original versions?
Repair Disk
SFC
FIXMBR
ASR

31. The computer starts up and runs for less than a minute before shutting down or locking up. This is
a symptom of:

overheating
incompatible RAM
faulty hard drive
bad internal USB hub

32. A computer’s time settings reset every time it is unplugged. This is a symptom of a faulty:
memory module
power supply
motherboard
CMOS battery

33. A technician is configuring a PC that will have confidential information stored on it. To ensure that
only authorized users can access this PC, which of the following should the technician do? (Select
TWO).
Disable the guest account
Install antivirus applications
Disable DHCP
Change the SSID
Change the default username

34. A technician recently installed a new video card in a PC. The PC already has integrated video on
the motherboard. When the technician turns on the PC, there is no video. Which of the following is
MOST likely the cause?

The motherboard BIOS version is out of date
The incorrect video card drivers are installed
The power connector for the video card is unplugged
The video card is unsupported by the motherboard

35. Which of the following BEST describes a method for installing an operating system across the
network?

USB 3.0
IEEE 1394
PXE
NTFS

36. A technician has been dispatched to a customer site to diagnose an issue where the computer
turns off intermittently. Upon arriving at the site, the technician detects a smoke smell coming from
the computer. Which of the following is the BEST solution?
Power down the system and replace the CPU
Power down the system and replace the power supply
Install an additional case fan for proper ventilation
Remove the side panel for proper ventilation

37. A technician has installed several new devices on a computer. The computer no longer boots
properly, and the technician needs to determine which device driver may be causing the issue.
Which of the following allows the operating system to run in a limited capacity with minimal device
drivers loaded?
Last known good configuration
Recovery console
Power shell
Safe mode

38. Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but
does not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to
accomplish this?

MAC filtering
SSL VPN
PPPoE
WPA Enterprise

39. Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working
with Internet access. Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a
single public IP address?
QoS
POP3
PAT
SMTP

40. Which of the following is a form of encrypting packets for safe, secure data transmission within a
network?
RAS
PPTP
IPSec
ICA

41. Two duplicate pieces of equipment can be used in conjunction for which of the following
purposes? (Select TWO)

High availability
Fault tolerance
Reduce latency
Wi-MAX

42. The T568B wiring standard slates that CAT5 cables should be coded as follows:
White/Orange, Orange, White/Green, Green, Blue, White/Blue, White/Brown, Brown,
White/Orange, Orange, White/Green, Blue, White/Blue, Green, White/Brown, Brown,
White/Orange, Orange, \White/Green, Green, White/Blue, Blue, White/Brown, Brown,
White/Orange, Orange, White/Green, Blue,

43. Using network monitoring tools would allow an administrator to do which of the following?
Configure offline devices
Examine performance issues
Install additional software and updates
View syslog events

44. Which of the following wireless technologies can operate at only 5GHz?
802.11b/g
802.11g
802.11b
802.11a

45. Which of the following devices allows multiple internal IP addresses to access an external website
with minimal impact to the network bandwidth?

Proxy
Load balancer
Router
Bandwidth shaper

46. A VPN connection is not working correctly and the technician is unable to ping the VPN server.
Which of the following actions should the technician do FIRST?

Call their local ISP
Verify the IP information of the server
Check their local Internet connection
Verify the hostname of the server

47. A technician wants to use an existing DHCP server for three additional VLANs. Which of the
following features needs to be configured to allow for this addition?

DHCP server
Proxy server
Repeater
DHCP relay

48. Which of the following must you download from Microsoft’s Web site to obtain USMT 4.0?
Windows any time update
Windows upgrade advisor
WAIK
Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit

49. Which of the following VPN types support the VPN Reconnect feature of Windows 7?
L2TP/IPsec
PPTP
IKEv2
SSTP

50. You are responsible for managing company laptops that have Windows 7 installed at a small library. You want to prevent staff from uploading files using FTP to FTP sites but allow them to send outbound email messages using the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Which of the following rules would you configure to achieve this?
Inbound rules
Outbound rules
Isolation rules
Authentication exemption rules

51. Your friend has installed new device drivers on his computer. Unfortunately it was a beta early release and his computer boots to a blank screen now. You help him out by restarting the computer and pressing F8. However, what Advanced Boot Option would NOT help fix the situation?
Enable Boot Logging
Safe Mode
Safe Mode with Networking
Last Known Good Configuration (Advanced)

52. Your friend has set up a wireless network at his home. He found it easy to set up the third party WAP from the local PC shop. However, his next door neighbour just informed him that she can access his network and do all her online shopping for free. Since your friend does not really like his neighbor he wants to stop this happening. What should he do?
Enable Windows Firewall
Change the security settings of his WAP
Change the SSID for the WAP
Implement 802.11i

53. Which file in Windows 7 is cataloged by windows system image manager to create and answer file?
Boot.wim
Install.wim
Setup.exe
Install.wim

54. In which format is the answer file of customized Windows 7 image is stored?
Text
Batch
Exe
XML

55. Which version of TPM is required for configuring bitlocker in Windows 7?
TPM 1.0
TPM 1.2
TPM 2.0
None

56. You have installed Windows 7 in a client machine which had winsowsXp installed. Which operation you will perform to remove windows Xp installation data from the machine?
Simply Delete windows.old folder from the system drive
Do not perform any operation
Use disk cleanup and remove previously installed windows installation(s)
Run bcdedit

57. Which is the next immediate step you will perform after you have created a native virtual hard disk to access the disk?
Initialize the disk as an MBR
Create a partition
Both of the above
None of the above

58. Which of the following commands does not save changes before exiting from the VI editor?
:q!
:q
zz
:w

59. Which of the following commands pipes stdout and stderr from cmd1 to cmd2?
cmd2 | cmd1
cmd2 2>&1 | cmd1
cmd1 | cmd2
cmd1 2>&1 | cmd2

60. You work as the Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux- based network. You are working as a root user on the Red Hat operating system. Joe is a user in your company. You want to remove Joes tmp files that are 3 days older. Which of the following command syntaxes should you use to accomplish the task?
find /tmp -cmin +3 -user Joe -ok rm {} \;
find /tmp -ctime +3 user Joe -ok rm {} \;
find /tmp -ctime +3 -user Joe -ok rm {} \;
find /tmp -cmin +3 user Joe -ok rm {} \;

61. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are a root user on the Red Hat operating system. You want to know how many words are present in the file named file1.txt. You type the following command on the terminal: wc file1.txt. The command displays the following output:
40 245 1800 file1.txt How many words are present in the file file1.txt?

40
285
245
1800

62. Which of the following is NOT true about the inode table in the Linux operating system?
It contains the location information where data is stored in the hard disk
It contains information about what type of access permission of the file is available to whom
It contains the last access time, last modification time, however it does not store the last inode change time.
It contains the file type of the specified file

63. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. Rick, a Sales Manager, wants to combine the contents of the Sale1.txt and Sale2.txt files to a new file named FinSale.txt. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task?

ls Sale1.txt Sale2.txt < FinSale.txt
cat Sale1.txt Sale2.txt < FinSale.txt
ls Sale1.txt Sale2.txt > FinSale.txt
cat Sale1.txt Sale2.txt > FinSale.txt

64. You work as a Network Administrator for company.com Inc. You have created a PostScript file by using a program. You want to convert it to a PDF file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
ps2pdf
enscript
pdf2ps
a2ps

65. Fill in the blank with the command to complete the statement below. Do not enter the full path of the command. The ________ command is used to compare the contents of two files for differences in the Red Hat operating system

diff
differ
deff
daff

66. John is a newly appointed Network technician at McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based Network. John is currently working on the /tmp directory. The /tmp directory has a file named file3.txt. John wants to copy this file in a subdirectory named backup of his home directory /home/John. Which of the following commands should John use to accomplish his task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three

cp file3.txt /home/John/backup
cp file3.txt /home/John/backup/
cp file3.txt backup
cp file3.txt ~/backup

67. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You want to modify a configuration file in a Linux server. Which of the following utilities will you use to accomplish the task?

VI
NMAP
MS Word
GZIP

68. Which of the following is a utility that can function as an independent spell checker?
spell
nice
aspell
inspell

69. You want to repeat the last command you entered in the bash shell. Which of the following commands will you use?
history !#
history !!
history ##
history !1

70. Which of the following SHELL commands displays currently logged-in users and their tasks?
w
finger
whoami
who

71. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to change the modified date and time of the file private.txt to 11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am. Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
touch -t 200911110259.58 private.txt
rm private.txt #11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am
touch private.txt #11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am
touch -d "11 Nov 2009 02:59:58 am" private.txt

72. Which of the following are the Graphical Mail clients in Red Hat Enterprise Linux?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two
Pidgin
Mozilla
Evolution
mutt

73. You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. By using the VI utility, you have created a document that has 100 lines. You want to replace all the occurrences of "net" with "Net" in the first 50 lines of the document. Which of the following commands will you use?
:1,$ s/net/Net/g
:1,100 s/net/Net/g
:1,50 s/net/Net/g
:s/net/Net/g

74. Which of the following commands will you execute to fix other writable files in your home directory?
find -perm -002 -exec chmod o-w {} \;
find /home -type d -ls
find ~ -perm -002 -exec chmod o-w {} \;
find ~ -perm -002 -exec chmod -w {} \;

75. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Debian Linuxbased network. He is working on the bash shell in which he creates a variable VAR1. After some calculations, he opens a new ksh shell. Now, he wants to set VAR1 as an environmental variable so that he can retrieve VAR1 into the ksh shell. Which of the following commands will John run to accomplish the task?

touch VAR1
env -u VAR1
export VAR1
echo $VAR1

76. You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
wc -c file1.txt >error.txt

77. If you want a very good display, then assigns more amount of RAM for display
True
False

78. The most popular Wi-Fi standard which uses Complimentary Code Keying(CCK) is _____
802.11b
802.11a
802.11g
802.11n

79. Which is the Wi-Fi standard which is known as WiMax which combines the benefits of both Broadband and Wireless?
802.11b
802.11a
802.16
802.11g

80. What is the frequency & data transfer rate of 802.11a standards?
5 GHZ, 54Mbps
2.4GHZ, 11Mbps
2.4GHZ, 54Mbps
2.4GHZ, 140 Mbps

81. Small size of IDE drives can hold _________
10GB
20GB to 30GB
30GB to 40GB
40GB

82. are the two different sizes of SO-DIMM modules available?
2.375inch
2.625inch
2.525inch
2.750inch

83. Telecommunication industry specification describing how mobile computers can be easily interconnected using a short run wireless connection.

Bluetooth
Infrared
Wi-Fi
GPRS

84. An amount of memory which stores the data temporarily to compensate for difference in data transmission from one device to another
Latch
Flip-Flop
Buffer
Cache

85. _________ is the process in which saving of image of your desktop with all open files & documents and power down of your computer happens
Hibernation
Sleep mode
Shutdown
Restart

86. The common desktop systems mostly uses _________ monitor for display
Liquid crystal display
Cathode ray tube
Thin film transistor
None of the above

87. What is the code name for speed step technology?
Geyser Ville
Core2duo
Paxville
None of the above

88. Quebec _____________________ the St. Lawrence River
rises in a magnificent way above
rises in a magnificent way , way above
rises magnificently above
rises magnificently way above

89. A _______________ can be defined as the discussion between two or more people about a topic that is pre-determined
Interview
MEETING
WRITTEN TEST
SEMINAR

90. Which of the following is not a formal communication?
General Enquiry
MEETING
SEMINARS
NONE OF THE ABOVE

91. Which of the following word is 2-Syllable word
Pad
MENTION
MECHANIC       DON’T KNOW
PATHETIC

92. Find odd one out
Dread
Spread
Sad
Bread

93. Find out the Silent Alphabet in this word – Knowledge
O
D
E
K

94. The ________________ are Energetic, Optimistic, Goal Oriented and get along with his co-workers
Achievers
Helpers
Romantics
Perfectionist

95. Which of the following is a type of communication?
Verbal Communication
Non-Verbal Communication
Para verbal Communication
All the above

96. Many nineteenth-century biographers ____________________, not on real facts
rely on their imagination
relied on their imagination
have relied on their imagination
could have relied on their imagination

EIGRP Redistribution of Different AS(Autonomous System) configuration on GNS3:

2013-07-15T01:40:00.002-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

EIGRP Redistribution of Different AS(Autonomous System) configuration on GNS3:

In this tutorial i will show you that how to communicate the two different AS(Autonomous System) in gns3. EIGRP Redistribution of Different AS are need to performed on edge router having different AS configure on it. For this i have create a lab in gns3, in our topology R3 is the router on which we shall perform redistribution. For IP and EIGRP configuration you can visit EIGRP configuration on GNS3. But you need to make some changes on R3, R5 and R6 i.e. run "router rigrp 200" instead of "router rigrp 100".

EIGRP Redistribution Commands:

R3(config)#config t

R3(config)#router eigrp 200

R3(config-router)#network 3.3.3.0 0.0.0.255

R3(config-router)#network 4.4.4.0 0.0.0.255

R3(config)#exit

R3(config)#router eigrp 100

R3(config-router)#network 2.2.2.0 0.0.0.255

R3(config)#router eigrp 100

R3(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 200

R3(config-router)#ex

R3(config)#router eigrp 200

R3(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100

Verification:

R2#show ip route

You will find the other EIGRP AS routes with EX tag.

EIGRP – Stub Routing

2013-07-12T01:25:00.002-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

EIGRP – Stub Routing

In hub-and-spoke environments, spoke routers (branch routers) often do not need to maintain complete routing tables of the network, as the paths to other portions of the network are always through the hub routers (head quarter routers). Additionally, the massive query-reply processes between the hub and spoke routers upon a loss route would affect the stability of the network.

A typical connection between a hub router and a spoke router has much less bandwidth than a connection in the network core. Therefore attempting to use such connections as transit paths would typically results in excessive congestion. EIGRP stub routing can prevent this problem by restricting the spoke router from advertising the routes from a hub router to another hub router. As a result, the hub routers would not notice there are alternative paths through the spoke routers. However, stub routing is unable to stop the hub router from advertising routes to spoke router. Manual summarization is required on the hub to advertise only a default route to the spokes.
Note: A stub router would not advertise routes received from a neighbor to another neighbor.

Without stub routing implemented on dual-homed spoke routers, route filtering configuration is required on the spoke routers to prevent them from appearing as transit paths to the hub routers.

When the remote sites are not acting as a transit sites between the regional sites, the regional routers (hubs) should be configured to advertise only a default route to the remote routers. The remote routers (spokes) should be configured to advertise only their directly connected stub networks back to the regional routers to reduce the complexity of EIGRP convergence (the query-reply process) and the sizes of the EIGRP topology table and IP routing table.

EIGRP stub routing an efficient method for limiting the query range, therefore conserves bandwidth due to unnecessary queries, prevents SIA events, and improves network stability.

An EIGRP stub router would inform its stub status to upstream routers via the Hello packets. Any neighboring upstream router that receives such Hello packets will not query the stub router for lost routes, as the stub router has no downstream EIGRP neighbors and hence would not have alternative paths for a lost route. The upstream routers which connected to the stub router would answer any query on behalf of the stub router, which results in improved convergence time.

The eigrp stub [receive-only | connected , static , summary , redistributed] router subcommand configures an EIGRP router as an EIGRP stub router. An EIGRP stub router would advertise its connected and summary routes to other neighboring routers by default. Below describes the optional keywords that can be used to modify this behavior:

receive-only
Restricts an EIGRP stub router from advertising any route to other routers. This option will not allow other options to be specified as it prevents the advertisement of any type of route, which is not really useful; the other options can be configured in any combination. Use this option when the stub router has only a single interface.

connected
Allows an EIGRP stub router to advertise its connected routes. The network statement is required to include the connected interfaces into the EIGRP routing process. The redistribute connected router subcommand can also be used to redistribute connected subnets into the EIGRP routing process. This option is enabled by default and is the most widely used option.

static
Allows an EIGRP stub router to advertise its static routes. The redistribute static router subcommand is required to redistribute static routes.

summary
Allows an EIGRP stub router to advertise its summary routes. Summary routes can be configured manually with the ip summary-address eigrp interface subcommand or automatically with the auto-summary router subcommand. This option is enabled by default.

redistributed
Allows an EIGRP stub router to advertise external EIGRP routes learnt from other routing protocols or other EIGRP autonomous systems.

Note: Configuring EIGRP stub routing would teardown existing EIGRP neighbor relationships!

For you case, implement the EIGRP STUB (and not STUCK as in EIGRP Stuck in Active ) on R4, R6, and R7. Just simply conf t, router eigrp, and the "eigrp stub".

After that, verify the stub configuration on R5 using the show ip eigrp neighbors detail EXEC command on R5. Below is the excerpt from my test lab.

HQ1#sh ip eigrp neighbors detail
IP-EIGRP neighbors for process 100
H   Address                 Interface       Hold Uptime   SRTT   RTO  Q  Seq
                                            (sec)         (ms)       Cnt Num
2   10.10.10.10             Se1/1             14 00:02:28    1  4500  0  22
   Version 12.3/1.2, Retrans: 2, Retries: 0
   Stub Peer Advertising ( CONNECTED ) Routes
   Suppressing queries
1   10.10.10.6              Se1/0             13 00:02:29    1  4500  0  22
   Version 12.3/1.2, Retrans: 2, Retries: 0
   Stub Peer Advertising ( CONNECTED ) Routes
   Suppressing queries
0   10.10.10.2              Fa0/0             12 00:02:30  424  3816  0  25
   Version 12.3/1.2, Retrans: 1, Retries: 0
HQ1#

Subnetting a Class B network address

2013-07-11T23:22:00.002-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos
Class B subnets
In my last Daily Drill Down, we borrowed bits from the host portion of a Class C network address. Class C network addresses only have eight bits to manipulate into subnets. However, a Class B has 16 bits to play with. This will allow more subnets with more hosts per subnet than a Class C network ever could.

Table 1 lists all of the possible Class B subnets:

Table 1
Mask	Binary	Subnets	Hosts per subnet
255.255.128.0	10000000.00000000	2	32,766
255.255.192.0	11000000.00000000	2	16,382
255.255.224.0	11100000.00000000	6	8,190
255.255.240.0	11110000.00000000	14	4,094
255.255.248.0	11111000.00000000	30	2,046
255.255.252.0	11111100.00000000	62	1,022
255.255.254.0	11111110.00000000	126	510
255.255.255.0	11111111.00000000	254	254
255.255.255.128	11111111.10000000	510	126
255.255.255.192	11111111.11000000	1022	62
255.255.255.224	11111111.11100000	2,046	30
255.255.255.240	11111111.11110000	4,094	14
255.255.255.248	11111111.11111000	8,190	6
255.255.255.252	11111111.11111100	16,382	2

All possible Class B subnets

There are quite a few more masks we can use with a Class B network address than we can with a Class C network address. Remember that this is not harder than subnetting with Class C, but it can get confusing if you don’t pay attention to where the subnet bits and host bits are in a mask. This takes practice!

In this Daily Drill Down, I will use the same techniques I used in the Class C article to subnet a network. We’ll start with the Class B subnet mask of 255.255.192.0 and figure out the subnets, broadcast address, and valid host range. We will answer the same five questions we answered for the Class C subnet masks:

How many subnets does this mask provide?
How many hosts per subnet does this mask provide?
What are the valid subnets?
What is the broadcast address for each subnet?
What is the host range of each subnet?

Before we answer these questions, there is one difference you need to be aware of when subnetting a Class B network address. When subnetting in the third octet, you need to add the fourth octet. For example, on the 255.255.192.0 mask, the subnetting will be done in the third octet. To create a valid subnet, you must add the fourth octet of all 0s and all 1s for the network and broadcast address (0 for all 0s and 255 for all 1s).

Example 1: Answers for the 255.255.192.0 mask

2-2=2 subnets
2-2=16,382 hosts per subnet
256-192=64.0, 128.0
Broadcast for the 64.0 subnet is 127.255. Broadcast for the 128.0 subnet is 191.255.
The valid hosts are:

Subnet	64.0	128.0
first host	64.1	128.1
last host	127.254	191.254
broadcast	127.255	191.255

Notice that the numbers in the third octet are the same numbers we used in the fourth octet when subnetting the 192 mask. The only difference is that we add 0 and 255 in the fourth octet.

For the 64.0 subnet, all the hosts between 64.1 and 127.254 are in the 64 subnet. In the 128.0 subnet, the hosts are 128.1 through 191.254.

I know this is confusing, but I promise if you read this complete Daily Drill Down carefully, I can make it easier for you.

Work through a few more with me, and it should start to become clearer.

Example 2: 255.255.240.0

2-2=14 subnets
2-2=4094 hosts per subnet
256-240=16.0, 32.0, 48.0, 64.0, etc.
Broadcast for the 16.0 subnet is 31.255. Broadcast for the 32.0 subnet is 47.255, etc.
The valid hosts are:

Subnet	16.0	32.0	48.0	64.0
first host	16.1	32.1	48.1	64.1
last host	31.254	47.254	63.254	79.254
broadcast	31.255	47.255	63.255	79.255

Example 3: 255.255.248.0

2-2=30 subnets
2-2=2,046 hosts per subnet
256-248=8.0, 16.0, 24.0, 32.0, 40.0, 48.0, 56.0, 64.0, etc.
Broadcast for the 8.0 subnet is 15.255. Broadcast for the 16.0 subnet is 23.255, etc.
The valid hosts are:

Subnet	8.0	16.0	24.0	32.0	40.0	48.0	56.0	64.0
first host	8.1	16.1	24.1	32.1	40.1	48.1	56.1	64.1
last host	15.254	23.254	31.254	39.254	47.254	55.254	63.254	71.254
broadcast	15.255	23.255	31.255	39.255	47.255	55.255	63.255	71.255

Example 4: 255.255.252.0

2-2=62 subnets
2-2=1,022 hosts per subnet
256-252=4.0, 8.0, 12.0, 16.0, 20.0, 24.0, 28.0, 32.0, etc.
Broadcast for the 4.0 subnet is 7.255. Broadcast for the 8.0 subnet is 11.255, etc.
The valid hosts are:

Subnet	4.0	8.0	12.0	16.0	20.0	24.0	28.0	32.0
first host	4.1	8.1	12.1	16.1	20.1	24.1	28.1	32.1
last host	7.254	11.254	15.254	19.254	23.254	27.254	31.254	35.254
broadcast	7.255	11.255	15.255	19.255	23.255	27.255	31.255	35.255

Example 5: 255.255.255.0

2-2=254 subnets
2-2=254 hosts per subnet
256-255=1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0, 5.0, 6.0, 7.0, 8.0, etc.
Broadcast for the 1.0 subnet is 1.255. Broadcast for the 2.0 subnet is 2.255, etc.
The valid hosts are:

Subnet	1.0	2.0	3.0	4.0	5.0	6.0	7.0	8.0
first host	1.1	2.1	3.1	4.1	5.1	6.1	7.1	8.1
last host	1.254	21.254	3.254	4.254	5.254	6.254	7.254	8.254
broadcast	1.255	2.255	3.255	4.255	5.255	6.255	7.255	8.255

That last example was pretty simple. I hope you notice a pattern now. All the numbers were basically the same except we added the fourth octet into the address.

The more difficult process of subnetting a Class B network address is when you start using bits in the fourth octet for subnetting. For example, what happens when you use this mask with a Class B network address: 255.255.255.128? Is that valid? Absolutely! There are nine bits for subnetting and seven bits for hosts. That is 510 subnets, each with 126 hosts. However, it is the most difficult mask to figure out the valid hosts for.

Example 6: The Class B 255.255.255.128 subnet mask:

2-2=510 subnets
2-2=126 hosts per subnet
For the third octet, the mask would be 256-255=1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, etc.
For the fourth octet, the mask would be 256-128=128, which is one subnet if it is used. However, if you turn the subnet bit off, the value is 0. This means that for every subnet in the third octet, the fourth octet has two subnets: 0 and 128, for example 1.0 and 1.128.
Broadcast for the 0.128 subnet is 128.255; the broadcast for the 1.0 subnet is 1.127. Broadcast for the 1.128 subnet is 1.255, etc.
The valid hosts are:

Subnet	0.128	1.0	1.128	2.0	2.128	3.0	3.128	4.0
first host	0.129	1.1	1.129	2.1	2.129	3.1	3.129	4.1
last host	0.254	1.126	1.254	2.126	2.254	3.126	3.254	4.126
broadcast	0.255	1.127	1.255	2.127	2.255	3.127	3.255	4.127

The thing to remember is that for every subnet in the third octet, there are two in the fourth octet: 0 and 128. For the 0 subnet, the broadcast address is always 127. For the 128 subnet, the broadcast address is always 255.

Let’s continue with more subnetting into the fourth octet. This is exactly like subnetting a Class C network address, but the third octet is part of the subnet address.

Example 7: Class B network 255.255.255.192

2-2=1022 subnets
2-2=62 hosts per subnet
256-255=1.0, 2.0, 3.0, etc. for the third octet. 256-192=64, 128, 192 for the fourth octet. For every valid subnet in the third octet, we get four subnets in the fourth octet: 0, 64, 128, and 192.
Broadcast for the 1.0 subnet is 1.63, since the next subnet is 1.64. Broadcast for the 1.64 subnet is 1.127, since the next subnet is 1.128. Broadcast for the 1.128 subnet is 1.191, since the next subnet is 1.192. Broadcast for the 1.192 subnet is 1.255.
The valid hosts are as follows:

Subnet	0.64	0.128	0.192	1.0	1.64	1.128	1.192	2.0
first host	0.65	0.129	0.193	1.1	1.65	1.129	1.193	2.1
last host	0.126	0.190	0.254	1.62	1.126	1.190	1.254	2.62
broadcast	0.127	0.191	0.255	1.63	1.127	1.191	1.255	2.63

On this one, the 0 and 192 subnets are valid, since we are using the third octet as well. The subnet range is 0.64 through 255.128. 0.0 is not valid since no subnet bits are on. 255.192 is not valid because then all subnet bits would be on.

Example 8: Class B network 255.255.255.224

2-2=2046 subnets
2-2=30 hosts per subnet
256-255=1.0, 2.0, 3.0, etc. for the third octet. 256-224=32, 64, 96, 128, 160, 192 for the subnet value. (For every value in the third octet, we get eight subnets in the fourth octet: 0, 32, 64, 96, 128, 160, 192, 224.)
Broadcast for the 1.0 subnet is 1.63, since the next subnet is 1.64. Broadcast for the 1.64 subnet is 1.127, since the next subnet is 1.128. Broadcast for the 1.128 subnet is 1.191, since the next subnet is 1.192. Broadcast for the 1.192 subnet is 1.255.
The valid hosts are:

Subnet	0.32	0.64	0.96	0.128	0.160	0.192	0.224	1.0
first host	0.33	0.65	0.97	0.129	0.161	0.193	0.225	1.1
last host	0.62	0.94	0.126	0.158	0.190	0.222	0.254	1.30
broadcast	0.63	0.95	0.127	1.159	0.191	0.223	0.255	1.31

For this subnet mask, the 0 and 224 subnets are valid as long as not all subnet bits in the third octet are off or all subnet bits in the fourth octet are on.

When would we use this valuable information? All the time! For example, if you have a host configuration of 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.224, what subnet, broadcast address, and valid host range is this host a member of? (We would solve this question with the information presented above.)
256-224=32, 64

Bingo! In the fourth octet, the host address is 33. That is between 32 and 64, so the host is in the 32 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 63, and the valid host range is 33-62. Easy. Just remember that the subnet is 10.32 because the third octet is part of the subnet address.

Let’s try another one. You have a host configuration of 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.240. What subnet, broadcast address, and valid host range is this host a member of?

Since we did not go through this mask in this Daily Drill Down, you’ll have to figure it out on your own. It is done the same way as all the others.
256-240=16, 32, 48

Bingo! The host is in the 10.32 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 10.47 and a valid host range of 10.33 through 10.46.

Let’s keep going: You have a host configuration of 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.248. What subnet, broadcast address, and valid host range is this host a member of?
256-248=8, 16, 24, 32, 40

Bingo! The host is in the 10.32 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 10.39 and valid host range of 10.33 through 10.38. Easy, huh?

One more: You have a host configuration of 172.16.10.17 255.255.255.252. What subnet, broadcast address, and valid host range is this host a member of?
256-252=4, 8, 12, 16, 20

Bingo! You have a subnet of 10.16, with a broadcast of 10.19 and valid host range of 10.17 through 10.18.

thats the class b subnetting

Subnetting a Class C network address

2013-07-11T23:01:00.005-07:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

Let’s face it, some day you are going to have to subnet a network. Although IP addressing isn’t a network administrator’s favorite task, it’s a critical skill that you must have. In this Daily Drill Down, I will continue our discussion of IP addressing by exploring the process of taking a large IP address range and dividing it into smaller, more manageable pieces. Since this is a complicated, involved process, I will only discuss the process of breaking up Class C networks. First, we need to discuss why we want to subnet a network and the advantages of doing so.

Why subnetting?

By creating smaller IP networks (instead of having one large network), we can obtain better security, smaller collision and broadcast domains, and greater administrative control of each network. Think of a network like streets in a city. Each house on this network is known by the street and by the address. Think of the addresses on the houses as the hardware addresses of a host. For IP to communicate with a host, the IP address must be known, and the router connected to the network on which this host is located must also know the hardware address of the house.

What if a city didn’t have many blocks but just one long street? The mailman would go crazy trying to get the mail delivered to each house correctly because he would have to know the address of every house. It’s the same scenario with IP. By creating smaller networks, we can more effectively get data to each host.

Subnetting a Class C network

So you understand why you want to subnet, but how do you do it? Your goal is to look at an IP address and subnet mask of a host and then determine three things quickly:

The subnet the host is located in
The broadcast address of the subnet
The valid host range of the subnet used to configure hosts

Once the subnet is determined, the broadcast address must be found. Why? Because these are not valid host addresses and cannot be assigned to host configurations. Also, by determining the subnet and broadcast addresses, we can easily determine the host addresses because the valid host range is always the numbers between the subnet address and the broadcast address.

If we use the default subnet mask with a Class C network address, then we already know that three bytes are used to define the network and only one byte is used to define the hosts on each network.

The default Class C mask is: 255.255.255.0. To make smaller networks, called subnetworks, we will borrow bits from the host portion of the mask. Since the Class C mask only uses the last octet for host addressing, we only have 8 bits at our disposal. Therefore, only the following masks can be used with Class C networks (Table A).

Subset zero
Take note that in the table below I do not assume subnet zero. Cisco does teach a subnet zero assumption but they do not test that way. I have chosen to follow the exam.

Table A
Mask	Binary	# Subnet bits	# Host bits	Subnets	Hosts
255.255.255.128	10000000	1	7	2	126
255.255.255.192	11000000	2	6	2	62
255.255.255.224	11100000	3	5	6	30
255.255.255.240	11110000	4	4	14	14
255.255.255.248	11111000	5	3	30	6
255.255.255.252	11111100	6	2	62	2

Class C masks

You can see in Table A that the bits that are turned on (1s) are used for subnetting, while the bits that are turned off (0s) are used for addressing of hosts. You can use some easy math to determine the number of subnets and hosts per subnet for each different mask.

To determine the number of subnets, use the 2^x-2, where the x exponent is the number of subnet bits in the mask.

To determine the number of hosts, use the 2^x-2, where the x exponent is the number of host bits in the mask.

To determine the mask you need for your network, you must first determine your business requirements. Count the number of networks and the number of hosts per network that you need. Then determine the mask by using the equations shown above—and don’t forget to factor for growth.

For example, if you have eight networks and each requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C mask of 255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in binary is 11110000, which means you have four subnet bits and four host bits. Using our math, we’d get the following:
2⁴-2=14 subnets
2⁴-2=14 hosts

Many people find it easy to memorize the Class C information because Class C networks have few bits to manipulate. However, there is an easier way to subnet.

Easy subnetting

Instead of memorizing the entire table (Table A), it’s possible to glance at a host address and quickly determine the necessary information if you’ve memorized key parts of the table. First, you need to know your binary-to-decimal conversion. Memorize the number of bits used with each mask that are shown in Table A. Second, you need to remember the following:
256-192=64
256-224=32
256-240=16
256-248=8
256-252=4

Once you have the two steps memorized, you can begin subnetting. Our first example will use the Class C mask of 255.255.255.192. Ask five simple questions to gather all the facts:

How many subnet bits are used in this mask?
How many host bits are available per subnet?
What are the subnet addresses?
What is the broadcast address of each subnet?
What is the valid host range of each subnet?

You already know how to answer questions one and two. To answer question three, use the formula 256-subnetmask to get the first subnet and your variable. Keep adding this number to itself until you get to the subnet mask value to determine the valid subnets. Once you verify all of the subnets, you can determine the broadcast address by looking at the next subnet’s value. The broadcast address is the number just before the next subnet number. Once you have the subnet number and broadcast address, the valid hosts are the numbers in between.

Here are the answers using 255.255.255.192:

How many subnet bits are used in this mask?
Answer: 2
2²-2=2 subnets
How many host bits are available per subnet?
Answer: 6
2⁶-2=62 hosts per subnet
What are the subnet addresses?
Answer: 256-192=64 (the first subnet)
64+64=128 (the second subnet)
64+128=192. However, although 192 is the subnet mask value, it’s not a valid subnet. The valid subnets are 64 and 128.
What is the broadcast address of each subnet?
Answer: 64 is the first subnet and 128 is the second subnet. The broadcast address is always the number before the next subnet. The broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 127. The broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 191.
What is the valid host range of each subnet?
Answer: The valid hosts are the numbers between the subnet number and the mask. For the 64 subnet, the valid host range is 64-126. For the 128 subnet, the valid host range is 129-190.

Let’s do a second example using the Class C mask of 255.255.255.224. Here are the answers:

How many subnet bits are used in this mask?
Answer: 3 bits or 2³-2=6 subnets
How many host bits are available per subnet?
Answer: 5 bits or 2⁵-2=30 hosts per subnet
What are the subnet addresses?
Answer: 256-224 =32, 64, 96, 128, 160 and 192 (Six subnets found by continuing to add 32 to itself.)
What is the broadcast address of each subnet?
Answer: The broadcast address for the 32 subnet is 63. The broadcast address for the 64 subnet is 95. The broadcast address for the 96 subnet is 127. The broadcast address for the 160 subnet is 191. The broadcast address for the 192 subnet is 223 (since 224 is the mask).
What is the valid host range of each subnet?
Answer: The valid hosts are the numbers in between the subnet and broadcast addresses. For example, the 32 subnet valid hosts are 33-62.

Let’s do a third example using the Class C mask of 255.255.255.240. Here are the answers:

How many subnet bits are used in this mask?
Answer: 4 bits or 2⁴-2=14 subnets
How many host bits are available per subnet?
Answer: 4 bits or 2⁴-2=14 hosts per subnet
What are the subnet addresses?
Answer: 256-240 =16, 32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144. 160, 176, 192, 208 and 224 (14 subnets found by continuing to add 16 to itself.)
What is the broadcast address of each subnet?
Answer: Here are some examples of the broadcast address: The broadcast address for the 16 subnet is 31. The broadcast address for the 32 subnet is 47. The broadcast address for the 64 subnet is 79. The broadcast address for the 96 subnet is 111. The broadcast address for the 160 subnet is 175. The broadcast address for the 192 subnet is 207.
What is the valid host range of each subnet?
Answer: The valid hosts are the numbers in between the subnet and broadcast addresses. The 32 subnet valid hosts are 33-46.

Let’s do a fourth example using the Class C mask of 255.255.255.248. Here are the answers:

How many subnet bits are used in this mask?
Answer: 5 bits or 2⁵-2=30 subnets
How many host bits are available per subnet?
Answer: 3 bits or 2³-2=6 hosts per subnet
What are the subnet addresses?
Answer 256-248 =8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, and so forth. The last subnet is 240 (30 subnets found by continuing to add 8 to itself).
What is the broadcast address of each subnet?
Answer: The broadcast address for the 8 subnet is 15. The broadcast address for the 16 subnet is 23. The broadcast address for the 48 subnet is 55.
What is the valid host range of each subnet?
Answer: The valid hosts are the numbers in between the subnet and broadcast addresses. For example, the 32 subnet valid hosts are 33-38.

Let’s do a fifth example using the Class C mask of 255.255.255.252. Here are the answers:

How many subnet bits are used in this mask?
Answer: 6 bits or 2⁶-2=62 subnets
How many host bits are available per subnet?
Answer: 2 bits or 2²-2=2 hosts per subnet
What are the subnet addresses?
Answer: 256-252 =4, 8, 12, 16, 20, and so forth. The last subnet is 248 (62 subnets found by continuing to add 4 to itself).
What is the broadcast address of each subnet?
Answer: The broadcast address for the 4 subnet is 7. The broadcast address for the 8 subnet is 11. The broadcast address for the 12 subnet is 15. The broadcast address for the 20 subnet is 23.
What is the valid host range of each subnet?
Answer: The valid hosts are the numbers in between the subnet and broadcast addresses. For example, the 16 subnet valid hosts are 17 and 18.

How do I use this information?
Let’s take a look at an example that will highlight how the above information is applied.

A host configuration has an IP configuration of 192.168.10.17 255.255.255.248. What are the subnet, broadcast address, and host range that this host is a member of? The answer is: 256-248=8, 16, 24. This host is in the 16 subnet, the broadcast address of the 16 subnet is 23, and the valid host range is 17-22. Pretty easy!

Here is an explanation of this example: First, I used 256-subnetmask to get the variable and first subnet. Then I kept adding this number to itself until I passed the host address. The subnet is the number before the host address, and the broadcast address is the number right before the next subnet. The valid hosts are the numbers in between the subnet and broadcast address.

Let’s examine a second example. A host configuration has an IP configuration of 192.168.10.37 255.255.255.240. What are the subnet, broadcast address, and host range this host is a member of? The answer is: 256-240=16, 32, 48. This host is in the 32 subnet, the broadcast address of the 32 subnet is 47, and the valid host range is 33-46.

Let’s go through a third example: A host configuration has an IP configuration of 192.168.10.44 255.255.255.224. What are the subnet, broadcast address, and host range this host is a member of? The answer is: 256-224=32, 64. This host is in the 32 subnet, the broadcast address of the 32 subnet is 63, and the valid host range is 33-62.

Here’s a fourth example: A host configuration has an IP configuration of 192.168.10.17 255.255.255.252. What are the subnet, broadcast address, and host range this host is a member of? The answer is: 256-252=4, 8, 12, 16, 20. This host is in the 16 subnet, the broadcast address of the 16 subnet is 19, and the valid host range is 17-18.

Let’s go through a final example. A host configuration has an IP configuration of 192.168.10.88 255.255.255.192. What are the subnet, broadcast address and host range this host is a member of? The answer is: 256-192=64, 128. This host is in the 64 subnet, the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 127, and the valid host range must be 65-126.

Conclusion
It is important to be able to subnet quickly and efficiently. After studying the examples presented in this Daily Drill Down, you should be familiar with this process with Class C addresses. Practice your subnetting as much as possible, and the process will get easier and easier. In my next Daily Drill Down, I’ll take subnetting a step further and discuss subnetting a Class B network address.

Red Hat Linux System Administration

2013-03-06T00:45:00.001-08:00

1. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. He is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to add a soft limit quota warning for the users, in which, after exceeding the quota value, a user will receive e-mail warnings about being over quotA. Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) repquota

B) quotaon

C) warnquota

D) edquota

E) quotaoff

Answer: C,D

2. Which of the following commands will you run to list all files that have been modified within the last 60 minutes?

A) find /etc -name *.txt

B) find start -dir -min -60

C) find start -dir -cmin -60

D) find start -cmin -60

Answer: C

3. You work as a System Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux based network. You are a root user on Red Hat operating system. You have upgraded the amount of RAM in your system from 256 MB to 512 MB, but there is only 512 MB of swap space. Therefore, you want to add more swap space to /dev/hdb2 hard drive to run the applications that require a large amount of memory. Which of the following commands should you run to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) mkswap /dev/hdb2

B) swapon /dev/hdb2

C) mount

D) parted

Answer: A,B,D

4. You work as a Linux Technician for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network .You have configured a database server in the network. Users complain that the server has become remarkably slow. However, the previous day, the server was performing well. You know what some of the processes may be the cause of the issue. You run the PS command on the server. In the result set, which information will you look at that suggests the problematic process?

A) A high load average

B) A high process ID

C) A low load average

D) A low CPU time

E) A high CPU time

Answer: E

5. You want only the root access in a Linux computer for maintenance purposes. Which of the following runlevels will you use to boot the computer?

A) 2

B) 0

C) 1

D) 3

Answer: C

6. Which of the following commands can be used to compress a file? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) gzip

B) compress

C) tar

D) zip

Answer: A,B,D

7. You work as a Network Administrator for Rick Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are configuring a Linux server. Which of the following boot loaders does not require to be rewritten after the configuration of the kernel has been changed?

A) GRUB

B) BOOTP

C) LILO

D) ELILO

Answer: A

8. Which of the following fsck commands will you use to check all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab?

A) fsck -P

B) fsck -f

C) fsck -A

D) fsck -y

Answer: C

9. After enabling shadowed passwords in a Linux server, where does Linux keep the passwords?

A) /usr/shadow

B) /etc/passwd

C) /usr/passwd

D) /etc/shadow

Answer: D

10. You work as a Software Engineer for McNiel Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. The company has 150 Engineers. The root user has configured quota limits for each user. You want to view quota limits for your system. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?

A) repquota -a

B) quota -v

C) quotacheck

D) edquota

Answer: B

11. Which of the following commands is used to create a user account for a new user?

A) USERMOD

B) MOUNT

C) USERADD

D) CRUSER

Answer: C

12. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are configuring a server that will be used as a file server. You want to install an RPM package, named FILELOCATOR, on the server. You want to check whether the package is already installed. Which of the following commands will you use?

A) grep FILELOCATOR

B) find -q rpm |grep FILELOCATOR

C) rpm -qa | grep FILELOCATOR

D) find FILELOCATOR

Answer: C

13. By default, which of the following commands configures the current run level?

A) chkconfig

B) pstree

C) service

D) ntsysv

Answer: D

14. When installing RHEL in the graphical interface, which of the following switches can be used to specify a resolution?

A) lowers

B) vnc

C) resolution

D) skipddc

Answer: C

15. You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Linux-based network. You want to upgrade an RPM package and get the status during the upgrade. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?

A) A. rpm -ivh

B) B. rpm -evh

C) C. rpm -qvh

D) D. rpm -Uvh

Answer: D

16. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to run the cc process at runlevel three. If the order of execution of cc command is 43, which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task?

A) ln -s /etc/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc

B) ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc

C) ln -s /etc/rc.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/s43cc

D) ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/S43cc

Answer: D

17. Which of the following commands displays a module name or filename and associated information, such as the authors name, license, description, module version, dependencies, parameters, etc?

A) modprobe

B) lsmod

C) modprob

D) modinfo

Answer: D

18. After creating the swap area, which of the following commands will you need to run to start using it?

A) mkswap

B) mkfs

C) swapon

D) swapoff

Answer: C

19. You work as a Network Administrator for Secure Web Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. The network has a mixed set of client operating systems. You want to format a new hard disk drive. The drive will have only one partition. Both the Linux and Windows operating systems will access the partition. Which of the following file systems will you use?

A) VFAT

B) XFS

C) REISER

D) EXT3

Answer: A

20. What is the minimum RAM requirement for installing Red Hat in GUI mode?

A) 1GB

B) 512 MB

C) 128MB

D) 64MB

Answer: C

21. Which of the following commands can be used to modify kernel parameters at

runtime?

A) sync

B) sysctl

C) mkinitrd

D) lsdev

Answer: B

22. You want to verify the PGP signature of all headers and signatures associated with an RPM package. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) rpm -e

B) rpm -K

C) rpm --checksig

D) rpm -V

Answer: B,C,D

23. Which of following options will you use to force mtr to display numeric IP numbers and not try to resolve the host names?

A) -t

B) -n

C) -l

D) -p

Answer: B

24. Which of the following statements are true about kernel modules? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) Kernel modules do not support executable loaders.

B) The kernel module contains extra kernel codes that may be loaded after the loading of the base kernel. Only a minimal resident kernel is loaded into memory at boot time.

C) Kernel modules do not support the device drivers, network drivers, and file system drivers.

D) Whenever a user requests a feature that is not present in the resident kernel, a kernel module is dynamically loaded into memory.

Answer: B,D

25. You want to temporarily change your primary group to another group of which you are a member. In this process, a new shell will be created, and when you exit the shell, your previous group will be reinstated. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?

A) chgrp

B) newgrp

C) chmod

D) chown

Answer: B

26. You want to make Rick an owner of the files TRADE1.TXT and TRDREPORT.TXT. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this?

A) chown rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT

B) chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT

C) chown rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT

D) chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT

Answer: A

27. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are a root user on the Linux system. You have to create a user named Trinity and deny interactive login. Which of the following should you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A) vi /etc/passwd

B) vi /etc/shadow

C) useradd Trinity

D) passwd Trinity

E) Trinity:x:505:505::/home/Trinity:/sbin/nonlogin

Answer: A,B,C,D,E

28. Which of the following commands can be used to check the errors of the ext2 and ext3 file systems? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A) fsck --ext2

B) fsck.ext3

C) fsck --ext3

D) e2fsck

Answer: B,D

29. Which of the following statements is true about fdisk command?

A) It is used to build a Linux file system on a device, usually a hard disk partition.

B) It is used to create, change, delete, or display current partitions on the hard disk.

C) It is used to check and optionally repair one or more Linux file systems.

D) It displays or changes thefilesystem label on the ext2 filesystem located on device.

Answer: B

30. You have recently been appointed as a Network Administrator for Rick International Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have to print an important file named secure.txt urgently. You therefore want to know what printers are currently configured on your computer and how you can connect to them. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?

A) lpstat -s

B) lpstat -d

C) lpr

D) lpstat -p

Answer: A

31. You want to uninstall an rpm package foo without verifying its dependencies. Which of the following commands will you use?

A) rpm --erase --allmatches

B) rpm -e --allmatches

C) rpm -e --noscript

D) rpm -e --nodeps

Answer: D

32. During the boot process of a Linux computer, which of the following daemons is called after the kernel is loaded?

A) LPD

B) TELNETD

C) INIT

D) RLOGIND

Answer: C

33. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have just created a directory named Sales on a file server. David, a Sales Manager, has to use this directory to keep sales reports. David reports that he is unable to save his reports in the directory. When you list the directory using the LS command, you get the following result: drwxr-xrx 2 root root 2048 Jan 2 2006 Sales What is the most likely cause?

A) The Sales directory is not properly mounted.

B) David is working on his local computer's login.

C) The Sales directory has been deleted by accident.

D) David does not have the Write permission on the directory.

Answer: D

34. You want to shrink a Logical Volume manager partition named /dev/disk1/lvm from 4GB to 3GB. Which of the following commands can you use to accomplish the task?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) lvreduce

B) resize2fs

C) lvsize

D) reduce2fs

Answer: A,B

35. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. Due to some network security reasons, John wants to shut down all network interfaces just before rebooting the Linux server. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task?

A) init 3

B) init 6

C) init 0

D) shutdown -r now

E) reboot -i

Answer: E

36. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. The permissions on a file named Report are shown below:

rwxr--r- You want to add a sticky bit to the file. Which of the following commands will you use?

A) chmod 2744 report

B) chmod 1744 report

C) chmod 7744 report

D) chmod 4744 report

Answer: B

37. Which of the following statements is true about Linux kernel? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) It constitutes the core part of the Linux operating system.

B) It detects hardware resources and boots up the system.

C) It allocates memory on behalf of running process.

D) It does not verify firewall rules

Answer: A,B,C

38. Which of the following commands is used to make a swap active after creating a new SWAP partition?

A) mkswap

B) swapon

C) fdisk

D) mkfs

Answer: A

39. In a Linux computer, which of the following files defines run levels for the processes to be started up during boot up?

A) /etc/inittab

B) /etc/syslog.conf

C) /etc/lilo.conf

D) /etc/runlevel

Answer: A

40. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have to create user accounts for four new Management Trainees. You also have to create a group named MT and provide membership of this group to the new user accounts. How will you accomplish this?

A) Use the ADDUSER command to create new user accounts and the MT group. Add the users account to the group.

B) Use the USERADD command to create new user accounts and the MT group. Add the user accounts to the group.

C) Use the GROUPADD command to create the MT group. Use the USERADD command to create the user accounts and provide them the membership of the MT group.

D) Use the ADDGROUP command to create the MT group. Use the ADDUSER command to create the user accounts and provide them the membership of the MT group.

Answer: C

41. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to check the errors of an ext2 filesystem. Which of the following commands can John use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) e2fsck

B) fsck

C) fsck -N

D) fsck.ext2

Answer: A,B,D

42. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have received an error on your Linux server stating that the superblock is damaged.\ Which of the following commands will you use to resolve the issue?

A) mount

B) e2fsck

C) fsck

D) mkfs

Answer: B

43. You work as a Network Administrator for Mac World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. Your Linux computer turns off because of power outage. The UPS was unable to provide backup power. Which of the following utilities will run automatically during the next boot to scan the hard disk for the possibility of file system damage?

A) mkfs

B) mount

C) scanfs

D) fsck

Answer: D

44. Which of the following files is used to view the current status of RAID devices in Linux?

A) /proc/mdstat

B) /proc/stat

C) /proc/meminfo

D) /proc/mounts

Answer: A

45. 45.Which of the following network protocols are used by the dhclient command to configure the IP addresses of computers on the network?

A) Thedhclient command does not use any protocol. It statically assigns the address to the network computers.

B) RARP and DHCP

C) BOOTP and DHCP

D) BOOTP and RARP

Answer: C

46. You work as a system administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are a root user on the Linux operating system. A user, Jetson, wants to view the speed and the duplex for his Ethernet card. His ethernet card is activated on interface eth0. Which of the following commands can you use to accomplish this task?

A) ifup eth0

B) ifconfig eth0

C) ip link show eth0

D) sudo ethtool eth0

Answer: D

47. Which of the following files are used to activate disk quotas on a file system?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) quotA.group

B) quotA.user

C) quotaon

D) .quotaon

Answer: A,B

48. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. You are required to configure a hard disk for a Linux workstation. You are using the FDISK utility to configure it. Which of the following options will you use to show all the existing partitions of the hard disk?

A) n

B) w

C) 1

D) p

Answer: D

49. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to print a file named print.txt. Which of the following commands can John use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) lpr

B) lprm

C) lp

D) a2ps

Answer: A,C

50. Which of the following run levels is used to boot a Linux computer in graphical user interface (GUI) mode?

A) 3

B) 7

C) 5

D) 9

Answer: C

51. Which of the following commands are used to remove a package from a Linux system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A) yum -rm packagename

B) yum erasepackagename

C) yum -rpackagename

D) yum removepackagename

Answer: B,D

52. You work as the Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are a root user on the Red Hat operating system. You want to view all files with a size of over 50 megabytes on your system. Which of the following commands should you use to accomplish the task?

A) find size +50M

B) find -size 50M

C) find -size -50M

D) find -size +50M

Answer: D

53. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to change the group membership of the file foo to group bar. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task?

A) chgrp bar foo

B) chgroup foo bar

C) chgrp foo bar

D) chgroup bar foo

Answer: A

54. Which of the following files lists the file systems to be mounted automatically at startup?

A) /etc/mtab

B) /dev/fstab

C) /etc/fstab

D) /dev/mtab

Answer: C

55. Which of the following commands is used to mount file systems?

A) detach

B) mount

C) umount

D) attach

Answer: B

56. What command will you use to find the current runlevel of an active Linux session?

A) runlevel

B) init

C) rlevel

D) ls /etc/runlevel

Answer: A

57. Which of the following files contains the names and locations of system log files?

A) /etc/lilo.conf

B) /usr/syslog.conf

C) /etc/syslog.conf

D) /usr/lilo.conf

Answer: C

58. Which of the following utilities is used to set ACL for files and directories?

A) enable acl

B) setacl

C) setfacl

D) getfacl

Answer: C

59. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. A user complains that his Linux computer gets rebooted occasionally. Which of the following files will provide you the required information to troubleshoot the issue?

A) /var/log/wtmp

B) /var/log/dmesg

C) /var/log/bootmsg

D) /var/log/messages

Answer: D

60. You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You want to mount an SMBFS share from a Linux workstation. Which of the following commands can you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A) smbmount

B) smbfsmount

C) mount smb

D) mount -tsmbfs

Answer: A,D

61. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You want to know the ownership of the /etc/inittab file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?

A) rpm -e /etc/inittab

B) rpm -i /etc/inittab

C) rpm -qa /etc/inittab

D) rpm -qf /etc/inittab

Answer: D

62. Which of the following files is used to initialize a computer-wide environment on a Linux computer?

A) /etc/group

B) /etc/profile

C) /etc/syslog.conf

D) /etc/startup

Answer: B

63. Which of the following commands helps an administrator to switch a Linux server to different run levels without rebooting the server?

A) su

B) cngrl

C) mount

D) init

Answer: D

64. You work as a Network Administrator for World Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have configured a Linux Web server on the network. A user complains that the Web server is not responding to requests. The process list on the server shows multiple instances of the HTTPD process. You are required to stop the Web service. Which of the following commands will you use to resolve the issue?

A) stophttpd

B) stopall httpd

C) kill httpd

D) killall httpd

Answer: D

65. John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to get the status of the modules currently loaded in the kernel. Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) locate

B) lsmod

C) cat /proc/modules

D) ls /proc

Answer: B,C

66. Which of the following commands or command flags can be used to list the installed services and their associated runlevels?

A) config

B) xconfig

C) menuconfig

D) chkconfig

Answer: D

67. Which of the following commands is used to list all contents of a superblock of a partition?

A) tune2fs -c

B) tune2fs -f

C) tune2fs -l

D) tune2fs -j

Answer: C

68. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You have installed a video card in your Linux workstation. Which of the following will you require in order to configure X?

A) etc/videoconf

B) root/videoconf

C) root/x11/xf86config

D) etc/x11/xf86config

Answer: D

69. John works as a Network Administrator for We-are-Secure Inc. The company uses a Linux server.

John wants to give the following file permissions to the imp.c file:

l Read, Write, and Execute permissions to the owner

l Read and Write permissions to groups

l Read Only permissions to other users

Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish the task?

A) chmod 765

B) chmod 777

C) chmod 712

D) chmod 764

Answer: D

70. Which of the following commands can be used to overwrite an existing kernel image file?

A) mkinitrd -v

B) mkinitrd --preload

C) mkinitrd --builtin

D) mkinitrd -f

Answer: D

server 2008 multiple choice questions and answers

2013-01-04T02:53:00.001-08:00

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos

1. You are an enterprise administrator for IIHT. The corporate network of IIHT consists of a single Active Directory forest called IIHT.com. The IIHT .com forest contains six domains under it. All DNS servers in the forest run Windows Server 2008. Which of the following actions would you choose to ensure that all public DNS queries are channeled through a single-caching-only DNS server? (Select all that apply.)

A. Configure a forwarder.

B. Enable BINDsecondaries on a DNS Server.

C. Configure the root hints.

D. Configure a Global Names host (A) record for the hostname of the caching DNS server.

Answer: A, C

2. You are an enterprise administrator for IIHT. The corporate network of IIHT consists of a single domain called IIHT.com. The domain contains an Integrated Active Directory DNS zone the partner company of IIHT called IIHTTECH also consists of a domain called IIHTTECH.com. The IIHT .com domain also consists of an Integrated Active Directory DNS zone. Due to some network changes, the IP addresses of the DNS servers in the IIHTTECH.com need to be changed. Which of the following options would you choose to ensure the name resolution for users in IIHT.com to the resources in IIHTTECH.com?

A. On each DNS server in IIHT.com, create a stub zone for IIHTTECH.com.

B. Configure the Zone Replication Scope for IIHTTECH.com to replicate to all DNS servers in the forest.

C. Configure an application directory partition in the IIHT.com forest to enlist all DNS servers in the IIHT.com forest in the partition.

D. Configure an application directory partition in the IIHTTECH forest to enlist all DNS servers in the IIHTTECH forest in the partition.

Answer: A

3. IIHT corporate network consists of Windows 2003 domain, wherein the client computers are Windows 2000 Professional and Windows NT Workstations. In order to have the name resolution of pre windows 2000 client’s the management and IT infrastructure team has decided to have two WINS servers in the network. Which of the following will make sure that the WINS servers update each other’s database dynamically?

A. Add LMHOST’S on each server

B. Configure each WINS server as a WINS client of the other WINS server

C. Configure a HOSTS table on each WINS Server

D. Configure each WINS server both as a push partner and as a pull partner of the other WINS server

Answer: D

4. Which service should you use so the computers on your network can resolve NETBIOS names without any administrative work?

A. Telnet

B. DNS

C. FTP

D. HOSTS

E. WINS

Answer: E

5. IIHT.com has servers that run Windows Server 2008. You are an administrator at IIHT.com. To assign IPs dynamically to all client computers, you install and configure a member server named IIHTDHCP as a Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP) server. You configure all client computers to get their IP addresses automatically from IIHTDHCP. The users at client computers complain that their machines are not receiving IP address from IIHTDHCP. They say that their computers are getting IP addresses from 129.168.x.x range. You find out that the DHCP server has stopped. The settings on CKDHCP are configured correctly. What should you do to make sure that the CKDHCP server is not stopped and all client machines are obtaining IP addresses from CKDHCP server automatically?

A. Reconfigure the CKDHCP server to assign IP addresses to all client machines using DNS settings

B. Restart the DHCP service on CKDHCP server

C. Restart the CKDHCP server

D. Authorize the DHCP server to assign IP addresses to client computers

Answer: D

6. You are an enterprise administrator for IIHT. The corporate network of IIHT consists of a DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008. Which of the following options would you choose to reduce the size of the DHCP database?

A. Enable the File is ready for archiving attribute of the dhcp.mdb file, from the properties of dhcp.mdb file.

B. Enable the Compress contents to save disk space attribute of the dhcp.mdb file, from the properties of

dhcp.mdb file.

C. Reconcile the database from the DHCP snap-in.

D. Run jetpack.exe dhcp.mdb temp.mdb from the folder that contains the DHCP database.

Answer: D

7. You are an enterprise administrator for IIHT. The company consists of a head office and a branch office. The corporate network of the company consists of a single Active Directory domain. All the servers in the domain run Windows Server 2008. Recently the branch office users have started complaining that they are unable to access shared resources in the head office. To diagnose the problem, you checked the IP addresses of the computers in the branch office and found that they have IP addresses in the range of 169.254.x.x. Which of the following options would you choose to ensure that branch office computers can connect to share resources in both the head office and the branch office? What should you do?

A. Include the head offices DHCP server address in the Broadcast Address DHCP server option

B. On a member server in the head office, configure a DHCP relay agent.

C. Include the main offices server IP addresses in the Resource Location Servers DHCP server option.

D. On a member server in the branch office, configure a DHCP relay agent.

Answer: D

8. As a network administrator, you have upgraded all servers to Windows Server2008. You are required to configure IPv6 address to all computers in that network. The company has four departments and a global address prefix 3FFA:FF2B:4D:B0Q0::/41 is assigned. You are required to assign a subnet to each department. Which subnetted prefix will you assign to the fourth department?

A.3FFA:FF2B:4D:COOO::M3

B.3FFA:FF2B:4D:C800::/43

C.3FFA:FF2B:4D:F000::/4S

D.3FFA:rF2B:4D:B400::/43

Answer: B

9. On a network configured to use IPv6, a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server on a server called DHCP1 running on Windows 2008 server is installed. Also, IP address and other configuration settings are not automatically allocated to DHCP clients on a subnet that does not use DHCPvG from DHCP1. In this case, how is the Managed Address Configuration flag and other stateful configuration flag configured in the root advertisement?

A.Set both Managed Address Configurations to 1 and other stateful Configuration flag to 0

B.Set Both Managed Address Configuration and Other Stateful Configuration flag to 0.

C.Set both Managed Address Configuration to 0 and Other stateful Configuration flag to 1

D.Set both Managed Address Configuration and other stateful Configuration flag to 1

Answer: B

10. You are an enterprise administrator for IIHT. The company consists of a head office and a branch office. The corporate network of the company consists of a single Active Directory domain. All the servers in the domain run Windows Server 2008. The company’s network uses IPv4 networking. You have recently installed a new Windows Server 2008 server in the branch office and configured it with two network interfaces. Which of the following options would you choose to configure routing on the server at the branch office? (Choose two)

A. Enable the IPv4 Router Routing and Remote Access option on the server at the branch office.

B. Run the netsh ras ip set access ALL command on the server at the branch office.

C. Install the Routing and Remote Access role on the server at the branch office.

D. Run the netsh interface ipv4 enable command on the server at the branch office.

Answer: A, C

11. Network Access Protection (NAP) will only work with certain operating systems at the time of Windows 2008 Server release. What operating systems will NAP support?

A. Window XP

B. Windows XP Service Pack 3

C. Windows Vista

D. Windows Server 2008

Answer: B, C, D

12. The corporate network of IIHT contains a Windows Server 2008 that has the Network Policy Server (NPS) service role installed. Which of the following options would you choose to allow VPN access to only the members of a global group named IIHT Staff to the network?

A. Create a new network policy, define a group-based condition for IIHT Staff, Set the access permission to Access Granted, and set the processing order of the policy to 1.

B. Add IIHT Staff to the RAS and IAS Servers group.

C. Create a new network policy, define a group-based condition for IIHT Staff, Set the access permission to Access Granted, and set the processing order of the policy to 3.

D. Add IIHT Staff to the Network Configuration Operators group.

E. None of the above

Answer: A

13. On the corporate network of IIHT the Network Access Protection (NAP) is configured. You have configured the 802.1x authentication to all the access points that will be used to access to the corporate network using wireless computers to ensure secure wireless access. Which of the following options would you choose to ensure that all the client computers that try to access the corporate network are evaluated by NAP?

A. Configure a Connection Request Policy having EAP-TLS as the only available authentication method.

B. Configure all access points as RADIUS clients to the Remediation Servers.

C. Configure a Network Policy having the Remote Access Server as the only available authentication method.

D. Configure all access points as RADIUS clients to the Network Policy Server (NPS).

E. None of the above

Answer: A

14. IIHT .com has a server with Active Directory Domain and an Enterprise Root Certificate authority installed. To protect the VPN connection, IIHT.com has decided to employ Network Access Protection (NAP) on the server. You are given the task for implementing the NAP on the server. You build two servers named IIHT NPS and IIHT VPN. You configure the functions on both servers as shown in the exhibit. What should you do to ensure that the system health policy is implemented on all client computers attempting to connect to the VPN server?

A. Configure a NAP role on an Enterprise Certificate Server

B. Reconfigure IIHT NPS as a Radius Client

C. Configure a NAP role and add it to a domain controller

D. Reconfigure IIHT VPN as a Radius client

Answer: D

15. You install a Windows Server 2008 with routing and remote access on a server at IIHT.com. You configure the server to act as a corporate VPN (Virtual Private Network) server. All the client computers at IIHT.com have Windows XP Professional, Windows 2000 professional or Windows Vista installed. The remote users of IIHT.com use this server to connect to the company’s network domain. Sensitive data is transmitted from the remote users through VPN server. The company’s security policy dictates that each user or computer should use public key infrastructure (PKI) to connect to the domain for the transmission of sensitive research data. You need to ensure that the VPN server meets those security requirements. What should you do to secure the VPN connection?

A. Use the Kerberos version 5 authentication protocol to create a custom IPSec policy

B. Use the Pre-shared authentication by creating a policy for a highly secure data transmission

C. Open the command line on the server and run secedit/refreshpolicy machine_policy

D. Implement L2TP/IPSec policy to create certificate-based authentication

Answer: D

16. IIHT has a corporate network. Network Access Protection is configured on it. As per company policy, strict security measures are required to secure the data when it is transmitted between the servers and the clients. Users connect to the corporate network through their laptops or PCs to use network resources. You have to create a strict access requirement that will stop any other person connecting to the corporate network and using network resources. What should you do to implement the restricted access control?

A. Add and configure an IPSec Enforcement Network policy

B. Add and configure 802.1 X Enforcement Network policies

C. Add and configure a Wired Network Group policy

D. Add and configure Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) Enforcement

Answer: A

17. You deploy a DFS server to the headquarters and each branch office and a DFS name is hosted on each of the DFS servers. Management needs clients to connect to their local DFS server if it is available and then connect to any other DFS server if the local DFS server is not available. Which method you will configure?

A. Random Order

B. Lowest Cost

C. Excludes targets Outside Of the clients site

D. Clients fall Back to preferred Targets

Answer: A

18. You need to use disk quotas to send an e-mail to users when they have consumed 800Mb of disk space and prevent users from consuming more than 1 GB of disk space. How will configure it?

A. Create a hard quota with a 800mb limit and a second soft quota with a limit 1GB

B. Create a soft quota with a 800MB limit and a second quota with a 1GB limit.

C. Create a hard quota with a 1GB limit. Create a warning at 80 percent

D. Create a soft quota with a 800MB limit. Create a warning at 80 percent

Answer: C

19. You notice that Microsoft has released a Service Pack for Windows Vista. However, when you open the

WSUS console and review updates, you do not see any service packs listed. You do see recent security updates available. What is the most probable cause that no service packs are available?

A. Microsoft does not provide the ability to deploy service packs using WSUS

B. Service packs are available only for Windows Server operating systems

C. WSUS is not properly downloading updates from Microsoft update servers

D. The Service Packs update type is not selected in the WSUS options

Answer: D

20. You notice that a new critical security update has been released to the Microsoft update site. You want to download this update to your WSUS server and install it on all of your corporate computers as soon as possible. You approve the update for install to the All Computers computer group and set an install deadline of 11:00 p.m. of the same day. When you return to the office the next morning you notice that the update was not installed on any Computers. What is the most likely cause that the update was not installed?

A. The WSUS server lost connectivity to the Internet

B. You must approve the update for each computer individually

C. The Automatic Updates Detection Frequency is set to a period longer than the amount of time that has elapsed since you approved the update

D. The client computers need to be rebooted before the update can be installed

Answer: C

red hat linux questions and answers

2013-01-04T02:52:00.002-08:00

A) repquota

B) quotaon

C) warnquota

D) edquota

E) quotaoff

Answer: C,D

2. Which of the following commands will you run to list all files that have been modified within the last 60 minutes?

A) find /etc -name *.txt

B) find start -dir -min -60

C) find start -dir -cmin -60

D) find start -cmin -60

Answer: C

A) mkswap /dev/hdb2

B) swapon /dev/hdb2

C) mount

D) parted

Answer: A,B,D

A) A high load average

B) A high process ID

C) A low load average

D) A low CPU time

E) A high CPU time

Answer: E

5. You want only the root access in a Linux computer for maintenance purposes. Which of the following runlevels will you use to boot the computer?

A) 2

B) 0

C) 1

D) 3

Answer: C

6. Which of the following commands can be used to compress a file? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) gzip

B) compress

C) tar

D) zip

Answer: A,B,D

A) GRUB

B) BOOTP

C) LILO

D) ELILO

Answer: A

8. Which of the following fsck commands will you use to check all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab?

A) fsck -P

B) fsck -f

C) fsck -A

D) fsck -y

Answer: C

9. After enabling shadowed passwords in a Linux server, where does Linux keep the passwords?

A) /usr/shadow

B) /etc/passwd

C) /usr/passwd

D) /etc/shadow

Answer: D

A) repquota -a

B) quota -v

C) quotacheck

D) edquota

Answer: B

11. Which of the following commands is used to create a user account for a new user?

A) USERMOD

B) MOUNT

C) USERADD

D) CRUSER

Answer: C

A) grep FILELOCATOR

B) find -q rpm |grep FILELOCATOR

C) rpm -qa | grep FILELOCATOR

D) find FILELOCATOR

Answer: C

13. By default, which of the following commands configures the current run level?

A) chkconfig

B) pstree

C) service

D) ntsysv

Answer: D

14. When installing RHEL in the graphical interface, which of the following switches can be used to specify a resolution?

A) lowers

B) vnc

C) resolution

D) skipddc

Answer: C

A) A. rpm -ivh

B) B. rpm -evh

C) C. rpm -qvh

D) D. rpm -Uvh

Answer: D

A) ln -s /etc/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc

B) ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc

C) ln -s /etc/rc.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/s43cc

D) ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/S43cc

Answer: D

17. Which of the following commands displays a module name or filename and associated information, such as the authors name, license, description, module version, dependencies, parameters, etc?

A) modprobe

B) lsmod

C) modprob

D) modinfo

Answer: D

18. After creating the swap area, which of the following commands will you need to run to start using it?

A) mkswap

B) mkfs

C) swapon

D) swapoff

Answer: C

A) VFAT

B) XFS

C) REISER

D) EXT3

Answer: A

20. What is the minimum RAM requirement for installing Red Hat in GUI mode?

A) 1GB

B) 512 MB

C) 128MB

D) 64MB

Answer: C

21. Which of the following commands can be used to modify kernel parameters at

runtime?

A) sync

B) sysctl

C) mkinitrd

D) lsdev

Answer: B

A) rpm -e

B) rpm -K

C) rpm --checksig

D) rpm -V

Answer: B,C,D

23. Which of following options will you use to force mtr to display numeric IP numbers and not try to resolve the host names?

A) -t

B) -n

C) -l

D) -p

Answer: B

24. Which of the following statements are true about kernel modules? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) Kernel modules do not support executable loaders.

B) The kernel module contains extra kernel codes that may be loaded after the loading of the base kernel. Only a minimal resident kernel is loaded into memory at boot time.

C) Kernel modules do not support the device drivers, network drivers, and file system drivers.

D) Whenever a user requests a feature that is not present in the resident kernel, a kernel module is dynamically loaded into memory.

Answer: B,D

A) chgrp

B) newgrp

C) chmod

D) chown

Answer: B

26. You want to make Rick an owner of the files TRADE1.TXT and TRDREPORT.TXT. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this?

A) chown rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT

B) chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT

C) chown rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT

D) chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT

Answer: A

A) vi /etc/passwd

B) vi /etc/shadow

C) useradd Trinity

D) passwd Trinity

E) Trinity:x:505:505::/home/Trinity:/sbin/nonlogin

Answer: A,B,C,D,E

28. Which of the following commands can be used to check the errors of the ext2 and ext3 file systems? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A) fsck --ext2

B) fsck.ext3

C) fsck --ext3

D) e2fsck

Answer: B,D

29. Which of the following statements is true about fdisk command?

A) It is used to build a Linux file system on a device, usually a hard disk partition.

B) It is used to create, change, delete, or display current partitions on the hard disk.

C) It is used to check and optionally repair one or more Linux file systems.

D) It displays or changes thefilesystem label on the ext2 filesystem located on device.

Answer: B

A) lpstat -s

B) lpstat -d

C) lpr

D) lpstat -p

Answer: A

31. You want to uninstall an rpm package foo without verifying its dependencies. Which of the following commands will you use?

A) rpm --erase --allmatches

B) rpm -e --allmatches

C) rpm -e --noscript

D) rpm -e --nodeps

Answer: D

32. During the boot process of a Linux computer, which of the following daemons is called after the kernel is loaded?

A) LPD

B) TELNETD

C) INIT

D) RLOGIND

Answer: C

A) The Sales directory is not properly mounted.

B) David is working on his local computer's login.

C) The Sales directory has been deleted by accident.

D) David does not have the Write permission on the directory.

Answer: D

34. You want to shrink a Logical Volume manager partition named /dev/disk1/lvm from 4GB to 3GB. Which of the following commands can you use to accomplish the task?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) lvreduce

B) resize2fs

C) lvsize

D) reduce2fs

Answer: A,B

A) init 3

B) init 6

C) init 0

D) shutdown -r now

E) reboot -i

Answer: E

36. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech World Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. The permissions on a file named Report are shown below:

rwxr--r- You want to add a sticky bit to the file. Which of the following commands will you use?

A) chmod 2744 report

B) chmod 1744 report

C) chmod 7744 report

D) chmod 4744 report

Answer: B

37. Which of the following statements is true about Linux kernel? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) It constitutes the core part of the Linux operating system.

B) It detects hardware resources and boots up the system.

C) It allocates memory on behalf of running process.

D) It does not verify firewall rules

Answer: A,B,C

38. Which of the following commands is used to make a swap active after creating a new SWAP partition?

A) mkswap

B) swapon

C) fdisk

D) mkfs

Answer: A

39. In a Linux computer, which of the following files defines run levels for the processes to be started up during boot up?

A) /etc/inittab

B) /etc/syslog.conf

C) /etc/lilo.conf

D) /etc/runlevel

Answer: A

A) Use the ADDUSER command to create new user accounts and the MT group. Add the users account to the group.

B) Use the USERADD command to create new user accounts and the MT group. Add the user accounts to the group.

C) Use the GROUPADD command to create the MT group. Use the USERADD command to create the user accounts and provide them the membership of the MT group.

D) Use the ADDGROUP command to create the MT group. Use the ADDUSER command to create the user accounts and provide them the membership of the MT group.

Answer: C

A) e2fsck

B) fsck

C) fsck -N

D) fsck.ext2

Answer: A,B,D

A) mount

B) e2fsck

C) fsck

D) mkfs

Answer: B

A) mkfs

B) mount

C) scanfs

D) fsck

Answer: D

44. Which of the following files is used to view the current status of RAID devices in Linux?

A) /proc/mdstat

B) /proc/stat

C) /proc/meminfo

D) /proc/mounts

Answer: A

45. 45.Which of the following network protocols are used by the dhclient command to configure the IP addresses of computers on the network?

A) Thedhclient command does not use any protocol. It statically assigns the address to the network computers.

B) RARP and DHCP

C) BOOTP and DHCP

D) BOOTP and RARP

Answer: C

A) ifup eth0

B) ifconfig eth0

C) ip link show eth0

D) sudo ethtool eth0

Answer: D

47. Which of the following files are used to activate disk quotas on a file system?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A) quotA.group

B) quotA.user

C) quotaon

D) .quotaon

Answer: A,B

A) n

B) w

C) 1

D) p

Answer: D

A) lpr

B) lprm

C) lp

D) a2ps

Answer: A,C

50. Which of the following run levels is used to boot a Linux computer in graphical user interface (GUI) mode?

A) 3

B) 7

C) 5

D) 9

Answer: C

51. Which of the following commands are used to remove a package from a Linux system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A) yum -rm packagename

B) yum erasepackagename

C) yum -rpackagename

D) yum removepackagename

Answer: B,D

A) find size +50M

B) find -size 50M

C) find -size -50M

D) find -size +50M

Answer: D

A) chgrp bar foo

B) chgroup foo bar

C) chgrp foo bar

D) chgroup bar foo

Answer: A

54. Which of the following files lists the file systems to be mounted automatically at startup?

A) /etc/mtab

B) /dev/fstab

C) /etc/fstab

D) /dev/mtab

Answer: C

55. Which of the following commands is used to mount file systems?

A) detach

B) mount

C) umount

D) attach

Answer: B

56. What command will you use to find the current runlevel of an active Linux session?

A) runlevel

B) init

C) rlevel

D) ls /etc/runlevel

Answer: A

57. Which of the following files contains the names and locations of system log files?

A) /etc/lilo.conf

B) /usr/syslog.conf

C) /etc/syslog.conf

D) /usr/lilo.conf

Answer: C

58. Which of the following utilities is used to set ACL for files and directories?

A) enable acl

B) setacl

C) setfacl

D) getfacl

Answer: C

A) /var/log/wtmp

B) /var/log/dmesg

C) /var/log/bootmsg

D) /var/log/messages

Answer: D

A) smbmount

B) smbfsmount

C) mount smb

D) mount -tsmbfs

Answer: A,D

A) rpm -e /etc/inittab

B) rpm -i /etc/inittab

C) rpm -qa /etc/inittab

D) rpm -qf /etc/inittab

Answer: D

62. Which of the following files is used to initialize a computer-wide environment on a Linux computer?

A) /etc/group

B) /etc/profile

C) /etc/syslog.conf

D) /etc/startup

Answer: B

63. Which of the following commands helps an administrator to switch a Linux server to different run levels without rebooting the server?

A) su

B) cngrl

C) mount

D) init

Answer: D

A) stophttpd

B) stopall httpd

C) kill httpd

D) killall httpd

Answer: D

A) locate

B) lsmod

C) cat /proc/modules

D) ls /proc

Answer: B,C

66. Which of the following commands or command flags can be used to list the installed services and their associated runlevels?

A) config

B) xconfig

C) menuconfig

D) chkconfig

Answer: D

67. Which of the following commands is used to list all contents of a superblock of a partition?

A) tune2fs -c

B) tune2fs -f

C) tune2fs -l

D) tune2fs -j

Answer: C

A) etc/videoconf

B) root/videoconf

C) root/x11/xf86config

D) etc/x11/xf86config

Answer: D

69. John works as a Network Administrator for We-are-Secure Inc. The company uses a Linux server.

John wants to give the following file permissions to the imp.c file:

l Read, Write, and Execute permissions to the owner

l Read and Write permissions to groups

l Read Only permissions to other users

Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish the task?

A) chmod 765

B) chmod 777

C) chmod 712

D) chmod 764

Answer: D

70. Which of the following commands can be used to overwrite an existing kernel image file?

A) mkinitrd -v

B) mkinitrd --preload

C) mkinitrd --builtin

D) mkinitrd -f

Answer: D

windows server 2008 questions and answers

2013-01-04T02:51:00.004-08:00

Name the Windows Server 2008 edition that supports Active Directory Domain Services?

A. Itanium edition

B. Enterprise edition

C. Datacenter edition

D. Web edition

E. Standard edition

Answers: B, C, E

For creating a DHCP server, which editions of Windows Server 2008 will support this role?

A. Enterprise edition

B. Web edition

C. Standard edition

D. Datacenter edition

E. Itanium edition

Answers: A, C, D

You have a line-of-business application named Sales Tracking installed on the terminal server and you have added it as a Remote Application program. However, whenever two or more users connect, they experience intermittent errors. What can be done to resolve this? Choose two options.

A. Uninstall the application; then reinstall it using the Control Panel link to install an application on a terminal server.

B. Uninstall the application; then reinstall it using the Change User command before and after the installation.

C. Have the developers rewrite the application in multiuser mode.

D. Right click the application in theTS RemoteApp Manager, and select the Allow Multi-User setting.

Answers: A, B

Users access your TS server to launch a desktop on the server and run applications within the server. Suppose you want to enable a specific application to run within a window on the user’s desktop, which server role would you use?

A. TS Gateway

B. TS RemoteApp

C. TS Session Broker

D. TS with WSRM

Answers: B

What tool will you use to restrict the amount of space that users can take within a share named Sales on a file server named FS1?

A. WDS

B. FSRM

C. WSRM

D. DFS

Answers: B

What must be installed before you install the DFS service on a server to create a domain based DFS namespace?

A. WSUS

B. File Services

C. WSRM

D. WDS

Answers: B

In Windows Server 2008 there are many domain controllers within a domain. Some of the domain controllers are running Widows server 2003 and some are running Windows Server 2008. What should be used for the replication of group policies and scripts?

A. WSUS

B. WDS

C. FRS

D. DFS

Answers: C

As an administrator of Windows Server 2008 file server that hosts multiple shares, you have observed that copyrighted files are stored on some of the shares. What would you add to prevent the storage of these files and have access to these files?

A. FSRM

B. WSRM

C. DFS

D. FRS

Answers: A

When configuring event subscriptions such that events from several servers are forwarded to a collector computer, what is the command to be entered at the source computers to allow events to be forwarded to the collector computer?

A. WinRM quickconfig

B. WinRM /Forward:1

C. Wecutil qc

D. Wecutil /Forward:1

Answers: A

While trouble shooting a SQL Server machine, you find that when a specific critical event is recorded, within 30 minutes the SQL Server machine stops responding to all queries. Therefore, you want a notification when this critical event occurs. What should you do?

A. Configure an event subscription to forward this event to your system.

B. Configure an event subscription to send you an email if the event occurs.

C. Create an event task to forward this event to your system.

D. Create an event task to send you an email if the event occurs.

Answers: D

An organization has thirty branch offices spread across different locations. Thirty percent of the employees use laptops and most of these employees visit different branch offices. After compliance reporting, it was understood that the laptops are only updated when they connect to the branch office. How can you ensure that these laptops will always receive updates from the local branch office irrespective of the branch office they are connecting to?

A. Configure BIND secondaries on each DNS server in your organization.

B. Configure Network Load Balancing on each site’s WSUS server.

C. Configure the hosts file on each client computer with the host name and IP address of all WSUS servers in the organization.

D. Configure each WSUS server in your organization to use the same Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN).

E. Configure DNS Round Robin and netmask ordering on each DNS server in your organization.

Answers: D, E

A university has five faculties, each has its own staff. Which of the following WSUS deployments should be implemented to minimize the amount of data downloaded from Microsoft update servers, if each faculty is given the responsibility to approve updates?

A. Configure five autonomous servers.

B. Configure one upstream server. Configure five downstream servers as autonomous servers.

C. Configure five replica servers.

D. Configure one upstream server. Configure five downstream servers as replicas of the upstream server.

Answers: B

Which of the following Windows Server 2008 features should be installed before gaining access to a LUN through multiple Fiber Channel ports?

A. RPC over HTTP Proxy

B. UDDI

C. Remote Differential Compression

D. MPIO

Answers: D

Assuming that your iSCSI device supports all LUN types, which LUN type would be selected when you want to maximize I/O performance but retain fault tolerance?

A. Simple

B. Spanned

C. Striped with Parity

D. Striped

Answers: C

Which of the following MPIO policies should you choose to check that a server that is configured with four paths between the server and the SAN array directs traffic equally to all paths during normal operation?

A. Weighted Path

B. Dynamic Least Queue Depth

C. Round-robin

D. Failback

Answers: C

Which console or tool do you use to create the DNS Round Robin configuration if the Windows Server 2008 server is authoritative for a domain?

A. nslookup

B. Server Manager

C. Network Load Balancing Manager

D. DNS Manager

Answers: D

Which of the following are disadvantages of DNS Round Robin?

A. DNS Round Robin does not work well with stateful applications.

B. The administrator has no control over the strategy for load balancing with Round Robin.

C. DNS Round Robin cannot be used for Internet-facing applications

D. The DNS administrator has no control over the Time-to-Live (TTL) for the records.

Answers: A, B

Which of the following local groups is added on a file server to enable a user at a remote site to take manual backups of a file server once a week to a removable USB 2.0 device, that will be then transported by courier to your organization’s head office location?

A. Remote Desktop Users

B. Administrators

C. Backup Operators

D. Power Users

Answers: C

server 2008 questions and answers

2013-01-04T02:51:00.002-08:00

Questions

1. IIHT.com has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain named IIHT.com. All domain controllers are configured as DNS servers and have Windows Server 2008 installed. The network has two Active directoryintegrated zones: IIHTes.com and Testingws.com. The company has instructed you to make sure that a user is able to modify records in Testingws.com while preventing the user from modifying the SOA record in Testingws.com zone. What should you do to achieve this task?

A. Modify the permissions of the IIHTes.com zone by accessing the DNS Manager Console

B. Configure the user permissions on IIHTes.com to include all the users and configure the permissions on Testingws.com to allow only the administrators group to modify the records

C. Modify the permission of IIHTws.com zone by accessing the DNS Manager Console

D. Modify the Domain Controllers organizational unit by accessing the Active Directory Users and Computers console.

E. None of the above.

Answers: A

2. IIHT.com has a single Active Directory domain. You have configured all domain controllers in the network as DNS servers and they run Windows Server 2008. A domain controller named TK1 has a standard Primary zone for IIHT.com and a domain controller named TK2 has a standard secondary zone for IIHT.com. You need to make sure that the replication of the IIHT.com zone is encrypted so you might not lose any zone data. What should you do to achieve this task?

A. Create a stub zone and delete the secondary zone

B. Convert the primary zone into an active directory zone and delete the secondary zone

C. Change the interface where DNS server listens on both servers

D. On the standard primary zone, configure zone transfer settings. After that, modify the master servers lists on the secondary zone

E. None of the above

Answers: B

3. IIHT.com has an Active Directory domain called es.IIHT.com. IIHT.com has a subsidiary company named NetworksLTD. NetworksLTD has an Active Directory domain called intranet. NetworksLTD.com. since the NetworksLTD security policy does not allow the transfer of internal DNS zone data outside the NetworksLTD network, you have to make sure that IIHT.com users are able to resolve names from intranet. NetworksLTD.com domain. What should you do to achieve this task?

A. Set conditional forwarding for the intranet. NetworksLTD.com domain

B. Put intranet. NetworksLTD.com in the Active Directory of IIHT.com

C. Create a subzone for the intranet.woksworks.com domain

D. Reconfigure the intranet. NetworksLTD.com domain as a standard secondary zone

E. None of the above

Answer: A

4. IIHT.com has a network consisting of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. IIHT.com instructs you to upgrade all domain controllers to Windows Server 2008. After upgrading the domain controllers, you need to ensure that the ebsysvolume share replicates by using DFS Replication (DFS-R). What should you do to achieve this task?

A. Run dfsutil/addrot:ebsysvolume on the command prompt

B. Run netdom/dfs-r from the command prompt

C. Run dcpromo/attend:attendfile.xml

D. Raise the functional level of the domain to Windows Server 2008

Answer: D

5. Chavi is responsible for administering DNS for a company that operates an Active Directory Domain Services network consisting of a single domain. Currently, two member servers are configured as the network’s only DNS servers. Chavi would like to provide fault tolerance for the DNS zones so that if a single DNS server fails, updates can still be made to the DNS zones. In addition, she would like to ensure that only computers that are authorized by a domain controller could update the DNS resource record information. Which of the following must Chavi do to satisfy these requirements? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Install DNS on at least two domain controllers.

B. Create a stub zone.

C. Create an Active Directory–integrated zone.

D. Select the Secure Only Dynamic Updates option.

E. Select the Secure and Nonsecure Dynamic Updates option.

Answer: A, C, D

6. Shweta is responsible for administering DNS on her company’s AD DS network, which includes a single domain. All domain controllers on the network are configured as DNS servers with an Active Directory–integrated zone. When checking the configuration of one of the DNS servers, Shweta notices that the zone includes resource records for computers that were removed from the network several weeks ago. She decides she wants to remove these resource records immediately. What should she do?

A. In DNS Manager, right-click the DNS server and choose Scavenge Stale Resource Records.

B. From the Zone Aging/Scavenging Properties dialog box, select the Scavenge Stale Resource Records check box.

C. From the Advanced tab of the DNS server’s Properties dialog box, select Enable Automatic Scavenging of Stale Records.

D. In DNS Manager, select the DNS zone, and then deletes the stale resource records from the list that appears in the Details pane.

Answer: A

7. Amir has installed AD LDS on a Windows Server 2008 computer and created an instance that he plans to use for data storage with two directory-enabled applications that he will deploy on his company’s network. Which of the following tools can he use to manage the AD LDS instance he has created? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Active Directory Users and Computers

B. Active Directory Sites and Services

C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts

D. Active Directory Schema

E. Active Directory Services Interface (ADSI)

F. Ldp.exe

Answer: B, D, E, F

8. You are the administrator of your company’s network. You have installed several Active Directory LDS instances to enable connections to directory-enabled applications that run on your Windows Server 2008 network. A contractor named Amir requires access to one of these applications from his laptop computer running Windows Vista Business, but he should not have access to shared resources in Active Directory. What should you do to enable this access?

A. Configure an AD LDS security principal for Amir.

B. Configure a domain user account for Amir.

C. Add Amir’s local user account to the Domain Users group in Active Directory.

D. You do not need to do anything. Amir can access the applications simply by plugging his laptop into the network and using his local user account.

Answer: A

9. Pankaj works in a company that has an AD DS forest that consists of a forest root domain plus five domains.He should create a group that contains 70 users who require access to resources in all six domains. All the useraccounts are located in the forest root domain. Which of the following group scope he should use?

A. Universal

B. Domain local

C. Local

D. Global

Answer: D

10. Diya is the network administrator for iiht.com. The network consists of a single AD DS forest that consists ofeight domains. Seven of the domains contain Window Server 2008 domain controllers. The functional level of allthe domains is Window Server 2003. The network includes a Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 network. Diyashould create groups that are to be used solely as email distribution lists for sending messages within the organization.She wants to accomplish this goal with the minimum quantity of replication traffic and minimizing the size of theAD DS database. How should she proceed?

A. She should create global distribution groups in each domain and make the appropriate users from eachdomain members of the global distribution group in the respective domain. She should create universaldistribution groups and make the global distribution groups in each domain members of the universal distributiongroups.

B. She should create universal distribution groups and make the appropriate users from each domain membersof a universal distribution group.

C. She should create global security groups in each domain and make the appropriate users from each domainmembers of the global security group in the respective domain. She needs to create universal security groupsand make the global security groups in each domain members of the universal security groups.

D. She should create universal security groups and make the appropriate users from each domain members of auniversal security group.

Answers: A

11. Harish has configured Group Policy on a network that contains a single AD DS domain with four sites: Delhi, Karnataka, Orissa, and Assam. He has created a GPO named as Restrictions that limits access to several desktop components. These restrictions are to be applied to all employees with the following exceptions: On the network, administrators need to have access to everything on their desktops. Managers and supervisors require access to all components on their computers. The domain has OUs like Employees, which is located at the top of the OU tree; and Supervisors, Managers, Administrators, Research, Financial, Legal, Sales, and Marketing OUs configured as children of the Employees OU. Which two of the following are some of the Active Directory containers to which Harish must link the Restrictions GPO?

A. The Domain

B. The Employees OU

C. The Orissa site

D. The Marketing OU

E. The Legal OU

Answer: D & E

12. Gita is a systems administrator for organizations that operates an AD DS forest having three domains. There are six sites, and all the sites represent a city where the organization does business. All sites contain at minimum two domains and several OUs within each domain, and each site is configured with a proxy server that all users are expected to access the Internet. Gita has created GPOs that set the proxy configuration for all computers in the forest, including portable computers. How would she configure this GPO to ensure that users always access the Internet by means of the proxy server in the office where they are located?

A. She should link each GPO to the OUs located in its site and specify the Block Inheritance option.

B. She should link each GPO to the domains located in its site and do nothing else.

C. She should link each GPO to the domains located in its site and specify the

Block Inheritance option

D. She should link each GPO to its site and do nothing else.

E. She should link each GPO to its site and specify the Enforced option

Answer: E

13. Jiten configures Group Policy in his company’s domain. The domain functional level is set to Windows Server 2003. Jiten’s manager has asked him to implement an account policy which specifies that all user accounts account will be locked out when an incorrect password is entered five times in a one-quarter hour period. The account is to remain locked out until a support technician unlocks it. How should Jiten configure the account policy?

A.Set the account lock out duration to 0.

B. Set the account lockout duration to 1.

C. Set the reset lockout counter to 900.

D. Set the reset lockout counter to 15.

E. Set the account lockout threshold to 0.

F. Set the account lockout threshold to 4.

Answer: D, E, F

14. Rita is system administrator for a company. The computer operates an AD DS domain. The Domain and the forest functional level are set to Window Server 2008. She has configured a password policy for users in her company’s domain, which specifies that passwords should be minimum seven characters long. She was informed that users in the legal department must have secure passwords. She configures a password policy in a GPO linked to the Legal OU, which specifies that passwords must be of minimum 12 characters. After some days, the CIO questioned her why she has not yet implemented the stricter password policy. What should Rita do to implement the policy with the least amount of administrative effort?

A. She should create a new domain, place the legal users and their computers in this domain, and then replay the password policy to this domain.

B. She needs to create a password settings object that contain the required password settings and apply this object to the Legal OU.

C. She needs to create a global security group and add the required users to this group. She then needs to create a password settings object containing the required password settings and apply this object to the group containing these users.

D. She needs to create a global security group, add the required users to this group, and ensure that the group has the Allow–Apply Group Policy permission applied to it.

Answer: C

15. Hema is the system administrator for a company. The company operates an AD DS network that consists of single domain. She has to perform a system state backup of the network’s domain controllers to be certain that she restore AD DS when a catastrophic failure occurs. Which of the following tools she should use?

A. Windows Server Backup

B. Ntdsutil.exe

C. Ntbackup.exe

D. Wbadmin.exe

Answers: D

16. Working at one of the six domain controllers in his company’s network Rakesh accidentally deleted his company’s Executive OU. Understanding that none of the executives would be able to log on the next morning, Rakesh thought that he must restore this OU as rapidly as possible. Fortunately, a backup of the system state of the domain controller had been created the day before. Which of the following actions does Rakesh need to perform?

A. Select the Format and Repartition Disks option.

B. Select the Repair Your Computer option.

C. Use the net stop ntds and the wbadmin start systemstaterecovery commands to restore system state from backup.

D. Start the domain controller in Safe Mode, and then use the wbadmin start systemstaterecovery command to restore system state from backup

E. Start the domain controller in Directory Services Restore Mode, and then use the wbadmin start

systemstaterecovery command to restore system state from backup.

F. Use the ntdsutil program to mark the restored Executive OU as authoritative by specifying the LDAP DN of the Executive OU.

Answers: E, F

17. Dawn is planning a PKI for her company that will include a multiple-tier hierarchy of CA servers. Which of the following types of CA servers should she plan to keep offline as a safeguard against certificate compromise?

A. Standalone root

B. Enterprise root

C. Intermediate

D. Issuing

Answer: A

18. Kevin is installing a PKI for his company, which operates an AD DS domain in which all servers run Windows Server 2008. He has installed a root CA and is now at the computer that will host an enterprise subordinate CA. However, on the Specify Setup page, he discovers that the Enterprise CA option is grayed out and only the Standalone CA option is available. What must Kevin do to install an enterprise subordinate CA on this computer?

A. Log on to the server as a member of the Enterprise Admins group.

B. Log on to the server as a member of the Schema Admins group.

C. Use Server Manager to install AD DS on this server.

D. Run dcpromo.exe to promote the server to a domain controller.

E. Install a standalone CA on the server, and then use the Certification Authority console to promote the server to an enterprise CA.

Answer: D

hardware questions and answers

2012-12-19T22:06:00.004-08:00

A user reports that they walked away from their laptop for 30 minutes and when they came back the screen was very dim. The user tried moving the mouse and increasing the brightness setting, but neither worked. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

A. Plug in an external monitor to test the video card.

B. Run a check disk scan to verify there is no corruption.

C. Check if the laptop is now on battery power.

D. Have the LCD screen replaced with a known good screen.

Answer: C

2.Which of the following BEST describes a situation that would require STP cable?

A. Installation in an area with low EMI

B. Installation in an area with high EMI

C. Installation in an air handling space

D. Installation in an area with high humidity

Answer: B

3. Which of the following will allow the use of BitLocker if the computer does not have a TPM chip?

A. External hard drive

B. SCSI hard drive

C. USB key

D. CD-ROM drive

Answer: C

4. A customer reports that their computer is displaying ‘operating system not found’ while booting. The technician confirms that the computer booted fine the previous day and that no devices were added. The technician also confirms that no software changes were made to the system from the previous day. Which of the following is the problem?

A. The network cable is unplugged.

B. A diskette was placed in the disk drive.

C. The keyboard is unplugged.

D. The system has been infected with spyware.

Answer: B

5. A new video card requires a 600 watt power supply. The power supply should have how many pins on the main cable?

A. 12

B. 20

C. 24

D. 26

Answer: C

6. Corrupt Windows XP system files are keeping a PC from booting. Which of the following is the BEST option to resolve this issue?

A. Automated System Recovery

B. Emergency Repair Disk

C. Recovery Console

D. NT Repair Disk

Answer: C

7. A technician installs a new graphics card in a computer and upon booting up nothing happens. The technician puts the old graphics card back into the computer and the computer boots up normally. Which of the following would be the BEST source of information to solve the problem? (Select TWO).

A. Chat room discussion online

B. Installation manual

C. Ask another technician

D. Manufacturer's website

E. OS forum online

Answer: B,D

8. Which of the following identifies a wireless network's name?

A. NetBIOS

B. MAC

C. SSID

D. Node ID

Answer: C

9. Which of the following attributes is set when a file is ready to be backed up?

A. a

B. h

C. r

D. s

Answer: A

10. Which of the following connector types is used for a 100BaseT network?

A. RJ-12

B. RJ-11

C. RJ-14

D. RJ-45

Answer: D

11. A technician is in charge of migrating Windows XP users over to new Windows Vista workstations. Which of the following tools would allow the technician to accomplish this in an automated process?

A. User Account Control applet

B. User State Migration tool

C. Windows Automated Installation kit

D. Windows Powershell

Answer: B

12. Which of the following utilities can an administrator use to manage hardware, software, and network components?

A. Device Manager

B. MSINFO32

C. MMC

D. MSCONFIG

Answer: C

13. Which of the following is used to process BitLocker full drive encryption?

A. Multi-Core Processor

B. SATA

C. BIOS Password

D. TPM

Answer: D

14. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of devices connected per IEEE1394 controller?

A. 4

B. 63

C. 64

D. 128

Answer: B

15. Which of the following wireless types has the potential to provide the GREATEST bandwidth?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11n

Answer: D

16. Which of the following devices is considered a solid state storage device?

A. Flash drive

B. Tape drive

C. Blu-Ray

D. S-Video

Answer: D

17. Which of the following is placed FIRST on top of the processor to aid in the cooling process?

A. Fan

B. Mounting bracket

C. Thermal compound

D. Heatsink

Answer: C

18. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the troubleshooting theory?

A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.

B. Establish a theory of probable cause.

C. Identify the problem.

D. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.

Answer: C

19. Which of the following storage types has no movable parts?

A. DVD-RW

B. Flash

C. Tape

D. IDE hard drive

Answer: B

20. Which of the following utilities will a technician use to find out system information, drivers, running

print jobs, and Internet setting all from one location?

A. MSINFO32

B. REGEDIT

C. Device Manager

D. MSCONFIG

Answer: A

21. Which of the following interfaces does a sound card use?

A. PCI

B. SATA

C. SCSI

D. AGP

Answer: A

22. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to aid a technician in the removal of spyware?

A. ASR

B. Safe Mode

C. Restore Point

D. Recovery Console

Answer: B

23. A technician is installing a new small form factor motherboard. Which of the following form factors

is the technician MOST likely installing?

A. Micro ATX

B. NLX

C. ATX

D. BTX

Answer: A

24. Which of the following maintenance utilities is used to reorganize files on a hard drive?

A. SCANDISK

B. DEFRAG

C. CHKDSK

D. Disk Cleanup

Answer: B

25. Which of the following is the number of devices that can be daisy-chained to an IEEE 1394 port?

A. 7

B. 15

C. 63

D. 127

Answer: C

26. Which of the following would a technician use to install a manufacturer's image on a notebook?

(Select TWO).

A. Recovery CD

B. System Restore Utility

C. Access a recent data backup

D. Utilize the Recovery Agent feature

E. Factory recovery partition

Answer: A,E

27. Which of the following ports is the default for HTTP?

A. 21

B. 25

C. 80

D. 10

Answer: C

28. Which of the following printer types usually requires special print media?

A. Thermal

B. Laser

C. Inkjet

D. Impact

Answer: A

29. A laptop with an integrated 802.11b/g card is unable to connect to any wireless networks. The

laptop was previously able to connect to wireless networks. Which of the following is MOST likely

the cause of this issue?

A. The wireless card is disabled in BIOS.

B. The wireless card drivers are not installed.

C. The wireless hardware switch is turned off.

D. The wireless card firmware requires an update.

Answer: C

30. A customer has asked a technician to install aversion of Windows 7 that will allow for BitLocker

functionality. Which of the following editions should the technician install?

A. Home Premium

B. Enterprise

C. Professional

D. Starter

Answer: B

31. A 2.5 inch (6.4cm) external hard drive is MOST likely to use which of the following power supplies?

A. USB

B. BTX

C. FireWire

D. ATX

Answer: A

32. Which of the following is useful as a FIRST step when troubleshooting issues of a laptop not powering on?

A. Verify backlight functionality and pixilation

B. Plug in external monitor

C. Remove unneeded peripherals

D. Verity AC adapter LED's

Answer: D

33. NTFS is required to install which client OS?

A. Windows Vista

B. Windows 2000

C. Windows 7

D. Windows XP

Answer: C

34. Which of the following utilities backs up the Windows configuration once a day?

A. Dr. Watson

B. System Restore

C. DirectX Diagnostic Tool

D. File Signature Verification Utility

Answer: B

35. A characteristic of a laptops CPU is the ability to:

A. reduce power usage to the laptops video chip set.

B. increase the life of the LCD panel.

C. throttle power usage when the laptop is using the battery.

D. increase signal coverage for WiFi applications.

Answer: C

36. Which of the following interfaces allows for the fastest video transfer rate?

A. SCSI II

B. IEEE 802.11g

C. Bluetooth

D. IEEE 1394/Firewire

Answer: D

37. In Windows XP, the System Restore feature is used to take a snapshot of:

A. ausers document files in case the document files need to be restored later.

B. the computers operating system in case the operating system needs to be re-installed.

C. the program files in case the program files need to be restored later.

D. a computers settings in case the settings need to be restored later.

Answer: D

38. After testing the power supply on a non-functioning computer with a load, a technician determines

that the +5V rail on the power supply is outputting 2.2 Volts. The technician should:

A. replace the power supply.

B. replace the CMOS battery.

C. check the power management settings in the BIOS.

D. test the internal components of the power supply.

Answer: A

39. The recommended memory requirement when installing Windows XP is:

A. 128 MB.

B. 32 MB.

C. 64 MB.

D. 256 MB.

Answer: A

40. Pentium 4 based processors require which of the following types of memory module?

A. SIMM

B. SoDIMM

C. RIMM

D. DIMM

Answer: D

41. A printer that is directly connected to a computer has stopped printing documents. The user

observes that there are several documents waiting to print. Which of the following services could

be stopped to clear the print queue and return the printer back to a normal status?

A. Task Manager

B. Event Viewer

C. Systray

D. Print Spooler

Answer: D

42. Which of the following power modes for a laptop copies system data to the hard drive, before

completely turning off?

A. Suspend

B. Standby

C. Log off

D. Hibernate

Answer: D

43. A previously functional keyboard has now stopped working. Which of the following actions should

a technician take FIRST?

A. Clean the PS/2 connector on the keyboard.

B. Replace the keyboard.

C. Clean the keyboard with compressed air.

D. Check the PS/2 connection to the motherboard.

Answer: D

44. A technician is asked to upgrade a computer with a faster network card. The existing network card

is built in, and a PCI slot is available for the replacement. The new network card is placed into the

PCI slot. Which of the following should be the next step for the technician to take?

A. Update the operating system with the latest patch

B. Confirm availability of new network card drivers

C. Flash the BIOS

D. Remove the built-in network card

Answer: B

45. Which of the following is the way to determine pin one on a ribbon cable?

A. Pin one is on the non-colored side of the ribbon cable.

B. Pin one is on the corner that is angled on the connector.

C. Pin one is labeled with the number 1, on the cable.

D. Pin one is on the colored side of the ribbon cable.

Answer: D

46. Operating the CPU at a speed higher than the manufacturers rating in order to gain increased

performance is called:

A. throttling.

B. overrating.

C. overheating.

D. overclocking.

Answer: D

47. A computer reports a SMART error on startup. This is MOST likely caused by a failure of the:

A. sound card.

B. hard drive.

C. network card.

D. CD-ROM drive.

Answer: B

48. High-speed peripherals that are inserted and removed at any time while the machine is powered

on are called:

A. on the fly.

B. hot-swappable.

C. hot-removable.

D. hot-pluggable.

Answer: B

49. A user can no longer access some files on the hard drive. Which of the following actions should be

taken to resolve this problem?

A. Format and completely reload the computer.

B. Verify file permissions on the hard drive.

C. Delete and re-create the user.

D. Reboot the computer and log back on.

Answer: B

50. Which of the following cable types will allow the longest distance without using a repeater?

A. CAT6 UTP

B. UTP

C. multi mode fiber

D. single mode fiber

Answer: D

51. Which of the following BEST describes Windows XP Standby mode?

A. Copies an image of whatever is in memory at the moment to a file on the disk and if the

computer loses power, data will be saved.

B. Copies an image of whatever is in memory at the moment to a file on the disk and if the

computer loses power, data will be lost.

C. Keeps the contents of memory intact by providing a tiny amount of power to the system and if

the computer loses power, data will be lost.

D. Keeps the contents of memory intact by providing a tiny amount of power to the system and if

the computer loses power, data will be saved.

Answer: C

52. Once a technician installs a new hard drive in a computer, which of the following would be the next

step to allow the operating system to utilize the new drive?

A. Call the computer's manufacturer.

B. Copy files to the hard drive.

C. Partition and format the hard drive.

D. Reboot the computer.

Answer: C

53. Which of the following types of power supply typically comes with a pass-through power connector

intended to power a monitor?

A. Mini ATX

B. AT

C. ATX

D. Micro ATX

Answer: B

54. Which of the following are required to configure a Windows PC to connect to the Internet? (Select

TWO).

A. Client for Microsoft network

B. File and printer sharing

C. Appletalk Protocol

D. TCP/IP Protocol

E. NetBIOS

Answer: A,D

55. The technology used to monitor hard drives for potential failure is called:

A. UDMA.

B. PIO.

C. SMART.

D. ATA1.

Answer: C

56. A small office/home office (SOHO) is considering upgrading to Windows XP. Which of the

following security features are included in Windows XP Professional and not included with

Windows XP Home? (Select TWO).

A. Domain account support

B. Allowing up to 5 users to access shared files

C. Windows Firewall

D. Windows Defender

E. Encrypted File System

Answer: A,E

57. When installing a second hard drive for storage on the same channel, which of the following are

the proper jumper settings?

A. First hard drive Slave, Second hard drive Master

B. First hard drive Master, Second hard drive Slave

C. Second hard drive Master, First hard drive Master

D. Second hard drive Slave, First hard drive Slave

Answer: B

58. What number of pins will you find on a SVGA connection?

A. 25 pins

B. 9 pins

C. 20 pins

D. 15 pins

Answer: D

59Which of the following is the Color-Code used for the keyboard Port on a new PC that uses a mini-

DIN 6 Connector?

A. Pink

B. Blue

C. Green

D. Purple

Answer: D

60A female DB-25 connector is commonly used for which of the following applications?

A. A parallel cable.

B. A SCSI connector.

C. A parallel port.

D. An EGA/CGA video port.

E. A VGA/SVGA video adapter.

Answer: C

61Why would you recommend wireless IEEE 802.11g and not wireless IEE 802.11b?

A. Wireless IEEE 802.11b is not supported by Windows XP Service Pack 2.

B. Wireless 802.11g has less interference.

C. Wireless 802.11g moves data at a faster rate.

D. Wireless 802.11g has a greater distance range over wish it can be applied.

Answer: C

62What is the maximum number of peripherals that may be connected to a system via a USB port?

A. 7

B. 15

C. 127

D. 130

Answer: C

63When installing a new CPU, what is applied directly to the CPU?

A. Cooling liquid.

B. Thermal compound.

C. A heat sink.

D. A fan.

Answer: B

64While installing an IDE device, you find that the cable to connect the IDE device is not keyed.

Which of the following should you do? (Select all that apply.)

A. Locate the red stripe on the cable, and connect to the device with the red stripe lining up to pin

#1.

B. Attach cable any way that fits.

C. If there is also no red stripe, Locate the blue stripe on the cable, and connect to the device with

the blue stripe lining up to pin #1.

D. Purchase a new cable.

Answer: A,C

65Which of the following is a task that you have to perform when installing SCSI devices?

A. Set the jumpers for master/slave.

B. Perform a low-level format the SCSI drive

C. Assign each SCSI device a unique ID number.

D. Set the drive type in the CMOS setup.

Answer: C

66Which of the following gives the proper sequence for installing master and slave IDE drives?

A. Mount the drive in the carrier, connect the cable to the drive, install the drive in the computer,

and configure the drive

B. Mount the drives in the carrier, connect the 40-pin cable to the drives, set the drive at the end of

the cable to master, set the drive in the middle of the cable to slave, install the drives in the

computer, and configure the drives.

C. Mount the drive in the carrier, connect the master drive after the twist in the cable, connect the

slave drive before the twist in the cable, install the drives in the computer, and configure the

drives.

D. None of the above.

Answer: B

67Why should a technician that is working with a computers hardware wear an anti-static wrist strap?

A. The wrist strap will protect your hands from burn injury caused tobuilt up static electricity.

B. The wrist strap will prevent computer components from being damaged by static electricity.

C. The wrist strap will protect you from getting an electrical shock caused by static electricity.

D. The wrist strap will prevent degaussing of the hard drive.

Answer: B

68On which physical part of a hard drive is the data stored?

A. Platters.

B. Actuator.

C. Sector.

D. Cylinder.

Answer: A

69Provide the reasons why a computer may run slowly. (Choose THREE.)

A. Not enough random access memory (RAM).

B. Too many USB devices attached.

C. Spyware and viruses.

D. Excessive virtual memory.

E. Running obsolete services.

F. Improperly configured CD-ROM drive

Answer: A,C,E

70Your Windows XP operating system became unstable after you installed a device driver and did

not stabilize after you rebooted the computer with the Last Known Good Configuration. What is the

reason for the computer behaving in this manner?

A. The Last Known Good Configuration boot will only work for hardware changes and not software

changes that have been made.

B. The System Restore application should have been used to save the system's registry prior to

the installation of the device driver.

C. The Last Known Good Configuration was unable to find a valid Restore Point because the

System Restore was not run prior to the installation of the device driver.

D. The system's registry is overwritten after every successful login and the settings on the initial

install were thus overwritten after the first reboot and login.

Answer: D

71Which of the following two questions you would ask a customer first when he reports a blank

monitor? (Select TWO.)

A. Is the monitor switched on?

B. Did you check the color settings?

C. Have you checked whether the contrast or brightness is turned down?

D. What type of computer do you have?

Answer: A,C

72After booting up your new computer, you observe that the USB mouse is not working. Further

investigation reveals that nothing connected to the USB ports is working. Which of the following

should you try FIRST?

A. Check the computer to verify that the jumper settings for USB are correct.

B. Buy new USB wires and test USB functionality.

C. Check the BIOS to verify that USB functionality is enabled.

D. Connect the USB devices to a different computer to test the devices.

Answer: C

73Which of the following components on the motherboard usually house the IDE connectors?

A. PCI bus.

B. North Bridge.

C. ISA bus.

D. South Bridge.

Answer: D

74What is the minimum number of hard drives required for RAID level 0?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B

75What is the maximum data transfer rate that USB 2.0 offers?

A. 512 Mbps

B. 480 Mbps

C. 100 Mbps

D. 128 Mbps

Answer: B

76The maximum number of IDE devices which can be installed in an ATX computer is ______.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: D

77Which of the following is a passive device that protects electrical components from spikes in the

power line?

A. A power conditioner.

B. A surge protector.

C. A generator.

D. An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS).

Answer: B

78Which type of current is fed from the wall outlet to the computer when you turn a computer on?

A. Neutral current

B. Direct current

C. Alternating current

D. Low voltage current

Answer: C

79What is a PC Card also known as?

A. A PC Bus card.

B. A smart card.

C. PCMCIA.

D. A PCI adapter.

Answer: C

80A customer complains that after the memory on his laptop was upgraded from 512 MB to 1024 MB

of RAM, his laptop reports that only 768 MB of RAM is installed. What is the MOST probable

cause of this?

A. The operating system does not support more than 768 MB of RAM.

B. The RAM module is not seated properly.

C. The technician installed the wrong RAM module.

D. The laptop is equipped with an onboard video adapter that uses shared video memory.

Answer: D

81A Certkiller .com technician must convert a FAT32 volume to NTFS without loosing any data on

the drive. Which of the following commands should the technician use?

A. CHKDSK

B. CONVERT

C. FORMAT

D. DEFRAG

Answer: B

82Which of the following tools can be used to correct corrupt file problems or disk errors?

A. REGEDIT

B. ATTRIB

C. SCANDISK

D. FDISK

Answer: C

83A Certkiller .com user wants to stop certain applications from running automatically when his

Windows XP computer a starts. Which of the following utilities can he user?

A. MSCONFIG.EXE

B. CONFIG.EXE

C. REGEDIT.EXE

D. SYSEDIT.EXE

Answer: A

84You need to delete unused files on a Windows XP computer in order to free up extra hard drive

space. Which utility should you use?

A. Disk Cleanup

B. DEL

C. SCANDISK

D. Disk Defragmenter

Answer: A

85A Certkiller .com technician needs to configure and manage partitions on hard disk from the

Recovery Console. Which of the following commands should the technician use?

A. Diskpart

B. Fixboot

C. Fixmbr

D. None of the above

Answer: A

86Which type of issue does the "A device in SYSTEM.INI cannot be found" error message pertain

to?

A. System files issue.

B. Configuration files issue.

C. Swap files issue.

D. All of the above.

Answer: B

87If you receive the "Non-system disk or disk error" error message, what issue should you start

troubleshooting for?

A. A missing operating system where the computer failed to locate a boot sector with an operating

system installed.

B. A memory size error.

C. A missing or malfunctioning keyboard.

D. None of the above

Answer: A

88Which of the following types of printers use a drum?

A. Ink jet printers

B. Laser printers

C. Dot Matrix printers

D. Bubble jet printers

Answer: B

89A ______ cables is used to connect a printer to the parallel port of a computer.

A. IEEE 1284

B. RS-232C

C. IEEE 802.11

D. IEEE 1394

Answer: A

90Certkiller .com has a printer that is attached to a Windows 2000 computer. The spooler service on

the computer has stopped. What command should the Certkiller .com technician issue to restart

the spooler service from the command line?

A. spooler service restart

B. net spooler restart

C. restart service

D. spooler restart

Answer: B

91The prints from a Certkiller .com laser printer appear smudged image and rubs off easily. Which of

the following is the MOST probable cause of this problem? What problem can be cause by the

fusing assembly?

A. The pickup assembly is worn.

B. The fusing assembly is faulty.

C. The wrong paper is being used.

D. The erasure lamp is faulty.

Answer: B

92The Certkiller .com technician has replaced the toner cartridge on a laser printer that was

producing faded prints. However, the print quality does not improve. What is the MOST likely the

cause of this problem?

A. The laser scanner is faulty.

B. The EP drum is not fully discharging.

C. The transfer corona is faulty.

D. The power supply is faulty.

Answer: C

93Which of the following would not be an advantage of the NTFS file system over the

FAT32 file system?

A. more file formats.

B. larger file sizes.

C. file encryption.

D. larger volumes.

Answer: A

94Fault tolerance is provided by the following RAID disk arrays (Select TWO).

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 5

C. RAID 1

D. RAID 3

E. RAID 4

Answer: B,C

95You are working as a technician at Certkiller .com. You are troubleshooting a computer, that

during the POST (power-on self test) makes several beeps and then stalls. Which of the following

components would most probably be the cause of the problem?

A. hard drive

B. memory

C. power supply

D. sound card

Answer: B

96You are working as a technician at Certkiller .com. A user calls and asks for help with his

workstation. The computer is running Windows XP Professional and seems to have become

unstable lately. Which of the following should be used to check the operating system integrity?

A. SFC /SCANNOW

B. Dr. Watson

C. SFC /SCAN

D. SFC /

Answer: A

97You are working as a senior technician at Certkiller .com. You have been preparing a master

computer that you will duplicate to the other computers in the economics department. Which of the

following can be used to prepare a disk image for duplication?

A. sysprep

B. xcopy

C. shadow copy

D. mmc

Answer: A

98You are working as a Technician at Certkiller .com. You have just installed an additional 300GB

hard drive in a computer. The system hard drive is configured with NTFS and the new data hard

drive came configured with FAT32. Which of the following statements are true? (Select TWO).

A. The cluster size is smaller and storage is more efficient on the system drive.

B. The cluster size is larger and storage is more efficient on the system drive.

C. Files on the system drive can be secured.

D. Larger logical drives can be made on the data drive.

Answer: A,C

99You are working as a technician at Certkiller .com. All computers at Certkiller .com uses hard disks

formatted with NTFS. You have been asked to investigate if it is possible to track and control the

amount disk space used in the computer in the research department. Which of the following tools

could you use in order to accomplish this?

A. Disk Cleanup

B. Disk Dump

C. Disk Quotas

D. Disk Defragmenter

Answer: C

100You are a technician at Certkiller .com. You have been called to a user, who works from home, in

order to help her with an ADSL connection. What is the FIRST thing you should do when you

arrive on-site?

A. ask the user if you can install an upgraded firmware to improve performance.

B. ask is the user has a clue about what the problem might be.

C. ask whether the user is ready to work on the problem.

D. swap the faulty ADSL modem with a known-good modem.

Answer: C

101A customer requires a shock resistant mass storage device in their PC. Which of the following

drives should the technician install?

A. Hard disk

B. Solid state

C. Floppy

D. Tape

Answer: B

102After powering on a workstation, an intrusion alert is displayed indicating that the case has been

opened. How would a technician reset the alert?

A. Change the setting in the registry

B. Change the setting in the BIOS

C. Change the setting in the DOS startup files

D. Change the setting in the Control Panel

Answer: B

103A technician plugs a USB device into the computer. The system tray displays a message that

reports the device is installed, but may not work properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely

cause of the message?

A. The device needs a firmware update.

B. The device needs an updated driver installed.

C. The plugged in device is too slow for the USB port speed.

D. The device is incompatible with the installed version of Windows.

Answer: B

104A technician wants to setup hardware RAID 5 for a Windows 7 computer to prevent data loss. In

which of the following locations would the technician MOST likely change the setting?

A. Disk Manager

B. Device Manager

C. Windows Boot DVD

D. The BIOS

Answer: D

105Which of the following will fix a laptop with dark irregular lines that run the width of the display in all

video modes?

A. Perform a System Restore

B. Replace the video capture card

C. Change the resolution to 800 x 600

D. Replace the LCD

Answer: D

106A user powers up their desktop PC, and instead of booting up normally, the user is taken into the

BIOS setup. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?

A. The MBR is corrupt

B. NTLDR cannot be found by the system

C. A faulty CMOS battery

D. The BIOS requires a firmware update

Answer: C

107A user is working in a small office home office (SOHO), running Windows XP, and cannot connect

to the Internet. The office uses a router that is setup as a DHCP server. The technician types

IPCONFIG in the command prompt, the following appears:

IP address 0.0.0.0

Gateway 0.0.0.0

Subnet Mask 0.0.0.0

DNS 0.0.0.0

Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A. Network adapter drivers

B. Router settings

C. Network cable

D. Firewall

Answer: C

108A customer wants to have a technician increase the amount of RAM in the laptop. Which of the

following should the technician do FIRST before adding more memory?

A. Check for available hard drive space

B. Check the laptop documentation

C. Open the case to check for an available slot

D. Check the operating system on the computer

Answer: B

109A user is cleaning up their temporary Internet files and is concerned about the number of cookies

discovered. Which of the following is a correct statement about cookies?

A. Cookies are spyware.

B. Cookies are not always malicious.

C. Cookies cannot be removed.

D. Cookies should be disabled at all times.

Answer: B

110Which of the following commands would be used to move the working directory from C:\ to

C:\Windows?

A. CD

B. RD

C. MD

D. SFC

Answer: A

110Which of the following commands will make exact duplicates of files and directory trees?

A. TREE

B. COPY

C. XCOPY

D. DISKCOPY

Answer: C

111A user has reported they cannot access the wireless network. The network technician checks the

laptop and cannot view the wireless adapter settings. Which of the following should the technician

do to connect the user to the wireless network?

A. Enable the network card

B. Enable WPA2 encryption on the WAP

C. Change the WAP to support 802.11n

D. Set the Default Gateway to 169.254.1.1

Answer: A

112A new web-based application is not working properly because it is unable to connect to certain

external sites after it was installed within the internal corporate network. Which of the following will

need to be configured to help troubleshoot this issue?

A. Firewall port settings

B. Mail protocol settings

C. DNS settings

D. FTP settings

Answer: A

113Windows 7 has notified a user that it has blocked access to the following address in Internet

Explorer: ftp://ftp.microsoft.com:21. Which of the following Windows features should the technician

check to ensure that there is not an explicit rule disallowing access to this location?

A. Windows Bitlocker

B. Windows BranchCache

C. Windows User Account Control

D. Windows Firewall

Answer: D

114A technician is backing up a 10GB hard drive to an external drive. The PC reports the transfer time

will be two hours. Which of the following ports is the drive MOST likely connected to?

A. USB 1.1

B. Firewire 100

C. USB 3.0

D. eSATA

Answer: A

115A system had been infected with a virus. After the virus was removed it returned a few days later

even though the system had not been connected to a network or external media. Which of the

following should be done to remove the virus more permanently?

A. Enable last known good configuration.

B. Disable system restore and clean the PC.

C. Remove all spyware prior to a virus scan.

D. Run the virus scanner with heuristics.

Answer: B

116A user states that their laptop is slow and they would like to increase the memory. Which of the

following memory modules should a technician install?

A. 2GB SDRAM RIMM

B. 2GB SDRAM SODIMM

C. 4GB DDR DIMM

D. 4GB RAMBUS DIMM

Answer: B

117Whenever a user tries to print a specially formatted document, it prints but strips the text and has

incorrect spacing. Which of the following issues is the most likely cause?

A. The wrong size paper is being used

B. The printer is not on the network

C. The print spooler service is not running

D. The wrong printer drivers are installed

Answer: D

118Upon starting a computer, the CHKDSK utility always runs before the operating system loads.

Which of the following components should the technician check in order to more closely diagnose

the problem?

A. Power supply and cables

B. Processor and BIOS settings

C. Hard drive and connecting cables

D. USB controller and FireWire connector

Answer: C

119A technician is tasked with replacing the processor and cooling fan in a laptop computer. Which of

the following procedures will help the technician complete the task efficiently?

A. Place all of the screws together in one container so they do not get lost.

B. Place the screws for each disassembly step together in an organizer.

C. Tag each screw hole with a different color coded tag.

D. Throw away the existing screws and replace them with new screws.

Answer: B

120During startup an error message “One or more services failed to start” appears. Which of the

following methods can be used to examine the status of the services running on the computer?

(Select TWO).

A. Click on Start > Control Panel > System

B. Right click on My Computer and select Properties from the context menu

C. Click on Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools

D. Right click on the Desktop and select Properties from the context menu

E. Right click on My Computer and select Manage from the context menu

Answer: C,E

121Which of the following operating systems supports full BitLocker functionality?

A. Windows XP

B. Windows 7 Professional

C. Windows Vista Home

D. Windows 7 Enterprise

Answer: D

122A user has a laptop that they need to get ready for an outdoor presentation. The user is concerned

that the laptop will turn off the screen or go into standby before their presentation is complete.

Which of the following Control Panel paths should the technician use in order to prevent this from

occurring?

A. System -> Hardware

B. Power Options -> Power Schemes

C. System -> Advanced -> Performance

D. Power Options -> Hibernate

Answer: B

123A user states their workstation will not reach the login screen. Which of the following commands

can be used to write a new partition boot sector to the system partition in the Recovery Console?

A. FIXMBR

B. BOOTCFG

C. FIXBOOT

D. DISKPART

Answer: C

124A user has an LCD and a CRT monitor attached to their workstation. The colors are slightly off on

the CRT but not the LCD. Which of the following controls should be used in troubleshooting?

A. Geometry

B. Contrast

C. Brightness

D. Degauss

Answer: D

125A technician installed a second hard drive in a computer. Upon restart, a message appears

statinG. “primary drive 0 not found. Press F1 to continue. Which of the following should the

technician check FIRST?

A. That NTLDR and boot.ini are not missing

B. Proper drive installation (e.g. cables/jumpers)

C. If computer can boot into safe mode

D. If the BIOS boot settings are correct

Answer: B

126Which of the following resources is MOST important for accessing remote virtual environments on

a client machine?

A. Network speed

B. CPU speed

C. High speed memory

D. Drive space

Answer: A

127A user sent an email requesting that a technician check if a computer is on and connected to the

Internet so the user can login from home. Which of the following commands in the command

prompt would a technician use to verify if the computer is on and connected without having to go

to the computer?

A. NSLOOKUP

B. NETSTAT

C. PING

D. IPCONFIG

Answer: C

128A technician recently removed spyware from a computer and now the user is getting error

messages about system files. Which of the following tools would a technician use to verify all

system files are intact and in their original versions?

A. Repair Disk

B. SFC

C. FIXMBR

D. ASR

Answer: B

129The computer starts up and runs for less than a minute before shutting down or locking up. This is

a symptom of:

A. overheating.

B. incompatible RAM.

C. a faulty hard drive.

D. a bad internal USB hub.

Answer: A

130A computer’s time settings reset every time it is unplugged. This is a symptom of a faulty:

A. memory module.

B. power supply.

C. motherboard.

D. CMOS battery.

Answer: D

131A technician is configuring a PC that will have confidential information stored on it. To ensure that

only authorized users can access this PC, which of the following should the technician do? (Select

TWO).

A. Disable the guest account

B. Install antivirus applications

C. Disable DHCP

D. Change the SSID

E. Change the default username

Answer: A,E

132A technician recently installed a new video card in a PC. The PC already has integrated video on

the motherboard. When the technician turns on the PC, there is no video. Which of the following is

MOST likely the cause?

A. The motherboard BIOS version is out of date.

B. The incorrect video card drivers are installed.

C. The power connector for the video card is unplugged.

D. The video card is unsupported by the motherboard.

Answer: C

133Which of the following BEST describes a method for installing an operating system across the

network?

A. USB 3.0

B. IEEE 1394

C. PXE

D. NTFS

Answer: C

134A technician has been dispatched to a customer site to diagnose an issue where the computer

turns off intermittently. Upon arriving at the site, the technician detects a smoke smell coming from

the computer. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A. Power down the system and replace the CPU.

B. Power down the system and replace the power supply.

C. Install an additional case fan for proper ventilation.

D. Remove the side panel for proper ventilation.

Answer: B

135A technician has installed several new devices on a computer. The computer no longer boots

properly, and the technician needs to determine which device driver may be causing the issue.

Which of the following allows the operating system to run in a limited capacity with minimal device

drivers loaded?

A. Last known good configuration

B. Recovery console

C. Power shell

D. Safe mode

Answer: D

136Slow system performance may be caused by which of the following?

A. Faulty firewall

B. Viruses

C. Second hard drive

D. Outdated BIOS

Answer: B

137A technician notices that a computer is making a loud clicking noise but continues to run. System

speed is barely affected, but they cannot access certain drives. These are the symptoms of which

of the following?

A. Failing second hard drive

B. Failing system hard drive

C. Bad CMOS chip

D. Bad CPU fan

Answer: A

138Which of the following operating systems has a 64-bit version?

A. Windows XP Home

B. Windows XP Media Center

C. Windows 7 Starter

D. Windows XP Professional

Answer: D

139While using an application on a Windows XP desktop PC, a BSOD appears. Which of the

following should the technician select upon reboot to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Boot to safe mode

B. Boot to last known good configuration

C. Boot to another OS on a second partition

D. Boot normally

Answer: A

140A technician would like to map a network drive. Which of the following indicates the correct path

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