Entrytest Prep. and Admission Help

Solved PPSC Excise and Taxation Inspector Paper 2018 with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Mon, 22 Oct 2018 02:15:00 +0000

Q1. The name of the power point file can be seen on:
A. Menu Bar
B. Title bar
C. Scroll Bar
D. Status Bar
Answer: B
Q2. Look at this Series , V, VIII, XI, , XIV, __, XX. what number should fill the blank
A. IX
B. XXIII
C. XV
D. XVII
Answer:D
Q3. what is the main purpose of nuclear energy
A. To kill the enemy nation
B. To waste the excessive energy
C. To use it as alternative source of energy
D. To cause the mutation of people who are working
Answer: C
Q4. who was the first Muslim commander in chief of Pakistan Navy.
f

Q91۔ کھسیانی بلی کھمبا نوجے۔ اس ضرب المثل سے کیا مراد ہے؟
A. غصہ کسی کا نکالنا کسی کا
B. پریشان آدمی کچھ بھی کر سکتا ہے۔
C. شرمندہ آدمی دوسروں پر غصہ نکالتا ہے
D. شرمندگی میں کچھ سمجھ نہ آنا
جواب: A. شرمندہ آدمی دوسروں پر غصہ نکالتا ہے
Q92. علامہ اقبال نے پرندوں میں"شاہین" کو جن صفات کی بنا پر پسند کیا ہے، ان میں سے اہم ترین صفت یہ ہے کہ شاہین؟
A.پرندوں کا بادشاہ ہے
B.فضا میں شکار کر تا ہے
C.بلند پرواز ہے۔
D. کئی کئی دن بھوکا رہ سکتا ہے۔
جواب: C. بلند پرواز ہے
Q93.شاعری کی اصطلاح میں کلام میں رکیک ، بازاری ، عامیانہ اور پامال مضامین کا استعمال کہلاتا ہے:
A. ابہام
B. ابتذال
C. خارجیت
D. رومانویت
جواب:C.خارجیت
Q94. درج ذیل شعر کس کا ہے؟
یہ فیضانِ نظر تھا یا کہ مکتب کی کرامت تھی
سکھائے کس نے اسمٰعیل کو آداب فرزندی
A. جوش ملیح آبادی
B.فیض احمد فیض
C. الطاف حسین حالی
D. علامہ اقبال
جواب: D. علامہ اقبالؒ
مزید پڑھئے: استاد کا احترام مضمون
Q95.چراغ پا ہونا" محاورہ ہے، اس کا مطلب کیا ہے؟
A. غصے کی کیفیت
B. روشی بکھیرنا
C.خوشیاں بانٹنا
D. تذبذب کی حالت
جواب: A. غصے کی کیفیت
Q96. "کاغذ کھولنا" محاورہ ہے، اس کا مطلب کیا ہے؟
A. عیب فاش کرنا
B. درخواست لکھنا
C. یا داشت کی طور پر کاغذ پر لکھنا
D. کاغذکو پرزے پرزے کرنا
جواب:
Q97.ان میں سے کو ن سا لفظ ٹھیک ہے؟
A. نراضی
B. ناراضگی
C.نراضگی
D. ناراضی
جواب:D. ناراضی
Q98.ان میں سے کس شاعر کو لینن پیس پرائز ملا؟
A.علامہ اقبال
B.رابند ر ناتھ ٹیگور
C.فیض احمد فیض
D. احمد فراز
جواب:C.فیض احمد فیض
Q99."چند ہم عصر" خاکوں پر مبنی کتاب ہے۔ اس کے مصنف کون ہیں۔
A. رشید احمد صدیقی
B.مرزا فرحت اللہ بیگ
C. مولوی عبدالحق
D. مولانا عبدالمجید سالک
جواب:C. مولوی عبدالحق
Q100.یادوں کی بارات کس کی سوانح حیات ہے؟
A. پروین شاکر
B.جوش ملیح آبادی
C. احسان دانش
D.احمد ندیم قاسمی
جواب:B.جوش ملیح آبادی

FFC Scholarship Scheme for Bachelor and FSC / ICS ... Download Form

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Sat, 20 Oct 2018 02:08:00 +0000

فوجی فرٹیلائزز فاؤنڈیشن نے ایف ایس سی / ائی سی ایس اور گریجویٹ پروگرام کے لئے سکالر شپ کا آغاز کیا ہے۔

Eligibility:

مندرجہ ذیل سٹوڈینٹس اس سکالر شپ کے لئے اپلائی کر سکتےہیں۔

1۔تمام میل اور فی میل سٹوڈینٹس جن کے 85٪ سے زیادہ مارکس ہوں وہ اس سکالر شپ کے لئے اپلائی کر سکتے ہیں۔

2۔ وہ سٹوڈینٹس جو بیچلر کر رہے ہیں وہ پہلے یا دوسرے سمسٹر کے سٹوڈینٹس ہوں اور وہ سٹوڈینٹس جو ایف ایس سی یا آئی سی ایس کر رہے ہیں وہ فسٹ ائیر کے سٹوڈینٹس ہوں۔

3۔ صرف گورنمنٹ سے منظور شدہ کالجز یا یونیورسٹی کے سٹوڈینٹس ہوں۔

4۔زمین 50 ایکڑ سے کم اور اور والدین کسان ہوں۔ یعنی کمائی کا بڑا ذریعہ کھیتی باڑی ہی ہو۔

اپلائی کرنے کا طریقہ:

مندرجہ ذیل فام پر کر کےاس پتے پر ارسال کریں

C/o SWF scholarship Desk, Sona Towers, 156-The Mall, Rawalpindi

Last Date: 15 Nov 2018

Mehngai.... Essay

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 19 Oct 2018 10:31:00 +0000

مہنگائی ۔۔۔ایک عفریت

انسان کی تگ و دو کا ایک اہم مقصود بنیادی انسانی ضرورتوں کا حصول ہے۔ اسے جسم و جاں کا رشتہ قائم رکھنے کے کئے خوراک ،تن دھانپنے کو کپڑا اور موسموں کی تندی و تیزی سے بچے کے لئے مکان کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے۔ پتھر کے زمانے سے لے کر آج کے خلائی دور تک ، انسان کی ان ضرورتوں میں فرق نہیں آیا۔ جوں جوں انسان ترقی کرتا گیا، اس کی سہو لیات میں اضافہ ہوتا گیا اور یہی سہولتیں زندگی کی ضرورتوں میں فرق نہیں آیا۔ جوں جوں انسان ترقی کرتا گیا، اس کی سہولیات میں اضافہ ہوتا گیا اور یہی سہولتیں زندگی کی ضرورت بن گئیں۔ اجتماعی جدو جہد کے نتیجے میں نئے وسائل تک رسائی ہوئی۔ وسائل تک رسائی کے لئے انسان نے نقل مکانی، لکھی نئی دریافتیں اور نئی ایجادات کیں پھر ان وسائل پر قبضے کے لئے کشمکش شروع ہوئی۔ جس طبقے کو وسائل وافر مقدار میں میسر آئے وہ خوش حال ہو گیا اور جس طبقے کے حصے میں وسائل کم آئے اور افراد زیادہ ، ان کے ہاں آمد و خرچ کا توازن بگڑ کیا اور یہیں سے مہنگائی کی ابتدا ہوئی۔

آج ہم اکیسویں صدی کی دہلیز پہ کھڑے ہیں۔ عالمی صورت حالات کا معروضی جائزہ لیں تو مہنگائی کی وجوہ اور اثرات کا تقریباََ وہی نقشہ نظر آتا ہے جو صدیوں پہلے غیر مہذب دور میں تھا۔ پینے کے لئے صاف پانی کو ترستی مخلوق ، فٹ پاتھ اور کشتیوں میں زندگی گزار دینے والے لاکھوں کروڑوں انسان ، آج کے نام نہاد و مہذہب دور کی چیرہ دستیوں پر ماتم کناں ہیں۔ آج کا عالمی نقشہ یہ ہے کہ دنیا ترقی یافتہ ، ترقی پذیر اور غیر ترقی یافتہ طبقات میں تقسیم ہے ۔ لگ بھگ اسی فی صد وسائل پر ترقی یافتہ ممالک کا قبضہ ہے اور وہ پر تعیش زندگی گزار رہے ہیں۔ نہ صرف وسائل ان کا قبضہ ہے بلکہ ٹیکنالوجی اور دیگر علوم میں بھی وہ دوسرے ممالک سے آگے ہیں اور اس برتری کے زور پر غیر ترقی یافتہ ممالک کے وسائل پر قبضے کے لئےہر دم دندان آزتیز کیے ہوئے ہیں۔ ترقی پذیر اور غیر ترقی یافتہ ممالک کے عوام خون پسینہ ایک کر کے اور جان توڑ محنت کرنے کے باوجود بہت کم بنیادی ضرورتیں حاصل کر پاتے ہیں ان کا خام مال کوڑیوں کے مول ترقی یافتہ ممالک لے جاتے ہیں۔ ان غریب ممالک کی جہالت اور پس ماندگی سے فائدہ اٹھا کر انھیں آپس میں لڑایا جاتا ہے اور بچے کھچے وسائل اسلحہ فروخت کر کے حاصل کر لئے جاتے ہیں۔ (خلیجی جنگ اس کی ادنیٰ سی مثال ہے) غریب ممالک کے حکمران جب خلوص نیت سے اپنے عوام کی حالت بدلنا چاہتے ہیں تو مصنوعی مہنگائی پیدا کر کے ( کبھی پا بندیاں لگا کر اور کبھی سرمایہ نکال کر) حکمرانوں کے خلاف احتجاج کی لہر پیدا کی جاتی ہے۔ بے چینی بڑھتی ہے،جلسے جلوس، احتجاج اور مہنگائی کا گراف بڑھتا جاتا ہے۔ کبھی دو ممالک کی جنگ ہوتی ہے تو مہنگائی اور بڑھ جاتی ہے۔ عالمی استحصالی نظام مہنگائی پیدا کرتا ہے، اس کی پرورش کرتا ہے اور اسے قائم و دائم رکھتا ہے۔

Elearn App. for Class 6,7,8,9,10,11,12. Audio, Video lectures + Simulations

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 18 Oct 2018 18:06:00 +0000

گورنمنٹ آف پنجاب کی طرف سےایک ایپ متعارف کروائی گئی ہے۔ جو کہ سٹوڈینٹس کے لئے کافی useful ثابت ہو سکتی ہے۔
اس ایپ میں کلاس 6 سے لے کر کلاس 12 تک Audio اور Video لیکچرز کے ساتھ ساتھ simulations اور Assessment Quizzes بھی شامل کئے گئے ہیں۔
اس ایپ میں ابھی تک فزکس ، کیمسٹری ، بائیو اور میتھ کی بکس شامل کی گئی ہیں۔
اس ایپ کیسے downlaod اور Install کرنا ہے؟
اس ایپ کے کیسے استعمال کرنا ہے؟
اس کے کون کون سے فیچرز ہیں؟
سٹوڈینٹس کے لئے کتنی مفید ہے؟
اس کے اچھے اور برے پوائینٹس کون کون سے ہیں۔
ان تمام سوالات کے جوابات آپ اوپر دی گئی وڈیو میں دیکھ سکتے ہیں۔

Rivers In Balochistan

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Fri, 12 Oct 2018 10:02:00 +0000

Question Bank Mathematics

noreply@blogger.com (Zeeshan) — Tue, 27 Dec 2016 00:04:00 +0000

Question Bank Mathematics (Book I)

Unsolved Questions from FSc. mathematics

Chapter 17 MCQs with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 14:46:00 +0000

Chapter 16 MCQs with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 14:42:00 +0000

Chapter 15 MCQs with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 14:38:00 +0000

Chapter 14 MCQs with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 14:34:00 +0000

Chapter 13 MCQs with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 14:28:00 +0000

Chapter 4 with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 03:54:00 +0000

Chapter 3 with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 03:38:00 +0000

1. Which graph best represents how the displacement of a vertically thrown ball varies with time?

2. Which graph best shows how the velocity of a vertically thrown ball varies with time?

3. A body whose instantaneous and average velocities are equal is said to have

(a) constant acceleration (b) constant velocity

4. Inertia of a body is a measure of its

(a) mass (b) weight

5. A body moving with velocity v has energy E. Its momentum is

(a) E/v (b) Ev/2

6. An alternate unit to kg m/s

(a) J s (b) N s

7. Change of linear momentum of a body is called its (a) acceleration (b) impulse

8. A trolley of mass 3 kg moving with a speed of 4 m/s collides with and remains attached to a stationary trolley of mass 1 kg. Their combined momentum, in kg m/s, after the collision is

(a) 4 (b) 7

9. Forces in nature always occur in

(a) single form (b) pair form

10. When two bodies move like a single body after colliding each other, the collision is said to be

(a) perfectly elastic (b) partially elastic

11. As a result of an elastic collision between two masses m₁and m₂ an exchange of velocity takes place. For collision of this type

(a) m₁ >> m₂ (b) m₁ = m₂

12. If a shell is fired from a canon and explodes in air, then the total

(a) momentum increases (b) momentum decreases

13. A ball thrown up with a velocity of 19.6 m/s returns back into the thrower’s hand after

(a) 1 s (b) 2 s

14. Lead balls each of mass m kg fall on a horizontal plate at the rate of n balls per second. If they strike the plate with a velocity of v m/s , the force exerted on the plate in N is

(a) mvn (b) mv/n

15. From the top of a building a ball A is dropped while another ball B is thrown horizontally at the same instant. Which ball will strike the ground first?

(a) A (b) B

16. In case of projectile motion, the maximum height attained by a body is equal to its range. The angle of projection with the horizontal is

(a) arc tan (1) (b) arctan (2)

17. The height H gained by a projectile is related to its maximum range R_maxby

18. The horizontal range of a projectile is the same for the angles

(a) 60⁰ and 80⁰ (b) 40⁰ and 70⁰

19. The time taken by a projectile to reach maximum height is

20. A ballistic trajectory is the path followed by

(a) an un-powered and unguided missile

(b) a powered and guided missile

(d) a powered and guided missile

21. A snooker ball moving with velocity v collides head-on with another snooker ball of same mass at rest. If the collision is elastic, the velocity of the second snooker ball is

(a) zero (b) uncertain

22. The time of flight of a projectile is

23. The velocity of a projectile at the maximum height is

(a) v_i sinθ (b) v_i cosθ

24. With increasing angle of projection, the vertical height gained by a projectile

(a) decreases gradually

(b) increases gradually

25. The horizontal component of the velocity of a projectile moving with initial velocity of 500 ms^-1 at an angle of 60⁰ to the x-axis is

(a) 500 ms^-1 (b) 1000 ms^-1

26. A car is decelerating uniformly, its velocity changing from 30 ms^1 to 15 ms^-1 in 75 m. How much further will it travel before coming to rest?

(a) 25 m (b) 50 m

27. A body starts from rest at t = 0 and moves with constant acceleration. Which graph below best represents how the displacement s of the body varies with time?

28. Laws of motion are valid in those systems which

(a) are non-inertial (b) are inertial

31. Neutron (mass = 1 u) undergoes elastic collision with stationary nitrogen nucleus (mass = 14 u). The velocity of neutron after the collision is

(a) 0

(b) less than the velocity of nitrogen atom after collision

(d) less in magnitude than its initial velocity but with changed direction

32. Area under the velocity – time graph represents

(a) speed (b) momentum

33. A body thrown up with a velocity of 9.8 m/s reaches a maximum height of

(a) 9.8 m (b) 4.9 m

34. A force of 4 N acting on a body of mass 2 kg for 2 s produces a rate of change of momentum of

(a) 1 kgms^-1 (b) 2 kgms^-1

35. Dimensions of impulse are

(a) [MLT] (b) [MLT^-1]

36. Collisions of gas molecules with the walls of the container are the example of

(a) inelastic collisions (b) elastic collisions

37. Gas molecules inside a container constitute

(a) an isolated system (b) a non-isolated system

38. A ball bouncing off a wall

(a) obeys law of conservation of energy

(b) does not obey law of conservation of energy (c) obeys law of conservation of momentum

(d) does not obey law of conservation of momentum.

39. Speed of a projectile is minimum at the

(a) point of landing (b) point of projection

40. What happens when a system of two bodies undergoes an elastic collision?

(a) The momentum of the system changes

(b) The momentum of the system does not change

Key to Test Chapter 3

1	c	21	c
2	a	22	b
3	b	23	b
4	a	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	b	26	a
7	b	27	b
8	d	28	b
9	b	29	c
10	c	30	b
11	b	31	d
12	b	32	d
13	d	33	b
14	a	34	d
15	c	35	b
16	d	36	b
17	b	37	a
18	d	38	d
19	c	39	c
20	a	40	b

Chapter 2 with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 03:22:00 +0000

1. Which one of the followings is a scalar?

(a) Energy (b) Velocity

2. Which one of the followings is a vector?

(a) Length (b) Volume

3. In which one of the followings are all the three quantities vectors?

(a) Displacement, velocity, energy

(b) Force, work, energy

(d) Velocity, acceleration, power

4. The reverse process of adding two vectors is called

(a) multiplication (b) subtraction

5. The resultant of two vectors of equal magnitude inclined at some angle is equal to the magnitude of either of the two vectors. The angle between the two is

(a) 60° (b)90°

6. Tick the answer which is correct for R = A + B.

7. Which figure represents R = U – V?

8. The result of adding A into – A is

(a) A (b) 2 A

9. The unit vector of a vector A is given by

10. When a certain vector is multiplied by – 1, then the direction of the vector changes through

(a) 90° (b) 120°

11. Rectangular components make an angle of

(a) 0° (b) 60°

12. The minimum number of unequal forces whose vector sum is zero must be

(a) 1 (b) 2

13. One of the rectangular components of a velocity of

50 ms-1 is 30 ms-1. The other component in ms-1 is

(a) 15 (b) 20

^ ^

14. For the two vectors A_x = (20 N) i , A_y= (20 N) j , the angle made by the resultant vector A with the x-axis is

(a) 45° (b) 135°

15. Which of the following forces cannot be added to give of a resultant of 2 N?

(a) 1 N and 1 N (b) 1 N and 2 N

16. Magnitude of the resultant of two vectors A₁ and A₂inclined at an angle theta to each other is

17. Two forces act together on an object. The magnitude of their resultant is least when the angle between them is

(a) 45° (b) 60°

18. If |A+B| = |A – B| where A and B are two vectors of equal magnitudes, then the angle between A and B is

(a) 0° (b) 60°

^ ^

19. The angle subtended by r = 3 i + 4 j with x-axis is

(a) 53° (b) 30°

^ ^

20. The magnitude of a vector A = A_xi – A_yj is

21. The dot product of two non-zero vectors equals the product of their magnitudes only if the angle between them is

(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 120° (d) 180°

22. For which of the followings pair of angles, the dot product of two vectors is equal to the one half of the product of magnitudes of two vectors?

(a) 60° and 120° (b) 60° and 240°

23. For a vector A,

(a) A • A = 0 (b) A • A = 1

24. Which one of the followings is correct?

^ ^ ^ ^ ^

(a) i • j = k (b) i • j = 0

^ ^ ^ ^ ^

^ ^ ^

25. Given A = 2i – 2j + k , the magnitude of this vector is

(a) 1 (b) 2

26. If A x B lies along + z-axis, the vectors A and B will be in

(a) xz-plane (b) xy-plane

27. The cross product of two non-zero parallel vectors A and B is

(a) AB sin θ (b) AB

28. Which of the followings is incorrect?

^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^

(a) i x j = k (b) k x j = – i

^ ^ ^ ^

29. If A = A_xi + A_yj and B = B_xi + B_yj are two non-

parallel vectors, then the direction of A x B is along

(a) A (b) B

^ ^ ^ ^

30. If A = A₁i + A₂j and B = B₁i + B₂j, the number of components in the vector A  B is

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

31. If A x B = 0 and A x B = 0, then

(a) either A or B is a null vector.

(b) A and B are non-parallel.

(d) A and B are parallel to each other.

32. The vector product is

(a) commutative (b) anticommutative

33. The cross product of two vectors has a magnitude equal to the product of their magnitudes. Their dot product is equal to

(a) AB sinθ (b) AB cosθ

34. Torque produced by a force depends upon

(a) magnitude of the force and the angular velocity

(b) magnitude of the force and displacement (c) magnitude of the force and moment arm (d) force and acceleration of the body.

35. A couple consists of

(a) two equal and opposite forces acting at two different points on the body

(b) two equal and parallel forces acting at two different points (c) two equal and opposite force acting at a point on the body (d) two equal and parallel force acting at a point on the body.

36. The arm of a couple is

(a) any distance between the forces

(b) the shortest distance between the forces

37. If the resultant of all the forces acting on a body is zero, then the body

(a) has angular momentum (b) has acceleration

38. Three coplanar forces acting on a body keep it in equilibrium. The forces must be

(a) collinear (b) concurrent

39. If the line of action of the force passes through the axis of rotation, then the torque is

(a) zero (b) maximum

40. ˆi  (ˆj  k)ˆ equals

(a) ˆi (b) kˆ

Key to Test Chapter 2

1	a	21	a
2	c	22	c
3	c	23	d
4	c	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	d	26	b
7	b	27	d
8	c	28	d
9	c	29	d
10	d	30	a
11	c	31	a
12	c	32	b
13	d	33	d
14	a	34	c
15	b	35	a
16	a	36	c
17	d	37	d
18	c	38	b
19	a	39	a
20	b	40	d

Chapter 1 with Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 03:08:00 +0000

1. SI units of solid angle is

(a) radian (b) revolution

2. Which one of the followings is not the SI unit of length?

(a) angstrom (b) micron

3. Which one of the followings is not the SI unit?

(a) kg (b) mol

4. Which one of the followings is not the fundamental SI unit?

(a) kelvin (b) ampere

5. Candela is the SI unit of

(a) charge (b) luminous intensity

6. 1.2 kgm-3 when changed to gcm-3 reads

(a) 1.2x10-1 (b) 1.2x10-2

7. Radius of a proton is equal to

(a) 1.2x10-13 cm (b) 1.2x10-13 m

8. Which one of the followings represents the longest length?

(a) 1.24x104 mm (b) 1.24x104 m

9. Steradian is the angle subtended in

(a) two dimensions

(b) three dimensions

(d) none of these

10. The absolute uncertainty in the measurement 15.4 cm is

(a) 0.1 cm (b) 0.01 cm

11. The fractional uncertainty in a measurement is defined as

(a) measured value – zero error

(b) measured value/error

(d) measured value

12. The fractional uncertainty in measurement 15.4 cm is

(a). 0.006 (b) 0.0006

13. Which instrument is suitable for measuring the length of a metal bar about 10 cm long?

(a) Screw gauge (b) Vernier Calliper

14. A metre rod is used to measure a length. The correct order of accuracy of the instrument is

(a) 1 cm (b) 0.05 cm

15. A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter of a glass rod. The correct order of accuracy of the instrument is

(a) 1 mm (b) 0.1 mm

16. Which one of the followings is not suitable for the measurement of time?

(a) simple pendulum (b) pulse rate

17. A simple pendulum can be used as a clock because

(a) its time period is 1 s

(b) its time period is constant

(d) it does not stop oscillating

18. One giga means
(a) 109	(b) 10-9
(c) 10-12 19. One femto equals	(d) 1012
(a) 1015	(b) 1012
(c) 10-12 20. One micrometer equals	(d) 10-15
(a) 10-3 m	(b) 10-6 m
(c) 10-5 m	(d) 106 m

21. An error of observation arising out of the negligence on the part of the person is called

(a) random error (b) systematic error

22. Use of faulty apparatus introduces an error called

(a) experimental error (b) designing error

23. Random error can be corrected by

(a) taking an observation carefully

(b) using a precise instrument

(d) calibrating the instrument

24. Causes of systematic error in an instrument are

(a) unknown (b) known

25. Significant figures in a measured value indicate

(a) the reading on an instrument

(b) doubtful numbers

(d) accurate numbers

26. The number of significant figures in the value 0.09810 are

(a) 4 (b) 3

27. The number of significant figures in the value 1.90  10-31

are

(a) 34 (b) 28

28. The dimensions of weight are equal to the dimensions of

(a) weight density (b) mass density

29. When rounded off to three significant figures, the value

6.735 should be written as

(a) 6.73 (b)6.70

30. 9.845 is to be rounded off to three significant figures. The value should be written as

(a) 9.84 (b) 9.85

32. Given F = t + bt dimensions of a and b are respectively

(a), [MLT-1] and [MLT-4] (b) [LT-1] and [T-2]

33. The dimensions of angular displacement are

(a) [L] (b) [LT-1]

34. Which of the following quantities is not dimensionless?

(a) angle (b) stress

35. The dimensional formula for energy per unit area per second is

(a) [MT-1] (b) [MLT-1]

36. Use of dimensional analysis involves in

(a) finding the units of a quantity

(b) deriving a mathematical formula

(d) all of these

37. Numbers carry

(a) no dimensions (b) arbitrary dimensions

38. Only those terms can be added or subtracted which have

(a) different dimensions (b) same dimensions

40. The travel time of light from Earth to the moon (average 8 distance = 3.86 x 10 m) is about

(a) 8 seconds (b) 1.20 seconds

Key to Test Chapter 1

1	d	21	a
2	c	22	d
3	c	23	c
4	c	24	b
5	b	25	c
6	c	26	a
7	c	27	c
8	c	28	d
9	b	29	c
10	a	30	a
11	d	31	d
12	a	32	a
13	b	33	d
14	d	34	b
15	c	35	d
16	b	36	d
17	b	37	a
18	a	38	b
19	d	39	b
20	b	40	b

English Test 16 Correct Sentences/ Synonyms

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 02:35:00 +0000

CHOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCE OUT OF FOUR SENTENCES GIVEN BELOW

11) a) Both men have not come.

b) Both men has not come.

c) Neither man has not come.

d) Neither man has come.

12) a) She comes oftenly here.

b) She comes often here.

c) She often comes here.

d) She comes here often.

13) a) She performs like her cousin performs.

b) She performs as her cousin performs.

c) She performs as her cousin does.

d) She performs like her cousin does.

14) a) This is the place where he was born.

b) This is where he was born.

c) This is the place where he is born.

d) This is the place where he were born.

15) a) Jameel is more younger than his friend is

b) Jameel is very younger than his friend is

c) Jameel is much younger than his friend is

d) Jameel is a lot of younger than his friend is

16) a) A little milk in the jug is enough or a cup of tea.

b) The little milk in the jug is enough or a cup of tea.

c) Little milk in the jug is enough or a cup of tea.

d) Few milk in the jug is enough or a cup of tea.

17) a) At first he disagreed but later he showed his consent.

b) Firstly he disagreed but latter he showed his consent.

c) At first he disagreed but former he showed his consent.

d) First he disagreed but last he showed his consent.

18) a) Mazhar is more taller from her

b) Mazhar is very taller from her

c) Mazhar is taller from her

d) Mazhar is taller than she is

19) a) The elephant is larger than any other animal.

b) The elephant is large from any animal.

c) The elephant is larger to any animal.

d) The elephant is larger than any animal.

20) a) The contents of this novel are more literary than that novel.

b) The contents of this novel is more literary from the novel.

c) The contents of this novel are more literary than those of that novel.

d) The contents of this novel is much literary than that novel.

SELECT THE CLOSEST IN MEANING

21) Momentous

a) old b) very important c) bold d) clear

22) Disciple

a) pupil b) disciplined c) descriptive d) detest

23) Erstwhile

a) eastern b) obedient c) former d) industrious

24) Oblivious

a) aware b) sensitive c) forgetful d) obvious

25) Consoled

a) admonished b) sympathized c) warned d) insulted

26) Briskly

a) bravely b) quickly c) boldly d) carelessly

27) Thronged

a) packed b) thrown c) tortured d) turned

28) Connoisseur

a) connection b) expert c) commander d) musician

29) Precarious

a) unstable b) conscious c) preliminary d) safe

30) Courteously

a) legal b) vastly c) politely d) weakly

English Test 15

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 01:28:00 +0000

CHOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCE OUT OF FOUR SENTENCES GIVEN BELOW

11) a) I purchased a very good goggle.

b) I purchased a very good piece of goggle.

c) I purchased a very good goggles.

d) I purchased a very good pair of goggles.

12) a) Either Saleem or his friends often forget their duty.

b) Either Saleem or his friends often forgets their duty.

c) Either Saleem or his friends often forget his duty.

d) Either Saleem or his friends often forget our duty.

13) a) It is me who is to be answerable.

b) It is I who is to be answerable.

c) It is my who is to be answerable.

d) It is I who am to be responsible.

14) a) Her essay is praise-worthy but your isn’t.

b) Her essay is praise-worthy but yours isn’t.

c) Her essay is praise-worthy but your’s isn’t.

d) Her essay is praise-worthy but yours essay isn’t.

15)

a) Would you mind I coming late?

b) Will you mind I coming late?

c) Would you mind my coming late?

d) Would you mind me coming late?

16) a) We observed his running away.

b) We observed him running away.

c) We observed he running away.

d) We observed he to run away.

17) a) We bought the same book which was read by they all.

b) We bought the same book which was read by them all.

c) We bought the same book who was read by them all.

d) We bought the same book that was read by them all.

18) a) The person which you like was liked by the all boys.

b) The person who you like was liked by the all boys.

c) The person that you like was liked by all the boys.

d) The person whose you like was liked by all the boys.

19) a) We shall be glad to get your good news.

b) We shall be happy to get your good news.

c) We shall be happy to take your good news.

d) We shall be glad to get good news of you.

20) a) None of both the girls have completed their work.

b) None of the both girls have completed her work.

c) Neither of both the girls has completed her work.

d) No one of the both girls has completed her work.

SELECT THE CLOSEST IN MEANING

21) Riches

a) the rich b) members c) family d) wealth

22) Waterfall

a) cataract b) river c) canal d) pressure

23) Doubtless

a) reflecting b) above board c) careless d) depth

24) Regard

a) love b) like c) respect d) carelessness

25) Haunted

a) searched b) found c) proceeded d) went

26) Fragrant

a) colourful b) Ill-smelled c) sweet smelling d) beautiful

27) Come off

a) put on b) decorated c) belong to d) separated

28) Deprived of

a) blessed b) received c) devoid of d) desired

29) Blurt out

a) speak abruptly b) cry c) pray d) smile

30) Display

a) strong desire b) dowry c) exhibit d) luggage

English Test 14

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 01:18:00 +0000

CHOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCE OUT OF FOUR SENTENCES GIVEN BELOW

11) a) He has told us that he was ready to go there now.

b) He has told us that he is ready to go there now.

c) He has told us that he was ready to go there then.

d) He has said to us that he was ready to go there now.

12) a) The teacher told us that God helped those who helped themselves.

b) The teacher told to us that God helped those who helped themselves.

c) The teacher told us that God helps those who help themselves.

d) The teacher told us that God helps there who helped.

13) a) She told me that she can solve this problem today.

b) She told me that she could solve this problem today.

c) She told me that she could solve that problem today.

d) She told me that she could solve that problem that day.

14) a) She exclaimed with sorrow to me that she has failed.

b) She exclaimed with sorrow that she has failed.

c) She exclaimed with sorrow and told me that she had failed.

d) She exclaimed sorrowfully to me that she had been fails.

15)

a) She told me that she thanked me for the help I give here.

b) She told me that she thanked me for the help I gave here

c) She told me that she thanks me for the help I gave here

d) She thanked me for the help I gave her.

16) a) Anwar will ask you if you can help him today.

b) Anwar will ask to you if you can help him today.

c) Anwar will ask you if you could help him today.

d) Anwar will ask you if you could help that today.

17) a) Your uncle advises us not to tell a lie.

b) Your uncle advises us to tell a lie.

c) Your uncle forbids us not to tell a lie.

d) Your uncle asks to us to not tell a lie.

18) a) The mother prays to him that he might live long.

b) The mother prays for him that he might live long.

c) The mother prays that he should live long.

d) The mother prays for him to live long.

19) a) The police officer ordered to him to stand still and not move.

b) The police officer ordered him to stand still and not to move.

c) The police officer ordered him that he should stand still and not move.

d) The police officer forbade him to stand still and to move.

20) a) They told in that they had seen our home but we had not seen theirs.

b) They told us that they saw our home but we have not seen their.

c) They told us that they will see our home but we did not see theirs.

d) They told to us that they will see our home but we did not see theirs.

SELECT THE CLOSEST IN MEANING

21) Gazed

a) Looked fixedly b) looked waywardly

c) looked angrily d) coughed

22) Ploughshare

a) Peasant b) sheet of cloth c) Clock with a cutting blade d) Plough

23) Emphatically

a) Sadly b) Tearfully c) With grief d) Forcefully

24) Whizzing

a) Humming b) Flying c) Running d) Crying

25) Mangled

a) Changed b) Mingled c) Ruined d) Spuad

26) Redemptive

a) Honest b) Undeserved c) Annoyed d) Delivering

27) Hamlet

a) Town b) city c) very small village d) Area

28) Exalted

a) Beautiful b) True c) Heightened d) Exhausted

29) Sweltering

a) Oppressively hot b) wasted c) Deserted d) Destroyed

30) Quest

a) Search b) Question c) Effort d) Cruelty

CH 7+8 Biology Part 1 MCQs

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Thu, 11 Aug 2016 01:10:00 +0000

1. The characters common and different in protests and other kingdoms except monera

a) Eukaryotic cell and blastula b) Prokaryotic cell and no blastula

c) Eukaryotic cell and no embryo d) Prokaryotic cell and no embryo
2. Which is not true for giant amoeba?

a) Most Primitive of all eukaryote-like forms

b) Obtains energy from methanogenic bacteria

c) Contains all eukaryotic organelle

d) Contribute to degrandation of organic molecule

3. All of the following are parasitic protozoans except

a) Plasmodium b)	Trypansoma
c) Trichonymphas d) 4. The vector in case of Trypanosoma	Entamoeba histolytica
a) Mosquito b) Housefly c) 5. Choanoflagellates resemble to collar cells in	Tsetse fly d)	None of these
a) Sponges b)	Cnidarians
c) Ciliates d) 6. The actinopods with glassy shells	Actinopods
a) Stentor b) Euglena c)	Radiolarians d)	None

7. The simultaneous bursting of millions of which type of cells causes the symptoms of malaria

a) White blood cells b) Red blood cells c) Platelets d) All of these 8. Classification of algae is largely based on a) Their pigment composition b) Thallus c) Mode of reproduction d) All of these 9. A group of producers second only to diatoms a) Euglenoids b) Dinoflagellates c) Green algae d) None of these 10. The giants of prostists are included in a) Green algae b) Brown aglae c) Red algae d) Golden algae 11. Algae with holdfast, stipe and leaf like blaes
a) Laminaria b) Volvox c) Polysiphonia 12. Which protests form spores after meiosis?	d)	Ulva
a) Oomycotes b) Myxomycota c) Brown aglae 13. Cell wall contains cellulose in which of the following protists	d)	Red algae
a) Oomycetes b) Green algae c) Dinoflagellates 14. Fungi differ from plants in that a) Contain chitin in their cell wall b) Exhibit nuclear mitosis c) Forms mycorrhizae d) Absorptive heterotrophs 15. All of the following are plant-resembling characters of fungi except a) Have cell well b) Absence of centrioles c) Non Motile d) Nuclear Motions 16. A mass of hyphae is called	d)	All of these
a) Trichome b) Filament c) Mycelium 17. Hyphae with many nuclei is known as	d)	Mushroom
a) Monkaryotic b) Dilkaryotic c) Coenocytes d) 18. The plant body in a unicellular fungus is	Akaryotic
a) Coenocytic b) Hyphal c) Non-Hyphal d) 19. Which statement about fungal nutrition is not true?	Septate
a) Some fungi are active predators b) Some fungi are mutualists c) Facultative parastitic fungi are host specific d) All fungi require mineral nutrients 20. Reindeer moss is a
a) Bryophyte b) Algae c) Fungi d) 21. One of the following structures is having green algae component	Lichen
a) Soredia b) Conidia c) Spore d) 22. All of the following are required for fungi except	Ascospore
a) Temperature b) Light c) Food d) 23. Environment considered best for the growth of fungi	Water
a) Dry b) Moist c) Very Hot d) 24. Food reserve material in fungi is mainly	Very cold
a) Starch b) Glucose c) Oil and glycogen d) 25. The common means of reproduction in fungi	Fat
a) Spore b) Conidia c) Budding d) 26. One of the followngs reproduces by budding	All these
a) Smut fungi b) Mushrooms c) Yeast d) 27. Dikaryotic hyphae have a) Two monoploid nuclei of same strain b) Two monoploid nuclei of different strains c) Two diploid nuclei d) One diploid and other monoploid nucleus 28. The fungal partner in mycorhizal association	Puccinia
a) Mushroom b) Blachk bread mold c) Morels d) 29. Disease cycle of loose smut of wheat is caused by	Truffles
a) Sac fungus b) Club fungus c) Imperfect fungus d) 30. Which is not an ecological role of fungi? a) Decomposition b) Bioremediation	Conjugating fungus
c) Bioindicator of pollution d) Mycorrhizal association 31. One known as “death angel” a) Morchella b) Amanita c) Aspergillus d) Agaricus

32. Based on molecular data, euglenoids are thought to be closely related to

a) Dinoflagellates b) Zooflagellates

c) Protozoans d) Algae

a) Septate b) Perforated hyphae c) Aseptate 35. Constricting ring is formed in	d)	None
a) Arthrobotrys b) Pleurotus ostreatus c) Mildews 36. Yeast turns glucose to and CO₂.	d)	All
a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Lactic acid 37. Four haploid spores are formed inside	d)	Citric acid
a) Basidium b) Ascus c) Both 38. The hyphae of wheat smut penetrate inside	d)	None
a) Sepals b) Petals c) Anther 39. The part of fungi, which invades part of embryo in seed is	d)	Ovary
a) Basidiopore b) Basidium c) Mycelium 40. Teliospores are formed by	d)	All
a) Mycelium cells b) Basidium c) Basidiopores	d)	All

Ch 5+6 Biology Part 1 MCQs

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Wed, 10 Aug 2016 14:08:00 +0000

1. Unit of classification in between class and family

a) Genus b) Species c) Order d) Phylum

2. The class of corn is

a) Zea b) Mays c) Poaceae d) Monocotyledonae

3. in 1866 Ernst Hackle divided living organisms into

a) Two kingdoms b) Three kingdoms

c) Six kingdoms d) Five kingdoms

4. Which of the following mode nutrition was used by Robert Whittaker for the classification

a) Photosynthesis b) Absorption c) Ingestion d) All of these

5. Which scientist used cytology genetics and organelles of symbiotic origin along with mode of nutrition for classification

a) Robert Whittekar b) Margulis and Schwartz

c) Ernst Hackle d) Carolous Linnaeus

6. One of the following is considered ancestor of all other

a) Plantae b) Fungi c) Protista d) Animalia

7. Mature non enveloped virus is composed of

a) Genome only b) Prion only c) Genome and capsid

d) Nucleic acid + Protein coat + memberane of the host cell

8. The structure of virus which belongs to the host cell

a) Envelope b) The capsid c) The genome d) All of these

9. Prion is A / An

a) Infections part of virion b) Infectious proteins only

c) A piece of RNA d) A piece of DNA

10. The first virus to be isolated in crystal from by Stanley

a) Bacteriophage b) Cowpox virus

c) Tobaccomosaic virus d) Polio virus

11. Tail fibers are attached to which one of the following component of tail

a) Sheath b) Core c) Collar d) End plate

12. The structure of virus injected by bacteriophage during lytic cycle

a) Tail fibers b) Tail c) Protein coat d) DNA

13. The process of separation of prophage to start Lytic cycle is known as

a) Adsoption b) Lysogeny c) Induction d) Penetration

14. The statement not tru about lysogenic bacteria

a) They can be attached by any virus

b) They have prophage and are resistant to infection by the same virus

c) Virus not related to infection virus can attack

d) Can not be attacked by related virus 15. Polio virus is

a) Rod shaded b) tadpole like c) Rick like d) 16. Disease caused by the smallest known virus a) Herpes simplex b) Polio c) Mumps d) Smallpox 17. All of the following are the characteristics or virus except a) Have both DNA and RNA b) Have no membrane bonded organelle c) Cannot reproduce out side living cell d) Gave no membrane to exit entry of substances 18. Out side the living cell virus exist in the form known as	Spherical
a) Viroid b) Capsid c) Virion d) 19. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme contained by	Prion
a) All viruses b) Retrovirus c) Bacteriophage	d) Plant virus

20. Viruses are considered non living because

a) They produce variations	b) They form crystals
c) Their nucleis acid code for protein synthesis	d) They can reproduce

21. Which of the following are found in all virus

a) Envelope, capsid and nucleic acid b) DNA, RNA and protein

c) Protein and nucleic acid d) Protein, nucleic acids carbohydrates and lipids

22. Which one of the following is the only infections protein

a) Viroid b) Virion c) Prion d) Envelop

23. Which of the following information transfer is catalyzed by an enzyme reverse transcritpase

a) RNA ----RNA b) RNA ------ DNA

c) DNA-----RNA d) DNA-------DNA

24. Which of the following is common in both bacteria and virus

a) Nucleic acid as genetic material b) Binary fision

c) Mitosis d) Ribosomes

25. Which one of the following is not included in the envelope of bacteria

a) Cell wall b) Pilli c) Capsule d) Slime

26. All of the followings are true about cysts of bacteria except

a) Heat resistant b) Thick walled

c) Desiccation Resistant d) Formed during differentiation of vegetative cells

27. The protoplast of bacterial cell lack which of the following

a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Plasmid 28. Substance used to kill microbes in living tissues	d)	Mesosome
a) Antiseptics b) Disinfectants c) Antibiotics 29. Which of the following is sterilized by membrane filters	d)	All of these
a) Sera b) Antibiotics c) hormones 30. One of the following is not used as chemotherapeutic	d)	All of these
a) Alcohol b) Sulfonamides c) Tetracycline d)		Penicillin

31. Microaerophlic bacteria can grow in

a) In the absence of free oxygen

b) In the presence of free oxygen

c) In the absence or presence of free oxygen

d) In the presence of very low concentration of oxygen

32. Coli is a / an

a) Aerobic bacteria b) Anaerobic bacteria

c) Facultative bacteria d) Microaerophilic

33. Which of the following bacteria can grow in the presence of very low concentration of oxygen

a) Pseudomonas b) Spirochete c) Coli d) Campylobacter

34. Sulphur is produced as a by product during the activity of which type of bacteria

a) Photosynthetic b) Chemosynthetic

c) Saprophytic d) Parastic

35. During which phase of reproduction death rate becomes equal to new formed bacteria

a) Lag b) Log c) Stationary d) Decline

36. Rigid spiral bacteria is called

a) Vibrio b) Spirillum c) Spirochete d) Sarcina

37. Hyphomicrobium is a bacteria shaped like

a) Spiral b) Rod c) Sphere d) Ladder

38. Gram positive or negative bacteria grouping is on the bases of their

a) Capsle b) Cyst c) Cell wall d) Cell membrane

39. In which bacteria flagella are surrounding the whole bacterial cell

a) Atrichous b) Amphitrichous c) Peritrichous d) Lophotrichous

40. The structure which is chemo taxis in bacteria

a) Capsule b) Pilli c) Cyst d) Flagella

CH 2: Biology MCQs

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Wed, 10 Aug 2016 14:03:00 +0000

1) All of the following are insoluble in water except

a) Cellulose b) Glucose c) Fats d) Proteins

2) Molecules which is unstable and is the immediate source of energy.

a) Amino acids b) Glucose

c) Adensoine triphosphate d) Fatty acid

3) When 1 gram water is heated from 15C to 16C heat absorbed is

a) 10 Calories b) 1 calorie c) 2 calories d) 5 calories

4) Monosaccharide have

a) Hydroxyle b) Aldehyde group

c) Keto group d) All of these

5) The type of monosaccharide rare in nature

a) Triose b) Tetroses c) Pentoses d) Hexoses

6) Cane sugar is a

a) Polysaccharide b) Pligosaccharide

c) Monosaccharide d) None of these

7) Polysaccaride which give red colour with iodine

a) Cellulose b) Glycogen c) Starch d) Chitin

8) Character not found in waxes

a) Even no. of carbon atoms b) Have long chains alkanes

c) Protect plants from water loss d) Water barrier substance

9) Sanger determined the structure of

a) Hemoglobin b) Fibrin c) Insulin d) Keratin

10) Quaternary structure is found in

a) Hemoglobin b) Insulin c) Keratin d) Fibrin

11) Who isolated nuclic acid in 1870?

a) F. Sanger b) W. Ingram c) F. Miesher d) F. Franklin

12) Substances found in nucleoside

a) Pentose sugar b) Organic base

c) Phosphate d) A and B

13) What is percentage of protein in mammalian cell, per total cell weight?

a) 12 b) 25 c) 18 d) 25

14) What is the number of Amino Acid in an insulin molecule?

a) 21 b) 30 c) 41 d) 51

15) The shape of hemoglobin molecule is like a

a) Fiber b) Cigar c) Globe d) Saucer

16) The physical property of monosaccaride is that they are

a) Less sweet and less soluble in water

b) Sweet and less soluble in water

c) Sweet and easily soluble in water

d) Less sweet and insoluble in water

17) What does sucrose yield on hydrolysis

a) 2 Monosaccharides b) 3 Monosaccharides

c) 4 Monosaccharides d) 5 Monosaccharides

18) What are the reactants for the formation of lactose?

a) Glucose + Glucose b) Glucose + Fructose

c) Glucose + Galactose d) Fructose + Maltose

19) There are three hydrogen bonds in between different bases found in genetic

material

a) Cytosine and Guanine b) Adenine and Thymine

c) Adenine and Uracil d) Thymine and Uracil

20) Glycogen is chemically

a) Monosaccharide b) Disaccharide

c) Oligosaccharide d) Polysaccharide

21) A suitable example of terpenoids is

a) Sugar b) Waxes c) Starches d) Steroids

22) In plant cell the excess of glucose is converted into

a) Cellulose b) Galactose c) Sucrose d) Starch

23) Cotton fiber is purely

a) Galactose b) Sucrose c) Cellulose d) Glucose

24) In animals fatty acids are in

a) Branched chain b) Straight chain

c) Ring d) None of these

25) Oleic-acids is a common example of

a) Unsaturated fatty acid b) Saturated fatty acid

c) Super saturated fatty acid d) None of these

26) Acylglycerols are chemically composed of

a) Glycerol and nucleic acids b) Glycerol and inorganic acids

c) Glycerol and fatty acids d) Glycerol and amino acids

27) DNA contains all the following nitrogenous base units except

a) Adenine b) Gaunine c) Cytocine d) Uracil

28) PGAL is a phosphorylated form of a monosacaride sugar, it belongs to which group.

a) Trioses b) Tetroses c) Pentosses d) Hexose

29) Nucleic acids are in different forms in the nucleus of a cell. Which of the following forms of nucleic acids controls the synthesis of all these.

a) DNA b) mRNA c) tRNA d) rNAa

30) Carbohydrates in the cell combine with protein and a resultant compound is called

a) Glycolipids b) Glycoprotein c) Glycogenesis d) Glycolic acid

31) The general formula of monosaccharides is

a) (CH₄O)_n b) (CH₂O)_n c) (CH₃O) d) (CHO)_n

32) Carbohydrates that are comparatively less sweet in taste and less soluble in water are called

a) Monosaccharides b) Polysaccharides

c) Oligosaccharides d) None

33) Most familiar disaccharide is

a) Maltose b) Sucrose c) Lactose d) None

34) The main source of starch is

a) Grains b) Seeds

c) Fruits and tubers d) All of the above

35) In which of the following compounds, lipid is soluble

a) Ether b) Alcohol c) Chloroform d) All of above

36) The most widely spread acylglycerole is

a) Diacyglycerol b) Triacyglycerol

c) Only acyglycerol d) Tetra acylgycerol

37) The basic unit of nucleic acid is called

a) Nucleoside b) Nucleotide

c) Nitrogenous base d) Phosphoric acid

38) Nucleotides are united with one another through

a) Disulphide bridge b) Phosphodiester linkage

c) Covalent bond d) Ionic bond

39) The two polynucleotide strands are wound round each other. How many base pairs are there in each turn.

a) 5 base pair b) 15 base pairs

c) 10 base pairs d) 20 base pairs

40) Which of the following RNA carries genetic information from nucleus to cytoplasm.

a) tRNA b) tRNA c) mRNA d) None

Physics for FSc [MCQs]

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Wed, 10 Aug 2016 07:17:00 +0000

A large number of MCQs collection from FSc. Physics part 1 and part 2.

Physics XI

MCQs with Answers

Physics Chapter 1
CHAPTER 2 SCALARS AND VECTORS
Measurements AND Vectors and Equilibrium MCQ's
Physics Optics and Optical Instruments MCQ's
Oscillations and Waves MCQ's 1
Physics Optics and Optical Instruments MCQ's
Fluid Dynamics and Oscillations MCQ's 1
Motion and Force + Work and Engergy MCQ's 1
Circular Motion MCQ's
Heat and Thermodynamics MCQ's 2
Heat and Thermodynamics MCQ's 1
Waves MCQ's 1

MCQs without Answers

Physics, Unit # 9, Physical-Optics, F. Sc Part-I True / False and MCQs

Physics XII

Physics, Unit # 9, Physical-Optics, F. Sc Part-I True / False and MCQs

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Wed, 10 Aug 2016 04:11:00 +0000

Indicate True or False as the case may be

1. Waves coming out from a source of light will propagate inwards in all directions.

2. A small portion on a wave front is called a plane wave-front.

3. Two non coherent beams of light will give interference pattern.

4. In interference by thin films, the path difference does not depend upon thickness and nature of the film.

5. In forming the Newton’s rings, a Plano-convex lens of long focal length is placed in contact on a plane glass plate.

6. A diffraction grating is a glass plate having a large number of equidistant slits.

7. If θ is zero in equation d sinθ = mλ. The path difference between two rays will be zero.

8. For the dark fringe, d sinθ = 2λ.

9. According to Huygens, light consist of photons.

10. X-Rays are a type of electromagnetic radiations of much shorter wavelengths.

Encircle the most suitable answer from the given ones in each question

11. According to Huygens principle, light travels in the form of:-

a. None of the above b. Wave fronts c. Photons d. Corpuscles

12. The wavelength of light can be guessed by:-

a. Refraction b. Interference c. Diffraction d. Reflection

13. According to Young’s double slit experiment, a clear interference is obtained due to:-

a. White screen b. Small separation between slits

c. Short wavelength of light d. Long wavelength of light

14. Interference produced by the reflected light is constructive if the thickness of the their film is:-

a. (m+ 1) λ_n b.(m+ 1/2) λ_n c. Approximately zero d. Very small

15. Diffraction of x-rays by crystals shows that:-

a. The intensity of x-rays is high b. X-rays have very short focal length

c. X-rays are just like visible light d. X-rays are electromagnetic waves

16. Polarization of light proves that light waves are:-

a. Very fast moving waves b. Electromagnetic waves

c. Longitudinal waves d. Transverse waves

17. Two independent light sources do not show interference because they are not:-

a. Coherent b. Mechanical waves

c. Obeying the inverse square law d. Having the same intensity

18. The direction of propagation of light ray is:-

a. Parallel to the plane wave front b. Parallel to the wave front

c. Perpendicular to the wave front d. Independent of the plane of the wave front

19. Fringe spacing in the interference pattern produced by Young’s double slit experiment depends upon:-

a. Size of the screen b. Intensity of light c. Size of the slits

d. Distance between the slits and the screen

20. Interference of light takes place due to the:-

a. All of the above b. Product of amplitudes of waves

c. Angular superposition of waves d. Linear superposition of waves

21. Light is type of ___ which produces sensation of vision.

a. Object b. Energy c. Force

22. Waves emitted from the source with speed C, after time t travels a distance _____

a. Ct b. bt c. It

23. A surface on which all the points have the same phase of vibration is called ____..

a. Wave Length b. Wave Front c. Wave Amplitude

24. Every point on wave front is considered as a _____ of secondary wavelets.

a. Outlet b. Measure c. Source

25. The Interfering beams of light must be coherent and ______

a. Monochromatic b. Non-monochromatic c. Dichromatic d. Non-chromatic

26. The bright fringes are termed as ______

a. Minimal b. Maxima c. Minima d. Minimum

27. Distance between two consecutive wave fronts is called ______

a. Wave amplitude b. Wave length c. Frequency d. Wave front

28. Polarization of light proves that light consists of ______ waves.

a. Horizontal b. Transverse c. Vertical

29. In NaCl crystal inter atomic planes are separated by a distance compared to the wavelength of

a. Y-Rays b. X-Rays c. Gamma Rays

30. Light waves emitted from a source will propagate with

a. Less than Speed of light b. Speed of sound c. Speed of light

31. In constructive interference, the amplitude of the resultant wave will

a. Greater than that of individual waves b. Smaller than that of individual waves

32. For the interference of light waves the beams of light must be

a. Monochromatic and coherent b. Coherent c. Monochromatic

33. mλ

a. λ L + d b. λ L / d c. λ L x d

34. Path difference for constructive interference in diffraction grating is

a. mλ b.1/2mλ c.1/4mλ

35. Plano convex lens of long focal length is used to form

a. Newton’s Laws a. Octet Law a. Newton’s Rings

36. Wave length of x-rays

-2 2 -10

a. 10 m b. 10 m c.10 m

37. An ordinary incandescent light emits

a. Un-polarized light b. polarized light

38. The direction of polarization in a plane polarized light wave is taken as the direction of

a. The magnetic field vector b. The electric field vector

39. Optically active crystals can be used to determine their

a. Magnetic field vector b. Concentration of the solutions c. Electric field vector

40. The corpuscular nature of light was given by

a. Huygens b. Maxwell c. Newton. d. Thomas Young

41. Huygens’s principal is used to,

a. Determine the speed of light b. Locate the wave front

c. Explain polarization d. Find index of refraction

43. The electromagnetic wave theory was proposed by

a. Hertz b. Maxwell c. Huygens d. Young

44. The speed of light in vacuum depends upon

a. frequency b. wavelength c. velocity d. none of these

45. The wave length of light is 6000^oA, the number of waves continued in 0.01 m distance will be

a. 1.6 X 10⁴ b.3 X 10³ c.2 X 10⁶ d.4 X 10⁸

47. Which one of the following is approximately monochromatic light,

a. Light from Neon Lamp b. Light from Fluorescent lamp

c. Light from Sodium lamp d. Light from Magnesium lamp

48. Interference, between light from two independent sources is not possible because

a. They don't give light of same wavelengths b. They don’t give light of same amplitudes

c. Phase difference between them is not constant d. due to some other reason

49. A unit suitable for the measurement of Plank's constant

a. Joule-see b. Watt c. Newton d. Kg

50. A thin film of variable thickness is illuminated by a parallel beam of white light. The colour of the film at a certain point depends upon

a. the thickness of the film at that point b. the refractive index of the film

c. The angle of incidence d. All Of the above.

51. In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.2 mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m away. The distance between the fourth bright fringe and the central bright fringe is measured to be 1.2 cm. What is the wavelength of light used in the experiment?

a. 200 nm b. 400 nm c. 600 nm d. 800 nm

52. If N is the number of lines in a unit length then the grating element d is given by , The frequency of visible light

is of the order of

a. 10³Hz b. 10^-3Hz c. 10¹⁵Hz

53. Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

a. Blue light b. Gamma ray c. X-ray

54. Two sources of light are coherent if they emit

a. same wavelength, b. same amplitude of vibration

c. same wavelength with constant phase difference d. same wavelength and amplitude

55. Sound waves can easily bend around corners while light waves bend only slightly due to their extremely

a. low frequency b. High Frequency c. Short Wavelength d. High velocity

56. Water waves

a. Can be polarized b. Can not be polarized because they are longitudinal .

c. Are polarized. d. Can be polarized because they are longitudinal .

57. When x-rays are diffracted by crystals the condition for Constructive interference of diffracted rays is given by , To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle

a. Should be of the same order as the wavelength b. Should be much larger than the wavelength

c. Has no relation to wavelength d. Should be exactly half the wavelength

58. In Young's double slit experiment. If the distance between the slits is made 3 fold the fringe

a. 1/3 fold b. 3 fold c. 1/9 fold d. 9 fold

59. An astronaut in earth satellite will observe the sky as

a. White b. Black c. Deep blue d. light blue

60. Interference and diffraction of light support the

a. wave nature of light b. quantum nature of light

c. transverse nature of light d. complex nature of light.

61. Which one of the following cannot be polarized?

a. ultraviolet b. sound waves c. radio waves d. x-rays

62. Wave Length of x-rays falling at glance angle 30° on crystal with atomic spacing 2x10^-9m for The first order diffraction is ,

a. 4 x10^-6 m b. 2 X 10^-10m c. 0.2 X10^-10m d. 20 X .10^-10m

63. Which of the following cannot be polarized?

a. Radio wave b. X-rays c. Infrared radiation d. Sound waves in air

64. The wave-length of x-rays is of the order of

a. 10 A^O b. 1000 A^O c.1 A^O d. 100 A^O

65. When viewed in white light, soap bubbles show colors because of

a. Interference b. Scattering c. Diffraction d. Dispersion

66. According to Young's double slit experiment, a clear interference is obtained due to. .

a. short wavelength of light. b. long wavelength of light c. small separation between slits d. white screen

67. Diffraction effect is,

a. More for round edge b. Less for round edge c. Mo re for sharp edge d. less for sharp edge

68. The fringe width in young's double slit experiment can be increased by decreasing

a. Separation of the slits b. Frequency of the source of light

c. Distance between slit and the screen d. Wavelength of the source of light

69. The phenomenon of polarizations done by

a. Selection absorption b. Refraction through crystals

c. Scattering through particles d. All of above

70. Polarizer are made by special substances called

a. dichoric substances b. Super conductor c. Organic substances d. None of above 71. Sunlight reaches earth nearly in the form of:

a. plane wave fronts b. Circular wave fronts

c. Spherical wave fronts d. All of the above

72. In Bragg’s relation, the angle  is called

a. Glancing angle b. reflection angle

c. refraction angle d. none of these

Physics, Unit # 17, Physics of Solids, Ch # 17, F. Sc Part-II

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Wed, 10 Aug 2016 04:03:00 +0000

1. An element /compound with a definite volume and shape is called a

a. Symmetric substance b. Liquid c. Solid d. Gas

2. A solid having regular arrangement of molecules throughout its structure is called

a. Super solid b. crystalline solid c. Perfect solid d. Plasma

3. A solid having irregular arrangement of molecules is called

a. Polymeric b. amorphous solid c. Ideal solid d. none

4. Identify the polymer substance among the following

a. Glass b. Iron c. Plastic d. All of these

5. A crystal lattice is

a. random arrangement of atoms in a crystal

b. An order arrangement of points in space at which the atom, ions or molecule are positioned

c. A random arrangement of molecules but orderly arrangements of atoms

d. A piece of crystal

6. When the temperature of a semiconductor is increased, its electrical conductor is increased, its electrical conductivity

a. Increases b. Remains the same c. Decreases d. First increases than decreases

7. A semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops almost to zero. The device may be

a. a p-type semi conductor b. an n-type Semi conductor

c. a Pn junction d. An intrinsic semi conductor

8. Identify the crystalline solids among the following

a. Graphite b. Diamond d. All of these

9. Definite geometry in a crystalline solid repeats itself along

a. one dimension b. Along two dimensions

c. Along three dimensions d. All of the above

10. Crystal lattice is a

a. 3-D arrangement of particles at their position b. 2 D arrangement of particles

c. 1-Darrangement of particles d. All of the above

11. The smallest part of a crystal lattice is called

a. An ion b. A molecule c. an Atom d. a unit cell

12. Polymers may consist of

a. Carbon b. Combination of C + O₂

c. Combination of C, 0₂, H₂, N₂, Cu, F_e etc d. None of these

13. Crystal structure of NaCl

a. Trigonal b. Cubical c. hexagonal d. Monoclinic

14. The atoms in a solid are held together by

a. Adhesive force b. Cohesive force c. Solid force d. resistive force

15. An external deforming force applied on a crystal may changes its

a. Shape only b. Length only c. Volume only d. All of the above

16. The characteristics of crystals can be studied by the use of

a. X-rays b. Sound waves c. Infra-red rays d. all of these

17. The ability of anybody to return to its original shape is called

a. Elasticity b. Elastic force c. Stress d. Strain

18. The SI unit of stress is

a. N/m² b. Nm c. dynes/m d. N

19. The measure of deformation in a certain solid due to the-action of stress is called

a. Hook’s Law b. mechanical advantage c. Stress d. Strain

20. The S1 unit of strain is

a. N b. Dynes c. Pascal d. Dimensionless

21. A solid subjected to deformation along one dimension

a. Only have tensile stress b. Only have compressive stress

c. Have both tensile and compressive stress d. None of the above

22. A stress which increases the length along one dimension only is called

a. Compressive stress b. Only have compressive stress

c. Have both tensi1e and compressive stress d. None of the above

23. Stress can be classified into

a. Linear and compressive stress b. Linear and shear stress

c. Linear compressive and shear stress d. All of the above

24. Doping of a semi conductor (with small traces-of impurity atoms) generally changes the resistivity as follows

a. increases b. Does not alter c. Increases d. May increases or decreases depending on the dopant

25. On increasing the reverse bias to a large value in a Pn junction diode, the current

a. Increases slowly b. Remains fixed c. 1ncreases suddenly d. Decreases slowly

26. The strain is the ratio of

a. stress / strain b. strain / stress c. Force / Area d. Change in length/ Original length

27. The depletion layer in the PN junction region is caused by

a. drift of holes b. diffusion of carries c. migration of impurity d. drifts of electrons

28. The ratio of stress / strain is called as

a. Modulus of elasticity b. Young's modulus c. Bulk modulus d. Shear Modulus

29. The ratio of tensile Stress to tensile strain

a. Force b. Young's modulus c. Bulk Modulus d. Shear Modulus

30. In insulators

a. the valence band is partially filled with electrons b. the conductance band is partially filled with electrons

c. The conductance band is filled with electrons ad the valence band is empty

d. the construction band is empty and the valence band is filled with electrons 31. Which of the following is not a properly of a crystalline solid?

a. Sharp melting point b. Flat surfaces

c. Isotropic electric conductivity d. Long range order.

32. What makes a solid possess a definite shape?

a. Negligibly small thermal motion b. long range order

c. Higher Kinetic energy of molecules d. None of the above

33. The ratio of volumetric stress to volumetric strain is called

a. Young' modules b. Bulk modulus c. Shear modulus

34. The SI unit of stress is same as that of

a. Momentum b. Pressure c. Force d. Length

35. Crystals are classified into

a. 3 groups b. 4 groups c. 7 groups d. infinite

36. Seven system I groups were classified by

a. Hook’s Law b. August Braves c. Young's d. Bragg's

37. The greatest stress that a material can bear without any permanent change in its shape or dimension is called permanent

a. Super stress b. Infinite stress c. Stress d. Proportional limit

38. Point out ductile substance among the following

a. Wrought Iron b. Copper c. Lead d. All of these

39. A solid with intermediate crystalline order is called

a. Plasma b. Polymeric solid c. amorphous solid d. All of the above

40. The characteristics of crystals can be studied by the use of

a. X-rays b. Sound waves c. Infrared rays d. All of above

41. If the electron is hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit the second orbit, the emitted radiation has wavelength

(R is Rydberg's constant)

a. 36/5R b. 5R/36 c. 6/5R d. 5R/6

42. Nylon breaks when the stress within it reaches 1x10⁹ Pa. Which range includes the heavies load that could be lifted by a nylon thread of diameter1mm?

a. 2N to 20N b. 20N to 200N c.200N to 2000N d. 2000N to 20000N

Physics, Unit # 18, Electronics, F. Sc Part-II MCQs

noreply@blogger.com (Anonymous) — Wed, 10 Aug 2016 03:59:00 +0000

1. Depletion regions has

a. Electrons only b. holes only c. Neither Electrons nor Holes d. Both Electrons and Holes

2. For rectification we use

a. Diode b. Transformer c. capacitor d. none of these

3. Reverse biasing the CB junction of a transistor

a. Reverse -biases the EB junction b. Forward biases the EB junction c. Is necessary for it to amplify d. Is not necessary for it to amplify

4. Specially designed semi conductor diodes used as indicator lamps in electronic circuits are

a. Photodiodes b. Solar cells c. LED d. Photovoltaic cell

d. none of them

5. Which one of the following is correct for a common emitter (CE) amplifier?

a. Its current gain is high b. It has very high voltage gain c. It produces high power gain d. All of them

6. Since the input resistance of an ideal OP-amplifier is infinite

a. its output resistance is zero b. It becomes a current controlled device c. its input current is zero

7. An open loop OP-amplifier has output voltage V_o and difference between non inverting input voltage Vi its open loop gain is given by

o c. A_OL =V_o

2/R₁

a. A_OL=V_o/Vi b. A_OL=V_i/V x Vi d. none of the two

8. The closed loop gain of an OP-amplifier is G = -R .the negative sign shows that output signal is out of phase w.r.t. input signal by

a. 45⁰ b. 90⁰ c. 180⁰d. 270⁰

9. Linear integrated circuits (LICs) find their applications in

a. operational amplifiers b. voltage comparators c. comparator d. all of them

10. The emitter-base junction of a transistor is usually

a. forward biased b. reverse biased c. non-conduction d. working in the break-down region

11. The output of 2-input Or gates is 0 only when its

a. both inputs are 0 b. either input is 1 c. both inputs are 1 d. either input is 0

12. An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are

a. high b. low c. different d. same

13. Equivalent logic circuit of XOR gate can be designed by the combination of

a. AND, OR and NOT gates b. NAND, NOR and NOR gates

c. NOT, AND, and NOR gates d. NOT, AND and NOR gates

14. Equivalent logic circuit of XNOR gate can be designed by the combination of

a.AND, OR , and NOT gate b. AND, NOR, and NOT gate

c. NAND, AND, and NOR gate d. NAND, AND and NOR gates

15. Donor impurities are

a. Germanium, Silicon etc b. Indium, Gallium etc c. Antimony, arsenic etc. d. Sodium, Zinc etc.

16. In full wave rectification, the output DC voltage across the load is obtained for

a. The positive half cycle of input AC only b. The negative half cycle of input AC only

c. The completes cycle of input AC only d. All of the above

17. Demodulation

a. Is performed at the transmitting station b. Removes side bands

c. Rectifies modulated signal d. Is opposite to of modulation

18. In amplitude modulation

a. Carrier frequency is changed b. Carrier amplitude is changed

c. Three sides bands are produced d. Fidelity is improved

19. 100% modulation is produced in AM when carrier,

a. Frequency equals signal frequency b. Frequency exceed signal frequency

c. Amplitude equals signals amplitude d. Amplitude exceed signals amplitude 20. A non conducting semiconductor diode is

a. Forward biased b. Poorly biased c. Reverse biased d. None

21. Special algebra used in digital system is called

a. De-Morgan Algebra b. Bernoulli's Algebra c. Boolean's Algebra d. All of the above

22. Photovoltaic cell is device that converts

a. Light energy into electrical energy b. Chemical energy into electrical energy

c. Light energy into sound energy d. None of these

23. Identify which one is might be the most important building block of Circuit any complex; electric circuit

a. diode b. Resistor c. Thermistor d. Amplifier

24. The barrier potential across the p-n junction is created by

a. majority carriers b. minority carries c. fixed rows of oppositely charged ions d. depletion layer 25. The barrier potential of silicon diode at room temperature is .

a. 0.3 V b. 0.7 Vc. 1 V d. 2mV

a. increases under forward bias b. is independent of applied voltage26. The width of depletion region of a junction

c. increases under revere bias d. None of them

27. A non-conduction semiconductor diode is

a. forward biased b. poorly biased c. reverse biased d. None

28. The characteristics of a transistor are

a. Light dependents b. Temperature dependant c. Energy dependent d. Sound dependant

29. A photo diode is usually made from

a. bismuth b. antimony c. Silicon d. None

30. A light emitting diode (LED) is made from

a. gallium arsenide (GaAs) b. gallium phosphide (GaP) c. gallium arsenic phosphide (GaAsP) d. all of them

31. A light emitting diode (LED) emits light only when

a. forward biased b. reverse biased c. unbiased d. none of them

32. A photo-diode can switch its current ON or OFF in

a. milli-seconds b. micro-seconds c. nano-second d. centi-second

33. The term transistor stands for

a. transfer resistor b. transfer of voltage c. transfer of power d. transfer of current

34. The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it

a. has to dissipate maximum power b. has to supply the charge carries

c. is the first region of the transistor d. must posses low resistance

35. For proper working of transistors in normal circuit

a. emitter-base junction is reverse biased and collector-base junction is forward biased

b. emitter-base junction is forward biased and collector-base junction is reverse biased

c. emitter-base junction is forward biased and collector-base junction is forward biased d. none of them

36. Transistor is an electronic device that has

a. two terminals b. Three terminals c. four terminals d. None of them

37. For common-emitter configuration of n-p-n transistor, the current gain  is given by

a. IC / IB b. IB / Ic c. IE / IB d. IE/ IB

38. The transistor is basically a

a. Voltage amplifier b. current amplifier c. Rectifier d. None of these

39. A diode can convert

a. ac into dc but not dc into ac b. dc into ac but not ac into dc

c. ac into dc & dc into ac d. neither ac into dc nor dc into ac

40. In a transistor

a. Length of emitter is greater than that of collector b. Length of collector is greater is greater than that of emitter

c. 80th collector and emitter have the same length d. Anyone of emitter or collector can have greater length

41. In a transistor, the basic is

a. An insulator b. A conductor of higher resistance

c. A conductors of lowers resistance d. An extrinsic semiconductors.

1	c	21	c
2	a	22	b
3	b	23	b
4	a	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	b	26	a
7	b	27	b
8	d	28	b
9	b	29	c
10	c	30	b
11	b	31	d
12	b	32	d
13	d	33	b
14	a	34	d
15	c	35	b
16	d	36	b
17	b	37	a
18	d	38	d
19	c	39	c
20	a	40	b

1	a	21	a
2	c	22	c
3	c	23	d
4	c	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	d	26	b
7	b	27	d
8	c	28	d
9	c	29	d
10	d	30	a
11	c	31	a
12	c	32	b
13	d	33	d
14	a	34	c
15	b	35	a
16	a	36	c
17	d	37	d
18	c	38	b
19	a	39	a
20	b	40	d

1	d	21	a
2	c	22	d
3	c	23	c
4	c	24	b
5	b	25	c
6	c	26	a
7	c	27	c
8	c	28	d
9	b	29	c
10	a	30	a
11	d	31	d
12	a	32	a
13	b	33	d
14	d	34	b
15	c	35	d
16	b	36	d
17	b	37	a
18	a	38	b
19	d	39	b
20	b	40	b

1	c	21	c
2	a	22	b
3	b	23	b
4	a	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	b	26	a
7	b	27	b
8	d	28	b
9	b	29	c
10	c	30	b
11	b	31	d
12	b	32	d
13	d	33	b
14	a	34	d
15	c	35	b
16	d	36	b
17	b	37	a
18	d	38	d
19	c	39	c
20	a	40	b

1	a	21	a
2	c	22	c
3	c	23	d
4	c	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	d	26	b
7	b	27	d
8	c	28	d
9	c	29	d
10	d	30	a
11	c	31	a
12	c	32	b
13	d	33	d
14	a	34	c
15	b	35	a
16	a	36	c
17	d	37	d
18	c	38	b
19	a	39	a
20	b	40	d

1	d	21	a
2	c	22	d
3	c	23	c
4	c	24	b
5	b	25	c
6	c	26	a
7	c	27	c
8	c	28	d
9	b	29	c
10	a	30	a
11	d	31	d
12	a	32	a
13	b	33	d
14	d	34	b
15	c	35	d
16	b	36	d
17	b	37	a
18	a	38	b
19	d	39	b
20	b	40	b

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1	c	21	c
2	a	22	b
3	b	23	b
4	a	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	b	26	a
7	b	27	b
8	d	28	b
9	b	29	c
10	c	30	b
11	b	31	d
12	b	32	d
13	d	33	b
14	a	34	d
15	c	35	b
16	d	36	b
17	b	37	a
18	d	38	d
19	c	39	c
20	a	40	b

1	a	21	a
2	c	22	c
3	c	23	d
4	c	24	b
5	c	25	c
6	d	26	b
7	b	27	d
8	c	28	d
9	c	29	d
10	d	30	a
11	c	31	a
12	c	32	b
13	d	33	d
14	a	34	c
15	b	35	a
16	a	36	c
17	d	37	d
18	c	38	b
19	a	39	a
20	b	40	d

1	d	21	a
2	c	22	d
3	c	23	c
4	c	24	b
5	b	25	c
6	c	26	a
7	c	27	c
8	c	28	d
9	b	29	c
10	a	30	a
11	d	31	d
12	a	32	a
13	b	33	d
14	d	34	b
15	c	35	d
16	b	36	d
17	b	37	a
18	a	38	b
19	d	39	b
20	b	40	b