BANK EXAMS MADE EASY

2011-04-22T21:11:00.002-07:00

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK MANAGEMENT TRAINEES MAIN EXAM PATTERN

Punjab National Bank (PNB) has released the written test results of its recruitment for 390 Management Trainee posts.These vacancies were advertised along with other officer postings in various departments.
The PNB management trainee selection process consists of Written test (Preliminary & Main), Group discussion, Computer proficiency test & Interview.The preliminary test was conducted on November 28, 2010 for which the results have been declared.The roll numbers of those selected can be downloaded from here (pdf file)

No GD: The bank has also announced that Group discussion & Computer proficiency test have been dropped & will not be conducted.Hence it seems, candidates selected through main exam would proceed to the Interview stage directly.

PNB Main Exam: For the written test (mains) to be conducted on Feb 13, 2011 at Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai & Kolkata centres - here is the pattern:

Test paper	Questions	Marks	Duration
General awareness & Computer skills Quantitative aptitude & Reasoning English Language Marketing	80 80 50 50	80 80 50 50	150 minutes
Descriptive Test in English	3	50	60 minutes

Details on test location,time & more info on this test might be sent to candidates selected in preliminary individually.

2011-04-22T21:11:00.000-07:00

Punjab National Bank Specialist Officers Exam., 2010

English Language (Held on 4-10-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

What Indian politicians and bureaucrats share with their scientist, engineer and carpenter counterparts is their acceptance of mediocrity and lack of skill. The greatest moral failure of Indian institutions is the tolerance of incompetence, …(1)… criminality or corruption. The tolerance of incompetence in …(2)… is a result of a low cultural value attached to the creation and …(3)… of institutions.

Institution building is a hard work; it requires a combination of vision, commitment and performance. Any institution involves a contract between those who …(4)… to the institution and those who support it. The support can take the form of money or votes but that support must be …(5)… continuously. In a properly functioning institutional system, the institutional contract …(6)… the institution members and their supporters takes the form : you give me support and I will give you results. Competence is the channel that sustains the flow of trust from supporters to institutions and back. If doctors don’t cure will they not lose our trust ? While blaming individual politicians and babus for their corrupt ways, let us also examine the system that accepts mediocrity and even lets it …(7)….

What we are seeing in India is a case of contract failure. The contractor who bribes an official and then builds a leaky stadium is not just being …(8)…. He is sustaining a collusive system that subverts rules regulating mutual co-operation between government institutions, market players and society as a whole. In the case of endemic contract failure everyone …(9)…, including the contractor, for once the public loses its trust in institution is even businessmen will …(10)… out on opportunities to make money. The moral status of institutions is central to continued development and prosperity.

1. (A) as
(B) to
(C) never
(D) not
(E) for
Ans : (D)

2. (A) turn
(B) individual
(C) world
(D) partly
(E) importance
Ans : (B)

3. (A) destruction
(B) justification
(C) sustenance
(D) excess
(E) marginalization
Ans : (C)

4. (A) belong
(B) work
(C) help
(D) employed
(E) trust
Ans : (A)

5. (A) returned
(B) earned
(C) needed
(D) discouraged
(E) asked
Ans : (C)

6. (A) suggests
(B) akin
(C) twosome
(D) centered
(E) between
Ans : (E)

7. (A) question
(B) bolder
(C) thrive
(D) out
(E) kill
Ans : (C)

8. (A) variant
(B) trivial
(C) immature
(D) corrupt
(E) generous
Ans : (D)

9. (A) succeeds
(B) suffers
(C) proliferates
(D) responsible
(E) encompasses
Ans : (B)

10. (A) storm
(B) venture
(C) lose
(D) get
(E) walk
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) Thus, if we really value it, we will work hard to make it a reality.
(b) Inner peace is the most elusive thing that a human being can seek.
(c) The most important criterion in order to experience it is to value the importance of inner peace.
(d) To experience inner peace one doesn’t have to retreat to a Himalayan cave; rather, one can experience inner peace seated exactly where they are by watching these thoughts.
(e) Nobody can gift the other inner peace at the same time it is only one’s own thoughts that can rob them of their inner peace.

11. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)

15. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. After ……… payrolls and tightening perks to cope with the economic slowdown last year, software companies are finding that a rising number of engineering and management graduates are transferring their ……… to vocations such as manufacturing and banking.
(A) trimming - loyalties
(B) reducing - accounts
(C) hiking - services
(D) increased - affections
(E) dropped – potentials
Ans : (A)

17. It is very important to ……… that when the swine flu virus enters a human body, it takes a minimum of one day to a maximum of eight days for the disease to develop ……….
(A) gauge - extensively
(B) ascertain - further
(C) understand - fully
(D) verify - remarkably
(E) fathom – clearly
Ans : (C)

18. Scientists, working to save the earth, have ……… ‘dry water’ that soaks carbon three times better than water, and hence helps ……… global warming.
(A) aided - cut
(B) created - combat
(C) built - stop
(D) produced - increase
(E) invented – monitoring
Ans : (B)

19. The first round of the contest had the students ……… themselves and ……… about their hobbies.
(A) introducing - talking
(B) sensitizing - sketching
(C) showcasing - planning
(D) acclimatizing - mentioning
(E) gearing – chalking
Ans : (D)

20. The varsity’s poll process for ……… of new candidates has ……… poor response with only ten thousand applications being received till date.
(A) entrusting - seen
(B) registration - evoked
(C) entrance - made
(D) admission - visited
(E) experimenting – generated
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

21. Initially, shop owners tried to (A) / offer some resistance to the demolition but (B) / seeing the heavy presence of the police force, (C) / their resistance faded off. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

22. Cleanliness drives will be (A) / conducted in various localities (B) / to opening the drains blocked (C) / with polythene bags. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. The results of the study showed that (A) / if the partners were willing to talk to each other (B) / and arrive at a mutually agreeable decision,` (C) / the joint decisions were more better than any one person’s judgment. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. A year after the global financial crisis saw (A) / students from the best B-schools across the world struggling for a job, (B) / a survey on management education this year thrown (C) / up some rather interesting findings. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. The district authorities are making (A) / a last-ditch attempt to provide (B) / alternative solutions to farmers but (C) / the options is clearly inadequate. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the time when the unfortunate incident of the ‘accidental’ exposure to radiation that affected workers and waste collectors in Delhi as they handled radioactive material, took place, the issue of waste disposal, particularly hazardous waste, made the headlines. The lives of those who live off collecting and sorting waste came into out line of vision. But then the issue disappeared.

Long term policies that ensure that the safety and health of those who do such an essential job – “a community of silent environmentalists” someone called them – are not such a high priority any more. One reason is that the people affected are virtually invisible.

Waste collectors around India work silently, often late into the night, sorting out mountains of waste, foraging for anything that can be sold. If you walk down some streets of Central Mumbai after 11 at night, you will see an army of waste collectors. Men, women, children are all hard at work. They work through the night and finally manage to get some sleep on the doorsteps of the shops on those streets. By daylight they become invisible, having stowed their belongings in boxes behind the signs of the shops on whose doorsteps they sleep. These are the people of the night, not noticed by those who inhabit the areas in the day.

What is often not entirely appreciated is that a substantial percentage of waste collectors is women. According to a study, 85 per cent of waste collectors in the city are women, five per cent are children and 10 per cent are men. The majority of them are poor and landless people who came to the city because of drought in their villages. The age group ranges from 7 to 70 years and 98 per cent of them are illiterate. A survey of 60,000 waste collectors found a similar proportion : 60 per cent women, 20 per cent men and 20 per cent children. Studies have revealed that 90 per cent of the women waste pickers are primary bread-winners, often widowed or deserted. It is interesting how the gender division of labour plays out even in the business of waste. While women, and children, do the more hazardous job of sorting and separating the waste, the men deal with the dry garbage, which they transport to wholesalers and factories. As a result, it is the women who are exposed to hazardous waste – none of them wear any kind of protective gear – and also face the physical problems of constantly bending and carrying head loads of the waste. Look at any group of waste collectors and you will spot the bent old women who have been performing this function for decades.

In the slum-city of Mumbai, waste collectors experience the most acute degree of homelessness. While poor people in other kinds of jobs somehow manage to find some shelter in a slum, irrespective of whether it is legal or illegal, waste collectors sleep next to the garbage they have sorted. This is their “wealth”, something they have to protect after they have collected and sorted it until they can monetize it. Hence, near many garbage dumps, even in the better off localities of cities like Mumbai, you see families of waste pickers asleep in the morning. And most often you see only women and children.

Why bring up waste collectors at a time when the main environmental issues being debated are the larger issues of global warming, or environmental disasters such as the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico ? This is because one cannot speak of the environment without considering its impact on the lives of people. We have hundreds of small-scale and continuing environmental disasters taking place all around us. But we overlook them so long as they do not impact our lives or our lifestyles. Millions of waste pickers in India, who play a crucial role in dealing with the perennial environmental crisis of waste, risk their lives and their health every single day. This is an on-going environmental issue that requires as much attention from ordinary people, the media and policy makers as the larger macro issues.

26. Why are long term policies favouring waste collectors not high priority ?
(A) The Government is currently contemplating over the effects of the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico and does not have time for other issues.
(B) The plight of these people is not evident as they work late into the night and are not seen much during the day.
(C) The Government is unable to see these people at all and thus is not aware of their existence.
(D) These waste collectors themselves are not in favour of being brought into the organized sector because of the numerous complications involved.
(E) As previous such favourable policies failed to improve the conditions of these waste collectors as they were not implemented effectively.
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following is true about waste collectors as given in the passage ?
1. Majority of waste collectors are people who have migrated from their village because of some natural calamity.
2. Waste collectors prefer to sleep next to the garbage they have sorted.
3. Most waste collectors are not literate.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are true.
Ans : (E)

28. Why are women waste collectors at a disadvantage as compared to the men waste collectors as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) The men sell the waste collected by the women to wholesalers and keep all the money to themselves without sharing it with the women.
(B) The women do the more dangerous and physical work of sorting through the garbage whereas men mostly transport dry garbage.
(C) Men wear protective gear while sorting through the garbage thereby shielding themselves from the ill effects of being exposed to the waste.
(D) The men force their wives and children to work for them whereas the women do not have this luxury.
(E) The men are not as affected by the waste as the women waste collectors because of the difference in their physical constitution.
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The General Public’s Apathetic ways
(B) The Unorganized Sector
(C) The Invisible Waste
(D) Waste Collectors – The World Over
(E) Recognizing the ‘Work’ in ‘Dirty Work’
Ans : (B)

30. Why, according to the author, is the issue of waste collectors as important as the issue of global warming ?
1. As most waste collectors in big cities are children who are ultimately the future of our nation.
2. As without the waste collectors sorting waste the phenomenon of global warming would increase exponentially.
3. As waste collectors deal with wastage which impacts the people’s everyday lives and is also environmentally significant.
(A) Only (2) and (3)
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–33) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

31. INHABIT
(A) Reside in
(B) Encompass
(C) Infest
(D) Submerge
(E) Are used to
Ans : (A)

32. FORAGING
(A) Penetrating
(B) Incising
(C) Probing
(D) Begging
(E) Searching
Ans : (E)

33. MONETIZE
(A) Currency
(B) Buy
(C) Encash
(D) Regulate
(E) Pay
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 34–35) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

34. CONSIDERING
(A) Untying
(B) Remembering
(C) Understanding
(D) Disregarding
(E) Condemning
Ans : (D)

35. HAZARDOUS
(A) Pleasant
(B) Efficient
(C) Important
(D) Risky
(E) Harmless
Ans : (E)

2011-04-22T21:10:00.003-07:00

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam. 2009 Solved Paper

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2009
Professional Knowledge (Economics)
(Held on 16-8-2009)

1. Say’s Law of Markets states that—
(A) Demand creates its own supply
(B) Supply creates its own demand
(C) Demand creates its own demand
(D) Supply creates its own supply
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. Malthusian theory of population is based on—
(A) Harmonic progression of population
(B) Geometric progression of food production
(C) Arithmetic progression of population
(D) Geometric progression of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (D)

3. Gresham’s Law states that—
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Both good money and bad money may co-exist
(D) Neither bad money nor good money may be long in circulation
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. The on-going melt down had its origin in—
(A) The real sector
(B) The financial sector
(C) The service sector
(D) The textile sector
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. A competitive firm maximizes its profit when—
(A) MR = AR
(B) MR = MC
(C) MC = AC
(D) MC = AR
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. ‘Supernormal’ profit may exist in a market due to—
(A) Asymmetry of information
(B) Restriction of information
(C) Quantity restriction
(D) Price restriction
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

7. Profit is caused by—
(A) Dynamic element in the economy
(B) Innovation
(C) Windfall
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Interest is paid—
(A) To compensate for inflation
(B) Due to superiority of present over future goods
(C) Because demand for money outstrips its supply
(D) To ensure the growth of the real sector
(E) All the above
Ans : (B)

9. Investment is defined as a—
(A) Deployment of a sum in business operations
(B) Purchasing an interest bearing bond
(C) Change in the stock of capital
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. The unproductive expenditure of the rich is—
(A) Necessary to the employment of the poor
(B) An impediment to the growth of an economy
(C) Having no bearing on the economy
(D) Having bearing only on the economy of the rich
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains—
(A) Pattern of trade in terms of relative factor endowments of countries
(B) Why a country may import products which use extensively the country’s scarce factor
(C) The law of comparative cost
(D) The concept of reciprocal demand
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

12. ‘Quasi-rents’—
(A) Are in the nature of free gifts
(B) May be applicable to all factors of production
(C) Comprise of all the returns to the firm in excess of the returns of the marginal firm
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The indifference curve technique is essentially—
(A) A cardinal approach
(B) An ordinal approach
(C) A quasi-ordinal approach
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. The slope of an indifference curve expresses—
(A) The marginal rate of substitution of two goods
(B) A ratio of marginal utility of one good to another
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) A ratio of total utility of one good to another
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. ‘Pass through’ effect in international trade theory refers to—
(A) The proportion of an exchange rate change that is reflected in export and import price change
(B) Exports and imports not facing any tariff barrier
(C) Exports and imports not facing any technical barrier
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations—
(A) Started in 1986 and completed at the end of 1993
(B) Aimed at reversing the rising trend of non-tariff trade barriers
(C) Replaced the GATT with WTO
(D) Brought services and agriculture into WTO
(E) All of the above
Ans : (E)

17. Product Cycle Model in international trade theory (Vernon, 1966)—
(A) Is an extension of technological gap model
(B) Is an extension of Heckscher-Ohlin model
(C) Explains dynamic comparative advantage of new products and new processes of production
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

18. Hedging and speculation in forex markets—
(A) Are opposite activities
(B) Parallel activities
(C) Same activities
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. A currency swap refer to—
(A) A spot sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of single transaction
(B) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of a single transaction
(C) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—in two different transactions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Public-Private Partnership projects in India are mostly related to—
(A) Airports
(B) Ports
(C) Railways
(D) Roads
(E) Urban development
Ans : (D)

21. The largest share in the short term money market of India in recent times belonged to the segment—
(A) Collaterised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO)
(B) Traditional repo
(C) Clearcorp Repo Over Matching System (CROMS)
(D) Call
(E) Others
Ans : (D)

22. As per the revised estimate of CSO, the GDP in India at factor cost during 2008-09 was—
(A) Rs. 28,71,120 crore
(B) Rs. 31,29,717 crore
(C) Rs. 33, 39,375 crore
(D) Rs. 44,82,436 crore
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. Mid Day Meal Scheme—
(A) Is a centrally funded and largest school meal scheme in the world
(B) Provides each child in government and government aided school a minimum of 300 calories and 8–12 gm of protein each day of school for a minimum of 200 days
(C) Provides lunch to about 120 million children
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Insurance penetration is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Insurance density is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

26. Minimum Support Prices of crops are recommended by—
(A) Planning Commission of India
(B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
(C) Finance Commission of India
(D) Farmers’ Commission of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. The Electricity (Amendment) Act 2007—
(A) Dispensed with licence requirement for sale from captive units
(B) Provided for joint effort by the Central and State governments for providing access to all areas including villages and markets
(C) Expanded the definition of theft to cover the use of tampered meters
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. In times of slowdown of the economy, the fiscal policy influences aggregate demand through—
(A) Discretionary element
(B) Non-discretionary element
(C) Lowering of tax rates
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Thirteenth Finance Commission is headed by—
(A) Dr. Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(C) Dr. Suresh Tendulkar
(D) Dr. C. H. Hanumantha Rao
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. A constitutionally recognized body is—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Forward Commission
(D) Farmers Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched by GOI in August 2007 with the objective(s) of—
(A) To incentivise the states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors
(B) To ensure that local needs/crops/priorities are better reflected
(C) To achieve the goal of reducing the yield gaps in important crops
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. The Buffer Stock of foodgrains at the beginning of February 2009 stood at—
(A) 16•2 million tonnes
(B) 20•0 million tonnes
(C) 37•4 million tonnes
(D) 36•2 million tonnes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Public Private Partnership came to be introduced in India to—
(A) Mitigate the financial burden of the governments
(B) Respond to the technological change that allow unbundling of infrastructure
(C) Alter the character of goods and services from pure public to private ones
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Heteroscedasticity in econometric analysis means—
(A) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is the same for all i’s
(B) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is not the same for all i’s
(C) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is the same
(D) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is not the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Autocorrelation in econometric analysis refers to—
(A) The correlation between the values of different variables
(B) The correlation between the values of alternative variables
(C) The correlation between successive values of the same variable
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. Durbin-Watson Test is applied in econometric models to test—
(A) Presence of heteroscedasticity in a model
(B) For autocorrelated errors in the sample data
(C) For multicorrelinearity
(D) For autoregressive disturbances
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. A weakly stationary stochastic process is so called, if—
(A) Its mean and variance are constant over time
(B) The value of covariance between two time periods depends only on lag between two time periods
(C) The value of covariance does not depend on the actual time at which the covariance is computed
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. Dummy variables are used in regression models—
(A) To represent important variables that are not qualitatively measurable
(B) To capture the effect of specific attributes
(C) As binary variables
(D) To distinguish between two groups of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (C)

39. Principal components in econometric analysis—
(A) Are linear combinations
(B) Help to increase the degrees of freedom
(C) Help to reduce high degree of multicorrelinearity
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

40. If world population grows at 2•6 per cent, then it will double in—
(A) 44•34 years
(B) 36•92 years
(C) 29•32 years
(D) 26•66 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2011-04-22T21:10:00.001-07:00

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010 Solved Paper

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
Marketing and Computer Knowledge : Solved Paper

(Exam Held on: 4-4-2010)

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1. Marketing function includes—
(A) Designing new products
(B) Advertisements
(C) Publicity
(D) After sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

2. Lead generation can be resorted to by browsing—
(A) Telephone directories
(B) Yellow pages
(C) Internet sites
(D) List of existing customers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

3. Effective selling skills depend on—
(A) Effective lead generation
(B) Sales Call Planning
(C) Territory Allocation
(D) Effective communication skills
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

4. Market Information means—
(A) Knowledge level of marketing staff
(B) Information about marketing staff
(C) Information regarding Share market
(D) Knowledge of related markets
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

5. Marketing channels mean—
(A) Delivery period
(B) Delivery time
(C) Delivery outlets
(D) Delivery place
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

6. ‘Buyer Resistance’ means—
(A) Buyer’s interest in the product being sold
(B) Buyer fighting with the seller
(C) Buyer’s hesitation in buying the product
(D) Buyer becoming a seller
(E) Buyer buying the product
Ans : (C)

7. Marketing is the function of—
(A) Sales persons
(B) Production Department
(C) Planning Department
(D) Team leaders
(E) A collective function of all staff
Ans : (E)

8. A DSA means—
(A) Direct Service Agency
(B) Direct Selling Agent
(C) Double Selling Agent
(D) Distribution Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Service Marketing is resorted to in—
(A) All manufacturing companies
(B) All production houses
(C) Export units
(D) Insurance companies and banks
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

10. Marketing is—
(A) A skilled person’s job
(B) A one day function
(C) A one time act
(D) Required only when a new product is launched
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. Market share refers to—
(A) Share market prices
(B) Price fluctuation in the market
(C) Share issue floated by the company
(D) Share of wallet
(E) Share of business of the company as compared to peers
Ans : (E)

12. Service Marketing is the same as—
(A) Internet marketing
(B) Telemarketing
(C) Internal Marketing
(D) Relationship Marketing
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

13. Current Accounts can be freely opened by ………… Find the incorrect answer.
(A) All NRIs
(B) All businessmen
(C) Government departments
(D) Firms and Companies
(E) HUFs
Ans : (E)

14. Buyer Resistance can be overcome by—
(A) Cordial relation between buyer and seller
(B) Good negotiation
(C) Persuasive communication
(D) Good after sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

15. Cross-selling is useful for canvassing—
(A) Current Accounts
(B) Fixed Deposit Accounts
(C) Student loans
(D) Car loans
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

16. Market segmentation helps to determine—
(A) Target groups
(B) Sale price
(C) Profit levels
(D) Product life cycle
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

17. The target group for Car loans is—
(A) Auto manufacturing companies
(B) Car dealers
(C) Taxi drivers
(D) Car purchasers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. The best promotional tool in any marketing is—
(A) e-promotion
(B) Public Relations
(C) Viral marketing
(D) Word of mouth publicity
(E) Advertisements
Ans : (E)

19. Customisation results in—
(A) Customer exodus
(B) Customer retention
(C) Customer complaints
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. The target group for Education Loans is—
(A) All parents
(B) All Professors
(C) All Research Scholars
(D) All Tutorial Colleges
(E) All College Students
Ans : (E)

21. Find the correct sentence.
(A) Higher the price, higher are the sales
(B) More sales persons lead to more sales
(C) Mission statement is part of a Market Plan
(D) Better sales incentives means better performance
(E) All customers are profitable customers
Ans : (C)

22. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper—
(A) Product development
(B) Promotion and Distribution
(C) Pricing
(D) Relationship management
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

23. Savings Accounts can be opened by—
(A) All individuals fulfilling KYC norms
(B) All individuals earning more than Rs. 1,00,000 per annum
(C) All individuals above the age of 18
(D) All salaried persons only
(E) All students below the age of 18
Ans : (C)

24. Situation Analysis is useful for—
(A) SWOT Analysis
(B) Analysis of Sales person’s performances
(C) Analysis of capital markets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software is called—
(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Throughput
(D) Reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. With a CD you can—
(A) Read
(B) Write
(C) Neither Read nor Write
(D) Both Read and Write
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. Errors in a computer program are referred to as—
(A) bugs
(B) mistakes
(C) item overlooked
(D) blunders
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following are computers that can be carried around easily ?
(A) Laptops
(B) Supercomputers
(C) PCs
(D) Minicomputers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. What menu is selected to change font and style ?
(A) Tools
(B) File
(C) Format
(D) Edit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. Where is the disk put in a computer ?
(A) In the hard drive
(B) In the disk drive
(C) Into the CPU
(D) In the modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. A computer’s hard disk is—
(A) an arithmetic and logical unit
(B) computer software
(C) operating system
(D) computer hardware
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. A compiler is used to translate a program written in—
(A) a low level language
(B) a high level language
(C) assembly language
(D) machine language
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. In programming, you use the following keys—
(A) Arrow keys
(B) Function keys
(C) Alpha keys
(D) page up and Page Down keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly ?
(A) Function keys
(B) The numeric keypad
(C) Ctrl, shift and alt
(D) Arrow keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Files are organized by storing them in—
(A) tables
(B) databases
(C) folders
(D) graphs
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

36. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—
(A) entry-code
(B) passport
(C) password
(D) access-code
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Advertisements are not required in—
(A) Public Sector banks
(B) Private Sector banks
(C) Government concerns
(D) Profit making companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

38. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is through the use of a—
(A) plotter
(B) scanner
(C) printer
(D) keyboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

39. Computer programs are also known as—
(A) operating systems
(B) documents
(C) peripherals
(D) applications
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. A collection of unprocessed items is ………
(A) information
(B) data
(C) memory
(D) reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

41. ……… is when the more powerhungry components, such as the monitor and the hard drive, are put in idle.
(A) Hibernation
(B) Power down
(C) Standby mode
(D) The shutdown procedure
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

42. ……… is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

43. A saved document is referred to as a ………
(A) file
(B) word
(C) folder
(D) project
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
(A) GB
(B) KB
(C) MB
(D) TB
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. The operating system is the most common type of ……… software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. A ……… is approximately one billion bytes.
(A) kilobyte
(B) bit
(C) gigabyte
(D) megabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. A scanner scans—
(A) Pictures
(B) Text
(C) Both Pictures and Text
(D) Neither Pictures nor Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Dumb terminals have terminals and—
(A) Mouse
(B) Speakers
(C) Keyboard
(D) Mouse or Speakers
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

49. The portion of the CPU that coordinates the activities of all the other computer components is the—
(A) motherboard
(B) coordination board
(C) control unit
(D) arithmetic logic unit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n)—
(A) version
(B) patch
(C) tutorial
(D) FAQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2011-04-22T21:09:00.001-07:00

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
English Language : Solved Paper(Held on 4-4-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived an old lion. The lion, the king of the forest had grown old. He became frail and due to this, he could not hunt for food. With each passing day he became more and more weak. He realized that he would not live for long if it continued like that. He thought how could he arrange for his food ? After pondering over it for quite some time, he decided that he should have an assistant.

The lion thought that a fox would be the best person to handle this position as he was intelligent and clever. He summoned the fox and said, “Dear friend, I have always liked you because you are smart. I want to appoint you as my minister and advise me on all the affairs of the forest”. The old lion also asked the fox, that since he was the king of the forest, he should not have to hunt for his food. With respect to this, the fox’s first duty as minister was to bring him an animal to eat every day. The fox could not refuse the king and accepted the offer.

After the conversation, the fox went out to find an animal for the lion. On the way, he met a fat donkey. He said “My friend, I have got good news for you. You are very lucky. Our king, the lion has chosen you to be his chief minister. He asked me to meet you and inform you about his decision.” The donkey was scared of the lion and said, “I am afraid of the lion. He might kill me and eat me up. Why has he chosen me as his chief minsiter ? I am not even fit enough to be a minster as I am not as intelligent as other animals.” The clever fox laughed and, said, “Dear, you don’t know your great qualities. Our king is dying to meet you. He has chosen you because you are wise, gentle, and hard working. By serving the king, you will be the second most powerful animal of our forest. Imagine, all the other animals will respect you and seek favours from you.” “You must not lose your greatest chance in life.” So, the poor donkey was convinced and got ready to go along with the fox.

In this way, the fox managed to attract the donkey to the lion’s den. When the fox and the donkey approached, the lion was hungrier than ever. But he kept a smiling face and said, “Welcome, my dear friend. Come near me. You are my chief minister.” As the donkey came closer, the lion pounced on him and killed him instantly. The lion thanked the clever fox and was happy to get the food. As the lion sat down to take his meal, the fox said, “Your Majesty, I know you are very hungry but a king must take a bath before his meal”. The lion thought it was a good idea and told the fox to keep a watch on the carcass of the donkey”. The fox silently sat down to keep a watch of the donkey and thought to himslef, “I took all the trouble of getting the donkey here. It is I who deserve the best portion of the meal”. Thus, the fox cut open the head of the donkey and ate up the whole brain. When the lion returned he shouted, “What happened to the donkey’s brain ? I wanted to eat the brain first.” The fox smilingly replied, “Your majesty,
donkeys have no brains. If he had any, he would not have come near a lion at all”.

1. Why did the lion decide to have an assistant for him ?
(A) He was too lazy to hunt for himself
(B) He was old and weak and could not hunt any more
(C) He wanted someone to help him kill the fat donkey
(D) He could not handle the affairs of the forest alone
(E) None of these

2. Why did the lion select the fox as his assistant ?
(A) He had heard that the fox had good hunting skills
(B) He wanted the fox to take over as the king of the forest
(C) The fox had offered to let the lion have his leftovers
(D) He had planned to eat the fox after luring him to become his assistant
(E) None of these

3. Why did the fox say ‘our king is dying to meet you’ to the donkey ?
(A) The king would have died of hunger if the donkey did not meet him
(B) The king desperately wanted the donkey to be his chief minister as he was gentle and hard working
(C) The fox wanted to convince the donkey to come with him to the lion so that the lion could eat him
(D) The king wanted to meet the doneky since all other animals respected the donkey more than the king
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following best describes the donkey ?
(A) Honest
(B) Wicked
(C) Clever
(D) Opportunist
(E) Foolish

5. Which one of the phrases given below the following statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningfully correct sentence in the context of the passage ?
When the lion did not see any brain in the donkey’s head ……….
(A) he spared his life and let him go
(B) he got upset with the fox for having selected such a donkey
(C) he took his decision to make him the chief minister back
(D) the fox explained to him that donekys do not have any brains
(E) None of these

6. What, according to the lion, was the fox’s primary duty as a minister ?
(A) To force all animals to respect their king and seek favours from him
(B) To convince the donkey to become his chief minister
(C) To take over as the king of the forest since the lion had grown too old
(D) To bring him an animal to eat every day
(E) None of these

7. What did the fox do when the lion went to take a bath before having his meal ?
(A) He secretly told the donkey to run away as the lion had planned to kill him
(B) He ate up the donkey’s brain as he had done all the hard work of bringing him to the lion’s den
(C) He held himself responsible for the death of the poor donkey and did not let the lion eat the donkey
(D) He killed the lion with the help of the donkey and became the king of the forest
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in context of the passage ?
(A) Finally, the fox got the best part of the meal
(B) The donkey was appointed as chief minister to the king
(C) The donkey which the fox had brought for the king did not have any brain in his head
(D) The donkey was very intelligent and clever
(E) None is true

9. What did the lion do when he saw the donkey in his den ?
(A) He was impressed by the donkey and made him his chief minister
(B) He ordered the fox to kill him and eat his brain
(C) He went to take a bath before meeting the donkey
(D) He immediately noticed that the donkey did not have any brain
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following is the moral of the story ?
(A) An idle brain is the devil’s workshop
(B) Fools are deaf to wise words
(C) Never believe an enemy’s sweet talks
(D) Morality can be best tested while one has power
(E) One can only lead a horse to water, but not make him drink it

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. POUNCED
(A) Climbed
(B) Grew
(C) Attacked
(D) Plunged
(E) Roared

12. FIT
(A) Healthy
(B) Deserving
(C) Strong
(D) Valuable
(E) Important

13. LOSE
(A) Misplace
(B) Suffer
(C) Dispose
(D) Defeat
(E) Miss

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. HANDLE
(A) Mismanage
(B) Drop
(C) Confront
(D) Decline
(E) Uncover

15. FRAIL
(A) Unhealthy
(B) Massive
(C) Rich
(D) Robust
(E) Civilised

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. When I called him yesterday, (A) / he offered to donate (B) / a handsome sum to (C) / the flood relief fund. (D) No error (E)

17. The student which (A) / you had thought (B) / so highly of has (C) / failed to pass the examination. (D) No error (E)

18. Government took strict action (A) / against the doctors on strike (B) / but they refused to (C) / resume to work. (D) No error (E)

19. If a person has been given (A) / diplomatic immunity then he (B) / cannot be arrested on a (C) / foreign land under any circumstance. (D) No error (E)

20. A group of birds (A) / migrate from southern part (B) / of the country to the (C) / Northern part during summer. (D) No error (E)

21. The constable said that (A) / the prisoner seize a (B) / fully loaded gun from a policeman (C) / and shot the prosecutor. (D) No error (E)

22. It will not be possible for you (A) / to catch the train on time (B) / because the nearest railway station (C) / is at ten kilometres away. (D) No error (E)

23. Each of the survivors of the Tsunami (A) (B) / have been offered free (C) / psychological consultation to ease their trauma, / by some of the top consultants. (D) No error (E)

24. Considering about her good credentials, (A) / the manager offered her a job (B) / in his organization (C) / despite the lack of experience. (D) No error (E)

25. Although he has been (A) / winning the elections (B) / all years, this year his popularity (C) / has substantially reduced. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) To their surprise, however, the reward went to a beggar who had contributed only a Rupee instead of a wealthy donor.
(b) He received funds from many people as rich and poor donated generously to his trust.
(c) The man explained that the one Rupee given by the beggar was worth millions of Rupees as that was all the money he possessed and that he had made a much greater sacrifice than others.
(d) During the function everyone waited with bated breath to hear who had made the maximum contribution.
(e) A man went from town to town to collect money for his charitable trust.
(f) On returning he decided to hold a function and reward the person whose contribution had been maximum.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
(E) f

30. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer-sheet.

31. (a) OTHERS
(b) HER
(c) SHE
(d) MISTAKES
(e) FOR
(f) BLAMES
(A) cfaebd
(B) acfebd
(C) bdacfe
(D) cfdabe
(E) bdafce

32. (a) FINALISE
(b) WE
(c) DETAILS
(d) LATER
(e) THE
(f) WILL
(A) BFEACD
(B) BDCFEA
(C) BDCAEF
(D) ECFDBA
(E) BFAECD

33. (a) UV-RAYS
(b) ABSORBS
(c) THE
(d) LAYER
(e) HARMFUL
(f) OZONE
(A) ACBEFD
(B) CFDBEA
(C) ACBFED
(D) CFBDAE
(E) CBEAFD

34. (a) PRACTISING
(b) SPEECH
(c) SPENT
(d) HIS
(e) HE
(f) HOURS
(A) DBCFEA
(B) DBFCAE
(C) EBCDAF
(D) FACBED
(E) ECFADB

35. (a) TO
(b) AROUND
(c) SEE
(d) THEY
(e) HIM
(f) HATED
(A) DFAECB
(B) DBFAEC
(C) DFCAEB
(D) DFACEB
(E) CEBFAD

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. A large number of celebrities (A) have joined an NGO involved (B) in the movement for protection (C) of animal writes. (D) All correct (E)

37. The teacher liked the poem (A) so much that she requested (B) Saba to read it allowed (C) to the whole (D) class. All correct (E)

38. Breathe (A) deeply and inhale the sents (B) of Roses and Daisies in the landscaped gardens (C) surrounding (D) my house. All correct (E)

39. As the wind blue (A) harder every minute, (B) people got a fairly (C) good idea that a storm was approaching (D) the town. All correct (E)

40. The family had to bear (A) a leaky sealing (B) throughout the rainy season (C) as they could not afford (D) to get it repaired. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there lived a sparrow on a banyan tree. She laid her eggs in the nest. One afternoon, a wild elephant came under the tree and in a fit of rage, broke a branch of the tree on which the nest was …(41)…. Unfortunately, all the eggs of the sparrow …(42)… after falling down though the sparrow was saved. The sparrow was full of grief and began weeping for her eggs.

A woodpecker, a close friend of the sparrow, heard her crying and asked her, “Why are you crying, my friend ?” The sparrow said, “The …(43)… elephant has killed my offspring. If you are a true friend of mine, suggest a way-to kill him”. The woodpecker …(44)… her and told her that he knew a fly and she would definitely help them kill the elephant.

Both of them went to seek the help of the fly. The woodpecker said, “A wild elephant has crushed my friend’s eggs. We need your help in killing him.” the fly replied, “One of my friends is a frog. Let us go to him and take his help too”. They went to the frog and …(45)… the whole incident. The frog said, “What can an elephant do before a united crowd like us ? Do what I tell you. Dear Fly, you go to the elephant and hum a sweet tune into his ears. When he closes his eyes in delight, the woodpecker will poke his eyes. This way, he will become …(46)…. When he gets thirsty, he will …(47)… for water. I will go to a marshy land and begin croaking there. …(48)… that there is water, the elephant will come there. He will sink into the marshy area and …(49)….

The next day in the noon, all of them played out the plan and the elephant was killed, as he drowned into a marshy area after being blinded by the woodpecker, when he closed his eyes in response to the music. Thus, the smartness of all the animals enabled the sparrow in taking her …(50)… on the elephant.

41. (A) Born
(B) Built
(C) Grown
(D) Broken
(E) Found

42. (A) Fell
(B) Escaped
(C) Damaged
(D) Survived
(E) Broke

43. (A) Defective
(B) Attacking
(C) Wicked
(D) Poor
(E) Harmless

44. (A) Ignored
(B) Protected
(C) Scolded
(D) Consoled
(E) Defended

45. (A) Said
(B) Informed
(C) Revived
(D) Mention
(E) Narrated

46. (A) Blind
(B) Unseen
(C) Regretful
(D) Sorry
(E) Dead

47. (A) Need
(B) Want
(C) Search
(D) Drink
(E) Demands

48. (A) Recalling
(B) Informed
(C) Sure
(D) Assuming
(E) Accepting

49. (A) Hurt
(B) Die
(C) Fall
(D) Kill
(E) Realise

50. (A) Help
(B) Revenge
(C) Anger
(D) Insult
(E) Fight

Answers :1. (B) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (E) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (E) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)

2011-04-22T21:08:00.002-07:00

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK CLERK EXAM 2009 JANUARY

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK CLERK EXAM 2009 JANUARY
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

We should recognise the indebtedness of the country to its farm families who toil to safeguard national food security. Loan waiver is the price we have to pay for the neglect of rural India over the past several decades. There has been a gradual decline in investment in key sectors related to agriculture such as infrastructure, marketing, post harvest technology etc. The four crore farmers whose debt is to be relieved will be eligible for institutional credit for their cultivation expenses during Kharif 2008. The challenge is to prevent them from getting into the debt trap again. For this purpose the Central and various State governments should set up an Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium, comprising scientists, panchayat raj officials and others relevant to assisting farmers to improve the profitability and productivity of their farms in an environmentally sustainable manner. The smaller the farm, the greater is the need for marketable surplus to reduce indebtedness.

The Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium should aim to get all the four crore farmers all the benefits of the government schemes such as the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, Irrigation Benefit Programme and others. If this is done, every farm family released from the debt trap should be able to produce at least an additional half tonne per hectare of foodgrains. This should help increase food production by about 20 million tonnes by 2008-10. At a time when global and national food stocks are dwindling and prices are rising, this will be atimely gain for our national food security. We need to ensure that the outcome of the debt waiver is enhanced farmers’ income and production. The prevailing gap between potential and actual yields in the crops of rainfed areas such as pulses and oilseeds is over 200 per cent even with the necessary technologies on the shelf. We are now importing without duty large quantities of pulses and oilseeds. If helped, farmers can produce these at a lower cost.

Opportunities for assured and remunerative marketing are essential if loan waiver is not to become a recurring event leading to the destruction of the credit system. This is why the Minimum Support Price is necessary for all, not just for a few crops which is the case at present. This is the single most effective step to make loan waivers history. There is another urgent step which needs to be taken. The loan waiver does not cover those who borrow from moneylenders. It will not be possible for the government to scrutinise the veracity of such private deals but steps can be taken such as giving them Smart Cards which will entitle them to essential inputs like seeds and fertilizers. The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying these farmers so that there is transparency in the process and elimination of the chances for falsification and corruption. Fear of occasional misuse should not come in the way of enabling millions of poor farmers who have borrowed from informal sources if we are to achieve the goal of four per cent growth in agriculture.

1. What is the likely impact of ensuring farmers’ benefit from government schemes ?
1. They can use the credit from these schemes to repay moneylenders.
2. The government can control the price rise.
3. Increased agricultural production.
(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. Why does the author feel that rural India has been overlooked in the past ?
1. Institutional credit was only made available for Kharif crops.
2. Drop in investment in central areas related to agriculture.
3. Records of those eligible for loan waivers have not been maintained over time.
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

3. How can small farmers avoid debt ?
(A) They need to acquire additional land holdings
(B) They need to take advantage of both government schemes as well as credit from moneylenders
(C) They have to ensure a sufficient amount of their farm produce is sold
(D) The Government should provide periodic loan waivers
(E) None of these

4. What is the objective of the Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium ?
(A) It is a support group for the families of indebted farmers
(B) It has to devise new government schemes for farmers
(C) It has to track farmers eligible for government schemes
(D) It has to evaluate government schemes and weed out the inefficient ones
(E) None of these

5. What does the author mean by the phrase “indebtedness of the country to its farm families” ?
(A) If farmers are in debt it impacts the entire country
(B) Citizens should be grateful to farmers and their families for the hardships borne by them to cultivate crops
(C) India’s food production has fallen causing it to be in debt since it has to import food
(D) The number of farmers’ descendants taking up agriculture has fallen.
(E) None of these

6. What is the author’s opinion of recurring loan waivers ?
(A) They are beneficial to farmers
(B) They are detrimental to the system of lending.
(C) They will reduce the need for a Minimum Support Price for agricultural products
(D) Farmers will no longer be in debt to moneylenders
(E) None of these

7. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The Minimum Support Price for agricultural products is yet to be implemented
(B) Loan waiver is a permanent solution to indebtedness of farmers
(C) Current agricultural growth is below four per cent
(D) India’s food production has increased in 2008
(E) Moneylenders benefit from loan waivers

8. Why does the loan waiver not cover credit taken from moneylenders ?
1. It is difficult to verify these contracts between farmers and moneylenders.
2. It will increase the deficit in the budget.
3. There is a risk that the funds may be misappropriated.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

9. Why is there a vast gap in actual and potential yields of crops in rainfed areas ?
(A) The government prefers to import these crops at a lower rate
(B) No technological advances have been made to improve the growth of crops in these areas
(C) There is no Minimum Support Price available for these crops
(D) Farmers are forced to sell these crops at a low rate
(E) None of these

10. How does the government intend to ensure transparency in the Smart card issuance process ?
(A) Screening private players involved in the scheme
(B) Granting access to those farmers who register with their local moneylenders
(C) Providing cards which cannot be forged
(D) Regularly rotating members of the gram sabha so there is no corruption
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. assured
(A) insured
(B) definite
(C) doubted
(D) confident
(E) reliance

12. relieved
(A) exempted
(B) backed
(C) supported
(D) calmed
(E) substituted

13. gap
(A) hole
(B) break
(C) pause
(D) difference
(E) interruption

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. timely
(A) young
(B) lately
(C) overdue
(D) aged
(E) slowly

15. elimination
(A) authority
(B) forgiveness
(C) attack
(D) provision
(E) protection

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correcton is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. In order to control rising prices the government has restricted the export of certain commodities.
(A) For control of raised
(B) In control of raised
(C) To control the rise
(D) By controlling rising
(E) No correction required

17. Over two crores will be required to renovate the building being damaged during the cyclone.
(A) that was damage
(B) which was damaged
(C) has been damaged
(D) been damaged
(E) No correction required

18. Small investors often suffer because of delays in getting its grievance redressed.
(A) their grievances redressed
(B) the grievances redress
(C) to redress grievance
(D) this grievances redressed
(E) No correction required

19. With the failure of the investment bank, the public’s confidence in the banking sector has been how badly shaken.
(A) so badly shaken
(B) that much shaky
(C) badly shaken
(D) too badly shaky
(E) No correction required

20. A consultant is been appointed to advise us on the viability of the project.
(A) appointed
(B) has been appointing
(C) will be appointed
(D) to be appointed
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) Expansion of retail banking especially has a lot of scope, since retail assets are just 22 per cent of the total banking assets.
(2) Where they do not find it viable to open branches they may open satellite offices in these areas.
(3) There is tremendous scope for the expansion of banking in India.
(4) Banks can also diversify beyond cities to semi-urban and rural areas.
(5) In these ways a transition from class banking to mass banking can take place.
(6) They can also collaborate with local stakeholders in order to extend microcredit services to those living there.

21. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

22. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

23. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

24. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

25. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Decades ago, China …(26)… the concept of ‘barefoot doctors’. They were community healthcare workers who successfully …(27)… the health of China’s villages. Following this example, many African, Asian and Latin American countries have started …(28)… programmes. The largest of such community health efforts is India’s National Rural Health Mission. In …(29)… over three years, the programme has mobilized over fifty thousand new community health workers, each …(30)… as ‘Asha’. This is short for ‘Accredited Social Health Activist’ and translated into Hindi is the word …(31)… hope.

Today technology companies and foundations are also joining the …(32)… to support community health workers. Mobile phone companies are …(33)… these workers with phones and support systems to obtain up to date medical information, call ambulances etc. In the …(34)… years, community health workers can thus help…(35)… the spread of many devastating but curable diseases.

26. (A) gives
(B) researches
(C) introduced
(D) originates
(E) enlightened

27. (A) improved
(B) entrusted
(C) fought
(D) cured
(E) dealt

28. (A) thousands
(B) alike
(C) imitated
(D) similar
(E) naming

29. (A) course
(B) less
(C) approximate
(D) period
(E) just

30. (A) referred
(B) known
(C) perceived
(D) regarded
(E) called

31. (A) denotes
(B) describes
(C) for
(D) explains
(E) means

32. (A) business
(B) membership
(C) scope
(D) effort
(E) purpose

33. (A) provided
(B) buying
(C) equipped
(D) supplied
(E) empowering

34. (A) coming
(B) next
(C) past
(D) few
(E) previous

35. (A) overlook
(B) curb
(C) protect
(D) enrich
(E) neglect

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (E) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (E) 16 (E) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (E) 24. (E) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (C)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (A) 35. (B)

2011-04-22T21:08:00.000-07:00

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK AO EXAM 2009

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam 2009
English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 16-8-2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Despite the global slowdown, the online shopping in India has increased. The growing pace of online buying is because of the attractive discounted prices offered and the ability of the customers to research and compare the prices across several outlets.

The average frequency of online purchases in India grew up to 2•9 in the fourth quarter of 2008 from 2•6 during the same quarter in 2007, as reported by the survey of Master Card Worldwide.

“The economic meltdown has not affected our business”, said the CEO of an e-commerce portal which specializes in personalized gifting and merchandise space in India. He said, “Our business has increased up to five times this year despite the economic recession. Currently, we possess a database of 25,000 designs posted by a thousand designers so that the users can create their own merchandise by selecting the designs sitting at home”.

The CEO also said that with the rise in bandwidth penetration in India and the increasing awareness of internet among people, the online shoppers sense the convenience to click on the products they want to purchase.

Holding onto a similar conviction, the CEO of another company said, “With the convenience of online buying, customers can save their time and money to move across multiple outlets for a product.”

The online shoppers also plan their shopping in advance and conduct research on their planned purchases. It becomes easier for the customers to decide the price at which they want the products. Sharing views on this point, the Manager of the e-commerce portal says, “Through the online shopping, customers can attain the objective of value for money during these tough times.”

Today, India is the only country where the 18 to 29 years age group has the highest average spend on online shopping. In India, the popular online purchases include the home appliances and the electronic gadgets like cell phones, camera, laptops and so on. According to the survey, the epurchasing of electronic products has gone up by 51 per cent.

So to drive these online shoppers, e-commerce portals are adopting a networking culture by incorporating ‘social networking feature’ in their websites, so that people can discuss with their friends and relatives before buying the particular product. There are more startups, who are innovating their products to combat slowdown.

1. What does the phrase ‘value of money’ as used in the passage mean ?
(A) Get the best at optimum price
(B) Buy the cheapest possible product
(C) Pay a lot for the best product
(D) Get a lot of money in return for the purchase
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage ?
(A) Purchases online have increased as the people buying these products are rich
(B) Online buying has increased because customers are getting a lot of discounts
(C) Customers have access to a number of outlets online thus online buying is more popular
(D) Online purchases have increased because the customers are able to compare prices easily
(E) All of the above are not true
Ans : (E)

3. What according to the CEO of ecommerce portal is the reason for increase in the number of online shoppers ?
1. Greater bandwidth is now available in India.
2. Internet is available at a cheap cost.
3. More people are aware of the internet.
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following statements is True in the context of the passage ?
(A) Cameras, laptops and mobile phones are popular online shopping products
(B) Customers find online shopping more convenient
(C) More people in the age group of 18 to 29 spend on online shopping
(D) Home appliances are a popular online product
(E) All the above are true
Ans : (E)

5. How can customers plan their purchases online in advance ?
(A) By looking at the product in a store and then searching for it online
(B) By waiting for discounts being offered by companies
(C) By creating their own websites and socially interacting
(D) By conducting research and then deciding the price at which they want to buy
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. What can possibly be the most appropriate title to the passage ?
(A) Innovation-the art of survival
(B) Online shopping-unaffected by recession
(C) Recession and its impact
(D) Customer is king
(E) Sale of Electronic Goods
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage ?
(1) People make purchases only through e-commerce portals.
(2) Online buying of electronic gadgets has increased by 51 per cent.
(3) E-commerce portals are finding it difficult to sell their products.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

8. How are e-commerce portals luring customers ?
(A) By innovating their products
(B) By offering free products with other products bought
(C) By creating an awareness about social networking
(D) By enabling customers through their website to interact with friends and relatives before buying a product
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. Pace
(A) Walk
(B) Length
(C) Rate
(D) Tread
(E) Variety
Ans : (C)

10. Conviction
(A) Sense
(B) Culture
(C) Belief
(D) Value
(E) Worry
Ans : (A)

11. Drive
(A) Coax
(B) Show
(C) Dishearten
(D) Ride
(E) Implement
Ans : (A)

12. Innovating
(A) Researching
(B) Improvising
(C) Selling
(D) Measuring
(E) Deleting
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. Attractive
(A) Dark
(B) Ugly
(C) Slim
(D) Insignificant
(E) Striking
Ans : (D)

14. Rise
(A) Finish
(B) Improve
(C) Reduction
(D) Heighten
(E) Stop
Ans : (C)

15. Tough
(A) Soft
(B) Delicate
(C) Comfortable
(D) Difficult
(E) Simple
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. The traders’ community is up to in arms against the police on their failure for not ensuring the arrest of wanted criminals.
(A) Up in arming
(B) Up arm
(C) Up in arms
(D) Up to arms
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

17. Chief Justice announced that a total of 30 evening courts will be started in all the five district courts of the city by the end of December.
(A) Will be start
(B) Is started
(C) Will starting
(D) Is being started
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

18. If you are planning on getting admission forms to enroll your child in school, you might as well forgetting about it.
(A) Forgets with it
(B) Forget in it
(C) Forgetting it
(D) Forget about it
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

19. Police said that basis on secret information, a trap was laid and the criminal was arrested near the station.
(A) As basis of
(B) That based on
(C) As base on
(D) That base in
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

20. With order to help outstation candidates planning to move to the city, a few colleges load their application forms online.
(A) In order to
(B) As order in
(C) Alongwith order to
(D) In ordering to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. The petitioner had ……… an immediate stay from the court on allotment of the flats till ……… of investigation into the alleged irregularities.
(A) asked, process
(B) sought, completion
(C) propagated, finish
(D) demanded, course
(E) granted, end
Ans : (B)

22. Modern music doesn’t lend ……… to longevity; sometimes it is hard even to remember what the biggest hit from a ……… of years ago was.
(A) itself, couple
(B) much, few
(C) money, some
(D) matter, spatter
(E) substance, variety
Ans : (A)

23. Opportunities ……… when they are seized and ……… when they are not.
(A) gather, evade
(B) needed, reflect
(C) create, disperse
(D) shout, calm
(E) multiply, die
Ans : (E)

24. At the sound of the bell we are ……… to pause, relax our body and become gently ……… of our in-breath and out-breath.
(A) asked, thoughtless
(B) requested, wishful
(C) invited, aware
(D) forced, meaningful
(E) braced, calm
Ans : (C)

25. ………… to listen to the sounds of nature, we find that we can afterwards carry on with whatever we were doing in a more ……… and loving way.
(A) feeling, helpful
(B) waiting, rough
(C) dreaming, dramatic
(D) pausing, attentive
(E) hurting, creative
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Since …26… times, people have …27… that human activity could affect the environment. The discovery of past ice ages shows that Earth’s climate is in constant …28… and that …29… history, scientists have …30… for the cause of these changes. Though scientists discovered the greenhouse effect in the late 19th century, the theory of global warming wasn’t …31… as a scientifically proven fact until 1992 when the United Nations held a Conference on Environment and Development. Today, global warming is a …32… accepted reality and …33… about its effects ranges from the hysteria to the acceptance. Newspapers chronicle the slowly changing climate and the actions that have …34… that change. From developing nations to industrial countries, global climate affects …35…

26. (A) Long
(B) Great
(C) Urgent
(D) Ancient
(E) Stone-age
Ans : (D)

27. (A) Believed
(B) Succeeded
(C) Wished
(D) Lost
(E) Wanted
Ans : (A)

28. (A) Hot
(B) Flux
(C) Fight
(D) Changes
(E) Reality
Ans : (B)

29. (A) With
(B) For
(C) To
(D) Throughout
(E) As
Ans : (D)

30. (A) Contribute
(B) Talked
(C) Resigned
(D) Visited
(E) Searched
Ans : (E)

31. (A) Accepted
(B) False
(C) Real
(D) Greeted
(E) Expected
Ans : (A)

32. (A) Rarely
(B) Widely
(C) Wrongly
(D) Leisurely
(E) Faithfully
Ans : (B)

33. (A) Principles
(B) Various
(C) Measurement
(D) Idea
(E) Speculation
Ans : (E)

34. (A) Meaning
(B) Worked
(C) Affected
(D) Cause
(E) Witness
Ans : (C)

35. (A) One
(B) Much
(C) Everyone
(D) More
(E) Singular
Ans : (C)

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2009
Professional Knowledge (Economics) : Solved Paper
(Held on 16-8-2009)

1. Say’s Law of Markets states that—
(A) Demand creates its own supply
(B) Supply creates its own demand
(C) Demand creates its own demand
(D) Supply creates its own supply
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. Malthusian theory of population is based on—
(A) Harmonic progression of population
(B) Geometric progression of food production
(C) Arithmetic progression of population
(D) Geometric progression of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (D)

3. Gresham’s Law states that—
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Both good money and bad money may co-exist
(D) Neither bad money nor good money may be long in circulation
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. The on-going melt down had its origin in—
(A) The real sector
(B) The financial sector
(C) The service sector
(D) The textile sector
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. A competitive firm maximizes its profit when—
(A) MR = AR
(B) MR = MC
(C) MC = AC
(D) MC = AR
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. ‘Supernormal’ profit may exist in a market due to—
(A) Asymmetry of information
(B) Restriction of information
(C) Quantity restriction
(D) Price restriction
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

7. Profit is caused by—
(A) Dynamic element in the economy
(B) Innovation
(C) Windfall
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Interest is paid—
(A) To compensate for inflation
(B) Due to superiority of present over future goods
(C) Because demand for money outstrips its supply
(D) To ensure the growth of the real sector
(E) All the above
Ans : (B)

9. Investment is defined as a—
(A) Deployment of a sum in business operations
(B) Purchasing an interest bearing bond
(C) Change in the stock of capital
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. The unproductive expenditure of the rich is—
(A) Necessary to the employment of the poor
(B) An impediment to the growth of an economy
(C) Having no bearing on the economy
(D) Having bearing only on the economy of the rich
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains—
(A) Pattern of trade in terms of relative factor endowments of countries
(B) Why a country may import products which use extensively the country’s scarce factor
(C) The law of comparative cost
(D) The concept of reciprocal demand
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

12. ‘Quasi-rents’—
(A) Are in the nature of free gifts
(B) May be applicable to all factors of production
(C) Comprise of all the returns to the firm in excess of the returns of the marginal firm
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The indifference curve technique is essentially—
(A) A cardinal approach
(B) An ordinal approach
(C) A quasi-ordinal approach
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. The slope of an indifference curve expresses—
(A) The marginal rate of substitution of two goods
(B) A ratio of marginal utility of one good to another
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) A ratio of total utility of one good to another
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. ‘Pass through’ effect in international trade theory refers to—
(A) The proportion of an exchange rate change that is reflected in export and import price change
(B) Exports and imports not facing any tariff barrier
(C) Exports and imports not facing any technical barrier
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations—
(A) Started in 1986 and completed at the end of 1993
(B) Aimed at reversing the rising trend of non-tariff trade barriers
(C) Replaced the GATT with WTO
(D) Brought services and agriculture into WTO
(E) All of the above
Ans : (E)

17. Product Cycle Model in international trade theory (Vernon, 1966)—
(A) Is an extension of technological gap model
(B) Is an extension of Heckscher-Ohlin model
(C) Explains dynamic comparative advantage of new products and new processes of production
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

18. Hedging and speculation in forex markets—
(A) Are opposite activities
(B) Parallel activities
(C) Same activities
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. A currency swap refer to—
(A) A spot sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of single transaction
(B) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of a single transaction
(C) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—in two different transactions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Public-Private Partnership projects in India are mostly related to—
(A) Airports
(B) Ports
(C) Railways
(D) Roads
(E) Urban development
Ans : (D)

21. The largest share in the short term money market of India in recent times belonged to the segment—
(A) Collaterised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO)
(B) Traditional repo
(C) Clearcorp Repo Over Matching System (CROMS)
(D) Call
(E) Others
Ans : (D)

22. As per the revised estimate of CSO, the GDP in India at factor cost during 2008-09 was—
(A) Rs. 28,71,120 crore
(B) Rs. 31,29,717 crore
(C) Rs. 33, 39,375 crore
(D) Rs. 44,82,436 crore
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. Mid Day Meal Scheme—
(A) Is a centrally funded and largest school meal scheme in the world
(B) Provides each child in government and government aided school a minimum of 300 calories and 8–12 gm of protein each day of school for a minimum of 200 days
(C) Provides lunch to about 120 million children
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Insurance penetration is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Insurance density is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

26. Minimum Support Prices of crops are recommended by—
(A) Planning Commission of India
(B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
(C) Finance Commission of India
(D) Farmers’ Commission of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. The Electricity (Amendment) Act 2007—
(A) Dispensed with licence requirement for sale from captive units
(B) Provided for joint effort by the Central and State governments for providing access to all areas including villages and markets
(C) Expanded the definition of theft to cover the use of tampered meters
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. In times of slowdown of the economy, the fiscal policy influences aggregate demand through—
(A) Discretionary element
(B) Non-discretionary element
(C) Lowering of tax rates
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Thirteenth Finance Commission is headed by—
(A) Dr. Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(C) Dr. Suresh Tendulkar
(D) Dr. C. H. Hanumantha Rao
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. A constitutionally recognized body is—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Forward Commission
(D) Farmers Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched by GOI in August 2007 with the objective(s) of—
(A) To incentivise the states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors
(B) To ensure that local needs/crops/priorities are better reflected
(C) To achieve the goal of reducing the yield gaps in important crops
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. The Buffer Stock of foodgrains at the beginning of February 2009 stood at—
(A) 16•2 million tonnes
(B) 20•0 million tonnes
(C) 37•4 million tonnes
(D) 36•2 million tonnes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Public Private Partnership came to be introduced in India to—
(A) Mitigate the financial burden of the governments
(B) Respond to the technological change that allow unbundling of infrastructure
(C) Alter the character of goods and services from pure public to private ones
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Heteroscedasticity in econometric analysis means—
(A) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is the same for all i’s
(B) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is not the same for all i’s
(C) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is the same
(D) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is not the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Autocorrelation in econometric analysis refers to—
(A) The correlation between the values of different variables
(B) The correlation between the values of alternative variables
(C) The correlation between successive values of the same variable
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. Durbin-Watson Test is applied in econometric models to test—
(A) Presence of heteroscedasticity in a model
(B) For autocorrelated errors in the sample data
(C) For multicorrelinearity
(D) For autoregressive disturbances
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. A weakly stationary stochastic process is so called, if—
(A) Its mean and variance are constant over time
(B) The value of covariance between two time periods depends only on lag between two time periods
(C) The value of covariance does not depend on the actual time at which the covariance is computed
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. Dummy variables are used in regression models—
(A) To represent important variables that are not qualitatively measurable
(B) To capture the effect of specific attributes
(C) As binary variables
(D) To distinguish between two groups of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (C)

39. Principal components in econometric analysis—
(A) Are linear combinations
(B) Help to increase the degrees of freedom
(C) Help to reduce high degree of multicorrelinearity
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

40. If world population grows at 2•6 per cent, then it will double in—
(A) 44•34 years
(B) 36•92 years
(C) 29•32 years
(D) 26•66 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2011-04-22T20:42:00.003-07:00

Allahabad Bank Single Window Operator 'A' Recruitment

Allahabad Bank
(A Government of India undertaking)
Head Office : 2, N. S. Road, Kolkata-700001

Allahabad Bank invites ONLINE applications from Indian Citizens for the following posts as follows :

Single Window Operator 'A' : 1000 posts in Clerical Cadre Rs.7200-19300.

How To Apply :Apply Online at Allahabad Bank website only from 15/02/2011 to 15/03/2011. After applying online, take a print out of the system generated registration details and keep it safely for future reference, do not send it to the bank.

Important Dates :

Opening of Online Application - 15/02/2011
Last Date for Online Receipt of Applications - 15/03/2011
Date of Written Test - 08/05/2011

Please visit http://www.allahabadbank.in/recruitment.asp for all the details, payment challan form and link to the online submission of the application.

2011-04-22T20:42:00.001-07:00

ALLAHABAD BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT

Allahabad Bank has announced recruitment project 2011-12 of 1500 Probationary Officers posts

Online application registration – 1.02.2011 to 1.03.2011

Written test – April 17, 2011

Post – Vacancies – Payscale :
Probationary Officer (scale I) – 1500 posts - Rs.14500-27700

Eligibility: Those interested to apply Allahabad Bank PO recruitment,
* Should be 21 - 30yrs of age, as on 1.1.2011
* Must have 55% marks aggregate in Graduation (any discipline), as on 1.1.2011
* Computer course certificate from training institute is necessary

Selection for PO posts will have Written test & Interview.Apart from cut-off score for each objective test, candidates should secure 40% aggregate in written test.For each wrong answers, negative marks would be awarded & those shortlisted will be called for Interview process.

Application fee of Rs.400(Gen/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) has to be paid with challan at any Allahabad bank branch.After payment, applicants can submit their online application available at www.allahabadbank.com before March 1, 2011. It is necessary to preserve the challan & application copy for reference.

Candidates can download the complete notification of Allahabad bank PO recruitment from the bank website here

2011-04-22T20:41:00.002-07:00

Allahabad Bank Specialist Officers Recruitment 2010

Allahabad Bank
(A Government of India undertaking)
Head Office : 2, N. S. Road, Kolkata-700001

Allahabad Bank invites ONLINE applications from Indian Citizens for the following posts as follows :

1. Chief Law Officer : 01 post in TEG-VI Scale
2. Assistant General Manager (Economist) : 01 post in SMG-V Scale
3. Chief Manager (Taxation) : 01 post in SMG-IV Scale
4. Senior Manager (Treasury cum Forex) : 10 posts in MMG-III Scale
5. Manager (Research Analyst/ Statistician) : 02 posts in MMG-II Scale
6. Manager (Taxation) : 02 posts in MMG-II Scale
7. Manager (Law) : 19 posts in MMG-II Scale
8. Manager (Security) : 10 posts in MMG-II Scale
9. Official Lnguage Officer/ Hindi Officer : 06 posts in JMG-I Scale
10. Officer (IT) : 75 posts in JMG-I Scale
Application Fee : Rs.400/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PH candidates) to be deposited in the Allahabad Bank's CBS Branches in the A/c No. 50034716818 by Challan.
How To Apply :Apply Online at Allahabad Bank website only from 07/09/2010 to 04/10/2010. After applying online, take a print out of the system generated registration details and keep it safely for future reference, do not send it to the bank.
Important Dates :
1. Opening of Online Application - 07/09/2010
2. Last Date for Online Receipt of Applications - 04/10/2010
3. Date of Written Test for Some posts - 05/12/2010
Detailed information is available at http://recruitment.allahabadbank.in/pdfs/recruitment-06-sep-10.doc Challan Form is available at http://recruitment.allahabadbank.in/pdfs/recruitment-06-sep-10a.doc and link to online submission of application, is available at http://registration.sifyitest.com/allahabadbankso/

2011-04-22T20:41:00.000-07:00

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam., 2010

General Awareness : Solved Paper

(Held on 21-2-2010)

1. As we all know banks publish their quarterly performance to bring transparency in the system and also to give a clear picture of their performance to the public. How were results of Quarter 2 different from the results of Quarter 1 of the listed banks including giants like SBI and ICICI banks ?
1. Performance was subdued in the Quarter 2.
2. Yields on advances of almost all listed banks have come down.
3. Advances grew at a slower pace when compared to deposits.
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Only 3 is true
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. After the Subprime crisis which of the following problems has hit the global economy/world markets recently ?
(A) Dubai debt problem
(B) Change of Government in Japan and its new economic policies
(C) High rate of inflation in India
(D) Extremely volatile behaviour of the Bombay Stock Exchange and other major Stock Exchanges world wide
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. As per the news published in major newspapers in India Banks in India need about 12 lakh business correspondents for rural areas. What will be the role of these correspondents ?
1. They will help rural people in their day-to-day banking activities.
2. They will work as a link between banks and the customers.
3. They will ascertain eligibility of rural people so that relief packages can be provided to them.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. It is evident that the economic slowdown still continues to weigh on the performance of the banks in India. How is this affecting banks and/or general public ?
(A) The number of bank account holders has gone down
(B) The gross Non-Proforming Assets (NPAs) of the listed banks have increased substantially
(C) Inflation has reached at a very high level
(D) Relief packages announced by the Govt. have proved insufficient to improve the situation of agri sector
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

5. Why has Dr. Subir Gokarn’s name been in the news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the Governor of the RBI
(B) He has taken over as the Deputy Governor of the RBI
(C) He will be the new Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India
(D) He has taken over as the Chief of the Economic Advisory Council attached to Prime Minister’s Office
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. As published in various newspaper, the Experian Credit Information Company of India is going to launch its operation in India soon. At present the only credit information bureau functional in India is—
(A) AMFI
(B) ICRA
(C) CIBIL
(D) CRISIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. As per the news published in a financial publication RBI is redesigning its ‘ECS’ to function as a Automated Clearing House (ACH) for bulk transactions. What is full form of ‘ECS’ ?
(A) Extra Closing System
(B) Electronic Cheque System
(C) Evening Cheque Sorter
(D) Evening Cheque System
(E) Electronic Clearing Service
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following challenges will be the most crucial for human existence on earth in the days to come ?
(A) Pollution
(B) Food Security
(C) Availability of natural gas
(D) Need for Financial Inclusion
(E) Cyber Crimes
Ans : (A)

9. The Reserve Bank of India has asked all the banks to install ‘Note Sorting Machines’ in the branches. How will this help banks and the general public ?
1. The machines will check for counterfeit notes and drop these from circulation.
2. This will help banks to count the notes quickly and accurately.
3. This will help in sorting out soiled notes so that they are not reissued by the banks.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. A study report entitled ‘India Generation Gap Review’ was presented at the World Economic Forum in November 2009. This was presented during which of the following summits/conferences ?
(A) G-8 Summit
(B) G-20 Summit
(C) India Economic Summit
(D) SAARC Finance Ministers’ Conference
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. As we know the Government of India has notified certain new rules to calculate Income Tax on various perks like accommodation, and conveyance etc. being given by employers to their salaried employees. The new rules will replace which of the following taxes which has been abolished now ?
(A) Capital Gains Tax
(B) Sales Tax
(C) Cash Transaction Tax
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. Dr. K. Radhakrishnan has taken over as the Chief of—
(A) Electronics Commission
(B) Indian Space Research Organisation
(C) Atomic Energy Commission of India
(D) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. As per the guidelines issued by the RBI, banks are preparing for a service which will allow customers to withdraw upto Rs. 1,000 using their debit cards from notified shops/stores all over the country. All such shops/stores will have ‘POS’ terminals for the same. What is full form of the ‘POS’ ?
(A) Payment on Sale
(B) Power of Sale
(C) Point of Sale
(D) Payment Order Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. The working group set up by the RBI has suggested the launch of an Emergency Fund Facility Scheme for banks. This scheme will help which of the following types of banks ?
(A) Public Sector Banks
(B) Small Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) Private Banks
(E) Foreign Banks
Ans : (C)

15. As published in major newspapers public sector banks have asked the Government of India to provide more funds for ‘Capital Infusion’. How much is the need of PSBs collectively for the purpose ? (Rs. in crores)
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 15,000
(C) Rs. 20,000
(D) Rs. 25,000
(E) Rs. 30,000
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following has purchased about 200 tonnes of gold from International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 2009 ?
(A) Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd.
(B) Bombay Stock Exchange of India
(C) Gold Council of India
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. One of the major emphasis of Basel II is that banks should have—
(A) adequate Capital Adequacy Ratio
(B) only few branches in urban centres
(C) more and more branches in rural areas
(D) core banking mode of operation
(E) all the above to comply with Base II norms
Ans : (A)

18. As per the reports published by various agencies/organizations, it is estimated that around 3 billion extra people will join our existing population of 6 billion by the year-2050. To provide food for all of them, a second round of which of the following initiatives is required to be started much in advance ?
(A) Green Revolution
(B) Planned Urbanisation
(C) Industrialisation
(D) Climate Migration
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

19. Who amongst the following is the President of the European Union at present ?
(A) Catherine Ashton
(B) Mr. Jose Manuel Barroso
(C) Mr. Fredrik Reinfeldt
(D) Mr. Sergi Lavrov
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. As per the reports published in various newspapers and journals almost all big nations are trying their best to resolve various disputes between the nations wherein either they are a party or because of that their peace and stability may be affected. Stability in which of the following two nations is more vital to India than that of any other nations ?
(A) Bangladesh and China
(B) China and USA
(C) Iraq and Russia
(D) South and North Korea
(E) Pakistan and Afghanistan
Ans : (E)

21. India’s bilateral per annum trade with European Union at present is about—
(A) 50 billion US $
(B) 75 billion US $
(C) 100 billion US $
(D) 150 billion US $
(E) 200 billion US $
Ans : (C)

22. Some world bodies/organisations/agencies are of the view that agriculture should adopt a ‘Cross Disciplinary Approach’, and take help of all types of sciences and studies. This approach will help in which of the following crucial problems being faced by humanity ?
(A) Use of Genetically Modified Crop
(B) Melting of glaciers
(C) Food crisis
(D) Climate change
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. An agreement between two nations or a group of nations which establishes unimpeded exchange and flow of goods and services between/among trade partners regardless of national boundaries is called—
(A) Import Free Agreement
(B) Free Trade Agreement
(C) Export Free Agreement
(D) Special Economic Zone Agreement
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following correctly describe what ‘One Carbon Credit’ is ?
1. Credit permit to release one ton of carbon dioxide.
2. Providing loans to establish one new production unit which can produce carbon dioxide for industrial use.
3. Finding out one new business which can use and recycle green house gases.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. As per various reports issued by the UNO and other world bodies, agricultural and allied activities consume what percentage of global water resources every year ? About—
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 30 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 70 per cent
(E) 60 per cent
Ans : (B)

26. The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) is a wing/agency of the—
(A) World Bank
(B) United Nations Organisation
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Ministry of Agriculture Govt. of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. As a policy, India does not encourage free movement of unskilled labours from—
(A) Gulf Countries
(B) USA and South American Nations
(C) European Union Nations
(D) All these nations
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. The Government of India has decided to disinvest its share in major public sector undertakings. How much of its share will be offloaded in this method ?
(A) 2 per cent
(B) 4 per cent
(C) 8 per cent
(D) 10 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. The United Nations Development Fund for Women (UNIFEM) is working in an Indian city to make it safe for women. Which of the following is that city ?
(A) Pune
(B) Kolkata
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Lucknow
Ans : (C)

30. At present the trade between India and China is in a state of ‘Payment imbalance’. What does this mean in real terms ?
1. China does not import many items from India whereas India imports more from China.
2. China does not pay India in time and a lot of delay is reported by the exporters.
3. India wants all payments to be made in US Dollars whereas China pays in its own currency.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. India has signed an agreement on climate change with which of the following countries recently ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Australia
(E) China
Ans : (E)

32. Some Scientists are of the opinion that extra agricultural production should be achieved without going for the cultivation of extra land and also without causing damage to essential eco-system. This concept, in other words, is known as—
(A) Sustainable growth
(B) Renewability of inputs
(C) Global Melt down
(D) Climate Migration
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Mr. Z. E. A. Ben Ali has taken over as the President of—
(A) Tunisia
(B) Malaysia
(C) Indonesia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is not a Government of India undertaking ?
(A) Oil India Ltd.
(B) Sutlej Jal Vidyut Nigam Ltd.
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd.
(E) Rural Electrification Corporation Ltd.
Ans : (C)

35. India shares its border with China along the Himalayan range. Which of the folllowing states touches the border of China ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Bihar
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following has been the growth of India’s GDP during 2008-09 ? (Final data are issued in late 2009)
(A) 5 per cent
(B) 5•5 per cent
(C) 6 per cent
(D) 6•5 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Which of the following ministries had launched a new ‘Skill Development Initiative Scheme’ so that the employability of the young people can be increased ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) Ministry of Heavy Industry
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
(E) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Ans : (E)

38. Sachin Tendulkar has recently become the first cricketer in ODI history to cross the milestone of—
(A) 10000 runs
(B) 12000 runs
(C) 15000 runs
(D) 17000 runs
(E) 20000 runs
Ans : (D)

39. The East Asia Summit took place in October 2009 in Hua Hin town. This is a town in—
(A) China
(B) Myanmar
(C) Cambodia
(D) Malaysia
(E) Thailand
Ans : (A)

40. What per cent of India’s GDP is invested in providing education ?
(A) 1 per cent
(B) 2•5 per cent
(C) 4 per cent
(D) 6 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. India has recently gained the status of becoming the third largest producer of Steel in the world. Who is the largest producer ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Dadaab Refugee Camp’ which was in the news recently is located in which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Iraq
(C) Pakistan
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Kenya
Ans : (E)

43. Which of the following countries objected to the Indian Prime Minister’s recent visit to Arunachal Pradesh ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Myanmar
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following not associated with climate change and/or Global Warming ?
(A) Basel Norms
(B) Bali Meet 2007
(C) Copenhagen Conference
(D) Kyoto Protocol
(E) Bangkok Meet in 2009
Ans : (A)

45. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Hockey ?
(A) Baseline
(B) Smash
(C) Drop
(D) Centre Forward
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following Genetically Modified vegetables is recently being made available in India markets ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Brinjal
(D) Potato
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Each Nobel Prize winner gets an amount of 10 million Swedish—
(A) Kroner
(B) Dollar
(C) Yen
(D) Pound
(E) Euro
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following not a plant product ?
(A) Camphor
(B) Aloe vera
(C) Vanilla
(D) Kiwi
(E) All are plant products
Ans : (E)

49. Dr. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan is one of the recipients of the Nobel Prize in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Medicine
(D) Economics
(E) Literature
Ans : (B)

50. As per the reports published in newspapers the Govt. of India has asked all the states to conduct a ‘Social Audit’ of each and every work of which of the following schemes ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) Indira Aawas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

51. Which of the following is not the name of a major Lawn Tennis Tournament ?
(A) US Open
(B) Wimbledon
(C) French Open
(D) Grand Master
(E) Australian Open
Ans : (D)

52. ‘Derby’ is associated with which of the following sports events ?
(A) Horse Racing
(B) Chess
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
(E) Football
Ans : (A)

53. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking and Finance ?
(A) Bid Price
(B) Jacksonian Seizure
(C) Call Option
(D) Bluechip
(E) Dividend
Ans : (B)

54. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for the exemplary work in the field of …………
(A) Literature
(B) Music
(C) Films
(D) Sports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

55. Who amongst the following is the Chief Justice of India at present ?
(A) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(B) Justice V. K. Sabharwal
(C) Justice G. P. Mathur
(D) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Exogenous
(B) Depreciation
(C) Deep Market
(D) Zero Sum Game
(E) Handedness
Ans : (A)

57. Who amongst the following is not a Lawn Tennis player ?
(A) Cara Black
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Leander Paes
(E) Anand Pawar
Ans : (E)

58. Which of the following books is written by V. S. Naipaul ?
(A) A Woman Alone
(B) The Open Couple
(C) The Grass is Singing
(D) The Golden Notebook
(E) Half a Life
Ans : (E)

59. Sri Balraj Puri, who was in the news recently, is a famous …….
(A) Classical Singer
(B) Cine Actor
(C) Social Worker
(D) Sportsman
(E) Journalist
Ans : (E)

60. Which of the following is caused by H5N1 virus ?
(A) Yellow fever
(B) Measles
(C) Plague
(D) Bird flu
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

61. Which of the following rivers is not in India ?
(A) Tapti
(B) Ural
(C) Mahi
(D) Mahanadi
(E) Penner
Ans : (B)

62. Mr. Mohamed Nasheed was on a five day state visit to India recently. He is the President of—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Iran
(C) Indonesia
(D) Maldives
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

63. India celebrated which of the following Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi in October 2009 ?
(A) 110
(B) 120
(C) 130
(D) 140
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following states has launched e-Shakti Programme so that poverty can be reduced in the state ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

65. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Government of India to improve the health of pregnant and lactating mothers ?
(A) Matritva Sahayog Yojana
(B) Dhan Lakshmi Yojana
(C) ASHA
(D) Health for All Scheme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

66. As per the decision taken by the Orissa Cabinet the new name of the state would be written as—
(A) Odisha
(B) Orissha
(C) Aurissa
(D) Horissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

67. India recently organized sixth ministerial level of Indo-US-TPF. What is fullform of TPF ?
(A) Trade Policy Forum
(B) Traditional Planning Force
(C) Trade and Payment Finance
(D) Technical Planning Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

68. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of state level agency on afforestation created by the Government of India ?
(A) NDMA
(B) SFDA
(C) ICMJE
(D) ICCROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

69. Which of the following states has launched ‘Atta-Dal Scheme’ under which atta and dal will be supplied at affordable prices to ration card holders ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

70. Which of the following states has the maximum number of Sugar mills ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

71. India purchased the Break Anti Missile Defence System from—
(A) USA
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

72. Mullaperiyar Dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Pamba
(B) Godavari
(C) Krishna
(D) Cauvery
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

73. Which of the following countries won the Champions Trophy Cricket Tournament 2009 ?
(A) England
(B) Pakistan
(C) Australia
(D) New Zealand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

74. Who amongst the following has been nominated for Man Booker Prize–2009 ?
(A) J. M. Coetzee
(B) Hilary Mantel
(C) Sarah Waters
(D) Thomas Cromwell
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

75. Shantiswarup Bhatnagar Awards are given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Economics
(C) Science and Technology
(D) Cinema
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2011-04-22T20:40:00.002-07:00

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2010English Language : Solved Paper

[Held on 14-3-2010(First Shift)]

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a village in the East, there lived an old couple. They did not have any children and never spent an extra paisa on themselves. They never repaired their house or cooked good food. One day, a family moved into the village, it was their son’s second birthday and they sent two delicious laddoos to the old couple. The couple ate the laddoos with great relish. For days after they could talk of nothing else. Finally the old man could take it no more. He said to his wife, “Let’s buy the ingredients to make just two laddoos.” His wilfe agreed but said, “If I make the laddoos at home, the neighbours will know and will want a share. Let’s cook in the woods behind our hut. That way no one will ever know.”

The next day the old man purchased the ingredients from the market and they set off to the woods. Having never prepared food like this before, they ended up with three laddoos instead of two. The old couple returned home with the sweets, dying to eat them. But there was a problem. “It was my idea and I went to the market, so I ought to get two,” said the old man. But his wife refused to give in so easily and said, “Since I prepared the sweets. I ought to have two.” The day wore on and the argument continued.

At last, the old man suggested, “Let us not talk to each other. Whoever breaks the silence first will get one laddoo and the other person two.” His wife agreed. Hours passed, but neither of them spoke and finally they fell asleep with the bowl of sweets between them. That evening one of the neighbours knocked on the door but the couple did not answer for fear of losing the bet. Peering through the window, the man saw the couple lying on the floor with an untouched bowl of food. “They are dead !” he shouted and alerted the other villagers. Soon the door was broken down and the house was swarming with villagers. They discussed everything from the funeral to where the couple had hidden their wealth. But the couple lay still.

Finally, the villagers carried them to the cremation ground. As the flames licked his feet, the old man jumped up screaming “You win !” His wife jumped up too, happy that she had won. The two then rushed home leaving the bewildered villagers present there behind. But when they got home…Alas the door had been left open and they found a stray dog licking the last crumbs of the sweets from the bowl.

1. Why did the old couple cook in the woods ?
(A) It was very convenient to gather firewood
(B) To avoid the risk of their hut burning down
(C) To keep the fact that they were preparing laddoos a secret from their neighbours
(D) To hide the fact that they did not know how to prepare laddoos from their neighbours
(E) They did not have the ingredients to make enough laddoos for their neighbours as well
Ans : (C)

2. What caused the old couple’s sudden longing for laddoos ?
(A) They hadn’t eaten good food for several days
(B) They had attended their neighbour’s party and enjoyed the laddoos served
(C) They saw the mouth watering laddoos being served to guests at the party
(D) They had tasted the laddoos prepared for their neighbour’s son’s birthday
(E) They thought that the laddoos would satisfy their hunger for days to come
Ans : (D)

3. Why did the old couple initially not reveal that they were alive to the villagers ?
(A) To learn the villagers’ true opinion of them
(B) They did not like the villagers and were mocking them
(C) Neither of them wanted to be the first to speak and lose the bet
(D) To test the honesty of the villagers
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

4. What did the old couple disagree about ?
(A) Where they would cook their meal
(B) Which of them was entitled to the first laddoo
(C) Whether to share the extra laddoo with their neighbours
(D) The quantity of laddoos that they had made
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. What was the villager’s reaction to the old couple’s presumed ‘death’ ?
(A) They were upset and all came to pay their last respects
(B) They were worried about how to pay for the funeral
(C) They could not decide what to do with the couple’s wealth
(D) They disliked the old couple and demolished their house
(E) They dutifully arranged the couple’s last rites
Ans : (E)

6. Why did the neighbour peep into the old couple’s house ?
(A) To learn what they were being so secretive about
(B) To spy on them and discover where their wealth was hidden
(C) To complain as they had cooked in the forest
(D) To check up on the old couple as he did everyday
(E) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following can be said about the old couple ?
(A) They did not have any relatives to look after them in their old age
(B) They were misers and did not spend even on keeping their house in good condition
(C) They were not allowed to eat sweets as they were old
(D) They were fond of animals and sometimes shared their food with stray animals
(E) They were afraid of the villagers and hid from them
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) The old woman had prepared more laddoos than she had intended
(2) The family who had recently moved into the village were fond of the old couple
(3) The villagers were saddened by the death of the old couple and gave them a grand funeral
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) & (3)
(C) Only (1) & (2)
(D) All (1), (2) & (3)
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

9. What puzzled the villagers?
(A) The old couple did not die in the fire
(B) The sight of the old couple whom they had presumed dead, alive
(C) The fact that the old couple had wasted good food
(D) The lack of concern the old woman had for her husband
(E) The old couple fed the laddoos to the dog.
Ans : (B)

10. Why did the old man scream when surrounded by the villagers ?
(A) He was afraid that his wife would get burned
(B) To scare away the villagers who wanted to kill him for his money
(C) His wife refused to allow him to eat more than one laddoo
(D) To indicate to the villagers that he was alive
(E) The fear of being hurt in the fire
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 13) Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

11. breaks
(A) interrupts
(B) separates
(C) solves
(D) defeats
(E) escapes
Ans : (A)

12. passed
(A) overtook
(B) occupied
(C) unnoticed
(D) proceeded
(E) succeeded
Ans : (E)

13. share
(A) half
(B) part
(C) participate
(D) divide
(E) common
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 14 and 15) Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

14. last
(A) new
(B) begin
(C) constant
(D) discontinue
(E) first
Ans : (E)

15. still
(A) restless
(B) noisily
(C) conscious
(D) calmly
(E) lifeless
Ans : (A)

Directions–(16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of the part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (E)

16. If his aim is to (A) / buy a house in the (B) / next three years he (C) / should start immediate saving. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

17. Can you explain why (A) / you were late this morning (B) / when we had to make (C) / such an important presentation ? (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

18. Their company is going to incur (A) / heavy losses this year because (B) / of the big discounts they (C) / offers to customers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

19. The main advantage of (A) / investing such schemes (B) / is that you will not (C) / have to pay any taxes. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

20. The final decision can (A) / be taken only after (B) / we consider all (C) / the panel suggestions. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. The Foreign Investment Promotion Board is (A) / the government body who (B) / regulates investment received (C) / by Indian factories from foreign countries. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

22. Our company was recently (A) / award the contract (B) / to construct two major (C) / bridges in the state. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

23. That customer has (A) / written a letter (B) / thanks the manager (C) / for her timely help. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

24. Accordingly the circular (A) / that was issued yesterday RBI (B) / has raised the rate at (C) / which it lends to banks. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

25. A large number of policy (A) / have lapsed because many (B) / people have not paid (C) / their instalments on time. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. The Chairman has promissed (A) to look (B) into the matter (C) and take necessary (D) action. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

27. Most (A) projects are delayed (B) because of the absents (C) of proper planning. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

28. He found (A) the company in 1980 to provide (B) electricity to people living (C) in rural areas. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

29. Salaries (A) of bank employees (B) are likely (C) to go above (D) by ten percent. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

30. Since (A) the interest rate on bank deposits is low (B) at present, people prefer (C) to deposit their savings (D) in post office schemes. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31 to 40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A rich merchant owned a beautiful horse. Now, one of his neighbours was keen to (31) this horse. He offered the merchant gold, (32) the merchant refused. This angered the neighbour. He (33) to trick the merchant. He disguised himself (34) a beggar and lay down at the (35) of the road, that the merchant used everyday. (36) at the sad plight of the beggar, he (37) from his horse and gently lifted the beggar (38) his horse. No sooner did the beggar get into the (39) than the galloped away. But hearing the merchant (40) out to him, he stopped when he was a safe distance away. “Please don’t tell anyone how you came to possess this horse. Some day an ill man may be lying by the roadside and people who have heard about your trick, may not want to help,’’ said the merchant. The merchant’s neighbour was deeply ashamed, rode back and returned the horse to the merchant.

31. (A) buy
(B) steal
(C) free
(D) train
(E) sell
Ans : (A)

32. (A) so
(B) unless
(C) otherwise
(D) but
(E) since
Ans : (D)

33. (A) desires
(B) decided
(C) declined
(D) deliberately
(E) deceived
Ans : (B)

34. (A) being
(B) alike
(C) as
(D) identical
(E) similar
Ans : (C)

35. (A) middle
(B) gutter
(C) ending
(D) distance
(E) side
Ans : (E)

36. (A) Carefully
(B) Distressed
(C) Misery
(D) Upsetting
(E) Unhappily
Ans : (B)

37. (A) stepped
(B) jump
(C) fell
(D) dismounted
(E) climbed
Ans : (D)

38. (A) with
(B) above
(C) from
(D) off
(E) onto
Ans : (E)

39. (A) saddle
(B) arms
(C) horse
(D) danger
(E) way
Ans : (A)

40. (A) appeal
(B) shouted
(C) call
(D) cried
(E) beg
Ans : (C)

2011-04-22T20:40:00.000-07:00

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2010

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
(Held on 21-2-2010)
Computer Knowledge : Solved Paper

1. A………typically connects personal computers within a very limited geographical area, usually within a single building.
(A) LAN
(B) BAN
(C) TAN
(D) NAN
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called—
(A) utilizing
(B) batching
(C) upgrading
(D) processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the ……… sign and the name of the e-mail server that manages the user’s electronic post office box.
(A) @
(B) #
(C) &
(D) *
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Software applies……, also called algorithms, to process data.
(A) arithmetic
(B) procedures
(C) objects
(D) rules
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) ……, but no spaces.
(A) question mark
(B) exclamation mark
(C) underscore
(D) period
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. An ad hoc query is a—
(A) pre-planned question
(B) pre-scheduled question
(C) spur-of-the-moment question
(D) question that will not return any results
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. A Web ……… consists of one or more Web pages located on a Web server.
(A) hub
(B) site
(C) story
(D) template
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. A computer ……… is a set of program instructions that can attach itself to a file, reproduce itself, and spread to other files.
(A) worm
(B) virus
(C) trojan horse
(D) phishing scam
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The desktop contains small graphics called—
(A) windows
(B) logos
(C) icons
(D) pictures
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of ……… languages.
(A) low-level
(B) computer
(C) system programming
(D) high-level
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………camera is a peripheral device used to capture still images in a digital format that can be easily transferred into a computer and manipulated using graphics software.
(A) digital
(B) analog
(C) classic
(D) film
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. ……makes it possible for shoppers to make purchases using their computers.
(A) E-world
(B) E-commerce
(C) E-spend
(D) E-business
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

13. Networks are monitored by security personnel and supervised by ………who set(s) up accounts and passwords for authorized network users.
(A) IT managers
(B) the government
(C) network administrators
(D) password administrators
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Application software is designed to accomplish—
(A) real-world tasks
(B) computer-centric tasks
(C) gaming tasks
(D) operating system tasks
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of—
(A) a record
(B) data
(C) a file
(D) a database
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

16. The human-readable version of a program is called—
(A) source code
(B) program code
(C) human code
(D) system code
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. A ……… computer (also referred to as a laptop), is a small, lightweight personal computer that incorporates the screen, the keyboard, storage, and processing components into a single portable unit.
(A) notebook
(B) journal
(C) diary
(D) briefcase
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. ……… is the result produced by a computer.
(A) Data
(B) Memory
(C) Output
(D) Input
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are called—
(A) Hypertext
(B) Networks
(C) Internet
(D) Web browsers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. A ……… is a device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes your computer with battery backup power during a power outage.
(A) surge strip
(B) USB
(C) UPS
(D) battery strip
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. When you save to ………, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.
(A) RAM
(B) motherboard
(C) secondary storage device
(D) primary storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. The motherboard is the—
(A) circuit board that houses peripheral devices
(B) same as the CPU chip
(C) the first chip that is accessed when the computer is turned on
(D) circuit board that contains a CPU and other chips
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. A computer-intensive problemruns on a—
(A) server
(B) main frame
(C) supercomputer
(D) super PC
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. A(n)……converts and executesone statement at a time.
(A) compiler
(B) interpreter
(C) converter
(D) instructions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. The term ……… designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.
(A) digital device
(B) system add-on
(C) disk pack
(D) peripheral device
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Approximately how many bytes make one megabyte ?
(A) One thousand
(B) Ten thousand
(C) One hundred
(D) One million
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. What is MP3 ?
(A) A mouse
(B) A Printer
(C) A Sound format
(D) A Scanner
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. All the deleted files go to—
(A) Recycle Bin
(B) Task Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) My Computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. ……… this is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of it.
(A) Network piracy
(B) Plagiarism
(C) Software piracy
(D) Site-license piracy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. A directory within a directory is called—
(A) Mini Directory
(B) Junior Directory
(C) Part Directory
(D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. Which is the best definition of a software package ?
(A) An add-on for your computer such as additional memory
(B) A set of computer programs used for a certain function such as word processing
(C) A protection you can buy for a computer
(D) The box, manual and license agreement that accompany commercial software
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. In MICR, C stands for ……….
(A) Code
(B) Colour
(C) Computer
(D) Character
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Fax machines and imaging systems are examples of—
(A) bar-code readers
(B) imaging systems
(C) scanning devices
(D) pen-based systems
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. When writing a document, you can use the ……… feature to find an appropriate word or an alternative word if you find yourself stuck for the right word.
(A) dictionary
(B) word finder
(C) encyclopedia
(D) thesaurus
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?
(A) Function
(B) Control
(C) Arrow
(D) Space bar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is—
(A) read-only
(B) memory-only
(C) run-only
(D) write-only
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

37. In an information system, alphanumeric data normally takes the form of—
(A) Sentences and paragraphs
(B) Numbers and alphabetical characters
(C) Graphic shapes and figures
(D) Human voice and other sounds
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. A Website’s main page is called its—
(A) home page
(B) browser page
(C) search place
(D) bookmark
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. When installing ………, the user must copy and usually decompress program files from a CDROM or other medium to the hard disk.
(A) programming software
(B) system hardware
(C) applications hardware
(D) applications software
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

40. A collection of interrelated files in a computer is a—
(A) file manager
(B) field
(C) record
(D) database
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. A ……… computer is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users.
(A) server
(B) mainframe
(C) desktop
(D) tablet
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. The trend in computer systems is toward the use of graphical user interfaces (GUIs). In these operating systems, a trackball is described as—
(A) a roller ball which moves the cursor
(B) a pen-shaped device which allows data to be entered through the CRT screen
(C) a figure which resembles a familiar office device
(D) an outdated input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

43. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by—
(A) Symbols
(B) Labels
(C) Graphs
(D) Icons
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. What is usually used for displaying information at public places ?
(A) Monitors
(B) Overhead Projections
(C) Monitors and Overhead Projections
(D) Touch Screen Kiosks
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. The real business and competitive value of information technology lies in—
(A) The software applications that are used by many companies
(B) The capabilities of the software and value of the information a business acquires and uses
(C) The infrastructure of hardware, networks, and other IT facilities that are commonly used by many companies
(D) The capabilities of the hardware and the speed at which it processes information
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. Companies use which of the following vendors to provide access to software and services rather than purchasing the applications and maintaining the applications themselves ?
(A) Open source vendors
(B) Alliances
(C) Application service providers
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a computer virus can enter a computer system ?
(A) Opening an application previously installed on the computer
(B) Borrowed copies of software
(C) Viewing a website without causing any additional transactions
(D) Running antivirus programs
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of—
(A) spooling
(B) dentity theft
(C) spoofing
(D) hacking
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. The first step in the transaction processing cycle is—
(A) database operations
(B) audit
(C) data entry
(D) user inquiry
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. In the information systems concept, the output function involves—
(A) Capturing and assembling elements that enter the system to be processed
(B) Transformation processes that convert input into output
(C) Transferring elements that have been produced by a transformation process to their ultimate destination
(D) Monitoring and evaluating feedback to determine whether a system is moving toward the achievement of its goal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2011-04-22T20:39:00.001-07:00

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
[Held on 14-3-2010 (Second Shift)]
English Language

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshav and Yash lived in neighbouring villages. Once, a fair was held nearby and they set off from their homes hoping to do some business there. Keshav filled his sack with cheap cotton, overlaid it with a layer of fine wool, and set off for the fair. Meanwhile Yash, collected some old clothes, put a layer of sheer cotton on top and made his way to the fair. Each stopped to rest under a tree and got to talking. “I have the finest wool in my sack,” boasted Keshav Not to be outdone, Yash said, “I have cotton of the most superior quality.”

The two struck a deal. They would exchange their goods and since wool was more expensive, Yash would pay Keshav an extra rupee. But Yash had no money on him. So after agreeing to pay Keshav later, they went home, laughing at each other’s folly. It did not take them long to discover that they had been duped. The next day, Keshav landed at Yash’s house. “You cheat! Give me my rupee at least.” Yash was untroubled by Keshav’s words, “Of course. But first help me find the treasure at the bottom of this well. We can divide it.” So Keshav went into the well. But each time Yash, hauled up the bucket Keshav had filled, he said, “Oh ! No treasure here. Try again.” Keshav soon realized he was being used as free labour to clean the well. So he gave a loud shout, “Here is the treasure! Watch out it’s heavy !” Yash was amazed that there actually was treasure in the well. As soon as he pulled up the bucket he threw away the rope so that Keshav could not come up. But, what did he find in the bucket ? Keshav covered in mud ! They began fighting again. Soon it got too dark to continue and they left for their homes.

But Keshav did not give up easily. He arrived at Yash’s house a few days later. Yash spotted him and told his wife, “I will pretend to be dead. Keshav will have to give up.” But when Keshav heard Yash’s wife wailing, he rushed out to gather the villagers. “My friend has died. Let’s take his body for cremation.” Yash’s wife got scared, “Go away. I shall arrange for cremation myself !” But the villagers thought she was too grief stricken. Once they reached the cremation ground, Keshav told the villagers, “It is getting dark. I shall watch over him during the night.” When the villagers had left, Keshav said to Yash, “Stop pretending. Give me my money !” Now, a gang of thieves came upon them and seeing one figure seated on the funeral pyre and another standing next to him talking, they assumed them to be ghosts and dropped their bag of stolen goods and left at top speed. The two, saw the bag full of gold and silver ornaments and divided it between themselves. Keshav made sure he got an extra gold coin and the account was settled at last!

1. What made the two young men decide to visit the fair ?

(A) They thought they could get jobs and support themselves

(B) They wanted to trade their goods at the fair and earn some money

(C) To sell the produce they had grown for a handsome profit

(D) Being unemployed they thought they could entertain people at the fair

(E) Not clearly mentioned in the passage

Ans : (B)

2. What were Keshav and Yash quarrelling about ?

(A) The cost of wool

(B) The interest on the loan Yash had taken

(C) Dividing the thieves’ treasure equally

(D) The money Yash owed Keshav

(E) The wages for digging the well

Ans : (D)

3. Why were the two men happy despite not going to the fair ?

(A) They had managed to buy whatever they needed on the way

(B) They had got a good deal in exchange for a rupee

(C) They had become fast friends and had made a lot of money in the bargain

(D) Each thought he had got the better deal and had swindled the other

(E) None of the above

Ans : (D)

4. Why did the villagers gather at Yash’s house ?

(A) Yash’s wife was very upset seeing Keshav and her husband arguing

(B) To help Yash’s wife carry Yash’s body home as night had fallen

(C) To give Yash’s wife the news of her husband’s death

(D) They wanted to keep watch over Yash’s wife during the night

(E) None of the above

Ans : (E)

5. Why did Yash request Keshav to go down into the well ?

(A) He knew Keshav was smart and would clean it thoroughly

(B) He was in search of treasure that he had buried

(C) To trick Keshav into cleaning it

(D) His wife had refused to help him

(E) To make Keshav earn the extra gold coin

Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following cannot be said about the two young men ?

(a) They were lazy and made their wives work.

(b) They were a match for each other in shrewdness.

(c) They were dishonest and tried to swindle each other.

(A) Only (a)

(B) Only (a) and (c)

(C) Only (b) and (c)

(D) All (a), (b) and (c)

(E) None of the above

Ans : (A)

7. Why did Keshav get an extra gold coin from the thieves’ treasure ?

(A) As payment for digging the well

(B) It was the amount Yash owed Keshav for protecting him from the thieves

(C) As repayment of the rupee that Yash owed him

(D) It was his idea to spend the night at the cremation ground

(E) He had proved to be cleverer than Yash

Ans : (C)

8. What was Keshav’s reaction to Yash’s presumed ‘death’ ?

(A) He immediately sent for the villagers to comfort Yash’s wife

(B) He was very upset because he realized that he would never recover his money

(C) He paid for all Yash’s funeral arrangements

(D) He could not be consoled and kept a watch over Yash’s body all night

(E) He knew Yash was pretending and decided to trick him too

Ans : (E)

9. What frightened the thieves ?

(A) The sight of what they thought were the spirits of the dead

(B) The realization that the villagers would soon return

(C) Someone had discovered their hiding place

(D) Their loot had been stolen by other thieves

(E) The villagers had lit a funeral pyre for them

Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?

(A) Keshav was persevering by nature

(B) There was no treasure buried in Yash’s well

(C) Keshav guarded Yash’s body because he knew thieves lived there

(D) Yash’s wife supported her husband in his crooked dealings

(E) Neither Keshav nor Yash could be trusted to keep his word

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

11. Discover

(A) Invent

(B) Explore

(C) Locate

(D) Realize

(E) Research

Ans : (D)

12. Struck

(A) Reached

(B) Impacted

(C) Slapped

(D) Attacked

(E) Occurred

Ans : (A)

13. Top

(A) Height

(B) Lid

(C) Finest

(D) Upper

(E) Maximum

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

14. Dark

(A) Bright

(B) Cheerful

(C) Shadow

(D) Fair

(E) Shining

Ans : (A)

15. Free

(A) Occupied

(B) Paid

(C) Captured

(D) Busy

(E) Dependent

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (E).

16. In order to (A) / attract tourists many (B) / hotels have been offered (C) / attractive deals and discounts. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

17. The Board is likely (A) / to take its time (B) / to examine the facts (C) / before giving their decision. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

18. How can we open (A) / these branches on time (B) / if we have not (C) / yet obtained the licences ? (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

19. One of the disadvantage (A) / of fixed deposit schemes (B) / is that banks offer (C) / low rates of interest. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (A)

20. According to experts, it is (A) / necessarily for you to save (B) / and invest at least twenty-five (C) / percent of your monthly income. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

21. The manager has not (A) / yet replied to the (B) / customer letter asking (C) / about her loan application. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

22. While the formation of RBI (A) / was approved in March, 1934 (B) / it was inaugurated (C) / only in April 1, 1935. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

23. The Insurance Regulatory Development Authority has (A) / asked all insurance (B) / companies submitting their (C) / balance sheets by June. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

24. Arun’s father has been ill (A) / since last year and Arun (B) / has spend his entire (C) / savings on his treatment. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

25. There are a large number (A) / of Chinese workers which (B) / are employed by (C) / software companies in India. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. There are few (A) differents (B) between (C) these two marketing proposals. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (B)

27. Most (A) banks have been hiring (B) staff for their corporate (C) banking divisions. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (B)

28. The interest rate for postal deposits is fixed (A) by the government and usually (B) remains (C) stable. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (D)

29. Companies (A) will benefit (B) if the Finance Ministry decides to lesser (C) taxes in this budget. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (C)

30. Compare (A) to private (B) banks, we have a larger (C) network (D) of branches in North India. All correct (E)

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A poor man was once travelling through the desert. Feeling thirsty and tired, he began to …(31)… for water. At last finding a stream, he …(32)… to his knees and drank the water which …(33)… very sweet. He filled up his bottle …(34)… continued on. After several days journey, he …(35)… the palace and got an opportunity to …(36)… the King. As a mark of …(37)… he presented the King with the bottle …(38)… water. The King tasted the water, and …(39)… rewarded the man. All the courtiers …(40)… to taste the water but the King refused. When the man had left overjoyed, the king explained why he had acted so strangely. “After such a long journey, the water was foul tasting. I could not risk anyone showing, his disgust for a gift which was so sincerely given! For this reason alone I reserved the tasting of the water for myself.”

31. (A) desire

(B) pursue

(C) need

(D) obtain

(E) search

Ans : (E)

32. (A) fell

(B) drop

(C) jumped

(D) leaped

(E) sat

Ans : (D)

33. (A) looked

(B) tasted

(C) flavour

(D) became

(E) sample

Ans : (B)

34. (A) before

(B) soon

(C) and

(D) that

(E) however

Ans : (C)

35. (A) came

(B) reached

(C) built

(D) seen

(E) arrived

Ans : (B)

36. (A) meet

(B) receive

(C) homage

(D) acquaint

(E) welcome

Ans : (A)

37. (A) rebuke

(B) regards

(C) regret

(D) respect

(E) reverend

Ans : (D)

38. (A) had

(B) of

(C) filled

(D) contained

(E) full

Ans : (B)

39. (A) foolishly

(B) hasty

(C) similarly

(D) selfishly

(E) generously

Ans : (E)

40. (A) began

(B) hoping

(C) begged

(D) anxious

(E) wish

Ans : (C)

2011-04-22T20:38:00.003-07:00

ALLAHABAD BANK PO EXAM 2010

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam, 2010

Computer Knowledge Solved Paper
(Held on 21-2-2010)

1. A………typically connects personal computers within a very limited geographical area, usually within a single building.
(A) LAN
(B) BAN
(C) TAN
(D) NAN
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called—
(A) utilizing
(B) batching
(C) upgrading
(D) processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the ……… sign and the name of the e-mail server that manages the user’s electronic post office box.
(A) @
(B) #
(C) &
(D) *
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Software applies……, also called algorithms, to process data.
(A) arithmetic
(B) procedures
(C) objects
(D) rules
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) ……, but no spaces.
(A) question mark
(B) exclamation mark
(C) underscore
(D) period
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. An ad hoc query is a—
(A) pre-planned question
(B) pre-scheduled question
(C) spur-of-the-moment question
(D) question that will not return any results
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. A Web ……… consists of one or more Web pages located on a Web server.
(A) hub
(B) site
(C) story
(D) template
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. A computer ……… is a set of program instructions that can attach itself to a file, reproduce itself, and spread to other files.
(A) worm
(B) virus
(C) trojan horse
(D) phishing scam
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The desktop contains small graphics called—
(A) windows
(B) logos
(C) icons
(D) pictures
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of ……… languages.
(A) low-level
(B) computer
(C) system programming
(D) high-level
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………camera is a peripheral device used to capture still images in a digital format that can be easily transferred into a computer and manipulated using graphics software.
(A) digital
(B) analog
(C) classic
(D) film
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. ……makes it possible for shoppers to make purchases using their computers.
(A) E-world
(B) E-commerce
(C) E-spend
(D) E-business
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

13. Networks are monitored by security personnel and supervised by ………who set(s) up accounts and passwords for authorized network users.
(A) IT managers
(B) the government
(C) network administrators
(D) password administrators
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Application software is designed to accomplish—
(A) real-world tasks
(B) computer-centric tasks
(C) gaming tasks
(D) operating system tasks
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of—
(A) a record
(B) data
(C) a file
(D) a database
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

16. The human-readable version of a program is called—
(A) source code
(B) program code
(C) human code
(D) system code
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. A ……… computer (also referred to as a laptop), is a small, lightweight personal computer that incorporates the screen, the keyboard, storage, and processing components into a single portable unit.
(A) notebook
(B) journal
(C) diary
(D) briefcase
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. ……… is the result produced by a computer.
(A) Data
(B) Memory
(C) Output
(D) Input
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are called—
(A) Hypertext
(B) Networks
(C) Internet
(D) Web browsers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. A ……… is a device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes your computer with battery backup power during a power outage.
(A) surge strip
(B) USB
(C) UPS
(D) battery strip
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. When you save to ………, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.
(A) RAM
(B) motherboard
(C) secondary storage device
(D) primary storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. The motherboard is the—
(A) circuit board that houses peripheral devices
(B) same as the CPU chip
(C) the first chip that is accessed when the computer is turned on
(D) circuit board that contains a CPU and other chips
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. A computer-intensive problemruns on a—
(A) server
(B) main frame
(C) supercomputer
(D) super PC
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. A(n)……converts and executesone statement at a time.
(A) compiler
(B) interpreter
(C) converter
(D) instructions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. The term ……… designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.
(A) digital device
(B) system add-on
(C) disk pack
(D) peripheral device
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Approximately how many bytes make one megabyte ?
(A) One thousand
(B) Ten thousand
(C) One hundred
(D) One million
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. What is MP3 ?
(A) A mouse
(B) A Printer
(C) A Sound format
(D) A Scanner
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. All the deleted files go to—
(A) Recycle Bin
(B) Task Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) My Computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. ……… this is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of it.
(A) Network piracy
(B) Plagiarism
(C) Software piracy
(D) Site-license piracy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. A directory within a directory is called—
(A) Mini Directory
(B) Junior Directory
(C) Part Directory
(D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. Which is the best definition of a software package ?
(A) An add-on for your computer such as additional memory
(B) A set of computer programs used for a certain function such as word processing
(C) A protection you can buy for a computer
(D) The box, manual and license agreement that accompany commercial software
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. In MICR, C stands for ……….
(A) Code
(B) Colour
(C) Computer
(D) Character
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Fax machines and imaging systems are examples of—
(A) bar-code readers
(B) imaging systems
(C) scanning devices
(D) pen-based systems
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. When writing a document, you can use the ……… feature to find an appropriate word or an alternative word if you find yourself stuck for the right word.
(A) dictionary
(B) word finder
(C) encyclopedia
(D) thesaurus
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?
(A) Function
(B) Control
(C) Arrow
(D) Space bar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is—
(A) read-only
(B) memory-only
(C) run-only
(D) write-only
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

37. In an information system, alphanumeric data normally takes the form of—
(A) Sentences and paragraphs
(B) Numbers and alphabetical characters
(C) Graphic shapes and figures
(D) Human voice and other sounds
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. A Website’s main page is called its—
(A) home page
(B) browser page
(C) search place
(D) bookmark
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. When installing ………, the user must copy and usually decompress program files from a CDROM or other medium to the hard disk.
(A) programming software
(B) system hardware
(C) applications hardware
(D) applications software
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

40. A collection of interrelated files in a computer is a—
(A) file manager
(B) field
(C) record
(D) database
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. A ……… computer is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users.
(A) server
(B) mainframe
(C) desktop
(D) tablet
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. The trend in computer systems is toward the use of graphical user interfaces (GUIs). In these operating systems, a trackball is described as—
(A) a roller ball which moves the cursor
(B) a pen-shaped device which allows data to be entered through the CRT screen
(C) a figure which resembles a familiar office device
(D) an outdated input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

43. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by—
(A) Symbols
(B) Labels
(C) Graphs
(D) Icons
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. What is usually used for displaying information at public places ?
(A) Monitors
(B) Overhead Projections
(C) Monitors and Overhead Projections
(D) Touch Screen Kiosks
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. The real business and competitive value of information technology lies in—
(A) The software applications that are used by many companies
(B) The capabilities of the software and value of the information a business acquires and uses
(C) The infrastructure of hardware, networks, and other IT facilities that are commonly used by many companies
(D) The capabilities of the hardware and the speed at which it processes information
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. Companies use which of the following vendors to provide access to software and services rather than purchasing the applications and maintaining the applications themselves ?
(A) Open source vendors
(B) Alliances
(C) Application service providers
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a computer virus can enter a computer system ?
(A) Opening an application previously installed on the computer
(B) Borrowed copies of software
(C) Viewing a website without causing any additional transactions
(D) Running antivirus programs
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of—
(A) spooling
(B) dentity theft
(C) spoofing
(D) hacking
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. The first step in the transaction processing cycle is—
(A) database operations
(B) audit
(C) data entry
(D) user inquiry
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. In the information systems concept, the output function involves—
(A) Capturing and assembling elements that enter the system to be processed
(B) Transformation processes that convert input into output
(C) Transferring elements that have been produced by a transformation process to their ultimate destination
(D) Monitoring and evaluating feedback to determine whether a system is moving toward the achievement of its goal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2011-04-22T20:38:00.001-07:00

ALLAHABAD BANK CLERKS 2009

ALLAHABAD BANK CLERKS 2009

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. According to the World Economic Forum which of the following groups of countries have the most developed financial system in the world ?
(A) USA–France
(B) France–Britain
(C) India–USA
(D) Britain–Australia
(E) USA–Britain
Ans : (E)

2. Which of the following sectors of US economy were passing through a phase of slow down recently and wanted US Govt. to provide bail out packages to them ?
1. Agricultural sector
2. Auto sector
3. Banking and Financial Services Sector
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answer : (C)

3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the buy back of the Foreign Convertible Bonds (FCBs), which were in news recently ?
1. Govt. has put a ban on the buy back of the Foreign convertible Bonds.
2. Govt. has now allowed the buy back of the Foreign convertible Bonds.
3. Companies can now pre pay the foreign convertible bonds from their Indian rupee resources and/or through their foreign currency accruals.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

4. Which of the following countries has decided to issue a currency note equivalent to that of US$ 200 million as it is struggling with the world’s highest inflation rate of 231 million per cent ?
(A) Somalia
(B) Ethiopea
(C) Sudan
(D) Uganda
(E) Zimbabwe
Answer : (E)

5. The Reserve Bank of India in its mid term review of the monetary policy in October 2008 had said that the inflation would be around 7% by the year-end.
Which of the following is/are indications on the basis of which RBI gave this statement ?
1. Headline inflation as measured by the wholesale price index has started declining
2. Commodity prices are coming down
3. Domestic Demand is also slowing down
4. Fuel prices are lowered down recently
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 4
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

6. As we all noticed in the recent past almost all major banks were offering loans at cheaper rates. Which was/were the major event(s) that took place in the financial sector, which prompted banks to do so ?
1. RBI frequently announced a cut in various rates and ratios
2. Govt. provided Rs. 7000 crore refinance to SIDBI to help SSIs
3. Housing loans upto Rs. 20 lakhs will now be treated as loan to priority sector
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

7. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc.
which was in news sometimes back ?
1. The US Govt. provided a US $ 7000 million bail out package to the company
2. The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York
3. The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

8. Which of the following States became the first State in India to reserve a Govt. job for HIV + candidates ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Delhi
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

9. The Govt. of India recently decided to allow Currency Futures in India. In addition to Ministry of Finance which is/are the other organization(s) whose permission/approval is needed for such operations in India ?
1. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
2. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Answer : (E)

10. The Reserve Bank of India has decided to help banks, as a temporary measure, by providing additional liquidity support under LAF. What is the full form of LAF ?
(A) Loan Adjustment Fund
(B) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(C) Long Awaited Funds
(D) Loan Against Funds
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

11. As per the report being published in media now the economy of Asia is fast approaching at the saturation point while the growth prospects for Europe and US appear to be bleak. Hence Chinese, Americans and others are now looking towards—
(A) Africa
(B) South East Asia
(C) Latin America
(D) Gulf countries
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

12. The formal or institutional credit delivery system in rural India comprises of which of the following ?
1. Cooperative Credit Institutions
2. Commercial Banks
3. Regional Rural Banks
4. Self Help Groups
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)

13. As per the reports published recently in the newspapers/magazines the Current Account Deficit of India’s Balance of Payment during 2007-08 was at a very high level. When compared to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) the percentage of the Current Account Deficit of 2007-08 was about what per cent of the GDP at that time ?
(A) 0•5%
(B) 0•75%
(C) 1%
(D) 1•25%
(E) 1•5%
Answer : (E)

14. The FDIC a USA based financial sector organization’s name was in news recently. What is the full form of FDIC ?
(A) Federal Insurance Deposit Corporation
(B) Financial Insurance and Deposits Company
(C) Federal Income and Deposits Corporation
(D) Financial Instruments and Development Company
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

15. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following ?
1. Better human resource management
2. Adequate capital to support risks
3. Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

16. Which of the following countries recently signed the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) and became the 179th country to do the same ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sudan
(D) Iraq
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)

17. A State Mission on Urban Poverty is formed by which of the following States in India ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Kerala
(E) Tamil Nadu
Answer : (D)

18. The Govt. of India these days is trying to implement new projects/schemes for the development of North Eastern Region (NER) of our country. Which of the following statement (s) is/are True about the North Eastern Region of our country ?
1. The NE Region comprising eight States has a high literacy level and is rich in ethnic cultural heritage with linguistic diversity.
2. The region has very good educational institutions and facilities as each and every district has a very good school/college and one or two institutes for higher learning.
3. The Govt. of India is trying to open few model central schools in the Region so that children of the Region can compete with the children of other zones/regions as entire education in the NE Region is given in local languages at present.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)

19. India has recently signed an agreement with which of the following to form a Free Trade Area from January, 2009 ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) EU
(D) Latin America
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

20. Which of the following States has decided to modernize Godavari Delta by investing a huge sum of Rs. 3,361 crores ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

21. Which of the following State Govts. has decided to request the Govt. of India to provide 33.3% reservation for the backward classes in State Assemblies and in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Answer : (D)

22. Which of the following is not a department of the Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India ?
(A) Department of Economic Affairs
(B) Department of Expenditure
(C) Department of Revenue
(D) Department of Foreign Investments
(E) Department of Disinvestments
Answer : (D)

23. Which of the following countries recently signed a security cooperation agreement with India when our Prime Minister visited that country recently ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) Japan
(E) Nepal
Answer : (D)

24. Which of the following two countries decided to approach International Monetary Fund (IMF) to support them in their efforts to avoid financial turmoil which engulfed some big nations ?
(A) Hungary and Ukrain
(B) Croatia and Russia
(C) Russia and China
(D) USA and Russia
(E) Australia and China
Answer : (A)

25. As we all know a B. K. Chaturvedi Committee was set up by the Govt. of India to give recommendations on oil and natural gas sector. Which of the following is/are not amongst its recommendations ?
1. Special taxes to be imposed on all oil products in the country
2. Excise duties on petrol to be reduced to Rs. 10 per litre till March 2009
3. Subsidy on LPG should be increased from present 25% to 40%
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Answer : (D)

26. Which of the following is not a social sector programme being run by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(B) National Rural Health Mission
(C) National Agricultural Insurance Scheme
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) Mid Day Meal Scheme
Ans : (C)

27. Under the Agricultural Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme, the Govt. of India recently gave the first instalment of credit to the banks. What was the amount of the1st instalment ?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

28. As per the newspaper reports how many bank branches India has at present ? (all the banks put together) About—
(A) 25,000
(B) 30,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 60,000
(E) 70,000
Answer : (C)

29. As per the reports published in various newspapers/magazines in several nations of Asia, Africa and Latin America more people have mobile phones than bank accounts. What is the position in India in regard to these two facilities ? [Pick up the correct statement(s)]
1. In India about 260 million people have mobile phones.
2. At present about 34% of Indian population is enjoying the formal banking facilities.
3. RBI has recently approved mobile Banking (m–Banking) and favours SMS based small ticket payments upto Rs. 15,000.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

30. The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 2008. This report is published every year by—
(A) Govt. of India
(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) World Bank
(E) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
Answer : (E)

31. The National Illness Assistance Fund (NIAF) which was set up in 1997 is now known with a new name as—
(A) Rastriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN)
(B) National Health Mission (NHM)
(C) Pulse Polio Abhiyan (PPA)
(D) Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

32. Bhimsen Joshi who was chosen for India’s highest civilian award ‘Bharat Ratna’ is a famous—
(A) Sitarist
(B) Tabla Player
(C) Classical Singer
(D) Classical Dancer
(E) Cine Actor
Answer : (C)

33. As we all know the UN Security Council and IAEA want Iran to stop enrichment of Uranium as they fear that Iran may produce nuclear armaments. What is Irans’ view on the issue ?
1. Iran says it is doing enrichment for civilian purposes only
2. Iran is of the view that in the present scenario of the building tension in gulf region it needs a nuclear bomb to protect its interests.
3. Iran has signed Nuclear Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and it is doing whatever is allowed to do under NPT’s terms and conditions
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

34. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the Govt. of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macro economic parameters ?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

35. As we all know the Govt. of India has launched a massive infrastructure development programme known as Bharat Nirman. What is/are the goal(s) of this programme ?
1. To bring at least one crore hectares additional land under assured irrigation
2. To provide internet connections to all 1,25,000 villages by 2012.
3. To provide road connectivity to all villages with a population of 1000 in plains and 500 in hilly areas.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)

36. Some members of the World Trade Organization (WTO) have raised objections on India’s decision to give export subsidies on which of the following commodities ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Sugar
(C) Rice
(D) Steel
(E) Cement
Answer : (C)

37. Who among the following is the author of the book entitled, “To a Hunger-free World” ?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Nelson Mandela
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

38. National Games and Sports 2011 will be organised in which of the following states ?
(A) Goa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

39. ‘Jakumi’ is the mascot of which of the following events ?
(A) Commonwealth Games 2009
(B) SAARC Games 2010
(C) National Games 2009
(D) European Union Games 2012
(E) FIFA World Cup 2010
Answer : (E)

40. Nobel Laureate (2008) Jean-Marie Gustave le Clezio writes in which of the following languages ?
(A) French
(B) Spanish
(C) Japanese
(D) German
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. Shiva Narayan Chandrapol, who was honoured with “Cricketer of the Year, 2008” by ICC, belongs to—
(A) India
(B) South Africa
(C) West Indies
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)

42. ……… was the only Indian to win a gold medal in Olympic 2008.
(A) Saina Nehwal
(B) Sudesh Kumar
(C) Pankaj Advani
(D) Mahesh Bhupati
(E) Abhinav Bindra
Answer : (E)

43. The name of Jigme Khesar N. Wangchuk was in news, since he was enthroned as the…… of the following country.
(A) President of Bhutan
(B) King of Bhutan
(C) Prime Minister of Thailand
(D) King of Cambodia
(E) Prime Minister of Cambodia
Answer : (B)

44. Irani Cup is associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Golf
(E) Lawn Tennis
Answer : (B)

45. Recently Govt. of India has decided to increase the direct foreign investment, from present 26 per cent to—
(A) 40%
(B) 45%
(C) 49%
(D) 74%
(E) 100%
Answer : (C)

46. Third summit of IBSA was organised in October 2008 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Salvador
(C) Durban
(D) Mumbai
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

47. Recently, who of the following was awarded National Amity Prize 2008 ?
(A) Shekhar Gupta
(B) Kiran Desai
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Khushwant Singh
Answer : (E)

48. As per news in the newspapers, the President of country is Mr. Mugabo who has signed an agreement with the opposition leader Morgan Swanariroy to share to rule the country. What is the name of the country ?
(A) Zimbabwe
(B) Croatia
(C) Sudan
(D) Ethiopia
(E) Egypt
Answer : (A)

49. Dronacharya Prize is awarded in the field of…… for excellence in coaching.
(A) Literature
(B) Games and Sports
(C) Cinema
(D) Classical Dance
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

50. Which of the following rate/ratio is not fixed by Reserve Bank of India ?
(A) Rapo rate
(B) SLR
(C) CRR
(D) Inflation
(E) RBI fixes all the above
Answer : (D)

2011-04-22T20:37:00.000-07:00

I.D.B.I. Assistant Manager Exam., 2010

General and Financial Awareness

(Exam Held on 14-11-2010)

1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—
(A) to give boost to bank deposits
(B) to safeguard banks advances
(C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature
(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—
(A) 50% under section 80G
(B) 75% under section 80G
(C) 100% under section 80 G
(D) 100% under section 88
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?
(A) Disbursal of small value credit
(B) Collection of small value deposits
(C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products
(D) All the three above
(E) Only (B) and (C) above
Ans : (E)

5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—
(A) Rs. 3,000
(B) Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 15,000
(E) There is no such provision
Ans : (B)

6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—
(A) Sanction of loans
(B) Enhancement of loan limits
(C) Recovery of loans
(D) All the above
(E) None of above
Ans : (C)

7. MSMED Act is applicable to—
(A) Smalls enterprises only
(B) Medium enterprises only
(C) Micro enterprises only
(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity
Ans : (D)

8. Money Laundering refers to—
(A) Conversion of assets into cash
(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(C) Conversion of cash into gold
(D) Conversion of gold into cash
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)

9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—
(A) one year
(B) one month
(C) two years
(D) five years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. PPF account is opened for a period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. Yuan is the currency of—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—
(A) Six years
(B) Three years
(C) Six and half years
(D) Five years
(E) Five and half years
Ans : (A)

13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 20 years
(E) Any number of years
Ans : (E)

14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) FEDAI
(D) BCSBI
(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises
Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?
(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(B) No interest earning for banks
(C) Works like a normal withdrawal
(D) All the above
(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder
Ans : (E)

16. IFRS stands for—
(A) International Financial Reporting standards
(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards
(C) International Financial Rating Standards
(D) All the three above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

17. What is the present Repo Rate ?
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—
(A) Derivatives
(B) Securitisation
(C) Leasing
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
Ans : (A)

19. What is the full form of ASBA ?
(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount
(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount
(C) Application supported by Bank Amount
(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)

20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity
(C) Increase the liquidity with banking system
(D) Keep the liquidity at one level
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?
(A) A Highway project
(B) Construction of Educational Institution
(C) Construction of Hospital
(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)

22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) Financial Action Task Force
(E) Ministry of Home affairs
Ans : (A)

23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—
(A) Power of a person
(B) An authority to operate a Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 200
(D) Rs. 500
(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank
Ans : (B)

25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) New Delhi
(E) All the above places
Ans : (D)

26. Bridge loans refer to—
(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges
(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers
(C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—
(A) Payee
(B) Holder
(C) Purchaser
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?
(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank
(B) The Deputy Governor RBI
(C) Governor of RBI
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)

29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?
(A) To boost their lending capacity
(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms
(C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio
(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. What is monetary policy transmission ?
(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank
(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government
(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy
(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?
(A) Tightening of monetary policy
(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector
(C) Concessions for foreign investment
(D) Introduction of GST
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—
(A) Customer
(B) Members Establishments
(C) Banks
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)

33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?
(A) RBI Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Indian Companies Act
(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Bancassurance is—
(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks
(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product
(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—
(A) Separate
(B) Small
(C) Special
(D) Savings
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) CRISIL
(E) IBA
Ans : (A)

37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—
(A) Personal Loans
(B) Priority Sector Loan
(C) Business Loan
(D) Corporate Loan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) IBA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas
(B) To provide employment to educated youth
(C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes
(D) To create more valuable rural assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (B)

42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?
(A) Retail Lending
(B) Corporate Lending
(C) SME Lending
(D) Supply Chain Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Expand the term FRBM—
(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management
(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
(C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 30 days
(E) 60 days
Ans : (D)

45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?
(A) Spain
(B) Turkey
(C) Portugal
(D) Greece
(E) Finland
Ans : (D)

46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?
(A) 2•0
(B) 2•5
(C) 3•0
(D) 4•0
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?
1. Good Health Service
2. Freedom from illiteracy
3. Optimum Sex Ratio
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?
(A) 4•0
(B) 4•5
(C) 5
(D) 3•33
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2011-04-22T20:36:00.002-07:00

IDBI PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

Quantitative aptitude

Qno.1-4. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
1. 14 13 22 55 212 1035
(1) 55 (2) 13 (3) 212 (4) 22 (5) None of these
2. 217 224 213 226 210 228
(1) 213 (2) 226 (3) 210 (4) 228 (5) None of these
3. 153 495 712 837 901 928
(1) 712 (2) 837 (3) 901 (4) 928 (5) None of these
4. 488 245 124 64 35 20.25
(1) 124 (2) 64 (3) 245 (4) 35 (5) None of these
5. A 250 metres long train crosses a platform in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 25 metres/second
(2) 20 metres/second
(3) 22 metres/second
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
6. The compound interest earned on an amount of Rs 15,000 at the end of 3 years is Rs 3895.68. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
(1) 8 (2) 6.5 (3) 5 (4) 12 (5) None of these
7. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. 20 women take 16 days to complete the same piece of work. 12 men and 10 women work together for 6 days. How many
more days would 10 women alone require to complete the remaining piece of work?
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 16 (5) None of these
8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FORMULATE’ be arranged?
(1) 81,000 (2) 40,320 (3) 3,62,880 (4) 1,53,420 (5) None of these
9. The frogs in a pond increase by 10% at the end of every year. If at the start of the year 2004, there were 2,14,000 frogs in the pond, then what would be the number of frogs
in the pond by the end of the year 2006?
(1) 2,35,400 (2) 2,68,940 (3) 2,64,328 (4) 2,98,644 (5) None of these
Qno.10-14. In each of these questions, two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and find out the values of x and y and Give answer If
(1) x
(2) x>y
(3) x ≤y
(4) x ≥y
(5) x=y or if the relationship cannot be established
10. i. 12×2 = 6x
ii. y + x2 = 0.45
11. i. x 6.25
ii. y2 = 6.25
12. i. 20×2 – 33x + 7 = 0
ii. y 0.0625
13. i. 6×2 + 28x + 16 = 0
ii. 14y2 + 15y + 4 = 0
14. i. 4x + 3y = 16
ii. 2x + 4y = 13

15. On children’s day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 540 children. But on that particular day, 120 children were absent. Thus, each child got 4 sweets extra. How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?
(1) 18 (2) 25 (3) 14 (4) 20 (5) None of these
16. A boat covers a distance of 24 kms in 10 hours downstream. To cover the same distance upstream, the boat takes two hours longer. What is the speed of the boat in still
waters?
(1) 2 km/hr (2) 2.8 km/hr (3) 4 km/hr (4) 4.2 km/hr (5) None of these
17. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 121 sq cms. What is the area of the circle?
(1) 44 sq cms (2) 154 sq cms (3) 121 sq cms (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
18. Sonia started a business by investing Rs 60,000. Six months later Vivek joined her by investing Rs 1,40,000. After one year Kirti joined them by investing Rs 1,20,000. At the
end of two years from the commencement of the business, 57 AUGUST 2006 THE COMPETITION MASTER O B J E C T I V E -T Y P E Q U E S T I O N S
they earn a profit of Rs 4,50,000. What is Vivek’s share in the profit?
(1) Rs 1,40,000 (2) Rs 1,98,500 (3) Rs 2,15,000 (4) Rs 2,10,000 (5) None of these
19. An urn contains 4 green and 7 blue marbles. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that only two of them are blue?
(1)4955 (2)711 (3)2855 (4)1128 (5) None of these

Qno.20-24. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
20. 3 5 4 1 1 1 –2 ? 4 8 5 2
(1)7240 (2)7140 (3)3240 (4)3140 (5) None of these
21. 14 × 18.6 ÷ 12 + 19.3 = ?
(1) 41 (2) 33.5 (3) 291.9 (4) 8.32 (5) None of these
22. 84.2 × 642.1 × 78.4 × 563.5 = 56?
(1) 18.2 (2) 9.8 (3) 11.9 (4) 12.6 (5) None of these
23. (4)2 + (3)2 = ?
(1) 25 (2) 5 (3) 125 (4) 425 (5) None of these
24. 53% of 120 + 25% of 862 = ?% of 500
(1) 42.50 (2) 55.82 (3) 63.68 (4) 38.89 (5) None of these
Qno.25-29. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:
(1) if the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
25. What is the area of the square?
I. Measure of the diagonal of the square is 80 cms.
II. The perimeter of the square is equal to the circumference of a circle.
26. What is Asha’s present salary?
I. Her salary increases every year by 15 per cent.
II. She joined the organization seven years ago.
27. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
I. The compound interest acurred on an amount of Rs 1,500 at the end of 2 years is Rs 660.
II. An amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest.
28. What is the total staff strength of the organization?
I. 75% of the staff consists of male employees.
II. The ratio of female to male employees in the organization is 1 : 3 respectively.
29. What is the two digit number?
I. The sum of the two digits of the number is 8.
II. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is lesser than the original number by 18.

Answers:

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (5) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (5) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4)
21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (5) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (4) 29. (5)

2011-04-22T20:36:00.000-07:00

I.D.B.I. Bank Officers Cadre Exam

Solved Question Paper of I.D.B.I. Bank Officers Cadre Exam Held on 3^rd October 2008.

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SHOULDER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Brick
(B) Cement
(C) Sand
(D) Mortar
(E) Wall
3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, using each letter once in each word, which of the following is the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(A) L
(B) E
(C) S
(D) X
(E) Y
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Methane
(D) Neon
(E) Helium
5. In a certain code BREAKING is written as BFSCFMHJ. How is MOTHERLY written in that code ?
(A) IUPNZMSF
(B) IUPNXKQD
(C) IUPNFSMZ
(D) GSNLZMSF
(E) None of these
6. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is taller than S. T is shorter than P. R is taller than Q but shorter than T. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) S
(B) P
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
7. Mohan correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before 16th but after 13th August whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after 14th but before 18th August. On which day in August was their mother’s birthday definitely ?
(A) 15th
(B) 14th
(C) 14th or 15th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code BEND is written as ‘5%3#’ and NIGHT is written as ‘3@©64’. How is DEBT written in that code ?
(A) #%©4
(B) #@54
(C) #%34
(D) #%54
(E) None of these
9. How many such digits are there in the number 5834619 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
10. If the positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 85231467 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on, which of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Answers of (1-10 Questions):
1. (C) 2. (E) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (B),6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–16) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements :
All drums are tubes.
Some tubes are pipes.
No pipe is stick.
Some sticks are rubbers.
Conclusions :
I. Some rubbers are tubes.
II. Some sticks are drums.
III. Some pipes are drums.
IV. Some sticks are tubes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) Only III follows
12. Statements :
Some pens are rooms.
All rooms are walls.
Some walls are bricks.
All bricks are slates.
Conclusions :
I. Some slates are walls.
II. Some walls are pens.
III. Some bricks are rooms
IV. Some slates are rooms.
(A) Only I and III follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these
13. Statements :
Some chairs are pencils.
Some pencils are bottles.
Some bottles are bags.
Some bags are books.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. No book is pencil.
IV. Some bags are chairs.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only either I or III follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
14. Statements :
Some roads are buses.
All buses are trains.
Some trains are trucks.
All trucks are kites.
Conclusions :
I. Some trucks are roads.
II. Some kites are buses.
III. Some trains are roads.
IV. Some kites are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
15. Statements :
All beads are rings.
All rings are bangles.
All bangles are tyres.
All tyres are pendants.
Conclusions :
I. Some pendants are beads.
II. Some tyres are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.
IV. Some pendants are rings.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I, II and III follow
(C) Only II, III and IV follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
(E) All follow
16. Statements :
Some desks are fruits.
All fruits are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are flowers.
II. No desk is branch.
III. Some flowers are desks.
IV. Some branches are desks.
(A) Only either II or IV follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either II or IV and III follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Answers from 11 to 16 are as follows:

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (E) 15. (E),16. (C)

Directions—(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
R 4 P I J M Q 3 % T @ © U K 5 V 1 W $ Y 2 B E 6 # 9 D H 8 G * Z N
17. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) #
(C) %
(D) $
(E) None of these
18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
19. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
20. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
21. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P J Q T © K 1 $ 2 ?
(A) E # D
(B) 6 9 D
(C) 6 9 8
(D) 6 # D
(E) None of these
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) W Y 1
(B) Q % M
(C) © K @
(D) 9 H 6
(E) G Z 8
Answers from 17 to 22:

17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A),21. (E) 22. (D)
Directions—(Q. 23–28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a club. Each of them has a favourite sport from-Chess, Table Tennis, Lawn Tennis, Volleyball, Badminton, Basketball and Carrom, not necessarily in the same order.
Each of them also has a specific choice of colour from—Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Grey, Black and White, not necessarily in the same order.
R likes Green and his favourite sport is Badminton. V’s choice of colour is neither Red nor Black. T’s favourite sport is neither Table Tennis nor Basketball. The one who likes Blue does not like Carrom. The one who likes Volleyball does not like Yellow and Grey. Q’s favourite sport is Lawn Tennis and he likes Black. S likes White. W likes Basketball. P likes Volleyball. T likes Blue. The one who likes Basketball does not like Grey.
23. What is V’s choice of colour ?
(A) Black
(B) Grey
(C) Yellow
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
24. What is T’s favourite sport ?
(A) Basketball
(B) Volleyball
(C) Chess
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
25. Whose favourite sport is Carrom?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) W
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
26. Whose favourite sport is basketball ?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) W
(D) R
(E) Data inadequate
27. What is W’s choice of colour ?
(A) Green
(B) White
(C) Black
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following combinations of sport and colour is correct ?
(A) Table Tennis, Yellow
(B) Volleyball, Red
(C) Volleyball, Grey
(D) Chess, Black
(E) Carrom, Green
Answers from 23 to 28 are as follows:

23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D),26. (C) 27. (E) 28. (B)

Directions—(Q. 29–34) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, give answer (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :
R K A D E M W T I V U B F H P
Digit/Symbol :
2 δ 3 * 1 8 # 4 $ 5 © 9 6 @ 7
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as ‘?’.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out the coded form of the letter groups given in each question.
29. AMPERI
(A) 38712$
(B) $87123
(C) 387123
(D) 37812$
(E) None of these
30. RTVUBH
(A) 245©9@
(B) @45©92
(C) @45©9@
(D) ?45©9?
(E) None of these
31. BEFKMA
(A) 916δ83
(B) ?16δ8?
(C) 316δ89
(D) 316δ83
(E) None of these
32. EWPKIH
(A) 1#7δ$@
(B) ?#7δ$?
(C) 17#δ$@
(D) @#7δ$1
(E) None of these
33. RTDAVB
(A) 94*352
(B) 24*352
(C) ?4*35?
(D) 24*359
(E) None of these
34. HEUPKI
(A) @1©7δ$
(B) $1©7δ$
(C) @1©7δ@
(D) ?1©7δ?
(E) None of these
Answers from 29 to 34 are as follows
29. (A) 30. (C),31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (D) .
Directions—(Q. 35–40) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, δ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ? Give answer—
(A) If only Conclusion I is true
(B) If only Conclusion II is true
(C) If either Conclusion I or II is true
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true
35. Statements :
R © T, T @ M, M δ D
Conclusions : I. D # T
II. M # T
36. Statements :
B @ N, N % R, R © F
Conclusions : I. B @ F
II. N # F
37. Statements :
D # T, T @ R, R © M
Conclusions : I. M # D
II. M # T
38. Statements :
K δ H, H % F, F # J
Conclusions : I. F © K
II. J © H
39. Statements :
W @ G, N © G, N % V
Conclusions : I. W @ N
II. V © G
40. Statements :
T © Y, Y % M, M @ R
Conclusions : I. R # Y
II. T δ M
Answers from 35 to 40 are as follows
35. (E),36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions—
a, b, c, d, e and f are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. f is third to the right of b who is second to the right of e. c is third to the left of e. a is not an immediate neighbour of f.
41. Who is to the immediate right of f ?
(A) c
(B) d
(C) e
(D) b
(E) None of these
42. Who is to the immediate left of c ?
(A) b
(B) f
(C) b or f
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
43. Who is second to the right of c ?
(A) a
(B) e
(C) d
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
44. Who is to the immediate right of a ?
(A) e
(B) d
(C) c
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who are the immediate neighbours of e ?
(A) ab
(B) df
(C) bd
(D) af
(E) None of these
Answers from 41 to 45 are as folows
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (E) 44. (E) 45. (D)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
(E) If the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
46. How many daughters does M have ?
I. N and P are sisters of K.
II. M is father of K.
47. On which day of the week did Mohan visit temple ?
I. Mohan visited the temple one day after his sister’s visit to temple.
II. Mohan’s sister visited the temple before Sunday.
48. What does ‘ja’ mean in a code language ?
I. ‘ja pa na’ means ‘go home now’ in that code language.
II. ‘na da ta’ means ‘come back home’ in that code language.
49. Among M, N, T, P and R each having different weight, who is the heaviest ?
I. T is heavier than P and M but lighter than N who is not the heaviest.
II. M is lighter than P.
50. How is D related to T ?
I. D’s brother is father of T’s sister.
II. T’s brother is son of D’s brother.

Answers from 46 to 50
46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D).

2011-04-22T20:35:00.001-07:00

IDBI Bank Executive Exam., 2009

IDBI Bank Executive Exam., 2009

Reasoning : Solved Paper

(Held on 13-12-2009)

1. If ‘M’ denotes ‘+’, ‘N’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘R’ denotes ‘–’ and Q denotes ‘x’ then—
15 M 12 Q 5 R 40 N 8 = ?
(A) 70
(B) 130
(C) 45
(D) 60
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. How many meaningful English words can be formed using the third, fifth, ninth and eleventh letters of the word ‘COMMANDMENT’ using each letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

3. Seema correctly remembers that she took leave after 21st October and before 27th October. Her colleague Rita took leave on 23rd October but Seema was present on that day. If 24th October was a public holiday and 26th October was Sunday, on which day in October did Seema take leave ?
(A) 22nd October
(B) 25th October
(C) 22nd or 25th October
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 4 and 5) The following questions are based on the five three letter words given below—
PUN SAD CRY FOE STY
If each of the words is rearranged in alphabetical order then—
4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word using each letter only once, from the first letters of each of the five words after the letters of each word are rearranged in alphabetical order, the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word can be formed, ‘X’ is the answer and if no such word can be formed then ‘W’ is the answer.
(A) E
(B) N
(C) X
(D) W
(E) S
Ans : (C)

5. How many words will remain unchanged even after their rearrangement in alphabetical order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VERIFIED’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

7. The fare paying capacity of people who travel on routes connecting to small towns is very low. Most successful airlines which operate in such regions have a large number of seats.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above information ?
(A) Regional airlines are quite profitable.
(B) People from cities are increasingly travelling to small towns.
(C) Regional airlines have to charge low fares in order to be profitable.
(D) The number of people travelling from small towns to cities is massive.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If ‘A ×D’ means ‘A is the sister of D’, ‘A + D’ means ‘D is the daughter of A’ and ‘A ÷ D’ means ‘A is the mother of D’, then how will N is the aunt of M be denoted ?
(A) M + L ×N
(B) M ÷ L + N
(C) L ×N ÷ M
(D) N ×L ÷ M
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. M earns more than X and less than T. V earns more than M and T. R earns more than only X. Who earns the least among the five of them ?
(A) X
(B) V
(C) M
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. The Court has stayed proceedings against the stockbroker. He can now return to the country. Which of the following can be assumed from the given information ?
(A) The stockbroker is innocent.
(B) The police cannot arrest the stockbroker.
(C) The judge has been bribed.
(D) Complaints filed against the stockbroker have been withdrawn.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. A sits third to the left of C and second to the right of E. B sits second to the right of D who is not an immediate neighbour of E. H sits second to the left of F. G is not an immediate neighbour of D.

11. Which of the following pairs has only one person sitting-between them, if the counting is done in clockwise direction ?
(A) F, G
(B) H, G
(C) H, C
(D) H, B
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Who sits third to the right of E ?
(A) D
(B) G
(C) F
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. What is the position of G with respect to A’s position ?
(A) Immediately to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Fourth to the right
Ans : (D)

14. Who sits between E and A ?
(A) F
(B) D
(C) G
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

15. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of how many members (excluding A) would remain unchanged ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements :
Some stoves are ovens.
All ovens are cylinders.
Some engines are stoves.
Some metals are cylinders.
Conclusions :
I. Some ovens are metals
II. Some cylinders are stoves
III. Some ovens are engines
IV. No engine is a cylinder
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans : (E)

17. Statements :
Some cars are buses.
Some buses are trains.
All airplanes are trains.
All trucks are buses.
Conclusions :I. Some airplanes are trucks.
II. Some cars are trains.
III. Some trucks are airplanes.
IV. No truck is train.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
All tools are trees.
Some trees are flowers.
No hammer is flower.
Conclusions :I. All hammers are tools.
II. No tool is flower.
III. Some hammers are trees.
IV. Some flowers are tools.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I and either II or IV follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. Statements :
Some bags are pockets.
Some pockets are trousers.
All skirts are pockets.
Some belts are bags.
Conclusions :I. Some trousers are belts.
II. Some skirts are bags.
III. No trouser is belt.
IV. Some skirts are trousers.
(A) All follow
(B) Only II and IV follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. Statements :Some cats are tigers.
All lions are cats.
Some horses are lions.
All horses are animals.
Conclusions :I. Some lions are tigers.
II. No horse is tiger.
III. Some horses are cats.
IV. Some horses are tigers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III and either II or IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Statements :
Some clocks are radios.
No radio is laptop.
Some fridges are clocks.
Some clocks are laptops.
Conclusions :I. Some fridges are laptops.
II. No radio is fridge.
III. Laptops are either fridges or clocks.
IV. No laptop is fridge.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only either I or IV follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. Statements :Some notes are coins.
Some papers are plastics.
All coins are papers.
No note is cardboard.
Conclusions :I. Some notes are papers.
II. Some coins are plastics.
III. No paper is cardboard.
IV. No note is plastic.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Statements :All stools are desks.
No desk is shelf.
All shelves are cupboards.
Some cupboards are mirrors.
Conclusions :
I. No mirror is shelf.
II. No stool is shelf.
III. No cupboard is desk.
IV. No mirror is desk.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 24–28) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
M ? 2 D B 7 A 4 * 9 6 $ T + N 5 @ V E W # U 8 F © 3

24. How many such prime numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

25. If the places of the symbols are interchanged with those of the numbers immediately following them in the given arrangement then which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) V
(B) @
(C) 5
(D) N
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. Which of the following is the seventh letter to the left of # ?
(A) A
(B) N
(C) T
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
2 7 B 4 6 9 T 5 N ?
(A) @ W E
(B) 5 E V
(C) V U #
(D) V # W
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. If the symbols and numbers are dropped from the given arrangement and then the letters are rearranged in alphabetical order which of the following will be the sixth from the left end ?
(A) M
(B) F
(C) N
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 29–33) Below in each question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the
following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statements I and II are effects of some common causes.

29. I. There has been mass recruitment of IT professionals by Indian IT companies
II. Many developed countries are increasingly outsourcing IT related functions to India and China.
Ans : (B)

30. I. Many farmers have given up jute cultivation as it is no longer economically viable.
II. The textile ministry has proposed a hike in the Minimum Support Price of jute.
Ans : (A)

31. I. The government is considering changes in the Land Acquisition Act.
II. Several large infrastructure development projects have been stalled due to unavailability of land.
Ans : (E)

32. I. The Government is considering the possibility of involving private sector companies in highway construction projects.
II. The implementation of many highway projects undertaken by government agencies is behind schedule in various states.
Ans : (B)

33. I. The price of aircraft fuel has risen during the past few months.
II. Many passenger airlines in India have been forced to cut their air fares by about 10 per cent.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 34–40) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter :W R A P G B M U S E F T N D
Digit/Symbol Codes :$ 8 ! 2 7 # 9 @ ? 5 b 4 * 6
Conditions :
I. If the middle letter is a vowel, the codes for the first and the fourth letters are to be interchanged.
II. If the first two letters are consonants, the first letter is to be coded, no code may be given to the second letter and the remaining three letters are to be coded.
III. If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as the code for the consonant.

34. NEAST—
(A) ?5!*4
(B) ?5!4*
(C) 4*!5?
(D) 45!?
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. DAEWP—
(A) 6!5$2
(B) $!562
(C) 6!52$
(D) $265!
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. PEFTG—
(A) 25b42
(B) 2b4G
(C) 25b47
(D) 47b25
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. SMGBE—
(A) ?975#
(B) 97#5?
(C) ?97#5
(D) ?#79?
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. UGREN—
(A) *785@
(B) *785*
(C) @785@
(D) @85*
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

39. RBMFN—
(A) 8#9b4
(B) b*98#
(C) 89b*
(D) 8#9b*
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. MUTWA—
(A) 9@$4!
(B) 94$!
(C) 94@!$
(D) 9@4$!
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow—

A bank is disbursing educational loans to meritorious students. Loans will be made available to applicants who possess the following criteria.
The candidate must—
I. Be a citizen of India
II. Have secured admission to a post graduate course (Masters or P. G. Diploma) offered by an Indian or foreign university in India.
III. Have secured 60 per cent marks in the entrance examination for the course.
IV. Have security (property/LIC policy) equivalent to the loan amount.
However if the applicant fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(1) At (II) above the case may be referred to the Loan committee.
(2) At (IV) above guarantee of a third party who has an account with the bank may be obtained.
Mark answer :
(A) If the loan is to be sanctioned.
(B) If the loan is to be rejected.
(C) If the loan is to be referred to the loan committee.
(D) If guarantee from an account holder is needed.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

41. Shruti has secured admission to MNV University in Chennai for a post-graduate degree in management. She obtained 65 per cent in the entrance test for the course. She has an Indian passport.
Ans : (E)

42. Milind has applied and secured admission for a post-graduate degree in advertising at MIC University Ahmedabad. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. He secured 70 per cent in his graduation and is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

43. Prakash has applied for a postgraduate course in IT and Animation which will commence from January in Kolkata. He has secured admission to the course having obtained 60 per cent in the written entrance test.
His uncle who has an account with the bank is willing to stand guarantor.
Ans : (E)

44. Anil is an Indian science graduate who has secured admission for a Masters degree in Computer Science from a prestigious Indian University. He stood first in the entrance test with 82 per cent marks. His family is willing to use their house, which is equivalent in value to the loan amount, as security. He will stay with his uncle in Dubai during the course.
Ans : (A)

45. Nikhil’s part time P.G. Diploma in Management will begin in December. He secured 65 per cent in the All India entrance exam and has secured admission to a college in Mumbai. He has requested a transfer for the
duration of the course. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. Nikhil holds an Indian passport.
Ans : (A)

46. Maria secured 75% in the entrance exam to NVT College Pune and has obtained admission. An Indian national she has the necessary property to offer as security for the loan amount. The duration of her undergraduate degree course in Computer Applications is 3 years.
Ans : (E)

47. Deepa obtained 70 per cent in her engineering entrance exam for her Masters and has secured admission to the college of her choice. She has an LIC policy equivalent in value to the loan amount. Her interview to obtain a visa for her course in the U.S. is on November 25. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

48. Sudhir has applied for a postgraduate degree in Pharmacy at All India Institute at New Delhi. He is an Indian citizen and having secured 60 per cent in his entrance exam, he has been granted admission. He does not have any property to use as security. His father who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)

49. Anandi has secured admission for a P.G. Diploma in Management at a University in Allahabad with 72 per cent in the entrance examination. She has an LIC Policy amounting to the loan amount. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

50. Ravi has obtained admission to the Indian Institute of Research at Chandigarh for a Masters in Mathematics offered only to Indian citizens. He secured 68 per cent in the entrance test. He does not have any security against the loan. However his employer who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)

2011-04-22T20:33:00.003-07:00

I.D.B.I Bank Exam Paper 2009

I.D.B.I Bank Exam Paper 2009

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.

The electrtic car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.

However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.

Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.

Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.

The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.

1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more ecofriendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) Alot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity fromthe grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)

11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)

12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)

14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)

15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.

31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest.

However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.

Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.

36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)

37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)

38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)

39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)

40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)

41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)

42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)

43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)

44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)

45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)

47. The workers, several of ………had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)

48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)

49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)

50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)

2011-04-22T20:33:00.001-07:00

IDBI BANK EXAM 2009

I.D.B.I Bank (Executive) Exam 2009
(Held on 13-12-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.

The electrtic car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.

However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.

Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.

Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.

The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.

1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more ecofriendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) Alot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity fromthe grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)

11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)

12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)

14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)

15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.

31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest.

However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.

Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.

36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)

37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)

38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)

39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)

40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)

41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)

42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)

43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)

44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)

45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)

47. The workers, several of ………had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)

48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)

49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)

50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)

2011-04-22T20:32:00.000-07:00

UNION BANK OF INDIA PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL AWARENESS
(EXAM HELD ON 09-01-2011)

1. A hockey player is supposed to know the meaning of the term?
(A) Dead Ball
(B) Bouncer
(C) LBW
(D) Penalty Corner
(E) Frozen Ball
ANS: D
2. Which one of the following have provided bailout package to Ireland to deal with its debt crisis?
(A) EU only
(B) IMP only
(C) World Bank only
(D) Only (A) and (B) above
(E) All (A), (B) and (C) above
ANS: D
3. Which one of the following Indian Company is the only company from India to be included in the Top Ten 2010 Value creators Global Ranking released by global management consulting firm BCG?
(A) RIL
(B) Tata Steel
(C) Bharti Airtel
(D) JSPL
(E) Bajaj Auto
ANS: D
4: Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) UNIDO
(E)UNESCO
ANS: D
5. BIPA with Sudan comes into effect was the news in various newspaper recently. It is an agreement for?
(A) Investment in a country
(B) Peaceful use of atomic power
(C) Allowing students to visit each others nation
(D) Allowing people to come for medical treatment
(E)
ANS: A
To form an alliance with each other in case of a war
6. In which one of the following sports Sandhya Rani Devi bagged
Silver in Asiad 2010, Games?
(A) Shooting
(B) Squash
(C) Taekwondo
(D) Ten-pin bowling
(E) Wushu
ANS: E
7. Which of the’ following terms is normally not seen in the field of
International Relations?
(A) Exchange Rate
(B) Free Trade
(C) MFN
(D) Alluvial Soil
(E) OECD
ANS: D
8. According to mid term review of Indian economy, which one of the following segments will be the major contributor to GDP growth?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Mining
(E) None of these
ANS: C
9. Which of the following films directed by Aamir Khan was sent for OSCARs Award nominations from India?
(A) Rang De Basanti
(B) Peepli Live
(C) Tare Zamin Par
(D) Lagan
(E) None of these
ANS: B
10. In which one of the following states, population growth rate is lower than national average?
(A) Dethi
(B) Gujarat
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Orissa
ANS: E
11.In broad gauge, the distance between the rails is
(A) 1.00 metre
(B) 3 metre
(C) 1.67 metre
(D) 2.67 metre
(E) 0.76 metre
ANS: C
12. Who is Indra Nooyi?
(A) CEO Coca Cola
(B) CEO PepsiCo.
(C) Managing Director Nano Division
(D) India’s permanent representative to UNO
(E) None of these
ANS: B
13. ET Now and CNBC TV18, TV Channels essentially broadcast
(A) English News
(B) Classic English Movies
(C) Political Events and News
(D) Business and Economic News
(E) All important national and international news in English
ANS: D
14. Amongst the following sports men/women, who has won the first gold medal at Guangzhou Asian Games?
(A) Yuan Xiachao
(B) Wang Migluen
(C) Zhu Oianward
(D) Takeshi Matsuda
(E) Wu Jingbiao
ANS: A
15. With which one of the following fields was Satyajit Ray associated?
(A)Films
(B) Sports
(C) Social Work
(D). Drama
(E)Short Stories
ANS: A
16. ‘Daniel Vettroi’ is captain of which one of the following teams?
(A) New Zealand Cricket Team
(B)South Africa Cricket Team
(C)New Zealand Basket Ball Team
(D) West Indies Cricket Team
(E) Australia Cricket Team
ANS: A
17. Who amongst the following carried Indian Tricolour at
Guangzhou Asian Games?
(A) Sania Mirza
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Gagan Narang
(D) Suranjay Singh
(E) Randhir Singh
ANS: C
18. Financial ratio analysis of a company helps in understanding—
1. The long term debt raising capacity
2. The short term solvency
3. The reasons for fluctuation in its stock prices
4. The net worth of the company
5.The profitability
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 2,3,4
(C)3,4,5
(D) 3,1,2,4
(E) 1,2,4,5
ANS: E
19. Human breath is visible in winter but not in summer because—
(A) The difference in outside pressure gives visibility to breath
(B) Breath contains certain impurities and visible matters
(C) Water vapour in breath condenses in cold air, making it visible
(D) Breath has heat in it which evaporates in cold air giving visibility
(E) None of these
ANS: D
20. Which of the following is/are not the names of Seven North
Eastern States?
1. Jorhat
2. Manipur
3. Meghalaya
4. Agartala
5. Dimapur
(A) 1,2,3
(B) 2,3,4
(C) 3, 4, 1
(D) 1, 4, 2
(E) 1,4,5
ANS: E
21. According to a recent newspaper survey, which one of the following is the most preferred language for leisure reading among the Indian Youth?
(A) Hindi
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) Telugu
(E) English
ANS: E
22. Who was Dr. C. Rangarajan?
(A) Chairman, PMEAC
(B) Member, Planning Commission
(C) Chief Economist, IBA
(D) RBI Governor
(E) Member, Minority Commission
ANS: D
23. Which of the following is an oilseed?
(A) Garlic
(B) Clove
(C) Cardamom
(D) Cumin Seed
(E) Mustard
ANS: E
24. The RBI reviews its credit and monetary policy at regular intervals and also in between. What is the purpose of the same?
1. To ensure that inflation does not cross the limit
2. To ensure that banks have enough liquidity
3. To ensure that cost of the fund does not reach a very high level
(A) Only 1
(B) Only2
(C) All1,2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) None of these
ANS: C
25. The name of the white revolution is associated with?
(A) J. V. Narlikar
(B) J.C.Bose
(C) Kurien Verghese
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
(E) C. Rangarajan
ANS: C
26. The cabinet committee recently approved the ‘IGMSY’ a scheme for the welfare of the people of India. Who amongst the following will get the benefit of the scheme?
(A) Mothers and pregnant women
(B) Children upto 12 years of age
(C) Youth
(D) Old and Senior Citizens
(E) All the above
ANS: A
27. The Govt. of India provides direct financial support to which of the following schemes?
(A) Jeevan Bharati Scheme
(B) ULIP
(C) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(D) Packing Credit Guarantee Scheme
(E) All of the above
ANS: C
28. Who amongst the following is a famous Urdu author/poet who received Jnanpith Award recently?
(A)Akhlaq Khan Shabryar
(B)ONV Kurup
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Krishna Sobti
(E)None of these
ANS: A
29. Who amongst the following is the author of the Book ‘A Bend in the River’?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Arun Shourie
(C) Octavia Paz
(D) Daniel Defoe
(E) Walter Scott
ANS: A
30. Which of the following is called
the pink city of India?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Lucknow
(C) Kota
(D) Hyderabad
(E) Jaipur
ANS: E
31. Which of the following states got a new Chief Minister without
new assembly elections?
(A) Goa
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Gujarat
(E) Delhi
ANS: C
32. A two days National level conference /event was organised in
Chandigarh in September 2010.
Which was the conference /event?
(A) Miss India 2010
(B) Asian Women Hockey Finals 2010
(C) Conference of the Finance Ministers of SAARC
(D) National Rabi Conference
(E) None of these
ANS: E
33. Which of the following Summits took place in Hanoi in October
2010?
(A) ASEAN Summit
(B) SAARC Summit
(C) G-20 Summit
(D) G-8 Summit
(E) None of these
ANS: A
34. The Reserve Bank does not have an office in?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Jaipur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Bhopal
(E) Gulbarga
ANS: E
35. A Badminton player is supposed to know the meaning of the term
(A) Bouncer
(B) Love
(C) LBW
(D) Punch
(E) Booster
ANS: B
36. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2010?
(A) Ishant Sharma
(B) Hariom Singh
(C) M.S.Dhoni
(D) Sushil Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal
ANS: E
37. India extended a credit of US $ 250 million to which of the following countries, which will be used for infrastructural development there?
(A)China
(B) Pakistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
(E)Sudan
ANS: D
38. Which one of the following makes a case for intensive, modem farming?
(A) Higher output using organic method
(B) Remunerative price
(C) Cropping pattern
(D) Land acquisition for non agricultural needs
(E) None of these
ANS: C
39. In which one of the following States multi-thousand-food grain scam has recently been noticed by the High Court?
(A)M. P.
(B) Orissa
(C)Bihar
(D) Jharkhand
(E)U.P.
ANS: C
40. Which one of the following is the objective of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) issued by the Government?
(A), To ensure that Companies take steps for rehabilitation of project affected people
(B) To ensure that Companies use some of their profits for educating the project affected people
(C) To ensure that Companies provide health care to project affected people
(D) To ensure that Companies take preventive measures to avoid environmental damage
(E) None of these
ANS: A
41. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging
from?
(A) 2009—2014
(B) 2008—2013
(C) 2007—2012
(D) 2006—2011
(E) None of these
ANS: C
42. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to
(A) Meet its current liabilities
(B) Service its shareholders
(C) Meet its long term debt obligations
(D) Raise further capital
(E) None of these
ANS: C
43. An IPO is—
(A) Initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(B) An offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public
(C) Used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(D) A book building process
(E) None of these
ANS: B
44. A decreasing current ratio indicates
(A) A stable liquidity
(B) An increasing liquidity
(C) A strained liquidity
(D) Satisfactory current solvency
(E) None of these
ANS: E
45. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on
(A) The age of the company
(B) The location of the company
(C) The activity undertaken by the company
(D) The creditability and the valuation of the company
(E) The existing profitability of the company
ANS: E
46. The synagogue is generally
(A) An epic
(B) A religion
(C) Jewish House of Prayer
(D) The Parsi temple
(E) A palace
ANS: C
47.Deuce is a term used in
(a) Polo
(b) Lawn tennis
(c) Badminton
(d) Boxing
(e) Volley ball
(A) a,b,c
(B) b, c, d
(C) c,d,a
(D) a,b,e
(E) b,c,e
ANS: E
48. ISI is the intelligence agency of
(A) United Kingdom
(B) United States of America
(C) Israel
(D) Pakistan
(E) India
ANS: D
49. Air Traffic Controller’s job involves—
1. Control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
2. Control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
3. Following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
4. Control of commercial air line flights according to government regulations
5. To authorize and regulate
commercial airline flights
(A) 1,2
(B)2,3
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(E) 3,4,5
ANS: A
50. Animal assisted therapy is employed in?
(A) Operations
(B) ICU
(C) Old age homes
(D) Training animals
(E) Natural healing
ANS: D

2011-04-22T20:30:00.003-07:00

Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam 2010 Solved Paper

General Awareness

(Exam Held on 9-1-2011)

1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(A) 2009–2014
(B) 2008–2013
(C) 2007–2012
(D) 2006–2011
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(A) Meet its current liabilities
(B) Service its shareholders
(C) Meet its long term debt obligations
(D) Raise further capital
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. An IPO is—
(A) Initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(B) An offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public
(C) Used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(D) A book building process
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(A) A stable liquidity
(B) An increasing liquidity
(C) A strained liquidity
(D) Satisfactory current solvency
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(A) The age of the company
(B) The location of the company
(C) The activity undertaken by the company
(D) The creditability and the valuation of the company
(E) The existing profitability of the company
Ans : (E)

6. The synagogue is generally—
(A) An epic
(B) A religion
(C) Jewish House of Prayer
(D) The Parsi temple
(E) A palace
Ans : (C)

7. Deuce is a team used in—
(a) Polo
(b) Lawn tennis
(c) Badminton
(d) Boxing
(e) Volley ball
(A) a, b, c
(B) b, c, d
(C) c, d, a
(D) a, b, e
(E) b, c, e
Ans : (E)

8. ISI is the intelligence agency of—
(A) United Kingdom
(B) United States of America
(C) Israel
(D) Pakistan
(E) India
Ans : (D)

9. Air Traffic Controller's job involves—
1. Control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
2. Control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
3. Following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
4. Control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
5. To authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(E) 3, 4, 5
Ans : (A)

10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(A) Operations
(B) ICU
(C) Old age homes
(D) Training animals
(E) Natural healing
Ans : (D)

11. In broad gauge, the distance between the rails is—
(A) 1•00 metre
(B) 3 metre
(C) 1•67 metre
(D) 2•67 metre
(E) 0•76 metre
Ans : (C)

12. Who is Indra Nooyi ?
(A) CEO Coca Cola
(B) CFO PepsiCo.
(C) Managing Director Nano Division
(D) India's permanent representative to UNO
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. ET Now and CNBC TV18, TV Channels essentially broadcast—
(A) English News
(B) Classic English Movies
(C) Political Events and News
(D) Business and Economic News
(E) All important national and international news in English
Ans : (D)

14. Amongst the following sportsmen/women, who has won the first gold medal at Guangzhou Asian Games ?
(A) Yuan Xiachao
(B) Wang Migluen
(C) Zhu Oianward
(D) Takeshi Matsuda
(E) Wu Jingbiao
Ans : (A)

15. With which one of the following fields was Satyajit Ray associated ?
(A) Films
(B) Sports
(C) Social Work
(D) Drama
(E) Short Stories
Ans : (A)

16. ‘Daniel Vettroi’ is captain of which one of the following teams ?
(A) New Zealand Cricket Team
(B) South Africa Cricket Team
(C) New Zealand Basket Ball Team
(D) West Indies Cricket Team
(E) Australia Cricket Team
Ans : (A)

17. Who amongst the following carried Indian Tricolour at Guangzhou Asian Games ?
(A) Sania Mirza
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Gagan Narang
(D) Suranjay Singh
(E) Randhir Singh
Ans : (C)

18. Financial ratio analysis of a company helps in understanding—
1. The long term debt raising capacity
2. The short term solvency
3. The reasons for fluctuation in its stock prices
4. The net worth of the company
5. The profitability
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 5
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
(E) 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans : (E)

19. Human breath is visible in winter but not in summer because—
(A) The difference in outside pressure gives visibility to breath
(B) Breath contains certain impurities and visible matters
(C) Water vapour in breath condenses in cold air, making it visible
(D) Breath has heat in it which evaporates in cold air giving visibility
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is/are not the names of Seven North-Eastern States ?
1. Jorhat
2. Manipur
3. Meghalaya
4. Agartala
5. Dimapur
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 1
(D) 1, 4, 2
(E) 1, 4, 5
Ans : (E)

21. According to a recent newspaper survey, which one of the following is the most preferred language for leisure reading among the Indian Youth ?
(A) Hindi
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) Telugu
(E) English
Ans : (E)

22. Who was Dr. C. Rangarajan ?
(A) Chairman, PMEAC
(B) Member, Planning Commission
(C) Chief Economist, IBA
(D) RBI Governor
(E) Member, Minority Commission
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following is an oilseed ?
(A) Garlic
(B) Clove
(C) Cardamom
(D) Cumin Seed
(E) Mustard
Ans : (E)

24. The RBI reviews its credit and monetary policy at regular intervals and also in between. What is the purpose of the same ?
1. To ensure that inflation does not cross the limit
2. To ensure that banks have enough liquidity
3. To ensure that cost of the fund does not reach a very high level
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. The name of the white revolution is associated with—
(A) J. V. Narlikar
(B) J. C. Bose
(C) Kurien Verghese
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
(E) C. Rangarajan
Ans : (C)

26. The cabinet committee recently approved the ‘IGMSY’ a scheme for the welfare of the people of India. Who amongst the following will get the benefit of the scheme ?
(A) Mothers and pregnant women
(B) Children upto 12 years of age
(C) Youth
(D) Old and Senior Citizens
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

27. The Govt. of India provides direct financial support to which of the following schemes ?
(A) Jeevan Bharati Scheme
(B) ULIP
(C) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(D) Packing Credit Guarantee Scheme
(E) All of the above
Ans : (C)

28. Who amongst the following is a famous Urdu author/poet who received Jnanpith Award recently ?
(A) Akhlaq Khan Shahryar
(B) ONV Kurup
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Krishna Sobti
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. Who amongst the following is the author of the Book ‘A Bend in the River’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Arun Shourie
(C) Octavia Paz
(D) Daniel Defoe
(E) Walter Scott
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following is called the pink city of India ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Lucknow
(C) Kota
(D) Hyderabad
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (E)

31. Which of the following states got a new Chief Minister without new assembly elections ?
(A) Goa
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Gujarat
(E) Delhi
Ans : (C)

32. A two days National level conference/event was organised in Chandigarh in September 2010. Which was the conference / event ?
(A) Miss India 2010
(B) Asian Women Hockey Finals 2010
(C) Conference of the Finance Ministers of SAARC
(D) National Rabi Conference
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following Summits took place in Hanoi in October 2010 ?
(A) ASEAN Summit
(B) SAARC Summit
(C) G-20 Summit
(D) G-8 Summit
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. The Reserve Bank does not have an office in—
(A) Kanpur
(B) Jaipur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Bhopal
(E) Gulbarga
Ans : (E)

35. A Badminton player is supposed to know the meaning of the term—
(A) Bouncer
(B) Love
(C) LBW
(D) Punch
(E) Booster
Ans : (B)

36. Who amongst the following is the receipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2010 ?
(A) Ishant Sharma
(B) Hariom Singh
(C) M. S. Dhoni
(D) Sushil Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal
Ans : (E)

37. India extended a credit of US $ 250 million to which of the following countries, which will be used for infrastructural development there ?
(A) China
(B) Pakistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
(E) Sudan
Ans : (D)

38. Which one of the following makes a case for intensive, modern farming ?
(A) Higher output using organic method
(B) Remunerative price
(C) Cropping pattern
(D) Land acquisition for nonagricultural needs
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. In which one of the following States multi-thousand-foodgrain scam has recently been noticed by the High Court ?
(A) M. P.
(B) Orissa
(C) Bihar
(D) Jharkhand
(E) U. P.
Ans : (C)

40. Which one of the following is the objective of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) issued by the Government ?
(A) To ensure that Companies take steps for rehabilitation of project affected people
(B) To ensure that Companies use some of their profits for educating the project affected people
(C) To ensure that Companies provide health care to project affected people
(D) To ensure that Companies take preventive measures to avoid environmental damage
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. A hockey player is supposed to know the meaning of the term—
(A) Dead Ball
(B) Bouncer
(C) LBW
(D) Penalty Corner
(E) Frozen Ball
Ans : (D)

42. Which one of the following have provided bailout package to Ireland to deal with its debt crisis ?
(A) EU only
(B) IMF only
(C) World Bank only
(D) Only (A) and (B) above
(E) All (A), (B) and (C) above
Ans : (D)

43. Which one of the following Indian Company is the only company from India to be included in the Top Ten 2010 Value creators Global Ranking released by global management consulting firm BCG ?
(A) RIL
(B) Tata Steel
(C) Bharti Airtel
(D) JSPL
(E) Bajaj Auto
Ans : (D)

44. Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) UNIDO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (D)

45. BIPA with Sudan comes into effect was the news in various newspaper recently. It is an agreement for—
(A) Investment in a country
(B) Peaceful use of atomic power
(C) Allowing students to visit each other's nation
(D) Allowing people to come for medical treatment
(E) To form an alliance with each other in case of a war
Ans : (A)

46. In which one of the following sports Sandhya Rani Devi bagged Silver in Asiad 2010 Games ?
(A) Shooting
(B) Squash
(C) Taekwondo
(D) Ten-pin bowling
(E) Wushu
Ans : (E)

47. Which of the following terms is normally not seen in the field of International Relations ?
(A) Exchange Rate
(B) Free Trade
(C) MFN
(D) Alluvial Soil
(E) OECD
Ans : (D)

48. According to mid term review of Indian economy, which one of the following segments will be the major contributor to GDP growth ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Mining
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

49. Which of the following films directed by Aamir Khan was sent for OSCARs Award nominations from India ?
(A) Rang De Basanti
(B) Peepli Live
(C) Tare Zamin Par
(D) Lagan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. In which one of the following states, population growth rate is lower than national average ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Gujarat
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Orissa
Ans : (E)

2011-04-22T20:30:00.001-07:00

UNION BANK OF INDIA PO 1065 POSTS RECRUITMENT

Union Bank of India, Leading Listed Public Sector Bank with Head Office in Mumbai and all India representation invites ON-LINE Applications for recruitment to the following posts.
CASH PAYMENT OF APPLICATION FEES Rs.300/- (for General & OBC Category Candidates only)
AT ANY UNION BANK OF INDIA BRANCH ACROSS INDIA : 02.11.2010
[Print this Entire Notification. APPLICATION FEE PAYMENT CHALLAN on Page 36 of this Notification.] to 22.11.2010
OPENING DATE for making ON-LINE Applications after Payment of Fees : 02.11.2010
LAST DATE FOR MAKING ON-LINE APPLICATION & ON-LINE SUBMISSION
OF APPLICATION FORM : 22.11.2010
TENTATIVE DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION: : 09.01.2011
The POSTS Given Below
Dy. General Manager (Human Resource) 01
Dy. General Manager (Corporate Communication) 01
Chartered Accountants - 28
Chartered Accountants - 22
Civil Engineer 05
Architect 04
Electrical Engineer 04
Manager( IT) 40
Manager( Technical) 27
Manager (Forex) 34
Security Officer 16
Manager (Risk) 15
Personnel Officer 20
Probationary Officer 1165
Assistant Manager (Marketing) 289
Assistant Manager (Rural Development) 250
Fire Officer 01
Educational Qualifications & Post-Qualification Work Experience (as on 31.10.2010) :

The Educational Qualifications prescribed for the post is the MINIMUM. Candidates must possess these qualifications as on 31.10.2010 (inclusive).
When called for the Personal Interview, the candidate MUST ATTACH TO THE SYSTEM GENERATED PRINTED ON-LINE APPLICATION FORM, PROOF by way of clear and legible photocopies of (a) UNIVERSITY FINAL DEGREE PASSING (CONVOCATION) CERTIFICATE. (Provisional Degree Passing Certificate will be accepted only in case of those candidates who have passed the Degree Final Examination during the last 1 year, i.e., after the academic year 2009-2010 and the University has not conferred the Degree on the applicant) (b) YEAR-WISE / SEMESTER-WISE MARK SHEET FOR EACH YEAR / SEMESTER IN RESPECT OF EACH OF THE EXAMINATIONS PASSED from the concerned College & University, AND (c) COMPUTER COURSE PASSING CERTIFICATE in support the stipulation of having completed the Computer Awareness & Office Automation Course for duration of minimum 60 hours. The requirement of having completed the Computer Awareness & Automation Course will be waived in case of those Graduates having Computer Awareness or Knowledge as part of the curriculum at the Degree level and this fact should be indicated in the Application Form and also evidenced by an duly highlighted entry of the subject in the relevant Mark Sheet.
THE CANDIDATURE OF CANDIDATES NOT FULFILLING THE ABOVE CRITERIA WILL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED AND THEY WILL NOT BE PERMITTED TO PARTICIPATE IN THE PERSONAL INTERVIEW AND FURTHER SELECTION PROCESS, EVEN THOUGH THEY MAY HAVE PASSED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION.

FOR UNION BANK OF INDIA PO 1065 POSTS RECRUITMENT DETAILS CLICK HERE