DavaoNurses

June 2009 NLE Result

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sat, 25 Jul 2009 22:43:32 PDT

The Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) announces that 32, 617 out of 77, 901 passed the Nurse Licensure Examination given by the Board of Nursing in the cities of Manila, Baguio, Cagayan de Oro, Cebu, Davao, Iloilo, Legazpi, Lucena, Tacloban, Tuguegarao, Sulu, Pagadian and Zamboanga last June 2009.

The members of the Board of Nursing are Carmencita M. Abaquin, Chairman; Leonila A. Faire, Betty F. Merritt, Perla G. Po, Marco Antonio C. Sto.Tomas, Yolanda C. Arugay and Amelia B. Rosales, Members.

This year’s licensure examination for nurses top 1 is Golda Manto Yap, a graduate of the Felipe R. Verallo Memorial Foundation with a rating of 86.80 percent. June 2009 Nursing Board Exam Results

Performance of Davao City Nursing Schools in June 2009 NLE

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sat, 25 Jul 2009 22:41:27 PDT

Davao Nursing Schools Performance

UK Student Visa Assistance with Study Connect International Services, Inc

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Fri, 03 Jul 2009 22:09:35 PDT

Hi fellow Nurses,

I would like to share to you this consultancy firm named STUDY CONNECT INTERNATIONAL SERVICES, they are into providing assistance for Nurses and other courses who are interested to go to other country. They offer Student Visa for United Kingdom under the LEARN and EARN PROGRAM of UK. Just in case you are in search of consultancy firms like this one below, do not hesitate to contact this firm.

INQUIRIES CLICK HERE

Study Connect International Services, Inc was founded on December 7, 2007 and registered with the SEC (Security & exchange Commission) on March 19, 2008. Since then we gained more than 600 clients and the number is still increasing from day to day proving itself true to its motto: “We Deliver What We Promise”.

UK & Canada

The company specializes in assisting students and providing professional as well as visa /immigration advice to prospective students intending to go to the United Kingdom and Canada to study. We work in co-operation with Universities, Colleges and Training Providers, who are licensed sponsors who meet the new UK immigration requirements.

The company promote these institutions, attract prospective students and help them with enrollment. The company also work with UK partners in finding study work placements for students, where this is needed.

Study Connect International Services, Inc is a small, friendly, efficient team that is committed to delivering a high level of service to both our students as well as the institutions we represent.

VISIT MY NEW SITE

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Fri, 03 Jul 2009 22:10:35 PDT

To all readers, viewers and visitors of this site

Me and my online buddy would like to invite you to visit our new website. The new site will have a lot of new and relevant information for the Nurses and Student Nurses.

http://nursesnotes.info/
" your online guide to the latest information in the world of nursing in the Philippines"

On this new site we aim to deliver the latest information about the current nursing trends, seminars, and trainings pertaining to the nursing profession. The moderators of this site would like to emphasize that this site is especially dedicated to all Registered Nurses, soon to be Nurses and Student nurses who are planning to work here in the country and abroad.

As of now me and my partner is still on the process of uploading files. We have gathered NEW materials, softwares, reviewers, ebooks, for both foreign and local examinations. We also have new collection of powerpoint files and ebooks for student nurses.

We would like to encourage everyone to log on and register to the site so that you will be updated via email regularly.

We are also looking for Nurses who are willing to be a part of our site as our moderators/correspondent/contributors in different location. Nurses and Student Nurses from Luzon, Visayas and Mindanao, are welcome to join and help us in sharing information about Nursing in your area. If you are interested please feel free to contact me at nurseharbee@gmail.com or you may text me at 09276335807

PLEASE DON'T FORGET TO REGISTER

http://nursesnotes.info/
" your online guide to the latest information in the world of nursing in the Philippines"

HILDEGARD PEPLAU's THEORY

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Hildegard Peplau

IMOGENE KING's GOAL ATTAINMENT THEORY

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Imogene King' s Goal Attainment Theory

INTRODUCTION TO NURSING THEORIES

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Introduction to Nursing Theories

JEAN WATSON's THEORY

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Jean Watson's Philosophy of Nursing

MARTH ROGER's SCIENCE OF UNITARY HUMAN BEING

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Martha Roger's Science of Unitary Human Beings

MYRA LEVINE's CONSERVATION THEORY

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Myra e Levine Conservation Theory

Madeleine M. Leininger's Transcultural Nursing Theory

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Madeleine M. Leininger

PhD, LHD, DS, CTN, RN, FAAN, FRCNA

Madeline Leininger was a pioneer nurse anthropologist. Appointed dean of the University of Washington, School of Nursing in 1969, she remained in that position until 1974. Her appointment followed a trip to New Guinea in the 1960’s that opened her eyes to the need for nurses to understand their patients’ culture and background in order to provide care. She is considered by some to be the "Margaret Mead of nursing" and is recognized worldwide as the founder of transcultural nursing, a program that she created at the School in 1974. She has written or edited 27 books and founded the Journal of Transcultural Nursing to support the research of the Transcultural Nursing Society, which she started in 1974.
Dr. Leininger's web pages now reside on a discussion board. Dr. Leininger has provided downloads and answers to many common questions. Board users are encouraged to post questions to her discussion board about transcultural nursing, her theory, and her research. Dr. Leininger enjoys helping students and she responds to questions as her time permits. Board users are also encouraged to respond to each other.
Dr. Leininger has provided the following materials that can be downloaded on the discussion board: Sunrise Enabler (Sunrise Model), Information Pack about Dr. Leininger, Information on Dr. Leininger's 2005 Breakthrough Awards and Scholarships, Open Letter to Nurses with Contact Information.

Ida Jean Orlando's Dynamic Nurse-Patient Relationship

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Understanding Ida Jean Orlando-Pelletier’s
Dynamic Nurse-Patient Relationship

Know the THEORIST

Ida Jean Orlando, a first-generation American of Italian descent was born in 1926. She received her nursing diploma from New York Medical College, Lower Fifth Avenue Hospital, School of Nursing, her BS in public health nursing from St. John's University, Brooklyn, NY, and her MA in mental health nursing from Teachers College, Columbia University, New York. Orlando was an Associate Professor at Yale School of Nursing where she was Director of the Graduate Program in Mental Health Psychiatric Nursing. While at Yale she was project investigator of a National Institute of Mental Health grant entitled: Integration of Mental Health Concepts in a Basic Nursing Curriculum. It was from this research that Orlando developed her theory which was published in her 1961 book, The Dynamic Nurse-Patient Relationship. She furthered the development of her theory when at McLean Hospital in Belmont, MA as Director of a Research Project: Two Systems of Nursing in a Psychiatric Hospital. The results of this research are contained in her 1972 book titled: The Discipline and Teaching of Nursing Processs. Orlando held various positions in the Boston area, was a board member of Harvard Community Health Plan, and served as both a national and international consultant. She is a frequent lecturer and conducted numerous seminars on nursing process. She is married to RobertPelletier and lives in the Boston area. She passed away on November 28 , 2007.

Distinguish the THEORY
Case Scenario

“Nurse, can you give me my morphine,” cried out Mrs. So. “Can you tell how painful it is using the 0 ‐10 pain scale, where 0 being not painful and 10 being severely painful?”replied the nurse. “Ummm... I think it’s about 7. Can I have my morphine now?” “Mrs. So, I think something is bothering you besides your pain. Am I correct?” Mrs. So cried and said, “I can’t help it. I’m so worried about my 3 boys. I’m not sure how they are or who’s been taking care of them. They’re still so young to be left alone. My husband is in Yemen right now and he won’t be back until next month.” “Why don’t we make a phone call to your house so you could check out on your boys?” Mrs. So phoned his sons. “Thank you nurse. I don’t think I still need that morphine. My boys are fine. Our neighbour, Mrs. Yee, she’s watching over my boys right now.”

The focus of Orlando’s paradigm hubs the context of a dynamic nurse-patient phenomenon constructively realized through highlighting the key concepts such as : Patient Behavior, Nurse Reaction , Nurse Action.

1. The nursing process is set in motion by the Patient Behavior. All patient behavior, verbal ( a patient’s use of language ) or non-verbal ( includes physiological symptoms, motor activity, and nonverbal communication) , no matter how insignificant, must be considered an expression of a need for help and needs to be validated . If a patient’s behavior does not effectively assessed by the nurse then a major problem in giving care would rise leading to a nurse-patient relationship failure. Overtime . the more it is difficult to establish rapport to the patient once behavior is not determined. Communicating effectively is vital to achieve patient’s cooperation in achieving health.
Remember : When a patient has a need for help that cannot be resolved without the help of another, helplessness results
2. The Patient behavior stimulates a Nurse Reaction . In this part, the beginning of the nurse-patient relationship takes place. It is important to correctly evaluate the behavior of the patient using the nurse reactions steps to achieve positive feedback response from the patient. The steps are as follows:
The nurse perceives behavior through any of the senses -> The perception leads to automatic thought -> The thought produces an automatic feeling ->The nurse shares reactions with the patient to ascertain whether perceptions are accurate or inaccurate -> The nurse consciously deliberates about personal reactions and patient input in order to produce professional deliberative actions based on mindful assessment rather than automatic reactions.
Remember : Exploration with the patient helps validate the patient’s behavior.
3. Critically considering one or two ways in implementing Nurse Action. When providing care, nursing action can be done either automatic or deliberative.
Automatic reactions stem from nursing behaviors that are performed to satisfy a directive other than the patient’s need for help.
For example, the nurse who gives a sleeping pill to a patient every evening because it is ordered by the physician, without first discussing the need for the medication with the patient, is engaging in automatic, non-deliberative behavior. This is because the reason for giving the pill has more to do with following medical orders (automatically) than with the patient’s immediate expressed need for help.
Deliberative reaction is a “disciplined professional response” It can be argued that all nursing actions are meant to help the client and should be considered deliberative. However, correct identification of actions from the nurse’s assessment should be determined to achieve reciprocal help between nurse and patient’s health. The following criterias should be considered.

Deliberative actions result from the correct identification of patient needs by validation of the nurses’s reaction to patient behavior.
The nurse explores the meaning of the action with the patient and its relevance to meeting his need.
The nurse validates the action’s effectiveness immediately after compelling it.
The nurse is free of stimuli unrelated to the patient’s need (when action is taken).

Remember : for an action to have been truly deliberative, it must undergo reflective evaluation to determine if the action helped the client by addressing the need as determined by the nurse and the client in the immediate situation.

Learn more about the THEORY

METAPARADIGM CONCEPTS

Human/Person An individual in need. Unique individual behaving verbally or nonverbally. Assumption is that individuals are at times able to meet their own needs and at other times unable to do so.
Health Assumption is that being without emotional or physical discomfort and having a sense of well-being contribute to a healthy state. She further assumed that freedom from mental or physical discomfort and feelings of adequacy and well being contribute to health. she also noted that repeated experiences of having been helped undoubtedly culminate over periods of time in greater degrees of improvement
Environment Orlando assumes it as a nursing situation that occurs when there is a nurse-patient contact and that both nurse and patient perceive, think, feel and act in the immediate situation. any aspect of the environment, even though its designed for therapeutic and helpful purposes, can cause the patient to become distressed. She stressed out that when a nurse observes a patient behavior, it should be perceived as a signal of distress.
Nursing A distinct profession "Providing direct assistance to individuals in whatever setting they are found for he purpose of avoiding, relieving, diminishing, or curing the individual's sense of helplessness" (Orlando, 1972, p. 22). Professional nursing is conceptualized as finding out and meeting the client’s immediate need for help.

Cite the Applications of the THEORY

In Nursing Research

In a Veterans Administration (VA) ambulatory psychiatric practice in Providence, RI Shea, McBride, Gavin, and Bauer (1987) used Orlando’s theoretical model with patients having a bipolar disorder.Their research results indicate that there were: higher patient retention, reduction of emergency services, decreased hospital stay, and increased satisfaction. They recommended its use throughout the VA system.Currently Orlando’s model is being used in a multi-million dollar research study of patients with a bipolar disorder at 12 sites in the VA system (McBride, Telephone interview, July, 2000). McBride and colleagues continue its use in practice and research at the Veteran Administration Hospital in Providence, RI.
In a pilot study, Potter and Bockenhauer (2000) found positive results after implementing Orlando’s theory. These included:positive, patient-centered outcomes, a model for staff to use to approach patients, and a decrease in patient’s immediate distress. The study provides variable measurements that might be used in other research studies.

in Nursing Education

Orlando's theory has a continuing influence on nursing education. Through e-mail communication it was found that the Midwestern State University in Wichita Falls, Texas, is using Orlando's theory for teaching entering nursing students. According to Greene (e-mail communication, June, 2000) she became aware, when taking a doctoral course about nursing theories, that it was Orlando theory used by its school.
Through networking the author found that for over 10 years South Dakota State University in Brookings, SD has been using Haggerty’s (1985) description of the communication based on Orlando’s theory for entering nursing students as well as re-enforcing it in their junior year (e-mail communication, (J. Fjelland, June, 2000). Joyce Fjelland, MS, RN. After working with Schmieding at Boston City Hospital, Lois Haggerty used Orlando’s theory in her teaching of students and in conducting a research study of students’ responses to distressed patients at BostonCollege in Chestnut Hill, Massachusetts.

in Nursing Practice

From an ICU nurse: “Patients have an initial ability to communicate their need for help”. Consider a case of an immediate post Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) patient. Once relieved from the effects of anesthetic sedation, though intubated, you would realize his excruciating retort from the sternotomy incisional pain through implicit cues. Morphine Sulfate 1 to 2 mg To be given via slow IV push every 1 to 2 hours or Ketorolac 15 mg IV every 6 hours is the typical pro re nata (PRN) order of a cardiac intensivist to relieve the client from pain. Automatic response of a nurse is to calm the client and encourage relaxation through deep breathing while splinting the chest with a pillow. Being Deliberate in your actions include knowing the pharmacokinetics of an ordered drug in relation to the client’s physiologic standing. If the creatinine level were elevated, would you administer ketorolac? If the client is on respiratory precaution, would you administer Morphine? You would ask yourself, what other alternatives do I have to ease my client from pain? “The client’s behavior is meaningful”. If such “need” would be fittingly dealt with, the intervention is thriving. “When patient’s needs are not met, they become distressed.”

Analyze the THEORY

Case Study
A relative of a patient at the emergency room went to the nurse’s station and began complaining in a loud shouting voice that their patient being a charity case is not being given the same quality of care as that of the other patients who are under private consultants. He claimed that their patient who was hyperventilating and was complanining of difficulty of breathing due to neurocirculatory astheinia was just forced to sit in the cubicle, while the rich-looking patient was a gomey.

Question
How will you handle this kind of situation and avoid conflict? How can Orlando’s dynamic nurse-patient interaction theory be utilized in this type of situation?

Betty Neuman's Systems Model Theory

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Betty Neuman's Systems Model

"Health is a condition in which all parts and subparts are in harmony
with the whole of the client.”

BIOGRAPHY

1924 - Born in Lowell, a village in Washington County, Ohio, United States, along the Muskingum River

1947 - Obtained her Registered Nurse Diploma from the Peoples Hospital School of Nursing, in Akron Ohio. After that, she went to California where she worked in a hospital as a staff nurse, and eventually became the head nurse. She also explored other fields, and experienced being a school nurse, industrial nurse, and clinical instructor.

1957 - She went to the University of California at Los Angeles (UCLA) and took a double major in psychology and public health. She received her BS Nursing from this institution.

1966 - She completed her Masters degree in Mental Health, Public Health Consultation, also at UCLA. She became recognized as a pioneer in the field of nursing involvement in community mental health.

1970 - Started developing The Systems Model as a way to teach an introductory nursing course to nursing students. The goal was to provide a Holistic overview of the physiological, psychological, sociocultural, and developmental aspects of human beings.

1972 - After a two-year evaluation of her model, it was eventually published in Nursing Research.

1985 - She completed her doctorate in Clinical Psychology from Pacific Western University.

1988 - She founded the Neuman Systems Model Trustee Group, Inc. They are dedicated to the support, promotion and integrity of the Neuman Systems Model to guide nursing education, practice and research.

1992 - She was given an Honorary Doctorate of Letters, at the Neumann College, Aston, Pennsylvania.

1993 - Because of her important contributions to the field on Nursing, Dr. Neuman was named Honorary Member of the Fellowship of the American Academy of Nursing.

1998 - Received an Honorary Doctorate of Science from the Grand Valley State University in Michigan. For the past years, Dr. Betty Neuman has continuously developed and made famous the Neuman systems model through her work as an educator, author, health consultant, and speaker. Her model has been very widely accepted, and though it was originally designed to be used in nursing and is now being used by other health professions as well.

As keynote speaker at the University of Maine (2004)

INFLUENCES

Betty Neuman took inspiration in developing her theory from the following theories/ philosophers:

1. Pierre Tielhard deChardin : a philosopher-priest that believed human beings are continually evolving towards a state of perfection – an Omega Point

2. Gestalt Theory : A theory of German origin which proposes that the dynamic interaction of the individual and the situation determines experience and behavior.

3. General Adaptation Syndrome mainly talks about an individual’s reaction to stress on the 3 levels a) alarm b) resistance c) exhaustion

4. General Systems Theory postulates that the world is made up of systems that are interconnected and are influenced by each other.

The Neuman System Model

KEY CONCEPTS

Viewed the client as an open system consisting of a basic structure or central core of energy resources which represent concentric circles

Each concentric circle or layer is made up of the five variable areas which are considered and occur simultaneously in each client concentric circles. These are:

Physiological - refers of bodily structure and function.
Psychological - refers to mental processes, functioning and emotions.
Sociocultural - refers to relationships; and social/cultural functions and activities.
Spiritual - refers to the influence of spiritual beliefs.
Developmental - refers to life’s developmental processes.

Basic Structure Energy Resources

This is otherwise known as the central core, which is made up of the basic survival factors common to all organisms. These include the following:

Normal temperature range – body temperature regulation ability
Genetic structure – Hair color and bodily features
Response pattern – functioning of body systems homeostatically
Organ strength or weakness
Ego structure
Knowns or commonalities – value system

The person's system is an open system - dynamic and constantly changing and evolving

Stability, or homeostasis, occurs when the amount of energy that is available exceeds that being used by the system.

A homeostatic body system is constantly in a dynamic process of input, output, feedback, and compensation, which leads to a state of balance

Flexible Lines of Defense

Is the outer boundary to the normal line of defense, the line of resistance, and the core structure.
Keeps the system free from stressors and is dependent on the amount of sleep, nutritional status, as well as the quality and quantity of stress an individual experiences.
If the flexible line of defense fails to provide adequate protection to the normal line of defense, the lines of resistance become activated.

Normal Line of Defense

Represents client’s usual wellness level.

Can change over time in response to coping or responding to the environment, which includes intelligence, attitudes, problem solving and coping abilities. Example is skin which is constantly smooth and fair will eventually form callous over times.

Lines of Resistance

the last boundary that protects the basic structure

Protect the basic structure and become activated when environmental stressors invade the normal line of defense. An example would is that when a certain bacteria enters our system, there is an increase in leukocyte count to combat infection.

If the lines of resistance are effective, the system can reconstitute and if the lines of resistance are not effective, the resulting energy loss can result in death.

Stressors

Are capable of producing either a positive or negative effect on the client system.

Is any environmental force which can potentially affect the stability of the system:

Intrapersonal - occur within person, example is infection, thoughts and feelings
Interpersonal - occur between individuals, e.g. role expectations
Extrapersonal - occur outside the individual, e.g. job or finance concerns

A person’s reaction to stressors depends on the strength of the lines of defense.

When the lines of defense fails, the resulting reaction depends on the strength of the lines of resistance.

As part of the reaction, a person’s system can adapt to a stressor, an effect known as reconstitution.

Reconstitution

Is the increase in energy that occurs in relation to the degree of reaction to the stressor which starts after initiation of treatment for invasion of stressors.
May expand the normal line of defense beyond its previous level, stabilize the system at a lower level, or return it to the level that existed before the illness.
Nursing interventions focus on retaining or maintaining system stability.
By means of primary, secondary and tertiary interventions, the person (or the nurse) attempts to restore or maintain the stability of the system.

Prevention

Is the primary nursing intervention.

Focuses on keeping stressors and the stress response from having a detrimental effect on the body.

Primary prevention focuses on protecting the normal line of defense and strengthening the flexible line of defense. This occur before the system reacts to a stressor and strengthens the person (primarily the flexible line of defense) to enable him to better deal with stressors and also manipulates the environment to reduce or weaken stressors. Includes health promotion and maintenance of wellness.
Secondary prevention focuses on strengthening internal lines of resistance, reducing the reaction of the stressor and increasing resistance factors in order to prevent damage to the central core. This occurs after the system reacts to a stressor. This includes appropriate treatment of symptoms to attain optimal client system stability and energy conservation.
Tertiary prevention focuses on readaptation and stability, and protects reconstitution or return to wellness after treatment. This occurs after the system has been treated through secondary prevention strategies. Tertiary prevention offers support to the client and attempts to add energy to the system or reduce energy needed in order to facilitate reconstitution.

APPLICATION

The main use of the Neuman Model in practice and in research is that its concentric layers allow for a simple classification of how severe a problem is. For example, since the line of normal defense represents dynamic balance, it represents homeostasis, and thus a lack of stress. If a stress response is perceived by the patient or assessed by the nurse, then there has been an invasion of the normal line of defense and a major contraction of the flexible line of defense. Infection or other invasion of the lines of resistance indicates failure of both lines of defense. Thus, the level of insult can be quantified allowing for graduated interventions. Furthermore each person variable can be operationalized and the relationship to the normal line of defense or stress response can be analyzed. The drawback of this is that there is no way to know whether our operationalization of the person variables is a good representation of the underlying theoretical structures.

For example, Eileen Gigliotti published a research article in 1999 based on the Neuman Systems Model. The study investigated the relationship of multiple role stress to the psychological and sociocultural variables of the flexible line of defense. If multiple role stress had occurred, then the normal line of defense had been invaded. Questionnaire instruments were used to operationalize the psychological component with perceived role as a student and as a mother; the sociocultural component with social support, the normal line of defense as perceived multiple role stress.

Upon analysis, no conclusions could be made about the normal line of defense simply on the basis of the psychological component and sociocultural component. By dichotomizing the data by median age, however, a relationship between them could be described. Thus the relationship between the normal line of defense and the psychological and sociocultural components could only be described by taking into account the developmental component. It indicates that the components of the flexible line of defense interact in very complex ways and it may be difficult and dangerous to overgeneralize their interaction.

Betty Neuman's System Model

View more documents from iversonny.

VIRGINIA HENDERSON's THEORY

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Virginia Henderson

DOROTHEA OREM's SELF CARE DEFICIT THEORY

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Dorothea Orem's Self Care Deficit Theory

FAYE GLENN ABDELLAH's THEORY

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:45:07 PDT

Faye Glenn Abdellah's Theory

Nursing Opportunity in Australia

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sun, 28 Jun 2009 06:07:52 PDT

THIS IS AN OPPORTUNITY FOR FILIPINO NURSES TO COME TO SYDNEY THRU APPLYING A TOURIST VISA

AN invitation from AUCEC (Australian Careers & Education Consulting).... I am just posting this info from them. Heto po yung invitation nila para sa atin. (If you have some questions about the process and fees, please go to their official website atwww.aucec.com.au)

We would like to invite you to join the upcoming Sydney Studytour which will run from 7-18 September 2009 in partnership with Australian Catholic University (www.acu.edu.au).

The Studytour aims specifically for Nurses, Doctors, IT, Accountants, Teachers, Engineers, Business and for others who are graduates of other courses. We also welcome participants who are students in High School or currently who are in the University, parents, friends and relatives to attend this Sydney event! This event focuses on the participants opportunities to study-work-migrate to Australia.

The Package 2-weeks Studytour includes:

- Visa assistance from AUCEC
- Rydges Hotel Accommodations
- Buffet Breakfast and Dinner @ Rydges Hotel North Sydney
- Career sessions
- Appointment with our Migration Agent & AUCEC Consultants
- A Seminar on issues such as the following will be discussed:

1. How Nurses, Doctors and other professionals can apply thru Intl Student Visa to migrate Australia

2. How nurses can still become an Australian registered nurse even though they are not a board passer or do not have a work experience at all

3. How a Registered Nurse who does not have an IELTS of 7.0 can still become an Australian registered nurse

4. Why is it better for current High School / University students to continue their studies in Australia instead of completing it in their home country?

5. How other graduates who has a Bachelor of Science degrees can enter to study Nursing in Australia

6. How you can include on your application your spouse, partner in Australia

7. How an Intl Student (including his/her partner/spouse) can legally work in Australia

8. How you can still enter a Universitiy even not meeting an IELTS requirement score

9. How you can take a Masteral course in Australia that is different from your Bachelor's degree

- Assistance in applying directly for your Intl Student Visa application or to the Nursing Board while in Australia

- Assistance in applying to enter the Bachelor and Masteral Courses

- Sydney City Sightseeing

- Visits to potential employment sites such as Hospitals, Aged Care Facilities, Government Dept, Commercial Business etc.

- Barbeque with ACU Students

- Certificate of Participation

Since tourist visa normally is up to 3 months, AUCEC would like to open your opportunity to maximise your stay in Australia by acquiring an Australian course and training that will be beneficial to your nursing career and future employment opportunities in Australia and other Western countries.

We have negotiated a group special rates with Rydges Hotel in North Sydney and Campbelltown (for more info seewww.rydges.com) who is our official accommodation provider for all partipants for this event.

AUCEC can assist you with your tourist visa application and liasie with the Australian Embassy in your behalf to enable you to attend this event

Should you need to confirm this event with immigrations, please do not hesitate to contact:

Daniela Bellomo

International Event Coordinator Network (IECN) –

National Office Specialist Entry Section, Education and Tourism Branch

Department of Immigration and Citizenship

Telephone Nos:

1300 550 684 (within Australia)

+61 1300 550 684 (international)

www.immi.gov.au/visitors/event-organisers-participants/index.htm

Upon your payment for registration, we will send you AUCEC & ACU invitation letters to support you when lodging your visa application at the Australian visa office overseas nearest to your current place of residence.

AUCEC will also act as your authorized agent when you lodge your application and will liaise in your behalf to immigrations should any issues arise in regards to this event. Please be advise that your application will still be subject to Australian Embassy requirements and guidelines.

For any information in regards to the Studytour at the Australian Catholic University, please contact:

Michelle Willoughby

International Programs Manager

Australian Catholic University Limited ABN 15 050 192 660

CRICOS: 0004G, 00112C, 00873F, 00885B

40 Edward Street

PO Box 968

North Sydney NSW 2059

Telephone: (02) 9739 2325

Michelle.Willoughby@acu.edu.au

www.acu.edu.au

As a Tourist visa applicant, you would normally have a 3 months allowed maximum stay in Australia and you can study legally as well during this time.

Certificate III in Aged Care Work at Active Working Solutions at Campbelltown Private Hospital
After the 2 weeks attendance to Studytour we are also offering the participants to also attend Active Working Solutions (www.activeworkingsolutions.com.au) in Campbelltown Private Hospital for the 10 - weeks study and training of Certificate III in Aged Care Work.

Participants from the Studytour who are also enrolled to study Certificate III in Aged Care Work will get their study modules emailed while in their home country immediately. Once the Studytour ends, all participants who are enrolled for the course will be transported to Rydges Hotel Campbelltown, the closest accommodation provider to Campbelltown Private Hospital.

The benefit for you: This is a must have or mandatory course for applicants who are nurses or would like to work in a nursing environment and who are planning of returning to Australia under an Intl Student Visa to apply to work immediately to any nursing facilities/ organizations asap.

If not, this is a great skill to have in your resume when you apply for work in your home country or to any other country.

For any information in regards to the 10 weeks study and training at Active Working Solutions at the Campbelltown Private Hospital after the 2 weeks Studytour, please contact:

Jacquie Castro

NSW Vocational Training Manager

Active Working Solutions/Recovre

National Head Office

PO Box 854, Campbelltown NSW 2560

Office Tel: 1300 132 990

Fax: 1300 132 991

Email: jcastro@activeworkingsolutions.com.au

This event is supported by The American Chamber of Commerce in Australia, see http://www.amcham.com.au/vpLink.aspx?ID=18000

If you have any queries in regards the Studytour, please contact directly via email at info@aucec.com.au or charmaine@aucec.com.au or call Mobile (+61) 405 660 878.

You can also visit their website for more information. www.aucec.com.au

LIMITED SEAT ONLY!

Please don't forget to indicate that you are referred by DavaoNurses Site. (para maging isang group tayo na magtulungan kung meron man problema).

Thanks!!!

Requiremenr for Nurse Volunteer Program @ Ospital ng Maynila

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Wed, 10 Jun 2009 06:52:23 PDT

The volunteer program is good for 2 Months and its free. A Nurse volunteer is required to complete 320 contact hours before being issued a certificate.

Here are the documents that you need to submit

Letter of Intent, address it to

Fidel C. Chua, MD

Hospital Director

Ospital ng Maynila

Thru: Mrs. Asuncion C. Balisado, RN

Chief Nurse

2. Photocopy of you PRC ID

3. Photocopy of the following

- Transcript of Record

- BSN Diploma

- Summary of Related Learning Experience

- Board Certificate / Board Rating

- Certificates ( Trainings and Seminars )

Goodluck Fellow Nurses

Attention: PHILIPPINE AIRFORCE HIRED NURSES

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Wed, 10 Jun 2009 03:12:01 PDT

Please be informed that we have an additional requirements:

1. Chest Xray

2. Drug Test Results

3. Medical Certificate

We may secure these at any hospitals and/or diagnostic centers (they don't have a list of accredited institutions). We can submit them on our contract signing day, June 12. Call time is at 6am, please come wearing white tshirt and pants (didn't say if 'maong' or anything). For more details, please contact PAF @ Directorate for Civilian Personnel Affairs (DCPA) A-1, Headquarters Philippine Air Force at nos. 854-6701 local 6701, or 6621

CHN Test Drill (Answers and Rationale)

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sun, 05 Jul 2009 00:58:57 PDT

SITUATION : Epidemiology and Vital statistics is a very important tool that a nurse could use in controlling the spread of disease in the community and at the same time, surveying the impact of the disease on the population and prevent it’s future occurrence.

1. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects, disability or death which occurs in groups or aggregation of individuals.

A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics

2. Which of the following is the backbone in disease prevention?

A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics

3. Which of the following type of research could show how community expectations can result in the actual provision of services?

A. Basic Research
B. Operational Research
C. Action Research
D. Applied Research

4. An outbreak of measles has been reported in Community A. As a nurse, which of the following is your first action for an Epidemiological investigation?

A. Classify if the outbreak of measles is epidemic or just sporadic
B. Report the incidence into the RHU
C. Determine the first day when the outbreak occurred
D. Identify if it is the disease which it is reported to be

5. After the epidemiological investigation produced final conclusions, which of the following is your initial step in your operational procedure during disease outbreak?

A. Coordinate personnel from Municipal to the National level
B. Collect pertinent laboratory specimen to confirm disease causation
C. Immunize nearby communities with Measles
D. Educate the community in future prevention of similar outbreaks

6. The main concern of a public health nurse is the prevention of disease, prolonging of life and promoting physical health and efficiency through which of the following?

A. Use of epidemiological tools and vital health statistics
B. Determine the spread and occurrence of the disease
C. Political empowerment and Socio Economic Assistance
D. Organized Community Efforts

7. In order to control a disease effectively, which of the following must first be known?

1. The conditions surrounding its occurrence
2. Factors that do not favor its development
3. The condition that do not surround its occurrence
4. Factors that favors its development

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

8. All of the following are uses of epidemiology except:

A. To study the history of health population and the rise and fall of disease
B. To diagnose the health of the community and the condition of the people
C. To provide summary data on health service delivery
D. To identify groups needing special attention

9. Before reporting the fact of presence of an epidemic, which of the following is of most importance to determine?

A. Are the facts complete?
B. Is the disease real?
C. Is the disease tangible?
D. Is it epidemic or endemic?

10. An unknown epidemic has just been reported in Barangay Dekbudekbu. People said that affected person demonstrates hemorrhagic type of fever. You are designated now to plan for epidemiological investigation. Arrange the sequence of events in accordance with the correct outline plan for epidemiological investigation.

1. Report the presence of dengue
2. Summarize data and conclude the final picture of epidemic
3. Relate the occurrence to the population group, facilities, food supply and carriers
4. Determine if the disease is factual or real
5. Determine any unusual prevalence of the disease and its nature; is it epidemic, sporadic, endemic or pandemic?
6. Determine onset and the geographical limitation of the disease.

A. 4,1,3,5,2,6
B. 4,1,5,6,3,2
C. 5,4,6,2,1,3
D. 5,4,6,1,2,3
E. 1,2,3,4,5,6

11. In the occurrence of SARS and other pandemics, which of the following is the most vital role of a nurse in epidemiology?

A. Health promotion
B. Disease prevention
C. Surveillance
D. Casefinding

12. Measles outbreak has been reported in Barangay Bahay Toro, After conducting an epidemiological investigation you have confirmed that the outbreak is factual. You are tasked to lead a team of medical workers for operational procedure in disease outbreak. Arrange the correct sequence of events that you must do to effectively contain the disease

1. Create a final report and recommendation
2. Perform nasopharyngeal swabbing to infected individuals
3. Perform mass measles immunization to vulnerable groups
4. Perform an environmental sanitation survey on the immediate environment
5. Organize your team and Coordinate the personnels
6. Educate the community on disease transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 6,5,4,3,2,1
C. 5,6,4,2,3,1
D. 5,2,3,4,6,1

13. All of the following are function of Nurse Budek in epidemiology except

A. Laboratory Diagnosis
B. Surveillance of disease occurrence
C. Follow up cases and contacts
D. Refer cases to hospitals if necessary
E. Isolate cases of communicable disease

14. All of the following are performed in team organization except

A. Orientation and demonstration of methodology to be employed
B. Area assignments of team members
C. Check team’s equipments and paraphernalia
D. Active case finding and Surveillance

15. Which of the following is the final output of data reporting in epidemiological operational procedure?

A. Recommendation
B. Evaluation
C. Final Report
D. Preliminary report

16. The office in charge with registering vital facts in the Philippines is none other than the

A. PCSO
B PAGCOR
C. DOH
D. NSO

17. The following are possible sources of Data except:

A. Experience
B. Census
C. Surveys
D. Research

18. This refers to systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorces and deaths

A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics

19. In case of clerical errors in your birth certificate, Where should you go to have it corrected?

A. NSO
B. Court of Appeals
C. Municipal Trial Court
D. Local Civil Registrar

20. Acasia just gave birth to Lestat, A healthy baby boy. Who are going to report the birth of Baby Lestat?

A. Nurse
B. Midwife
C. OB Gyne
D. Birth Attendant

21. In reporting the birth of Baby Lestat, where will he be registered?

A. At the Local Civil Registrar
B. In the National Statistics Office
C. In the City Health Department
D. In the Field Health Services and Information System Main Office

22. Deejay, The birth attendant noticed that Lestat has low set of ears, Micrognathia, Microcephaly and a typical cat like cry. What should Deejay do?

A. Bring Lestat immediately to the nearest hospital
B. Ask his assistant to call the nearby pediatrician
C. Bring Lestat to the nearest pediatric clinic
D. Call a Taxi and together with Acasia, Bring Lestat to the nearest hospital

23. Deejay would suspect which disorder?

A. Trisomy 21
B. Turners Syndrome
C. Cri Du Chat
D. Klinefelters Syndrome

24. Deejay could expect which of the following congenital anomaly that would accompany this disorder?

A. AVSD
B. PDA
C. TOF
D. TOGV

26. Which presidential decree orders reporting of births within 30 days after its occurrence?

A. 651
B. 541
C. 996
D. 825

25. These rates are referred to the total living population, It must be presumed that the total population was exposed to the risk of occurrence of the event.

A. Rate
B. Ratio
C. Crude/General Rates
D. Specific Rate

26. These are used to describe the relationship between two numerical quantities or measures of events without taking particular considerations to the time or place.

A. Rate
B. Ratios
C. Crude/General Rate
D. Specific Rate

27. This is the most sensitive index in determining the general health condition of a community since it reflects the changes in the environment and medical conditions of a community

A. Crude death rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Maternal mortality rate
D. Fetal death rate

28. According to the WHO, which of the following is the most frequent cause of death in children underfive worldwide in the 2003 WHO Survey?

A. Neonatal
B. Pneumonia
C. Diarrhea
D. HIV/AIDS

29. In the Philippines, what is the most common cause of death of infants according to the latest survey?

A. Pneumonia
B. Diarrhea
C. Other perinatal condition
D. Respiratory condition of fetus and newborn

30. The major cause of mortality from 1999 up to 2002 in the Philippines are

A. Diseases of the heart
B. Diseases of the vascular system
C. Pneumonias
D. Tuberculosis

31. Alicia, a 9 year old child asked you “ What is the common cause of death in my age group here in the Philippines? “ The nurse is correct if he will answer

A. Pneumonia is the top leading cause of death in children age 5 to 9
B. Malignant neoplasm if common in your age group
C. Probability wise, You might die due to accidents
D. Diseases of the respiratory system is the most common cause of death in children

32. In children 1 to 4 years old, which is the most common cause of death?

A. Diarrhea
B. Accidents
C. Pneumonia
D. Diseases of the heart

33. Working in the community as a PHN for almost 10 years, Aida knew the fluctuation in vital statistics. She knew that the most common cause of morbidity among the Filipinos is

A. Diseases of the heart
B. Diarrhea
C. Pneumonia
D. Vascular system diseases

34. Nurse Aida also knew that most maternal deaths are caused by

A. Hemorrhage
B. Other Complications related to pregnancy occurring in the course of labor, delivery and puerperium
C. Hypertension complicating pregnancy, childbirth and puerperium
D. Abortion

SITUATION : Barangay PinoyBSN has the following data in year 2006

1. July 1 population : 254,316
2. Livebirths : 2,289
3. Deaths from maternal cause : 15
4. Death from CVD : 3,029
5. Deaths under 1 year of age : 23
6. Fetal deaths : 8
7. Deaths under 28 days : 8
8. Death due to rabies : 45
9. Registered cases of rabies : 45
10. People with pneumonia : 79
11. People exposed with pneumonia : 2,593
12. Total number of deaths from all causes : 10,998

The following questions refer to these data

35. What is the crude birth rate of Barangay PinoyBSN?

A. 90/100,000
B. 9/100
C. 90/1000
D. 9/1000

36. What is the cause specific death rate from cardiovascular diseases?

A. 27/100
B. 1191/100,000
C. 27/100,000
D. 1.1/1000

37. What is the Maternal Mortality rate of this barangay?

A. 6.55/1000
B. 5.89/1000
C. 1.36/1000
D. 3.67/1000

38. What is the fetal death rate?

A. 3.49/1000
B. 10.04/1000
C. 3.14/1000
D. 3.14/100,000

39. What is the attack rate of pneumonia?

A. 3.04/1000
B. 7.18/1000
C. 32.82/100
D. 3.04/100

40. Determine the Case fatality ratio of rabies in this Barangay

A. 1/100
B. 100%
C. 1%
D. 100/1000

41. The following are all functions of the nurse in vital statistics, which of the following is not?

A. Consolidate Data
B. Collects Data
C. Analyze Data
D. Tabulate Data

42. The following are Notifiable diseases that needs to have a tally sheet in data reporting, Which one is not?

A. Hypertension
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Chemical Poisoning
D. Accidents

43. Which of the following requires reporting within 24 hours?

A. Neonatal tetanus
B. Measles
C. Hypertension
D. Tetanus

44. Which Act declared that all communicable disease be reported to the nearest health station?

A. 1082
B. 1891
C. 3573
D. 6675

45. In the RHU Team, Which professional is directly responsible in caring a sick person who is homebound?

A. Midwife
B. Nurse
C. BHW
D. Physician

46. During epidemics, which of the following epidemiological function will you have to perform first?

A. Teaching the community on disease prevention
B. Assessment on suspected cases
C. Monitor the condition of people affected
D. Determining the source and nature of the epidemic

47. Which of the following is a POINT SOURCE epidemic?

A. Dengue H.F
B. Malaria
C. Contaminated Water Source
D. Tuberculosis

48. All but one is a characteristic of a point source epidemic, which one is not?

A. The spread of the disease is caused by a common vehicle
B. The disease is usually caused by contaminated food
C. There is a gradual increase of cases
D. Epidemic is usually sudden

49. The only Microorganism monitored in cases of contaminated water is

A. Vibrio Cholera
B. Escherichia Coli
C. Entamoeba Histolytica
D. Coliform Test

50. Dengue increase in number during June, July and August. This pattern is called

A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Cyclical
D. Secular

SITUATION : Field health services and information system provides summary data on health service delivery and selected program from the barangay level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the process on how these information became processed and consolidated.

51. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS Except

A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural history
B. To provide standardized, facility level data base which can be accessed for more in depth studies
C. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care and promotive activities
D. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy to use fashion

52. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the field health service information system?

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

53. What is the primary advantage of having a target client list?

A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor treatment and services to beneficiaries thus saving time and effort
B. Help monitor service rendered to clients in general
C. Facilitate monitoring and supervision of services
D. Facilitates easier reporting

54. Which of the following is used to monitor particular groups that are qualified as eligible to a certain program of the DOH?

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

55. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended frequency in tallying activities and services?

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly

56. When is the counting of the tally sheet done?

A. At the end of the day
B. At the end of the week
C. At the end of the month
D. At the end of the year

57. Target client list will be transmitted to the next facility in the form of

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

58. All but one of the following are eligible target client list

A. Leprosy cases
B. TB cases
C. Prenatal care
D. Diarrhea cases

59. This is the only mechanism through which data are routinely transmitted from once facility to another

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

60. FHSIS/Q-3 Or the report for environmental health activities is prepared how frequently?

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Quarterly
D. Yearly

61. Nurse Budek is preparing the reporting form for weekly notifiable diseases. He knew that he will code the report form as

A. FHSIS/E-1
B. FHSIS/E-2
C. FHSIS/E-3
D. FHSIS/M-1

62. In preparing the maternal death report, which of the following correctly codes this occurrence?

A. FHSIS/E-1
B. FHSIS/E-2
C. FHSIS/E-3
D. FHSIS/M-1

63. Where should Nurse Budek bring the reporting forms if he is in the BHU Facility?

A. Rural health office
B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office
D. Regional health office

64. After bringing the reporting forms in the right facility for processing, Nurse Budek knew that the output reports are solely produced by what office?

A. Rural health office
B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office
D. Regional health office

65. Mang Raul entered the health center complaining of fatigue and frequent syncope. You assessed Mang Raul and found out that he is severely malnourished and anemic. What record should you get first to document these findings?

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

66. The information about Mang Raul’s address, full name, age, symptoms and diagnosis is recorded in

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

67. Another entry is to be made for Mang Raul because he is in the target client’s list, In what TCL should Mang Raul’s entry be documented?

A. TCL Eligible Population
B. TCL Family Planning
C. TCL Nutrition
D. TCL Pre Natal

68. The nurse uses the FHSIS Record system incorrectly when she found out that

A. She go to the individual or FTR for entry confirmation in the Tally/Report Summary
B. She refer to other sources for completing monthly and quarterly reports
C. She records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report form with a code FHSIS/M-1
D. She records a Child who have frequent diarrhea in TCL : Under Five

69. The BHS Is the lowest level of reporting unit in FHSIS. A BHS can be considered a reporting unit if all of the following are met except

A. It renders service to 3 barangays
B. There is a midwife the regularly renders service to the area
C. The BHS Have no mother BHS
D. It should be a satellite BHS

70. Data submitted to the PHO is processed using what type of technology?

A. Internet
B. Microcomputer
C. Supercomputer
D. Server Interlink Connections

SITUATION : Community organizing is a process by which people, health services and agencies of the community are brought together to act and solve their own problems.

71. Mang ambo approaches you for counseling. You are an effective counselor if you

A. Give good advice to Mang Ambo
B. Identify Mang Ambo’s problems
C. Convince Mang Ambo to follow your advice
D. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems

72. As a newly appointed PHN instructed to organize Barangay Baritan, Which of the following is your initial step in organizing the community for initial action?

A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and records
B. Make a courtesy call to the Barangay Captain
C. Meet with the Barangay Captain to make plans
D. Make a courtesy call to the Municipal Mayor

73. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing the community. Which of the following is the initial step in the preparatory phase?

A. Area selection
B. Community profiling
C. Entry in the community
D. Integration with the people

74. the most important factor in determining the proper area for community organizing is that this area should

A. Be already adopted by another organization
B. Be able to finance the projects
C. Have problems and needs assistance
D. Have people with expertise to be developed as leaders

75. Which of the following dwelling place should the Nurse choose when integrating with the people?

A. A simple house in the border of Barangay Baritan and San Pablo
B. A simple house with fencing and gate located in the center of Barangay Baritan
C. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter
D. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter located in the center of the community

76. In choosing a leader in the community during the Organizational phase, Which among these people will you choose?

A. Miguel Zobel, 50 years old, Rich and Famous
B. Rustom, 27 years old, Actor
C. Mang Ambo, 70, Willing to work for the desired change
D. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to work for the desired change

77. Which type of leadership style should the leaders of the community practice?

A. Autocratic
B. Democratic
C. Laissez Faire
D. Consultative

78. Setting up Committee on Education and Training is in what phase of COPAR?

A. Preparatory
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out

79. Community diagnosis is done to come up with a profile of local health situation that will serve as basis of health programs and services. This is done in what phase of COPAR?

A. Preparatory
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out

80. The people named the community health workers based on the collective decision in accordance with the set criteria. Before they can be trained by the Nurse, The Nurse must first

A. Make a lesson plan
B. Set learning goals and objective
C. Assess their learning needs
D. Review materials needed for training

81. Nurse Budek wrote a letter to PCSO asking them for assistance in their feeding programs for the community’s nutrition and health projects. PCSO then approved the request and gave Budek 50,000 Pesos and a truckload of rice, fruits and vegetables. Which phase of COPAR did Budek utilized?

A. Preparatory
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out

82. Ideally, How many years should the Nurse stay in the community before he can phase out and be assured of a Self Reliant community?

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months

83. Major discussion in community organization are made by

A. The nurse
B. The leaders of each committee
C. The entire group
D. Collaborating Agencies

84. The nurse should know that Organizational plan best succeeds when

1. People sees its values
2. People think its antagonistic professionally
3. It is incompatible with their personal beliefs
4. It is compatible with their personal beliefs

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 4

85. Nurse Budek made a proposal that people should turn their backyard into small farming lots to plant vegetables and fruits. He specified that the objective is to save money in buying vegetables and fruits that tend to have a fluctuating and cyclical price. Which step in Community organizing process did he utilized?

A. Fact finding
B. Determination of needs
C. Program formation
D. Education and Interpretation

86. One of the critical steps in COPAR is becoming one with the people and understanding their culture and lifestyle. Which critical step in COPAR will the Nurse try to immerse himself in the community?

A. Integration
B. Social Mobilization
C. Ground Work
D. Mobilization

87. The Actual exercise of people power occurs during when?

A. Integration
B. Social Mobilization
C. Ground Work
D. Mobilization

88. Which steps in COPAR trains indigenous and informal leaders?

A. Ground Work
B. Mobilization
C. Core Group formation
D. Integration

89. As a PHN, One of your role is to organize the community. Nurse Budek knows that the purposes of community organizing are

1. Move the community to act on their own problems
2. Make people aware of their own problems
3. Enable the nurse to solve the community problems
4. Offer people means of solving their own problems

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 1,2
D. 1,2,4

90. This is considered the first act of integrating with the people. This gives an in depth participation in community health problems and needs.

A. Residing in the area of assignment
B. Listing down the name of person to contact for courtesy call
C. Gathering initial information about the community
D. Preparing Agenda for the first meeting

SITUATION : Health education is the process whereby knowledge, attitude and practice of people are changed to improve individual, family and community health.

91. Which of the following is the correct sequence in health education?

1. Information
2. Communication
3. Education

A. 1,2,3
B. 3,2,1
C. 1,3,2
D. 3,1,2

92. The health status of the people is greatly affected and determined by which of the following?

A. Behavioral factors
B. Socioeconomic factors
C. Political factors
D. Psychological factors

93. Nurse Budek is conducting a health teaching to Agnesia, 50 year old breast cancer survivor needing rehabilitative measures. He knows that health education is effective when

A. Agnesia recites the procedure and instructions perfectly
B. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was changed positively
C. Agnesia gave feedback to Budek saying that she understood the instruction
D. Agnesia requested a written instruction from Budek

94. Which of the following is true about health education?

A. It helps people attain their health through the nurse’s sole efforts
B. It should not be flexible
C. It is a fast and mushroom like process
D. It is a slow and continuous process

95. Which of the following factors least influence the learning readiness of an adult learner?

A. The individuals stage of development
B. Ability to concentrate on information to be learned
C. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to his illness
D. The internal impulses that drive the person to take action

96. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic patients to learn how to control their diet?

A. Use of pamphlets and other materials during instructions
B. Motivation to be symptom free
C. Ability of the patient to understand teaching instruction
D. Language used by the nurse

97. An important skill that a primigravida has to acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn baby and clean her breast if she decides to breastfeed her baby, Which of the following learning domain will you classify the above goals?

A. Psychomotor
B. Cognitive
C. Affective
D. Attitudinal

98. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of hypertensive patients, you first formulate your learning objectives. Which of the following steps in the nursing process corresponds to the writing of the learning objectives?

A. Planning
B. Implementing
C. Evaluation
C. Assessment

99. Rose, 50 years old and newly diagnosed diabetic patient must learn how to inject insulin. Which of the following physical attribute is not in anyway related to her ability to administer insulin?

A. Strength
B. Coordination
C. Dexterity
D. Muscle Built

100. Appearance and disposition of clients are best observed initially during which of the following situation?

A. Taking V/S
B. Interview
C. Implementation of the initial care
D. Actual Physical examination

CHN Test Drill

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sun, 05 Jul 2009 01:00:02 PDT

SITUATION : Epidemiology and Vital statistics is a very important tool that a nurse could use in controlling the spread of disease in the community and at the same time, surveying the impact of the disease on the population and prevent it’s future occurrence.

1. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects, disability or death which occurs in groups or aggregation of individuals.

A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics

2. Which of the following is the backbone in disease prevention?

A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics

3. Which of the following type of research could show how community expectations can result in the actual provision of services?

A. Basic Research
B. Operational Research
C. Action Research
D. Applied Research

4. An outbreak of measles has been reported in Community A. As a nurse, which of the following is your first action for an Epidemiological investigation?

A. Classify if the outbreak of measles is epidemic or just sporadic
B. Report the incidence into the RHU
C. Determine the first day when the outbreak occurred
D. Identify if it is the disease which it is reported to be

5. After the epidemiological investigation produced final conclusions, which of the following is your initial step in your operational procedure during disease outbreak?

A. Coordinate personnel from Municipal to the National level
B. Collect pertinent laboratory specimen to confirm disease causation
C. Immunize nearby communities with Measles
D. Educate the community in future prevention of similar outbreaks

6. The main concern of a public health nurse is the prevention of disease, prolonging of life and promoting physical health and efficiency through which of the following?

A. Use of epidemiological tools and vital health statistics
B. Determine the spread and occurrence of the disease
C. Political empowerment and Socio Economic Assistance
D. Organized Community Efforts

7. In order to control a disease effectively, which of the following must first be known?

1. The conditions surrounding its occurrence
2. Factors that do not favor its development
3. The condition that do not surround its occurrence
4. Factors that favors its development

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

8. All of the following are uses of epidemiology except:

A. To study the history of health population and the rise and fall of disease
B. To diagnose the health of the community and the condition of the people
C. To provide summary data on health service delivery
D. To identify groups needing special attention

9. Before reporting the fact of presence of an epidemic, which of the following is of most importance to determine?

A. Are the facts complete?
B. Is the disease real?
C. Is the disease tangible?
D. Is it epidemic or endemic?

10. An unknown epidemic has just been reported in Barangay Dekbudekbu. People said that affected person demonstrates hemorrhagic type of fever. You are designated now to plan for epidemiological investigation. Arrange the sequence of events in accordance with the correct outline plan for epidemiological investigation.

1. Report the presence of dengue
2. Summarize data and conclude the final picture of epidemic
3. Relate the occurrence to the population group, facilities, food supply and carriers
4. Determine if the disease is factual or real
5. Determine any unusual prevalence of the disease and its nature; is it epidemic, sporadic, endemic or pandemic?
6. Determine onset and the geographical limitation of the disease.

A. 4,1,3,5,2,6
B. 4,1,5,6,3,2
C. 5,4,6,2,1,3
D. 5,4,6,1,2,3
E. 1,2,3,4,5,6

11. In the occurrence of SARS and other pandemics, which of the following is the most vital role of a nurse in epidemiology?

A. Health promotion
B. Disease prevention
C. Surveillance
D. Casefinding

12. Measles outbreak has been reported in Barangay Bahay Toro, After conducting an epidemiological investigation you have confirmed that the outbreak is factual. You are tasked to lead a team of medical workers for operational procedure in disease outbreak. Arrange the correct sequence of events that you must do to effectively contain the disease

1. Create a final report and recommendation
2. Perform nasopharyngeal swabbing to infected individuals
3. Perform mass measles immunization to vulnerable groups
4. Perform an environmental sanitation survey on the immediate environment
5. Organize your team and Coordinate the personnels
6. Educate the community on disease transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 6,5,4,3,2,1
C. 5,6,4,2,3,1
D. 5,2,3,4,6,1

13. All of the following are function of Nurse Budek in epidemiology except

A. Laboratory Diagnosis
B. Surveillance of disease occurrence
C. Follow up cases and contacts
D. Refer cases to hospitals if necessary
E. Isolate cases of communicable disease

14. All of the following are performed in team organization except

A. Orientation and demonstration of methodology to be employed
B. Area assignments of team members
C. Check team’s equipments and paraphernalia
D. Active case finding and Surveillance

15. Which of the following is the final output of data reporting in epidemiological operational procedure?

A. Recommendation
B. Evaluation
C. Final Report
D. Preliminary report

16. The office in charge with registering vital facts in the Philippines is none other than the

A. PCSO
B PAGCOR
C. DOH
D. NSO

17. The following are possible sources of Data except:

A. Experience
B. Census
C. Surveys
D. Research

18. This refers to systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorces and deaths

A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics

19. In case of clerical errors in your birth certificate, Where should you go to have it corrected?

A. NSO
B. Court of Appeals
C. Municipal Trial Court
D. Local Civil Registrar

20. Acasia just gave birth to Lestat, A healthy baby boy. Who are going to report the birth of Baby Lestat?

A. Nurse
B. Midwife
C. OB Gyne
D. Birth Attendant

21. In reporting the birth of Baby Lestat, where will he be registered?

A. At the Local Civil Registrar
B. In the National Statistics Office
C. In the City Health Department
D. In the Field Health Services and Information System Main Office

22. Deejay, The birth attendant noticed that Lestat has low set of ears, Micrognathia, Microcephaly and a typical cat like cry. What should Deejay do?

A. Bring Lestat immediately to the nearest hospital
B. Ask his assistant to call the nearby pediatrician
C. Bring Lestat to the nearest pediatric clinic
D. Call a Taxi and together with Acasia, Bring Lestat to the nearest hospital

23. Deejay would suspect which disorder?

A. Trisomy 21
B. Turners Syndrome
C. Cri Du Chat
D. Klinefelters Syndrome

24. Deejay could expect which of the following congenital anomaly that would accompany this disorder?

A. AVSD
B. PDA
C. TOF
D. TOGV

26. Which presidential decree orders reporting of births within 30 days after its occurrence?

A. 651
B. 541
C. 996
D. 825

25. These rates are referred to the total living population, It must be presumed that the total population was exposed to the risk of occurrence of the event.

A. Rate
B. Ratio
C. Crude/General Rates
D. Specific Rate

26. These are used to describe the relationship between two numerical quantities or measures of events without taking particular considerations to the time or place.

A. Rate
B. Ratios
C. Crude/General Rate
D. Specific Rate

27. This is the most sensitive index in determining the general health condition of a community since it reflects the changes in the environment and medical conditions of a community

A. Crude death rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Maternal mortality rate
D. Fetal death rate

28. According to the WHO, which of the following is the most frequent cause of death in children underfive worldwide in the 2003 WHO Survey?

A. Neonatal
B. Pneumonia
C. Diarrhea
D. HIV/AIDS

29. In the Philippines, what is the most common cause of death of infants according to the latest survey?

A. Pneumonia
B. Diarrhea
C. Other perinatal condition
D. Respiratory condition of fetus and newborn

30. The major cause of mortality from 1999 up to 2002 in the Philippines are

A. Diseases of the heart
B. Diseases of the vascular system
C. Pneumonias
D. Tuberculosis

31. Alicia, a 9 year old child asked you “ What is the common cause of death in my age group here in the Philippines? “ The nurse is correct if he will answer

A. Pneumonia is the top leading cause of death in children age 5 to 9
B. Malignant neoplasm if common in your age group
C. Probability wise, You might die due to accidents
D. Diseases of the respiratory system is the most common cause of death in children

32. In children 1 to 4 years old, which is the most common cause of death?

A. Diarrhea
B. Accidents
C. Pneumonia
D. Diseases of the heart

33. Working in the community as a PHN for almost 10 years, Aida knew the fluctuation in vital statistics. She knew that the most common cause of morbidity among the Filipinos is

A. Diseases of the heart
B. Diarrhea
C. Pneumonia
D. Vascular system diseases

34. Nurse Aida also knew that most maternal deaths are caused by

A. Hemorrhage
B. Other Complications related to pregnancy occurring in the course of labor, delivery and puerperium
C. Hypertension complicating pregnancy, childbirth and puerperium
D. Abortion

SITUATION : Barangay PinoyBSN has the following data in year 2006

1. July 1 population : 254,316
2. Livebirths : 2,289
3. Deaths from maternal cause : 15
4. Death from CVD : 3,029
5. Deaths under 1 year of age : 23
6. Fetal deaths : 8
7. Deaths under 28 days : 8
8. Death due to rabies : 45
9. Registered cases of rabies : 45
10. People with pneumonia : 79
11. People exposed with pneumonia : 2,593
12. Total number of deaths from all causes : 10,998

The following questions refer to these data

35. What is the crude birth rate of Barangay PinoyBSN?

A. 90/100,000
B. 9/100
C. 90/1000
D. 9/1000

36. What is the cause specific death rate from cardiovascular diseases?

A. 27/100
B. 1191/100,000
C. 27/100,000
D. 1.1/1000

37. What is the Maternal Mortality rate of this barangay?

A. 6.55/1000
B. 5.89/1000
C. 1.36/1000
D. 3.67/1000

38. What is the fetal death rate?

A. 3.49/1000
B. 10.04/1000
C. 3.14/1000
D. 3.14/100,000

39. What is the attack rate of pneumonia?

A. 3.04/1000
B. 7.18/1000
C. 32.82/100
D. 3.04/100

40. Determine the Case fatality ratio of rabies in this Barangay

A. 1/100
B. 100%
C. 1%
D. 100/1000

41. The following are all functions of the nurse in vital statistics, which of the following is not?

A. Consolidate Data
B. Collects Data
C. Analyze Data
D. Tabulate Data

42. The following are Notifiable diseases that needs to have a tally sheet in data reporting, Which one is not?

A. Hypertension
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Chemical Poisoning
D. Accidents

43. Which of the following requires reporting within 24 hours?

A. Neonatal tetanus
B. Measles
C. Hypertension
D. Tetanus

44. Which Act declared that all communicable disease be reported to the nearest health station?

A. 1082
B. 1891
C. 3573
D. 6675

45. In the RHU Team, Which professional is directly responsible in caring a sick person who is homebound?

A. Midwife
B. Nurse
C. BHW
D. Physician

46. During epidemics, which of the following epidemiological function will you have to perform first?

A. Teaching the community on disease prevention
B. Assessment on suspected cases
C. Monitor the condition of people affected
D. Determining the source and nature of the epidemic

47. Which of the following is a POINT SOURCE epidemic?

A. Dengue H.F
B. Malaria
C. Contaminated Water Source
D. Tuberculosis

48. All but one is a characteristic of a point source epidemic, which one is not?

A. The spread of the disease is caused by a common vehicle
B. The disease is usually caused by contaminated food
C. There is a gradual increase of cases
D. Epidemic is usually sudden

49. The only Microorganism monitored in cases of contaminated water is

A. Vibrio Cholera
B. Escherichia Coli
C. Entamoeba Histolytica
D. Coliform Test

50. Dengue increase in number during June, July and August. This pattern is called

A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Cyclical
D. Secular

SITUATION : Field health services and information system provides summary data on health service delivery and selected program from the barangay level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the process on how these information became processed and consolidated.

51. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS Except

A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural history
B. To provide standardized, facility level data base which can be accessed for more in depth studies
C. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care and promotive activities
D. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy to use fashion

52. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the field health service information system?

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

53. What is the primary advantage of having a target client list?

A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor treatment and services to beneficiaries thus saving time and effort
B. Help monitor service rendered to clients in general
C. Facilitate monitoring and supervision of services
D. Facilitates easier reporting

54. Which of the following is used to monitor particular groups that are qualified as eligible to a certain program of the DOH?

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

55. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended frequency in tallying activities and services?

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly

56. When is the counting of the tally sheet done?

A. At the end of the day
B. At the end of the week
C. At the end of the month
D. At the end of the year

57. Target client list will be transmitted to the next facility in the form of

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

58. All but one of the following are eligible target client list

A. Leprosy cases
B. TB cases
C. Prenatal care
D. Diarrhea cases

59. This is the only mechanism through which data are routinely transmitted from once facility to another

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

60. FHSIS/Q-3 Or the report for environmental health activities is prepared how frequently?

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Quarterly
D. Yearly

61. Nurse Budek is preparing the reporting form for weekly notifiable diseases. He knew that he will code the report form as

A. FHSIS/E-1
B. FHSIS/E-2
C. FHSIS/E-3
D. FHSIS/M-1

62. In preparing the maternal death report, which of the following correctly codes this occurrence?

A. FHSIS/E-1
B. FHSIS/E-2
C. FHSIS/E-3
D. FHSIS/M-1

63. Where should Nurse Budek bring the reporting forms if he is in the BHU Facility?

A. Rural health office
B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office
D. Regional health office

64. After bringing the reporting forms in the right facility for processing, Nurse Budek knew that the output reports are solely produced by what office?

A. Rural health office
B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office
D. Regional health office

65. Mang Raul entered the health center complaining of fatigue and frequent syncope. You assessed Mang Raul and found out that he is severely malnourished and anemic. What record should you get first to document these findings?

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

66. The information about Mang Raul’s address, full name, age, symptoms and diagnosis is recorded in

A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record

67. Another entry is to be made for Mang Raul because he is in the target client’s list, In what TCL should Mang Raul’s entry be documented?

A. TCL Eligible Population
B. TCL Family Planning
C. TCL Nutrition
D. TCL Pre Natal

68. The nurse uses the FHSIS Record system incorrectly when she found out that

A. She go to the individual or FTR for entry confirmation in the Tally/Report Summary
B. She refer to other sources for completing monthly and quarterly reports
C. She records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report form with a code FHSIS/M-1
D. She records a Child who have frequent diarrhea in TCL : Under Five

69. The BHS Is the lowest level of reporting unit in FHSIS. A BHS can be considered a reporting unit if all of the following are met except

A. It renders service to 3 barangays
B. There is a midwife the regularly renders service to the area
C. The BHS Have no mother BHS
D. It should be a satellite BHS

70. Data submitted to the PHO is processed using what type of technology?

A. Internet
B. Microcomputer
C. Supercomputer
D. Server Interlink Connections

SITUATION : Community organizing is a process by which people, health services and agencies of the community are brought together to act and solve their own problems.

71. Mang ambo approaches you for counseling. You are an effective counselor if you

A. Give good advice to Mang Ambo
B. Identify Mang Ambo’s problems
C. Convince Mang Ambo to follow your advice
D. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems

72. As a newly appointed PHN instructed to organize Barangay Baritan, Which of the following is your initial step in organizing the community for initial action?

A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and records
B. Make a courtesy call to the Barangay Captain
C. Meet with the Barangay Captain to make plans
D. Make a courtesy call to the Municipal Mayor

73. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing the community. Which of the following is the initial step in the preparatory phase?

A. Area selection
B. Community profiling
C. Entry in the community
D. Integration with the people

74. the most important factor in determining the proper area for community organizing is that this area should

A. Be already adopted by another organization
B. Be able to finance the projects
C. Have problems and needs assistance
D. Have people with expertise to be developed as leaders

75. Which of the following dwelling place should the Nurse choose when integrating with the people?

A. A simple house in the border of Barangay Baritan and San Pablo
B. A simple house with fencing and gate located in the center of Barangay Baritan
C. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter
D. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter located in the center of the community

76. In choosing a leader in the community during the Organizational phase, Which among these people will you choose?

A. Miguel Zobel, 50 years old, Rich and Famous
B. Rustom, 27 years old, Actor
C. Mang Ambo, 70, Willing to work for the desired change
D. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to work for the desired change

77. Which type of leadership style should the leaders of the community practice?

A. Autocratic
B. Democratic
C. Laissez Faire
D. Consultative

78. Setting up Committee on Education and Training is in what phase of COPAR?

A. Preparatory
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out

79. Community diagnosis is done to come up with a profile of local health situation that will serve as basis of health programs and services. This is done in what phase of COPAR?

A. Preparatory
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out

80. The people named the community health workers based on the collective decision in accordance with the set criteria. Before they can be trained by the Nurse, The Nurse must first

A. Make a lesson plan
B. Set learning goals and objective
C. Assess their learning needs
D. Review materials needed for training

81. Nurse Budek wrote a letter to PCSO asking them for assistance in their feeding programs for the community’s nutrition and health projects. PCSO then approved the request and gave Budek 50,000 Pesos and a truckload of rice, fruits and vegetables. Which phase of COPAR did Budek utilized?

A. Preparatory
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out

82. Ideally, How many years should the Nurse stay in the community before he can phase out and be assured of a Self Reliant community?

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months

83. Major discussion in community organization are made by

A. The nurse
B. The leaders of each committee
C. The entire group
D. Collaborating Agencies

84. The nurse should know that Organizational plan best succeeds when

1. People sees its values
2. People think its antagonistic professionally
3. It is incompatible with their personal beliefs
4. It is compatible with their personal beliefs

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 4

85. Nurse Budek made a proposal that people should turn their backyard into small farming lots to plant vegetables and fruits. He specified that the objective is to save money in buying vegetables and fruits that tend to have a fluctuating and cyclical price. Which step in Community organizing process did he utilized?

A. Fact finding
B. Determination of needs
C. Program formation
D. Education and Interpretation

86. One of the critical steps in COPAR is becoming one with the people and understanding their culture and lifestyle. Which critical step in COPAR will the Nurse try to immerse himself in the community?

A. Integration
B. Social Mobilization
C. Ground Work
D. Mobilization

87. The Actual exercise of people power occurs during when?

A. Integration
B. Social Mobilization
C. Ground Work
D. Mobilization

88. Which steps in COPAR trains indigenous and informal leaders?

A. Ground Work
B. Mobilization
C. Core Group formation
D. Integration

89. As a PHN, One of your role is to organize the community. Nurse Budek knows that the purposes of community organizing are

1. Move the community to act on their own problems
2. Make people aware of their own problems
3. Enable the nurse to solve the community problems
4. Offer people means of solving their own problems

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 1,2
D. 1,2,4

90. This is considered the first act of integrating with the people. This gives an in depth participation in community health problems and needs.

A. Residing in the area of assignment
B. Listing down the name of person to contact for courtesy call
C. Gathering initial information about the community
D. Preparing Agenda for the first meeting

SITUATION : Health education is the process whereby knowledge, attitude and practice of people are changed to improve individual, family and community health.

91. Which of the following is the correct sequence in health education?

1. Information
2. Communication
3. Education

A. 1,2,3
B. 3,2,1
C. 1,3,2
D. 3,1,2

92. The health status of the people is greatly affected and determined by which of the following?

A. Behavioral factors
B. Socioeconomic factors
C. Political factors
D. Psychological factors

93. Nurse Budek is conducting a health teaching to Agnesia, 50 year old breast cancer survivor needing rehabilitative measures. He knows that health education is effective when

A. Agnesia recites the procedure and instructions perfectly
B. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was changed positively
C. Agnesia gave feedback to Budek saying that she understood the instruction
D. Agnesia requested a written instruction from Budek

94. Which of the following is true about health education?

A. It helps people attain their health through the nurse’s sole efforts
B. It should not be flexible
C. It is a fast and mushroom like process
D. It is a slow and continuous process

95. Which of the following factors least influence the learning readiness of an adult learner?

A. The individuals stage of development
B. Ability to concentrate on information to be learned
C. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to his illness
D. The internal impulses that drive the person to take action

96. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic patients to learn how to control their diet?

A. Use of pamphlets and other materials during instructions
B. Motivation to be symptom free
C. Ability of the patient to understand teaching instruction
D. Language used by the nurse

97. An important skill that a primigravida has to acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn baby and clean her breast if she decides to breastfeed her baby, Which of the following learning domain will you classify the above goals?

A. Psychomotor
B. Cognitive
C. Affective
D. Attitudinal

98. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of hypertensive patients, you first formulate your learning objectives. Which of the following steps in the nursing process corresponds to the writing of the learning objectives?

A. Planning
B. Implementing
C. Evaluation
C. Assessment

99. Rose, 50 years old and newly diagnosed diabetic patient must learn how to inject insulin. Which of the following physical attribute is not in anyway related to her ability to administer insulin?

A. Strength
B. Coordination
C. Dexterity
D. Muscle Built

100. Appearance and disposition of clients are best observed initially during which of the following situation?

A. Taking V/S
B. Interview
C. Implementation of the initial care
D. Actual Physical examination

ANSWERS and RATIONALE

Funda Test Drill II ( Answers and Rationale)

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sun, 05 Jul 2009 00:53:22 PDT

1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health

* This is an actual board exam question and is a common board question. Theorist always describes The nursing profession by first defining what is NURSING, followed by the PERSON, ENVIRONMENT and HEALTH CONCEPT. The most popular theory was perhaps Nightingale’s. She defined nursing as the utilization of the persons environment to assist him towards recovery. She defined the person as somebody who has a reparative capabilities mediated and enhanced by factors in his environment. She describes the environment as something that would facilitate the person’s reparative process and identified different factors like sanitation, noise, etc. that affects a person’s reparative state.

2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by

A. Nightingale
B. Benner
C. Swanson
D. King

* Florence nightingale do not believe in the germ theory, and perhaps this was her biggest mistake. Yet, her theory was the first in nursing. She believed that manipulation of environment that includes appropriate noise, nutrition, hygiene, light, comfort, sanitation etc. could provide the client’s body the nurturance it needs for repair and recovery.

3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to care of the ill person

A. King
B. Henderson
C. Roy
D. Leininger

* Remember the word “ THEOROYTICAL “ For Callista Roy, Nursing is a theoretical body of knowledge that prescribes analysis and action to care for an ill person. She introduced the ADAPTATION MODEL and viewed person as a BIOSPSYCHOSOCIAL BEING. She believed that by adaptation, Man can maintain homeostasis.

4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.

A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Swanson
D. Neuman

* In self care deficit theory, Nursing is defined as A helping or assistive profession to person who are wholly or partly dependent or when people who are to give care to them are no longer available. Self care, are the activities that a person do for himself to maintain health, life and well being.

5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.

A. Neuman
B. Johnson
C. Watson
D. Parse

* Neuman divided stressors as either intra, inter and extra personal in nature. She said that NURSING is concerned with eliminating these stressors to obtain a maximum level of wellness. The nurse helps the client through PRIMARY, SECONDARY AND TERTIARY prevention modes. Please do not confuse this with LEAVELL and CLARK’S level of prevention.

6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.

A. Henderson
B. Abdellah
C. Levin
D. Peplau

* This was an actual board question. Remember this definition and associate it with Virginia Henderson. Henderson also describes the NATURE OF NURSING theory. She identified 14 basic needs of the client. She describes nursing roles as SUBSTITUTIVE : Doing everything for the client, SUPPLEMENTARY : Helping the client and COMPLEMENTARY : Working with the client. Breathing normally, Eliminating waste, Eating and drinking adquately, Worship and Play are some of the basic needs according to her.

7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

* There are many theorist that describes nursing as CARE. The most popular was JEAN WATSON'S Human Caring Model. But this question pertains to Leininger's definition of caring. CUD I LIE IN GER? [ Could I Lie In There ] Is the Mnemonics I am using not to get confused. C stands for CENTRAL , U stands for UNIFYING, D stands for DOMINANT DOMAIN. I emphasize on this matter due to feedback on the last June 2006 batch about a question about CARING.

8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

* Caring according to Swanson involves 5 processes. Knowing means understanding the client. Being with emphasizes the Physical presence of the nurse for the patient. Doing for means doing things for the patient when he is incapable of doing it for himself. Enabling means helping client transcend maturational and developmental stressors in life while Maintaining belief is the ability of the Nurse to inculcate meaning to these events.

9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

* The deepest and spiritual definition of Caring came from Jean watson. For her, Caring expands the limits of openess and allows access to higher human spirit.

10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

* I think of CARE BEAR to facilitate retainment of BENNER. As in, Care Benner. For her, Caring means being CONNECTED or making things matter to people. Caring according to Benner give meaning to illness and re establish connection.

11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?

A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special knowledge
B. It serves specific interest of a group
C. It is altruistic
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards

* Believe it or not, you should know the definition of profession according to Jahoda because it is asked in the Local boards. A profession should serve the WHOLE COMMUNITY and not just a specific intrest of a group. Everything else, are correct.

12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?

A. Concerned with quantity
B. Self directed
C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
D. Independent

* A professional is concerned with QUALITY and not QUANTITY. In nursing, We have methods of quality assurance and control to evaluate the effectiveness of nursing care. Nurses, are never concerned with QUANTITY of care provided.

13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is

A. Education
B. Theory
C. Caring
D. Autonomy

* Caring and caring alone, is the most unique quality of the Nursing Profession. It is the one the delineate Nursing from other professions.

14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another

A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character

* Personality are qualities that make us different from each other. These are impressions that we made, or the footprints that we leave behind. This is the result of the integration of one's talents, behavior, appearance, mood, character, morals and impulses into one harmonious whole. Philosophy is the basic truth that fuel our soul and give our life a purpose, it shapes the facets of a person's character. Charm is to attract other people to be a change agent. Character is our moral values and belief that guides our actions in life.

15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions

A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character

* Refer to number 14

16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?

A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the institution

* A refers to being a change agent. B is a role of a patient advocate. C is a case manager while D basically summarized functions of a nurse manager. If you haven't read Lydia Venzon's Book : NURSING MANAGEMENT TOWARDS QUALITY CARE, I suggest reading it in advance for your management subjects in the graduate school. Formulating philosophy and vision is in PLANNING. Nursing Audit is in CONTROLLING, In service education programs are included in DIRECTING. These are the processes of Nursing Management, I just forgot to add ORGANIZING which includes formulating an organizational structure and plans, Staffing and developing qualifications and job descriptions.

17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

A. Determine client’s need
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care

* You can never provide nursing care if you don't know what are the needs of the client. How can you provide an effective postural drainage if you do not know where is the bulk of the client's secretion. Therefore, the best description of a care provider is the accurate and prompt determination of the client's need to be able to render an appropriate nursing care.

18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?

A. Change agent
B. Client advocate
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator

* As a client's advocate, Nurses are to protect the client's right and promotes what is best for the client. Knowing that Morphine causes spasm of the sphincter of Oddi and will lead to further increase in the client's pain, The nurse knew that the best treatment option for the client was not provided and intervene to provide the best possible care.

19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.

A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Interdependent
D. Intradependent

* Interdependent functions are those that needs expertise and skills of multiple health professionals. Example is when A child was diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome and the doctor ordered a high protein diet, Budek then work together with the dietician about the age appropriate high protein foods that can be given to the child, Including the preparation to entice the child into eating the food. NOTE : It is still debated if the diet in NS is low, moderate or high protein, In the U.S, Protein is never restricted and can be taken in moderate amount. As far as the local examination is concerned, answer LOW PROTEIN HIGH CALORIC DIET.

20. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?

A. Total patient care
B. Team nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case management

* This is also known as case nursing. It is a method of nursing care wherein, one nurse is assigned to one patient for the delivery of total care. These are the method use by Nursing students, Private duty nurses and those in critical or isolation units.

21. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.

A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

* Total patient care works best if there are many nurses but few patients.

22. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses

A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

* Functional nursing is task oriented, One nurse is assigned on a particular task leading to task expertise and efficiency. The nurse will work fast because the procedures are repetitive leading to task mastery. This care is not recommended as this leads fragmented nursing care.

23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.

A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

* Your keyword in Primary nursing is the 24 hours. This does not necessarily means the nurse is awake for 24 hours, She can have a SECONDARY NURSES that will take care of the patient in shifts where she is not arround.

24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?

A. Hammurabi
B. Alexander
C. Fabiola
D. Nightingale

* Refer to question # 2. Hammurabi is the king of babylon that introduces the LEX TALIONES law, If you kill me, you should be killed... If you rob me, You should be robbed, An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth. Alexander the great was the son of King Philip II and is from macedonia but he ruled Greece including Persia and Egypt. He is known to use a hammer to pierce a dying soldier's medulla towards speedy death when he thinks that the soldier will die anyway, just to relieve their suffering. Fabiola was a beautiful roman matron who converted her house into a hospital.

25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.

A. Henderson
B. Nightingale
C. Parse
D. Orlando

* Refer to question # 6.

26. She described the four conservation principle.

A. Levin
B. Leininger
C. Orlando
D. Parse

* Myra Levin described the 4 Conservation principles which are concerned with the Unity and Integrity of an individual. These are ENERGY : Our output to facilitate meeting of our needs. STRUCTURAL INTEGRITY : We mus maintain the integrity of our organs, tissues and systems to be able to function and prevent harmful agents entering our body. PERSONAL INTEGRITY : These refers to our self esteem, self worth, self concept, identify and personality. SOCIAL INTEGRITY : Reflects our societal roles to our society, community, family, friends and fellow individuals.

27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.

A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Parse
D. Neuman

* Betty Neuman asserted that nursing is a unique profession and is concerned with all the variables affecting the individual's response to stressors. These are INTRA or within ourselves, EXTRA or outside the individual, INTER means between two or more people. She proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL which states that by PRIMARY, SECONDARY and TERTIARY prevention, The nurse can help the client maintain stability against these stressors.

28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL

A. Orem
B. Johnson
C. Henderson
D. Parse

* According to Dorothy Johnson, Each person is a behavioral system that is composed of 7 subsystems. Man adjust or adapt to stressors by a using a LEARNED PATTERN OF RESPONSE. Man uses his behavior to meet the demands of the environment, and is able to modified his behavior to support these demands.

29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL

A. Swanson
B. Hall
C. Weidenbach
D. Zderad

* Just remember ERNESTINE WEIDENBACHLINICAL.

30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
B. Neuman
C. Newman
D. Benner and Wrubel

31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING

A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
B. Peterson,Zderad
C. Bnner,Wrubel
D. Boykin,Schoenhofer

* This theory was called GRAND THEORY because boykin and schoenofer thinks that ALL MAN ARE CARING, And that nursing is a response to this unique call. According to them, CARING IS A MORAL IMPERATIVE, meaning, ALL PEOPLE will tend to help a man who fell down the stairs even if he is not trained to do so.

32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING

A. Travelbee
B. Swanson
C. Zderad
D. Peplau

* Travelbee's theory was referred to as INTERPERSONAL theory because she postulated that NURSING is to assist the individual and all people that affects this individual to cope with illness, recover and FIND MEANING to this experience. For her, Nursing is a HUMAN TO HUMAN relationship that is formed during illness. To her, an individual is a UNIQUE and irreplaceable being in continuous process of becoming, evolving and changing. PLEASE do remember, that it is PARSE who postulated the theory of HUMAN BECOMING and not TRAVELBEE, for I read books that say it was TRAVELBEE and not PARSE.

33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST

A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters

* Kohlber states that relationships are based on mutual trust. He postulated the levels of morality development. At the first stage called the PREMORAL or preconventional, A child do things and label them as BAD or GOOD depending on the PUNISHMENT or REWARD they get. They have no concept of justice, fairness and equity, for them, If I punch this kid and mom gets mad, thats WRONG. But if I dance and sing, mama smiles and give me a new toy, then I am doing something good. In the Conventional level, The individual actuates his act based on the response of the people around him. He will follow the rules, regulations, laws and morality the society upholds. If the law states that I should not resuscitate this man with a DNR order, then I would not. However, in the Post conventional level or the AUTONOMOUS level, the individual still follows the rules but can make a rule or bend part of these rules according to his own MORALITY. He can change the rules if he thinks that it is needed to be changed. Example is that, A nurse still continue resuscitating the client even if the client has a DNR order because he believes that the client can still recover and his mission is to save lives, not watch patients die.

34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLES

A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters

* Remember PETERS for PRINCIPLES. P is to P. He believes that morality has 3 components : EMOTION or how one feels, JUDGEMENT or how one reason and BEHAVIOR or how one actuates his EMOTION and JUDGEMENT. He believes that MORALITY evolves with the development of PRINCPLES or the person's vitrue and traits. He also believes in AUTOMATICITY of virtues or he calls HABIT, like kindness, charity, honesty, sincerity and thirft which are innate to a person and therfore, will be performed automatically.

35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through

A. Imitation
B. Introjection
C. Identification
D. Regression

* A child, according to Freud adopts parental standards, traits, habits and norms through identication. A good example is the corned beef commercial " WALK LIKE A MAN, TALK LIKE A MAN " Where the child identifies with his father by wearing the same clothes and doing the same thing.

36. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral child strives to be kind and just

A. Zderad and Peterson
B. Benner and Wrubel
C. Fowler and Westerhoff
D. Schulman and Mekler

* According to Schulman and Mekler, there are 2 components that makes an action MORAL : The intention should be good and the Act must be just. A good example is ROBIN HOOD, His intention is GOOD but the act is UNJUST, which makes his action IMMORAL.

37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and development based on his experience.

A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud

* There are only 2 theorist of FAITH that might be asked in the board examinations. Fowler and Westerhoff. What differs them is that, FAITH of fowler is defined abstractly, Fowler defines faith as a FORCE that gives a meaning to a person's life while Westerhoff defines faith as a behavior that continuously develops through time.

38. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.

A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud

* Refer to # 37

39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission society of America. Miss rose nicolet, was it’s first superintendent.

A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursing
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursing
C. Philippine General Hospital School of nursing
D. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing

40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital.

A. St. Paul Hospital
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital
C. Philippine General Hospital
D. St. Luke’s Hospital

41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed 300-900 people everyday in their gate, builds hospitals, and care of the poor and sick herself.

A. Elizabeth
B. Catherine
C. Nightingale
D. Sairey Gamp

* Saint Elizabeth of Hungary was a daughter of a King and is the patron saint of nurses. She build hospitals and feed hungry people everyday using the kingdom's money. She is a princess, but devoted her life in feeding the hungry and serving the sick.

42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to prove that yellow fever is carried by a mosquitoes.

A. Clara louise Maas
B. Pearl Tucker
C. Isabel Hampton Robb
D. Caroline Hampton Robb

* Clara Louise Maas sacrificed her life in research of YELLOW FEVER. People during her time do not believe that yellow fever was brought by mosquitoes. To prove that they are wrong, She allowed herself to be bitten by the vector and after days, She died.

43. He was called the father of sanitation.

A. Abraham
B. Hippocrates
C. Moses
D. Willam Halstead

44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated

A. China
B. Egypt
C. India
D. Babylonia

45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away

A. Chinese
B. Egyptian
C. Indian
D. Babylonian

* Chinese believes that male newborns are demon magnets. To fool those demons, they put female clothes to their male newborn.

46. In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away?

A. Dark period
B. Intuitive period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

* Egyptians believe that a sick person is someone with an evil force or demon that is inside their heads. To release these evil spirits, They would tend to drill holes on the patient's skull and it is called TREPHINING.

47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses

A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

* What dilineates apprentice period among others is that, it ENDED when formal schools were established. During the apprentice period, There is no formal educational institution for nurses. Most of them receive training inside the convent or church. Some of them are trained just for the purpose of nursing the wounded soldiers. But almost all of them are influenced by the christian faith to serve and nurse the sick. When Fliedner build the first formal school for nurses, It marked the end of the APPRENTICESHIP period.

48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick

A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

* Apprentice period is marked by the emergence of religious orders the are devoted to religious life and the practice of nursing.

49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi

A. St. Catherine
B. St. Anne
C. St. Clare
D. St. Elizabeth

* The poor clares, is the second order of St. Francis of assisi. The first order was founded by St. Francis himself. St. Catherine of Siena was the first lady with the lamp. St. Anne is the mother of mama mary. St. Elizabeth is the patron saint of Nursing.

50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.

A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

* Protestantism emerged with Martin Luther questions the Pope and Christianity. This started the Dark period of nursing when the christian faith was smeared by controversies. These leads to closure of some hospital and schools run by the church. Nursing became the work of prostitutes, slaves, mother and least desirable of women.

51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a SOCIAL being is

A. Like all other men
B. Like some other men
C. Like no other men
D. Like men

* According to ROY, Man as a social being is like some other man. As a spiritual being and Biologic being, Man are all alike. As a psychologic being, No man thinks alike. This basically summarized her BIOPSYHOSOCIAL theory which is included in our licensure exam coverage.

52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in constant interaction and transaction with a changing environment.

A. Roy
B. Levin
C. Neuman
D. Newman

* OPEN system theory is ROY. As an open system, man continuously allows input from the environment. Example is when you tell me Im good looking, I will be happy the entire day, Because I am an open system and continuously interact and transact with my environment. A close system is best exemplified by a CANDLE. When you cover the candle with a glass, it will die because it will eventually use all the oxygen it needs inside the glass for combustion. A closed system do not allow inputs and output in its environment.

53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?

A. Affected by matter
B. A sole island in vast ocean
C. Allows input
D. Constantly affected by matter, energy, information

54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?

A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson

* The wholistic theory by Martha Rogers states that MAN is greater than the sum of all its parts and that his dignity and worth will not be lessen even if one of this part is missing. A good example is ANNE BOLEYN, The mother of Queen Elizabeth and the wife of King Henry VIII. She was beheaded because Henry wants to mary another wife and that his divorce was not approved by the pope. Outraged, He insisted on the separation of the Church and State and divorce Anne himself by making everyone believe that Anne is having an affair to another man. Anne was beheaded while her lips is still saying a prayer. Even without her head, People still gave respect to her diseased body and a separate head. She was still remembered as Anne boleyn, Mother of Elizabeth who lead england to their GOLDEN AGE.

55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues, organs and systems while the suprasystems are family, society and community.

A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson

* According to Martha Rogers, Man is composed of 2 systems : SUB which includes cells, tissues, organs and system and SUPRA which includes our famly, community and society. She stated that when any of these systems are affected, it will affect the entire individual.

56. Which of the following is not true about the human needs?

A. Certain needs are common to all people
B. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchy
C. Needs are stimulated by internal factors
D. Needs are stimulated by external factors

* Needs can be deferred. I can urinate later as not to miss the part of the movie's climax. I can save my money that are supposedly for my lunch to watch my idols in concert. The physiologic needs can be meet later for some other needs and need not be strictly followed according to their hierarchy.

57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?

A. May not be deferred
B. Are not interrelated
C. Met in exact and rigid way
D. Priorities are alterable

* Refer to question # 56.

58. According to Maslow, which of the following is NOT TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.
B. Desires privacy, autonomous
C. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truth
D. Problem centered

* A,B and D are all qualities of a self actualized person. A self actualized person do not follow the decision of majority but is self directed and can make decisions contrary to a popular opinion.

59. According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Makes decision contrary to public opinion
B. Do not predict events
C. Self centered
D. Maximum degree of self conflict

* Refer to question # 58.

60. This is the essence of mental health

A. Self awareness
B. Self actualization
C. Self esteem
D. Self worth

* The peak of maslow's hierarchy is the essence of mental health.

61. Florence nightingale is born in

A. Germany
B. Britain
C. France
D. Italy

* Florence Nightingale was born in Florence, Italy, May 12, 1820. Studied in Germany and Practiced in England.

62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?

A. Born May 12, 1840
B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40 years old
C. Notes in nursing
D. Notes in hospital

63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?

A. Belgium
B. US
C. Germany
D. England

64. Which of the following is recognized for developing the concept of HIGH LEVEL WELLNESS?

A. Erikson
B. Madaw
C. Peplau
D. Dunn

* According to Dunn, High level wellness is the ability of an individual to maximize his full potential with the limitations imposed by his environment. According to him, An individual can be healthy or ill in both favorable and unfavorable environment.

65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join professional association primarily because of

A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its members
B. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefit
C. Facilitate and establishes acquaintances
D. Assist them and securing jobs abroad

66. Founder of the PNA

A. Julita Sotejo
B. Anastacia Giron Tupas
C. Eufemia Octaviano
D. Anesia Dionisio

67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be a member of a national nurse organization?

A. R.A 877
B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house of delegates and the PNA
C. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BON
D. RA 7164

* This is an old board resolution. The new Board resolution is No. 220 series of 2004 also known as the Nursing Code Of ethics which states that [ SECTION 17, A ] A nurse should be a member of an accredited professional organization which is the PNA.

68. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?

A. She documents it and charts it whenever necessary
B. She can be accused of malpractice
C. She does it regularly as an important responsibility
D. She charts it only when the patient is acutely ill

69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?

A. RA 7164
B. RA 9173
C. BON Res. Code Of Ethics
D. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice

* 7164 is an old law. This is the 1991 Nursing Law which was repealed by the newer 9173.

70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the community renders service on maternal and child health among the neighborhood for a fee is:

A. Primary care nurse
B. Independent nurse practitioner
C. Nurse-Midwife
D. Nurse specialist

71. When was the PNA founded?

A. September 22, 1922
B. September 02, 1920
C. October 21, 1922
D. September 02, 1922

* According to the official PNA website, they are founded September 02, 1922.

72. Who was the first president of the PNA ?

A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
B. Loreto Tupas
C. Rosario Montenegro
D. Ricarda Mendoza

* Anastacia Giron Tupas founded the FNA, the former name of the PNA but the first President was Rosario Montenegro.

73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to maintain internal environment.

A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Leddy and Pepper
D. Roy

* According to Bernard, Health is the ability to maintain and Internal Milieu and Illness is the failure to maintain the internal environment.

74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being and becoming an integrated and whole person.

A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Roy

* According to ROY, Health is a state and process of becoming a WHOLE AND INTEGRATED Person.

75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Buffer system
D. Various mechanisms

* The theory of Health as the ability to maintain homeostasis was postulated by Walter Cannon. According to him, There are certain FEEDBACK Mechanism that regulates our Homeostasis. A good example is that when we overuse our arm, it will produce pain. PAIN is a negative feedback that signals us that our arm needs a rest.

76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.

A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King

* Martha Rogers states that HEALTH is synonymous with WELLNESS and that HEALTH and WELLNESS is subjective depending on the definition of one's culture.

77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle, and Illness as interference in the life cycle.

A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King

* Emogene King states that health is a state in the life cycle and Illness is any interference on this cycle. I enjoyed the Movie LION KING and like what Mufasa said that they are all part of the CIRCLE OF LIFE, or the Life cycle.

78. She defined health as the soundness and wholness of developed human structure and bodily mental functioning.

A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Clark

* Orem defined health as the SOUNDNESS and WHOLENESS of developed human structure and of bodily and mental functioning.

79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system.

A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson

* Neuman believe that man is composed of subparts and when this subparts are in harmony with the whole system, Wellness results. Please do not confuse this with the SUB and SUPRA systems of martha rogers.

80. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization, interaction, interdependence and integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.

A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson

* Once you see the phrase BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM, answer Dorothy Johnson.

81. According to them, Well being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY

A. Leavell and Clark
B. Peterson and Zderad
C. Benner and Wruber
D. Leddy and Pepper

* According to Leddy and Pepper, Wellness is subjective and depends on an individuals perception of balance, harmony and vitality. Leavell and Clark postulared the ecologic model of health and illness or the AGENT-HOST-ENVIRONMENT model. Peterson and Zderad developed the HUMANISTIC NURSING PRACTICE theory while Benner and Wruber postulate the PRIMACY OF CARING MODEL.

82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with well being and illness.

A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Clark

83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented towards maximizing one’s potential within the limitation of the environment.

A. Well being
B. Health
C. Low level Wellness
D. High level Wellness

84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?

A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental

* Behavioral precursors includes smoking, alcoholism, high fat intake and other lifestyle choices. Environmental factors involved poor sanitation and over crowding. Heridity includes congenital and diseases acquired through the genes. There are no social precursors according to DUNN.

85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?

A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental

86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?

A. Becker
B. Smith
C. Dunn
D. Leavell and Clark

* According to Becker, The belief of an individual greatly affects his behavior. If a man believes that he is susceptible to an illness, He will alter his behavior in order to prevent its occurence. For example, If a man thinks that diabetes is acquired through high intake of sugar and simple carbohydrates, then he will limit the intake of foods rich in these components.

87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive behavior?

A. Perceived susceptibility to an illness
B. Perceived seriousness of an illness
C. Perceived threat of an illness
D. Perceived curability of an illness

* If a man think he is susceptibe to a certain disease, thinks that the disease is serious and it is a threat to his life and functions, he will use preventive behaviors to avoid the occurence of this threat.

88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?

A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyle
B. Economic factors
C. Accessibility of health care facilities
D. Increase adherence to medical therapies

* Perceived barriers are those factors that affects the individual's health preventive actions. Both A and B can affect the individual's ability to prevent the occurence of diseases. C and D are called Preventive Health Behaviors which enhances the individual's preventive capabilities.

89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete development actualization.

A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model

* Smith formulated 5 models of health. Clinical model simply states that when people experience sign and symptoms, they would think that they are unhealthy therefore, Health is the absence of clinical sign and symptoms of a disease. Role performance model states that when a person does his role and activities without deficits, he is healthy and the inability to perform usual roles means that the person is ill. Adaptive Model states that if a person adapts well with his environment, he is healthy and maladaptation equates illness. Eudaemonistic Model of health according to smith is the actualization of a person's fullest potential. If a person functions optimally and develop self actualization, then, no doubt that person is healthy.

90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of sign and symptoms equates health.

A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model

* Refer to question # 89.

91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health belief model?

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

* Modifying variables in Becker's health belief model includes DEMOGRAPHIC : Age, sex, race etc. SOCIOPSYCHOLOGIC : Social and Peer influence. STRUCTURAL : Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it and CUES TO ACTION : Which are the sign and symptoms of the disease or advice from friends, mass media and others that forces or makes the individual seek help.

92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the individual to seek help

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

* Refer to question # 92.

93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

* Refer to question # 92.

94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

* Refer to question # 92.

95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All of this are factors that affects health and illness except

A. Reservoir
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Host

* According to L&C's Ecologic model, there are 3 factors that affect health and illness. These are the AGENT or the factor the leads to illness, either a bacteria or an event in life. HOST are persons that may or may not be affected by these agents. ENVIRONMENT are factors external to the host that may or may not predispose him to the AGENT.

96. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as they interact within the environment to pursue health

A. Ecologic Model
B. Health Belief Model
C. Health Promotion Model
D. Health Prevention Model

* Pender developed the concept of HEALTH PROMOTION MODEL which postulated that an individual engages in health promotion activities to increase well being and attain self actualization. These includes exercise, immunization, healthy lifestyle, good food, self responsibility and all other factors that minimize if not totally eradicate risks and threats of health.

97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization.

A. Health prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health teaching
D. Self actualization

* Refer to question # 96.

98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

* Disease are alteration in body functions resulting in reduction of capabilities or shortening of life span.

99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

* Illness is something PERSONAL. Unlike disease, Illness are personal state in which person feels unhealthy. An old person might think he is ILL but in fact, he is not due, to diminishing functions and capabilities, people might think they are ILL. Disease however, is something with tangible basis like lab results, X ray films or clinical sign and symptoms.

100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

* This is Jean Watson's definition of Nursing as caring. This was asked word per word last June 06' NLE. Benner defines caring as something that matters to people. She postulated the responsibility created by Caring in nursing. She was also responsible for the PRIMACY OF CARING MODEL. Leininger defind the 4 conservation principle while Swanson introduced the 5 processes of caring.

Funda drill Test II

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sun, 05 Jul 2009 00:55:08 PDT

1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health

2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by

A. Nightingale
B. Benner
C. Swanson
D. King

3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to care of the ill person

A. King
B. Henderson
C. Roy
D. Leininger

4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.

A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Swanson
D. Neuman

5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.

A. Neuman
B. Johnson
C. Watson
D. Parse

6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.

A. Henderson
B. Abdellah
C. Levin
D. Peplau

7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?

A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special knowledge
B. It serves specific interest of a group
C. It is altruistic
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards

12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?

A. Concerned with quantity
B. Self directed
C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
D. Independent

13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is

A. Education
B. Theory
C. Caring
D. Autonomy

14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another

A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character

15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions

A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character

16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?

A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the institution.

17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

A. Determine client’s need
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care

18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?

A. Change agent
B. Client advocate
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator

19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.

A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Interdependent
D. Intradependent
20. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?

A. Total patient care
B. Team nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case management

21. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.

A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

22. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses

A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.

A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?

A. Hammurabi
B. Alexander
C. Fabiola
D. Nightingale

25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.

A. Henderson
B. Nightingale
C. Parse
D. Orlando

26. She described the four conservation principle.

A. Levin
B. Leininger
C. Orlando
D. Parse

27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.

A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Parse
D. Neuman

28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL

A. Orem
B. Johnson
C. Henderson
D. Parse

29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL

A. Swanson
B. Hall
C. Weidenbach
D. Zderad

30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
B. Neuman
C. Newman
D. Benner and Wrubel

31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING

A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
B. Peterson,Zderad
C. Bnner,Wrubel
D. Boykin,Schoenhofer

32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING

A. Travelbee
B. Swanson
C. Zderad
D. Peplau

33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST

A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters

34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLES
A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters

35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through

A. Imitation
B. Introjection
C. Identification
D. Regression

36. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral child strives to be kind and just

A. Zderad and Peterson
B. Benner and Wrubel
C. Fowler and Westerhoff
D. Schulman and Mekler

37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and development based on his experience.

A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud

38. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.

A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud

39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission society of

America

. Miss rose nicolet, was it’s first superintendent.

A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursing
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursing
C. Philippine General Hospital School of nursing
D. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing

40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital.

A. St. Paul Hospital
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital
C. Philippine General Hospital
D. St. Luke’s Hospital

41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed 300-900 people everyday in their gate, builds hospitals, and care of the poor and sick herself.

A. Elizabeth
B. Catherine
C. Nightingale
D. Sairey Gamp

42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to prove that yellow fever is carried by a mosquitoes.

A. Clara louise Maas
B. Pearl Tucker
C. Isabel Hampton Robb
D. Caroline Hampton Robb

43. He was called the father of sanitation.

A. Abraham
B. Hippocrates
C. Moses
D. Willam Halstead

44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated

A. China
B. Egypt
C. India
D. Babylonia

45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away

A. Chinese
B. Egyptian
C. Indian
D. Babylonian

46. In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away?

A. Dark period
B. Intuitive period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses

A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick

A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi

A. St. Catherine
B. St. Anne
C. St. Clare
D. St. Elizabeth

50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.

A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a SOCIAL being is

A. Like all other men
B. Like some other men
C. Like no other men
D. Like men

52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in constant interaction and transaction with a changing environment.

A. Roy
B. Levin
C. Neuman
D. Newman

53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?

A. Affected by matter
B. A sole island in vast ocean
C. Allows input
D. Constantly affected by matter, energy, information

54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?

A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson

55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues, organs and systems while the suprasystems are family, society and community.

A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson

56. Which of the following is not true about the human needs?

A. Certain needs are common to all people
B. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchy
C. Needs are stimulated by internal factors
D. Needs are stimulated by external factors

57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?

A. May not be deferred
B. Are not interrelated
C. Met in exact and rigid way
D. Priorities are alterable

58. According to Maslow, which of the following is NOT TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.
B. Desires privacy, autonomous
C. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truth
D. Problem centered

59. According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self actualized person?

A. Makes decision contrary to public opinion
B. Do not predict events
C. Self centered
D. Maximum degree of self conflict

60. This is the essence of mental health

A. Self awareness
B. Self actualization
C. Self esteem
D. Self worth

61. Florence nightingale is born in

A. Germany
B. Britain
C. France
D. Italy

62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?

A. Born May 12, 1840
B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40 years old
C. Notes in nursing
D. Notes in hospital

63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?

A. Belgium
B. US
C. Germany
D.

England

64. Which of the following is recognized for developing the concept of HIGH LEVEL WELLNESS?

A. Erikson
B. Madaw
C. Peplau
D. Dunn

65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join professional association primarily because of

A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its members
B. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefit
C. Facilitate and establishes acquaintances
D. Assist them and securing jobs abroad

66. Founder of the PNA

A. Julita Sotejo
B. Anastacia Giron Tupas
C. Eufemia Octaviano
D. Anesia Dionisio

67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be a member of a national nurse organization?

A. R.A 877
B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house of delegates and the PNA
C. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BON
D. RA 7164

68. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?

A. She documents it and charts it whenever necessary
B. She can be accused of malpractice
C. She does it regularly as an important responsibility
D. She charts it only when the patient is acutely ill

69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?

A. RA 7164
B. RA 9173
C. BON Res. Code Of Ethics
D. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice

70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the community renders service on maternal and child health among the neighborhood for a fee is:

A. Primary care nurse
B. Independent nurse practitioner
C. Nurse-Midwife
D. Nurse specialist

71. When was the PNA founded?

A. September 22, 1922
B. September 02, 1920
C. October 21, 1922
D. September 02, 1922

72. Who was the first president of the PNA ?

A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
B. Loreto Tupas
C. Rosario Montenegro
D. Ricarda Mendoza

73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to maintain internal environment.

A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Leddy and Pepper
D. Roy

74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being and becoming an integrated and whole person.

A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Roy

75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Buffer system
D. Various mechanisms

76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.

A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King

77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle, and Illness as interference in the life cycle.

A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King

78. She defined health as the soundness and wholness of developed human structure and bodily mental functioning.

A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Clark

79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system.

A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson

80. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization, interaction, interdependence and integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.

A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson

81. According to them, Well being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY

A. Leavell and Clark
B. Peterson and Zderad
C. Benner and Wruber
D. Leddy and Pepper

82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with well being and illness.

A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Clark

83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented towards maximizing one’s potential within the limitation of the environment.

A. Well being
B. Health
C. Low level Wellness
D. High level Wellness

84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?

A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental

85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?

A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental

86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?

A. Becker
B. Smith
C. Dunn
D. Leavell and Clark

87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive behavior?

A. Perceived susceptibility to an illness
B. Perceived seriousness of an illness
C. Perceived threat of an illness
D. Perceived curability of an illness

88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?

A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyle
B. Economic factors
C. Accessibility of health care facilities
D. Increase adherence to medical therapies

89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete development actualization.

A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model

90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of sign and symptoms equates health.

A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model

91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health belief model?

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the individual to seek help

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All of this are factors that affects health and illness except

A. Reservoir
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Host

96. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as they interact within the environment to pursue health

A. Ecologic Model
B. Health Belief Model
C. Health Promotion Model
D. Health Prevention Model

97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization.

A. Health prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health teaching
D. Self actualization

98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.

A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

ANSWERS and RATIONALE

Funda Test Drill 1 ( Answers and Rationale)

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sun, 05 Jul 2009 00:50:21 PDT

2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?

A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion

* If vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but decrease. It is true that Blood pressure increases during SNS Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to circulate during the FIGHT or FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased, but this is facilitated by vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all correct. The liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen store utilization due to a heightened demand for energy. Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of digestion that is controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS dominates.

3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

* Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory, standards, diagnosis and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective state of not feeling well based on subjective appraisal, previous experience, peer advice etc.

4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a person starts to believe something is wrong, that person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The patient will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some activities. Since the client only ASSUMES his illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is experiencing is a disease, This is now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional advice for validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of the symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his dependent patient role of receiving care from the health care providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where the patient gives up the sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.

5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs professionals for help. They have a choice either to accept or reject the professional's decisions but patients are usually passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.

6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role phase of illness.

7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

* At this stage, The patient seeks for validation of his symptom experience. He wants to find out if what he feels are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why is he feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the probable outcome of this experience.

8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except

A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help

* The nurse should not judge the patient and not view the patient as the cause or someone responsible for his illness. A sick client is excused from his societal roles, Oblige to get well as soon as possible and Obliged to seek competent help.

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks

10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen

A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology

* Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen considering that person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of resistance means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and repel infection or invasion of these disease causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone who has a very low degree of resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is someone that can easily repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person is IMMUNE [ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be impaired in cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc.

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology

* Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain disease. For example, In Tourette syndrome, patient will manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the patient as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means COLLECTION of these symptoms that occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia, echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE SYNDROME.

12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?

A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic

* Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted from treatment of a certain disease. For example, A child frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness and partial thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant diseases cause by proliferation of abnormally growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like Motor vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the hospital. Example is UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly caused by E.Coli.

13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as

1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative

A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5

* Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as IDIOPATHIC because the cause is UNKNOWN.

14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease

A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute

15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic

* A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by periods of remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases occurs too short to manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months that is why remissions and exacerbation are observable.

16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic

* As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.

17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

* Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.

18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

* Refer to number 17.

19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic

* Refer to number 16.

20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLE. Primary refers to preventions that aims in preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those that deals with early diagnostics, case finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc. Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body functioning. Examples are prosthetis fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose among diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc.

The confusing part is between the treatment in secondary and treatment in tertiary. To best differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA that is being treated with ferrous sulfate is considered being in the SECONDARY PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on PRE ILLNESS STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in cases of stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA therapy is done in order to prevent coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus formation and a another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.

21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* The nurse never increases the person's susceptibility to illness but rather, LESSEN the person's susceptibility to illness.

22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, The person feels signs and symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to prevent deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly check ups, Physical examinations, Diagnostics etc.

23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

* PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the workes in a hazardous environment to protect them from injuries and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.

24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television

* An actual board question, The best way to disseminate information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs other than publising posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging new way to disseminate is through the internet.

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers

* The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but the parts and subparts are Betty Neuman's. She stated that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined health as an EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just used that to help you remember her theory of health.

29. The following are concept of health:

1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4

* All of the following are correct statement about health. The first one is the definition by WHO, The second one is from Walter Cannon's homeostasis theory. Third one is from Claude Bernard's concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is Neuman's Theory.

30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is

A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers

* Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard defined health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as Wellness that is influenced by individual's culture.

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis

* Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE while Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN TECHNIQUE.

34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another

A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier

35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.

A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host

36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.

A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave

* Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while Antiseptics are intended for use on persons and other living things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under pressure gets in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including their spores.

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis

* Both A and B are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a form of Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of removing pathogens but not their spores.

38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

* In incubation period, The disease has been introduced to the body but no sign and symptom appear because the pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when the appearance of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms starts to appear. Illness period is characterized by the appearance of specific signs and symptoms or refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the PEAK of illness intensity while the convalescent period is characterized by the abatement of the disease process or it's gradual disappearance.

39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

* To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the specific signs of Fever, Koplik's Spot and Rashes must appear. In the situation above, Only general signs and symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to appear, therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal period. Signs and symptoms of measles during the prodromal phase are Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik's spot heralds the Illness period and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of this processes take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also known as 10 day measles.

40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

* Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days with an average of 48 hours. Since the question stated exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the incubation period.

41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases

A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission

* Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of infection. It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using the tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission based precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.

42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1

* Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The etiologic agent itself. It will first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef using a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way to understand the process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting to build her colony. Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT. She first need to build a COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and sustain the new colony. They need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE OF TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE HOST]. By imagining the Ant's life cycle, we can easily arrange the chain of infection.

43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via

A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

* Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is transmitted by a TICK BITE.

44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except

A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity

* To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a TARGET ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to these organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is NON SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to humans but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised individual, specially AIDS Patient, could be infected with these NON SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune system.

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses

* The hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause of cross contamination in hospital setting. That is why HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to prevent the occurence of cross contamination and nosocomial infection. D refers to Nosocomial infection and UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the hospital caused by urinary catheterization. E.Coli seems to be the major cause of this incident. B best fits Cross Contamination, It is the spread of microogranisms from patient o patient.

46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.

A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection

A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization

* Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our first line of defense against infection.

48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin

* Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person's susceptibility to illness. Medication like corticosteroids could supress a person's immune system that will lead to increase susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person's susceptibility to certain skin diseases. A dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person. Fair skinned person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.

49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an

A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

* TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with completed immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2. Tetanus toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because it did not occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it is Active because what has been passed is an actual toxin and not a ready made immunoglobulin.

50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides

A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

* In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would not help Agatha because it will take time before the immune system produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made anti toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of agatha did not produce it. It is passive because her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a ready made Immune globulin is given to immediately supress the invasion.

51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection

A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing

* When you see the word HANDWASHING as one of the options, 90% Chance it is the correct answer in the local board. Or should I say, 100% because I have yet to see question from 1988 to 2005 board questions that has option HANDWASHING on it but is not the correct answer.

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap

* The most important aspect of handwashing is FRICTION. The rest, will just enhance friction. The use of soap lowers the surface tension thereby increasing the effectiveness of friction. Water helps remove transient bacteria by working with soap to create the lather that reduces surface tension. Time is of essence but friction is the most essential aspect of handwashing.

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms

* Hands are held BELOW the elbow in medical asepsis in contrast with surgical asepsis, wherein, nurses are required to keep the hands above the waist. The rationale is because in medical asepsis, Hands are considered dirtier than the elbow and therefore, to limit contamination of the lower arm, The hands should always be below the elbow.

54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is

A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand

* Each hands requires atleast 15 to 30 seconds of handwashing to effectively remove transient microorganisms.

55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below

A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds

* According to Kozier, The minimum time required for watching each hands is 10 seconds and should not be lower than that. The recommended time, again, is 15 to 30 seconds.

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml

* If a liquid soap is to be used, 1 tsp [ 5ml ] of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure.

57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?

A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization

* Equipments with LARGE LUMEN are easier to clean than those with small lumen. B C and D are all correct.

58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying

A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius

* Boiling is the most common and least expensive method of sterilization used in home. For it to be effective, you should boil articles for atleast 15 minutes.

59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body

A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation

* Imagine foods and drugs that are being sterilized by a boiling water, ethylene oxide gas and autoclave or steam under pressure, They will be inactivated by these methods. Ethylene oxide gas used in gas sterlization is TOXIC to humans. Boiling the food will alter its consistency and nutrients. Autoclaving the food is never performed. Radiation using microwave oven or Ionizing radiation penetrates to foods and drugs thus, sterilizing them.

60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?

A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection

* Terminal disinfection refers to practices to remove pathogens that stayed in the belongings or immediate environemnt of an infected client who has been discharged. An example would be Killing airborne TB Bacilli using UV Light. Concurrent disinfection refers to ongoing efforts implented during the client's stay to remove or limit pathogens in his supplies, belongings, immediate environment in order to control the spread of the disease. An example is cleaning the bedside commode of a client with radium implant on her cervix with a bleach disinfectant after each voiding.

61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene

* NEVER shake the linens. Once soiled, fold it inwards clean surface out. Shaking the linen will further spread pathogens that has been harbored by the fabric.

62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?

A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable

* Only C is correct. Metals with locks, like clamps and scissors should be UNLOCKED in order to minimize stiffening caused by autoclave to the hinges of these metals. NOT ALL microorganism are destroyed by autoclaving. There are recently discovered microorganism that is invulnarable to extreme heat. Autoclaved instruments are to be used within 2 weeks. Only the same type of metals should be autoclaved as this will alteration in plating of these metals.

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter

* only D is correct. Mask should cover both nose and mouth. Masks will not function optimally when wet. Masks should be worn not greater than 4 hours, as it will lose effectiveness after 4 hours. N95 mask or particulate mask can filter organism as small as 1 micromillimeter.

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan

* Infectious waste like blood and blood products, wet diapers and dressings are thrown in yellow trashcans.

65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an

A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”

* Needles, scalpels and other sharps are to be disposed in a puncture proof container.

66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?

A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it

* A dislodged radioactive cervical implant in brachytherapy are to be picked by a LONG FORCEP and stored in a LEAD CONTAINER in order to prevent damage on the client's normal tissue. Calling the physician is the second most appropriate action among the choices. A nurse should never attempt to put it back nor, touch it with her bare hands.

67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?

A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable

* Leeches, in leech therapy or LEECH PHLEBOTOMY are to be disposed on a BIO HAZARD container. They are never re used as this could cause transfer of infection. These leeches are hospital grown and not the usual leeches found in swamps.

68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?

A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia

* Never recap needles. They are directly disposed in a puncture proof container after used. Recapping the needles could cause injury to the nurse and spread of infection. B C and D are all appropriate. Standard precaution is sufficient for an HIV patient. A client with neutropenia are not given fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables for even the non infective organisms found in these foods could cause severe infection on an immunocompromised patients.

69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?

A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour

* TB patients should have a private room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 to 12 air exhanges per hour. Negative pressure room will prevent air inside the room from escaping. Air exchanges are necessary since the client's room do not allow air to get out of the room.

70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

* Droplet precaution is sufficient on client's with RUBELLA or german measles.

71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

* Measles is highly communicable and more contagious than Rubella, It requires airborne precaution as it is spread by small particle droplets that remains suspended in air and disperesed by air movements.

72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

* Impetigo causes blisters or sores in the skin. It is generally caused by GABS or Staph Aureaus. It is spread by skin to skin contact or by scratching the lesions and touching another person's skin.

73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do

* The digestive tract is not sterile, and therefore, simple errors like this would not cause harm to the patient. NGT tube need not be sterile, and so is colostomy and rectal tubes. Clean technique is sufficient during NGT and colostomy care.

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it

* Human skin is impossible to be sterilized. It contains normal flora of microorganism. A B and D are all correct.

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.

* Sterile conscience, or the moral imperative of a nurse to be honest in practicing sterile technique, is the best method to enhance sterile technique. Autoclaved linens are considered sterile only within 2 weeks even if the bagging is intact. Surgical technique is a team effort of each nurse. If a scrubbed person leave the sterile field and area, he must do the process all over again.

76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience

* Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first and then, the dominant hand. The rationale is simply because humans tend to use the dominant hand first before the non dominant hand. Out of 10 humans that will put on their sterile gloves, 8 of them will put the gloves on their non dominant hands first.

77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?

A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field

* The nurse should put his goggles, cap and mask prior to washing the hands. If he wash his hands prior to putting all these equipments, he must wash his hands again as these equipments are said to be UNSTERILE.

78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?

A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on

* The nurse should only adjust fitting of the gloves when they are both on the hands. Not doing so will break the sterile technique. Only 4 gingers are slipped when picking up the second gloves. You cannot slip all of your fingers as the cuff is limited and the thumb would not be able to enter the cuff. The first glove is grasp by simply picking it up with the first 2 fingers and a thumb in a pinching motion. Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first.

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary

* Gloves are worn in the non dominant hand first, and is removed also from the non dominant hand first. Rationale is simply because in 10 people removing gloves, 8 of them will use the dominant hand first and remove the gloves of the non dominant hand.

80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below

1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown

A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5

* The nurse should use CaMEy Hand and Body Lotion in moisturizing his hand before surgical procedure and after handwashing. Ca stands for CAP, M stands for MASK, Ey stands for eye goggles. The nurse will do handwashing and then [HAND], Don the gloves first and wear the Gown [BODY]. I created this mnemonic and I advise you use it because you can never forget Camey hand and body lotion. [ Yes, I know it is spelled as CAMAY ]]

81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown

A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5

* When the nurse is about to remove his protective devices, The nurse will remove the GLOVES first followed by the MASK and GOWN then, other devices like cap, shoe cover, etc. This is to prevent contamination of hair, neck and face area.

82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?

A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches

* Even if you do not know the answer to this question, you can answer it correctly by imagining. If you pour the NSS into a receptacle 1 to 3 inch above it, Chances are, The mouth of the NSS bottle would dip into the receptacle as you fill it, making it contaminated. If you pour the NSS bottle into a receptacle 10 inches above it, that is too high, chances are, as you pour the NSS, most will spill out because the force will be too much for the buoyant force to handle. It will also be difficult to pour something precisely into a receptacle as the height increases between the receptacle and the bottle. 6 inches is the correct answer. It is not to low nor too high.

83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?

A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward

* A sterile forcep is usually dipped into a disinfectant or germicidal solution. Imagine, if the tip is HIGHER than the handle, the solution will go into the handle and into your hands and as you use the forcep, you will eventually lower its tip making the solution in your hand go BACK into the tip thus contaminating the sterile area of the forcep. To prevent this, the tip should always be lower than the handle. In situation questions like this, IMAGINATION is very important.

84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?

1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room

A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3

* All soiled equipments use in an infectious client are disposed INSIDE the client's room to prevent contamination outside the client's room. The nurse is correct in using Mask the covers both nose and mouth. Hands are washed before and after removing the gloves and before and after you enter the client's room. Gloves and contaminated suction tip are thrown in trashcan found in the clients room.

85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?

1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed

A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4

* Cap, mask and shoe cover are worn BEFORE scrubbing.

86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?

A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves

* Gloves are the dirtiest protective item nurses are wearing and therefore, the first to be removed to prevent spread of microorganism as you remove the mask and gown.

87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium

* All stressors evoke common adaptive response. A psychologic fear like nightmare and a real fear or real perceive threat evokes common manifestation like tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating, increase muscle tension etc. ALL diseases and illness causes stress. Stress can be both REAL or IMAGINARY. Hemostasis refers to the ARREST of blood flowing abnormally through a damage vessel. Homeostasis is the one that refers to dynamic state of equilibrium according to Walter Cannon.

88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.

A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers

* Hans Selye is the only theorist who proposed an intriguing theory about stress that has been widely used and accepted by professionals today. He conceptualized two types of human response to stress, The GAS or general adaptation syndrome which is characterized by stages of ALARM, RESISTANCE and EXHAUSTION. The Local adaptation syndrome controls stress through a particular body part. Example is when you have been wounded in your finger, it will produce PAIN to let you know that you should protect that particular damaged area, it will also produce inflammation to limit and control the spread of injury and facilitate healing process. Another example is when you are frequently lifting heavy objects, eventually, you arm, back and leg muscles hypertorphies to adapt to the stress of heavy lifting.

89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress

* Man, do not always adapt to stress. Sometimes, stress can lead to exhaustion and eventually, death. A,C and D are all correct.

90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress

* Stress is ESSENTIAL. No man can live normally without stress. It is essential because it is evoked by the body's normal pattern of response and leads to a favorable adaptive mechanism that are utilized in the future when more stressors are encountered by the body. Man can encounter stress even while asleep, example is nightmare. Disease are multifactorial, No diseases are caused by a single stressors. Stress are sometimes favorable and are not always a cause for distress. An example of favorable stress is when a carpenter meets the demand and stress of everyday work. He then develops calluses on the hand to lessen the pressure of the hammer against the tissues of his hand. He also develop larger muscle and more dense bones in the arm, thus, a stress will lead to adaptations to decrease that particular stress.

91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?

A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue

* Death can ensue as early as the stage of alarm. Exhaustion results to a prolonged exposure to stress. Resistance is when the levels of resistance increases and characterized by being able to adapt.

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

* Adaptation mechanisms begin in the stage of alarm. This is when the adaptive mechanism are mobilized. When someone shouts SUNOG!!! your heart will begin to beat faster, you vessels constricted and bp increased.

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

* Resistance are decreased in the stage of alarm. Resistance is absent in the stage of exhaustion. Resistance is increased in the stage of resistance.

95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person

* Aside from having limits that leads to exhaustion. Adaptive response requires time for it to act. It requires energy, physical and psychological taxes that needs time for our body to mobilize and utilize.

98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

* Sociocultural adaptive modes include language, communication, dressing, acting and socializing in line with the social and cultural standard of the people around the adapting individual.

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

* Andy uses a defense mechanism called DISPLACEMENT. All DMs are categorized as PSYCHOLOGIC ADAPTIVE RESPONSE to stressors.

Funda drill Test 1

nurseharbee@gmail.com (NurseHarbee) — Sun, 05 Jul 2009 00:49:46 PDT

1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?

A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase

2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?

A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion

3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except

A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks

10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen

A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology

12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?

A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic

13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as

1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative

A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5

14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease

A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute

15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic

16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic

17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic

20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers

29. The following are concept of health:

1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4

30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is

A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis

34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another

A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier

35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.

A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host

36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.

A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis

38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases

A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission

42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1

43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via

A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except

A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses

46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.

A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection

A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization

48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin

49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an

A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides

A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection

A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms

54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is

A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand

55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below

A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml

57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?

A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization

58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying

A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius

59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body

A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation

60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?

A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection

61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene

62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?

A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan

65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an

A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”

66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?

A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it

67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?

A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable

68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?

A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia

69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?

A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour

70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.

76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience

77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?

A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field

78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?

A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary

80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below

1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown

A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5

81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown

A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5

82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?

A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches

83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?

A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward

84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?

1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room

A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3

85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?

1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed

A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4

86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?

A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves

87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium

88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.

A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers

89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress

90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress

91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?

A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person

98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

Answers and Rationale

DavaoNurses

June 2009 NLE Result

Performance of Davao City Nursing Schools in June 2009 NLE

UK Student Visa Assistance with Study Connect International Services, Inc

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HILDEGARD PEPLAU's THEORY

IMOGENE KING's GOAL ATTAINMENT THEORY

INTRODUCTION TO NURSING THEORIES

JEAN WATSON's THEORY

MARTH ROGER's SCIENCE OF UNITARY HUMAN BEING

MYRA LEVINE's CONSERVATION THEORY

Madeleine M. Leininger's Transcultural Nursing Theory

Ida Jean Orlando's Dynamic Nurse-Patient Relationship

Betty Neuman's Systems Model Theory

Betty Neuman's Systems Model

Flexible Lines of Defense

Is the outer boundary to the normal line of defense, the line of resistance, and the core structure.

Keeps the system free from stressors and is dependent on the amount of sleep, nutritional status, as well as the quality and quantity of stress an individual experiences.

If the flexible line of defense fails to provide adequate protection to the normal line of defense, the lines of resistance become activated.

VIRGINIA HENDERSON's THEORY

DOROTHEA OREM's SELF CARE DEFICIT THEORY

FAYE GLENN ABDELLAH's THEORY

Nursing Opportunity in Australia

Requiremenr for Nurse Volunteer Program @ Ospital ng Maynila

Attention: PHILIPPINE AIRFORCE HIRED NURSES

CHN Test Drill (Answers and Rationale)

CHN Test Drill

Funda Test Drill II ( Answers and Rationale)

Funda drill Test II

Funda Test Drill 1 ( Answers and Rationale)

Funda drill Test 1