CCNA 4 - Exploration. (Network Engineering I, II & III)

Australian Open Final - Men (Live)

2012-01-29T23:36:00.000+11:00

LIVE AUSTRALIAN OPEN MEN's FINAL...

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Saving and Using an Excel 2010 Macro-Enabled Workbook - For Dummies

2012-01-16T11:25:00.000+11:00

Saving and Using an Excel 2010 Macro-Enabled Workbook - For Dummies

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FIFA WORLD CUP 2010

2010-06-12T02:57:00.000+10:00

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1st Annual Pakistan Blog Awards

2010-05-31T06:27:00.005+10:00

1st Annual Pakistan Blog Awards & New Media UnConference 2010

May 28th, 1998 was the day of proud PAKISTANI. This day is commonly known as Yum – e – Takbeer, when Pakistan successfully tested its nuclear technology. Friday the 28th May, 2010 CIO Pakistan and Google gave me and more bloggers like me a great chance for being social and get together with talented bloggers of Pakistan. They hosted a dominant and successful event “1st Annual Pakistan Blog Awards and New Media UnConference 2010” and gave more than 250 bloggers and corporate to come out of virtual world and socialize oneself. The event presenter was none other than our favourite MADAM RABIA GARIB one of the most talented and charming personality. The experience was nice and ended in a splendid manner including the prizes won by the best bloggers in more than 40 categories.

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Assignment Sample

2010-05-23T13:56:00.000+10:00

Hi dear fellows, here you can download the assignment draft and the packet tracer file for you to have an idea how to deal with these type of questions and assignments. It will also help you in your skill test.

Wish you best of Luck!

Cheers.

Assessment File

Packet Tracer File

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2010-05-19T06:43:00.001+10:00

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CCNA 3 Exploration - Chapter 3

2010-04-10T00:42:00.014+10:00

E-Switching Chapter 3 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

Provided by : Malcolm

1. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?

DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.

The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.

The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.

A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

There is a native VLAN mismatch.

The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.

The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.

VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

3. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?

Disable DTP.

Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.

Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.

Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

4. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?

Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.

Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.

Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.

Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

5. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?

The ports cannot communicate with other ports.

The ports default back to the management VLAN.

The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.

The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

6. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)

VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.

VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.

VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.

VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.

VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?

A, B

A, B, D, G

A, D, F

C, E

C, E, F

8. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. W cause of this problem?

Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.

The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.

By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.

A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?

VLAN 1 can never be deleted.

VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?

The default native VLAN is being used.

The trunking mode is set to auto.

Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.

VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

11.
Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?

Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.

Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.

Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is config no negotiate mode.

Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration configuration on the neighboring interface.

12.
Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?

none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame

computer A, computer B, computer C

computer A, computer D, computer G

computer B, computer C

computer D, computer G

computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

13.
Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The link between the switches is up but not trunked.

VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.

The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.

Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)

The VLANs may be named.

VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.

Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.

The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.

Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

15.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)

The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.

The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.

A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.

The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.

Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

16. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)

VLAN1 should renamed.

VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.

All switch ports are members of VLAN1.

Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.

Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

17. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.

Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

18.
Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?

The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.

The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.

PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.

A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

19. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?

802.1q is Cisco proprietary.

802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.

802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.

802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

20. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?

Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.

A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.

Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.

Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

21. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?

dynamic desirable mode

on or dynamic desirable mode

on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode

on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

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CCNA 3 Exploration - Chapter 2

2010-04-09T23:16:00.014+10:00

E-Switching Chapter 2 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

Provided by : Malcolm

1. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?

user EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode

global configuration mode

interface configuration mode

2. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is "cisco." What can be determined from the output shown?

The enable password is encrypted by default.

An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.

Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.

This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

3. Which statement is true about the command banner login "Authorized personnel Only" issued on a switch?

The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.

The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.

The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: "banner motd" ” to be displayed.

The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

4. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with "% Incomplete command". The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?

append ? to the last parameter

append a space and then ? to the last parameter

use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list

use the Tab key to show which options are available

5. Where is the startup configuration stored?

DRAM

NVRAM

ROM

startup-config.text

6. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

No collisions will occur on this link.

Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.

The switch will have priority for transmitting data.

The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator’s attempts to connect to Switch1 via Secure Shell are failing. What is most likely the problem?

incorrect vty lines configured

incorrect default gateway address

incompatible Secure Shell version

vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

8. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)

Enable CDP on the switch.

Change passwords regularly.

Turn off unnecessary services.

Enable the HTTP server on the switch.

Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

9. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?

Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.

Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.

Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.

Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

10. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?

The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.

The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.

The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.

The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

11. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

The SSH client on the switch is enabled.

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.

The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?

workstation C

workstations B and C

workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router

workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

13. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.

Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.

The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.

After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.

If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

14. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.

Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.

Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.

Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.

Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?

SW1 drops the frame.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.

SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on

16. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.

The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.

The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

17. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)

The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.

The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.

The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.

The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password.

Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

18. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?

hosts A and B

hosts B and C

hosts D and E

hosts A, B, and C

hosts B, C, D, and E

hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

20. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?

Switch1(config-line)# line console 0

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login

to secure the console port with the password "cisco"

to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available

to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password

to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access

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Forgot Windows XP Password

2009-05-01T09:27:00.003+10:00

Windows Password

Hi all! I know this post is not relevant to CCNA but this is a common problem that came across so many times. Yes it is the forgot windows password problem. I have seen on many websites people are asking for it but most of the websites ....

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CCNA 3 Exploration - Chapter 1

2009-02-11T11:08:00.006+11:00

E-Switching Chapter 1 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

Provided by : Malcolm

1 Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?

Core only

Distribution and core

Access and distribution

Access, distribution, and core

2 Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)

Power over Ethernet

Load balancing across redundant trunk links

Redundant components

Quality of Service

Link aggregation

3 Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?

Application

Access

Distribution

Network

Core

4 Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?

Application

Access

Distribution

Network

Core

5 A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches.Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?

StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.

StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.

StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.

StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

6 Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?

Layer 1

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 5

7 Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

Security policies

Power over Ethernet

Switch port security

Quality of service

Layer 3 functionality

End user access to network

Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?

Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.

Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.

Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.

Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

9 A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)

Forwarding rate

Traffic flow analysis

Expected future growth

Number of required core connections

Number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

10 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is referred to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork? Where high availability and redundancy are critical?

Access layer

Core layer

Data-link layer

Distribution layer

Network layer

Physical layer

11 What statement best describes a modular switch?

A slim-line chassis

Allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane

Defined physical characteristics

Flexible characteristics

12 Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?

PoE

Redundancy

Aggregation

Access lists

13 Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)

Low port density

High forwarding rate

High latency level

Support link aggregation

Predefined number of ports

14 Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?

Convergence

Redundant links

Link aggregation

Network diameter

15 At which hierarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?

Core layer

Distribution layer

Access layer

Entry layer

16 For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?

Power over Ethernet

Quality of service

Switch port security

Inter-VLAN routing

17 Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

18 What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?

Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.

The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.

A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.

QoS issues are greatly reduced.

There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.

19 A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)

Port security

Security policies

10 Gigabit Ethernet

Quality of service (QoS)

Hot-swappable hardware

Power over Ethernet (PoE)

Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?

Scalability

Security

Redundancy

Maintainability

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SEASONS GREETINGS

2008-12-18T21:13:00.003+11:00

CCNA 2 - Exploration

Hi guys, thanks for visitng my blog, i have already uploaded the final exam of CCNA 2 version 4, soon you guys will see final exam "PAPER 2". I am going to upload the paper 2 as soon as i will get time.

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<--!>

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CCNA 2 Exploration - Final Exam (I)

2008-12-12T22:35:00.002+11:00

CCNA 2 - FINAL EXAM (i)

Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three)

>>> The router modiﬁes the TTL ﬁeld, decrementing it by one
>>> The router maintains the same source and destination IP
>>> The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface

Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two)

>>> Packet switching
>>> Path selection

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing conﬁguration?

>>> Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups

Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2 Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10141?

>>> 0000/0 via 19216801

Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two)

>>> 10000/8
>>> 19216820/24

Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 1721600 network Assuming Router2 is conﬁgured correctly, which two static routes could be conﬁgured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 1721600? (Choose two)

>>> ip route 1721600 25525500 S0/0
>>> ip route 1721600 25525500 19216802

What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)

>>> Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland
>>> Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery

Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traﬃc from the 1721610/24 network take to get to the 10000/24 network?

>>> It will load balance the traﬃc between ADC and ABC

Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two)

>>> They are aware of the complete network topology
>>> They oﬀer rapid convergence times in large networks

Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?

>>> It is the metric, which is cost

A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 1921681680?

>>> S 1921681680/24 [1/0] via 1921682001

When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?

>>> The router ﬁrst selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table

What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?

>>> It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates

Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three)

>>> Prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
>>> A low routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
>>> Permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol If network 10000 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?

>>> Split horizon

Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol Network 10000 goes down Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?

>>> Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10000

What is the purpose of the TTL ﬁeld within an IP packet header?

>>> Limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

>>> B(conﬁg)# router rip
>>> B(conﬁg>>>router)# passive>>>interface S0/0

Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?

>>> Routers compare metrics to determine the best route

Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three)

>>> The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route
>>> The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120
>>> The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes a ached to router R1?

>>> 19818480/21

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traﬃc It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?

>>> The subnetwork conﬁgured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3

Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?

>>> 2

The Suﬀolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed However, when the workstation on network 1722950/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.19.85 it is discarded by the Suﬀolk router. What can be a reason for this result?

>>> The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suﬀolk router

Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three)

>>> As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table
>>> If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology
>>> The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor

Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to conﬁgure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three)

>>> Paris(conﬁg)# router eigrp 100
>>> Paris(conﬁg>>>router)# network 19216870
>>> Paris(conﬁg>>>router)# network 19216880

Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two)

>>> Neighbors 192168109 and 192168105 have auto summary disabled

>>> Router 3 is load balancing traﬃc to the 1721630 network across its serial Interfaces

Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 1921681031 with a default gateway of 1921681017 The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

>>> 1921681031 is the broadcast address for this subnet

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three)

>>> The AD of EIGRP routes has been manual y changed to a value other than the default value
>>> Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process
>>> No default route has been conﬁgured

Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three)

>>> DCE
>>> CSU/DSU
>>> Modem

Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from ﬂash?

>>> Locate and load the startup-conﬁg ﬁle from NVRAM

Refer to the exhibit. What are the eﬀects of the exhibited commands on the router?

>>> Only the enable password is encrypted

When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?

>>> B, D

Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:

>>> R1(conﬁg)# ip route 10110 2552552550 19216802
>>> R2(conﬁg)# ip route 10120 2552552550 19216801

When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10110 network Al R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?

>>> Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces

Which two router component and operation pairs are correctly described? (Choose two)

>>> NVRAM - stores the conﬁguration ﬁle
>>> POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

What are three features of CDP? (Choose three)

>>> Tests Layer 2 connectivity
>>> Enabled by default on each interface
>>> Provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network a ached to R3 R1 learned Path A to network 10200/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10200/16 from EIGRP Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

>>> The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10200/16

What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 1721600/19 in area 0?

>>> R1(conﬁg>>>router)# network 1721600 0031255 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?

>>> DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 19216810

What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?

>>> Used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

Refer to the exhibit Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10000/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?

>>> The JAX router needs the network 19216830 000255 area 0 command

What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two)

>>> The routers must agree on the network type
>>> The routers must use the same dead interval

Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three)

>>> OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links
>>> EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing
>>> RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15

A network administrator has conﬁgured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command wil save the administrator the time and trouble of conﬁguring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?

>>> Router_A(conﬁg>>>router)# default>>>informa on originate

Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process conﬁguration? (Choose three)

>>> Network address
>>> Wildcard mask
>>> Area ID

Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three)

>>> OSPF interval timers mismatch
>>> Interface network type mismatch
>>> Inconsistent authentication conﬁguration

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 1721610/16 network to the 1921682000/24 network?

>>> The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces

What is the ﬁrst step OSPF and IS>>>IS routers take in building a shortest path ﬁrst database?

>>> Learn about directly connected networks

Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?

>>> Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 19216801/30

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1 What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192168026?

>>> The packet will be dropped

The network administrator conﬁgures the router with the ip route 1721610 2552552550 1721622 command How will this route appear in the routing table?

>>> S 1721610 [1/0] via 1721622

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two)

>>> Router2 is missing a route to the 1721600 network
>>> Router3 is missing a route to the 10000 network

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces conﬁgured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traﬃc between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?

>>> EIGRP traﬃc will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric

Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are conﬁgured with an IP address and are operational If no routing protocols or static routes are conﬁgured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

>>> Routes to networks 19216810/24, 19216820/24, and 19216830/24 will be in the routing table

Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

>>> 1721600/13

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CCNA 2 -Exploration Final Exam News

2008-12-06T23:30:00.002+11:00

Dear readers,

Just hold your breath for couple of hours because CCNA 2 Exploration Final Exam Answers are going to upload here soon. Stick around this blog and click on adsense. Just a drive away, do not take it as a joke.

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 11

2008-12-06T23:20:00.002+11:00

Chapter 11 - Module Answers

Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?

An external OSPF route that will not increment in cost

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

1786

What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

Area id
Hello interval
Network type

What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

Designated router
Backup designated router

What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

Bandwidth

A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?

R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statements?

The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

110

Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

1787

What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?

Nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

A FULL adjacency is formed.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.204

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?

Hello packets

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 10

2008-12-06T22:51:00.002+11:00

Chapter 10 - Module Answers

Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?

It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)

Whenever the network topology changes

Upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

What is the final step in the link state routing process?

SPF computes best path to each destination network

What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)

Each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

All routers in the area have identical link state databases

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

Cost of the link

What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

Splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)

Build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

Flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

Construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

Updates triggered by network changes

Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.

After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate

Changes in a topology.

Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

Dijkstra

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?

BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

Link-state database

Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)

IS-IS

OSPF

When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

When a link goes up or down

Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

Sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?

OSPF

What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

Floods the LSP to neighbors

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?

B and C

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 9

2008-10-02T10:41:00.001+10:00

Chapter 9 - Module Answers

Hi all!

I have uploaded the chapter 9 answers in downloaded version because it contains lots of pictures. Don't worry you can download the file in PDF, HTML or DOc format.

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 8

2008-10-02T10:19:00.002+10:00

Chapter 8 - Module Answers

Hi all!

I have uploaded the chapter 8 answers in downloaded version because it contains lots of pictures. Don't worry you can download the file in PDF, HTML or DOc format.

click on the link to download the file : CCNA 2 Exploration - Chapter 8 Answers

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 7

2008-09-06T03:25:00.003+10:00

Chapter 7 - Module Answers

1. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8

172.16.0.0/12

192.168.0.0/16

2. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?

VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?

Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?

The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)

RIP version 2 supports VLSM.

RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

6. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:

router rip

network 10.0.0.0

network 172.16.0.0

When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?

RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?

propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:

Sanford(config)# interface loopback1

Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252

The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?

15 hops

10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)

identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates

determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?

A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

12. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?

Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?

Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)

They both use hop count as a metric.

They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.

They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?

Configure RIPv2 on routers.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?

Subnet mask

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?

Router2(config-router)# version 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20

Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?

The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?

Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 6

2008-09-06T02:57:00.003+10:00

Chapter 6 - Module Answers

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)

reduced routing table size

reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?

192.168.4.15/29

3. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

32-bit address

Subnet mask

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?

255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)

OSPF

RIP v2

EIGRP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?

the shortage of IP addresses

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:

1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful

2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful

3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful

4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful

5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.

What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?

The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)

255.255.255.224 for Sales

255.255.255.240 for QA

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?

192.168.0.0/21

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?

/27

13. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?

192.168.2.130/25

14. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?

16. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?

192.1.1.224/28

17. What is a supernet?

a summarization of classful addresses

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?

The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?

192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?

CIDR

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 5

2008-07-21T22:16:00.002+10:00

Chapter 5 - Module Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

--> Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0

2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?

--> 3

3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?

--> RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?

--> 155 seconds

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?

--> ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)

--> uses hop count as a metric

--> considers a metric of 16 as infinity

--> calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?

RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?

--> 30

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?

--> The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?

--> routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?

--> All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).

--> It is a distance vector routing protocol.

--> The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?

--> RouterB(config)# no router rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).

--> R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]

--> R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

--> debug ip rip

16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?

--> There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?

--> 10.0.0.0/8

18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?

--> RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?

--> All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?

--> only the gateway router

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