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Sample test law objective Questions UP Law tests Like civil judge Public Prosecuter

2015-05-14T04:15:00.002-07:00

Sample test law objective Questions UP Law tests Like civil judge Public Prosecuter
Sample Solved Questions for Civil Judge
1. ‘A’ in good faith accuses ‘Z’ before a Magistrate—
(A) ‘A’ has committed no offence
(B) ‘A’ has committed the offence of defamation
(C) ‘A’ has committed the offence of defamation but he can tale defence u/s 93 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
2. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under which section of I.P.C.?
(A) Section 228
(B) Section 228 A
(C) Section 376 A
(D) Section 376 B
Ans:-B
3. Which one of the following is an illustration of criminal attempt?
(A) ‘A’ tries to kill ‘B’ by witch-craft
(B) ‘A’ goes to Mumbai to buy dye to make counterfeit currency notes
(C) ‘A’ intending to kill ‘B’ fires at ‘B’s coat hanging in his room treating it ‘B’
(D) ‘A’ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
Ans:-C
4. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each one of them is liable—
(A) For an attempt to commit the act
(B) For the abetment of the act
(C) Only for the part each one has done
(D) As if it was done by each one of them in singular capacity
Ans:-D
5. “Death sentence should be awarded in rarest of rare cases” was held in—
(A) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab
(B) Ramesh war Vs. State of U.P.
(C) T. V. Vatheeswaran vs. State of Tamil Nadu
(D) State of U. P. vs. M. K. Anthony
Ans:-A
6. “Right to live with human dignity does not include right to terminate natural life”, as held in—
(A) P. Rathinam vs. Union of India
(B) Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab
(C) Rajendra Prasad vs. State of U.P.
(D) Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab
Ans:-B
7. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute the offence of—
(A) Unlawful assembly
(B) Assault
(C) Affray
(D) Rioting
Ans:-D
8. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed—
(A) When the offender is acting in anger
(B) When the offender is acting under the spell of madness
(C) With the consent of the victim, who has completed 18 years of age?
(D) With the consent of the victim who has completed 12 years of age
Ans:-C
9. An employer deducts a certain percentage from the salary of his employees telling that it is their contribution to the provident fund but fails to credit it in the fund. Employer commits—
(A) Criminal misappropriation
(B) Criminal breach of trust
(C) Theft
(D) Cheating
Ans:-B
10. Under Section 498-A of I.P.C. cruelty includes—
(A) Physical cruelty only
(B) Mental cruelty only
(C) Harassment of the woman
(D) Cruelty by wife
Ans:-C
11. ‘A’ was on his journey by car from Delhi to Agra. ‘B’ met him in the way and requested for a lift up to Mathura, an intermediate town. ‘A’ acceded to his request, but on reaching Mathura, did not drop ‘B’ there in spite of his repeated requests. ‘B’ was carried over to Agra against his wishes.
(A) ‘A’ is not guilty of any offence
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of offence of abduction
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of offence of wrongful confinement
(D) ‘A’ is guilty of using criminal force
Ans:-C
12.‘A’ a school teacher for the purposes of enforcing discipline inflicts moderate punishment upon a pupil aged about 11 years. In this case—
(A) ‘A’ is entitled to claim defence under section 89 of I.P.C.
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of causing simple hurt
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of using criminal force
(D) ‘A’ is entitled to claim defence under section 88 of I.P.C.
Ans:-A
13. A’s illegal marriage with B was performed by a priest P’ knowing that the marriage was illegal; because ‘A’ was already married. A’s father ‘C’ and two other persons ‘D’ and ‘N’ were present at the time of mavtiage. In this case—
(A) ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘N’ liable for abetment
(B) Only A’s father ‘C’ is liable for abetment
(C) ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘N’ and the priest ‘P’ all are guilty of abetment
(D) Only the priest ‘P’ is liable for abetting the offence of bigamy
Ans:-D
14. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?
I. K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra —Grave and sudden provocation
2. State of Himachal Pradesh Vs. Asha Ram — Rape
3. Karan Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh— Right of Private Defence
4. Harjt Singh Vs. State of Punjab—Dowry death
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Codes:
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(A) l, 2 and 3
(C) l, 3 and 4
(D) l, 2 and 4
Ans:-D
15. The punishment for general form of Public Nuisance is provided in—
(A) Section 268 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 269 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 290 of I.P.C.
(D) Section 291 of I.P.C.
Ans:-C
16. On account of an agitation the lawyers ceased to participate in court proceedings and resorted to ‘Satyagrah’. An editorial in a newspaper criticised as to whether it behoves to the lawyers as a class to resort to strike. The lawyers were interalia described as ‘Kajia dalal’ i.e. dispute broker, in the editorial—
(A) Editor of the newspaper is guilty of offence of defamation
(B) Editor of the newspaper is not guilty of offence of defamation
(C) Not only editor, but Chairman of Board of Directors and its General Manager are also guilty of defamation
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
17. According to Mc naughten’s Rule, legal insanity is quite different from medical insanity. It relates to the—
(A) Total loss of conative faculties
(B) Total loss of cognitive faculties
(C) Congenital insanity
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
18. For the defence of mistake of fact under the Indian Penal Code—
(A) Actual mistake is sufficient
(B) The act must be reasonable
(C) The act must be reasonable as committed in good faith
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans:-C
19. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has observed that there is no right of private defence against the right of private defence?
(A)State of Punjab Vs. Sohan Singh
(B)Surjeet Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(C)State of U. P. Vs. Ram Swaroop
(D)M. R. Singh Vs. State of Gujarat
Ans:-C
20. The mens rea required under Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code is—
(A) Intention or knowledge
(B) Intention or negligence
(C) Intention or recklessness
(D) Negligence or malice
Ans:-A
21 When two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal, by illegal means, such an agreement is—
(A) Designated as a criminal conspiracy
(B) Designated as a criminal abetment
(C) Both, criminal conspiracy and abetment
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
22. ‘A’ incites his dog to spring upon ‘B’ without ‘B’s consent. ‘A’ is guilty of—
(A) Assault
(B) Criminal intimidation
(C) Criminal force
(D) Grievous hurt
Ans:-C
23. Under Section 308 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an accomplice, who does not comply with the conditions of pardon, may be prosecuted and tri separately for the offence of giving false evidence, but with the sanction of the—
(A)Sessions Court
(B)High Court
(C)State Government
(D)Chief Justice of High Court
Ans:-B
24. Under Section 77 of Cr. P.C. a warrant of arrest may be executed—
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant
(B) Within the session division
(C) At any place within the Stat
(D) At any place in India
Ans:-D
25. Under which provision of Cr. P.C. on receipt of First Information Report for the commission of an offence, the officer-in-charge of the police station will send the copy to the concerned Magistrate?
(A) Under Section 154 Cr. P.C.
(B) Under Section 159 Cr. P.C.
(C) Under Section 156 Cr. P.C.
(D) Under Section 157 Cr. P.C.
Ans:-D
26. Non-cognizable offence means an offence wherein—
(A) A police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(B) A police officer can arrest at his discretion
(C) A police officer has authority to arrest without warrant
(D) On request of complainant, arrest can be made
Ans:-A
27. Whether any criminal court can impound any document produced before it?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only civil court can impound
(D) With the consent of the senior officer it can be impounded
Ans:-A
28. Can a Magistrate order the search of any place in his presence, for the search of which he is empowered to issue a search warrant?
(A) Yes, under Section 103 Cr. P.C.
(B) Yes, under Section 104 Cr. P.C.
(C) No
(D) Yes, under Section 105 Cr. P.C.
Ans:-A
29. Summon’s case means—
(A) A case which is not a warrant case
(B) A case in which security is not required
(C) A case through which offence of theft is tried
(D) A case in which only summons can be served during trial
Ans:-A
30. Which one of the following cases is related to defective investigation?
(A) D. K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal
(B) Zahira Habibullah Sheikh Vs. State of Gujarat
(C) Sakshi Vs. Union of India
(D) Dipesh Chandak Vs. Union of India
Ans:-B
31. Which of the following statements is not correct, with reference to Section 125 of the code of criminal procedure?
(A) Section 125 cannot be used against a person who does not possess sufficient economic means
(B) The obligation t maintain a married daughter whose husband is unemployed, is of the father of such daughter
(C) A married daughter also has an obligation to maintain her parents who are unable to maintain themselves
(D) A woman who has taken divorce from her husband and has not remarried may claim maintenance from her exhusband
Ans:-B
32. When a case is instituted under Section 199(2) of Cr. P.C., the procedure of trial
adopted in such a case is—
(A) Session trial
(B) Trial of warrant case instituted on police report
(C) Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise than a police report
(D) Summons trial
Ans:-A
33. The offence committed under which section of I.P.C. is not compoundable under section 320 of Cr. P.C.?
(A) Section 352
(B) Section 353
(C) Section 354
(D) Section 355
Ans:-B
34. “The object of proceedings under Section 145 Cr. P.C. is to ward-off danger of breach of peace and not to determine t title.” It was observed in the case o—
(A) Union of India V s. Ajee-bunissan Khatoon
(B) Nandi Ram Vs. Chandi Ram
(C) Roshan Lal Vs. State
(D) Ramadhin Vs. Shyama Devi
Ans:-A
35. In which case, the presence of accused may be dispensed with at the time of delivering the judgement?
(A) When the personal attendance of the accused has already been dispensed with
(B) When the judgement is that of acquittal
(C) In both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
36. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has the power to try a summons case as a warrant case, wherein the offence to be tried there under is punishable with the imprisonment—
(A) Exceeding 6 months
(B) Exceeding 4 months
(C) Exceeding 1 year
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
37. In every criminal trial, when the Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused.
(A) Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence can be passed
(B) Wrong, it is not required in summons case
(C) It is required only before sending the conviction warrant
(D) Not required at all in any case
Ans:-A
38. The procedure for trial before a court of sessions is provided in the following sections of Cr. P.C.—
(A) 260 to 265
(B) 238to250
(C) 251 to 259
(D) 225 to 237
Ans:-D
39. Which of the following statements is not correct under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(A) Where a private person or an authorised person has a right to arrest a person and hand him over to the custody of police; such private person can also make search of such arrested person
(B) Enquiry and trial, both are included in ‘judicial proceedings’
(C) Complaint may be made by any person and it is not necessary that the injured or the affected only should complain
(D) Charges are framed only in warrant cases; there is no need to frame charge sheet in petty summons cases
Ans:-A
40. Under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate—
(A) Has the power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings
(B) Has no power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings
(C) Has power to grant interim maintenance but no power to grant expenses of the proceedings
(D) Has no power to grant interim maintenance but has the power to grant expenses of the proceedings
Ans:-A
41. Where any judge or Magistrate is personally interested in a case, he shall neither try nor commit for trial such case, nor shall hear any appeal in such case, provided—
(A) Prior permission of High Court has been procured
(B) Prior permission of the Chief Justice of High Court has been procured
(C) Prior permission of its appellate court has been obtained
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
42. In which of the following cases, it was held that provisions of chapter VIII of Cr. P.C. being in public interest are not violative of Article 19 of the Constitution of India—
(A) Ram Charan Vs. State
(B) Shiv Narain Vs. Ban Mali
(C) Madhu Limaye Vs. S.D.M., Monghyr
(D) Ram Prasad Vs. Emperor
Ans:-C
43. By Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005, in Section 459 of Cr. P.C. the words ‘less than ten Rupees’ have been substituted by the words—
(A) Less than five hundred Rupees
(B) Less than fifty Rupees
(C) Less than one hundred Rupees
(D) Less than two hundred and fifty Rupees
Ans:-A
44. When there is dispute between two courts relating to exercise of jurisdiction in a criminal matter and said courts are under subordination of different High Courts, the matter shall be decided under Section 186 of Cr. P.C. by the—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court of the larger State
(C) High Court having more judges
(D) High Court within whose area the proceedings first commenced
Ans:-D
45. Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per Section 468 of Cr. P.C. is—
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years
Ans:-D
46. The power of Magistrate to detain a person for the purposes of police investigation is for a maximum period of—
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years
Ans:-C
47. On refusal by any witness to answer a question or to produce a document upon being asked for, he may be sentenced to imprisonment for a period of—
(A) 30 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 14 days
(D) One month
Ans:-B
48. According to which section of the Police Act, 1861, a police officer may be deployed in any part of the District?
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
Ans:-C
49. Under Paragraph 169 of U. P. Police Regulations, it is the duty of the Public
Prosecutor to bring to the notice of the Magistrate concerned all cases in which
unclaimed property has been lying in Malkhana for more than—
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 3 months
(D) 2 years
Ans:-A
50. Paragraph 140 of U. P. Police Regulations requires that when a police officer sends a person for examination by a medical officer—
(A) He should clearly explain the object of such examination
(B) He should fix the time within which the medical examination must be completed
(C) He should send an escort along with the person to be medically examined
(D) He should take all care so that the person may not abscond
Ans:-A

Sample Paper containing questions on Surveying for geology and Civil Engineering exams

2015-05-04T07:30:00.001-07:00

Sample Paper containing questions on Surveying for geology and Civil Engineering exams
Free 25 Objective questions on surveying
1: The curvation of the earth is considered in:
(a) Plane surveying
(b) Geodetic surveying
(c) Cadastral surveying
(d) Hydrographic surveying
Answer. (b)

2: Surveys which depict the natural ‘features of a country are known as:
(a) Cadastral surveys
(b) Engineering surveys
(c) Topographic surveys
(d) Geological surveys.
Answer. (c)

3: A 30 m chain is divided into:
(a) 100 links
(b) 150 links
(c) 200 links
(d) 250 links.
Answer. (b)

4: The length of Gunter’s chain is:
(a) 100 ft
(b) 75 ft
(c) 66 ft
(d) 55 ft
Answer. (c)

5: “One link” Ina chain means the distance from:
(a) Centre to centre of inner rings
(b) Centre to centre of outer rings
(c) One end of the link to another end
(d) Centre to centre of middle rings
Answer. (d)

6: Chain survey is recommended when the area is:
(a) Simple and fairly level
(b) Undulating
(c) Crowded
(d) Hilly.
Answer. (a)

7: A triangle said to be well conditioned when its angles should be between:
(a) 20° to 100°
(b) 30° to 90°
(c) 15° to 115°
(d) 30° to 120°.
Answer. (d)

8: Perpendicular offsets may be taken by setting the right angle in the ratio:
(a) 3:4:5.
(b) 2:4:9.
(c) 3:6:9.
(d) 2:4:5.
Answer. (a)

9: ln a surveyor’s compass, the ring is graduated:
(a) From 0° to 360 °.
(b) From 0° to 180 °.
(c) From 0° to 90°.
(d) In any way.
Answer. (c)

10: The plane table map cannot be plotted to a different scale, as there is no:
(a) Field book.
(b) Log book.
(c) Level book.
(d) Rough book.
Answer. (a)

11: In plane table survey, the operation which must be carried out is:
(a) Resection.
(b) Orientation.
(c) Radiation.
(d) Intersection.
Answer. (b)

12: The U-fork and plumb bob are required for:
(a) Levelling.
(b) Orientation.
(c) Centring.
(d) Marking the north line.
Answer. (c)

13:The instrument which is used for sighting of a object in plane tabling is known as:
(a) Trough compass.
(b) Alidade.
(c) Spirit level.
(d) U-fork.
Answer. (b)

14:The north line of the map is marked on the:
(a) Right-hand top corner.
(b) Highs-hand bottom corner.
(c) Left-hand lop corner.
(d) Left-hand bottom corner.
Answer. (a)

15:The horizontal angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian is known as:
(a) Magnetic line.
(b) Magnetic declination.
(c) Dip.
(d) Agonic line.
Answer. (b)

16:The true meridian passes through:
(a) Geographical poles.
(b) Magnetic poles.
(c) East-west of the earth.
(d) Arbitary poles.
Answer. (a)

17: At the magnetic pole, the dip of the needle is:
(a) 0°.
(b) 45°
(c) 90°.
(d) 180°.
Answer. (c)

18: ln the Quadranatal Bearing, line is said to free from local attraction, if the FB and BB
are:
(a) Numerically equal.
(b) Numerically equal with opposite quadrants.
(c) Numerically unequal.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)

19: The Bench Mark (BM) established by the survey of India is known as the:
(a) GTS BM.
(b) Arbitrary BM.
(c) Permanent BM.
(d) Levelled BM.
Answer. (a)

20: The datum adopted for India is the:
(a) MSL at Calcutta.
(b) MSL at Karachi.
(c) MSL at Madras.
(d) MSL at Mumbai.
Answer. (b)

21: The line of collimation and axis of the telescope should:
(a) Coincide.
(b) Be diagonal.
(c) Be perpendicular.
(d) Be parallel.
Answer. (a)

22: Mean sea level at any place is the average datum of hourly tide heightsover a period
of:
(a) 10 years.
(b) 15 years.
(c) 19 years.
(d) 25 years.
Answer. (c)

23: A metric levelling staff is divided into metres, decimetres and the smallest division is:
(a) 1 cm.
(b) 0.5 cm.
(c) 0.8 cm.
(d) 0.2 cm.
Answer. (b)

24: The point on which both back-sight and fore-sight are taken is known as:
(a) Back levelling point.
(b) Fore levelling point.
(c) Change point.
(d) Replacement point.
Answer. (c)

25: When there is a relative movement between the cross-hairs and staff reading, it is
known as:
(a) Parallex.
(b) Collination error.
(c) Refraction error.
(d) Axial error.
Answer. (a)

Psychology Model Test Paper

2015-05-04T07:14:00.002-07:00

Psychology Model Test Paper
1. Who among the following proposed a theory of motivation based on the concept of need?
(a) Maslow
(b) Murray
(c) Hull
(d) Freud
Ans. (b)

2. Who among the following psychologists suggested that each person .has an essential nature that “presses” to emerge, like the “press’’ within an acorn to become an oak tree.
(a) Maslow
(b) Rogers
(c) Freud
(d) Erikson
Ans. (a)

3. “The term motivation refers to the arousal of tendency to act, to produce one or more effects.” The above definition was given by
(a) Gudilford
(b) Atkinson
(c) Hebb
(d) Maslow
Ans. (b)

4. ……… is a widely used projective test of personality in which individuals are asked to describe what they see in a series of inkblots.
(a) Rorschach Test
(b) TAT
(c) NEO-PI
(d) MCMI
Ans. (a)

5. In the anterior, or front, of the hypothalamus are nerve cells called ____, which generate nerve impulses when they are dehydrated.
(a) Double — depletion hypothesis
(b) Osmoreceptors
(c) Renin
(d) Angiotensin
Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following hormones is involved in the breakdown of fats, and is released when food reaches the part of the intestine immediately below the stomach?..
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Thyrotropin
(d) Antidiuretic
Ans. (b)

7. Which of the following changes is produced by water deficit in the blood and fluids surrounding the body cells?
(a) Decreases their volume
(b) Increases the concentration of certain chemicals
(c) Impairment of weight control system
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)

8. According to Maslow’s theory is thought to be the top need in a hierarchy of needs or motives.
(a) Esteem needs
(b) Self actualization
(c) Belongingness and love needs
(d) Safety needs
Ans. (b)

9. During which of the following psychosexual stages the male child develops the Oedipus complex?
(a) Anal stage
(b) Phallic stage
(c) Latency stage
(d) Genital stage
Ans. (b)

10. Which one of the following statements is not correct about 16 PF (Sixteen factor personality inventory):
(a) This test was developed by Cattell
(b) In this technique factor analysis is used to identify the basic personality structure
(c) This is a subjective technique
(d) It is used for high school students to adults
Ans. (c)

11. ______ are powerful tools for the explanation of behavior, and they allow us to make predictions about future behavior.
(a) Needs
(b) Motives
(c) Drives
(d) Conflicts
Ans. (b)

12. Which of the following theories is a hedonistic theory, that says that we are motivated to seek goals which give us good emotional feelings and avoid goals resulting in displeasure?
(a) Drive theories
(b) The opponent-process theory
(c) Optimal-level theories
(d) Incentive theories
Ans. (b)

13. Who among the following proposed that emotional states are a function of the interaction of cognitive factors and a state of physiological arousal?
(a) William James
(b) Schachter
(c) Maslow
(d) Con Lange
Ans. (b)

14. Which one of the following statements is correct about ‘super ego’?
(a) It is acquired from our parents and through experience
(b) It is the final aspect of personality described by Freud
(c) It represents our internalization of the moral teachings and norms of our society
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

15. Which of the following emotions is termed as negative emotion?
(a) Amusement
(b) Curiosity
(c) Fear
(d) Joy
Ans. (c)

16. Which of the following theories of motivation might be described as the ‘Push theories of motivation’?
(a) Social learning theory
(b) Drive theories
(c) Incentive theories
(d) Opener process theory
Ans. (b)

17. Need for ______ was one of the first social motives to be studied in detail, and research into this motive continues.
(a) Power
(b) Achievement
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Sex
Ans. (b)

18. In the study, biological aspects of motivation, researchers frequently use the procedures of _____ for the study of motivation.
(a) Deprivation
(b) Stimulation
(c) Incentives
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

19. Consider the following statements:
1. Observational learning generally takes place in a social situation involving a model and an imitator.
2. The imitator in an observational learning observes the model and experiences the model’s behavior and its consequences vicariously
Select the correct answer from the options given below
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

20. ______ used the term instinct to denote as an inherited disposition that has three components i.e., energizing, action and goal direction.
(a) Atkinson
(b) Mc Dougall
(c) Mc Clelland
(d) Maslow
Ans. (b)

21. Which of the following statements about children’s reaction to excessive levels of basic anxiety is correct?
(a) A Passive Style In which children try to cope by being agreeable and
compliant
(b) An Aggressive Style In which children fight to get attention
(c) A Withdrawn Style In which children repress their emotions
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

22. The preoptic area of the _____ monitors body temperature and activates homeostatic mechanism.
(a) Thalamus
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Amygdale
(d) Hippocampus
Ans. (b)

23. Studies have shown the role of in emotions, located in the centre of the brain.
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Limbic system
(c) Pituitary
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

24. Which one of the following statements about Roger’s self theory towards becoming a fully functioning person is not correct?
(a) A fully functioning person strives to experience life to the fullest
(b) A fully functioning person lives in the here and now and trusts his own feelings
(c) A fully functioning person is sensitive to the needs and rights of others
(a) A fully functioning person allows society’s standards to shape his feelings or actions to an excessive degree
Ans. (d)

25. _____, a famous psychologist at Harvard during the late 1800s believed that the important factor in our felt emotion is the feedback from the bodily changes that occur in response to a frightening or upsetting situation.
(a) Cannon
(b) William James
(c) Carl Lange
(d) Abraham Maslow
Ans. (b)

Quiz Containing Objective Questions on Economics

2012-11-17T17:01:00.002-08:00

Quiz Containing Objective Questions on Economics

Economics - Online Multiple Choice Questions

1. Identify the correct chronology of the following :

I. Fisher’s test of significance of differences between means of

three or more samples.

II. Kendal’s partial rank correlation.

III. Gossest’s T test of significance between means of two samples.

IV. X² test of goodness of fit of the curve and randomness of the

sample values.

Codes :

(A) III, I, II, IV

(B) I, II, III, IV

(D) I, II, IV, III

Ans :A

2. Identify the sequence of implementation of the following taxes.

Select the correct answer from the given codes :

I. Land Revenue

II. Sales tax

III. MODVAT

IV. Service tax

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, IV, I, III

(D) IV, II, I, III

Ans :A

3. Marginal Revenue of a Monopoly firm is less than the price, Because :

(A) Demand curve has a positive slope.

(B) Demand curve has a negative slope.

(D) Monopolist is in equilibrium.

Ans :B

4. Which of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman ?

(A) Rural housing

(B) Rural electrification

(D) Rural telephony

Ans :C

5. Harrod-Domar model of economic growth is based upon

I. Warranted growth rate

II. Investment growth rate

III. Productivity growth rate

IV. Natural growth rate

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(D) I and IV are correct.

Ans :D

6. Assertion (A) : During the period 2004-05 to 2007-08 fiscal consolidation process was witnessed in India.

Reason (R) : There was buoyancy in tax revenue during this period.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and

(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

7. Assertion (A) : Gold standard was finally given up after the Second World War.

Reason (R) : Countries had different rates of inflation.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of

(A).

(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

8. Arrange the stages of economic growth in a sequential order :

I. The age of high mass consumption

II. The traditional society

III. The take-off stage

IV. The drive to maturity

Codes :

(A) I, III, IV, II

(B) II, IV, I, III

(D) II, III, IV, I

Ans :D

9. The classical economists focused on the role of money as

(A) medium of exchange

(B) medium of distribution

(D) link between present and future

Ans :A

10. Harrod-Domar model of economic growth is based on the equilibrium

between

(A) Income generation and productive capacity creation

(B) Equilibrium between income and consumption

(D) None of the above

Ans :A

11. Which of the following measures of the central tendency suits the data best

if the objective is to assess the distribution of values ?

(A) Arithmetic mean

(B) Mode

(D) Kurtosis

Ans :C

12. In India, in 2004-05 the number of poor persons below poverty line was

the highest in the State of

(A) Bihar

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Rajasthan

Ans :B

13. The problem relating to burden of public debt has been dealt by

I. A.P. Learner

II. E.D. Domar

III. A.C. Pigou

IV. A.H. Henson

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(D) II and III are correct.

Ans :A

14. Assertion (A) : Giffin’s paradox rarely occurs in the real world.

Reason (R) : Inferior goods are narrowly defined for which

suitable substitutes are available.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation

of (A).

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

15. Assertion (A) : Financial inclusion is desirable to help weaker sections

of society in the country.

Reason (R) : Investment activity needs to be promoted to facilitate access to development benefits to masses.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation

of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

Ans :B

16. Assertion (A) : Disguised unemployment is present in

Indian agriculture.

Reason (R) : Marginal productivity of agriculture is close to zero.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation

of (A).

(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

17. Consider the following schemes :

I. EAS

II. TRYSEM

III. JRY

IV. RLEGP

The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these schemes are :

Codes :

(A) II, IV, I, III

(B) IV, II, III, I

(D) II, IV, III, I

Ans :A

18. Arrange the origin of money in a

sequential order

I. Cheque

II. Metallic money

III. Commodity money

IV. Paper money

Codes :

(A) IV, I, III, II

(B) I, III, II, IV

(D) II, IV, I, III

Ans :C

19. Identify the correct chronological order

of the following classical economists :

(A) Adam Smith, Malthus, Ricardo, J.S. Mill

(B) Adam Smith, Ricardo, Malthus,J.S. Mill

(D) Adam Smith, Malthus, J.S. Mill,Ricardo

Ans :B

20. Arrange the following theories in order in which they appeared :

I. Comparative Cost Advantage Theory

II. Absolute Cost Advantage Theory

III. Leontief Paradox

IV. Factor Endowment Theory

Codes :

(A) I, III, II, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(D) I, IV, II, III

Ans :C

GK for Exams of LIC and Other Insurance Companies

2012-11-12T16:03:00.002-08:00

GK for Exams of LIC and Other Insurance Companies

GK for LIC Assistant Administrative Officer Exam

1. Which of the following types of companies/organizations issue ‘ULIP’?

(1) Insurance companies

(2) Banks

(3) NABARD

(4) RBI

(5) All of these

Ans. (1)

2. Insurance business in India is regulated by which of the following authorities?

(1) NFCG

(2) IRDA

(3) CII

(4) FICCI

(5) All of these

Ans. (2)

3. Which amongst the following is/was NOT an insurance company functioning in India?

(1) ICICI Prudential

(2) ING Vysya

(3) ICICI Lombard

(4) New India Assurance Company

(5) National Securities Depository Ltd

Ans. (5)

4. Which of the following is the only public sector company in the field of life insurance?

(1) General Insurance Company

(2) New India Assurance Company.

(3) Oriental Insurance Company

(4) Sahara Life Insurance

(5) Life Insurance Corporation of India

Ans. (5)

5. “A contract that pledges payment of an agreed upon amount to the person (or his/her nominee) on the happening of an event covered against” is technically known as

(U Death coverage

(2) Life Insurance

(3) Savings for future

(4) Provident Fund

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

6. As per the news published in various newspapers, Life Insurance policies may become paper- less n the near future. This means

(1) LIC will not insure any person here after as it has already reached its peak

(2) LIC will not ask for any documents from a person who wishes to purchase an insurance policy

(3) All policy related documents and policy certificates will henceforth be available in electronic form and not in their present physical form and not in their present physical form

(4) LIC henceforth will not entertain any claim or complaint in written form or on paper. Things should be in electronic mode only

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

7. In insurance policies always find, a date which is date of Maturity”. What does it mean?

(1) This is the date on which the policy was sold to the customer/person insured.

(2) This is the date on which the policy holder will have to submit his/her claim seeking the amount of the policy. Otherwise the company will not make any payment to him/ her.

(3) This is the date on which the contract between the person and insurance company will come to an end.

(4) The date on which the Insurance company makes the final payment to the insured person which is normally fifteen days after the “payment due date”.

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

8. As we know, the Government is paying much attention to “Micro Finance” these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance?

(1) Insurance for life

(2) Investment in Mutual Funds

(3) Self Help Groups

(4) Letter of Credit

(5) All of these

Ans. (3)

9. Which of the following insurance plan is not launched by LIC?

(1) Jeevan Chhaya

(2) Life Mahalife Gold Plan

(3) Child Career Plan

(4) Child Future Plan

(5) Jeevan Saral

Ans. (2)

10. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The White Tiger”?

(1) Arundhati Roy

(2) V. S. Naipaul

(3) Kiran Dai

(4) Vikram Seth

(5) Aravind Adiga

Ans. (5)

11. Which of the following is the best description of what insurance is? (Many times companies also communicate the same to the person interested in getting an insurance policy)

(1) Insurance = Collective bearing of risk

(2) Insurance = Paying for other’s mistakes

(3) Insurance = Taking from A’ to pay B’

(4) Insurance = Paying for something which will never happen

(5) All of these

Ans. (1)

12. Which of the following organisations/agencies frame the Monetary and Credit Polity which is followed by all banks in India?

(1) Indian Bank’s Association

(2) Reserve Bank of India

(3) Securities & Exchange Board of India

(4) Government of India

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

13. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?

(1) Penalty stroke

(2) Knock out

(3) Bully

(4) Checkmate

(5) Silly point

Ans. (5)

14. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the world of finance banking and Insurance?

(1)Devaluation

(2) Amnesty

(3) Hard currency

(4) Preference share

(5) Sinking fund

Ans. (2)

15. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field ‘of Sports?

(1) Gnanpith Award

(2) Bharat Ratna

(3) Arjuna Award

(4) Kalidas Samman

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

Free GK For Exams First Indian Lists to Win, Cross, Score, Award, literature

2012-02-20T15:48:00.001-08:00

Free GK For Exams First Indian Lists to Win, Cross, Score, Award, literature

Lists to Win Cross Score Award literature

Very useful for general studies as ias study material

This info is useful for Any examthat contains questions on current affairs like ias India,railway engineering, mba exams,KVS TGT,PCS etc

First Indian Olympic team medal - Gold for Hockey. At Amsterdam beating the Netherlands (1928)

First Indian Olympic individual medal winner - K. D. Jadhav, Bronze in wrestling at Helsinki (1952)

First Asian woman to swim across the English Channel - Arati Saha, India (1959 )

First woman Chess grandmaster of india

- S. Vijayalakshmi (2000)

First Indian woman medal winner in Olympics - Karnam Malleswari, Bronze in weightlifting, Sydney (2000)

First Indian woman to win a round at a Grand Slam - Nirupama Vaidyanathan who vbeat Italian Gloria Pizzichini in the first round of the Australian Open (1998)

First Indian Cricket test match - Against England at Lord’s (1932)

First Indian Cricket captain - CK Nayudu, for the tour of England (1932)

First Indian cricketer to score a century- Lala Amamath, against England in South Bombay.

Independent india’s first test captain : Lala Amamath leading a tour of Australia in 1947-48. (1933)

First Indian cricketer to score a triple century - Virender Sehwag, against Pakistan at Multan (2004)

First Indian hat-trick in Test cricket - Harbhajan Singh, against Australia (2001)

First Indian batsman to complete 10,000 runs-Sunil Gavaskar also first in the world

First Indian Tennis Grand Slam title- Mahesh Rhupathi, Japanese Rika Hiraki, in the Mixed Doubles French Open(1997)

First Indian woman to appear in an Olympic final - P.T. Usha, Los Angeles (1984)

Indian woman in the third round (highest for Indian women) of a tennis Grand Slam event- Sania Mirza, Singles category of the Australian Open (2005)

First Indian woman to win an individual gold medal in Asian Games - Kamaljit Sandhu, Bangkok, 400 m (1970)

First Indian to win an individual Olympic Gold - Abhinav Bindra (2008)

First Indian woman to reach Antarctica- Meher Moos (1976)

First Indian in space - Rakesh Sharma aboard Salyut 7 (1984)

First Indian woman to climb Mount Everest - Bachendri Pal. (1984 )

First woman to conquer Everest twice - Santosh Yadav, India (1993 )

First Indian to win Nobel Prize in Literature - Rabindranath Tagore. (1913)

First woman from India to win a Nobel Prize-Mother Teresa, Peace Prize (1979)

First woman to win the jananpath -Ashapurna Devi (1976)

First woman to receive Bharat Ratna - Indira Gandhi (1971)

First Indian woman to win a Pulitzer Prize- Jhumpa Lahiri (2000)

First Indian to win Booker Prize - Arund hati Roy. For ‘The God of Small Things’ (1997)

First Education Minister of free India - Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

First Indian to win Dadasaheb Phalke Award - Devika Rani (1970)

First Indian Oscar winner - Bhanu Athaiya, For Best Costume Design for the film ‘Gandhi’ (1982)

model test paper Free Online English language Quiz For SAIL MT CDS NDA Bank PO UPSC IES Competitive exams India

2012-02-19T06:14:00.001-08:00

model test paper Free Online English language Quiz For SAIL MT CDS NDA Bank PO UPSC IES Competitive exams India
Free Online English language Quiz For CDS NDA Bank PO UPSC IES Competitive exams India

English Language is part of Many exams

In bank PO 50 Questions Come For English Language Test

For PGT and TGT also English language is part of syllabus

In UPSC IES indian Engineering Services it is large part of general Ability test

For the Graduate engineers who are preparing For various PSU's as management Trainee or Engineer trainee practice of english language test is essential.

For all the persons who are preparing for exams we are giving Databank of Questions on English Language.

Its a model test paper Containing 50 Questions.

Answers are Given at The End of test

Good luck for exams

Directions (1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered, These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more ..1..   in governance. The Prime Minister’s announcement that his Government is ..2.. drafting legislation to..3.. the citizen’s right to information is indeed welcome, Though the talk on the right to information is not now, we may..4.. the bill to be brought early this time. The previous Government bad setup a high-level committee to ..5.. a draft bill. But nothing has been heard about the matter since,..6.. the committee did quite some work. The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution cannot be ..7.. further.

Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a Foreign judge once said, while the ..8.. unwarranted secrecy in an administrative system. When those in authority know that people have the right to ask questions and the government is under the ..9.. to provide them with answers, ..10.. of authority, or of public finances, for personal or party ends is less likely to happen.

1.
1) strictness

2) rudeness

3) leniency

4) economy

5) transparency

2.

1) personally

2) busy

3) not

4) reluctantly

5) absolutely

3.

1) presumption

2) absolve

3) curb

4) question

5) establish

4.

1) expect

2) wait

3) try

4) frustrate

5) appeal

5.

1) level

2) regard

3) prepare

4) enact

5) unearth

6.

1) even

2) as

3) because

4) until

5) though

7.

1) found

2) expected

3). delayed

4) looked

5) longed

8.

1) nurturing

2) criticizing

3) demanding

4) appreciating

5) upholding

9.

1) pretention

2) affect

3) substance

4) obligation

5) property .

10.

1) misuse

2) governance

3) dishonour

4) curbing

5) breach

Directions (Q. 11-18): In each question, one of the five parts of the sentence is shown with an asterisk. The other four parts of the same sentence are denoted by (A), (B), (C) & (D). Find out the correct sequence of these lettered parts which when read together with the asterisked part in its proper position, makes the sentence meaningfully complete. Please note that more than one sequence may also be correct. Therefore, indicate your answer only after judging all the answer choices provided.

11. *are not keeping

A. good health lately

B. you should know

C. why you

D. the reason

1) Only BDC*A

2) Only DBCA*

3) Only BADC*

4) only C*DBA

5) Only BD*AC

12. * thiefs

A. to guard his house

B. and keep away

C. some fierce dogs

D he keeps

1) Only *CBAD

2) Only DCAB*

3) Only D*ABC

4) only AD*BC

5) None of these

13. * his business

A. was a heavy blow to

B. his crime

C. the discovery of

D.. his reputation and

1) Only C*ADB

2) only BADC*

3) Only CBAD*

4) Either * ACDB or C*ABD

5) None of these

14. * the book

A in his own words

B. he had read

C. the entire story

D. carefully and could tell

1) Only B*DCA

2) only BACD*

3) Only ABD*C

4) only AB*Dc

5) None of these

15. * have been

A. he is

B. One of the Greatest

C. of Novelists

D. University Acknowledged to

1) only A*BCD

2) only BC*AD

3)Either A*BCD or AD*BC

4) Only AD*BC

5) None of these

16.* to Vist Me

A. he never came

B. in spite of

C. inviting Him

D. my continually

1) Only AC*BD

2) Only BCD*A

3) Only A*BCD

4) Only C*BDA

5) None of these

17. * believed it

A. with my own eyes

B. I would

C. had I not seen this

D. no thave

1) Only-B*DAC

2) Only BD*CA

3) Only CABD*

4) Both BD*CA and CABD*

5) None of these

18. . * it is

A. understand why

B. his own sons

C. he distrusts

D. difficult to

1) Only * DACB

2) Only A*BDC

3) only BA*DC

4) Only CB*AD

5) None of these

Directions (Q. 19-23): Rearrange the following seven--sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.

A. The history of that system is, however, a warning than a stimulus to reorganise a similar scheme.

B. However, we can’t resign ourselves merely because

there are not data.

C. One of the commonest risk which agricultural life is exposed to in this country is famine or failure of crops.

D. There are, however, no reliable data on which such a scheme of insurance can be based.

E. A kind of Famine Insurance System was attempted by the British Government of India in the last century.

F. Still, the need for such a scheme to cover the losses due to famine, cattle plague, crop -pests, etc. can’t be undermined.

G. It is obviously because of failure of rain and the

19. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?

l)A

2)B

3)C

4)D

5)E

20. Which of the following should be the sixth sentence in the paragraph?

l)E

2)D

3)B

4)C

5)A

21. Which of -the following should be there in the third

position in the paragraph?         -

l)B

2)C

3)D

4)E

5)F

22. Which of the following’ should be the first sentence after rearrangement?

l)A

2)B

3)D

4)C

5)E

23. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement?

1)B

2)G

3)D

4)E

5)F

Directions (Q. 24-28) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pair of words denoted by numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

24. He objected to the proposal because it was founded on a

…. principle and also was……..           at times.

1) faulty — desirable

2) imperative — reasonable

3) wrong — inconvenient

4) sound — acceptable

5) conforming — deplorable

25. The criterion for _____ a player should be based on his recent performance; but unfortunately, the journalists are_______to be carried away by earlier successes.

1) condemning — satisfying

2) judging — prone

3) revealing — reluctant

4) eager — acclaiming

5) criticizing — clean

26. For the last half century he _____himself to public affairs______ taking a holiday.

1) by — committed

2) after — offered

3) devoted — without

4) sacrificed — after

5) prepared — before

27. You will see signs of ________everywhere, which speak well

for the ________of these people.

1) decoration - senses

2) clear - debris

3) beauty.. careful

4) industry - prosperity

5) repairs – extravaganza

28. The police arrested Ramesh on a ______of theft but for

lack of evidence________        him.

1) crime — imprisoned

2) punished — complaint

3) left — condition

4) tip — absconding

5) charge — released

29. Directions (Q. 29-38): In each sentence below, a word/group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

29. He claims that his proposal is preferable than that of

any other employee.

1) preferable than for

2) preferable for than

3) preferably more than that of

4) preferable to that of

5) No correction required

30. The social worker has championed the cause from the

weak and oppressed for the last four decades. -.

1) has been championing the cause of

2) had championed the cause for

3) has been championing the cause for

4) had been championed the cause for

5) No correction required

31. Initially the hijackers seemed determined not to submit but ultimately they were given in.

1) were given up

2) gave in

3) had been given up

4) had been given in

5) No correction required

32. Every one of us must have experienced how people have to put up with a good deal of discomfort while traveling.

1) have to be put with a good deal of

2) have been putting p a good deal with

3) have to put up a good deal with

4) are putting up with a good deal with

5) No correction required

33. Disputes are mainly maintained by those who are nothing else to do.

1) have nothing else to do

2) are nothing to do else where

3) had nothing to be done

4) do not have nothing else to do

5) No correction required

34. The judge noticed that the two statements made by the

accused were not consistent from each other.

1) were not being in consistence for

2) were being inconsistent at

3) had not been consistent for

4) were not consistent with

5) No correction required

35. The economic reforms initiated in 1991 have bornefruit.

1) has born fruit

2) have burnt fruit

3) have been borne fruits

4) have been bearing the fruits

5) No correction required

36. Our business firms were full aware of the problems they

were going to face on the threshold of the year 2000.

1) have been full aware of

2) were fully aware of

3) had been fully aware at

4) were fully aware into

5) No correction required

37. The habit of smoking has been grow upon the youngsters.

1) is growing up

2) has been grown up

3) has been growing upon

4) has grown up

5) No correction required

38. To succeed in a difficult task, persistent is needed.

1) persistent is what one needs

2) persistence should have needed

3) one need to be persisted

4) persistence is needed

5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 39-50): There are two paragraphs followed by questions based on each of them. Read these paragraphs and answer the questions given below them. Some words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Paragraph-I

Recently a study was made on the popularity of TV programmes and viewers’ perception about their quality. The study of attitudes towards prime-time television programmes showed that programmes with identical ratings in terms of numbers of people watching received highly divergent marks for quality from their viewers. This additional piece of info could prove valuable for advertisers who might be well advised to spend their advertising money for programmes that viewers feel are of high quality.

39. Which of the following is most nearly the same in

meaning as the word feel as used in the passage?

1) pour

2) sympathise

3) perceive

4) evolve

5) sensitise

40. Which of the following is most nearly opposite in meaning of the word divergent as used in the passage?

1) pointed

2) similar

3) heterogeneous

4) synonymous

5) focussed

41. Which of the following inferences can best be drawn from the above paragraph?

1) The number of viewers decided the quality of the programmes.

2) The viewers’ perception about the quality of programmes is significant for advertisers.

3) The poor quality programmes have very few viewers.

4) Advertisers can derive benefit from the information about viewers’ perception of quality of programmes.

5) None of these

42. Which of the following is/are the finding(s) of the study?

A. The viewers decide the prime-time television programmes.

B. The attitudes of viewers cannot be reliably assessed.

C. The advertisers were benefited from good quality

1) A Only

2) B Only

3) C only

4) All the three

5) None of these

43. Which of the following can be inferred from the contents of the paragraph?

A. Advertisement can have some effect on the viewers’ buying habits.

B. Money spent on advertising with high quality programmes yields more profits.

C. Different prograrnmes equal number of viewers can be rated differently as far as quality is concerned.

1) Only A

2) Only B

3) Only A and B

4) B and C
5) None of these

Paragraph-II

Econometric models like the computable general equilibrium model are mostly valuable in policy formulation as they give some insight into how trade policy changes will affect the sectoral composition of output and employment. They are not in themselves designed to provide direct inputs but really to serve as background as to the sectors that will be most favourably or most unfavourably affected by policy. Besides they render valuable help in policy matters regarding free trade.

Free trade has Distinct benefits .These benefits are well accepted all over. However, there is a growing opposition to free trade. There is an increasing perception among certain groups of how international trading systems impact, especially how they affect low-wage workers and also have a degrading environmental impact.

Yet it is difficult to accept that that is the reason for any kind of protectionist move in the most advanced countries.

44. Most advanced countries are cautious about free trade because

A. They prefer to have a protectionist approach.

B. They feel degraded in international trading community.

C. Their vested interests are thwarted.

l)A and B only

2)B and C only

3)A and C only

4)All of them

5) None of these

45. The author the passage seems to be

1) in favour of use of econometric models but against free trade.

2) in favour of free trade but neutral regarding econometric models.

3) against both free trade as well as econometric models.

4) indifferent about both free trade and econometric models.

5) in favour of both econometric models and free trade.

46. Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage?

A. Despite the advantages of free trade, it is not whole heartedly acclaimed by most advanced countries.

B. Policy formulation should be solely dependent on econometric models.

C. Reasons for model protectionist approach by advanced countries are not given in the passage.

l) Only A

2) Only B

3) Only C

4) A and B only

5)B and C only

47. What is the contribution of econometric models?

1) They help develop insight into increasing output rough less manpower.

2) They help in implementing new policies regarding free trade.

3) They help develop insight into how change influence certain sectors.

4) They ensure that policy changes have only positive impact on the economy.

5) None of.these

48. Which of the following is the characteristic of econometric models?

1) They serve as a backdrop.

2) They are unfavourable to free trade.

3) Their design is not conducive to increase employment.

4) They do not serve direct inputs.

5) Both l and 4

49. The changes in economic policy are most likely to have

1) only desirable effect on all the sectors involved.

2) a mixed influence on all the sectors involved.

3) negative impact unless all the sectors are involved.

4) unfavourable effect on employment opportunities.

5) None of these

50. Free trade has been receiving escalating disapproval because

l)it has a very distinct range of benefits.

2) it unduly favours low-wage workers.

3) it leads to protectionist approach among advanced countries.

4) it affects international trading systems adversely.

5) None of these

Answers

1	5
2	2
3	5
4	1
5	3
6	5
7	3
8	2
9	4
10	1
11	1
12	2
13	3
14	1
15	4
16	5 right sequence is A*BDC
17	4
18	1
19	1
20	2
21	4
22	4
23	2
24	3
25	2
26	3
27	4
28	5
29	4
30	1
31	2
32	5
33	1
34	4
35	5
36	2
37	3
38	4
39	3
40	2
41	4
42	5
43	4
44	5
45	5
46	1
47	3
48	5
49	2
50	5

Objective English Practice Set For Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Post Graduate Teachers Recruitment Exam

2012-02-08T16:10:00.000-08:00

Objective English Practice Set For Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Post Graduate Teachers Recruitment Exam

MCQ English for teachers Job Exams
Directions: In each of the following sentence, a blank has been given which
can be filled correctly by one of the four alternatives given under it. That is
your answer.

1. All too often journalists fail to ….. personal privacy.
(a) Consider
(b) Regard
(c) Respect
(d) Admire
ANSWER: (c)

2. It ….. to me that she was incurable.
(a) Suggested
(b) Flashed
(c) Happened
(d) Occurred
ANSWER: (d)

3. The police had to be called to control a ….. between two political groups.
(a) Brawl
(b) Confusion
(c) Riot
(d) Disturbance
ANSWER: (d)

4. I am feeling ….. better today.
(a) Too
(b) Rather
(c) Very
(d) Fairly
ANSWER: (d)

5. When you were sick, it was your mother who ….. you back to health.
(a) Aroused
(b) Urged
(c) Assured
(d) Nursed
ANSWER: (d)

6. The fact is so ….. that no one ever succeeded even in defining it.
(a) Elusive
(b) Slanderous
(c) Morbid
(d) Fragmentary
Answer: (a)

7. Vishakha ….. two minutes and thirty seconds to take the first place in the women’s 800m race.
(a) Ran
(b) Used
(c) Timed
(d) Clocked
Answer: (d)

8. The chairman treated the employees to a ….. lunch at an expensive hotel.
(a) Precious
(b) Sumptuous
(c) Thriving
(d) Stupendous
Answer. (b)

9. The whole plot was ….. well managed.
(a) Perfectly
(b) Nicely
(c) Exquisitely
(d) Exceedingly
Answer: (d)

10. The twins are so alike that I cannot ….. one from the other.
(a) Discern
(b) Tell
(c) Say
(d) Notice
Answer: (b)

Directions : Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Ready each paragraph carefully and answer the question

given below it

11. The virtue of art does not allow the work to be interfered with or immediately
ruled by anything other than itself. It insists that it alone shall touch the work
in order to bring it into being Art requires that nothing shall attain the
work except through art it self

This passage best supports the statement that
(a) Art is governed by external rules and conditions.
(b) Art is for the sake of art and life.
(c) Art is for the sake of art alone.
(d) Artist realizes his dreams through his artistic creation.
(e) Artist should use his art for the sake of society.
ANSWER: (c)
12. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have
been attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became
millionaires overnight. India has a vast coast line both on the Eastern and
Western Coast. It has been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on
their activities with great impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time
certain seizures were made by the enforcement authorities, during -raids
and ambush but even allowing these losses the smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that :
(a) Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
(b) Smuggling ought to be curbed.
(c) Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
(d) Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing .to the quick profit it entails.
ANSWER: (d)

13. Emerson said that the poet was landlord, Sealord, air lord. The flight of
imagination made the poet master of land, sea and air. But a poet’s dream of
yesterday becomes today an ‘actual achievement and a reality for all men.
Even those who invented, improved and perfected the aero plane could hardly
have dreamt of the 'possibility of flight into outer space.
The passage best supports the statement that
(a) Seemingly impossible imaginations make one a good poet.
(b) All imaginations become a reality some day
(c) What man imagined has never been impossible; he has always
turned it a reality through his conception of ideas and sheer hard labor
(d) Man has reached the climax of technological development with his
exploration into outer space.
ANSWER: (c)

14. It is up to our government and planners to devise ways and means for the
mobilization of about ten core workers whose families total up about forty core
men, women and children. Our agriculture is over-manned. A lesser number of
agriculturists would mean more purchasing or spending power to every
agriculturist. This will result in the shortage of man-power for many
commodities to be produced for which there will be a new demand from a
prosperous agrarian class. This shortage will be removed by surplus man-power
released from agriculture as suggested above.
The passage best supports the statement that-
(a) Employment in production is more fruitful than the employment in agriculture.
(b) Indian economy is in a poor shape basically due to improper mobilization of
man-power.
(c) A shift of labor from agricultural sector to the industrial sector would uplift
the living standard.
(d) The industrial sector is labor deficient t while the agricultural sector is over
manned in our country.
ANSWER: (b)

15. Throughout the ages the businessman has helped build civilization’s great
cities, provided people with luxuries and artists with patronage, and lift his fellow
citizens to understand the standard of living. In the last few centuries the
businessman has seeded the Industrial Revolution around the world.
The passage best' supports the statement that the businessman
(a) Is accountable to the Society
(b) Lives luxurious and comfortable life
(c) Is the beneficiary of the Industrial Revolution
(d) Is capable of raising his standard of living
(e) Has contributed to the growth of civilization
ANSWER: (e)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer questions based on this passage

Passage

It is to progress in the human sciences that we must look to undo the evils which have
resulted from a knowledge of the physical world hastily and superficially acquired by
populations unconscious of the changes in themselves that the new knowledge has made
imperative. The road to a happier world than any known in the past lies open before us if
atavistic destructive passions can be kept in leash while the necessary adaptations are made.
Fears are inevitable in our time, but hopes are equally rational an far more likely to bear
Good fruit. We must learn to think rather less of the dangers to be avoided than of the
Good that will lie within our grasp if we can believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts.
Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it may have by the way, is in its very nature a
liberator, a liberator, of bondage to physical nature and in to come, a liberator from the
weight of destructive passions. We are on the threshold of utter disaster or unprecedentedly
glorious achievement. No previous age has been fraught with problems so momentous
and it is to science that we must look to for a happy future.

16. What does science liberate us from?
It liberates us from
(a) Bondage to physical nature
(b) Fears and destructive passions
(c) Idealistic hopes of a glorious future
(d) Slavery to physical nature and from passions
ANSWER: (d)

17. To carve out a bright future a man should
(a) Try to avoid dangers
(b) Overcome fears and dangers
(c) Cultivate a positive outlook
(d) Analyse dangers that lie ahead
ANSWER: (c)

18. If man’s bestial yearning is controlled
(a) The present will be brighter than the future.
(b) The present will become tolerant.
(c) The future will be brighter than the present.
(d) The fixture will be tolerant.
ANSWER: (c)

19. Fears and hopes, according to the author
(a) Can yield good results
(b) Can bear fruit
(c) Are irrational
(d) Are closely linked with the life of modern man
ANSWER: (d)

20. Should human sciences be developed because they will
(a) Eliminate the destruction caused by a superficial knowledge of the physical world
(b) Make us conscious of the changes in ourselves
(c) Make us conscious of the changing world
(d) Provide more knowledge of the physical world
ANSWER: (a)

verbal reasoning quiz

2011-09-01T10:58:00.001-07:00

verbal reasoning quiz in English!
verbal reasoning quiz practice test
Verbal Reasoning Test
1. Four of the following five are all alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Sultry
(2) Hot
(3) Humid
(4) Warm
(5) Cool
Ans. (5)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 126
(2) 217
(3) 345
(4) 513
(5) 730
Ans. (3)

3. If its possible to make a meaningful English word with the seventh, the tenth and the fourth letters of the word ARIS OPATHOLOGY and the only vowel from the word ‘TOP’, the third letter of that word is your answer. If more than one English word can be formed, M is your answer. If no such word can be formed, your answer is ‘N’.
(1) O
(2) P
(3) S
(4) M
(5) N
Ans. (4)

4. In a row of girls Ravina is 15th from the left and Mohini is 18th from the right. If they interchange their places. Mohini be comes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(1) 33
(2) 48
(3) 47
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)

5. In a certain code language ‘SHORT’ is written as ‘ITOUS’ and ‘DWARF’ is written as ‘XEAGS’. How is ’MANGO’ written in that code language?
(1) NBNHP
(2) BNNPH
(3) BNNHP
(4) LBNPF
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)

6. Four of the following live are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Now
(2) After Then
(3) Then
(4) Before
(5) Again
Ans. (5)

7. Among four persons B is taller than C, A is taller than D, but not as tall as C. Who among them is the tallest?
(1) A
(2) 5
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)

8. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols? Y9B* W*DV7 *U5F?
(1) S3H*
(2) T#H*
(3) T*# H
(4) S*H5
(5) SH*I
Ans. (1)

9. In a certain code language ‘MEAL’ is written as ‘$£*@’ and ‘SAFE’ is written as ‘@*+£’. How is ‘FAME’ written in that code language?
(1) +*$E
(2) *+$@
(3) +@$
(4) £@*+
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

10. ‘If is related to condition’ in the same way as ‘but’ is related to —
(1) Supplement
(2) Negation
(3) Contradiction
(4) Strengthen
(5) Disapproval
Ans. (3)

Objective English For SAIL BHEL ONGC IOC Exam

2011-09-01T10:57:00.003-07:00

Objective English For SAIL BHEL ONGC IOC Exam
English MCQ for Exams

Directions (1-10) In each question below a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type is given. One of them or both may contain error. You have to find out the correct word .of group of words from among the three choices denoted by (A), (B) and (C) given below each sentence which can replace the wrong word/group. of words and make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5)
i.e. No Correction Required as your answer.

1. Our firm determination had due impact on them and they will be changed their decision.
(A) having ……. have changed
(B) emphasised ………. will be changed
(C) had ……… changed
(1) A only
(2) B Only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)

2. Deep breathing exercises are found to be of extreme helpful to patients suffering from high blood pressure.
(A) Deeply breathing ……. extremely helpful
(B) Deep breathing ……. of extreme help
(C) Deep breathing ..... extremely helpful
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)

3. By the time they reach the station, the train had been departed.
(A) reached …. has
(B) reach …. had
(C) reached ….. had
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)

4. These days, customers have been receiving better services from bank employees.
(A) received …… by
(B) been received ….. from
(C) received ….. from
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)

5. It was heartening news that you narrowly escaped being run over by a speeding car yesterday.
(A) narrowed …… run over
(B) narrowly ……. run across
(C) narrowed down ……. Running over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)

6. What matters most is the quality of the product and only not merely the cost, appearance or site.
(A) What ….. not merely
(B) It ….. not only
(C) All that …… only not mere
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)

7. Your investment advisor should be concerned about the security of high returns on your investment rather than his benefit.
(A) should b concern ….. for
(B) should have concern …… with
(C) should be having concern ….. over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or B
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)

8. People who are insensitive and indifference to the agonies of the poor cannot serve the society.
(A) indifference …… suffering
(B) indifferent ……. suffering
(C) indifferent …….. agonies
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (4)

9. Getting carry away by slightest provocation is a sigh of immaturity.
(A) Getting carried away …… immaturity
(B) Get carry away ……… maturity
(C) Get carried away ……. Maturity
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)

10. Our employees are so careful in their work that one has been so far found any error in their work.
(A) very careful ….. have so far found
(B) so careful ….. has so far found
(C) so efficient …… have so far found
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (2)

Directions (11-20) : In each question below, two sentences are given’ These two sentences are to be combined into a single sentence without changing their meaning. Three probable starters of the combined sentence are given which are denoted by (A), (B) and (C). Any or more or none of’ them may be correct. Find out the correct starter (s) and accordingly select your answer from among the given five answer choices.

11. It is very cold here. You must carry warm clothes with you.
(A) Since you must …..
(B) As it is very ……
(C) If it is very …..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B.
(3) Only C
(4) A and C only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (2)

12. You must sign your railway pass, write your name and age on it, According to the railway authorities, it becomes valid only after that.
(A) To make your railway pass valid, the railway authorities should …..
(B) Without validating your railway pass, you cannot sign ……
(C) To validate your railway pass, you must ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (3)

13. The doctor says that Ramesh has lost his immunity. Therefore, he is vulnerable to any disease.
(A) Ramesh’s loss of immunity …..
(B) Because of his vulnerability to his …….
(C) His vulnerability to any disease ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) Only A and B
Ans. (1)

14. How much you speak is less important. What is more important is how relevant you speak.
(A) How relevant you speak is …….
(B) How much you speak is as important …….
(C) How relevant you speak is not as important ……
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

15. You must submit a copy of your ration card. Only then your application for telephone connection will be considered.
(A) Unless you submit ……
(B) Unless your application for …….
(C) Without your application for …….
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and B
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

16. You need two tickets? Please stand in the queue.
(A) If you need ……
(B) In case you need …..
(C) Should you need …..
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

17. The quality of the fabric was not impressive. We changed our plan of purchasing.
(A) The quality of the fabric being ……
(B) We changed our …..
(C) In spite of the unimpressive …….
(l) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C
(4) A only
(5) All the three A, B and C
Ans. (1)

18. Madhuri has been consistent in her studies. Her performance in the examination was nothing else but excellent.
(A) Despite being consistent in her studies …….
(B Madhuri’s performance in the examination was not excellent because …….
(C) Because Madhuri was only consistent and not intelligent, her performance ……..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All the three A, B and C
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)

19. Don’t add so much chilly powder to the soup. Consumers are only small children.
(A) Because small children do not allow chilly powder ……
(B) Since small children do not consume more soup …….
(C) Adding more chilly powder to. soup makes the small children like the …..
(1) None
(2) A only
(3) B only
(4) C only
(5) A and C only
Ans. (1)

20. He always delays in taking any action. It makes others suffer a lot.
(A) His taking action on time makes ……
(B) Other suffer a lot because of …..
(C) On account of his procrastination…..
(l) A, B and C
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and C only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
Directions (21-25) : In each question, there are three sentences denoted by
(A), (B) and (C). Find our which two or three sentences convey the same meanings. If all three sentences are different, mark 5 as the answer i.e. ‘all different’.

21. (A) The Manager would like you to help him locate the fault.
(B) If you help him locate the fault, the Manager would like you.
(C) The Manager desires that you should provide him the necessary assistance to locate the fault.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (3)

22. (A) Although the strike of transporters continues, I shall come.
(B) I shall come If the strike of transporters continues.
(C) Even though I come, the strike of transporters is going to continue.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)

23. (A) Unlike the tribals who are hard working, the urban communities cannot withstand physical train.
(B) The tribals can withstand physical strain whereas urban communities cannot.
(C) Because the tribals are hardworking they can tolerate physical strain.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)

24. (A) Should you need a visa you must submit an application along with your Passport and a copy of Income tax returns.
(B) Unless you do not submit an application along with your passport and “copy of income tax returns, you will not get visa”.
(C) If you submit your application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns you do not need visa.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)

25. (A) The judge remarked that not all the accused were really guilty.
(B) The judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty while others were not.
(C) The judge remarked that all those who are accused include some who are not really guilty.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (4)

Directions (26-30): Each question is a set of 3 or 4 sentences which convey an idea. Of these, one or two is/are suppressed. To fill up the spaces of the suppressed sentence (s) two possible fillers denoted by (A) and (B) are given. Find out which one, two or none can fill up the space of the suppressed sentence (s) to make the paragraph meaningful and mark your answer accordingly.
26. As far as aircraft maintenance procedures are concerned, they are rigorous. (___)Such cases may end up in disastrous results, though exceptionally.
(A) All problems are immediately corrected on almost every occasion.
(B) Only due to urgency or want of aircraft for substitution, certain ones are overlooked.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

27. The interrogation lasted for about nine full working days (___). The judge observed that he was impressed with the outcome as the involvement of the accused in the crime was crystal clean.
(A) Hardly anything worth the name came out of such a marathon interrogation.
(B) The prosecution lawyer though in vain, had relentlessly applied all has wit to expose the accused.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)

28. Auto riding is a very fascinating hobby (___). It is obvious that they consider the hobby more important that anything else.
(A) Low or even middle income group can’t afford it.
(B) I know many people who has missed many important cases or opportunities in autoriding
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)

29. There is no doubt that we must befair and honest in all our dealings (___). What you really are is less important than what you are perceived by people around you.
(A) It means that perception assumes greater importance that reality
(B) But even more important is how you are perceived by others.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)

30. The admiration for those who fight against corruption in high places has always been very spontaneous amongst the common people in India. They unhasitantly appreciate such acts but are afraid of openly doing so far fear of the higher ups.
(A) They hold such people in high esteem who make sacrifices on principles and moral issues.
(B) They make verbose speeches of admiration and appreciation of such acts.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)

Solved LIC AO ADO Numerical Ability

2011-09-01T10:57:00.001-07:00

Solved LIC AO ADO Numerical Ability
Solved Paper - Quantitative Aptitude: LIC Officers Exam
Directions ( 1-5) Find out the wrong number in the following given sequence.

1. 7 4 6 9 20 52.5 160.5
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 20
(4) 9
(5) 52.5
Ans. (1)

2. 4 6 12 30 75 315 1260
(1) 315
(2) 75
(3) 12
(4) 6
(5) 30
Ans. (2)

3. 3 4 13 38 87 166 289
(1) 38
(2) 13
(3) 87
(4) 166
(5) 4
Ans. (4)

4. 4 5 9 29 111 556 3325
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 29
(4) 111
(5) 556
Ans. (3)

5. 2 6 16 38 84 176 368
(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 38
(4) 84
(5) 176
Ans. (4)

6. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(1) 4kmph
(2) 6kmph
(3) 8 kmph
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)

7. What approximate value should come in place of? in the following equation?
9876 ÷ 24.96 + 215.005-? = 309.99
(1) 395
(2) 295
(3) 300
(4) 315
(5) 310
Ans. (3)

8. Sunetra invested an amount of Rs. 50,000 to start a software business. After six months Nikhil joined her with an amount of Rs. 80,000. At the end of 3 years they earned a profit of Rs. 24, 500. What is Sunetra’s ‘share in the profit?
(1) Rs, 14,000
(2) Rs. 9423
(3) Rs. 10, 250
(4) Rs. 1. 50
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)

9. Two girls and 4 boys are to be seated in row in such a way that the girls do not sit together. In how many different ways can it be done?
(1) 720
(2) 480
(3) 360
(4) 240
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. Average weight of three boys P, T and R is 54.33 kgs while the average weight of three boys. T, F and G are 53 kgs. What is the average weight of P. T, R, F and H?
(1) 53.8 kgs
(2) 52.4 kgs
(3) 53.2 kgs
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)

11. If 2x + 3y + z = 55; x + z - y = 4 and y-x +z = 12 then what is the value of y?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 9
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)

12. 405 sweets were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of sweets received by each child is 20% of the total no. of children. How many sweets did each child receive?
(1) 15
(2) 45
(3) 9
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)

13. Sudharshan invested Rs. 15,000 at interest @ 10 p.c. p.a. for one year. If the interest is compounded every six months what amount will Sudharshan get at the end of the year?
(1) Rs. 16,537.50
(2) Rs. 16, 500
(3) Rs. 16, 525.50
(4) Rs. 18,150
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

14. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4: 7 respectively, lithe earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings of B decrease by 25% the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8 : 7 respectively what are A’s earnings?
(1) 26,000
(2) 28, 000
(3) 21,000
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)

15. The wheat sold by grocer contained 10% low quality wheat. What quantity of good quality wheat should be added to 150 kgs of wheat so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?
(1) 150 kgs
(2) 135 kgs
(3) 50 kgs
(4) 85 kgs
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

Directions (16-20) Each of the questions consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the questions and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) Is/are necessary to answer the question.
16. What is the area of the hall?
I. Material cost of flooring per sq metre is 250
II. Labour cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 3, 500
III. Total cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 14,500
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) All I, II and III
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)

17. What was the percentage of discount offered?
I. Profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 252 after giving discount was Rs. 52.
II. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been Rs.80.
III. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 40%.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and either I or III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I and either II or III only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)

18. What is the speed of the train?
I. The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec.
II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 mts. in 27 seconds.
III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.
(1) I and II only
(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

19. What is the population of State ‘A’?
I. After increasing the population of State A by 15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B is 7: 8 respectively
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
(1) I only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and II only
(4) Either only I or II and III
(5) All I, II and III
Ans. (4)

20. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
III. One eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I only
(4) III only
(5) Any one of three
Ans. (5)

21. Salaries of A, B and C are in the ratio of 2: 3: 5 respectively. If their salaries were increased by 15%, 10% and 20% respectively what will be the new respective ratio of their salaries?
(1) 3: 3: 10
(2) 23: 33: 60
(3) 10: 11:20
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)

22. If 3y + 2x = 47 and l1x = 7y then what is value of y — x?
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)

23. If the digits of a two digit number are interchanged the newly formed number is more than the original number by 18, and sum of the digit is 8 then what was the original number?
(1) 53
(2) 26
(3) 35
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)

24. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly equal. The number of the part which is not equal to the other four is the answer
(1) 136 x 12 ÷ 9 x 3 =
(2) 17 x 64 ÷ 6 x 3 =
(3) 36 x 17 ÷ 9 x 8
(4) 56 x 8 ÷ 14 x 17 =
(5) 76 x 6 ÷ 19 x 17
Ans. (5)

25. For which of the following values of x the Inequality x (x + 3) < 10 is satisfied? (1) x > 2, x < -5 (2) – 5 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)

Maths objective questions on area perimeter and menstruation

2011-09-01T10:56:00.001-07:00

Maths objective questions on area perimeter and menstruation
multiple choice questions on Perimeter and Area
MCQ on maths geometry area perimeter and menstruation
1. The length of a rectangle is 1 cm more than its width and its perimeter is 14 cm, then
the area of the rectangle is
(a) 16 cm2
(b) 14 cm2
(c) 12 cm2
(d) 10 cm2
Ans. (c)

2. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 1/3 rd and the width is decreased by 1/3rd , then
the area of the rectangle is decreased by the fraction.
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/8
Ans. (c)

3. A rectangular field 50 metres long and 42 metres broad contains a rectangular lawn
inside it surrounded by a gravel path of uniform width. If the width of the path is 6 m,
then the area of the path is
(a) 240 m2
(b) 480 m2
(c) 720 m2
(d) 960 m2
Ans. (d)

4. The cost of plastering the four walls of a room is Rs 25. The cost of plastering a room
twice in length, breadth and height will be
(a) Rs 50
(b) Rs 75
(c) Rs 100
(d) Rs 200
Ans. (c)

5. The sides of an equilateral triangle are (2a – b) cm, (a + 3b) cm and (2a – 2b + 1)
cm then the perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 21 cm
Ans. (d)

6. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Then its area is
(a) 0.0024 m2
(b) 0.0026 m2
(c) 0.003 m2
(d) 0.0015 m2
Ans. (c)

7. The area of a triangle, whose sides are 4 cm, l3 cm and 15 cm, is
(a) 21 cm2
(b) 24 cm2
(c) 48 cm2
(d) 56 cm2
Ans. (b)

8. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in integers and its area is also an integer. One
side is 21 cm and the perimeter is 48 cm, then the length of the shortest side is
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 14 cm
Ans. (b)

9. The diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm. Then the area of the rhombus is
(a) 64 cm2
(b) 100 cm2
(c) 80 cm2
(d) 40 cm2
Ans. (d)

10. The area of a parallelogram is 70 dm2 and its attitude is 7 dm, then the perimeter of a
rectangle of equal area standing on the same base is
(a) 40 dm
(b) 28 dm
(c) 34 dm
(d) 17 dm
Ans. (c)

11. If the radius of the circle is increased by 100%, then the area is increased by
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
Ans. (c)

12. If the difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm, then the
area of the circle is
(a) 111 cm2
(b) 148 cm2
(c) 259 cm2
(d) 154 cm2
Ans. (d)

13. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, then the area will be reduced by
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 12.5%
Ans. (c)

14. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and turned
into a sphere. The diameter of a sphere is
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.75 m
(c) 1.25 m
(d) 1.5 m
Ans. (c)

15. If a square and a circle have the same perimeter then
(a) the area of the circle is greater than that of square
(b) the area of the square is greater than that of circle
(c) the area of the square is l/? times that of the circle
(d) their areas are equal
Ans. (a)

16. A circular disc of radius 10 cm is divided into sectors with angles 120° and 150°, then
the ratio of the areas of two sectors is
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 8 : 7
Ans. (a)

17. Three metal cubes of volume 125 cm3, 64 cm3 and 27 cm3 are melted to form a new
cube, then the edge of the new cube formed is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans. (b)

18. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, then the percentage increase in the
surface area is
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300
Ans. (b)

19. A metal pipe has an external diameter of 4 cm and internal diameter of 3 cm and is
20cm long, then the volume, of the metal used is
(a) 22 cm3
(b) 110 cm3
(c) 220 cm3
(d) 440 cm3
Ans. (b)

20. A rectangular sheet of paper 22 cm long and 10 cm broad can be curved to form the
lateral surface area of a right circular cylinder in two ways. Then the difference
between the volumes of the two cylinders thus formed is
(a) 200 cm3
(b) 210 cm3
(c) 250 cm3
(d) 252 cm3
Ans. (b)

21. The height and base radius of a cone are each increased by 100%, then the volume of
the cone becomes
(a) double
(b) three times
(c) six times
(d) eight times
Ans. (d)

22. The radius of a sphere is increased by 50%, then the increase in surface area of a
sphere is
(a) 200%
(b) 150%
(c) 125%
(d) 50%
Ans. (c)

23. A right circular cone and a cylinder have a circle of unit radius as base and their
heights are equal to the radius itself and a hemisphere has the same radius, then their
volumes are proportional respectively to
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 3 : 2
Ans. (d)

24. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 3 cm. If the numerical values of the
area and the perimeter of the rectangle are equal, then the breadth of a rectangle will
be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 1 cm
(d) 5 cm
Ans. (b)

25. If the number of units in the circumference of a circle is same as the number of units
in the area, then the radius of the circle will be
(a) 1 unit
(b) 2 units
(c) 3 units
(d) 4 units
Ans. (b)

LIC PRevious paper of ADO :English language 2010

2011-09-01T10:55:00.001-07:00

LIC PRevious paper of ADO :English language 2010
Previous Year LIC ADO Recruitment Solved English Language
LIC ADO Solved Question Papers Book and Questions

Directions (1-5): In each question ,a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type are given. One of them or both of them may have a certain error. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among the four choices given be low each sentence to replace the incorrect words/group of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) i.e.. ‘No correction required’ as your answer.

1. RBI has asked banks that disclose the fees and commissions they have earned through the sell of life insurance policies.

(1) disclosure — selling

(2) disclosed — sell

(3) to disclose — sale

(4) can disclose — sales

(5) No correction required

Ans. (3)

2. Our Development Officer is very encourage and helps me do whatever is necessity to achieve my goals.

(1) encouraging — necessary

(2) encouraged - necessarily

(3) encourages — necessary

(4) encouraging — necessities

(5) No correction required

Ans. (1)

3. According to experts, the Indian banking system is better that of every developed countries.

(1) very good — any

(2) best - much

(3) more better — all

(4) better than - many

(5) No correction required

Ans. (4)

4. People should be buying health insurance at a young age and maintains it for a lifetime.

(1 be bought-maintain

(2) buy - maintain

(3) have bought - be maintaining

(4) not buy - will maintain

(5) No correction required

Ans. (2)

5 Life Insurance companies have appointed around 13 lakhs agents during 2008O9 despite the recession.

(1) nearly — because

(2) about — inspite

(3) approximate — on account

(4) almost — In

(5) No correction required

Ans. (5)

Directions (6-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Most of the world’s healthcare is financed directly by governments, but private insurance, which now makes up nearly a fifth of the total, looks set for a state-sponsored boom in the hope of solving problems in national systems of healthcare which include inadequate access to care and soaring costs.

In most countries state-financed healthcare is not available to all, so governments want private insurance to .be expanded to cover everyone. The most prominent effort is underway in America, where about 47 million lack health insurance of any kind. This effort is similar to reforms undertaken over the past decade in the Netherlands and Switzerland. To ensure equitable access, both countries forbid private insurers from discriminating against applicants because they are in poor health or at high risk of falling ill. This practice is known as “lemon dropping”.

A tightly regulated expansion of private Insurance-in effect turning health insurance into a utility - can thus expand coverage, This is also likely be true in developing countries, whose public healthcare systems are often hopelessly overstretched and underfunded, although because poor countries cannot afford the subsidies and regulatory mechanism of the rich world, coverage is likely to be confined to the better off.

The second reason why governments have turned to private insurance is cost control. The hope was that by ruthlessly tackling costs and promoting efficiency, market-minded insurers would help rein in runaway health inflation where governments could not. Whatever the role played in. a health system, private health insurance has added to total health expenses. it is no coincidence, that the countries with the biggest private health-insurance sectors-America, France, Germany and Switzerland - also have some of the highest healthcare costs per person.

There are several explanations for this Because a third party pays the bill, the true cost of health services is rarely made clear to them. Nor is the true price of insurance, especially if coverage is provided through an employer . This encourages over-insurance and overconsumption of healthcare. Another incentive problem also arises from lack of transparent pricing. Stud les have shown that the fees for similar procedures vary widely among hospitals in the same area. Because hospitals and doctors both decide on the services patients must have and dictate the price of those services, they often enjoy a powerful informational advantage over insurers. Thus doctors and hospitals have an informational advantage and an incentive to oversupply their services.

6. Why do governments look to private insurers to reduce inflation in the healthcare system?

(A) Private health insurance companies are professionally managed.

(B) It is in the interest of the private Insurers to do so

(C) Their pricing system does not reveal the hidden costs in healthcare.

(l) Only B (2) Only C

(3) Only B and C

(4) All A, B & C

(5) None of these
Ans. (5)

7. Which of the following is a problem facing healthcare system in developing countries?

(1) Quality healthcare is available only in private hospitals.

(2) Constant government interference in the system,

(3) Healthcare facilities are insufficient and often made available only to the rich.

(4) Subsidizing healthcare has resulted in many hospitals becoming loss making.

(5) Profitable hospitals are forced to bail out loss making ones.

Ans. (3)

8. Which of the following is TRUE about private health insurance?

(A) According to prevailing laws, private health• insurers can cater to only 20 percent of the population.

(B) In western countries private health Insurance is unregulated by the government.

(C) Most governments are now encouraging the participation of private companies in providing healthcare.

(l) Only A and C

(2) Only C

(3) Only A and B

(4) All A, B and C

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

9. What does the phrase “over consumption of healthcare’ convey in the context of the passage?

(1) People opt for unnecessary medical treatments because they do not have to pay for It.

(2) Healthcare consumes too much of a nation’s budget in developed countries.

(3) Government hospitals often recommend unnecessary procedures for patients.

(4) In developing countries, the healthcare system cannot cope with the demands of their population.

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

10. Why did the government of Switzerland prohibit the practice of lemon dropping?

(1) To reduce the profits of private health insurers.

(2) To facilitate equitable access to all its citizens.

(3) To prevent discrimination against the poor.

(4) To ensure that America’s healthcare system problems do not occur in theirs.

(5) To cut the cost of healthcare per person.

Ans. (2)

11. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Convincing governments to restrict private sector participation in health care.

(2) Criticizing developing countries for the efforts to reform their health care systems.

(3) Pointing out the advantages of adopting European healthcare reforms in developing countries.

(4) Elaborating the pros and cons of private sector participation in health insurance

(5) Stating that state interference in health insurance is undesirable.

Ans. (4)

12.. What impact has the lack of transparency In pricing had on healthcare costs?

(1) Patients have become key decision ‘makers in the treatment process.

(2) Medical personnel do not get uniform Incentives.

(3) Insurers and doctors conspire to charge exorbitant fees for treatment.

(4) Well off patients often end up with huge subsidies from hospitals.

(5) Doctors and hospitals have an informational advantage and an incentive to over-supply their services

Ans. (5)

Directions (13-14): Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?

13. CONFINED

(1) Captured

(2) Locked

(3) Detained

(4) Limited

(5) Imprisoned

Ans. (4)

14. COVER

(1) Conceal

(2) Hide

(3) Suppress

(4) Bury

(5) Include

Ans. (5)

15. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word CONTROL given in bold as used in the passage?

(1) Permit

(2) Obey

(3) Supremacy

(4) Powerless

(5) Increase

Ans. (5)

Directions (16-20) Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in.the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) After all India’s expected equipment requirement in the next five years will be huge, next only to China’s.

(B) Indian cellular equipment manufacturers however were not prepared for this surge in demand.

(C) In the 1990s cellular wireless telecom services in India were liberalized.

(D) To make Indian telecom manufacturers more self-sufficient, concrete step need to be taken to increase India’s R & b efforts in telecom.

(E) This resulted ma decrease in tariffs and the volume of cell phone subscribers grew phenomenally.

(F) Their lack of preparedness gave foreign players the opportunity to step in.

16. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(l) B

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E

(5) F

Ans. (3)

17. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

Ans. (1)

18. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2).B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

Ans. (3)

19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(4) 0

(5) E

Ans. (2)

20. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B

(2) C

(3) 0

(4) E

(5) F

Ans. (4)

21. RBI is ____ about the fact that many banks are ____ in mutual funds.

(1) concerned, investing

(2) worried, shared

(3) sad, credited

(4) interested, stocking

(5) anxious, lending

Ans. (1)

22. The high ___ of land in cities is one of the greatest in providing affordable housing.

(1) worth, boost.

(2) quality, decisions

(3) value, prevention

(4) cost, hindrances

(5) price, trouble

Ans. (4)

23. Today over ____ a million farmer households in India do not have ___ to banks.

(1) less need

(2) more, opportunity

(3) half, access

(4) extent, contribution

(5) partly, approach

Ans. (3)

24. Nowadays many general insurance products are through bank

(1) selling, networking

(2) distributed, branches

(3) disburse, personnel

(4) available, agent

(5) loaned., channel

Ans. (2)

25. To empower those living in rural areas NGOs are ___ self help groups and youth in vocational subjects.

(1) realising, working

(2) developing, taught

(3) emerging, instructing

(4) creating, learning

(5) forming, training

Ans. (5)

Solved LIC ADO paper Numerical Ability Questions memeory based

2011-09-01T10:53:00.003-07:00

Solved LIC ADO paper Numerical Ability Questions memeory based
LIC ADO Recruitment Exam Solved Paper numerical Ability
Free Exam Original Paper: LIC (ADO) 2010 NUMERICAL ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1. 99 ÷9 ÷ 0.5 =?

(1) 5.5

(2) 11

(3) 4.5

(4) 22

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

2. 8^2.8 x 64^3.6 ÷ 512^1.4 =8^?

(1) 5.8

(2) 14.2

(3) 8.6

(4) 9.2

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

3. 24% of 550 - ?%, of 124 = 76.2

(1) 45

(2) 30

(3) 50

(4) 35

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. 24.5 x 45.4x 2.5 =?

(1) 2880.25

(2) 2780.75

(3) 2770.75

(4) 2870.25

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

5. (1305/4)÷9=?

(1) 64.5

(2) 24.75

(3) 36.25

(4) 72.5

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

6. 2.5 x? =824.2

(1) 333.864

(2) 3-29.68.

(3) 337.-4

(4) 324.48

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

7. 416 x 18 - 2288 =?

(1) 5202

(2) 5000

(3) 5205

(4) 5002

(5) None of these

Ans. (5)

8. 54% of 675 =?

(1) 307.5

(2) 346.5

(3) 370.5

(4) 364.5

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

9. 888.88 + 684.48 + 726.66 =?

(1) 2230.02

(2) 2030.02

(3) 2003.02

(4) 2302.02

(5) None of these

Ans. (5)

10. 3960 ÷ (48 x 2.5) =?

(1) 206.25

(2) 42

(3) 33

(4) 260.25

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

11. A car covers a distance of 720 kms in 12 hours. What is the average speed of the car?

(1) 60 kmph

(2) 40 kmph

(3) 55 kmph

(4) 75 kmph

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

12. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customer 18% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.10, 207 for a dining table, then what was the original price of the dining table?

(1) Rs.9, 240

(2) Rs.8, 650

(3) Rs.9, 840

(4) Rs.7, 670

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

13. The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. The ratio of their ages is 4: 1 respectively. What is the son’s age?

(1) 12 years

(2) 14 years

(3) 16 years

(4) 24 years

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

14. What is the least number to be added to 2400 to make it a perfect square?

(1) 100

(2) 191

(3) 201

(4) 96

(5) None of these

Ans. (5)

15. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 2,840 at tie rate of 15 p.c.p.a. after 2 years?

(1) Rs. 905.5

(2) Rs. 951.5

(3) Rs. 928.9

(4) Rs. 915.9

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

16. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 2303. What is the greater number?

(1) 45

(2) 47

(3) 51

(4) 49

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

17. The difference between 31% of a number and 11% of the number is 360. What is 23% of that number?

(1) 426

(2) 414

(3) 408

(4) 432

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

18. A canteen requires 22 dozen apples for seven days. How many dozen apples will it require for 336 days?

(1) 1104

(2) 1128

(3) 1056

(4) 1047

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

19. In an examination It is required to get 750 of the aggr8gate marks to pass. A student gets 700 marks and IS declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?

(1) 1050

(2) 1140

(3) 1250

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

20. The cost of 4 watches arid 2 lockets is Rs. 1 0,800. What is the cost of 6 watches and 3 lockets?

(1) Rs.18, 400

(2)Rs.15, 850

(3) Rs.12, 600

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Ans. (5)

DIrections Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

21. In which organisation did the number of people being recruited increase each year?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. What i the respective ratio between the total number of people recruited by organisation A in the years 2008 and 2009 together to those recruited by organisation F in the years 2004 and 2005 together .

(1) 7:6

(2) 5:4.

(3) 6:7

(4) 4:5

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

23. Number of people recruited by organisation E in the year 2007 is approximately what percent of the total number of people recruited by that organisation over all the years together?

(1) 8

(2) 15

(3) 3

(4) 25

(5) 28

Ans. (2)

24. What is the total number of people recruited from all the organisation together in the year 2005?

(1) 1990

(2) 1230

(3) 1240

(4) 1200

(5) None of these

Ans. (5)

25. What is the percent increase in the number of people recruited by organisation D in the year 2006 from the previous year?

(1) 43.75

(2) 38.25

(3) 45.75

(4) 46.25

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

Solved previous paper Questions LIC ADO exam held in June 2010

2011-09-01T10:53:00.001-07:00

Solved previous paper Questions LIC ADO exam held in June 2010
All these questions are memory based and are from previous paper of LIC ADO exam
Reasoning ability from LIC ADO exam
LIC ADO Question Papers
LIC Exam Pattern

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet’?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Ans. (4)

2. D is sister of F, M is brother of F. K is brother of D and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?

(1) Son

(2) Daughter

(3) Son or daughter

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

3. The positions of how many digits in the number 839614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Ans. (1)

4. In a certain bode ‘STAGE’ is written as ‘4@©9’ and ‘EARN’ is written as 9©87. How is ‘NEST’ written in fat code?

(1) 497@

(2) 794@

(3) @©79

(4) 79@©

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

5. In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code

(1) DQBERSH

(2) FSDCTUJ

(3) DQBETUJ

(4) FSDCRSH

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

Directions 6-10): Study. the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given

H 3 $ E K 5 @ M % 1 8 2 T A F 6 W I © N V * P 4 Q ? R D Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?

(1) FAW

(2) N©*

(3) 4P?

(4) M@I

(5) $EH

Ans. (5)

7. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Ans. (4)

8. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?

(1) 2

(2) ©

(3) 8

(4) 6

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

9. If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the fourteenth from the right end?

(1) T

(2) K

(3) N

(4) P

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

10. How many such numbers are the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Ans. (5)

Q(11-15 )In following questions some symbols have been used to indicate relationship between elements as given below

‘P© Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than or equal to Q

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

‘P @ Q’,n-ieans ‘P is not smaller than Q

‘P % Q’ mea,s ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion( ss/are definitely’ true?

11. Statements:

R%T, T © K, K $ M, M @ V

Conclusions: I. M © T

II. R©K

III. K $ V

(1) None is true

(2) Only I and II are true

(3) Only II and III are true

(4) Only I and III are true

(5) All I, II and III are true

Ans. (3)

12. Statements:

W $ N, N © R, R @ K, K % F

Conclusions: I. F * R

II. R $ W

III.N © K

(1) None is true

(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only III is true

(5) Only I and III are true

Ans. (1)

13. Statements:

F @ M, M % W, W $ R, R © V

Conclusions: I. V $ M

II. F $ W

III. R © F

(1) None is true

(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only III is true

(5) Only I and III are true

Ans. (1)

14. Statements:

B $ D, D@ M, M % K, K©R

Conclusions: I. R $ M

II. K @ D

III. B $ M

(1) Only I and II are true

(2) Only I and III are true

(3) Only II and III are true

(4) All I, II and III are true

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

15. Statements:

N @ W, W * K, K ©V, V $ F

Conclusions: I. K * N

II. K©N

III. F©W

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true

(3) Only III is true

(4) Only either I or II is true

(5) None of these

Ans. (4)

Directions (16—20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S. T, V. W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. S is second to the right of V who is third to the right of T. Q is second to the left of T and fourth to the right of Z.W is third to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of T.

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which Is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) ZRV

(2) SPQ

(3) VZP

(4) TWR

(5) QWT

Ans. (5)

17. Who is to the immediate left of W?

(1) Q

(2) T

(3) S

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans. (1)

18. Who Is Second to the left of R?

(1) T

(2) Q

(3) W

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

19. Who is fourth to the left of P?

(1) R

(2) Z

(3) W

(5) Data inadequate

Ans. (4)

20. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?

(1) SQ

(2) TW

(3) ZV

(4) PS

(5) QW

Ans. (2)

Directions (21-25) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for Selecting Manager - Accounts in an organization.

The candidate must:

(1) be at least 28 years and not more than 33 years as on 01,06.2010.

(ii) be. a graduate with at least 55 percent marks.

(ill) be a post graduate degree diploma holder in financial management with atleast 60 percent marks.

(iv)M ust have post qualification experience of at least seven years in the Finance department of an organization.

(v) have secured 40 per cent marks in the personal interview.

In the case of a- candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT:

(A) at (iii) above but has completed CA/ICWA/CFA after his/her graduation, the case is to be referred to Executive Director — Finance.

(B) at (v) above but has secured at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview and at least 65 per cent marks in graduation, the case is to be referred to General Manager - Finance.

In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided In each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.06.2010.

21. Subodh Saha has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his post graduate degree in financial Management with 60 percent marks. He has secured percent marks in graduation and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born On 8th May1984.

Ans. (4)

22. Abhiram Gupta was born on 8th. July 1980. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past nine years- after-completing his post graduation degree in financial management with 68- per cent marks. He has secured 37 per cent marks in personal interview and 70 per cent marks in graduation.

Ans. (2)

23. Suchitra Kulkarni has been working in the finance departt4nt of an organisation for the past eight years. She was born on 12th April 1979. She has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduate diploma in financial management. She-has also secured 50 per cent marks in personal interview.

Ans. (3)

24. Atul Sangma was born on 24th March 190.He has secured 45 per cent marks in the personal Interview and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the seven years after completing his post graduate degree in Financial Management with 65 percent marks.

Ans. (3)

25. Neha Juneja was born on 4th September 1981. She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her ICWA after obtaining 58 per cent marks In graduation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the personal interview.

Ans. (1)

english grammar Objective questions and Answers MCQ Quiz

2011-09-01T10:52:00.001-07:00

english grammar Objective questions and Answers MCQ Quiz
Beginning English Multiple Choice Test
Grammar multiple choice questions ...
Directions—In question below , the sentences has been given in Active/Passive Voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate your correct answer.

1. Someone pulled the bull violently. .
(A) The bull had been pulled violently by someone.
(B) The bull was to be pulled violently by someone.
(C) The bull had been pulled violently.
(D) The bull was pulled violently.
Ans. (D)

Directions—In questions 2-6, a part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.

2. If I am the P.M. I would ban all processions.
(A) will be
(B) were
(C) am
(D) no improvement
Ans. (B)

3. Mrs. Madhuri has great respect and unlimited faith in her Director.
(A) respect and unlimited faith for
(B) respect for and unlimited faith for
(C) respect for and unlimited faith in
(D) respect in and unlimited faith for
Ans. (C)

4. He is addicted to smoke.
(A) addicted to smoking
(B) used to smoke
(C) addicted of smoking
(D) addicted with smoking
Ans. (A)

5. Write down the address lest you may forget.
(A) you may not forget
(B) you cannot forget
(C) you will forget
(D) you should forget
Ans. (D)

6. We used to get up early in the morning, have breakfast and then went out to play.
(A) go out to play
(B) gone out to play
(C) had gone out to play
(D) played
Ans. (D)

Directions—In questions 7-11, choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold and indicate your correct answer.

7. Transparent
(A) Clear
(B) Ambiguity
(C) Opaque
(D) Crystal
Ans. (B)

8. Encountered
(A) Avoided
(B) Enriched
(C) Faced
(D) Overcome
Ans. (A)

9. Handy
(A) Cumbersome
(B) Handful
(C) Unwieldy
(D) Heavy
Ans. (D)

10. Elegance
(A) Pride
(B) Beauty
(C) Coarseness
(D) Vulgarity
Ans. (D)

11. Capricious
(A) Firm
(B) Fickle
(C) Indefinite
(D) Defiant
Ans. (A)

Directions—In questions Nos. 12—21, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is rightly spelt. Find the word and indicate your correct answer.

12. (A) Entirty
(B) Gratious
(C) Discern
(D) Contestent
Ans. (C)

13. (A) Reminiscence
(B) Renounciation
(C) Recolection
(D) Relaxasion
Ans. (A)

14. (A) Scenary
(B) Granery
(C) Visionary
(D) Luminery
Ans. (C)

15. (A) Colaborate
(B) Coroborate
(C) Cooperate
(D) Colocate
Ans. (C)

16. (A) Fulifil
(B) Ill will
(C) Fabbulous
(D) Usefull
Ans. (B)

17. (A) Receprocate
(B) Recieve
(C) Recetation
(D) Receipt
Ans. (D)

18. (A) Traveling
(B) Remitance
(C) Kidnaping
(D) Equitable
Ans. (D)

19. (A) Necessary
(B) Temparory
(C) Itinerary
(D) Sanguinery
Ans. (C)

20. (A) Psycholagy
(B) Appology
(C) Criminolegy
(D) Archaeology
Ans. (D)

21. (A) Asociate
(B) Intigrate
(C) Appropriate
(D) Exhilerate
Ans. (C)

Fill in the blanks

22. We shall finish the work before he ....... back.
(A) would come
(B) comes
(C) will come
(D) shall come
Ans. (B)

23. His supporters began to .......... and he was left alone.
(A) fall off
(B) fall up
(C) fall out
(D) fall away
Ans. (A)

24. I devote much of my time ......... writing.
(A) in
(B) to
(C) on
(D) at
Ans. (B)

25. There was an understanding ......... the two.
(A) in
(B) between
(C) within
(D) among
Ans. (B)

26. He ............ her for a long time-before he finally decided to marry her.
(A) knew
(B) has known
(C) had known
(D) will have known
Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 27-): In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence.

27. Murder of newborn child—
(A) Homicide
(B) Regicide
(C) Fatricide
(D) Infanticide
Ans. (D)

28. A person who hates women—
(A) Misanthropist
(B) Masochist
(C) Misogynist
(D) Misogamist
Ans. (C)

29. A sea abounding in islands—
(A) Strait
(B) Archipelago
(C) Ocean
(D) Gulf
Ans. (B)

30. Changing one’s mind too quickly—
(A) Adaptability
(B) Instability
(C) Versatility
(D) Vacillation
Ans. (B)

31. A person’s first speech—
(A) Preface
(B) Maiden
(C) Opener
(D) Extempore
Ans. (B)
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom / phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which Best Expresses the Meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct response.
32. My repeated attempts to get refund from the civic authorities were of no avail.
(A) Unsuccessful
(B) Postponed
(C) Useless
(D) Delayed
Ans. (A)

33. He was progressing by leaps and bounds because of his hard work.
(A) Rapidly
(B) Slowly
(C) Peacefully
(D) Strongly
Ans. (A)

34. To emerge out of thin air means to.
(A) Appear suddenly
(B) Descend gradually
(C) Fall down quickly
(D) Enter from space
Ans. (A)

35. The news of the accident came as a bolt from the blue.
(A) Something unexpected
(B) Something unpleasant
(C) Something horrible
(D) Something unexpected and unpleasant
Ans. (D)

Solved Indian History test

2011-09-01T10:51:00.003-07:00

Solved Indian History test
History Sample Test Paper Solved 1. The British Government declared to leave India in any case before June, 1948 in—
(A) 1946A.D.
(B) February 1947 A.D.
(C) April 1947 A.D.
(D) June 1947 A.D.
Ans. (A)

2. The Muslim league demanded a separate home land for the Indian Muslims openly for the first time at its annual session
held in Lahore in the year—
(A) 1938A.D.
(B) 1939A.D.
(C) 1940A.D.
(D) 1941A.D.
Ans. (C)
3. Match List—I with List—II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List—I
(Congress sessions)
(a) Lucknow session, 1916
(b) Lahore session, 1929
(c) Karachi session, 1931
(d) Faizpur session, 1936

List—II
(Ideological formulations)
1. Full Democracy
2. Congress-League Pact
3. Puma Swaraj Resolutions
4. Adoption of Fundamental Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (B)

4. Which of the following reasons intensified the labour movements in India in the Frist Quarter of the 20th Centuary?
1. Influenëe of British Labour Movement
2. Russian Revolution of 1917
3. Rise in cost of living
4. Legislative measures of the British against Indian labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans. (A)
5. According to the Cabinet Mission an Interim National Government was formed at the Centre and the Constituent Assembly
held its First Session on—
(A) 9 December, 1946
(B) 8 December, 1946
(C) 7 December, 1946
(D) 6 December, 1946
Ans. (A)

6. Who among the following is considered to be the father of the Idea of Pakistan?
(A) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(B) Rahmat Ali
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmad Khan
Ans. (A)

7. Consider the following passage :
“His records proclaim him as a feudatory of the emperor Somesvara III. He was his capitals at Talakad in the South and Bankpura in
the North. It was in A. D. 1137 that he performed the great ceremony of Tulapurusha.”
The above passage refers to —
(A) Mayursarman
(B) Ananta Varman Chodaganga
(C) Yayati Mahashivgupta-I
(D) Vishnuvardhana
Ans. (D)

8. “Service was his portion in life”. This was applicable to —
(A) Buddhist Bhikshu
(B) Vaisya Varna
(C) Sudra Varna
(D) Chandala
Ans. (C)

9. Megasthenese States —”There was no slavery in India.” This statement must have been made because —
(A) There was absence of slavery in India
(B) Slavery was not prevalent in India in the extreme from as he be had seen in Greece
(C) He moved only with the king and elites in the capital
(D) He work this on hearsay
Ans. (B)

10. “Amongst his great nobles he (the king) was so predominant that none dare lift his head too high but with the humble classes he
was benevolent and debonair, willingly giving them audience and hearing their petitions. He was pleased to accept their presents,
taking them into his hands and holding them to his breast.”
Consider the question given above and indicate who it is attributed to and who was the king referred to in it —
(A) Monserrate — Akbar
(B) Tavernier — Jahangir
(C) Fitch — Shahjahan
(D) Hawkings — Aurangazeb
Ans. (A)

11. “Why should the neglected state of this land create uneasiness in our minds and why should we expend our money and time to
vender it fruitful ? We may be deprived of it in a single moment, and our exertions would benefit neither ourselves nor our
children.”
The above statement was made by —
(A) Akbar
(B) Monserrate
(C) Tavernier
(D) Bernier
Ans. (D)
12. The statement that “If by worshipping stones one can find God, I shall worship a mountain”, was made by —
(A) Ramananda
(B) Namdev
(C) Guru Nanak
(D) Kabir
Ans. (D)

13. “I issue such order to the people as I consider to be beneficial for them and the State. I do not know whether they are permitted by
the Shariat or not”. This was said by —
(A) Jalaluddin Khilji
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
(D) Muhammad Tughluq
Ans. (B)
14. “No one is allowed to marry outside his own caste, or to exchange are profession or trade for another or to follow more than
business.” This observation was made by —
(A) Megasthenese
(B) Fa Hien
(C) Hiuen-Tsaing
(D) Alberuni
Ans. (D)

15. Every pearl in the Royal crown is but the crystallized drop of blood fallen from the tearful eyes of the Poor Peasant.
The above remark about the poverty of the Indian Peasants during the Delhi sultanate was made by —
(A) Ziauddin Barani
(B) Ibn Batuta
(C) Minhajuddin Siraj
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans. (B)

16. “Decay is inherent in all component beings. Work out your own salvation with deligence.” These words are attributed to —
(A) Krishna
(B) Mahavira
(C) The Buddha
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans. (C)
17. “There was little sympathy in spite of loud professions of loyalty. Moderate and extremist alike learnt with satisfaction of German
Victories. There was no love for Germany of course, only the desire to see our rulers humbled.” Who among the following wrote
this?
(A) C.R.Das
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Ravindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (B)
18. Panchsheel was declared by India and China in—
(A) 1952A.D.
(B) 1953A.D.
(C) 1954A.D.
(D) 1955A.D.
Ans. (C)

`9. Who worked for the upliftment of Ezhavazas in Kerla in 20th century?
(A) Naicker
(B) Narayan Guru
(C) C .N. Annadurai
(D) C. Raju
Ans. (B)

20. The university Grants Commission was constituted in 1953 A.D. which among the followmg first recommended for it?
(A) The Hartog Committee 1929.A.D.
(B) Sargeant Plan of Education, 1944 AD.
(C) Radha Krishan Commission, 1948—49 AD.
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

21. Which one was not a principle of the Panchsheel?
(A) World peace and International Co-operation
(B) Respect for each other’s Territory and Sovereignty
(C) Non-aggression
(D) Equality and Mutual benefit
Ans. (A)

22. The first tri-colour flag was hoisted on—
(A) 3lstJanauary, 1928
(B) 31st December, 1929
(C) 26th January, 1950
(D) 15th August, 1947
Ans. (B)

23. Who were the leaders of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Mohd. Ali
(B) Shaukat Ali
(C) Both of them
(D) Neither of them
Ans. (C)

24. What was the net gain of Non-co-operation Movement?
(A) Removed fear of the Britishers from the minds of the people
(B) Weakened the British government
(C) Brought National Unity
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)

25. How did the British Government react to the Wardha Resolution?
(A) They gave their counter proposals
(B) They banned the Congress party
(C) The leaders were arrested
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

26. Which, among the following, Round Table Conferences held in London, was attended by M.K. Gandhi as the sole representative
of the Congress?
(A) 1st in 1930 A.D.
(B) 2nd in 193l A.D.
(C) 3rd in 1932 A.D.
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

27. Who was the first Muslim to preside over the session of Indian National Congres?
(A) Badruddin Tyaibji
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Liaqat Ali
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmed Khan
Ans. (A)
28. Which among the following, Indians Political parties, decided to co-operate with the working of the Simon Commission?
(A) The Hindu Mahasabha
(B) All India Muslim league
(C) National Liberal Federation
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
29. On 23rd ‘March 1940. The Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Hyderabad session
(B) Karachi session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)

30. The “call of deliverance day” was given by—
(A) The Muslim League
(B) The Congress
(C) The Hindu Mahasabha
(D) The Communist Party
Ans. (A)

31. In which year All India Muslim League was founded?
(A) 1904A.D.
(B) 1905A.D.
(C) 1906A.D.
(D) 1909A.D.
Ans. (C)

32. On 23rd March 1940, the Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Karachi session
(B) Hyderabad session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)

33. 1951, Saw the biggest peasant guerrilla war so for the Modern Indian History—
(A) Bombay
(B) Noakhali
(C) Tebhaga
(D) Telengana
Ans. (D)

34. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
(A) Lord Wavell
(B) Sir Stafford Cripps
(C) Lord Pethic-Lowrence
(D) A.V. Alexander
Ans. (A)

35. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in the year —
(A) 1932
(B) 1930
(C) 1932
(D) 1925
Ans. (B)

Biology MCQ

2011-09-01T10:51:00.001-07:00

Biology MCQ
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions Quiz
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: Biology mcq quiz
Free Online Multiple choice Solved Questions Biology

1. The chief role of nucleolus in a nucleus concerns
(a) Organization of chromosome.
(b) Ribosome synthesis
(c) Chromatid separation
(d) DNA replication
Ans. (b)

2. The word chromosome was given by
(a) Johannsen
(b) Waldeyer
(c) Benda
(d) Flemming
Ans. (b)

3. Chromosomes are concerned with
(a) Respiration
(b) Assimilation
(c) Transmission of hereditary-characters
(d) Nutrition
Ans. (c)

4. The centromere of a chromosome is also called
(a) Satellite
(b) Primary constriction
(c) Secondary constriction
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)

5. A telocentric chromosome differs from an acrocentric chromosome in that
(a) The former has a sub terminal centrally located centromere
(b) The centromere in the former is terminal and latter has medially located centromere
(c) The former has sub terminal centromere and the latter has medially located centromere
(d) The former has terminal and the latter has sub terminal centromere
Ans. (d)

6. The principal protein of cilia and flagella is
(a) Tubulin
(b) Albumin
(c) Globulin
(d) Actin
Ans. (a)

7. In cell transport the difference between permeable transport and bulk transport relates to
(a) Structure of molecules allowed to pass through
(b) Solvent system as well as structure of molecules is applicable
(c) Molecular weight of atoms allowed passing through
(d) Solvent system is applicable
Ans. (a)

8. Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Vacuole
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (b)

9. The term mitosis was given by
(a) Farmer
(b) Flemming
(c) Boveri
(d) Moore
Ans. (b)

10. The sequence in the cell cycle is
(a) S, G1, G2, M
(b) S, M, G1, G2
(c) G1, S, G2, M
(d) G2, S, M, G2
Ans. (c)

11. Which is the shortest phase in the cell cycle?
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) S2
(d) M
Ans. (d)

12. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
(a) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA
(b) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA
(c) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA
(d) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and same amount of DNA
Ans. (d)

13. The role of mitosis is not merely to divide a cell into two daughter cells but to ensure genetic continuity from one cell generation to another cell generation. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity is
(a) Formation of cells with new chromosomes
(b) Formation of two daughter cells
(c) Formation of two cells with identical DNA
(d) Halving the chromosome number between the two new cells
Ans. (c)

14. If cells in process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
(a) Anaphase
(b) Prophase
(c) Telophase
(d) Metaphase
Ans. (d)

15. A stage of mitosis in which chromosomes get arranged in the form of an equatorial plate in the centre of a dividing cell is called
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)

16. During mitosis, metaphase differs from anaphase in having
(a) Same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(b) Half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(c) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(d) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
Ans. (c)

17. In which phase of mitosis the chromatids of chromosomes separate from eacb other?
(a) Anaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Metaphase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)

18. The phragmoplast is organised
(a) At the beginning of anaphase
(b) At the end of anaphase
(c) At the beginning of telophase
(d) At the end of telophase
Ans. (b)

19. How many divisions must occur in a cell of root tip to form 128 cells?
(a) 128
(b) 127
(c) 64
(d) 3
Ans. (b)

20. The difference in the division of a plant cell and animal cell is in
(a) Spindle formation
(b) Cell plate formation
(c) Movement of chromosomes from the equatorial plane
(d) Coiling of the chromosomes
Ans. (b)

21. Meiosis involves
(a) One division of nucleus and one division of chromosome
(b) Two divisions of nucleus and one division of chromosome
(c) One division of nucleus and two divisions of chromosome
(d) Two divisions of nucleus and two divisions of chromosome
Ans. (b)

22. Which is the longest stage of meiotic division?
(a) Prophase
(b) 11etaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (a)

23. During meiosis, crossing over occurs at
(a) Diplotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diakinesis
Ans. (c)

24. At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated?
(a) Prophase II
(b) Prophase I
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Anaphase II
Ans. (c)

25. The minimum number of meiotic divisions required to obtain 100 pollen grains of wheat
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 150
Ans. (a)

Business Quiz India objective questions

2011-09-01T10:50:00.001-07:00

Business Quiz India objective questions
General Knowledge Questions For Business Quiz Competitions in India
India Business Quiz with Answers

1. Gautam Singhania is associated with
1. Jindal Group
2. Microsoft
3. Raymonds
4. Wipro
Ans. (3)

2. Rourkela Steel Plant was set up in collaboration with
1. Germany
2. Britain
3. Russia
4. France
Ans. (1)

3. ‘Avenger’ is a bike model launched by
1. Bajaj
2. Yamaha
3. Honda
4. None of these
Ans. (1)

4. The ad line ‘Flying for Everyone’ is associated with which airlines?
1. Jet Airways
2. Air Deccan
3. Spice Jet
4. Kingfisher Airlines
Ans. (3)

5. The e-Choupal programme, which uses Internet stations in the villages, is an initiative of
1. Reliance Group
2. Infosys
3. LalbhaiGroup
4. ITC Ltd.
Ans. (4)

6. NABARD stands for
1. National Bank for Arboriculture and Rural Development
2. National Board for Advanced Research and Development
3. National Body for Aeronautical Research and Development
4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Ans. (4)

7. Which company is the world’s second largest automaker?
1. Suzuki
2. Ford
3. Toyota
4. Honda
Ans. (3)

8. Which are the new promoters of Dabhol Power Company (DPC)?
1. GE and Bechtel
2. GE and ABB
3. Bechtel and Tatas
4. Bechtel and Reliance Energy
Ans. (1)

9. Which of the following has become the hottest job sector/industry in India now?
1. Information Technology
2. IT - Enabled Services (ITES)
3. Retail Trade
4. Telecom
Ans. (2)

10. The ad line Connecting India is linked with
1. BSNL
2. Airtel
3. MTNL
4. Hutch
Ans. (1)

11. Lufthansa is an air lines from
1. France
2. Russia
3. Poland
4. Germany
Ans. (4)

12. Fortis Hospitals chain is an enterprise of
1. Cipla
2. Aventis
3. Ranbaxy
4. Glaxo
Ans. (3)

13. C-class is a vehicle launched by
1. Maruti Suzuki
2. Ford
3. Mercedes - Benz
4. GM
Ans. (3)

14. Which is the first public sector unit in India to be disinvested?
(1) CMC Ltd.
(2) Modern Food Industries
(3) BALCO
(4) Hindustan Zinc Ltd
Ans. (2)

15. The ad line Going beyond expectations’ is associated with
1. Singapore Airlines
2. Malaysia Airlines
3. Indian Airlines
4. Japan Airlines
Ans. (2)

16. The company Easy Bill had been launched by
1. Hero Group
2. Modi Group
3. Lalbhai Group
4. Aditya Birla Group
Ans. (2)

17. British oil and gas firm Cairn Energy had struck oil in
1. Bombay High
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Rajasthan
Ans. (4)

18. Which of the following is not a product from Hindustan Lever Ltd.
1. Ayush
2. Fair and Lovely
3. Sunsilk
4. Anne French
Ans. (4)

19. Deepak Parekh is associated with
1. ICICI
2. HDFC
3. Infosys
4. Microsoft
Ans. (2)

20. Which company sells electronic goods in ndia?
1. Hyundai .
2. Honda
3. Toyota
4. Ford
Ans. (1)

21. NOVA — 135 is a scooter introduced by
1. Bajaj
2. Honda
3. Kinetic
4. Yamaha
Ans. (3)

22.. The slogan Make Life Simple is associated with
1. SBI card
2. BOB card
3. Standard Chartered Bank Card
4. None of these
Ans. (1)

23. Whirlpool Home Appliances company is a company from
1. France
2. Italy
3. UK
4. USA
Ans. (3)

24. Richard Branson is closely connected with
1. Indian Airlines
2. Jet Airways
3. Virgin Atlantic
4. Lufthansa
Ans. (3)
.
25. Servo brand lubricants are from
1. Bharat Petroleum
2. Hindustan Petroleum
3. IBP
4. Indian Oil
Ans. (4)

Business Quiz Indian Companies Firms Quiz Containing MCQ Multiple choice Questions

2011-09-01T10:49:00.001-07:00

Business Quiz Indian Companies Firms Quiz Containing MCQ Multiple choice Questions
Management MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS MCQ
Free multiple choice questions on Indian Business
1. The currency of South Africa is
(1) Guilder
(2) Pound
(3) Rand
(4) Shekel
Ans. (3)

2. ‘Octavia’- brand belongs to which car manufacturer?
(1) BMW
(2) Skoda
(3) Hyundai
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)

3. Aqua guard water purification systems are products from
(1) Kenstar
(2) Voltas
(3) Blue star
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)

4. The ad-line ‘Good people to bank with’ is associated with which bank?
(1) Punjab National Bank
(2) State Bank of India
(3) Citi Bank
(4) Union Bank of India
Ans. (4)

5. Telecom company Nokia belongs to which country?
(1) Denmark
(2) USA
(3) Sweden
(4) Finlan1
Ans. (4)

6. ‘The famous book “Two Lives” has been written by
(1) Anurag Mathur
(2) Arundhati Roy
(3) Vikram Seth
(4) Shiv Khera
Ans. (3)

7. ‘Fair and Lovely’ range of products belong to
(1) Procter and Gamble
(2) Lakme
(3) Hindustan Lever
(4) Godrej
Ans. (3)

8. MTNL provides which one of the following quality Services?
(1) Garuda
(2) Trump
(3) Dolphin
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)

9. “Pantene” shampoo belongs to which of the following companies?
(1) Procter & Gamble
(2) Colgate & Pa1molive
(3) Hindustan Lever
(4) Revlon
Ans. (1)

10. ‘Data One’ broadband services have been launched by which organisation?
(1) BSNL
(2) MTNL
(3) Tata Walky
(4) Reliance India Mobile
Ans. (1)

11. National Defence Academy is located at:
(1) Wellington
(2) Khadakvasla
(3) Dehradun
(4) Chennai
Ans. (2)

12. ‘Real’ Juices are products of which company?
(1) Nestle
(2) Dabur
(3) ITC
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)

13. Hindustan Machine Tools is a
(1) Private Sector Company
(2) Joint Sector Company
(3) Public sector Company
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

14. Rahul Dravid is associated with the advertising campaign of which bank?
(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) Bank of India
(3) HSBC
(4) HDFC
Ans. (1)

15. What does JVC - a Japanese Electronic giant stand for?
(1) Japan Image Company
(2) Japanese Venture Corporation
(3) Japan Victor Company
(4) Note of these
Ans. (3)

16. Firm “AVENTIS” has been created by the merger of which of the following two companies?
(1) Rhone Poulec & Hoechst
(2) Ciba& Sandoz
(3) Centurion Bank & Twentieth Century Finance
(4) Reuters & Dow Jones
Ans. (1)

17. Which of the following is true about Ted Turner?
(1) He is founder of CNN
(2) He is partner in Microsoft Corporation
(3) He is founder of Newsweek
(4) He is. founder of the Reader’s Digest
Ans. (1)

18. ‘Georgia Gold’ brand of hot or cold beverages belong to which company?
(1) Pepsi
(2) Nestle
(3) HLL
(4) Coca-Cola
Ans. (4)

19. Apple Computers Inc. was started by which of the following entrepreneurs?
(1) Jack Welch
(2) Bill Gates
(3) Steve Jobs
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

20. Procter & Gamble took over which famous brand recently?
(1) Revlon
(2) Vicks
(3) Gillette
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

21. Which of the following is not an advertising agency?
(1) Sergio Tachini
(2) Saatchi & Saatchi
(3) Trikaya grey
(4) Clarion Bates
Ans. (1)

22. The car “Nexia” belongs to which one of the following companies?
(1) Honda
(2) Daewoo
(3) General Motors
(4) Fiat
Ans. (2)

23. Which of the following companies is also present in other sectors like FMCG, Electrical equipment, apart from IT?
(1) Polaris
(2) Infosys
(3) Wipro
(4) Patni Computers
Ans. (3)

24. Which Indian businessman brought back the ‘Sword of Tippu Sultan’ to India?
(1) Kurmaramangalam Birla
(2) Ratan Tata
(3) Naveen Jindal
(4) Vijay Mallya
Ans. (4)

25.. Where are the Headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?
(1) Singapore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Manila
(4) Mumbai
Ans. (3)

Syllabus for post of Senior Teacher Primary in RPSC

2011-09-01T10:48:00.002-07:00

Syllabus for post of Senior Teacher Primary in RPSC

PAPER – I
For the competitive examination for the post of senior teacher :-
1. The question paper will carry maximum 200 marks.
2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 hours.
3. The question paper will carry 100 questions of multiple choices.
4. Paper shall include following subjects carrying the number of marks as shown against them :-
(i) Geographical, Historical, Cultural and general knowledge of Rajasthan. 80 marks
(ii) Current Affairs of Rajasthan 20 marks
(iii) General knowledge of world and India 60 marks
(iv) Educational Psychology. 40 marks

Paper II
A. For the post of Senior Teacher :-
1. The question paper will carry maximum 300 marks.
2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 Hours 30 Minutes
3. The question paper will carry 150 questions of multiple choices.
4. Paper shall include following subjects carrying the number of marks as shown against them :-
(i) Knowledge of secondary and senior secondary standard about relevant subject matter. 180 marks
(ii) knowledge of graduation standard about relevant subject matter 80 marks
(iii) Teaching methods of relevant subject. 40 marks

Model paper Rajasthan teacher jobs Primary and Senior Teacher

2011-09-01T10:48:00.000-07:00

Model paper Rajasthan teacher jobs Primary and Senior Teacher
General knowledge of world and India
This GK test is useful for
Senior Primary Teacher Vacancy in RPSC
1. Which one of the following is used for making Bullet-Proof material ?
(A) Poly-Vinyl Chloride
(B) Poly-amide
(C) Poly-carbonate
(D) Polyethylene

Ans:-C

2. Television signals cannot be received ordinarily beyond particular distance due to—
(A) Weakness of signals
(B) Weak antenna
(C) Absorption of signals in the air
(D) Curvature of the earth

Ans:-D

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Television
(c) A.T.M.
(b) Mobile Phone
(d) X-Rays
List-II
1. W. Rontgen
2. John Shepherd Barron
3. J.L.Baird
4. John Edwards
Codes:
(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1

Ans:-D

4. Cassini space probe had spotted two new moons around which of the planet of the Solar System?
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Pluto
(D) Saturn

Ans:-D

5. When development in Economy takes place, the share of tertiary sector in National
Income—
(A) Increases
(B) Declines
(C) Remains constant
(D) First rises and then falls

Ans:-A

6. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to investigate the conditions of Backward Classes?
(A) Article-343(b)
(B) Article-342
(C) Article-339
(D) Article-340

Ans:-D

7. Which Article of the Constitution provides for appointment of a National Commission to investigate all matters relating to safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes?
(A) Article-330 (b)
(B) Article-335
(C) Article-338 (d)
(D) Article-336

Ans:-C

8. Which one of the following is not a parameter in Human development Index?
(A)Infant mortality rate
(B)Life expectancy
(C)Social inequality
(D)Real percapita income

Ans:-C

9. Which one of the following Fungus is edible?
(A) Penicillium
(B) Mucor
(C) Rhizopus
(D) Morchella

Ans:-D

10. Which one of the following is NOT used by Night Vision Cameras?.
(A) Amplified light
(B) Infrared sensors
(C) Heat radiation from objects
(D) X-Ray radiation from objects

Ans:-A

11. The Earth and the Moon are about same distance from the Sun, yet on the average the Earth is much warmer than Moon. Its reason is—
(A)The Moon is much smaller than the Earth
(B)Nights on the Moon are much longer
(C)The Moon has almost no atmosphere
(D)The surface of the Moon is darker

Ans:-C

12. A 80 kg man, a 40 kg woman and a 20 kg girl skydive simultaneously. If their parachutes are identical, then—
(A) The girl will land first of all
(B) The woman will land first of all
(C) The man will land first of all
(D) All three will land simultaneously

Ans:-D

13. Match List-I with List-II about the recent Yash Bharti awards and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Abhishek Bachchan.
(b) Shitla Singh
(c) Taluqdar Yadav
(d) Yogesh Praveen
List-II
1. Journalism
2. Wrestling
3. History-writing
4. Art
5. Music
Codes:
(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 5 2 4 1

Ans:-C

14. The Governing Council of Shivaji was called
(A) Mantri Parishad
(B) Mantri Sabha
(C) Mantri Mandal
(D) Ashta Pradhan

Ans:-D

15. Who f the following Sultans introduced the system of ‘Patta’ and ‘Qabuliyat’ to help the peasants?
(A) Giyasuddin Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Tughlaq
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Sher Shah

Ans:-D

16. Who of the following Mughal Emperors abolished the custom of ‘Sijda’ of Prostration?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb

Ans:-C

17. Who among the following rulers introduced the principle of ‘Local Responsibility’ in village administration?
(A) Akbar
(B) Sher Shah Sun
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Dara Shikoh

Ans:-B

18. Who among the following composed the famous flag song ‘Jhanda Unchaa Rahe
Hamara’ ?
(A) Maithili Sharan Gupta
(B) Surya Kant Tripathi ‘Nirala’
(C) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’
(D) Shyam Lal Gupta ‘Parshad’

Ans:-D

19. Who among the following was associated with ‘Samvaad Kaumudi’, ‘Miratul Akhabar’ and ‘Vedant College’?
(A) Ishwar Chandra Vidya-sagar
(B) Keshav Chandra Sen
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Henry Vivian Derezio

Ans:-C

20. The meaning of cultural lag is—
(A) When material culture is left behind non- material culture
(B) When non-material culture is left behind material culture
(C) When both material and non-material cultures rest on same point
(D) None of the above

Ans:-B

21. Gasohol is a combination of gasoline and—
(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Propylene
(D) Both -A and B

Ans:-D

22. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly—
(A) Two minutes
(B) Four minutes
(C) Eight minutes
(D) Sixteen minutes

Ans:-C

23. The only active volcano in India is—
(A) Vesuvius
(B) Etna
(C) Barren Island
(D) Stromboli

Ans:-C

24. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area
(B) Arunachal Pradesh has the largest area under dense forests
(C) Nagaland is the most forecasted State of India
(D) Haryana is the least forested State of India

Ans:-C

25. In which one of the following parts of atmosphere most large aero planes, like jets,
generally fly ?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Exosphere

Ans:-A

26. The following rivers of India flow into the Bay of Bengal—
1. Godavari
2. Kaveri
3. Krishna
4. Mahanadi
5. Subarnarekha
Which one of the following is their correct sequence from South to North
(A) 3,2,4, 1,5
(B) 5,4, 1,3,2
(C) 4,5, 1,3,2
(D) 2,3, 1,4,5

Ans:-D

27. The real aim of Lord Curzon to partition Bengal was—
(A) To create a Muslim majority province
(B) To help the economic dev4opment of East Bengal
(C) To weaken the forces of nationalism in Bengal
(D) None of the above

Ans:-C

28. When Gandhiji was arrested during salt satyagraha, who took his place as the leader of the movement?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Abbas Tayabji

Ans:-D

29. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers ?
(A) Agha Khan
(B) Ajmal Khan
(C) Hasan Imam
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

Ans:-D

30. Sanyasi revolt broke out in—
(A) Avadh
(B) Bengal
(C) Haryana
(D) Punjab

Ans:-B

31. Which of the following occurred in Maharashtra?
(A) Bhil uprising
(B) Kol uprising
(C) Rampa uprising
(D) Santhal uprising

Ans:-A

32. Which one of the following is not a measure of Globalisation ?
(A) Disinvestment of the Public Sector Undertakings
(B) Reduction of import duty
(C) Making rupee convertible
(D) Allowing free flow of Foreign Direct Investment

Ans:-A

33. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Cold arid zone — Ladakh
(B) Wet humid zone — Northern India
(C) Tropical Monsoon zone — Central India
(D) Warm arid zone — Rajasthan

Ans:-B

34. The Dandakaranya Project covers the parts of—
(A) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar

Ans:-C

35. The most urbanised state of India is—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal

Ans:-C

36. The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are—
(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(B) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka and Maharashtra

Ans:-A

37. Consider the following statements about Atlantic Ocean and choose which one is not
correct—
(A) It is the World’s Second Largest Ocean
(B) It covers nearly 30 per cent of earth
(C) It spreads from Arctic Ocean in the North to Antarctica in the South
(D) It is the saltiest Ocean

Ans:-B

38. Acid rain is caused by—
(A) Reaction between water of clouds and sulphur dioxide pollutant
(B) Reaction between rain water and carbon dioxide pollutant
(C) Cooling of acid vapours reaching the clouds
(D) Reaction between water vapour and electric charge dui1ng lightening and cloud bursts

Ans:-A

39. Which medium is used by ‘Radar’ to trace aeroplanes?
(A) Micro wave
(B) Electric wave
(C) Ultrasonic wave
(D) Sound wave

Ans:-A

40. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A): Stem cell research has become very important in view of the multipotent capacity of stem cells.
Reason (R) : Stem cells can develop into a complete foetus.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans:-A

Model paper Rajasthan teacher jobs Primary and Senior Teacher

2011-09-01T10:47:00.002-07:00

GK Model Objective Questions for Clerical Jobs in High Court of Uttarakhand

2011-09-01T10:47:00.000-07:00

GK Model Objective Questions for Clerical Jobs in High Court of Uttarakhand
Sample Paper Objective Type for Lower Division Clerk, Stenographer, High Court of Uttarakhand Exam
General Knowledge GK for High Court of Uttarakhand Recruitment
1. Nano technology uses structures of the size of—
(A) 106m
(C) 109m
(B) l0-6m
(D) 10-9m

Ans:-D

2. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of—
(A) Energy
(B) Mass
(C) Linear momentum
(D) Angular momentum

Ans:-C

3. Fruit most suitable for making Jelly is—
(A) Papaya
(B) Karunda
(C) Mango
(D) Banana

Ans:-C

4. Heavy water contains—
(A) More dissolved air
(B) More dissolved minerals and salts
(C) Deuterium in place of hydrogen
(D) Contain organic impurities.

Ans:-C

5. Name the elements used in household detergents and identified as the chief factor for pollution of rivers and lakes—
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Potassium
(D) Sulphur

Ans:-A

6. Which of the following factor(s) is/are held responsible for making terrorism a global phenomenon?
(A) Advancement of information technology
(B) Weapons of mass destruction
(C) Poverty and unemployment
(D)All of the above factors

Ans:-A

7. That the social inequality exists in India is evidenced by the—
(A) Illiteracy
(B) Unemployment
(C) Difference between the rich and the poor
(D) Practice of untouchability

Ans:-D

8. ‘Biological Oxygen Demand’ (BOD) is used as a standard measure for—
(A) Oxygen level in forest system
(B) Oxygen level in animals
(C) Oxygen level in atmosphere
(D) Oxygen level in water system

Ans:-D

9. ‘Charkula’ is the seasonal folk dance of—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Orissa

Ans:-A

10. Prominent musician ‘Girja Devi’ belongs to—
(A) Lucknow Gharana
(B) Agra Gharana
(C) Banaras Gharana
(D) Gwalior Gharana

Ans:-C

11. ‘Atmospheric ozone layer which protects us from ultraviolet rays is getting highly depleted because of—
(A) Chlorofluoro carbons
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide

Ans:-A

12. The cover of a solar cooker is made of glass because—
(A) Glass allows sunlight into the container but does not allow heat radiation out of it
(B) Glass is transparent and one can see the food cooking
(C) Glass does not absorb heat radiation and so no wastage of energy
(D) Glass is a good conductor of heat and is also cheap for a living

Ans:-A

13. Due to global warming—
1. Underground water table has increased.
2. Glaciers have started melting.
3. Abrupt climatic changes are happening.
4. Human health is being adversely affected.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans:-D

14. A remote control gadget (for T.V. etc.) has in
(A) A small electro-magnet that emits electro-magnetic waves
(B) A small oscillator that emits electric pulses
(C) A small transmitter that emits infrared signals
(D) All of the above

Ans:-C

15. Unix, DOS, Windows are examples of—
(A) Application programme
(B) Operating systems
(C) Word processors
(D) Commercial computer brands

Ans:-B

16. The tail of a comet always points—
(A) Towards the Sun
(B) Away from the Sun
(C) Towards North-East
(D) Towards South-East

Ans:-B

17. Which one of the following creatures was the first to. travel to space?
(A) A mouse
(B)A dog
(C) A cockroach
(D) A mosquito

Ans:-B

18. The number of Moons, which Jupiter has, are—
(A) 0
(B) 16
(C) 11
(D) 5

Ans:-B

19. Day and night are caused by—
(A) Rotation of the Earth
(B) Revolution of Earth around the Sun
(C) Both rotation and revolution of the Earth
(D) Neither rotation nor revolution of Earth

Ans:-A

20. ‘SONAR’ is mostly used by—
(A) Doctors
(B) Engineers
(C) Astronauts
(D) Navigators

Ans:-D

21. ‘Ghoshitarama’, where Buddha had stayed for some time was located at—
(A) Rajgriha
(B) Champa
(C) Sravasti
(D) Kaushambi

Ans:-D

22. Who among the following was the first Gupta ruler to assume the title of ‘Maharajadhiraja’ ?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta-I
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Chandragupta-II

Ans:-B

23. A Gram Pradhan in U. P. is e1ected —
1. By all the adults living in the territory of the Panchayat.
2. By all the voters included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat’s territory.
3. By members of the Gram Panchayat.
4. From amongst the voters of the Panchayat’s territory.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 3 and 4 only

Ans:-B

24. The maximum number of Anglo-India is who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are—
(A)3
(B)2
(C)5
(D)4

Ans:-B

25. Indian Parliament consists of——
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
(C)Speaker and Lok Sabha
(D)President and both the Houses of Parliament

Ans:-D

Solved questions for KBC preparation

2011-09-01T10:46:00.002-07:00

Solved questions for KBC preparation
Kaun Banega Crorepati KBC Questions and answers|
KBC questions and answers Quiz Questions

1. The first train steamed oft from Mumbai to Thane covered a distance of______ in
1953.
(a) 32 km
(b) 34 km
(c) 36 km
(d) 52kn
Ans. (b)

2 The longest distance of 3574 km is covered by the train, which connects _____
(a) Guwahati in the north-east and Thiruvananthapuram in the south-west.
(b) Jammu and Kashmir in the north and Kanyakumari in the south
(c) Guwahati in the east of Kachch in the west
(d) none of the above
Ans. (a)

3. Which state has the highest road density in India?
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)

4. Which state has the lowest road density in India?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Orissa
Ans. (b)

5. Who gave the idea of issuing the demand for deliverance day?
(a) Congress
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) 11vIuslim League
(d) Mohd. Iqbal
Ans. (c)

6. Lord Mountbatten, the first British Viceroy, came to India in the year
(a) 1953
(b) 1954
(c) 1955
(d) 1958
Ans. (c)

7. Who was called the grand old man of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Justice Ranade
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Ravindranath Tagore
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Ans. (d)

8. Who declared Pakistan an Islamic Nation?
(a) Maulana Azad
(b) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(c) Mohd. Iqbal
(d) Mohd. Ali Jinnah
Ans. (d)

9. Hydrocarbons on burning in the air give carbon dioxide and
(a) Water and heat
(b) Carbon monoxide and heat
(c) Water and carbon monoxide
(d) Water and sulphur dioxide
Ans. (a)

10. If condensation takes place at a temperature above 0°C the resulting precipitation is in
the form of
(a) snow
(b) rain
(c) fog
(d) sleet
Ans. (b)

11. Dew and moist in winter nourishes _____ crop in parts of central India.
(a) rice
(b) tea
(c) wheat
(d) jute
Ans. (c)

12 The release of water vapour from the leaves is
(a) evaporation
(b) transpiration
(c) condensation
(d) dew
Ans. (b)

13. The Theosophical Society was organized by
(a) Dr. Annie Besant
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Madam Blavatski
(d) Louis Vivian Derozio
Ans. (c)

14. China divided among Britain, France, Russia and Germany was known as
(a) The cutting of the Chinese melon
(b) spheres of influences
(c) Extra-territorial rights
(d) Division of China
Ans. (a)

15. Which type of clouds are fog-like low clouds near the ground level?
(a) Cirrus
(b) Cumulus
(c) Stratus
(d) Cumulonimbus
Ans. (c)

16. Rain gauge is used to measure the amount of rainfall and it should be placed in an
open space so that
(a) 30 cm of it is above the ground level
(b) the run-off from buildings or trees enters the funnel
(c) rain should not enter into it from the ground
(d) all the above conditions are needed
Ans. (d)

17. There is excess of _____ over precipitation in the oceans.
(a) condensation
(b) transpiration
(c) evaporation
(d) convection
Ans. (c)

18. Algeria and Morocco were the colonies of
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Holland
(d) USA
Ans. (b)

19. The world’s deepest point is in the Maliana Trench in Pacific Ocean at a depth of …………below the seal level.
(a) 11014 meters
(b) 11024 meters
(c) 11034 meters
(d) 11044 meters
Ans. (c)

20. Specialized cultivation of vegetables grown for urban markets and involving transport is
(a) Horticulture
(b) Truck farming
(c) Both the above
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)