Oz CCNA

The OSI Model...

2020-01-30T19:59:00.000-08:00

One of the first things that you begin to learn about in the CCNA course is the OSI model. Up until recently I’d never heard of the layers of the OSI model and so it’s taken a some time to become familiar with what each layer of the model does.

The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) was created by the International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) as a framework used to describe how data is transferred over a medium from one networked device to another. It is made up of 7 layers:

7. Application
6. Presentation
5. Session
4. Transport
3. Network
2. Data Link
1. Physical

The 4 main advantages of the OSI are:

It divides the communication process into simpler components, aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting.
It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model.
It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers, so that it does not hamper development.
It allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate.

Below is my summary chart of the OSI model...

2014-02-13T16:58:00.003-08:00

Loopback & Telnet commands.

I’ve configured 4 routers each with the loopback addresses shown below.

A loopback interface is a virtual interface that doesn’t connect to any other device but is an easy way to identify a particular router on the network. The loopback interface never goes down unless the router is turned off.

Lookpack can be configured with :

Router(config)interface loopback <ip>

I’ve already created a telnet password (‘cisco’) on each router and also an enable password (also ‘cisco’) so that I can telnet into and manage each router.

I am on Router1 and would like to telnet from Router1 into all 3 of the other routers.

I start off by telneting into Router 2:

Router1#telnet 2.2.2.2

Trying 2.2.2.2 ...Open

User Access Verification

Password: cisco

Router2>en

Password: cisco

Router2#

To get back to Router1 I need to press Ctrl Shift 6 all together, and then the letter x (Ctrl+Shift+6, & then 'x'). Now I am back on Router1 but still have a telnet session connecting to Router2.

I then want to telnet from Router1 into Router3:

Router1#telnet 3.3.3.3

Trying 3.3.3.3 ...Open

User Access Verification

Password: cisco

Router3>enable

Password: cisco

Router3#

I then go back to Router1 (Ctrl+Shift+6, & then 'x') and telnet into Router 4 using the same telnet command shown above.

Once I’m back on Router1 I can use the command show sessions to see all of the telnet sessions that I have open from Router1.

Router1#show sessions

Conn Host Address Byte Idle Conn Name

1 2.2.2.2 2.2.2.2 0 1 2.2.2.2

2 3.3.3.3 3.3.3.3 0 1 3.3.3.3

*3 4.4.4.4 4.4.4.4 0 0 4.4.4.4

Now if I want to go back into any of my telnet sessions I just need to type the connection number – Eg. ‘3’ will take me to Router 4 (4.4.4.4).

Router1#3

[Resuming connection 3 to 4.4.4.4 ... ]

Router4#

From Router1 if I want to disconnect any of my telnet sessions I need to use the command disconnect <connection number>:

Conn Host Address Byte Idle Conn Name

1 2.2.2.2 2.2.2.2 0 4 2.2.2.2

2 3.3.3.3 3.3.3.3 0 4 3.3.3.3

* 3 4.4.4.4 4.4.4.4 0 0 4.4.4.4

Router1#disconnect 2

Closing connection to 3.3.3.3 [confirm]

The final command that I can use is show users which will show me how many people have telnetted into a particular router.

Eg. I want to know how many people have telnetted into Router4. The below output shows me that one person has telnetted into Router4 on vty 0 (the first telnet line).

Router4#show users

Line User Host(s) Idle Location

* 67 vty 0 idle 00:00:00 192.168.1.1

Configuring Telnet

2014-02-12T18:47:00.000-08:00

Telnet is used as a way of connecting to a device remotely and in the case of cisco devices it is used to remotely view and make changes to device configuration.

To setup telnet access into a cisco device there are a number of commands involved:

Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# exec-timeout 20

Router(config-line)# login

Router(config-line)# exit

The line vty 0 4 command is used to configure telnet and define the number of users that connect to the device at once. 0 4 means that 5 users can connect at any one time – 0,1,2,3,4. If you used the command line vty 0 9 it would mean that 10 users would be able to connect simultaneously.

The exec-timeout command specifies the number of minutes until the telnet connection is dropped if it’s not being used.

The login command specifies that the password must be used for the user to telnet into the device.

If you typed no login instead of login then no password would be required.

** You also need to make sure that the device that you are telneting into has an enable password so that you can access the privileged exec mode via telnet.

Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# enable password cisco

Port & Socket numbers

2012-10-15T19:12:00.001-07:00

A port number is a number that identifies different services that run on a PC or device using TCP or UDP (layer 4), while a socket number is an IP address with the port number included: eg. 192.168.0.10:21

Port numbers are assigned by the IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)

There a 3 different types of port numbers :
Well known Ports (1 - 1023) - Used for common services such as FTP, HTTP, Telnet, DHCP.
Registered Ports (1024 - 49151) - Used for services that are not as commonly used that they warrant a well known port number. Eg. WAP, MS SQL, World of Warcraft.
Private/Dynamic Ports (49152 - 65535) - Ports that can be used by anyone for any purpose.

You can view ports that are currently being used on your PC by typing 'netstat' into the DOS prompt (as seen below a after colon in private/public address).

A common port number that you can see in the below display is the one at the bottom of my netstat display.
Windows has chosen to display it as 74.125.237.19:http but it could also be written as 74.125.237.19:80 which is the socket number.

Other common port numbers are:

Difference between a hub, switch & router

2012-10-15T18:42:00.000-07:00

What’s the difference between a router, switch & a hub..?

A question that is often asked is what are the differences between hubs, switches and routers.?

The most basic device that you can use on a network to send data from one device to another is the hub. The hub is a layer 1 device (Physical layer) and doesn’t check any information stored within the data (frame) such as source/destination address, all it does is receive the data on one port and forward it out of every other port except for the one that it received it on. Bandwidth on a hub link is shared between all the devices.

The switch on the other hand is a layer 2 device (DLL) and is much smarter more efficient. It creates a MAC address table by storing the MAC addresses of devices on each interface so that it knows which port to forward a frame to get to it’s intended destination.

A switch also has multiple collision domains which eliminates data collisions and uses CSMA/CA, while a hub only has one collision domain and uses CSMA/CD, This also means that each port on a switch can has its own dedicated bandwidth and can transmit and receive data up to 1Gbps although generally it’s 100Mbps.

While switches and hubs are generally used on the local area network, a router is used to connect multiple LANs. Routers operate at layer 3 (Network layer) and are used to forward packets between networks and to make decisions about which interface or direction to send a packet to get to it’s destination.

CCNA 1 Module - Final Exam

2011-02-02T17:35:00.000-08:00

Below are some questions which come up on the CCNA 1 final exam.
Final exam questions do change but when i sat the exam, most of these questions were on there.

1.

Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C...

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?

0040.8596.DE82

**0060.7320.B826

0060.7320.D632

0010.4F74.AC09

0040.8596.DE81

2.

Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
**router
wireless access point

3.

The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
**49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)

**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.

8.

nslookup command on the PC

Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?

**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100

9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128

10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1

11.

Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM

13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1

15.

A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown

Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable

17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY

18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.

22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)

10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX

23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)

172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67

25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25

26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash

27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)

Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2

28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.

29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier

30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y

31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#

32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access
34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?

3
**5
7
9
11

35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
**192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
**192.168.9.129/26
**192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26

36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.

37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host

38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)

**The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.

39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?

application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
**The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.

41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer

44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.

45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0

50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)

**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6

CCNA 1 Module 11 Exam

2011-02-02T17:00:00.000-08:00

1

Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
**UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2 In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
**as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

3

Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

enable password class
line console 0
password ccna

enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna

enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna

enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

**enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4 When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
**Console
Telnet
SSH

5

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
**RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login

6 Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
**show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

7

Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
**privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
**enable mode

8 What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
**Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
**Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
**Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
**Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10

Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
**IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11

Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
**NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

12 Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
**show startup-config
**show running-config
show version

13 Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
**hot keys
context-check
**context-sensitive
structured check
command override
**command syntax check

14

Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
**The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
**The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15 Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
**Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

16

The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
**Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17 In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
**Flash
NVRAM

18 On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

Option 1 Console

19 A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
**SSH

CCNA 1 Module 10 Exam

2011-02-02T16:57:00.000-08:00

1

Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
**connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
**connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2 Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
**They segment broadcast domains.
**They interconnect different network technologies.
**Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

3

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
**hub
switch
wireless access point

4 A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
**UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
**Five broadcast domains are present.
**Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
xFive networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6 Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
**DB 60
**Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
**smart serial
RJ 45

7 How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
**2046
2048
4094
4096

8

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
**host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

9

Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
**192.168.3.54

10

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
**Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
**Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
**Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11 A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
**255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12

Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
**switch

13

Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
**3
4
5

14 What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
**loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15 To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
**rollover cable
V.35 cable

16 What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
**greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
**limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
**greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
**255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18 Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
**255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
**rollover
patch cable

20 Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
**console interface

21 What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
**cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
**the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
**the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

22 Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
**router
repeater

23

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
**1
3
4
5
7

24
What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
**the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
**the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

CCNA 1 Module 9 Exam

2011-02-02T16:48:00.000-08:00

1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
* Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer
Transport layer
* Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
* Data-link layer

3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

* the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
* the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

* addressing
* error detection
* frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

* The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

recognizes streams of bits
* identifies the network layer protocol
* makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
* insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

MAC sublayer
Physical layer
* Logical Link
Control sublayer
Network layer

8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
* A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

header field - preamble and stop frame
* data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF

10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
* Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
* A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

* Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

application
physical
transport
internet
data link
* network access

13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?

translate URLs to IP addresses
* resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

* No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15

Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
* A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
* A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

dynamically assigned
* copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
* contains a 3 byte OUI
* 6 bytes long
32 bits long

17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

reduction in cross-talk
* minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
* increase in the throughput of communications

18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

coaxial thicknet
**copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
**optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C

20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
* any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

21

Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?

route PRINT
* arp -a
arp -d
netstat
telnet

CCNA 1 Module 8 Exam

2011-02-02T16:46:00.001-08:00

1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

**backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical

6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

coax
Cat4 UTP
**Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

**goodput
frequency
amplitude
**throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth

10

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
**generally uses lasers as the light source

16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA 1 Module 7 Exam

2011-02-02T16:45:00.001-08:00

1 Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

**non-deterministic
**less overhead
one station transmits at a time
**collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
**facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3

Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

1
2
4
**8
16

4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
**Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
**00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

**They are 48 binary bits in length.
**They are considered physical addresses.
**They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
**source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
**source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

network layer addressing
**media sharing
application processes
**logical topology
intermediary device function

9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

**Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
**Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
**Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
**Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

LLC
**MAC
HDLC
NIC

13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

**Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
**defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
**Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
**The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
**The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
**The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16 What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
**provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the Layer 3 protocol selected
**the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
**the physical layer implementation
**the number of hosts to be interconnected

18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

define the logical topology
provide media access control
**support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

logical topology
**physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
**Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

CCNA 1 Module 6 Exam

2011-02-02T16:44:00.000-08:00

1 How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

128
64
48
32 **

2

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192 **
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252

3

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33 **
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

4

Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

/24
/16
/20
/27 **
/25
/28

5

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network. **

6 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0 **
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7 Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address. **
This is not a valid address.

8 What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain**
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length **
is used to forward packets **
uses flat addressing

9 What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000 **
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

10 A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160 **
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

11

Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host. **
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

12 What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

The router will discard the packet.**
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. **
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

13 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)

192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254 **
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192 **
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224

14 Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

larger address space **
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service **
authentication and encryption **
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

15 Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing **

16 What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities **
addressing simplification

17 Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70 **
192.168.99.5 **
172.18.88.90 **
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

18 Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router. **
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself. **

19 Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26 **
172.16.4.193 /26 **
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27 **

20 What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

an internet
a network **
an octet
a radi

21

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. **

22 Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops

CCNA 1 Module 5 Exam

2011-02-02T16:28:00.001-08:00

1 In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum

5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address

6

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1

7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

dynamic
interior
**static
standard

10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
**The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
**The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

gateways
**purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership

12 What is a component of a routing table entry?

the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address

13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge

14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
limited management responsibility
**host identification
protocol compatibility

15

Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

3
**4
5
7
8
11

16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
**If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19

Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
**consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 1 Module 4 Exam

2011-02-02T16:26:00.000-08:00

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
**Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728

3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
**source and destination

4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6

Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7

Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
**3431
3475

8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS

12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
**low overhead
**connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments

14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port

15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
**identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
**flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network

19

Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

21

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
**Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

CCNA 1 Module 2 Exam

2011-02-02T16:20:00.000-08:00

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network**
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9.1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network**
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing**
encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation**

13.

Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device**
an intermediate device
a media device

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J**

15.

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.**
The network is administered by a single organization.**
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common** organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
**detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
**originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's**
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendogrs

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing**
encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation**

13.

Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device**
an intermediate device
a media device

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J**

15.

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.**
The network is administered by a single organization.**
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common** organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
**detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
**originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's**
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendogrs

CCNA 1 Module 1 Exam

2011-02-02T16:17:00.000-08:00

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
- They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
- They are used for initial router configuration.
- They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
- debugging.
- password recovery.
routing data between networks.
- troubleshooting.
connecting one router to another.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
connects peripherals in a single location.
connects multiple networks in a single building.
provides connectivity on a LAN.
- provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
- switching.
static addressing.
IETF standardization.
- dynamic or static routing.
- consistent end-to-end addressing.

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
straight-through cable.
- terminal emulation software.
- rollover cable.
- RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
V.35 cable.

6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second.
- data bits.
- parity.
- stop bits.
flow control.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs.
- routers.
- communication servers.
transceivers.
- modems.
multi-port repeaters.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file.
- stores routing table.
- holds fast switching cache.
retains contents when power is removed.
- stores running configuration file.

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
can be accessed remotely.
- does not depend on network services.
- displays startup and error messages by default.
does not require special components.

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
- CPU.
hard drive.
- input/output interfaces.
keyboard.
monitor.
- system bus.

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted.
crossover.
- rollover.
straight.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
metal-oxide memory.
read only memory.
flash memory.
- non-volatile random access memory.

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
packet configuration.
- configuration files.
flash memory.
internal components.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
- straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
- a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory.
read only memory.
- non-volatile random access memory.
flash memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
- physical layer.
application layer.
transport layer.
- data link layer.
session layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
- connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
- can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
hold the IOS image.
- connect the router to LANs and WANs.

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
- troubleshooting problems.
- monitoring the system.
capturing LAN data packets.
- configuring the router.
routing data packets.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables.
bridging tables.
- routing tables.
switching tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table.
- retains contents when power is removed.
- stores the startup configuration file.
contains the running configuration file.
stores the ARP table.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
holds the startup configuration by default.
- can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
- stores Cisco IOS software images.
stores routing table information by default.
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.

CCNA 1 Module 3 Exam - CCNA Exploration: Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0)

2011-02-01T20:54:00.000-08:00

Chapter 3 Exam questions & answers in no particular order...

1 What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)

use daemons
* initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
* may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

2 What is the role of the OSI application layer?

provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
* provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

3 A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)

* User accounts are centralized.
* Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

4 How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
* uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

5 Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)

* DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
* Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

6 Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)

routes email to the MDA on other servers
* receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
* passes email to the MDA for final delivery
* uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

* 80
1261
15533
3912
65520

8 As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

not widely available
* does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

9 What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

scalable
one way data flow
* decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
* resource sharing without a dedicated server

10 What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

HTML
HTTP
* FTP
Telnet

11 What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

* applications
dialogs
requests
services
* syntax

12 What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

ARP
* DNS
PPP
* SMTP
* POP
ICMP

13 What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

HTTP
SSH
FQDN
* DNS
Telnet
SMTP

14 Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?

physical
session
network
presentation
* application
transport

15 What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?

DHCP
DNS
* SMB
SMTP
Telnet

16 Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)

ASP
FTP
HTML
* HTTP
* HTTPS
IP

17 A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)

* centralized administration
does not require specialized software
* security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

18 Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)

* MDA
IMAP
* MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA

19 What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

* acts as both a client and server within the same communication
requires centralized account administration
* hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
can be used in client-server networks
* does not require specialized software
centralized authentication is required

20 What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

temporarily holds resolved entries
* used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client

Welcome..!

2011-01-30T14:36:00.000-08:00

Welcome to my CCNA blog..! I'm a Cisco student in Melbourne Australia who's currently studying the CCNA at my own pace (hopefully not too slowly) and thought i'd post some important notes/tests onto the blog as i go which I hope that are helpful to anybody else out there who's also studying for their CCNA.