Interview Questions

Android Interview Questions

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 29 Oct 2011 13:26:00 +0000

1.What is Android?

Android is a software stack for mobile devices that includes an operating system, middleware and key applications.

2.Explain the Architecture of android ?

Top -> Applications (Contacts, Browser, Phone, etc)

Below Applications -> Application Framework(Activity Manager, Window Manager, Content Providers, View System, Package manager,

Telephony manager, Resource, Notification, Location managers)

Below Application Framework -> System Libraries(Like Sqlite, webkit, SSL, OpenGL, Media Framework etc) & Android Runtime( Core Libraries and DVM)

Atlast Last -> Linux Kernel (which composed of drivers like display, camera etc.)

3.Describe the APK format.

The APK file is compressed the AndroidManifest.xml file, application code (.dex files), resource files, and other files.A project is compiled into a single .apk file.

4.What is an action?

A description of something that an Intent sender desires.

5.What is an activity?

A single screen in an application, with supporting Java code.

An activity presents a visual user interface for one focused endeavor the user can undertake.

For example, an activity might present a list of menu items users can choose from or it might display photographs along with their captions.Each one is implemented as a subclass of the Activity base class.

6.What is a service?

A service doesn’t have a visual user interface, but rather runs in the background for an indefinite period of time.

For example, a service might play background music as the user attends to other matters, or it might fetch data over the network or calculate something and provide the result to activities that need it.Each service extends the Service base class.

7.What is a Broadcast receivers?

A broadcast receiver is a component that does nothing but receive and react to broadcast announcements.

For example, announcements that the timezone has changed, that the battery is low or that the user changed a language preference.All receivers extend the Broadcast Receiver base class.

Broadcast receivers do not display a user interface. However, they may start an activity in response to the information they receive, or they may use the Notification Manager to alert the user like(flashing the backlight, vibrating the device, playing a sound)

8.What is a content provider?

A content provider makes a specific set of the application’s data available to other applications.The content provider extends the ContentProvider

base class to implement a standard set of methods that enable other applications to retrieve and store data of the type it controls. However, applications do not call these methods directly. Rather they use a Content Resolver object and call its methods instead.

9.What is intent?

A class (Intent) describes what a caller desires to do. The caller sends this intent to Android’s intent resolver, which finds the most suitable activity for the intent.

10.How is nine-patch image different from a regular bitmap?

It is a resizable bitmap resource that can be used for backgrounds or other images on the device. The NinePatch class permits drawing a bitmap in nine sections. The four corners are unscaled; the four edges are scaled in one axis, and the middle is scaled in both axes.

11.What languages does Android support for application development?

Android applications are written using the Java programming language.

12.What is a resource?

A user-supplied XML, bitmap, or other file, injected into the application build process, which can later be loaded from code.

13.What Virtual Machine Android runs on?

Dalvik virtual machine

14.Android Latest Version?

Android 3.0

15.How do you define the user interface?

XML Format is the best.

UML Interview Questions

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 16 Jan 2011 12:24:00 +0000

What is inheritance?
Difference between Composition and Aggregation.
Difference: Sequence Diagrams, Collaboration Diagrams.
Difference: 'uses', 'extends', 'includes'
What shall I go for Package Diagram?
What is Polymorphism?
Is class an Object? Is object a class?
Comment: C++ "includes" behavior and java "imports"
What do you mean by "Realization"?
What is a Presistent, Transient Object?
What is the use of Operator Overloading?
Does UML guarantee project success?
Difference: Activity Diagram and Sequence Diagram.
What is association?
How to resolve many to many relationship?
How do you represent static members and abstract classes in Class Diagram?
Can we use UML for user interface (UI) design?
Every object has : state, behavior and identity - explain
How to reverse engineer C++ code in UML?
What are the tools you used for OOAD?
Difference: Object Oriented Analysis (OOA) and Object Oriented Design (OOD)?
What are the four phases of the Unified Process ?
How do you convert uses cases into test cases?
Explain Class Diagram in Detail.
What are the Design Patterns you know.
When do you prefer to use composition than aggregation?
UML: IS it a process, method or notation?
Does a concept HAVE to become a class in Design?
What are the good practices to use while designing for reuse?
Can you think of some nice examples where *multiple* actors are associated with a use case ?
How to use CRC Cards for Class Design?
What is the difference between static and dynamic Classificaition.Give some examples.
Explian following terms: Constraint Rules, Design by contract.
What is Object Constraint Language (OCL)?
Difference Between Attribute and Association.
What are associative classes?

Cognos Interview Questions

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 21 Jul 2010 02:23:00 +0000

How you will design the report if the objects are available?
How you will determine the performance tune will occur either in report or system?
Can reportnet supports cubes?
How you migrate the reports from impromptu to reportnet?
How you provide security to reports?
How you provide security to packages ?
How can we improve performance of the reports?
What is Stich Query in Reportnet?
What is the use of Excel files in Cognos8?
What is parameter maps & Session parameter?
What is the importance of Dimension in the cognos?
What is Report item?
What is Cardinality?
What are the filters in fwm and report studio?
What is query subject?
What is architecture of Cognos 8?
How you migrate reports to cognos 8 from previous versions?
How can I convert a list report/Cross tab Report in Cognos EP series into a bar chart or pie chart etc.?
What steps should be taken by a report developer to interact with the client server?
What should be done when a report running time will take long time in congnos?

How many levels can be used in drill through reports

CCNA Interview Question -11

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 17 Jul 2010 02:51:00 +0000

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide

211 Identify 2 characteristics of PPP?

A.) Uses LLC to establish the link

B.) Default serial encapsulation

C.) Support multiple layer 3 protocols

D.) Offers two types of authentication; PAP and CHAP

Ans C D

PPP is not the default encapsulation and uses LCP not LLC to establish the link. It support multiple layer 3 protocols and supports authentication.

212 Identify 3 characteristics of a connection oriented protocol?

A.) Path determination

B.) Flow control

C.) Acknowledgements

D.) Uses hop count as metric

E.) 3 step handshake

Ans B C E

Connection oriented protocols must first establish the connection (3 step handshake), employ methods to acknowledge the receipt of data (acknowledgements) and slow down the flow of data if required (flow control).

213 What is the maximum hop count for IP RIP?

A.) Infinity

B.) 16

C.) 15

D.) 1

Ans C

15 is the maximum hop count, underscoring the size limitation of RIP.

214 What is Cisco's default encapsulation method on serial interfaces?

A.) ANSI

B.) Cisco

C.) Q933a

D.) HDLC

Ans D

Cisco's implementation of HDLC is only compatible with Cisco routers. It is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces.

215 Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater?

A.) Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame

B.) Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame

C.) Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame

D.) Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet

Ans C

A repeater regenerates the signal it receives, a switch makes decisions based upon MAC addresses to determine whether a frame should be forwarded. Repeaters forward all packets.

216 Ping uses which Internet layer protocol?

A.) RARP

B.) ICMP

C.) ARP

D.) FTP

Ans B

Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP datagrams.

ICMP is used in the following events:

Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.

Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator.

Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host.

Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.

217 Which is true regarding store-and-forward switching method?

A.) Latency varies depending on frame-length

B.) Latency is constant

C.) It is default for all Cisco switches

D.) It only reads the destination hardware address before forwarding the frame

Ans A

Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.

218 Which three of the following are true statements about connection-oriented sessions?

A.) The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception

B.) Any segments not acknowledged the are retransmitted by the receiver

C.) A manageable data flow is maintained in order to avoid congestion, overloading and loss of any data

D.) Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination

Ans A C D

Connection-oriented services are useful for transmitting data from applications that are intolerant of delays and packet re-sequencing. FTP and Telnet applications are based on connection-oriented services as well as some voice and video programs. Any segment that is not acknowledged by the received is retransmitted by the sender.

219 What does a metric of 16 hops represent when using RIP?

A.) Number of hops to the destination

B.) Destination unreachable

C.) Number of routers

D.) Bandwidth

Ans B

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that used hop count as its metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable. RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

220 You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network?

A.) The location of DHCP servers

B.) The volume of traffic on each subnet

C.) The number of subnets on the network

D.) The location of the default gateway

E.) The number of host IDs on each subnet

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide

Ans C E

When determining which subnet mask to use, you must determine how many hosts and how many subnets are required.

221 What is the difference between TCP and UDP?

A.) TCP is connection-oriented; UDP uses acknowledgements only

B.) TCP is connection-oriented; UDP is connectionless

C.) Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing

D.) TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless

Ans; B

TCP provides guaranteed connection oriented delivery of packets, UDP does not.

222 What does the 'S' mean when looking at the routing table?

A.) Statically connected

B.) Directly connected

C.) Dynamically attached

D.) Shutdown route

Ans A

Statically connected routes are those that an administrator has manually entered into the routing table.

223 Why would you use static routing instead of dynamic routing?

A.) When you want automatic updates of the routing tables

B.) All the time

C.) When you have very few routes and want to conserve bandwidth

D.) When you have a gateway of last resort

Ans C

Static routes are typically used when there are very few routes and you want to conserve bandwidth. Since routing protocols are constantly sending their updates across the wire, it can cause a great deal of congestion.

224 On Cisco catalyst 5000 how would you set the second port on the controller in the first slot to full duplex?

A.) Set port duplex 1/1 full

B.) Set port duplex 1/2 full

C.) Set port duplex 0/1 full

D.) Set port duplex 0/2 full

Ans B

The syntax is: set type duplex slot/port

225 What does the acronym ARP stand for?

A.) Address Resolution Phase

B.) ARP Resolution Protocol

C.) Address Resolution Protocol

D.) Address Recall Protocol

Ans C

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolved IP addresses to MAC addresses.

226 What is the default encapsulation of Netware 3.12?

A.) Ethernet_II

B.) 802.5

C.) 802.2

D.) 802.3

Ans C

The 802.2 Frame Type is the default frame-type for Netware 3.12.

227 Regarding frame relay, which of the following statements are true?

A.) You must use ANSI encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment

B.) You must use IETF encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment

C.) You must use Q.933a encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment

D.) You must use Cisco encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment

Ans B

Cisco's encapsulation for Frame relay is proprietary. To communicate with non-Cisco equipment when using frame-relay encapsulation, the IETF method must be used.

228 What is required to support full-duplex Ethernet?

A.) Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link

B.) Automatic sensing operation by all connected stations

C.) Loopback and collision detection disabled

D.) Full-duplex NIC cards

Ans C D

Full duplex ethernet requires that the NIC supports full-duplex, and loopback and collision detection are disabled.

229 Which layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended communication exists?

A.) Application

B.) Network

C.) Session

D.) Presentation

E.) Transport

Ans A

The Application layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended communication exists.

230 What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?

A.) Handles access to shared media

B.) Manages protocol access to the physical network medium

C.) Provides SAPs for higher level protocols

D.) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer

Ans B D

Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another at the data link layer.

The Girl with the Dragon Tattoo

CCNA Interview Question -10

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 17 Jul 2010 02:47:00 +0000

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide
190 Identify the purpose of the TCP 3 step handshake?
A.) Setup a un-reliable connection
B.) Initialize routing tables
C.) Synchronize sequence numbers between hosts
D.) Connection tear down process

Ans C
The 3 step handshake establishes the parameters required for a TCP connection. During the handshake process sequence numbers are synchronized allowing for the end points to properly acknowledge and re-assemble the segments.

191 Identify 2 PPP characteristics?
A.) Is proprietary to Cisco
B.) Supports authentication
C.) Support compression
D.) Run on a multi-access network

Ans B C
PPP supports authentication; PAP and CHAP. It also supports compression; Stacker and Predictor.

192 Which statement is true regarding half duplex?
A.) Only works in a point-to-point configuration
B.) Allows for transmitting and receiving but not a the same time
C.) Allow for transmitting and receiving of data simultaneously
D.) Doubles the bandwidth

Ans B
Half duplex is analogous to a single a lane bridge, it can handle traffic in both directions but no at the same time.

193 Identify the purpose of the wildcard mask?
A.) Match a certain portion of the IP address while ignoring the rest of the address
B.) Determine the class of the IP address
C.) Determine the network portion of an IP address
D.) Hide the host portion of an IP address

Ans A
The purpose of the wildcard mask to match a certain portion of the IP address while ignoring the rest.

194 Identify the OSI layer associated with bits?
A.) Physical
B.) Network
C.) Binary
D.) Data link

Ans A
The Physical layer converts the frames to bits.

195 Identify the type of routing protocol that maintains a topological database of the network?
A.) Topological state
B.) Shortest Path First
C.) Link state
D.) Distance vector

Ans C
Link State routing protocols maintain a database that lists all the networks in the internetwork.

196 Identify the 3 major functions at layer 3 of the OSI model?
A.) Forwarding process
B.) Logical addressing
C.) End-to-end connections
D.) Path selection
E.) MAC address examination
F.) Network monitoring

Ans A B D
Layer 3 determines the path, forwards the packet and implements software or logical addressing.

197 Identify the 2 rules used when configuring a Distance Vector routing protocol?
A.) Physically connected network(s)
B.) Configure the classful address, no subnets
C.) Enable CDP so neighbors can be detected
D.) Configure all networks in Area0

Ans A B
When configuring a Distance Vector routing protocol only assign the physically connected networks with the classful address only.

198 Identify 3 characteristics of an IP address?
A.) Contains a network portion and a host portion
B.) 32 bits long
C.) Unique to each network
D.) Part of the default Cisco configuration
E.) Referred to as the hardware address

Ans A B C
An IP address is 32 bits long, it is referred as the logical or software address. It contains a network and host portion. Each IP address is unique.

199 Identify 3 feature of access-lists?
A.) Implicit deny will deny any packets not matched
B.) Processed sequentially from bottom to top
C.) Processed sequentially from top to bottom
D.) If a packet is denied it would be tested against the remaining statements in the access-list
E.) Once a match is made the packet is either denied or permitted
F.) Enabled on all interfaces by default

Ans A C E
Access-list are processed from top to bottom, once a match occurs the packet is either denied or permitted and is no longer tested and if no match occurs the packet is denied via the implicit deny.

200 Which OSI layer performs code conversion, code formatting and encryption?
A.) Physical
B.) Data-Link
C.) Application
D.) Transport
E.) Presentation
F.) Network

Ans E
Layer 6 the Presentation layers performs this function.
CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide

201 Identify the 3 methods routers learn paths to destinations?
A.) Dynamic routing
B.) None of the above, configured by default
C.) Default routes
D.) Administrative distance
E.) Static routes

Ans A C E
Routers can learn paths via 3 different sources; static routes, dynamic routing protocols (i.e. RIP) and default routes.

202 Identify the purpose of the following command 'ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.1'
A.) Enabling a dynamic routing protocol
B.) Creating a static route to the 10.1.0.0 network
C.) Teaches the router about the distant network 192.168.100.0 and how it can be reached via 10.1.0.1
D.) Assigning the IP address 192.168.100.0 to an interface

Ans C
A static routes teaches the router about a distant network and the next hop to reach that network. Command syntax:
ip route network-address subnet-mask next-hop-address

203 Based upon the 1st octet rule identify the range for a Class A address?
A.) 1 - 126
B.) 192 - 223
C.) 128 - 191
D.) 1 - 191

Ans A
Class A address has the 1st octet between 1 - 126. Class B between 128 - 191 and Class C between 192 - 223.

204 What does a Standard IP Access-list use as test criteria?
A.) IP source address
B.) IP source and destination address, protocol numbers and port numbers
C.) IPX source and destination address
D.) Source MAC address

Ans A
Standard IP access list use only source address.

205 What is the function of the Transport layer and which protocols reside there?
A.) MAC addressing - IP
B.) Interhost communication - SQL, NFS
C.) Best effort Packet delivery - TCP, UDP
D.) End-to-end connections - TCP, UDP

Ans D
Layer 4, the Transport layer, is responsible for end-to-end connections. The two TCP/IP protocols that reside there are TCP and UDP.

206 Identify the 3 Internet layer IP protocols?
A.) NetBios
B.) IPX
C.) ARP
D.) IP
E.) RARP

Ans C D E
NetBios and IPX are not layer 3 IP protocols. IP - Internet Protocol, ARP - Address Resolution Protocol and RARP - Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

207 IPX routing updates occur how often?
A.) Every 30 seconds
B.) Every 60 seconds
C.) Only as needed
D.) When the remote router asks for an update

Ans B
IPX RIP updates are exchanged every 60 seconds.

208 Identify 3 methods not used to prevent routing loops?
A.) Holddown timers
B.) Sequence numbers
C.) Triggered updates
D.) Split horizon
E.) Area hierarchies
F.) Order of router startup

Ans B E F
Area hierarchies, sequence numbers and order of router startup all relate to Link State routing protocols which do NOT incur routing loops.

209 Identify the hardware component that stores the bootstrap program?
A.) ROM
B.) NVRAM
C.) Booter load
D.) RAM
E.) Flash

Ans A
ROM contains the boot strap code.

210 Which OSI layer provides mechanical, electrical, procedural for activating, maintaining physical link?
A.) Presentation
B.) Network
C.) Application
D.) Physical
E.) Transport
F.) Data-Link

Ans D
Layer 1 the Physical layer performs this function.

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide

CCNA Interview Question -9

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 17 Jul 2010 02:35:00 +0000

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide: Exam 640-802

161 What is the purpose of ARP?

A.) IP to host name resolution

B.) Host name to IP address resolution

C.) Mac to IP address resolution

D.) IP to Mac address resolution

Ans D

Address Resolution Protocol resolves the MAC address if the IP address is known. It is a layer 3 protocol.

162 Which OSI layer establishes, maintains and terminates sessions between hosts?

A.) Application

B.) Physical

C.) Data-Link

D.) Presentation

E.) Network

F.) Session

Ans F

Layer 5 the Session layer performs this function.

163 Which statement is true regarding Administrative distance?

A.) It is a metric

B.) Number of hops between two routers

C.) Trustworthiness of the routing information

D.) RIP Administrative distance is 100

Ans C

Administrative distance is rating of trustworthiness of the routing information. The lower the AD the better the information.

164 Identify the purpose of the Ping command?

A.) Share routing information with a neighbor router

B.) Transmit user data when buffers are full

C.) Test connectivity at layer 3

D.) Test entire protocol stack

Ans C

The ping command tests layer 3 connectivity.

165 Identify the order of the 5 step encapsulation?

1. Create the segment

2. Convert the frame to bits

3. Create the packet

4. Create the frame

5. User creates the data

A.) 1,2,4,2,5

B.) 2,1,3,4,5

C.) 5,1,3,4,2

D.) 5,3,4,1,2

Ans C

Cisco 5 step encapsulation.

1) User creates Data

2) Data is converted into a segment at layer 4

3) The segment is converted to packet at layer 3

4) The packet it converted into a frame at layer 2

5) The frame is converted into bits at layer 1

166 The Cisco IOS is stored where?

A.) ROM

B.) CD

C.) Flash

D.) NVRAM

Ans C

By default the Cisco IOS is stored in flash.

167 Sequence and acknowledgement numbers are used for?

A.) Layer transitioning

B.) Flow control

C.) Port number addressing

D.) Reliability

Ans D

TCP uses sequence numbers and acknowledgements to implement reliability.

168 Identify IPX GNS and it's purpose?

A.) Go Network Server - sends a print job to a network server

B.) Get Nearest Server - locate the nearest server

C.) Guaranteed Network Services - allocates resources to users

D.) Get Notes Server - locates Domino Server

Ans B

GNS stands for Get Nearest Server, initiated by a workstation.

169 Identify the true statement regarding subnetting?

A.) Allows for more host address

B.) Borrow bits from the network portion of the address

C.) Allows for unlimited number of networks

D.) Borrow bits from the host portion of the address

Ans D

Subnetting involves borrowing bits for the host portion of the address to be used to subnet addressing.

170 Inverse ARP serves what purpose?

A.) Method for a local router to introduce itself to the remote end of the connection

B.) Broadcast a routing table update

C.) Identify MAC addresses if the IP address is known

D.) Sent every 10 seconds used to verify the Frame Switch is still active

Ans A

Inverse ARP operates in a Frame Relay network so the two end points can identify themselves to each other.

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide: Exam 640-802

171 Identify 3 characteristics of a MAC address?

A.) Burned into the NIC

B.) 48 bits long

C.) Length is 32 bits

D.) Used to deliver the frame to the end device

E.) Contains a network portion and a host portion

Ans A B D

The MAC address is 48 bits long not 32. It does NOT contain a network and host portion with the address. It is used to deliver the frame to the destination device.

172 Identify 3 IP routing protocols?

A.) RIP

B.) AURP

C.) OSPF

D.) IGRP

E.) ARP

F.) ICMP

Ans A C D

AURP and ICMP are not routing protocols.

173 Identify the type of routing protocol that exchanges entire routing tables at regular intervals?

A.) Link state

B.) Interior gateway protocols

C.) Appletalk routing

D.) Distance vector

Ans D

Distance Vector routing protocols exchange entire routing tables with it's neighbors. Link State routing protocols exchange LSP's to share information regarding the networks they know.

174 Identify the type of hardware required to connect a Token ring network to an Ethernet network?

A.) Repeater

B.) TR-Enet

C.) Router

D.) Token Ring to Ethernet translation hub

Ans C

Routers are used to connect dissimilar networks with different access-methods, like connecting Token Ring to Ethernet.

175 Identify 3 characteristics regarding CDP?

A.) On by default

B.) Shows only directly connected neighbors

C.) Requires IP or IPX

D.) 60 second update interval by default

E.) 30 second updates interval by default

Ans A B D

CDP stands for Cisco Discovery Protocol. It is used to discover directly connected neighbors, it is on by default and has a 60 second update interval by default.

176 Identify 2 transport layer protocols?

A.) IP

B.) TCP

C.) CDP

D.) ARP

E.) UDP

Ans B E

TPC and UDP are 2 layer4 Transport protocols.

177 Identify 2 features of X.25?

A.) Supports only IP

B.) Utilizes switched and permanent virtual circuits

C.) Contains minimal flow control and error recovery

D.) Utilizes LAPB as it's data-link protocol

Ans B D

X.25 utilizes LAPB and uses switched and permanent VC's. It supports multiple layer protocols and is heavy laden with error detection and correction mechanisms.

180 Identify the purpose of the Trace command?

A.) Explorer packet transmitting routing information

B.) Test connectivity

C.) Determine the path a packet is taking through the network

D.) Transmits user data when buffers are full

Ans C

The trace command is used to determine the path a packet has taken through the network.

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide: Exam 640-802

CCNA Interview Question -8

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 15 Jul 2010 02:24:00 +0000

CCNA Official Exam Certification Library (Exam 640-802), Third Edition (Containing ICND1 and ICND2 Second Edition Exam Certification Guides)
141 LMI operates between the Frame Switch and what other device?
A.) CPE device
B.) Another Frame Switch
C.) X.25 switch
D.) Novell File Server

Ans A
LMI stands for local management interface. It operates between the Frame Relay switch and the customer equipment.

142 Identify IPX SAP and it's purpose?
A.) Sonet Access Pipe - interface to Sonet ring
B.) Service Advertising Protocol - advertise services
C.) Server Appletalk Protocol - appletalk directory services
D.) Service Access Point - identify upper layer protocols

Ans B
SAP is an Novell protocol to advertise services.

143 Identify the default values that make up IGRP's composite metric?
A.) Bandwidth
B.) Load
C.) Reliability
D.) MTU
E.) Delay

Ans A E
IGRP can be configured to use all 5 within it's metric. By default it uses bandwidth and delay.

144 Identify the default serial encapsulation?
A.) ISDN
B.) HDLC
C.) SDLC
D.) Frame Relay
E.) PPP

Ans B
The default serial encapsulation is HDLC.

145 Identify the purpose of ARP?
A.) Avoiding routing loops
B.) Determining a workstation's IP address
C.) Sending a directed broadcast
D.) Determining a workstation's MAC address

Ans D
ARP is used to find a devices MAC address given an IP address.

146 What is the purpose of the DLCI?
A.) Identifies the remote routers
B.) Contained with a 802.2 frame for routing purposes
C.) Used with PPP during authentication
D.) Identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network

Ans D
DLCI stands for Data Link Connection Identifier. It identifies the local PVC.

147 Identify 3 characteristics of the Network layer (OSI layer 3)?
A.) Connection oriented
B.) Path determination
C.) Supports multiplexing
D.) Manages sessions
E.) Packet forwarding

Ans B C E
The network layer is responsible for routing which entails learning the paths, selecting the best path and forwarding the packet. Because it services multiple layer 4 protocols it multiplexes.

148 Identify 3 characteristics of switches?
A.) Increase available bandwidth
B.) Decrease broadcast traffic
C.) Support full duplex in a multipoint topology
D.) Make forwarding decision using MAC address
E.) Create collision domains

Ans A D E
Switches operate at layer 2. They increase bandwidth by reducing the number of devices sharing the media. They isolate collisions. Like a bridge they forward traffic based upon layer 2 address/ MAC address.

149 Which OSI layer handles physical address, network topology?
A.) Presentation
B.) Physical
C.) Transport
D.) Application
E.) Data-Link
F.) Network

Ans E
Layer 2 the Data-Link layer performs this function.

150 Identify 2 reasons for disabling CDP?
A.) If the router is not configured for RIP
B.) Save bandwidth by eliminating overhead
C.) If the router is configured for Appletalk
D.) When connected to a non-Cisco router

Ans B D
CDP can be disabled here are a couple of reasons. Connecting a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. Don't want to exchange CDP information to save bandwidth.
CCNA Official Exam Certification Library (Exam 640-802), Third Edition (Containing ICND1 and ICND2 Second Edition Exam Certification Guides)

151 Identify 3 characteristics of ISDN?
A.) Transports voice and data
B.) Transports voice only
C.) Support both BRI and PRI
D.) Runs over existing phone lines
E.) Same as X.25

Ans A C D
ISDN supports voice, data, and video. It runs over existing phone lines and supports 128K (BRI) and T1 (PRI).

152 Identify the 3 characteristics of IGRP?
A.) Uses hop count as a metric
B.) Supports multiple unequal paths
C.) Administrative distance is 100
D.) Configured with an Autonomous system number
E.) Link state

Ans B C D
IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol, it's degree of trustworthiness is 100, it can support up to 6 un-equal paths and must be configured with an autonomous system number.

153 Identify 2 features of PPP CHAP authentication?
A.) Username and password is sent in clear text
B.) Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection
C.) Less secure then PAP
D.) Local router 'challenges' the remote router

Ans B D
PPP CHAP authentication message are sent periodically during the connection by challenging the other end of the connection.It is more secure than PAP and passwords and username are encrypted.

154 Identify the default IPX serial encapsulation?
A.) Novell-Ether
B.) SDLC
C.) SNAP
D.) HDLC

Ans D
The default IPX serial encapsulation is HDLC.

155 Identify the hardware component that stores the backup configuration?
A.) RAM
B.) NVRAM
C.) Flash
D.) ROM

Ans B
NVRAM contains the backup config. RAM is the dynamic memory area, ROM contains the boot strap code and Flash contains the IOS.

156 Identify the extended IP access-list number range?
A.) 600 - 699
B.) 1 - 99
C.) 900 - 999
D.) 100 - 199

Ans D
The extended IP access-list range is 100-199.

157 Identify 3 Fast Ethernet technologies?
A.) 100 Base FastEther
B.) 100 Base FX
C.) 100 Base T4
D.) 100 Base TX

Ans B C D
100 BaseFastEther is false. 100 Base FX, TX and T4 are all valid.

158 Identify the OSI layer which is responsible for end-to-end connections?
A.) Network
B.) Transport
C.) Session
D.) Data link
E.) TCP

Ans B
Layer 4 is the Transport layer and is responsible for end-to-end connections.

159 Identify the 2 characteristics regarding MAC addresses?
A.) Contains a network portion and host portion
B.) Always assigned by System Administrator
C.) 48 bits long
D.) Contains a vendor code and serial number

Ans C D
MAC addresses are assigned by the vendor. Each MAC address is 48 bits long and made up of 24 bits vendor code and 24 bits serial number.

160 Identify the number range for IPX SAP filters?
A.) 900 - 999
B.) 1000 - 1099
C.) 800 -899
D.) 100 - 199

Ans B
The IPX SAP filtering range is 1000-1099.
CCNA Official Exam Certification Library (Exam 640-802), Third Edition (Containing ICND1 and ICND2 Second Edition Exam Certification Guides)

CCNA Interview Question -7

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 15 Jul 2010 02:13:00 +0000

CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide
120 Identify the access-list range for an extended IP access-list?
A.) 800 - 899
B.) 1 - 99
C.) 1000 - 1099
D.) 100 - 199

Ans D
IP extended access-lists use the number range of 100-199.

121 Identify the X.25 addressing standard?
A.) X.121
B.) X.25a
C.) ITU-1
D.) Q933a

Ans A
The X.25 layer 3 addressing standards is X.121.

122 Identify 3 features of IGRP?
A.) Composite metric
B.) New horizon
C.) Flash updates
D.) 60 periodic updates
E.) Poison reverse

Ans A C E
IGRP uses a composite metric made up of bandwidth and delay by default, it updates every 60 seconds and will trigger an update if the topology changes.

123 Where is the backup configuration file stored?
A.) RAM
B.) ROM
C.) Console
D.) NVRAM

Ans D
One location to store the backup configuration is NVRAM.

124 Identify the correct pair of Novell Ethernet encapsulation and Cisco terminology?
A.) Ethernet II, Snap
B.) Ethernet 802.3, Novell-Ether
C.) Ethernet SNAP, Arpa
D.) Ethernet 802.2, Snap

Ans B
The default IPX LAN encapsulation is Novell-Ether which is 802.3

125 Identify 3 characteristics regarding IP access-lists?
A.) Can be configured as a standard access-list
B.) Can be run from another router running IP
C.) Can be configured as a named access-list
D.) Are the same as IPX access-lists
E.) Can be configured as an extended access-list

Ans A C E
There are 3 types of IP access-lists; standard, extended and named. Named access-lists can be either standard or extended depending on how they are configured.

126 Identify 3 ways in which a router can be configured?
A.) TFTP
B.) Nvram
C.) Ping
D.) Console
E.) Trace

Ans A B D
Changes to the configuration can be entered via the console, a config stored in NVRAM or on a TFTP server. Trace and ping are tools to verify connectivity.

127 A traffic light is an example of what type of mechanism?
A.) Collision detection
B.) Flow control
C.) Sequence numbering
D.) Network management

Ans B
A Traffic light is an example of flow control.

128 Windowing is a type of?
A.) Negative acknowledgement
B.) Address resolution
C.) Layer transition mechanism
D.) Flow control

Ans D
Windowing allow the sender and receiver to dictate how much information that can be received prior to an acknowledgement. It is a form of flow control.

129 Identify the 2 types of access-list filters that control SAP traffic?
A.) Novell-ether
B.) Arpa
C.) Input-sap-filter
D.) Round-robin
E.) Output-sap-filter

Ans C E
SAP's can be blocked by 2 methods; inbound and outbound.

130 Identify the 3 guidelines for routers in the same autonomous system?
A.) Must be configured for IGRP or RIP
B.) Interconnected
C.) Assigned the same autonomous system number
D.) Configured for the same routing protocol
E.) Must be same model of router

Ans B C D
Autonomous system must be interconnected, assigned the same AS # and configured with the same routing protocol.
CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide: Exam 640-802

131 Identify the hardware component used to store buffers, tables, running-configuration etc?

A.) NVRAM
B.) ROM
C.) RAM
D.) Flash

Ans C
RAM is the dynamic memory area. ROM contains the boot strap code, NVRAM contains the startup-config and Flash contains the IOS.

132 Identify 3 UDP characteristics?

A.) Reliable communication protocol
B.) Applications that use UDP must incorporate reliability
C.) Connection-less oriented
D.) Incorporates no handshaking

Ans B C D
UPD is a layer 4 Transport protocol. It is connection-less because it does establish a connection therefore the 3 step handshake is not needed, it does NOT implement any flow control or acknowledgments. Any application that uses UDP must incorporate any needed reliability.

133 Identify the IPX standard access-list number range?

A.) 600 - 699
B.) 1000 - 1099
C.) 1 - 99
D.) 100 - 199
E.) 800 - 899

Ans E
IPX standard access-list range is 800-899.

134 Which OSI layer provides best effort end to end packet delivery?

A.) Data-Link
B.) Presentation
C.) Network
D.) Transport
E.) Physical
F.) Application

Ans C
Layer 3 the Network layer performs this function.

135 Identify the 2 methods to modify the routers boot sequence?
A.) Setup program
B.) Boot system commands
C.) RXBoot
D.) Config-register

Ans B D
'Boot system' command the 'config-register' are used to manipulate the boot sequence.

136 Identify the 3 pieces of hardware you would not install to prevent broadcasts?

A.) Switch
B.) Repeater
C.) Bridge
D.) Router

Ans A B C
Router are implemented not only to break up networks into smaller segments but they are used to block broadcasts.

137 Identify 2 features of PPP PAP authentication?

A.) Username and password is sent in clear text
B.) Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection
C.) More secure than CHAP
D.) Remote node is control of authentication process

Ans A D
PPP PAP authentication sends the username and passwords in clear text and the remote node initiates the authentication process.

138 Identify the switching method that examines the destination MAC address as the frame is being received then begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame?

A.) Fragment-free
B.) Store and Forward
C.) Cut-through
D.) Fast forward

Ans C
Cut through examines the destination MAC address and begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame.

139 Identify 1 characteristic of RARP?

A.) IP to MAC address translation
B.) Connectionless delivery of packets
C.) Can be used to initiate remote O/S load sequence
D.) Generates error and control messages

Ans C
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol is used to obtain a layer 3 address if the MAC address is known which then facilitates the loading of the O/S.

140 Identify the protocol to test connectivity without configuring any layer 3 protocols?

A.) TCP
B.) Ping
C.) IP
D.) CDP
E.) Telnet

Ans D
CDP can be used to verify connectivity prior to any layer 3 protocols being configured.
CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide: Exam 640-802

CCNA Interview Question -6

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 11 Jul 2010 06:13:00 +0000

CCNA Certification All-In-One For Dummies
101 What IP command would you use to test the entire IP stack?
A.) Stack-test
B.) Arp
C.) Telnet
D.) Ping
E.) Trace

Ans C
Because Telnet is an application and it resides at the top of the stack it traverses down the stack and up the stack at the receiving end.

102 Identify the 2 hardware components used to manage and/or configure a router?
A.) Auxiliary port
B.) ROM port
C.) Management port
D.) Console port

Ans A D
The 2 hardware ports used to configure the router are the console and auxiliary ports.

103 What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection?
A.) 1200 baud
B.) 1.544 Mbps (T1)
C.) 10 Mbps
D.) 96Kpbs

Ans B
The default bandwidth is T1.

104 Identify 2 functions of IPX access-lists?
A.) Control SAP traffic
B.) Limit number of Novell servers on a network
C.) Limit number of workstations on a network
D.) Block IPX traffic

Ans A D
IPX access lists are used to restrict IPX traffic and SAP broadcasts.

105 Identify 2 HDLC characteristics?
A.) Default serial encapsulation
B.) Open standard
C.) Supports Stacker compression
D.) Supports point-to-point and multipoint

Ans A D
HDLC is the default serial encapsulation and supports point-to-point and multipoint. It is not an open standard and does not support compression.

106 Identify 3 IP applications?
A.) AURP
B.) ARP
C.) Telnet
D.) SMTP
E.) DNS
F.) RARP

Ans C D E
ARP and AURP are not part the application layer of the TCP/IP stack. SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, Telnet, DNS - Domain Name Services (name to IP resolution).

107 Identify 3 LAN technologies?
A.) FDDI
B.) HDLC
C.) HSSI
D.) X.25
E.) 802.3
F.) 802.5

Ans A E F
The question is asking for 3 LAN technologies, HDLC, HSSI and X.25 are all WAN technologies.

108 Identify the 4 that are not LAN technologies?
A.) HDLC
B.) FDDI
C.) 802.5
D.) HSSI
E.) SDLC
F.) Frame Relay

Ans A D E F
802.5 and FDDI are LAN technologies

109 Which OSI layer supports the communication component of an application?
A.) Data-Link
B.) Physical
C.) Session
D.) Presentation
E.) Application
F.) Transport

Ans E
Layer 7 the Application layer performs this function.

110 Identify the length of an IPX address and it's components?
A.) 80 bits, 48 bits network and 32 bits node
B.) 32 bits, 16 bits network and 16 bits node
C.) None of the above
D.) 80 bits, 32 bits network and 48 bits node

Ans D
IPX address has 2 components; network and node. The network address is 32 bits and the node is 48 bits, total of 80 bits.
CCNA 640-802 Exam Certification Library, Simulator Edition

111 Identify the administrative distance and appropriate routing protocol?
A.) RIP = 255, IGRP = 100
B.) RIP = 100, IGRP = 120
C.) RIP = 1, IGRP = 0
D.) RIP = 120, IGRP = 100

Ans D
The administrative distance for RIP is 120 and IGRP is 100. The lower the AD the better the routing information.

112 Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC?
A.) Data link
B.) Network
C.) Physcial
D.) Transport

Ans): A
Layer 2 the Data-Link layer incorporates the MAC and LLC sublayers

113 If configuring a Cisco router to connect to a non-Cisco router across a Frame Relay network, which encapsulation type would you select?
A.) Q933a
B.) ISDN
C.) IETF
D.) CISCO
E.) ANSI

Ans C
There are two types of Frame Relay encapsulations; Cisco and IETF. IETF is required when connecting a Cisco to a non-Cisco router.

114 Identify the 2 items that TCP and UDP share in common?
A.) Both use port numbers to identify upper level applications
B.) Operate at the Network layer
C.) Both are Transport protocols
D.) Both are reliable communications

Ans A C
TCP and UPD are both layer 4 Transport protocols and both use port number to identify upper level applications.

115 Identify 3 characteristics of IP RIP?
A.) Distance vector
B.) Administrative distance is 120
C.) Periodic updates every 60 seconds
D.) Uses a composite metric
E.) Can load balance

Ans A B E
IP RIP is a distance vector protocol, it can load balance up to 4 equal cost paths and it's rating of trustworthiness is 120.

116 Which of the following is a layer 2 device?
A.) Switch
B.) Router
C.) Repeater
D.) Hub

Ans A
A Hub and Repeater are layer 1 devices. A Router is a layer 3 device.

117 Identify the definition of demarcation?
A.) Date in which the WAN service contract expires
B.) Cabling which extends from the WAN service provider to the customer
C.) Division of responsibility, where the CPE ends and the local loop begins
D.) Equipment which is located at the customer premises

Ans C
Demarcation is the point in which responsibility changes hands.

118 Identify the 3 key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A.) Off by default
B.) Will allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers
C.) Verify connectivity
D.) Open standard
E.) Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured

Ans B C E
CDP is used for 2 basic reasons; neighbor connectivity and layer 3 discovery if configured. It is proprietary and is on by default.

119 Identify the 3 characteristics of IPX RIP?
A.) Distance vector
B.) Does not support multiple paths
C.) 60 second updates
D.) Default encapsulation is SAP
E.) Uses ticks and hop count as a metric

Ans A C E
IPX RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, it does support multiple paths, the default encapsulation is 'novell-ether', it uses tick count as a primary metric and hop count as a tie breaker and it sends it’s updates every 60 seconds.

120 Identify the access-list range for an extended IP access-list?
A.) 800 - 899
B.) 1 - 99
C.) 1000 - 1099
D.) 100 - 199

Ans D
IP extended access-lists use the number range of 100-199.
CCNA Preparation Library (7th Edition)

CCNA Interview Question -5

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 11 Jul 2010 06:07:00 +0000

CCNA Portable Command Guide (2nd Edition)
81 Which service takes information from multiple sources and allocates bandwidth on a single media?

A. Time-division Multiplexing (TDM)

B. Signaling System 7 (SS7)

C. X.25

D. Frame relay

Ans A

82 Which three devices can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service's facility?

A. Modem

B. CSU/DSU

C. TA/NT1

D. CO

E. SS7

Ans A, B & C

A modem, CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit), or TA/NT1 (Terminal Adapter/Network Termination 1) can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service's facility.

83 What is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins?

A. Demarc

B. CO

C. Local loop

D. Last-mile

Ans A

The demarcation or demarc is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins. The CO (Central Office) is the nearest point of presence for the provider's WAN service. The local loop or "last-mile" is the cabling that extends from the demarc into the WAN service provider's central office.

84 You can access three forms of WAN services with Cisco routers. Select the three forms:

A. Switched or relayed services

B. Interface front end to IBM enterprise data center computers

C. Using protocols that connect peer-to-peer devices like HDLC or PPP encapsulation.

D. IPX/SPX

E. NetBEUI

Ans: A, B & C

You can access three forms of WAN services with Cisco routers. Switched or relayed services include X.25, Frame Relay, and ISDN. An interface front end to IBM enterprise data center computers includes SDLC. And, you can access the services of WAN providers using protocols that connect peer devices such as HDLC and PPP encapsulation. IPX/SPX and NetBEUI are LAN protocols.

85 Select the fields for the Cisco HDLC protocol:

A. Flag, Address, Control

B. Flag, Address, Control, Protocol, LCP (Code, Identifier, Length, Data), FCS, Flag

C. Flag, Address, Control, Data, FCS, Flag

D. Flag, Address, Control, Proprietary, Data, FCS, Flag

Ans D

The Cisco HDLC frame format is Flag, Address, Control Proprietary, Data, FCS, Flag. The PPP frame format is Flag, Address, Control, Protocol, LCP (Code, Identifier, Length, Data), FCS, Flag. The SDLC and LAPB format is Flag, Address, Control, Data, FCS, Flag.

85: Select the physical interfaces that PPP can be configured on a Cisco router:

A. Asynchronous serial

B. HSSI

C. ISDN

D. Synchronous serial

Ans A, B, C & D

All four of them can carry PPP traffic. HSSI is High Speed Serial Interface.

86 Select the correct statements about PPP and SLIP for WAN communications?

A. PPP uses its Network Control Programs (NCPs) component to encapsulate multiple protocols.

B. PPP can only transport TCP/IP

C. SLIP can only transport TCP/IP.

D. SLIP uses its Network Control Programs (NCPs) component to encapsulate multiple protocols.

Ans A & C

87a Which protocol for PPP LCP (Link Control Protocol) performs a challenge handshake?

A. CHAP

B. PAP

C. UDP

D. IPX

Ans: A

87b Which form of PPP error detection on Cisco routers monitors data dropped on a link?

A. Quality

B. Magic Number

C. Error Monitor

D. Droplink

Ans: A

The Quality protocol monitors data dropped on a link. Magic Number avoids frame looping.

88 Which protocol for PPP provides load balancing across multiple links?

A. Multilink Protocol (MP)

B. Quality

C. Magic Number

D. Stacker

E. Predictor

Ans A

89 As the system administrator, you type "ppp authentication chap pap secret". Which authentication method is used first in setting up a session?

A. secret

B. PAP

C. CHAP

D. PPP/SLIP

Ans C

90 Select the compression protocols for PPP?

A. Stac

B. Predictor

C. Quality

D. Magic Number
CCNA Certification Kit: Exam 640-802

Ans: A & B

91 What are the three phases of PPP session establishment?

A. Link establishment phase

B. Authentication phase

C. Network layer protocol phase

D. Handshake phase

E. Dial-in phase

Ans A, B & C

92 What is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation?

A.) SNAP

B.) Arpa

C.) 802.2

D.) Novell-Ether

E.) SAP

Ans D

93 What must be true for two Routers running IGRP to communicate their routes?

A.) Same autonomous system number

B.) Connected using Ethernet only

C.) Use composite metric

D)Configured for PPP

Ans A

94 The following is partial output from a routing table, identify the 2 numbers in the square brackets; '192.168.10.0 [100/1300] via 10.1.0.1, 00:00:23, Ethernet1'

A.) 100 = metric, 1300 = administrative distance

B.) 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = hop count

C.) 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = metric

D.) 100 = hop count, 1300 = metric

Ans C

95 Identify 3 methods used to prevent routing loops?

A.) Split horizon

B.) Holddown timers

C.) Poison reverse

D.) SPF algorithm

E.) LSP's

Ans A B C

96 Which statement is true regarding full duplex?

A.) Allows for transmission and receiving of data simultaneously

B.) Only works in a multipoint configuration

C.) Does not affect the bandwidth

D.) Allows for transmission and receiving of data but not a the same time

Ans A

Full duplex is just the opposite of half duplex. It handles traffic in both directions simultaneously.

97 Identify the switching method that receives the entire frame then dispatches it?

A.) Cut-through

B.) Receive and forward

C.) Store and forward

D.) Fast forward

Ans C

Store and forward switching receives the entire frame before dispatching it.

98Identify the purpose of ICMP?

A.) Avoiding routing loops

B.) Send error and control messages

C.) Transporting routing updates

D.) Collision detection

Ans B

ICMP is used to send error and control messages. Ping uses ICMP to carry the echo-request and echo-reply.

99Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode?

A.) The '?' only works in Privileged exec

B.) They are identical

C.) They both require the enable password

D.) User exec is a subset of the privileged exec

Ans D

The user exec mode is a subset of the privileged exec mode. Only a certain number of commands are available at the user exec mode.

100 Which OSI layer end to end communication, segmentation and re-assembly?

A.) Network

B.) Transport

C.) Physical

D.) Application

E.) Data-Link

F.) Presentation

Ans B

Layer 4 the Transport layer performs this function.
CCNA Certification Kit: Exam 640-802

CCNA Interview Question -4

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 05 Jul 2010 16:17:00 +0000

CCNA Portable Command Guide (2nd Edition)
61 Which fields of an IP packet provide for fragmentation of datagrams to allow differing MTUs in the internet?

A. Identification

B. Flags

C. Frag Offset

D. Type of Service

E. Total Length

Ans A, B & C

The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:

VERS (Version number - 16 bits)

HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)

Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)

Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)

Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)

TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)

Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)

Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)

Source IP Address (32 bits)

Destination IP Address (32 bits)

IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)

Data (4 bits).

62 Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, use?

A. Windowing

B. Acknowledgements

C. Source Port

D. Destination Port

Ans A & B

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not use sequence or acknowledgement fields in transmission.UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol, since there is no delivery checking mechanism in the UDP data format.

63 What is the UDP datagram format?

A. Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits, Data

B. Destination Port - 16 bits, Source Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits, Data

C. Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Checksum - 16 Bits, Length - 16 bits, Data

D. Source Port - 8 bits, Destination Port - 8 bits, Length -8 Bits, Checksum - 8 bits, Data

Ans A

The UDP format for a segment is as follows:

Source Port 16 bits

Destination Port 16 bits

Length 16 bits

Checksum 16 bits

Data xx bits

64 What is the function of DDR on Cisco routers?

A. DDR is dial--on-demand routing. It provides a continuous LAN only connection.

B. DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for high volume traffic.

C. DDR is dial--on-demand routing. It provides a continuous WAN connection.

D. DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for low volume and periodic traffic.

Answer: D

DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for low volume and periodic traffic. It initiates a call to a remote site when there is traffic to transmit.

65 What are the two types of access lists that can be configured on a Cisco router?

A. Standard

B. Extended

C. Filtering

D. Packet

Ans: A & B

The access lists are standard and extended. Standard access lists for IP check the source address of packets that could be routed. Extended access lists can check the source and destination packet plus check for specific protocols, port numbers, etc.

66 When using access lists, what does a Cisco router check first?

A. To see if the packet is routable or bridgeable

B. The destination address

C. The source address

D. The packet contents

Ans A

The first thing checked is to see if the packet is routable or bridgeable. If it is not, the packet will be dropped.

67 How many access lists are allowed per interface?

A. One per port, per protocol

B. Two per port, per protocol

C. Unlimited

D. Router interface +1 per port.

Ans: A

Only one access list is allowed per interface. An access list must have conditions that test true for all packets that use the access list.

68 What do the following commands accomplish?

access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 1 permit any interface ethernet 0

IP access-group 1 out

A. This will block traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and allow all other traffic.

B. This will allow traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and block all other traffic.

C. All traffic is allowed.

D. All traffic is blocked.

Ans: A

This will block traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and allow all other traffic. The first statement "access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255" will deny access to the subnet 172.16.4.0.

69 What do the following statements in an extended access list accomplish?

access-list 101 deny TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 21

access-list 101 deny TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 20

access-list 101 permit TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

A. This will block ftp traffic.

B. This will block http traffic.

C. This will permit ftp traffic.

D. This will permit tftp traffic.

Ans: A

This will block ftp traffic since ftp uses ports 20 and 21.

70 Access lists are numbered. Which of the following ranges could be used for an IP access list?

A. 600 - 699

B. 100 - 199

C. 1 - 99

D. 800 - 899

E. 1000 - 1099

Answer: B & C

AppleTalk access lists use numbers in the 600 - 699 range. IP uses 1 - 99 for standard access lists or 100-199 for extended access lists. IPX uses 800 - 899 or 900 - 999 for extended access lists. IPX SAP filters use 1000 - 1099.
CCNA Practice Questions (Exam 640-802) (3rd Edition)

71 Cisco routers use wildcard masking to identify how to check or ignore corresponding IP address bits. What does setting a wildcard mask bit to 0 cause the router to do?

A. It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.

B. It tells the router to ignore the corresponding bit value.

C. It tells the router to check its alternate routing list.

D. It tells the router to use its primary routing list.

Ans A

It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.

72 You are a system administrator and you want to deny access to a group of computers with addresses 172.30.16.0 to 172.30.31.0. Which wildcard mask would you use?

A. 0.0.15.255

B. 0.0.255.255

C. 0.0.31.255

D. 0.0.127.255

E. 0.0.255.255

Ans: A

0.0.15.255 will check the last 13 bits of an address so that computers 172.30.16.0 to 172.30.31.0 will be denied access. 0.0.31.255 would check the last 6 binary digits and deny access to addresses 172.30.32.0 to 172.30.63.0. 0.0.127.255 would check the last 7 binary digits and deny access to addresses 172.30.64.0 to 172.30.127.0. 0.0.255.255 would deny 172.30.0.0 to 172.30.254.0. If you write decimal 15 in binary, you have 0001111, the 1's tell the router to ignore address with these bits set; 0's tell the router to check the bits. The third octet for 172.30.16.0 is 00010000. The third octet for 172.30.31.0 would be 00011111. So, traffic from these addresses would be denied.

73 In order to limit the quantity of numbers that a system administrator has to enter, Cisco can use which abbreviation to indicate 0.0.0.0?

A. host

B. any

C. all

D. include

Ans: A

Cisco uses host to specify 0.0.0.0. This tells the router to check all. Cisco uses any to specify 255.255.255.255. This tells the router to ignore all and permit any address to use an access list test.

74 What do the following commands accomplish?

access-list 1 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

interface ethernet 0

IP access-group 1 out

interface ethernet 1

IP access-group 1 out

A. Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be blocked.

B. Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be forwarded. Non-172.16.0.0 network traffic is blocked.

C. Non-172.16.0.0 traffic will be forwarded.

D. All traffic will be forwarded.

Ans: B

Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be forwarded. Non-172.16.0.0 network traffic is blocked. The wildcard mask 0.0.255.255 tells the router to check the first 2 octets and to ignore the last 2 octets.

75 When using access lists, it is important where those access lists are placed. Which statement best describes access list placement?

A. Put standard access lists as near the destination as possible. Put extended access lists as close to the source as possible.

B. Put extended access lists as near the destination as possible. Put standard access lists as close to the source as possible.

C. It isn't import where access lists are placed since the router will read and cache the whole list.

D. Put access lists as close to corporate headquarters as possible.

Ans A

Put standard access lists as near the destination as possible. Put extended access lists as close to the source as possible. Standard access lists don't specify the destination address.

76 As the system administrator, you enter the following commands at the command prompt:

ipx routing

access-list 800 permit 2b 4d

int e0

ipx network 4d

ipx access-group 800 out

int e1

ipx network 2b

int e2

ipx network 3c

What did these command accomplish?

A. Traffic from network 4c destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

B. Traffic from network 3c destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

C. Traffic from network 2b destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

D. Traffic from network 4d destined for network 2d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

Ans C

Traffic from network 2b destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0. The other interfaces E1 and E2 are not subject to the access list since they lack the access group statement to link them to access list 800.

78 The following commands were entered at the command prompt of a Cisco router. What do they accomplish?

access-list 1000 deny 9e.1234.5678.1212 4

access-list 1000 permit -1

interface ethernet 0

ipx network 9e

interface ethernet 1

ipx network 4a

interface serial 0

ipx network 1

ipx output-sap-filter 1000

A. File server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0.

B. All other SAP services, other than file server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.

C. All other SAP services, other than print server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.

D. Print server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0.

Ans A & B

File server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0. All other SAP services, other than file server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.

79 You receive "input filter list is 800 and output filter list is 801" as part of the output from a show interfaces command. What kind of traffic are you filtering?

A. IPX/SPX

B. TCP/IP

C. LocalTalk

D. DDR

Ans: A

Because the access list is numbered in the 800 range, you are filtering IPX/SPX traffic.

80 Which service uses telephone control messages and signals between the transfer points along the way to the called destination?

A. Signaling System 7 (SS7)

B. Time-division Multiplexing (TDM)

C. X.25

D. Frame relay

Ans: A

Signaling System 7 (SS7) uses telephone control messages and signals between the transfer points along the way to the called destination. Time-division Multiplexing (TDM) has information from multiple sources and allocates bandwidth on a single media. Circuit switching uses signaling to determine the call route, which is a dedicated path between the sender and the receiver. Basic telephone service and Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use TDM circuits. X.25 and Frame Relay services have information contained in packets or frames to share non-dedicated bandwidth. X.25 avoids delays for call setup. Frame Relay uses permanent virtual circuits (PVCs).
CCNA: Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide: Exam 640-802

CCNA Interview Question -3

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 04 Jul 2010 17:10:00 +0000

41 You are given the following address: 153.50.6.27/25. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address, and broadcast address.
A. 255.255.255.128, B,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127
B. 255.255.255.128, C,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127
C. 255.255.255.128, C,153.50.6.127, 153.50.6.0
D. 255.255.255.224, C,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127
Ans A

42 You are given the following address: 128.16.32.13/30. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address,
and broadcast address.
A. 255.255.255.252, B,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15
B. 255.255.255.252, C,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15
C. 255.255.255.252, B,128.16.32.15, 128.16.32.12
D. 255.255.255.248, B,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15
Ans A

43 You are given the following address: 15.16.193.6/21. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address,
and broadcast address.
A. 255.255.248.0, A, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255
B. 255.255.248.0, B, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255
C. 255.255.248.0, A, 15.16.199.255, 14.15.192.0
D. 255.255.242.0, A, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255
Ans A

44 You have an IP host address of 201.222.5.121 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248. What is the broadcast address?
A. 201.222.5.127
B. 201.222.5.120
C. 201.222.5.121
D. 201.222.5.122

Ans A
The easiest way to calculate this is to subtract 255.255.255.248 (subnet mask) from 255.255.255.255, this
equals 7. Convert the address 201.222.5.121 to binary--11001001 11011110 00000101 01111001. Convert the
mask 255.255.255.248 to binary--11111111 11111111 11111111 11111000. AND them together to get: 11001001 11011110
00000101 01111000 or 201.222.5.120. 201.222.5.120 is the subnet address, add 7 to this address for 201.222.5.127 or
the broadcast address. 201.222.5.121 through 201.222.5.126 are the valid host addresses.

45 Given the address 172.16.2.120 and the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. How many hosts are available?
A. 254
B. 510
C. 126
D. 16,372

Ans A
172.16.2 120 is a standard Class B address with a subnet mask that allows 254 hosts. You are a network administrator and have been assigned the IP address of 201.222.5.0. You need to have 20 subnets with 5 hosts per subnet. The subnet mask is 255.255.255.248.

46 Which addresses are valid host addresses?
A. 201.222.5.17
B. 201.222.5.18
C. 201.222.5.16
D. 201.222.5.19
E. 201.222.5.31

Ans A,B & D
Subnet addresses in this situation are all in multiples of 8. In this example, 201.222.5.16 is the subnet, 201.22.5.31 is the broadcast address. The rest are valid host IDs on subnet 201.222.5.16.

47 You are a network administrator and have been assigned the IP address of 201.222.5.0. You need to have 20 subnets with
5 hosts per subnet. What subnet mask will you use?
A. 255.255.255.248
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.240

Ans A
By borrowing 5 bits from the last octet, you can. have 30 subnets. If you borrowed only 4 bits you could only have 14 subnets. The formula is (2 to the power of n)-2. By borrowing 4 bits, you have (2x2x2x2)-2=14. By borrowing 5 bits, you have (2x2x2x2x2)-2=30. To get 20 subnets, you would need to borrow 5 bits so the subnet mask would be 255.255.255.248.

48 You are given the IP address of 172.16.2.160 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. What is the network address in binary?
A. 10101100 00010000
B. 00000010 10100000
C. 10101100 00000000
D. 11100000 11110000

Ans: A
To find the network address, convert the IP address to binary--10101100 000100000 00000010 10100000--then ANDed it with the subnet mask--11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000. The rest is 10101100 00010000 00000000 00000000, which is 172.16.0.0 in decimal.
The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.

49 Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?
A. 128 to 191, Class B
B. 192 to 223 Class B
C. 128 to 191, Class C
D. 192 to 223, Class C

Ans B & C
Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and
240 to 255, Class E. The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.

50 Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?
A. 1 to 126, Class A
B. 128 to 191, Class A
C. 1 to 126, Class B
D. 128 to 191, Class B

Ans:B & C.
Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and
240 to 255, Class E. The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.

51 Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?
A. 240 - 255, Class D
B. 240 - 255, Class E
C. 224 - 239, Class D
D. 224 - 239, Class E

Ans A & D
Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and 240 to 255, Class E.

52 Which IP Address Class is INCORRECTLY paired with its range of network numbers?
A. Class A addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0
B. Class A addresses include 1.0.0.0 through 126.0.0.0
C. Class B addresses include 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.0.0
D. Class C addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0
E. Class D addresses include 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.0

Ans A
Class A addresses include 1.0.0.0 through 126.0.0.0
Class B addresses include 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.0.0
Class C addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0
Class D addresses include 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.0

53 Which IP Address Class can have 16 million subnets but support 254 hosts?
A. Class C
B. Class A
C. Class B
D. Class D

Ans A
Possible Subnets IP Address Class Possible Hosts
254 A 16M.
64K B 64K
16M C 254

54 Which IP Address Class can have 64,000 subnets with 64,000 hosts per subnet?
A. Class B
B. Class A
C. Class C
D. Class D

Ans A
IP Address Class Possible Subnets Possible Hosts
254 A 16M
64K B 64K
16M C 254

55 There are two processes to pair MAC address with IP addresses. Which process finds an IP address from a MAC address?
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. RIP
D. IGRP

Ans A
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps an IP address to the MAC address, RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) maps the MAC address to the IP address. ARP and RARP work at the internet layer of the Internet Model or the network layer of the OSI model.

56 When the router runs out of buffer space, this is called ________.
A. Source Quench
B. Redirect
C. Information Request
D. Low Memory

Ans A
Source quench is the process where the destination router, or end internetworking device will "quench" the date from the "source", or the source router. This usually happens when the destination router runs out of buffer space to process packets.

57 Which protocol carries messages such as destination Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem, Source Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp, Information Request, Information Reply, Address Request, and Address Reply?
A. ICMP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. TFTP
E. FTP

Ans A
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network layer internet protocol described in RFC # 792. ICMP reports IP packet information such as destination Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem, Source Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp, Information Request, Information Reply, Address Request, and Address Reply.

58 Two of the protocols that can be carried in the Protocol field of an IP packet are?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. FTP
D. TFTP

Ans A & B
The following are the fields in an IP segment,their length, and their definitions:
VERS (Version number - 16 bits)
HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)
Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)
Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)
Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)
TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)
Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)
Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)
Source IP Address (32 bits)
Destination IP Address (32 bits)
IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)
Data (4 bits).

59 Where would network testing be included in an IP packet?
A. IP Options field
B. Identification field
C. Type of Service field
D. Reservation field

Ans A
The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:
VERS (Version number - 16 bits)
HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)
Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)
Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)
Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)
TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)
Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)
Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)
Source IP Address (32 bits)
Destination IP Address (32 bits)
IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)
Data (4 bits).

60 What field tells the Internet layer how to handle an IP packet?
A. Type of Service
B. Identification
C. Flags
D. Frag Offset

Ans A
The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:
VERS (Version number - 16 bits)
HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)
Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)
Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)
Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)
TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)
Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)
Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)
Source IP Address (32 bits)
Destination IP Address (32 bits)
IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits) Data (4 bits).

CCNA Interview Questions -2

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 07 Mar 2010 09:29:00 +0000

21 Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?
A. NLSP
B. RIP
C. SAP
D. NCP

Ans: A

NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare Core Protocol) provides client-to-server connections and applications. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol.

22 As a system administrator, you want to debug igrp but are worried that the "debug IP igrp transaction" command will flood the console. What is the command that you should use?
A. debug IP igrp event
B. debug IP igrp-events
C. debug IP igrp summary
D. debug IP igrp events

Ans D

The "debug IP igrp events" is used to only display a summary of IGRP routing information. You can append an IP address onto either command to see only the IGRP updates from a neighbor.

23 What does the following series of commands accomplish? router igrp 71 network 10.0.0.0 router igrp 109 network 172.68.7.0
A. It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0.
B. It loads igrp for networks 109 and 71.
C. It disables RIP.
D. It disables all routing protocols.

Ans A

It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous systems 109 and 71 with IGRP. IGRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at the same time.

24 In the command "router igrp 109" what does 109 signify?
A. an autonomous system
B. any network number which the router is attached to
C. the allowable length of the routing table
D. the network socket number

Ans A

The Cisco IOS global configuration command "router igrp xxx" is used to configure the Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. In this case, the 109 is called the process-id , which can also be used for an autonomous system number.

25 IGRP supports a feature that allows traffic to be distributed among up to 6 (4 default) paths to provide greater overall throughput and reliability. What is this called?
A. unequal-cost load balancing
B. equal-cost load balancing
C. proportionate load balancing
D. low cost load balancing

Ans A

An unequal-cost load balancing is used to provide alternate paths for data distribution on an internetwork. Cisco developed this method to use unused or under utilized links to increase bandwidth and network availability.

26 IGRP uses flash updates, poison reverse updates, holddown times, and split horizon. How often does it broadcast its routing table updates?
A. 90 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 45 seconds

Ans A

27 The command "show IP protocol" displays which information?
A. routing timers
B. network information
C. contents of the IP routing table
D. information about all known network and subnetworks

Ans A & B

"show IP protocol" displays routing timers and network information. "show IP route" displays the routing table with information about all known networks and subnetworks.

28 When using RIP, routing updates are broadcast every ____ seconds.
A. 30
B. 10
C. 60
D. 90

Ans: A

Novell's RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple's RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers ARP every 60 seconds, DECnet hosts and IGRP signal every 15 seconds, and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.

29 An autonomous system can only exist if all routers in that system meet which criteria?
A. interconnected
B. run the same routing protocol
C. assigned same autonomous system number
D. run IGRP only
E. run RIP only

Ans A,B &C

An autonomous system is a set of routers and networks under the same administration. Each router must be interconnected, run the same routing protocol, and assigned the same autonomous system number. The network Information Center (NIC) assigns a unique autonomous system number to enterprises.

30 A default route is analogous to a _________.
A. default gateway
B. static route
C. dynamic route
D. one-way route

Ans: A

A default route is analogous to a default gateway. It is used to reduce the length of routing tables and to provide complete routing capabilities when a router might not know the routes to all other networks.

31 Routers can learn about destinations through static routes, default, or dynamic routing. By default, a router will use information derived from __________.
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. IP
D. TCP

Ans A

The quality of information is rated:
Connected interface 0
Static route 1
IGRP 100
RIP 120
Unknown 255
The lower the value, the more reliable the source with 255 signifying information that the router will ignore. So, the router will use IGRP, rated at 100, before RIP, rated at 120.

32 You are logged into a router, what command would show you the IP addresses of routers connected to you?
A. show cdp neighbors detail
B. show run
C. show neighbours
D. show cdp

Ans A

33 As a system administrator, you perform an extended ping at the privileged EXEC prompt. As part of the display, you see "Set DF bit in IP header? [yes] :" What would happen if you answered no at the prompt.
A. This lets the router fragment the packet.
B. It tells the router not to fragment the packet.
C. This lets the router direct the packet to the destination it finds in its routing table.
D. It tell the router to send the packet to the next hop router

Ans A

"Set DF bit in IP header?" is a response to an extended ping at the router. If you answer yes (the default) the router will not fragment the packet. If you answer no, the router will fragment the packet.

34 You have typed "ping" 172.16.101.1 and get the following display: Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echoes to 172.16.101.1, timeout is 2 seconds:
What does the "." signify?
A. That one message timed out.
B. That all messages were successful.
C. That one message was successful.
D. That one message completed in under the allotted timeframe.

Ans A

The possible responses from the ping command are: ! Successful receipt of an echo reply. Timed out waiting for a reply U Destination unreachable C Congestion-experienced packet I Ping interrupted ? Packet type unknown & Packet TTL exceeded

35 Which command, that is used to test address configuration, uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router.
A. trace
B. ping
C. telnet
D. bootp

Ans: A

The Cisco IOS EXEC command "trace [protocol] [destination]" is used to discover routes that packets will travel to their destination hosts. Trace uses TTL (Time to Live) values to report destination route information.

36 What does the command "IP name-server 255.255.255.255" accomplish?
A. It sets the domain name lookup to be a local broadcast.
B. This is an illegal command.
C. It disables domain name lookup.
D. The command is now defunct and has been replaced by "IP server-name ip any"

Ans A

By default DNS is enabled on a router with a server address of 255.255.255.255, which provides for a local broadcast.

37 As a system administrator, you need to provide your routers with a Domain Name System (DNS) server. How many DNS servers can you specify with one command?
A. 6
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

Ans A

You can only specify six name servers in one command. The syntax is "IP name-server server-address1 [[ server-address2 ]...server-address6]. You must also enable DNS.

38 How would you configure one host name that points to two IP addresses?
A. IP host jacob 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8
B. IP jacob 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8
C. IP host jacob 1.0.0.5
D. IP host duplicate "all"

Ans A

The correct syntax is IP host name [ TCP-port-number ] address [ address ]..... So, "IP host P1R1 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8" is the correct choice. "IP host jacob 1.0.0.5" only points the host name jacob to one IP address--1.0.0.5.

39 The following selections show the command prompt and the configuration of the IP network mask. Which two are correct?
A. Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
B. Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
C. Router(config-if)#netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
D. Router#ip netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }

Ans A & B

Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } and Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } are correct. You can configure the mask for the current session and you can configure it for a specific line.

40 When configuring the subnet mask for an IP address, which formats can be used?
A. dotted-decimal.
B. Hexadecimal
C. Bit-count
D. Octal
E. Binary

Ans A, B &C

CCNA Interview Questions -1

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 26 Feb 2010 05:29:00 +0000

1.(451), 2 hops type 0x4, "HELLO1", 199.0002.0003.0008 (451), 2 hops What does "0x4" signify?

A. That is a Get Nearest Server response.

B. That it is a General query.

C. That it is a General response.

D. That it is a Get Nearest Server request.

Ans A

2.) To monitor IP igrp traffic, you can use "debug IP igrp transaction" or "debug IP igrp events". How do you display information about IPX routing update packets?

A. debug routing

B. debug ipx transaction

C. debug ipx routing activity

D. debug ipx events

Ans: C

3 To monitor ipx traffic on a network, what command would you use?

A. debug ipx transaction

B. show ipx traffic

C. show ipx events

D. display ipx traffic

Ans B

4 What command would you use to find out the names of Novell servers on a network?

A. show ipx servers

B. show ipx hosts

C. show ipx sap

D. show ipx nodes.

Ans A

5 The "ipx delay number" command will allow an administrator to change the default settings. What are the default settings?

A. For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks

B. For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick

C. For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks

D. For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks

Ans A

The default is--for LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks

6 As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will accomplish this?

A. interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx network 6c

B. interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

C. interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap

D. interface ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

Ans D

The following commands setup the subinterfaces to allow for two types of encapsulation: interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

7 What does the "IPX maximum-paths 2" command accomplish?

A. It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths.

B. It sets up routing to go to network 2.

C. It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing.

D. It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths.

Ans A

It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 path and the maximum is 512 paths.

8 You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface. How do you do this?

A. The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration.

B. Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type.

C. Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types.

D. Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don't have to configure anything.

Ans B

To assign multiple network numbers, you usually use subinterfaces. A sample configuration follows: ipx ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6cBy default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to remote networks.

A. False

B. True

Ans A

GNS is Novell's protocol to Get Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local network, that server will respond. If there isn't, the Cisco router has to be configured to forward the GNS SAP.

9 To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from flooding a network, Cisco routers do not forward them. How are services advertised to other networks?

A. Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds.

B. Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts that.

C. SAPs aren't necessary with Cisco routers.

D. Cisco routers filter out all SAPs.

Ans: A

Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward the table every 60 seconds. All SAPs can't be filtered even with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses SAPs.

10 Novell's implementation of RIP updates routing tables every ____ seconds.

A. 60

B. 90

C. 10

D. 30

Ans A

Novell's RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple's RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers ARP every 60 seconds, IGRP signal every 90 seconds, and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.

11 In Novell's use of RIP, there are two metrics used to make routing decisions. Select the two metrics.

A. Ticks.

B. Hops

C. Loops

D. Counts

Ans:A &B

It first uses ticks (which is about 1/18 sec.); if there is a tie, it uses hops; if hops are equal, then it uses an administratively assigned tiebreaker.

12 What is the Cisco name for the encapsulation type used on a serial interface?

A. HDLC

B. SDLC

C. SAP

D. SNAP

Ans A

13 "arpa" is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?

A. Ethernet_II

B. Ethernet_802.3

C. Ethernet_802.2

D. Ethernet_SNAP

Ans A

Novell's IPX and Cisco's IOS name their protocols differently. Cisco uses sap for Ethernet_802.2, Token-Ring, and Novell's FDDI_802.2. Cisco uses snap for Ethernet_SNAP, Token-Ring_SNAP, and FDDI_SNAP. Cisco uses arpa for Ethernet_II and, finally the default is Novell-ether for Novell's Ethernet_802.3.

14 "snap" is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?

A. Ethernet_SNAP

B. Token-Ring_SNAP

C. FDDI_SNAP

D. Novell-SNAP

E. Novell-FDDI.

Ans: A,B &C

15"sap" is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?

A. Ethernet_802.2

B. Token-Ring

C. FDDI_SNAP

D. Ethernet_802.3

E. FDDI_802.2

Ans A,B &E

16 Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and AppleTalk?

A. Ethernet 802.3

B. Ethernet 802.2

C. Ethernet II

D. Ethernet SNAP

Ans D

Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used with NetWare 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DECnet, and Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk.

17 Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DECnet?

A. Ethernet 802.3

B. Ethernet 802.2

C. Ethernet II

D. Ethernet SNAP

Ans: C

18 You are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?

A. NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.

B. NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation

C. Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11.

D. NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.

Ans A

The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12 and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.

19 NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statements are true?

A. The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long.

B. The node address is always administratively assigned.

C. The node address is usually the MAC address.

D. If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP.

Ans A, C &D

The network address can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is 12 hexadecimal digits. The node address is usually the MAC address. An example IPX address is 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network part is 4a1d. The node part is 0000.0c56.de33. The network number is assigned by the system administrator of the Novell network.

20 Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3--network layer—of the OSI model?

A. IPX

B. NCP

C. SPX

D. NetBIOS

Ans A

IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is a NetWare network layer 3 protocol used for transferring information on LANs.

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question - 21

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 07 Jun 2009 02:48:00 +0000

Question 501) Which option of patchadd command does not backup the files to be patched?
a -u
b -f
c -v

Ans: a

Question 502) What permissions are needed to change to a directory and list its contents ?
a r--
b rw-
c r-x

Ans: c

Question 503) Which commands will create a file ?
a touch filename
b cat filename
c ls filename
d cat blah filename

Ans: a,d

Question 504) You go to a users desk and find that the technician has su'd to root and left the station still logged in. You have 5 junior admins under you. What command can you use to determine who the culprit is
a who am i
b who
c last
d finger

Ans: a

Question 505) The cron daemon
a schedules jobs to run
b executes jobs to run

Ans: b

Question 506) You want to print a file with the highest priority, how do you do this ?
a lp -q 0 filename
b lp -q high filename
c lp -q immediate filename
d lp -q

Ans: a

Question 507) What is denoted by the following permissions on the file taxes1999? -r-sr-xr-x
a the file is not executable by anyone but root
b world readable-writable by all users
c file has been locked to all users
d The current owner and root of the file can execute it.
e None of the above

Ans: d

Question 508) Who can remove print job ?
a root
b file owner
c job owner

Ans: a,b

Question 509) Which of the following executes a task at 700pm once?
a at 700pm task
b at 1900 at task
c at 700pm at task at ctrl-d
d at 1900 at ctrl-d task

Ans: c

Question 510) What is the purpose of the PROM? Choose all that apply.
a Boot the operating system
b Test the hardware
c Initialize daemons
d Share resources via NFS
e None of the above

Ans: a,b

Question 511) In Bourne shell, how to assign value to variable EDITOR ?
a EDITOR=/bin/vi
b set EDITOR /bin/vi

Ans: a

Question 512) You wish to run extensive diagnostics on your sun box during bootup, what should you do?
a Nothing, it will run an extensive POST by default.
b Press and hold the stop key while powering on the system.
c Press and hold the stop key as well as the S key
d Press and hold the stop key while pressing the M key.
e None of the above

Ans: e

Question 513) What do you choose to use the new disk from the format menu?
a new
b disk
c select
d

Ans: b

Question 514) If you have an umask of 022, and you create a new empty file, which permissions will it have?
a 644
b 755
c 666
d 123

Ans a

Question 515) If you type the word Mississipi3 for the passwd command
a It is correct
b It is and invalid password
c The passwd command shows you an error message
d The passwd command displays a warning message

Ans: b

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question - 20

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 07 Jun 2009 02:44:00 +0000

Question 476) If you are on a VT220 terminal and there is no stop key on the keyboard, which of the following is true
a A break signal cannot be sent to the machine from the terminal.
b A break signal can be sent by pressing CTRL, ALT and Del together.
c Check the VT220 terminal manual to find out he key to generate the break signal.
d Power down the VT220 terminal to send the break signal.

Ans: c

Question 478) Your current working directory is the /export/home_a/user/ directory. Which 2 commands strings put you into the /export/home_b/user 20 directory?
a cd ../../home_b/user 20
b cd /export/home_b/user 20

Ans a,b

Question 479) What are the 3 default Solaris 8 shells?
a c,bourne,korn
b bash,korn,bourne
c sun,korn,bourne

Ans: a

Question 480) What affect does setting ignoreeof environment variable have ?
a Shell will ignore Control-D, so you cat not log out with it
b can not end letter using mail command since Control-D will be ignored

Ans: a

Question 481) How many shells are available in solaris 8 operating environment?
a 3
b 4
c 8
d 6

Ans: d

Question 482) In order to monitor system message on the console,uncomment CONSOLE=/dev/console in which file ?
a /etc/default/su
b /etc/default/login
c /etc/default/init
d /etc/default/passwd

Ans: a

Question 483) Which of the following command shows the processes associated with the local terminal?
a ps -e
b ps -ef
c ps -a
d ps

Ans: c

Question 484) How will u change all the occurences of "Solaris" into "Solaris Operating Enviroment" in a file?
a %s/Solaris/Solaris Opearating Environment/g
b %r/Solaris/Solaris Opearating Environment/g
c %c/Solaris/Solaris Opearating Environment/g

Ans: a

Question 485) Which directory does "cd .." change to ?
a parent directory
b child directory
c home directory
d root directory

Ans: a

Question 486) What are the ways to quit vi?
a wq
b w
c q
d ZZ
e quit

Ans: a,b,d

Question 487) What is the correct sequence of file type ?
a owner other group
b other group owner
c owner group other
d group other owner

Ans: c

Question 488) Siva has taken a position with a competing firm. How would you go about locking his account so that he can no longer gain access to the system? Choose all that apply.
a use the admintool to delete his account.
b i userdel ram12
c i passwd -l ram12
d using the admintool remove him from the accounting group
e None of the above

Ans: c

Question 489) In relative path, which is the default in the directory hierarchy ?
a look down the directory
b look up the directory

Ans: a

Question 490) From the command line, how would you delete users directory and login at the same time?
a userdel -d siva
b userdel -r siva
c userdel -l siva
d userdel -o siva

Ans: b

Question 491) How to display disk usage in terms of kilobyte ?

a df -k
b du -k
c df
d du

Ans: a

Question 492) If you have drwxrwsrwx, how to disable de setgid bit?
a chmod 0777
b chmod g-s
c chmod 2755
d chmod 2777

Ans: b

Question 493) The right way to use these two commands chown, chgrp
a chown new_owner filename
b chown filename new_owner
c chgrp new_group filename
d chgrp filename new_group

Ans: a,c

Question 494) What is the command displaying a trailer character in order to recognize what is the file type?
a ls -A
b ls -F
c ls -d
d ls -l

Ans: d

Question 495) What does r-x mean ?
dr-xr-xr-x
-r-xr-xr-x
a writable, executable
b readable, searchable
c readable, executable
d read only

Ans: b,c

Question 496) You suspect that someone has been trying to login to the network. What would you have to do set up the system to record failed login attempts?
a Nothing, account logging is on by default in ver 8\par
b Uncomment the line initializing logging in the startup script
c Enable the logging daemon
d Create a file called loginlog in /var/adm/
e None of the above

Ans: d

Question 497Which of the following is the first phase in the Solaris boot process?
a init
b Boot PROM or BIOS
c Boot programs
d Kernel initialization

Ans: b

Question 498) What is illegal character in host name ?
a letter
b number
c slash (/)
d underscore (_)

Ans: c

Question 499) Where does the command who look for information about users currently on the system?
a /var/adm/who
b /var/adm/utmpx
c /var/sadm/ucmp
c /var/sadm/all

Ans: b

Question 500) What does t mean in -rwx-----t ?
a readable
b searchable
c setgid
d sticky bit

Ans: d

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question - 19

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 24 May 2009 06:48:00 +0000

Question 451) Which command is used to change the system boot device?
a use disk2 as boot-device
b set boot-device disk2
c setenv boot-device disk2
d set boot-dev disk2
e setdev boot disk2

Ans: c

Question 452) When you use the command #reject printer1 ,
a printer1 will reject additional print requests on the printer
b printer1 will move or cancel any requests that are currently queued to the printer
c printer1 will be temporarily unavailable (equivalent to pressing "online/offline" on the printer itself
d printer1 will will accept print jobs

Ans: a,b

Question 453) When you use the command #disable printer1
a printer1 will reject additional print requests on the printe r
b printer1 will move or cancel any requests that are currently queued to the printer
c printer1 will be temporarily unavailable (equivalent to pres sing "online/offline" on the d printer itself
e printer1 will accept print jobs

Ans: c,e

Question 454) Which of the following command may be used to check the status of the print queues?
a lp -q
b lp -s printername
c lp -q printername
d lpstat -o
e lpstat -p printername

Ans: d,e

Question 455) In order to redefine available set of commands you can execute,which variable must you modify ?
a DISPLAY
b PATH
c HOME
d PS1

Ans: b

Question 456) Which of the following files may be use to control the usage of crontab?
a /etc/crontab/cron.allow
b /etc/crontab/cron.deny
c /etc/cron.d/cron.allow
d /etc/cron.d/cron.deny
e /etc/cron.access
f /etc/crontabACL

Ans: c,d

Question 457) Which daemon may execute commands repeatedly ?
a cron
b at
c cronat
d crontab

Ans: a

Question 458) Which of the following may be considered as serial devices?
a serial ports
b SCSI ports
c alphanumeric terminals
d modems
e serial printers

Ans: a,c,d,e

Question 459) What does R means: in the S column of the output of ps command?
a The process is running.
b The process is on the running queue
c This process is a regular process.
d This is a sleeping process.

Ans: a

Question 450) What are the serial interfaces?
a Small Computer System Interface
b Serial Device Peripheral Interface
c Data Terminal Equipment
d Data Communications equipment
e Serial Data Interface
f Serial Communication Equipment

Ans: c,f

Question 451) Which command does a full backup of all files in the /export/home file system to the /dev/rmt/1 remote tape device attached to the workstation "mars".
a ufsdump Of mars/dev/rmt/1 /export/home
b dd 0f mars/dev/rmt/1 /export/home
c cpio > i mars/dev/rmt/1 /export/home

Ans: a

Question 452) Pin 2 of the RS-232-C 25 pin connector for a Data Terminal Equipment is used to
a transmit signal
b receive signal

Ans: a

Question 453) Which of the following are true of null modem cable ?
a A null modem cable provides meAns: for two DTE devices to communicate with each other without a modem
b A null modem cable crosses pins 2 and 3
c A null modem cable crosses pins 7 and 8
d Only pins 2,3 and 7 are required for communications between two DTE devices

Ans: a,b,d

Question 454) The tip command
a may be used to connect a remote host using a modem
b uses full duplex connection over a parallel line
c will cause a file called .tiprc in the user's home directory to be executed
d may use the following environment variables REMOTE, PHONES, HOST, HOME, SHELL
e uses the following files /etc/phones, /etc/remote, /var/adm/aculog and ~/.tiprc

Ans: a,b,c,d,e

Question 455) Root user is
a user ID=0, group ID=0
b user ID=0, group ID=1
c user ID=1, group ID=0
d user ID=1, group ID=1

Ans: b

Question 456) Which Sun system will halt and poweroff when "init 5" is executed ?
a sun3
b sun4
c sun4c
d sun4m
e sun4d

Ans: d

Question 457) Which of the following module is used to perform standard terminal I/O processing?
a ldterm
b sacadm
c pmadm
d ttyadm
e nlsadmin

Ans: a

Question 458) Password is verified against which file ?
a /etc/shadow
b /etc/passwd

Ans: a

Question 459) The SAF (Service Access Facility)
a may be used for monitoring of the parallel ports
b uses the port monitor process to manage the USB port
c uses ttymon to manage serial ports
d manages network ports using the listen daemon

Ans: a,b,c,d

Question 460) Which of the following daemons is used for detecting incoming login requests and dispatching these requests appropriately, setting terminal modes and baud rates?
a listen
b logind
c ttymon
d ttyd
e seriald

Ans: a,b,c,d,e

Question 461) Which of the following command copy files to remote system ?
a rcp
b rsh
c ftp
d telnet

Ans: a

Question 462) Which option of the usermod command allows the use of duplicate user IDs?
a -o
b -i
c -u

Ans: a

Question 463) What does .login commonly have ?
a environment variables
b shell variables
Ans: a

Question 464) What file is created by ttymon and contains successful logins information ?
a /var/adm/logins
b /var/ttylogs
c /var/tty/logins
d /var/adm/utmp
e /var/logs/ttylog

Ans: d

Question 465) What command can be used to set the values of the positional parameters?
a setenv
b setparam
c setpos
d setpp
e set

Ans: e

Question 466) When is the system profile executed?
a After the .profile in the home directory of the user account
b Before the .profile in the home directory of the user account
c Instead of the .profile in the home directory of the user account

Ans: b

Question 467) The sh command is a useful one to debug shell scripts. Which option of the sh command may be used to print commands and their arguments as they are executed?
a -v
b -s
c -x
d -d
e -c

Ans: c

Question 468) What type of file is this?
drwxr_xr_x 1 tom users 512 Sep 1 0826 devices
a block
b Directory
c Symbolic link
d Device
e Regular

Ans: b

Question 469) How to terminate an application ?
a Ctrl-c
b kill command
c quit from window for any window applications
d suspend command

Ans: a,b,c

Question 470) What is the block size that df shows disk space in,by default?
a 256 bytes
b 512 bytes
c 1024 bytes
d 2048 bytes

Ans: b

Question 471) Which of the following command show the patches installed?
a pkginfo
b patchadd -p
c showrev -p
d patchinfo

Ans: b,c

Question 472) Which command, similar to tar in syntax, produces an archive which compresses each file before archiving it?
a tar
b Zcat
c cpio

Ans: b

Question 473) What value represents Sunday in the day of week field in crontab?
a 0
b 1
c 6
d 7

Ans: a

Question 474) Which process tool can you use to find the current working directory for a process?
a ps
b pwdx
c dir

Ans: b

Question 475) How do you find all the patches that have been applied to the package SUNWtest?
a showrev -p |grep SUNWtest
b pacthinfo SUNWtest
c showpacth -p SUNWtest

Ans: a

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question - 18

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 16 Apr 2009 18:02:00 +0000

Question 426) What is the command to send a print request to printer printer1 to print file1 without banner?
a lp file1
b lp -n printer1 file1
c lp -d printer1 -o nobanner file1
d lp -p printer1 -o nobanner file1
e lp -p printer1 -b file1

Ans: a,b,c,d,e

Question 427) Which command list hidden files ?
a ls -l
b ls -a
c ls -h
d ls -IF

Ans: b

Question 428) To execute the reducelog command at 11 P.M. every Sunday evening, which entry should be placed in a crontab file?
a 11 00 * * 0 reducelog
b 0 23 * * 0 reducelog
c * * 23 0 0 reducelog
d reducelog 11 00 * * 0

Ans: b

Question 429) What is the command to display all status information output and the acceptance and idle or busy status of all printers?
a lp -a
b lp -d
c lp -o
d lp -p
e lp -s
f lp -t

Ans: f

Question 430) Which environment variable is used to set default printer?
a PRINT
b DEFAULTPRINTER
c LPDEST
d DEFAULT

Ans: c

Question 431) What is the command to display the idle or busy status and availability of all printers?
a lp -a
b lp -d
c lp -o
d lp -p
e lp -s
f lp -t

Ans: d

Question 432) What is the result of using the following command?
# mkdir -p dir1/dir2/dir3
a it creates 3 directories, named dir1, dir1/dir2, and dir1/dir2/dir3 respectively.
b it is not a valid command
c it creates directories names dir1,dir2,dir3 respectively

Ans: a

Question 433) What are the commands to cancel a specific printer request waiting in the queue or the print request currently printing?
a lp -k
b lp -k
c lp -k
d cancel -u
e cancel

Ans: d,e

Question 434) What is the terminology used to describe a named group of printers created with the lpadmin command?
a cluster
b group
c class
d circle
e school

Ans: c

Question 444) Which error message this command will generate
cd /usr/bin ~letters
a Too many arguments.
b No such directory.

Ans: a

Question 445) Which of the following commands are valid to create a class of printers and enable them to queue jobs?
a#lpadmin -p printer1 -c class1
#lpadmin -p printer2 -c class1
#accept class1
b#lpadmin -p printer1 -c class1
#lpadmin -p printer2 -c class1
#enable class1
c#lpadmin -d printer1 -g class1
#lpadmin -d printer2 -g class1
#enable class1
d#lpadmin -d printer1 -g class1
#lpadmin -d printer2 -g class1
#accept class1

Ans: a

Question 447) What does the command "df -k" do ?
a It shows the size of each file partition in byte
b It shows the size of each file partition in megabyte
c It shows the size of folders and files in your home directory in kilobyte
d It shows the amount of disk usage in percentage

Ans: d

Question 448) What is the command that will movee a specified print job to the top of the queue?
a lp -q print-request -H top
b lp -u userid -H first
c lp -i print-request -H immediate
d lp -p print-request -H first

Ans: c

Question 449) Which of the following command will set the priority to n while printing a file?
a lp -d printer -P n file
b lp -p printer -b n file
c lp -d printer -q n file
d lp -p printer -P n file
e lp -d printer -p n file

Ans: c

Question 450) The stick bit has NO effect to which of the following ?
a file owner
b any member of the group
c anybody access the directory

Ans: a

Linux \ Soalris Interview Question -17

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 14 Apr 2009 11:00:00 +0000

Question 400) You want to print three copies of a file, how do you do this ?
a lp -3 file
b lp -n 3 file
c lp.....

Ans: b

Question 401) The new password must differ from the old one for atleast __ charters
a 2
b 3
c 4
d 8

Ans: b

Question 402) What does a physical device name consist of?
a Slashes
b Instance numbers
c Node names
d SCSI controller numbers

Ans: a,c

Question 403) In Bourne shell, how to export variable ?
a export variable
b export $variable
c setenv variable
d set variable

Ans: a

Question 404) The command that may be used to identify the users who are logged in on other systems on the network is
a rusers
b rcp
c telnet
d rup

Ans: a

Question 405) Which of the following are the valid software configuration cluster?
a Core
b End User
c Enterprise
d Developer

Ans: a,b,d

Question 406) Which of the following commands will modify the /etc/dumpdates
a ufsdump 0c /dev/rdsk/c1t0d0s2
b ufsdump 0cf /dev/rmt/0 /dev/rdsk/c1t0d0s2
c ufsdump 0cf /dev/rmt/0n /dev/rdsk/c1t0d0s2
d ufsdump 0ucf /dev/rmt/0 /dev/rdsk/c1t0d0s2

Ans: d

Question 407) If you have multiple dump files in a magnetic tape and you want to be sure that the tape drive will skip to the end of the recorded media before you dump more files into the media, choose one of the following commands
a mt eom
b ufsdump 0ucf /dev/rmt/0n /dev/rdsk/c1t0d0s1
c mt retension
d mt forward
e mt fsf 10
f mt last

Ans: a

Question 408) Which command removes print jobs ?
a cancel
b enable
c stop

Ans: a

Question 409) NFS servers can share peripherals like modems and printers. The above statement is
a true
b false

Ans: b

Question 410) In Bourne shell, set 1234=4567, which one is variable
a 1234
b 4567
c set
d set and 1234

Ans: a

Question 411) Which is the configuration file for nfs server?
a /etc/nfstab
b /etc/nfs/nfstab
c /etc/dfs/dfstab
d /etc/sharetab
e /etc/vfstab
f /etc/mnttab

Question 412) What is the command that is used to find out the nfs resources shared by a server?
a nfshares
b nfsshares
c shares
d dfshares
e netshares

Ans: d

Question 413) Which 2 commands should be used to acquire online information about the /etc/vfstab file?
a man -s4 vfstab
b man vfstab(5)

Ans: a,b

Question 414) Which PROM command boots the system using a different file system?
a boot -a
b boot -d
c boot -f
d reboot

Ans: a

Question 415) Which of the following is the spooling directory for pending print requests?
a /var/spool/lp
b /var/lp/spool
c /etc/spool
d /etc/lp/spool
e /tmp/lp/spool

Ans: a

Question 416) What are the functions of Print Filters ?
a to identify the terminfo database entry containing the control sequences to initialize the printer
b to print forms and forms with text and graphics instead of blank paper
c to initialize a printer before sending a print job to the printer
d to convert the content of requests to the type of content accepted by the destination printer
e to track the status of every job to enable users to remove jobs and system administrators to manage print jobs

Ans: d

Question 417) Environment variables are known in all ___ created after the variable defined
a sub-shells
b aliases
c processes
d jobs

Ans: a

Question 418) Where is the ASCII definition database which describes the capabilities of terminals and printers ?
a /etc/termcap
b /usr/share/lib/terminfo
c /etc/terminfo
d /usr/lib/termcap

Ans: b

Question 419) Which directory contains the database entries that dictate the control sequences to initialize the printer?
a /usr/lib/lp/
b /etc/lp/
c /usr/share/lib/terminfo
d /etc/lp/terminfo

Ans: c

Question 420) Which command is used to build a new file system on the raw special device at c0t3d0s5?
a newfs /dev/rdsk/c0t3d0s5
b newfs /devices/rdsk/c0t3d0s5

Ans a

Question 421) Which of the following evaluate the command literally ?
a back quote (` `)
b double quote (" ")
c single quote (' ')
d parentheses (( ) )

Ans: a

Question 422) Which of the following user environment variables may be used to specify the default printer?
a LPRCONF
b PRINTERS
c PRINTER
d LPDEST
e LPDEFAULT

Ans: c,d

Question 423) Which command in PROM mode can display the default Boot device that system boot from ?
a banner
b probe-scsi
c devaliase
d printenv

Ans: d

Question 424) Which of the following command cannot be used to manipulate print requests?
a continue
b cancel
c enable
d disable
e accept
f reject

Ans: a

Question 425) Which of the following commands may be used to move a print request from one queue to the other?
a lp -c
b lp -x
c lpadmin
d lpmove

Ans: d

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question - 16

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 11 Apr 2009 07:26:00 +0000

Question 376) Which is the directory that stores all the default hidden initialization file in the users' home directories when they were first created
a /etc/default/login
b /etc/default/
c /etc/skel/
d /etc/profile/
e /etc/home/
f /etc/.login/

Ans: c

Question 377) What is the difference between at and crontab ?
a crontab jobs scheduled to run once, at jobs scheduled to run many times
b crontab is the scheduler, at executes the commands
c at is the scheduler, crontab executes the commands
d crontab jobs are scheduled to run many times, at jobs are scheduled to run once

Ans: d

Question 378) Which command should be used to extract the file install.log from the backp.tar file which is in tar format?
a tar cvf backup.tar install.log
b tar xvf backup.tar install.log
c tar evf backup.tar install.log

Ans: b

Question 379) Which of the following situations will allow a user account to execute admintool?
a The account is a member of the sysadmin group.
b The account is root.
c The account is logged in at the console
d The account is a member of the sys group.
e The account is a member of the adm group.

Ans: a,b

Question 380) How to use rcp ?
a rcp file remote_host /tmp
b rcp
c rcp remote_host file /tmp
d rcp file remote_host/tmp

Ans: d

Question 381) Which of the following are valid fields in /etc/passwd?
a encrypted password
b user ID
c loginID
d primary groupID
e default shell
f secondary groupID
g password aging

Ans: b,c,d,e

Question 382) Why environment variables are defined in .login ?
a Since environment are inherited from .login
b Since .login is executed when each shell is started

Ans: a

Question 383) What is the file that defines the default fields of /etc/shadow eg. the period of which a user must change his/her password and the minimum period that the user must change his/her password This file also specifies the minimum password length?
a /etc/default/passwd
b /etc/default/shadow
c /etc/default/useradd
d /etc/default/login
e /etc/default/skel

Ans: a

Question 384) What are the initialization files if a user uses C shell
a /etc/profile
b /etc/profile
c /etc/login
d /etc/skel/local.cshrc

Ans: c

Question 385) Which of the following are serial devices?
a CPU
b memory
c terminal
d printer

Ans: c,d

Question 386) What is the impact of DTSOURCEPROFILE=true in the .dtprofile of a user account that uses the C shell as the login shell?
a None-only accounts that use the Bourne and Korn shells as login shells are affected
b The .profile file in the home directory of the user account is sourced
c The .login file in the home directory of the user account is sourced
d The .cshrc file in the home directory of the user account is sourced

Ans: c

Question 387) Which of the following command gives read and write permission to the owner of a new file, read permission to group, and no permissions to others or gives all permissions to the owner of a new directory, read and execute permissions to group, and no permissions to others
a umask 022
b umask 027
c umask 755
d umask 644
e umask 750

Ans: b

Question 388) Determine the option of the setfacl command that is used to replace the entire ACL with the new ACL
a -m
b -s
c -d
d -r
e -c

Ans: b

Question 389) What is the usage of an inode?
a stores the file type
b stores the file size
c stores the content of the file or directory
d None of above

Ans: a , b

Question 390) Which slice of a hardisk in unix file system represents the entire disk by definition
a 0
b 1
c 2
d 3
e 4

Ans: c

Question 391) The command used to mount an ISO format CDROM
a mount
b mount -F ISO -r /dev
c mount -f ISO CDROM
d mount -F ISO CDROM -r /dev

Ans: b

Question 392) Which of the following command report on all mounted file systems and include the number of files
a quot -af
b quot -mn
c quot -an
d quot -mf

Ans: a

Question 393) What is the access mode of a file created with the umask set to 123?
a 321
b #NAME?
c 345
d rw-r--r--

Ans: d

Question 394) Which of the following directory contains executable commands, system administration utilities,and library routines
a /root
b /sbin
c /usr
d /lib
e /opt
f /bin

Ans: c

Question 395) Which Solaris utility is used to partition a hardisk ?
a fdisk
b format
c newfs
d makefs
e fsck

Ans: b

Question 396) Which command show all mounted file systems ?
a mount
b mountall
c umount
d umountall

Ans: a

Question 397) What is the main advantage of using a striped virtual file system compared to concatenated virtual file system?
a We can create a volume that is larger than one disk
b We can use more than one slice in a single file system
c We can increase the size of a file system while it is in use
d We can increase the file system Input/Output performance
e We can have special data compression algorithms that increase the storage capacity

Ans: d

Question 398) A user logs into a system running Solaris 8 OE using the telnet command The user has been assigned a Korn Shell (Ksh) and home /home/user1 directory. The following files are executed on login by user1.
a /home/user1/.kshrc
b /etc/profile
c /home/user1/.profile
In which order are they executed?

Ans: b,c,a

Question 399) Which of the following commands may be used to perform remote backup with crontab ?
a rlogin
b rsh
c ssh
d ksh
e telnet

Ans: b

Question 400) You want to print three copies of a file, how do you do this ?
a lp -3 file
b lp -n 3 file
c lp.....

Ans: b

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question -15

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 09 Apr 2009 18:22:00 +0000

Question 351) Siva wants to backup his home directory Monday-Friday,

which cron job will do this ?
a 0 4 * * 2-6 tar cf /dev/rmt/0 /home/homer
b 0 4 * * 1-5 tar cf /dev/rmt/0 /home/homer
c 0 4 * 1-5 * tar cf /dev/rmt/0 /home/homer
d 0 4 * 1-30 * tar cf /dev/rmt/0 /home/homer

Ans: b

Question 352) Write down the commands at OK prompt to (a find out whether the system will automatically boot to CDE/OpenWindow upon reboot
a ok printenv auto-boot?
b ok env auto-boot?
c ok test auto-boot?

Ans: a

Question 353) Set the corresponding environment variable such that the system will not automatically boot up into the login manager
a ok setenv auto-boot? false
b ok env auto-boot? false
c ok set auto-boot? false

Ans: a

Question 354) Make the previous change persists
a ok default
b ok reset
c ok orginall-conf

Ans: b

Question 355) Which commands in vi place you in insert mode from command mode?
a i
b a
c A
d cw
e D
f G

Ans: a,b,c,d

Question 356) Write down the command to boot a SPARC machine into Single user mode with a CDROM
a ok boot cdrom -s
b ok boot cdrom -i
c ok boot cdrom

Ans: a

Question 357) Softwares distributed as packages on a Solaris 2.x system should contain
a the readmetxt file
b files describing that particular package
c the actual files to be installed
d scripts that should be run before and after installation
e scripts that should be run during removal

Ans: b,c,d,e

Question 358) Which of the following commands will display all packages
a pkginfo
b shpkg
c showpkg
d sh package

Ans: a

Question 359) What does /dev/dsk/c0t3d0s6 identify?
a The logical raw device addressed as Controller 0 Target 3 Disk 0 Partition 6
b The logical block device addressed as Controller 0 Target 3 Disk 0 Partition 6
c The physical raw device addressed as Controller 0 Target 3 Disk 0 Partition 6
d The physical block device addressed as Controller 0 Target 3 Disk 0 Partition 6

Ans: b

Question 360) cp a b report, What does report mean?
a a file
b an option
c a directory
d a user name

Ans: c

Question 361) Which of the following commands are wrong
a pkgrm -d package_name
b pkgrm package_name
c pkgrm -d package_path package_name
d pkgadd -d package_path package_name
e pkgchk -d package path

Ans: a,c,e

Question 362) What is the file (giving its full path) that is modified by pkgadd and pkgrm and contains the listing of all packages installed on a system?
a /var/sadm/spool/contents
b /var/sadm/install/contents
c /var/adm/spool

Ans: b

Question 363) The package command information could be obtained from
a package_path/package_name/pkgmap
b package_path/package_name/pkgcom
c package_path/package_name/info
d package_path/package_name/commands
e package_path/package_name/script
f package_path/package_name/pkgscript

Ans: a

Question 364) What is the correct format of crontab file ?
a time, date, command
b time, owner, command

Ans: a

Question 365) What is the spooling directory used when the following command is issued
# pkgadd -d package_path -s spool package_name
a /var/spool/pkg
b /var/sadm
c /var/spool/dir

Ans: a

Question 366) Packages can be removed from the spooling directory with which command below
a pkgadd -r spooling_path package_name
b pkgrm -s spooling_path package_name
c pkgrm -s package_name
d pkgrm -r package_name

Ans: b

Question 367) When does this job remove all core files ?
0 2 3 * 1 find /-name core -exec rm { }
a runs Monday at 200 am
b runs Sunday at 200am
c runs Monday at two minutes after midnight
d runs Sunday at two minutes after midnight

Ans: a

Question 368) Which of the following directories store the historical information about the patches installed in a system
a /etc/sadm/patches
b /opt/patch/log
c /var/sadm/patch
d /var/sadm/install
e /etc/install/patch

Ans: c

Question 367) Under which dir you can find the path_to_instance file
a /usr
b /root
c /etc
d /var

Ans: c

Question 368) Which is initialization file for Bourne shell
a .profile
b profile
c login

Ans: b

Question 369) When you log into C-shell which file is read
a .login
b local.login
c profile

Ans: c

Question 370) Which of the following commands can be used to display tha patches information
a patchadd -d
b patchadd -p
c patchadd -i
d patchrm -i
e patchinfo
f showrev -p

Ans: b,f

Question 371) Consider the following
# cp /etc/rc2.d/S22mylp /etc/rc2.d/.S22mylp.orig
a There is a problem, because init will execute both run control files at startup.
b There is a problem, because init will get confused and fail to run at startup.
c This is not a problem, because S22mylp and .S22mylp.orig will cancel each other out when init executes both files at startup.
d This is not a problem, because .S22mylp.orig will not be executed by init at all at startup.

Ans: d

Question 372) What if the /var/sadm/patch directory is tempered
a the patches added to a system may not function properly
b the system will crash more frequently
c the patches cannot be uninstalled
d it will not affect the system at all

Ans: c

Question 373) Which of the following cannot be configured through admintool
a users
b groups
c hosts
d printers
e parallel ports
f serial ports
g software

Ans: e

Question 374) Which is the preferred method to temporarily prevent a user account from being used?
a Delete the user account and all files in the home directory of the user account
b Lock the account using admintool
c Modify the user account .profile to change the user environment
d Use admintool to change the UID and GID associated with the user account

Ans: b

Question 375) A patch obtained from Sun Microsystems can be installed using which of the following commands?
a pkgadd -patch 107588-01
b patchadd 107588-01
c patchadd /var/spool/patch/107588-01
d patch SUNWaccu 107588-01

Ans: b,d

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question – 14

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 07 Apr 2009 07:28:00 +0000

Question 326) What is the name of the print service scheduler?
a prtsched
b printsched
c lpsched

Ans: c

Question 327) In which order Bourne shell execute during login ?
a /etc/default/profile, $HOME/.profile
b $HOME/.profile, $HOME/.login
c /etc/profile, $HOME/.profile
d /etc/profile, $HOME/.login

Ans: c

Question 328) The Solaris supports what type of printing environment?
a homogenous
b heterogeneous
c hetero

Ans: b

Question 329) Which of the following files are used to control access to the at command?
a /usr/lib/cron/at.allow
b /etc/cron/at.allow
c /var/spool/cron/atjobs/at.allow
d /var/spool/cron/atjobs/at.deny

Ans: a

Question 330) Which command shows the users that have logged off the system?
a who
b last
c whodo
d id

Ans: b

Question 331) What is the lp command used for?
a to print ASCII or text files .
b to set up a line printer.
c to switch default printers.

Ans: a

Question 332) Which of the following types of file systems can be checked using the fsck command?
a S5
b UFS
c TMPFS
d HSFS

Ans: a,b,d

Question 333) lpstat -d meAns:
a delete a printing request
b show default printer
c print a file
d show printing requests on destination printer

Ans: b

Question 334) What's the meaning of the command chmod 4750 filename ?
a set UID
b set GID
c set stick bit
d unset UID

Ans: a

Question 335) What command is used to diplay the print queue?
a lpstat
b lpqueue
c lprint

Ans: a

Question 336) What command to boot from cdrom
a boot cdrom from prompt
b boot cdrom from o.k prompt

Ans: b

Question 337) What command is used to cancel a specific printer request waiting in the queue?
a cancel
b stop
c halt

Ans: a

Question 338) After reading and quitting from mail, the mail file is saved in
a mbox
b inbox
c .mailx

Ans: a

Question 339) A (blank) is a named group of printers created with the lpadmin command?
a group
b set
c class

Ans: c

Question 340) A user logs into a system running the Solaris 8 Operating Environment using the telnet command The user has been assigned a bourne shell (sh) and home /home/user/ directory. All of the following files exist with appropriate ownership and permissions. Which 2 files
are used to initialize this user's session?
a /etc/profile
b /home/user/.profile

Ans a,b

Question 341) What is the lpmove command used for?
a To move selected print request from one printer to another.
b To move printers from one queue to another.
c To form feed the line printer.

Ans: a

Question 342) Which command enables you to list, but not retrieve the contents of a tape archive copied to the default tape device /dev/rmt/0?
a tar tf /dev/rmt/0
b tar cf /dev/rmt/0
c tar xf /dev/rmt/0

Question 343) What command searches the specified directory hierarchy for files that match the search criteria?
a where
b find
c search

Ans: b

Question 344) Which command shows the last reboot time?
a boot -t
b who -r (I think This is Correct)
c uptime
d who -b

Question 345) What does the ps command do?
a list post script printers.
b list the processes currently running on the system.
c list all available printers.

Ans: b

Question 346) What is the task of the at command?
a execute a command or script at a specific workstation.
b execute a command or script at the server.
c execute a command or script at a specified time

Ans: c

Question 347) What command copies files between hosts ?
a rcp
b rsh
c ftp
d telnet

Ans: a,c

Question 348) Enables more than one process or application to be used at a time
A Multiuser
B Multitasking
C Distributed Processing.
D Timesharing

Ans: b

Question 349) The option used to duplicate user id
a -d
b -i
c -u
d -o
e -id

Ans: d

Question 350) What command can display default boot device?
a devaliase
b printenv
c probe-scsi
d default

Ans: b

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question – 13

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 06 Apr 2009 09:24:00 +0000

Question 301) The reason why Solaris is distributive is that
a use of resources across network
b distribution of computers on network
c more than on person can access one file at the same time

Ans: a

Question 302) Which 2 commands or utilities can be used to display a list of active process?
a prstat
b sdtprocess
c ps -al
d proc

Ans: a,b

Question 303) What should I modify if I would like to change the password aging period?
a /etc/shadow
b /etc/password
c /etc/default/passwd
d /etc/inetinit

Ans: c

Question 304) What command allows you to log into remote systems, including non-UNIX systems?
a rlogin
b telnet
c remote

Ans:b

Question 305) What is minimum file system required other than /root
a /etc
b /export/home
c /usr
d /user

Ans: c

Question 306) What is the ftp command used for?
a send files to a remote system
b get files from a remote system.
c transfer files using ASCII, binary, DOS, or UNIX format
d All the above

Ans: d

Question 307) The /etc/cron.d/cron.deny file exists, but not the /etc/cron.d/cron.allow file Which of the following statements is true regarding access to the cron capability?
a Without a cron.allow file, no one, including root, is allowed to create,edit, or delete crontab files.
b Without a cron.allow file, only root is allowed to create, edit, or delete crontab files.
c Any user account not listed in the cron.deny file can create, edit, or delete crontab files.
d Any user account listed in the cron.deny file cannot create, edit, or delete crontab files.

Ans: c,d

Question 308) Questionuick install installs which cluster of packages ?
a core
b entire OS
c developer's package
d end-users' package

Ans: c

Question 309) What #rsh machinename does ?
a create a remote shell on local machine
b log user into a remote shell
c log user into the remote machine
d run a command on the remote machine, then exit

Ans: c

Question 310) What command identifies who is logged in on the network?
a rusers
b whoami
c rlog

Ans: a

Question 311) You are aware of a scheduled power outage Which 3 commands protect your computer against power outage?
a shutdown -i 0 -g 300 -y
b shutdown -i 1 -g 300 -y
c shutdown -i 5 -g 300 -y

Ans a,b,c

Question 312) The entry "SULOG=/var/adm/sulog" to enable logging of su usage is added to which of the following files?
a /dev/console
b /etc/passwd
c /etc/default/login
d /etc/default/su
e /var/adm/loginlog

Ans: d

Question 313) What is the ping command used for?
a to determine if the named host is up and running
b to determine if the pong is working.
c to determine if a user is logged into a specific workstation.

Ans: a

Question 314) the command used to check the accuracy of package installation
a pkginfo
b shpkg
c testpkg
d showrev -p

Ans: a

Question 315) What command displays the status of various network-related data structures?
a status
b netstat
c rstat

Ans: b

Question 316) What is the task of the compress command?
a Used to combine two files into one
b Used to compress files.
c Used to combine two or more files into one

Ans: b

Question 317) What is the result of the following command?
setfacl -s urw-,gr--,or--file1
a Access mode 644 is added to the existing ACLs for file1.
b Access mode 644 is deleted from the existing ACLs for file1.
c Access mode 644 replaces the existing ACLs for file1.
d Access mode 622 is added to the existing ACLs for file1.
e Access mode 622 replaces the existing ACLs for file1.

Ans: c

Question 318) What can verify the accuracy and integrity of a software package?
a pkgchk
b pkgchk -l
c pkginfo -l
d pkginfo -v

Ans: a

Question 319) What is the uuencode command used for?
a Create an ACSII-encoded representation of the binary file
b Create a file with a password protection.
c Create a directory with password protection.

Ans: a

Question 320) Which file contains the characteristics definition of printers stored?
a /usr/share/lib/terminfo
b /usr/share/lib/termcap
c /usr/share/lib/printer
d /etc/default/printer

Ans: a

Question 321) Which commands can be used to install a package from CD-ROM?
a admintool with Source Media set to CD with Volume Management
b pkgadd -d /cdrom/cdrom0
c admintool with Source Media set to CD without Volume Management
d pkgadd -s /cdrom/cdrom0

Ans: a,b,c

Question 322) What command is used to send mail from the command line?
a mailx
b sendmail
c xmail

Ans: a

Question 323) Shell is
a interpreter and trAns:lator
b carry out user requests.
c act as a programming language only

Ans: a

Question 324) What database consists of a series of files that describe control sequnces?
a termcon
b terminfo
c datainfo

Ans: b

Question 325) Every printer definition must contain two things. What are they?
a printer type , printer name
b printer type , location
c content type , printer type

Ans: c

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question - 12

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 03 Apr 2009 09:55:00 +0000

Question 276) What information is provided by the df command?
a Logical raw device of the file system partition
b Logical block device of the file system partition
c Free blocks
d Number of files that can be created

Ans: b,c,d

Question 277) What is setuid?
a Changes a users Id
b Treats anyone with permission to run a program as if they are the program owner.
c Lets anyone run a particular program.

Ans: b

Question 278) What is the command to display who is currently logged into the system?
a who
b whoami
c whoishere

Ans: a

Question 279) What does the last command display?
a login and logout information
b The last n commands executed
c The last n lines of a file

Ans: a

Question 280) What type are CDROM file ?
a pipe
b symbolic link
c character
d block

Ans: c

Question 281) What is the format of the password file??
a usernamecommentUIDGIDhome-dirlogin_shell
b usernamexUIDGIDcommenthome-dirlogin_shell
c usernamexGIDUIDhome-dirlogin_shell

Ans: b

Question 282) Which file has login ID and other user information ?
a /etc/passwd
b /etc/hosts
c /etc/group

Ans: a

Question 283) Which 4 vi commands switch from command mode to edit mode?
a a
b i
c A
d cw

Ans: a,b,c,d

Question 284) Which are valid printer port ?
a /dev/term/a
b /dev/term/b
c /dev/term/ttya
d /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s3

Ans: a,b

Question 285) What command is used to become a different user?
a change
b du
c su

Ans: c

Question 286) You are working from a text-based terminal. Which command should you use to change a user's primary group?
a chgrp
b groupmod
c chown

Ans: b

Question 287) What command is used to display your user ID, user name, group ID, and group name?
a id
b gid
c showname

Ans: a

Question 288) Which statement is true about the file /etc/hosts ?
a It gives the hosts' name and their IP addresses.
b Any user can modify it.
c It is created automatically when adding a new user.
d It is created automatically when installing system.

Ans: a,d

Question 289) What does the -(dash) option provide with the su command?
a allows the user to adopt the environment of the new user.
b allows the user to log in as another user.
c allows the user to log in as super user.

Ans: a

Question 290) When a user account is created, the .profile is copied from which file?
a /etc/skel/default.profile
b /etc/profile
c /etc/skel/local.profile
d /.profile

Ans: c

Question 291) What command is used to display the Administration Tool?
a admintool
b admin
c tool

Ans: a

Question 292) What command is used to create a users' group?
a addgroup
b groupadd
c grpadd

Ans: b

Question 293) What command is used to add a user and create a users' home directory?
a useradd
b adduser
c addgroup

Ans: a

Question 294) What command allows a login session on a remote system?
a login
b rlogin
c enter

Ans: b

Question 295) What command is used to execute a program on a remote system?
a rsh
b rcp
c rexecute

Ans: a

Question 296) How to identify default boot information
a banner
b printenv
c devalias

Ans: a

Question 297) How many lines head/tail will display by default ?
a 10 lines
b 5 lines
c 25 lines

Ans: a

Question 298) What command allows you to copy files or directories to and from another machine?
a rsh
b rcopy
c rcp

Ans: c

Question 299) What is the host.equiv file used for?
a to identify remote machines as trusted hosts.
b to identify remote machines.
c to identify remote hosts with the same OS.

Ans: a

Question 300) When the mount command is entered without any command line arguments, what happens?
a All file systems in /etc/vfstab are mounted
b All mounted file systems are displayed
c All file systems in /etc/vfstab are displayed
d All file systems listed in /etc/mnttab are displayed

Ans: b,d

Linux \ Solaris Interview Question - 11

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 30 Mar 2009 07:35:00 +0000

Question 251) # lpmove stock sparc meAns:

a move all print requests from stock to sparc

b move all root printing requests from stock to sparc

c move printing request stock to printer sparc

Ans: a

Question 252) Which of the following commands will show the current run level?

a) boot -l

b) who -b

c) uptime

d) who -r

Ans: d

Question 253) What does the Pipe (|) do?

a Takes the output of a command and logs it.

b Take the output of one command and displays it to the screen.

c Takes the output of one command and passes it as the input into a following command

Ans: c

Question 254) What are the 3 modes of operation in vi?

a Command mode, Insert mode, Entry mode

b Entry mode, Command mode, Replace mode

c Command mode, Entry mode, Last-line mode

Ans: c

Question 255) How do you create a new file using vi?

a new filename

b vi filename

c touch

Ans: b

Question 256) Which statement is true about IP address ?

a It consists of digital number separated by dot.

b It consists of letters, slash, dash, not digital numbers.

c It is used for searching network resources.

d It is used for searching network machines.

Ans: a,d

Question 257) What is the primary job of the shell?

a A command interpreter.

b The core of the operating system.

c Interpreter between applications and the OS.

Ans: a

Question 258) Which of the following shows the access mode of a file that has the setgid enabled?

a srwxrwxrwx

b -rwsrwxrwx

c -rwxrwsrwx

d -rwxrwxrws

e -rwxrwxrwt

Ans: c

Question 259) How to get date information into day variable in Bourne shell ?

a day=`date`

b day='date'

c day="date"

Ans: a

Question 260) What are environmental variables?

a Variables exported to all shells.

b Any variable

c Variable available to the current shell.

Ans: a

Question 261) Which of the following can be added in the members list of the Admintool Add Group window?

a UIDs that are less than 1,000

b The names of user accounts that are locked or have no password

c UIDs that are 1,000 or greater

d The names of user accounts used for system administration

Ans: b,d

Question 262) What is the env command used for?

a To display the current (local) variables and their values.

b To display all variables.

c To display the current (exported environment variables and their value

Ans: c

Question 263) What is a local variable?

a Variables exported to all shells.

b Variables known only in the current shell or window.

c Variables defined in the .profile

Ans: b

Question 264) What is the command to search for files and their full paths?

a search

b find

c goto

Ans b

Question 265) What is the set command used for?

a Displays the current shells exported variables.

b Displays the current shell's local variables.

c Displays the users that are logged in.

Ans: b

Question 266) What is the echo command used for?

a Display text or variables.

b Used to repeat a command more than once

c Displays text twice

Ans: a

Question 267) Within the partition menu of the format command, which simple command should you type next in order to give a name to the current label definition for future retrieval?

a Label

b disk

c type

Ans: a

Question 268) How to use on-line help ?

a help

b help login

c cat login

d man login

Ans: d

Question 269) What is the PATH variable used for?

a To determine the path to a command

b To determine the search order for the find command

c To determine the search orders for commands that are executed

Ans: c

Question 270) What does the which command display?

a The path name leading to a command

b To determine the search order for commands that are executed

c To determine the current shell in use

Ans: a

Question 271) What command displays your current search path?

a echo $PATH

b show $PATH

c $PATH

Ans: a

Question 272) What command is used to change file permissions?

a chmod

b chperm

c permission

Ans: a

Question 273) What command is used to display your current user mask setting?

a mask

b umask

c showmask

Ans: b

Question 274) What does the r mean in the following file permission for the owner ?

-rw-r-----

a cannot read

b read only

c readable

d can execute

Ans: c

Question 275) What command is used to change group ownership on files and directories?

a chmod

b passwd

c chgrp

Ans: c