Communication And Networking - Hack to Learn

CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 3 Exam

2011-06-04T20:34:00.000+08:00

01. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet

02. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

applications
dialogs
requests
services
syntax

03. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)

centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

04. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client

05. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP

06. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP

07. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

acts as both a client and server within the same communication
requires centralized account administration
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
can be used in client-server networks
requires a direct physical connection between devices
centralized authentication is required

08. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)

DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

09. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)

MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)

routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)

ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)

User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?

physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport

15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

80
1261
15533
3912
65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?

DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)

use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 2 Exam

2011-06-02T20:32:00.000+08:00

01. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow

02. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit the need for hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors

03. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)

tracks delay between end devices
enables consistent network paths for communication
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device

04. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

05. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session

06. What is a PDU?

corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation

07. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

08.

Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”

the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

09.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Network A — WAN
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network B — MAN
Network C — WAN
Network A – LAN

10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation

12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

13. What device is considered an intermediary device?

file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?

source
end
transfer
intermediary

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN

16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

physical
data link
network
transport

17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

the destination device on the local media
the destination host address
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J

19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.

20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

path determination and packet switching
data presentation
reliability, flow control, and error detection
network media control
the division of segments into packets

21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

Is that possible to use other streamyx account?

2011-05-20T12:36:00.000+08:00

Yes. Indeed.

For example, if your streamyx account is only basic 512K, but you got no money to upgrade to 1Mbps to watch youtube without buffering, therefore you can try out this trick how to hack other people streamyx account and use at your own place.

Disclaimer: Use this trick at your own risk !!

before year 2009, most of the streamyx customer was given default password as tmnet123. Therefore using this exploit, we can easily get the others streamyx account, all we need to do is try our luck to get the streamyx account username.

Please go to https://tmbill.tm.net.my/SelfCare/Maintenance/selfcareLogin.jsp to enter the username and password. If error as above appear, that means you might enter the wrong username or password. Try another account instead.

Once you enter the correct password and username, the message as picture above will shown. That's mean the account can be use at your own place d ! However we can only check out the internet speed only when we are successfully connect using the username and password.

Once you get the correct password and username, just log in to your modem/router and modify the connection setting. Each router may have different configuration, please refer to the respective user manual of your router/modem. Here we are using the free modem given by the streamyx as example.

If you wondering when you are using other people's streamyx account, will the people disconnected or their internet speed will be slowed down? The answer is they won't be disconnected because their account can be logged in by many users at the same time. Yes, their internet speed will be slow down, because you are using his account and thus you are sharing speed with him, so please behave yourself, DO NOT open ppstream when you are using other's people account because ppstream can eat up the 90% speed!!! Imagine u are stealing his account and you are greedy use up the 90% speed for the ppstream, his got 10% internet speed only, he pay RM88 every month to get 10% speed only? do you feel guilty? Haha. - quoted from http://ye5.blogspot.com/2010/12/hack-streamyx-account.html

But the question is how can you get many username to test it out?
The answer is simple. Use google to get it !!
Try search on the google using this string - "contact us intext:@streamyx.com", and you can possibly get million of streamyx account username. =)

CCNA netowork fundamentals Final Exam Answers 2011

2011-03-28T23:07:00.001+08:00

1. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.

The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.

The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".

Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.

Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

2. Which two actions could be taken by a router if a specific match is not made to a route in the routing table? (Choose two.)

The packet will be discarded.

The packet will be sent back to the source.

The packet will be flooded out all interfaces.

Neighboring routers are polled to find the best path.

The packet will be forwarded to a default route if one is present.

3.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?

The Telnet server process is running on PC1.

Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.

The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.

The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

The prefix of the subnet mask is /26.

The network on which this computer resides can have 30 hosts.

The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.

The IP address that is assigned as the default gateway is valid for this host.

5. What information can be gathered by using the command netstat?

the default gateway

the routing protocol

active TCP connections

the locally configured subnet mask

6.

Refer to the exhibit. The nslookup command that is shown was issued on a Windows PC host. What does the 10.32.5.74 address represent?

the IP address of the host

the default gateway for the host

the primary DNS server for the host

the home page address for the host

7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?

The data is automatically encrypted.

A Telnet server process is running on PC1.

The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.

A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

8. Which three addresses are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.1

46.1.1.88

172.31.31.10

172.32.16.10

192.168.8.8

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?

Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.

The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.

The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.

The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

10. Which OSI layer addressing is required to route packets between two networks?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

11. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?

The contents of ROM will change.

The contents of RAM will change.

The contents of NVRAM will change.

The contents of flash will change.

12. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.

Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.

Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.

Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.

Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

13. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?

255.255.0.0

255.255.254.0

255.255.252.0

255.255.248.0

255.255.240.0

255.255.255.128

14.

Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

only computer D

only computer A and computer D

only computer B, computer C, and computer D

all computers

15.

Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)

The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.

The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.

The cable is unusable and must be rewired.

The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.

The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Which layered network model is shown in the diagram?

Cisco

IETF

OSI

TCP/IP

17. An administrator makes changes to the default configuration of a router and saves them to NVRAM. After testing, it is discovered that the configurations did not have the desired effect and must be removed. What steps must be taken to remove the changes and return the router to the default configuration?

Reboot the router.

Use no version of the commands that are issued.

Issue the erase startup-config command, and then reboot the router.

Issue the erase running-config command, and then reboot the router.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?

Host A is assigned a network address.

Host B is assigned a multicast address.

Host A and host B belong to different networks.

The gateway addresses are network addresses.

19.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has made several changes to R1 since the configuration has last been saved. The modified configuration did not produce the desired changes. The technician wants to store a backup copy of the saved configuration on a TFTP server before reloading. Which action will cause the unmodified data to be saved on the TFTP server?

20. What can the user do from the command prompt, Router(config-line)# ?

Configure one of the network interfaces.

Configure one of the physical or virtual lines.

Verify the running configuration on the device.

Configure the parameters for one of the routing protocols.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?

Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.

Use the ipconfig command.

Use the ipconfig/all command.

Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?

Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.

Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.

Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0

Reboot the router.

23. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

console

enable

enable secret

VTY

24. What are two purposes for configuring a banner on a router? (Choose two.)

to announce system downtime

to prevent unauthorized access to the router

to provide a description of interface connections

to assist in legal prosecution for unauthorized access

to provide a welcome message to users who access the router

25.

Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?

Use the ipconfig command at the host.

Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.

Use the tracert command at the host.

Use the ping command at the destination.

26.

Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?

D,E,F,G

A,H,B,C

A,D,E,F

A,D,E,G

27. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

when the interface is functioning as a DTE device

when the interface timers have been cleared

when the connected DTE device is shut down

when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

28. Which table accurately associates the RFC 1918 private IP addresses with the correct network mask?
Answer No. 1

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two layers of the OSI model describe the same functions as the transport and internet layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

application layer

presentation layer

session layer

transport layer

network layer

data link layer

physical layer

30. What happens when a host station receives a frame that contains its own MAC address in the destination field?

The Layer 2 information is removed and the frame is pushed up to Layer 3.

The host station will copy the information to its buffers and send it back out.

The frame originated from the host and will be ignored.

The Layer 3 information is added to the frame.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is configured with the correct IP address for the default gateway of the router R1 FastEthernet0/1 interface. How will a packet that is sent from host A to host B be handled by the devices on the network?

R1 will drop the packet because R1 does not have a specific route in its routing table to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.

R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will forward the packet to the directly connected network 10.1.1.0/24.

R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a default route to network 10.1.1.0/24.

R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a route that is learned by a routing protocol to network 10.1.1.0/24.

32. What type of network is maintained if a server takes no dedicated role in the network?

mainframe

client/server

peer-to-peer

centralized

33. In a network design project, a network designer needs to select a device to provide collision free connections to 40 hosts on the LAN. Which device should be selected?

hub

router

switch

firewall

34. Which TCP/IP model layer creates additional overhead on network resources due to acknowledgments, tracking, and retransmission of data?

internet

transport

application

network access

35. How many host addresses may be assigned when using the 128.107.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30

256

2046

2048

4094

4096

36. Which service is used when the nslookup command is issued on a computer?

FTP

DNS

DHCP

Telnet

37. Which process provides the means to send and receive data when running multiple applications at the same time on a computer?

interleaving

sequencing

segmentation

acknowledgement

38. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)

10.1.12.79/28

10.1.12.113/28

10.1.12.32/28

10.1.11.5/27

10.1.11.97/27

10.1.11.128/27

39. What is the consequence of issuing the erase startup-config command in privileged EXEC mode on a Cisco router?

Data stored in RAM will be removed.

Data stored in NVRAM will be erased.

Information in flash memory will be removed.

Flags in the configuration register will be set to 0.

Both the startup-config and the running-config will be erased.

40.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2

IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5

IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1

IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

41. What is the Cisco IOS?

system software for Cisco devices

Read Only Memory in Cisco devices

non-volatile storage for device configurations

an initial operating system that is used for boot functions

42. Which router configuration mode will require user authentication if an administrator issues the enable secret command?

user executive mode

privileged executive mode

global configuration mode

service specific configuration mode

43. Which command or commands will require authentication to access the privileged exec mode?

RTRA(config)# enable secret cisco
RTRA(config)# service password encryption

RTRA(config)# line con 0
RTRA(config-line)# login
RTRA(config-line)# password cisco

RTRA(config)# line vty 0 4
RTRA(config-line)# login
RTRA(config-line)# password cisco

44. A routing issue has occurred in your internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

access point

host

hub

router

switch

45. Which statement is true about Layer 3 addresses?

They are physical addresses.

They are used in routing decisions.

They are only used on local networks.

They are altered each time a packet crosses a router.

46.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator on PC1 wants to view some HTML code from a web page housed on the web server. Which client application will allow this request to be started?

47. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

application

presentation

session

transport

48.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?

10.0.0.254

192.168.0.249

192.168.0.250

10.0.1.254

49. An administrator is in the middle of entering a lengthy command when suddenly output from the IOS appears stating that an interface has gone down and then up again. Consequently, the command that the administrator was typing is no longer legible on the terminal. What CLI keystrokes can be entered to return to the line that the administrator was typing?

Ctrl-D

Ctrl-K

Ctrl-R

Ctrl-Z

50. Which option represents a point-to-point logical topology diagram?

Answer No. 4

51. Which physical component is used to access and perform the initial configuration on a new unconfigured router?

Answer No. 2

52. Which option shows how a router will route packets to a remote network?

Answer No. 4

Subnet Calculator for CCNA Exam

2011-02-10T23:06:00.000+08:00

Online Subnet Calculator

The IP Subnet Mask Calculator enables subnet network calculations using network class, IP address, subnet mask, subnet bits, mask bits, maximum required IP subnets and maximum required hosts per subnet.

http://www.subnet-calculator.com/

http://www.subnetmask.info/

http://www.warriorsofthe.net/utils/index.html

http://www.vlsm-calc.net/

Offline Subnet Calculator

The Advanced IP Address Calculator is a freeware Windows 95/98/NT/2000/XP utility that lets you to calculate every aspect of your subnet configuration in a few mouse clicks! It was designed for any network engineer who needs a fast way to determine subnets.

Downloads

Platform: Windows NT, Windows 2000, Windows Me, Windows XP, Windows 2003

CCNA Security Chapter 6 Quiz

2010-11-04T12:12:00.000+08:00

CCNA Security Chapter 6 Quiz - link

1. When configuring a switch port for port security, what is the
default violation mode?
(A)protect
(B)reset
(C)restrict

(D) shutdown

2. As a recommended practice for Layer 2 security, how should
VLAN 1 be treated?
(A)All access ports should be assigned to VLAN 1.
(B)All trunk ports should be assigned to VLAN 1.
(C)VLAN 1 should be used for management traffic.

(D) VLAN 1 should not be used.

3. What happens when the MAC address notification feature is
enabled on a switch?
(A)An SDEE alert is generated, and the switch resets the
interface when an invalid MAC address is detected.
(B)An STP multicast notification packet is forwarded to all
switches any time a change in the network topology is
detected.
(C)A port violation occurs when a MAC address outside of the
range of allowed addresses transmits traffic over a secure
port.

(D) An SNMP trap is sent to the network management system

whenever a new MAC address is added to or an old address is

deleted from the forwarding tables.

4. How is a reflector port used in an RSPAN configuration?
(A)It provides a dedicated connection for the IDS device.
(B)It allows an RSPAN session to be backward compatible with a
SPAN session.

(C)It acts like a loopback interface in that it reflects the captured

traffic to the RSPAN VLAN.

(D) It allows an IDS device to direct malicious traffic to it,isolating that traffic from other areas of the network.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output generated by thesh ow
monitor session 1 command, how will SPAN operate on the
switch?
(A)All traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is
forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.

(B)All traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is

forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.

(C)Native VLAN traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from
VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
(D) Native VLAN traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on
VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.

6. Which Cisco endpoint security product helps maintain network
stability by providing posture assessment, quarantining of
noncompliant systems, and remediation of noncompliant
systems?
(A)Cisco Access Control Server
(B)Cisco Security Agent workstation
(C)Cisco Intrusion Prevention System router

(D) Cisco Network Admission Control appliance

7. Which two elements are part of the Cisco strategy for addressing
endpoint security? (Choose two.)

(A)policy compliance using products such as Cisco NAC

(B)network infection monitoring using products such as Cisco
Secure ACS

(C)threat protection using products such as Cisco Security Agent

(D) attack detection using products such as Cisco NAC

8. With IP voice systems on data networks, which two types of
attacks target VoIP specifically? (Choose two.)
(A)CoWPAtty
(B)Kismet

(C)SPIT

(D) virus

(E)vishing

9. Which three statements are true regarding SPAN and RSPAN?
(Choose three.)
(A)SPAN can send a copy of traffic to a port on another switch.
(B)RSPAN is required for syslog and SNMP implementation.

(C)SPAN can be configured to send a copy of traffic to a

destination port on the same switch.

(D) SPAN can copy traffic on a source port or source VLAN to a

destination port on the same switch.

(E)RSPAN is required to copy traffic on a source VLAN to a
destination port on the same switch.

(F) RSPAN can be used to forward traffic to reach an IDS that is

analyzing traffic for malicious behavior.

10. How many Cisco Security Agent clients can one Management
Center for CSA console support?
(A)1,000
(B)10,000

(C)100,000

(D) 1,000,000

11. Which option best describes a MAC address spoofing attack?
(A)An attacker gains access to another host and masquerades as
the rightful user of that device.

(B)An attacker alters the MAC address of his host to match

another known MAC address of a target host.

(C)An attacker alters the MAC address of the switch to gain
access to the network device from a rogue host device.

12. Which software tool can a hacker use to flood the MAC address
table of a switch?

(A)macof

(B)Cisco SDM
(C)kiwi syslog server
(D) protocol analyzer

13. Which attack relies on the default automatic trunking
configuration on most Cisco switches?
(A)LAN storm attack

(B)VLAN hopping attack

(C)STP manipulation attack
(D) MAC address spoofing attack

14. Which attack is mitigated by using port security?
(A)LAN storm
(B)VLAN hopping
(C)STP manipulation

(D) MAC address table overflow

15. Which two measures are recommended to mitigate VLAN
hopping attacks? (Choose two.)

(A)Use a dedicated native VLAN for all trunk ports.

(B)Place all unused ports in a separate guest VLAN.

(C)Disable trunk negotiation on all ports connecting to

workstations.

(D) Enable DTP on all trunk ports.
(E)Ensure that the native VLAN is used for management traffic.

16. Which three are SAN transport technologies? (Choose three.)

(A)Fibre Channel

(B)SATA

(C)iSCSI

(D) IP PBX

(E)FCIP

17. Which technology is used to protect the switched infrastructure
from problems caused by receiving BPDUs on ports that should
not be receiving them?
(A)RSPAN
(B)PortFast
(C)Root guard
(D) Loop guard

(E)BPDU guard

18. If a switch is configured with thesto rm-con tro l command and
the action shutdown and action trap parameters, which two
actions does the switch take when a storm occurs on a port?
(Choose two.)

(A)The port is disabled.

(B)The switch is rebooted.

(C)An SNMP log message is sent.

(D) The port is placed in a blocking state.
(E)The switch forwards control traffic only.

19. An administrator wants to prevent a rogue Layer 2 device from
intercepting traffic from multiple VLANs on a network. Which two
actions help mitigate this type of activity? (Choose two.)

(A)Disable DTP on ports that require trunking.

(B)Place unused active ports in an unused VLAN.
(C)Secure the native VLAN, VLAN 1, with encryption.

(D) Set the native VLAN on the trunk ports to an unused VLAN.

(E)Turn off trunking on all trunk ports and manually configure
each VLAN as required on each port.

20. Which three switch security commands are required to enable
port security on a port so that it will dynamically learn a single
MAC address and disable the port if a host with any other MAC
address is connected? (Choose three.)

(A) switchport mode access

(B) switchport mode trunk

Year 2010 EWAN Final Exam : Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

2010-09-19T11:47:00.000+08:00

1
Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?

PPP
SLIP
HDLC
Frame Relay

2
What is a characteristic feature of a worm?

exploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date

3
An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

4
Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of a security policy?

It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not need altering once it is implemented.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumvention of security measures.

5
Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

QoS
latency
reliability
confidentiality

6
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)

HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301
HQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast

7
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1 initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration?

The password is sent in clear text.
The routers are unable to authenticate.
The username and password are sent encrypted.
A hash value of the username and password are sent.

8
A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

9
Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

10
Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11
A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update traffic?

The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.

The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.

The traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.

The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.

12
Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

13
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

14
Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
network
data link
physical

15
Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.

The VTP domain names do not match.

Only one switch can be in server mode.

S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2?

All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.

Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.

Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.

Telnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be permitted any time.

17
Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.
Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

18
Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.

The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.

The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.

The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

19
Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

20
When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

CCNA Cisco Routing Protocols and Concepts Final Exam Practice

2010-06-05T13:20:00.000+08:00

CCNA Exploration 4.0 Module 4 all chapters Answers
http://bluefiz.blogspot.com/2009/09/ccna-module-4-answers.html

1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain

2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?ROM, TFTP server, flash

flash, TFTP server, ROM

flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash

3. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
Flash
NVRAM
ROM

SDRAM

4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?

1
3

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.

Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

The static route will not work correctly

6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

The packet will be dropped.

The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.

Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?

The packets will travel via R2-R1.

The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24 network can reach the default gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping?

router R1 Fa0/0 interface

router R1 S0/0/0 interface

router R2 S0/0/0 interface
router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces
router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.

The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

They are aware of the complete network topology.

They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only

11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)

IS-IS

EIGRP

OSPF

RIPv1
RIPv2

13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)

R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1

R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0

R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?

R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.

R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.

Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?

Cisco001
Cisco123

Cisco789

Cisco901

17. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)

DCE

CSU/DSU

LAN switch

modem

hub

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1
Router2
Router3

Router4

19. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.

20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?
Change the routing metric for that route.
Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.
Change the administrative distance for that route.

Remove the route using the no ip route command.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on host A.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.

Which ping will fail?

from R1 to 172.16.1.1

from R1 to 192.168.3.1

from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1

23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1

24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they are unable to connect to the Internet. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?

A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should be the R1 FastEthernet interface

25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10

172.16.0.0/13

172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24

26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?

the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1

the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1

the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

The default gateway is incorrect.
The address is in the wrong subnet.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.

192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?

the IP address of the server

the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol?
private IP addressing
advertising default routes

variable length subnet masks

summarization on major network boundaries

30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface?
172.16.128.154/18
172.16.255.254/18
172.24.64.254/18

172.24.127.254/18

31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?

R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used

33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.

It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down

34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32

B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

A(config)# no router rip

35. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.

What is a possible cause of this problem?

The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.

It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.

It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded

37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)

Paris(config)# router eigrp 100

Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.

It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?

The JAX router has the wrong process ID.

The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command

40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)

As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.

If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.

If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.

EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?

The packet is discarded.

The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.

42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?
RIPv1
RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.

There is one feasible successor in the routing table.
The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface

44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs

45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

46. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)

OSPF interval timers mismatch

administrative distance mismatch

interface network type mismatch

no loopback interface configured
gateway of last resort not redistributed

47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.

49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?

Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.
Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.
Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.

The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process

50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as shown. Because of the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router A fails and is replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will happen?

Router D will be elected DR, and router C will become the BDR.

Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR.
Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR.
Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only the BDR

Basic Configuration of Cisco Router

2010-05-01T14:03:00.002+08:00

While configure a cisco router, there are few kind of mode can be use:

User Mode
Priviledge Mode
Config Mode
Interface Mode
line mode

Cisco Router Basic Configuration Need:

Password + Secret
Hostname
Interface (IP and subnet mask, no shut, and clock rate)
Line configuration

Below are some coding on Basic configuration for cisco router:
Enter Privilege Mode
Router > enable
Enter Configuration Mode
Router# configuration terminal
Password need when enter into Privilege Mode next time

Router(config)# enable password p@ssw0rd
Router(config)#enable secret s3cr3t
Configure Hostname / Router Name

Router(config)#hostname myrouter1
[Set the hostname to myrouter1]
Configure Ethernet Port Command
myrouter1(config)# inte f0/0
[Enter Ethernet Interface Mode ( f0/0 for interface1, f0/1 for interface 2)]
myrouter1(config-if)# ip add 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0
[Set IP address and subnet mask]
myrouter1(config-if)#no shut
[Active the port]
Configure Serial Port Command
myrouter1(config-if)#inte s 0/0/0
[Enter Serial Interface Mode]
myrouter1(config-if)#ip add 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
[Set IP address and subnet mask]
myrouter1(config-if)#no shut
[Active the port]
Set the Router Bandwidth – Set the bandwidth to 1G, Clock Rate only apply at Master Router
myrouter1(config-if)#clock rate 1000000
[Set the bandwidth to 1Gig]
myrouter1(config-if)#exit
Secure Console
myrouter1(config)#line con 0
myrouter1(config-line)#password c0ns0l3

myrouter1(config-line)#login
myrouter1(config-line)#exit
Secure Aux line – Auxiliary Password, use to connect a modem to a router for remote console connection, Aux only available for old router, new router does not apply
myrouter1(config)#line aux0
myrouter1(config-line)#password auXo

myrouter1(config-line)#login
myrouter1(config-line)#exit
Secure VTY line – Virtual Terminal Password, Use to secure your login from telnet or ssh
myrouter1(config)#line vty 0 4
myrouter1(config-line)#password v1rtu@1
myrouter1(config-line)#login
myrouter1(config-line)#exit
myrouter1(config)#exit
Save setting
myrouter1#wr me

or
myrouter1#copy run start

The above code are just a very basic configuration for cisco router, there are more advance configuration need for routing purpose such as static routes, default routes and dynamic routes. Within dynamic routes, there are also RIP Routes (Routing Information Protocol), IGRP Routes (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) OSPF Routes (Open Shortest Path First) and EIGRP Routes (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Telekom Malaysia high speed broadband unveiled

2010-03-25T22:24:00.001+08:00

By JO TIMBUONG

intech@thestar.com.my

PETALING JAYA: UniFi — Telekom Malaysia’s(TMpoint) just launched high speed broadband service — comes in three packages.

Residential subscribers can opt for a 5-megabits per second (Mbps), 10Mbps or 20Mbps connection to the Internet.

The 5Mbps package is priced at RM149 per month, the 10Mbps at RM199, and the 20Mbps at RM249. The subscribers will have to sign on for two years.

Each package also comes with a Dect (Digital Enhanced Cordless Telecommunications) phone, a set-top box for IPTV (Internet Protocol Television), Streamyxzone ID for wireless web access, and a 2GB e-mail box.

Subscribers will also enjoy synchronous upload and download speeds, unlike with the ADSL service now where upload speeds are slower than download speeds.

Telekom Malaysia has also capped the amount of data that can be downloaded using each of the packages, in an effort to maintain high surfing speeds.

The 5Mbps package has a 60GB monthly cap on downloads; the 10Mbps package has a 90GB cap, and the 20Mbps package has a 120GB cap. To compare, a typical two-hour high-definition movie is about 8GB in size.

However, some industry pundits have pointed out that the caps are calculated on a daily basis, which restricts the amount of data that can be downloaded each day in a month.

UniFi is now available in Shah Alam, Subang Jaya, Taman Tun Dr Ismail and Bangsar, in the Klang Valley. It will be rolled out to more areas nationwide over the next two years.

There are business packages available for corporate subscribers. As with the home user service, these are also divided into 5Mbps, 10Mbps and 20Mbps packages.

There are no caps on the corporate packages, but prices are much higher. Companies will have to pay RM199 a month for 5Mbps, RM599 for 10Mbps, and RM899 for 20Mbps.

Telekom Malaysia is holding a press conference at its headquarters this afternoon. More details after this event.

Published: Thursday March 25, 2010 MYT 3:26:00 PM

CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Final exam

2010-02-27T19:31:00.001+08:00

01. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?

IP
UDP
Ethernet
a connectionless acknowledgement
an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

02. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable

Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

03. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

application
presentation
session
transport

04. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

05. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

06. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
1000 Base LX

07. Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

IP address of the host
default gateway of the host
IP address of the homepage for the host
primary domain name server for the host
IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local

08. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

09. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three)

uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
contains a network portion

10. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

application
presentation
session
transport
network

11. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

leaving host A
leaving ATL
leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

14. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

15. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

16. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

17. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

vty
aux
console
enable secret
enable password

18. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
media access control

21. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

access point
host
hub
router
switch

22. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)

192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

23. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

24. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

25. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?

The data is automatically encrypted.
A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

segment1
segment2
segment3
segment4
segment5

27. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

28. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27

29. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

30. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier

31. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

two networks routing the packets
two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

32. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

star
ring
point-to-point
multiaccess
mesh

34. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP
and MAC addresses in this communication?

Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J

37. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

38. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

Switch-6J>
Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

39. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

console
enable
enable secret
VTY

40. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

0 to 255
0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

41. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)

This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

42. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

43. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)

A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
Five collision domains exist.

44. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

45. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?

an FTP client
a Telnet client
a terminal emulation program
a web browser

46. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?

Athens
Ankara
London
Paris
PC4

47. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

48. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

CCNA Exploration 4,0: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 9 Exam

2010-02-20T11:53:00.002+08:00

Chapter 9 Exam Answer
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

01. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

02. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

03. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

04. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

05. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

06. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

07. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

08. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

09. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer

10. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

11. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

13. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.

14. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications

15. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access

16. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

17. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?

preamble and stop frame
network layer packet
physical addressing
FCS and SoF

20. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

CCNA 1 Exploration 4.0 : Module 1 Answers with Explanation

2009-12-22T11:02:00.001+08:00

CCNA stands for Cisco Certified Network Associate. This page contains the examination questions and answers of CCNA 1 Module 1 of CCNA Exploration 4.0. All the questions are taken form different pay-sites, blogs and webpages which are offering several question sets. This page doesn't contain 100% actual question. The questions of CCNA are changing continuously. But don't feel sorrow. I think you will get 50% to 100% questions form here in your examination. All the questions and answers are explained here very carefully.

Credits to rancidTaste :)

Question 01
The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

debugging.
password recovery.
routing data between networks.
troubleshooting.
connecting one router to another.

Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: By using router console port you can configure router, can set password and recover password, troubleshooting etc. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. But to route data between networks, you need to define routing protocol. So, option 3 is incorrect. To connect one router to another you need a physical medium. There is no use of console port. So, option 5 is incorrect.

Question 02

Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)

holds the startup configuration by default.
can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
stores Cisco IOS software images.
stores routing table information by default.
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.

Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: Flash memory is an erasable, programmable read-only memory which holds operating system image and microcode. It allows software to be updated without removing any chips and content remain when powered down pr restart. For this reason, 2 and 3 are the correct answers.

Question 03

Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

stores the routing table.
retains contents when power is removed.
stores the startup configuration file.
contains the running configuration file.
stores the ARP table.

Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: NVRAM stores the backup/startup configuration file for the router. It retains conten when the router is powered down or restarted.

Question 04

Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
They are used for initial router configuration.
They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Management connections of Cisco router are used to configuration router. These are non-network connections. So, option 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers. Option 3 and 4 are not correct because it's not a synchronous or asynchronous serial ports. Management connections has no IP address. So, option 6 is not also the correct answer. So, options 1, 2 and 4 are the correct answers.

Question 05

An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

switching.
static addressing.
IETF standardization.
dynamic or static routing.
consistent end-to-end addressing.

Correct answer: 1, 4 and 5
Explanation: Internetwork includes switching, dynamic or static routing and it's capable of addressing at the end-to-end addressing. So, option 1, 4 and 5 are correct. Internetwork doesn't include IETF standardization or static addressing.

Question 06

Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

contains startup configuration file.
stores routing table.
holds fast switching cache.
retains contents when power is removed.
stores running configuration file.

Correct answer: 2, 3 and 5
Explanation: Cisco RAM has the following characteristics:

stores routing information
address resolution protocol (ARP)
fast-switching cache
packet buffering
packet hold queues
RAM contents are lost if power is down or restarted
provides temporary running memory.

For the above reasons, 2, 3 and 5 options are correct.

Question 07

Terminal emulatror software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

bits per second.
data bits.
parity.
stop bits.
flow control.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 4

Question 08

Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)

a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

Correct answer: 5 and 6
Explanation:
Straight-through cables are used for the following types of cabling:

switch to router
switch to PC or server
hub to PC or server

Crossover cables are used for the following types of cabling:

switch to switch
PC to PC
hub to hub
router to router
router to PC

For the above reasons 5 and 6 are the only true answers.

Question 09

Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

can be accessed remotely.
does not depend on network services.
displays startup and error messages by default.
does not require special components.

Answer:

Correct answer: 2 and 3
Explanation: Console connection doesn't depend on networking services. Moreover, by using this type of connection the startup and error message can be easily captured. That's why 2 and 3 are the correct answers. And the others are not true answers.

Question 10

What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?

ARP tables.
bridging tables.
routing tables.
switching tables.

Correct answer: 3
Explanation: Router has a routing table and the routing table is used for outgoing data packets. So, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 11

Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)

troubleshooting problems.
monitoring the system.
capturing LAN data packets.
configuring the router.
routing data packets.

Correct answer: 1, 2 and 5
Explanation: By using management connection, you can configure router, troubleshoot and monitor the system. So, 1, 2 and 5 are the correct answers.

Question 12

Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)

CPU.
hard drive.
input/output interfaces.
keyboard.
monitor.
system bus.

Correct answer: 1, 3 and 6
Explanation: A router doesn't have any monitor, keyboard and hard drive. So, 2, 4 and 5 are the incorrect answer. The correct answers are 1, 3 and 6.

Question 13

Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

connects peripherals in a single location.
connects multiple networks in a single building.
provides connectivity on a LAN.
provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

Correct answer: 4
Explanation:WAN means Wide Area Network which connects a large geographical area network. So, 4 is the only one correct answer.

Question 14

ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)

straight-through cable.
terminal emulation software.
rollover cable.
RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
V.35 cable.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 4
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, you need one rollover cable, RJ-45 to DB-9 connectors and you need a software which is the terminal emulator software. So, 2, 3 and 4 are the correct answers.

Question 15

During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?

twisted
crossover
rollover
straight

Correct answer: 3
Explanation: To connect a PC and a router, a crossover cable is used. But when you are configuring your router, then a rollover cable is used. For more explanation, see explanation of question 08.

Question 16

What contains the instructions that a router uses control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?

packet configuration.
configuration files.
flash memory.
internal components.

Correct answer: 2
Explanation: Only the configuration file can control the flow of traffic through its interface.So, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 17

Which of the followings are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)

provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
hold the IOS image.
connect the router to LANs and WANs.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 5
Explanation: By using a router, you can connect LANs and WANS. So, option 5 is correct. All the interfaces are placed on motherboard. So, option 3 is also correct. By using the interfaces the packets are coming and out. So, option 2 is also correct. So, option 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.

Question 18

Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)

hubs.
routers.
communication servers.
transceivers.
modems.
multi-port repeaters.

Correct answer: 2 3 and 5
Explanation:
WAN is used to communicate large distance network. So, routers, communication servers and modems are used here. So, 2, 3 and 5 are the correct answers.

Question 19

Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?

volatile random access memory.
read only memory.
non-volatile random access memory.
flash memory.

Correct answer: 3
Explanation: See the explanation of question 3.

Question 20

Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)

physical layer.
application layer.
transport layer.
data link layer.
session layer.

Correct answer: 1, 4
Explanation: Physical layer, Data Link layer and Network Layer are the incorporated in WAN standards. So, 1 and 4 are the correct answers.

© Written by rancidTaste

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OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 8 - Accessing the WAN

2009-10-27T14:06:00.001+08:00

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%

1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
- cable types
- connector types
- interface identifiers
- DLCI for virtual circuits
- operating system versions

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
- incorrect encapsulation
- incorrect STP configuration
- incorrect ARP mapping
- incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
- information about the network design
- IP addressing allocation on the network
- requirements about the service provider setup
- requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
- expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

- Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
- Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
- Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
- Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
- TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
- The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
- Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
- The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
- The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
- The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
- The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
- Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.
- The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
- Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
- bottom up
- top down
- divide and conquer
- middle out

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
- baselining tool
- knowledge base
- protocol analyzer
- cable tester

10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
- cable analyzer
- network analyzer
- protocol analyzer
- knowledge base

11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

- physical
- data link
- network
- application

12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
- narrowing the scope
- gathering symptoms from suspect devices - analyzing existing symptoms
- determining ownership

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
- A carrier detect signal is present.
- Keepalives are being received successfully.
- Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
- Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
- The reliability of this link is very low.
- The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

- The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
- Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
- The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
- An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
- The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
- application
- transport
- network
- data link
- physical

16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
- physical
- data link
- network
- transport

17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
- 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
- physical layer
- data link layer
- network layer
- transport layer
- application layer

19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
- All layers
- Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
- Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
- Layer 6 and Layer 7

20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
- Determine fault.
- Get to know the user to build trust.
- Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
- Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
- Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
- Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
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OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 7 - Accessing the WAN

2009-10-27T14:03:00.000+08:00

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

- The DHCP server service is not enabled.
- The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
- The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
- The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
- All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?

- The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
- The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
- The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.
- The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

3. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?

- 1
- 6
- 7
- 8
-9

4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
- It saves public IP addresses.
- It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
- It increases routing performance.
- It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
- It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
- PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
- Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
- Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
- PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

6. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
- NAT overload
- static NAT
- dynamic NAT
- PAT

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

- 10.1.1.2
- 192.168.0.100
- 209.165.20.25
- any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)

- Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
- Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
- Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
- A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.
- External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

- defines which addresses can be translated
- defines which addresses are allowed into the router
- defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
- defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

10. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
- The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.
- Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
- The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.
- Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

- ip nat pool statement
- access-list statement
- ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
- interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address

12. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

- A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
- The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.
- A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
- A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

13. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?

- 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4

14. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
- Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
- Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
- Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
- Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

15. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
- Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
- Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
- Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
- Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

16. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

- dynamic NAT
- NAT with overloading
- open port 20
- open port 21
- open port 23
- NAT with port forwarding

17. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

- 10.1.1.1
- 172.30.20.2
- 192.168.1.2
- 255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)

- 10.0.0.125
- 179.9.8.95
- 179.9.8.98
- 179.9.8.101
- 179.9.8.112

19. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

- It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
- It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.
- It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.
- The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

20. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
- 32
- 48
- 64
- 128

21. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
- 8
- 16
- 80
- 128

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 6 - Accessing the WAN

2009-10-27T14:00:00.000+08:00

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
- users are on a shared medium
- uses RF signal transmission
- local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
- physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
- user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
- channel widths
- access method
- maximum data rate
- modulation techniques
- compression techniques

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
- use higher RF frequencies
- allocate an additional channel
- subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
- reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
- use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
- cable
- DSL
- ISDN
- POTS

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
- A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
- The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
- Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.
- Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
- accounting
- authentication
- authorization
- data availability
- data confidentiality
- data integrity

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
- digital certificates
- ESP
- hashing algorithms
- smart cards
- WPA

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
- digital certificates
- encryption
- encapsulation
- hashing
- passwords

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
- AES
- DES
- AH
- hash
- MPLS
- RSA

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
- Diffie-Hellman
- digital certificate
- pre-shared key
- RSA signature

11. Which statement describes cable?
- Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
- The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
- Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
- Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
- a WiMAX tower
- a one-way multicast satellite
- a WiMAX receiver
- an access point connected to the company WLAN

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
- supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
- covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
- supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
- connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
- operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
- Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
- Data is flowing downstream.
- Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
- The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

- Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
- Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
- Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
- All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
- AH
- L2TP
- ESP
- GRE
- PPTP

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
- ATM
- CHAP
- IPsec
- IPX
- MPLS
- PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

- a GRE tunnel
- a site-to-site VPN
- a remote-access VPN
- the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

- The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
- The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
- The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
- The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
- The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
- The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 5 - Accessing the WAN

2009-10-25T21:56:00.001+08:00

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 96%

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
- blocked in and out of all interfaces
- blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
- permitted in and out of all interfaces
- blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
- packet size
- protocol suite
- source address
- destination address
- source router interface
- destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
- by destination UDP port
- by protocol type
- by source IP address
- by source UDP port
- by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
- Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
- Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
- Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
- Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
- Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
- close to the source
- close to the destination
- on an Ethernet port
- on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
- An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
- A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
- A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
- A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
- Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
- Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
- The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
- The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
- The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
- The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
- The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
- FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
- All traffic is implicitly denied.
- FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
- Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
- Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
- The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
- Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
- The network administrator receives an error.
- Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

- ISP Fa0/0 outbound
- R2 S0/0/1 inbound
- R3 Fa0/0 inbound
- R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
- Only named ACLs allow comments.
- Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
- Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
- Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
- More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
- extended ACL
- reflexive ACL
- console logging
- authentication
- Telnet connectivity
- user account with a privilege level of 15

13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

- It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
- It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
- It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
- It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
- dynamic
- port-based
- reflexive
- time-based

15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

- TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
- TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
- Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
- Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
- The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
- The access list statements are misconfigured.
- All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
- No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

- Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
- The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
- The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
- The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?

- Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
- Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
- Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
- Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?
- Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
- They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
- They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
- When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
- Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
- Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
- Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
- In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
- the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
- the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
- the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
- the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
- 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
- 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
- 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
- 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
- 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
- Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
- The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
- The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
- A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
- A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

- It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
- It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
- It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
- It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?

- Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
- Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
- Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
- Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the
possible reason for the problem?

- The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
- The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
- The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
- The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 96%
For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 4 - Accessing the WAN

2009-10-25T21:13:00.000+08:00

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
- Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
- Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
- Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
- Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
- Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security
policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
- Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
- Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
- Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
- A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
- Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
- reconnaissance
- access
- DoS
- worm
- virus
- Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
- DoS
- DDoS
- virus
- access
- reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
- The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
- Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
- Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
- Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
- Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
- securing
- monitoring
- testing
- improvement
- reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
- provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
- describe how the firewall must be configured
- document the resources to be protected
- identify the security objectives of the organization
- identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
- It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
- It communicates consensus and defines roles.
- It is developed by end users.
- It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
- It defines how to handle security incidents.
- It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
- By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
- DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
- Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
- The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
- The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
- It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
- It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
- It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
- It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
- It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

- The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
- The authentication method is not configured correctly.
- The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
- The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
- The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
- The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
- The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
- The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
- The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

- The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
- The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
- The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
- The TFTP server software has not been started.
- There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
- Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
- Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
- Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
- Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
- Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
- ROM monitor
- boot ROM
- Cisco IOS
- direct connection through the console port
- network connection through the Ethernet port
- network connection through the serial port

16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

- The password is sent in plain text.
- A Telnet session is established with R1.
- The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
- The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
- SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
- SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
- SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
- SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
- Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
- Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
- Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
- Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
- Schedule antivirus scans.
- Schedule antispyware scans .
- Schedule training for all users.
- Schedule operating systems updates.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

- SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
- SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
- SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
- SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?

- to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
- to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
- to enable SSH encryption of traffic
- to create an IPsec tunnel

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

- The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
- The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
- The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
- The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz 100%

For image version, please send your request to lovestoryhouse@gmail.com. thx.
Disclaimer: This questionnaires are just for revision purpose!

OCT 2009 CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN Chapter 3 - Accessing the WAN

2009-10-25T18:42:00.000+08:00

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
- Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
- Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
- Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
- Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional hardware for leased service.

2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
- Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
- It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
- FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
- The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
- The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
- local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
- locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
- logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
- logical address used to identify the DCE

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
- ISDN circuit
- limited access circuit
- switched parallel circuit
- virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
- ARP
- RARP
- Proxy ARP
- Inverse ARP
- LMI status messages
- ICMP

6. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

- 110
- 115
- 220
- 225

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

- The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
- The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
- DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
- Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
- Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

- It helps to conserve IP addresses.
- It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
- It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
- It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue?(Choose three.)
- puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
- drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
- reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
- re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
- sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
- sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

- The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
- The local DLCI number is 401.
- Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
- This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
- Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

11. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

- The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
- The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
- The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
- The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
- The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
- It is currently not transmitting data.
- It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
- It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
- It is experiencing congestion.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?

- The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
- The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
- The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
- The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.

14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
- Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point subinterfaces will consume.
- Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
- Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
- Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

15. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

- one multipoint subinterface
- two point-to-point subinterfaces
- with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
- one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
- To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.
- Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay nodes.
- Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
- To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

- Split horizon must be disabled.
- The LMI type must be specified.
- Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
- The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

- R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
- R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201
- R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
- R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

- The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
- The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
- The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
- The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

20. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

- LMI updates are not being received properly.
- The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
- Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
- The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

21. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

- Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
- Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
- Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
- Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

- R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
- R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
- R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
- R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

updated: OCT 2009 by bluefiz