Sample questions of various Entrance examinations

2010-04-21T05:27:00.000-07:00

For interesting informations: check out this site:

Crude extracts of life

CSIR-Lifesciences-Paper1 Part B

2010-03-17T19:52:00.000-07:00

90. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of a rare disorder.
Based on the above pedigree, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
1. Autosomal dominant
2. X-linked recessive
3. X-linked dominant
4. Y-linked dominant

91. Which of the following pair of relatives will have the highest genetic correlation?
1. First double cousins
2. Half siblings
3. Brothers
4. Brother-sister

93. You are provided with an E. coli strain auxotrophic for the amino acids Trp, Leu
and Val. To select for double revertants in Trp and Leu, which amino acid(s)
would you include in the growth medium?
1. Trp
2. Leu
3. Val
4. Trp, Leu, Val

94. UAG and UAA are both nonsense codons. What kind of single point mutation
would cause reversion of UAG to a meaningful codon?
1. Transition
2. Transversion
3. Frameshift
4. Inversion

95. E. coli cells were simultaneously infected by two rII bacteriophage mutants.
From the progeny obtained after lysis of the E. coli cells it was observed that
some of the bacteriophages showed a wild type phenotype. These were
obtained at extremely low frequency. This is due to
1. complementation of the two mutations.
2. recombination between the two mutant chromosomes.
3. transposition of the mutation.
4. incomplete penetrance.

96. Which of the following hormones stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and the
secretion of K+ in the kidney?
1. Vasopressin
2. Thyroxine
3. Prolactin
4. Aldosterone

97. The correct sequence in vertebrate embryonic development is
1. gastrocoel – blastocoel – notochord – neural crest.
2. blastocoel – gastrocoel – neural crest – notochord.
3. gastrocoel – blastocoel – neural crest – notochord.
4. blastocoel – neural crest – gastrocoel – notochord.

98. A person has a vision problem caused by the image of an object at infinity getting
focused in front of retina. The error can be corrected by the use of
1. biconvex lens.
2. cylindrical lens.
3. plano convex lens.
4. biconcave lens.

99. During electrical stimulation-induced depolarization of neuron, voltage-gated
1. Na+ channels will close.
2. K+ channels will close.
3. Cl− channels will open.
4. Na+ channels will open.

100. The primary function of diaphragm is to
1. control blood pressure.
2. regulate respiration.
3. support the heart.
4. keep the rib cage dilated.

101. In nephron, the main role of deamination is to
1. reduce urine pH.
2. reduce water loss.
3. release urea.
4. release uric acid.

102. During inspiration, the air that we breathe moves through different regions of the
associated organs in the sequence of
1. larynx > nasopharynx > trachea > glottis.
2. nasopharynx > glottis > larynx > trachea.
3. glottis > nasopharynx > larynx > trachea.
4. larynx > glottis > nasopharynx > trachea.

103. Knee jerk reaction is an example of what type of reflex?
1. Monosynaptic
2. Multisynaptic
3. Conditioned
4. Conscious

104. Which of the following processes is a major problem in interpreting molecular
phylogeny?
1. Horizontal transfer of genes
2. Gene duplication
3. Synonymous mutations
4. Non-synonymous mutations

105. In a tissue, a cell that markedly differs in form, size and content from other cells
of the same tissue is called
1. intermediary cell.
2. isotropic cell.
3. idioblast cell.
4. myrosin cell.

106. Among the extant reptiles which group is phylogenetically closely related to
Aves?
1. Turtles
2. Lizards
3. Snakes
4. Crocodiles

107. The group of organisms that is now separated from the other groups of fungi
based on their motile spores and cellulose-rich cell wall is
1. Myxomycetes.
2. Zygomycetes.
3. Deuteromycetes.
4. Oomycetes.

108. Some floristic elements common to both India and China are in the genus
1. Ginkgo.
2. Rhododendron.
3. Poeciloneuron.
4. Erinocarpus.

109. The difference between Indian and African wild herbivore fauna is that there are
no
1. antelopes in India.
2. deer in Africa.
3. odd-toed animals in India.
4. even-toed hoofed animals in Africa.

110. Which of the following bird species is endangered?
1. Hill myna
2. Great Indian bustard
3. Crow-pheasant
4. Grey hornbill

111. In spite of the prevalence of herbivory, the earth continues to be largely green
because
1. the number of herbivore species is low.
2. herbivores are very inefficient feeders.
3. herbivore numbers are kept low by their predators.
4. herbivory promotes plant growth.

113. Which of the following reproductive strategies is characteristic of marine
invertebrates?
1. Long generation time, small clutch size
2. Short generation time, small clutch size
3. Long generation time, large clutch size
4. Short generation time, large clutch size

114. Bergmann’s Rule refers to a general tendency of mammals to be
1. larger in size in colder areas of their distribution.
2. smaller in size in areas of their distribution.
3. darker-pigmented in warmer areas of their distribution.
4. lighter-pigmented in warmer areas of their distribution.

115. When removal of a species from an ecosystem affects persistence of many other
species and the impact of that species removal is disproportionate to its
abundance, the species is known as
1 indicator species.
2. keystone species.
3. flagship species.
4. umbrella species.

116. Biomass turnover time is the ratio between biomass and productivity of an
ecosystem. Which of the following forests should have highest biomass turnover
time?
1. Tropical dry forests
2. Tropical wet forests
3. Temperate deciduous forests
4. Boreal forests

117. Conversion of nitrite to nitrate in soil is done by the bacteria of genus
1. Azotobacter.
2. Nitrosomonas.
3. Nitrobacter.
4. Pseudomonas.

118. In a population with two alleles ‘a’ and ‘b’ of a genotype in a ratio of 0.2 and 0.8
in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals in a sample of 300 can be
expected to be homozygous for allele ‘a’?
1. 192
2. 12
3. 64
4. 96

119. Defective alleles are eliminated rapidly from a population if they are
1. recessive.
2. dominant.
3. codominant.
4. in multiple copies.

120. The correct expression of Hamilton rule for the evaluation of altruism is [C = the
cost of a behavioral act to the actor, b = the benefit of that act to a beneficiary, and
r = the genetic relatedness between the actor and the beneficiary]
1. c < b⋅r
2. c < b
3. c⋅r < b
4. r < b⋅c
121. The evolutionary basis of sexual dimorphism is
1. differential investment in offspring.
2. difference in aggression.
3. difference in sex chromosomes.
4. difference in autosomes.

122. The evolutionary appearance of the first mammals was
1. after the extinction of dinosaurs and before the appearance of birds.
2. before the extinction of dinosaurs and after the appearance of birds.
3. before the extinction of dinosaurs and before the appearance of birds.
4. after the extinction of dinosaurs and after the appearance of birds.

123. Both the Luria-Delbruck experiment and the Lederberg and Lederberg experiment
demonstrate
1. pre-selection mutations.
2. post-selection mutations.
3. directed mutations.
4. adaptive mutations.

124. Vampire bats regurgitate food in order to feed a starving member of their group.
This is an example of
1. group selection.
2. reciprocal altruism.
3. selfish behavior.
4. K-selection.

125. The first appearance of amphibians on earth was during the period
1. Silurian.
2. Carboniferous.
3. Triassic.
4. Jurassic.

126. In a transgenic mouse experiment a founder male produces 100 pups and only 20
of these are transgenic. This result leads to the conclusion that the
1. founder transgenic animal is chimaeric.
2. founder animal is mosaic.
3. transgene is integrated on Y–chromosome.
4. transgene is integrated on X–chromosome.

127. An inbred mouse is cloned using another mouse strain as an egg donor. The
genetic relationship between the original inbred mouse and its clone will be
1. 100%.
2. 99–100%.
3. 95–99%.
4/ 90–95%.

128. Which of the following elements can be used to immobilize a reduced protein?
1. Calcium
2. Potassium
3. Gold
4. Sodium

129. D-amino acids
1. cannot be produced by fermentation.
2. can be produced by E. coli.
3. can be produced by yeast.
4. can be produced by microbes provided with chiral precursors of D-amino
acids.

130. Which of the following viruses is used for biocontrol of insect pests of plants?
1. Cauliflower mosaic virus
2. Cucumber mosaic virus
3. Rice tungro virus
4. Nuclear polyhedrosis virus

131. What ratio do you expect for codominant loci in F2 populations?
1. 1:1
2. 3:1
3. 1:2:1
4. 9:3:3:1

132. The copy number of a transgene in plants can be deciphered by
1. Southern blotting.
2. northern blotting.
3. south western blotting.
4. far western blotting.

133. It is hypothesized that the mean (μ) longevity of a Drosophila strain is 18 days,
with a variance (σ) of 3 days. What values of longevity in a sampled population
will lead to rejection of the null hypothesis at 95% confidence level?
1. Only values less than 15.
2. Values less than 15 and more than 18
3. Only values more than 21
4. Values less than 12 and more than 24

134. Normalized Differential Vegetation Index (NDVI) in remote sensing refers to the
following spectral band derivation:
1. Near IR – Red
2. Red / Near Red
3. (Near IR – Red) / (Near IR + Red)
4. (Near IR – Red) / Red

135. Function of a monochromator in a spectrophotometer is
1. focusing a straight beam of light.
2. dividing a light beam into its component wavelengths.
3. selecting a desired wavelength.
4. creating a light source.

136. Which of the following methods is the most appropriate for estimating the
population density of burrowing animals?
1. Quadrat sampling
2. Line transect sampling
3. Tag-recapture method
4. Nearest neighbour distance method

137. A radioactive sample was counted in a scintillation counter and a value of 194930
cpm was obtained. The counting efficiency was found to be 95.7%. What is the
actual amount of radioactivity present in the sample?
1. 181171 dpm
2. 190411 dpm
3. 203600 dpm
4. 211326 dpm

138. Which one of the following treatments does NOT enhance the response of a film
to radioisotopes in autoradiography?
1. Staining the gel with Coomassie blue before drying
2. Use of intensifying screens
3. Exposure at low temperature
4. Preflashing the film with a light flash

139. What is the length of oligonucleotide required to give consistent specific
hybridization signal in a microarray?
1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 20

140. A protein is poorly expressed in a diseased tissue. To determine whether the
defect is at the level of transcription or translation, which of the following
blotting methods would you use?
1. Southern
2. Southern and northern
3. Northern and western
4. Western

CSIR Life sciences Paper 1 Part B

2010-03-17T19:41:00.000-07:00

LIFE SCIENCES

PAPER I(PART ‘B’)

41. During protein synthesis, L-amino acid binds to t-RNA through
1. α-amino group.
2. hydrophobic side chain.
3. α–carboxyl group.
4. carboxyl group of the side chain.

42. The peptide bond is planar
1. due to restriction caused by rotation around cα–N bond
2. due to restriction around cα–c′ bond
3. due to delocalization of the lone pair of electrons of the nitrogen onto
carbonyl oxygen
4. because amide protons and carbonyl oxygen are involved in hydrogen
bonding.

43. Hydrogen bond length will NOT be
1. independent of the nature of donor and acceptor atoms.
2. dependent on donor and acceptor atoms.
3. dependent on the solvent in which the molecule is dissolved.
4. dependent on the other atoms bonded with the donor and acceptor atom.

44. Why a DNA duplex melts at a specific temperature (Tm) on heating?
1. Loss of base stacking energy
2. The double helix is intrinsically unstable
3. The single helix is more stable as compared to the double helix
4. The DNA double helix is a co-operative structure stabilized by hydrogen
bonds and base pairing

45. Lipid bilayers can be formed by phospholipids which have variable head groups
and fatty acyl chains. The fluidity of the membrane will depend on
1. only the nature of head groups.
2. only the length of the fatty acid chains irrespective of the extent of
unsaturation.
3. only unsaturation irrespective of the length of the fatty acid chains.
4. length and degree of unsaturation of fatty acid chains.
46. Which one of the following RNA molecules is involved in regulation of gene
expression?
1. miRNA
2. rRNA
3. 5S RNA
4. tRNA

47. In which organelle is NADP+ the final electron acceptor?
1. Only chloroplast
2. Only mitochondrion
3. Both chloroplast and mitochondrion
4. Lysosome

48. When the K'q = 1, ΔG° is equal to
1. –1.
2. 0.
3. +1.
4. 10.

49. Which one of the following human pathogen is a flagellated protozoan?
1. Trypanosoma
2. Plasmodium
3. Paramecium
4. Entamoeba

50. Which of the following mammalian cells usually does NOT divide in adult life?
1. Epithelial cells in lung
2. Nerve cells in brain
3. Liver cells
4. Osteoblast cells

51. What happens to the Cdk-cyclin A complex at metaphase?
1. Both cyclin A and Cdk remain undegraded
2. Only Cdk is degraded
3. Only cyclin A is degraded
4. Both cyclin A and Cdk are degraded

52. The average human genome has approximately 3×109 base pairs coding for
various proteins. If an “average” protein contains 400 amino acids, what is the
maximum number of proteins that can be encoded by the human genome?
1. 2.5 × 106.
2. 2.5 × 107 .
3. 3.0 × 106 .
4. 3.5 × 107 .

53. In eukaryotes, the interaction of enhancer and promoter elements is brought
closer by
1. zinc finger.
2. DNA looping.
3. helix turn helix.
4. palindrome.

54. Which of the following cytoskeleton elements guides the movement of vesicles
containing cell wall precursors from their site of formation in Golgi to the site of
new wall formation in a growing pollen tube?
1. Myosin
2. Actin
3. Kinesin
4. Dynein

55. Ionophores are small hydrophobic molecules that can partition into the lipid
bilayer and increase their permeability to specific inorganic ions. Which of the
following is a channel forming ionophore?
1. Valinomycin.
2. Actinomycin.
3. Gramicidin A.
4. Nicin.

56. Which GTPases regulate intracellular transport in mammalian cells through
vesicle fusion?
1. Rab
2. Ran
3. Ras
4. Rho

57. The region where RNA polymerase binds to promoter in prokaryotes is called
1. Pribnow box.
2. Hogness box.
3. Homeo box.
4. Shine-Dalgarno box.

58. Which of the following features highlights the difference between Z-DNA and BDNA?
1. Double helical nature
2. Orientation of phosphate backbone
3. Pairing of G – C
4. Antiparallel nature of two polynucleotide strands of double helix

59. Ribosomal subunits are assembled in
1. cytoplasm.
2. nucleolus.
3. nucleus.
4. endoplasmic reticulum.

60. The absence of sigma factor in RNA polymerase
1. affects elongation only.
2. blocks initiation only.
3. affects both initiation and elongation.
4. does not affect transcription.

61. Which of the following features is not required in the initiation step of protein
synthesis?
1. Amino acid activation
2. Binding of mRNA to the ribosomes
3. Transfer of activated amino acid to tRNA
4. Joining together of two amino acids by peptide bond formation

62. By which of the following mechanisms does cycloheximide inhibit protein
synthesis?
1. Blocking the peptidyl transferase of 80S euokaryotic ribosomes
2. Blocking the peptidyl transferase of 70S prokaryotic ribosomes
3. By binding to DNA dependent RNA polymerase
4. By binding to sigma factor

63. Which of the following is a natural inducer of the lac operon in E. coli?
1. Lactose
2. Galactose
3. Allolactose
4. IPTG

64. Antitermination of RNA synthesis is a major mechanism of regulation in
1. lytic phase of λ phage.
2. lysogenic phase of λ phage.
3. lac operon.
4. trp operon.

65. Influenza virus binds to its host cells through which one of the following
carbohydrate moiety.
1. N-acetyl glucosamine
2. N-acetyl neuraminic acid
3. Fucose
4. Mellibiose

66. In mammals, G protein coupled receptors (GPCR) play a major role in mediating
effects of various hormones NOT through
1. activation of protein kinase A.
2. activation of adenylate cyclase.
3. inactivation of adenylate cyclase.
4. activation of tyrosine kinase activity.

67. Receptors for neurotransmitters are located on the
1. cell surface.
2. nucleus.
3. endosome.
4. Golgi apparatus.

68. One of the major transmembrane proteins in a “tight junction” is
1. lectin.
2. claudin.
3. adherin.
4. integrin.

69. Retroviruses are well known as cancer causing agents because it
1. causes mutations in host genes involved in growth.
2. integrates their proviral DNA next to protooncogenes.
3. generates defective viruses lacking some of the viral genes.
4. integrates their T antigens into the host genome.
70. Select the correct statement:
1. In vertebrate development, immune and nervous systems are
the prevalent sites for apoptosis.
2. Apoptosis is triggered by growth stimulus.
3. The tumor suppressor factor p53 inhibits apoptosis.
4. The soluble form of tumor necrosis factor cannot induce apoptosis.

71. ELISA assay
1. uses complement mediated cell lysis.
2. uses a radiolabeled second antibody.
3. involves addition of substrate which is converted to coloured end product.
4. requires specialized red blood cells.

72. In mosaic development, the prospective potency of cells
1. equals its prospective fate.
2. is greater than prospective fate.
3. is less than prospective fate.
4. and fate are unrelated.

73. Experiments with sea urchin demonstrated species specific sperm-egg
recognition through the protein
1. bindin.
2. avidin.
3. activin.
4. hyalin.

74. Exposing a regenerating limb to which of the following chemicals results in the
blastema proximalization?
1. Ascorbic acid
2. Thyroxine
3. Retinoic acid
4. Glutamic acid

75. Temperature-dependent sex determination is observed in
1. Drosophila.
2. amphibians.
3. reptiles.
4. sea urchins.
76. Some plants require vernalization (prolonged cold treatment) for transition to
flowering. For floral induction, vernalization signal is perceived primarily by
1. young leaves subtending the apical meristem.
2. mature leaves near the root-shoot junction.
3. all vegetative parts.
4. shoot apical meristem.

77. Which phase of embryogenesis in plants is characterized by the initiation of
deposition of storage reserves?
1. Globular stage
2. Heart stage
3. Torpedo stage
4. Cell enlargement stage

78. Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to growth of animals?
1. When all body parts grow at the same rate, it is called isometric growth.
2. When different body parts grow at different rates, it is called allometric
growth.
3. Two-fold change in weight will cause a 1.26-fold expansion in length if
growth is allometric.
4. Isometric growth cannot create dramatic changes in the structure of
organisms.

79. Abnormalities during development caused by exogenous agents are called
disruptions and the agents are specifically called
1. morphogen.
2. teratogen.
3. allergen.
4. mutagen.

80. At which of the following steps does application of dichlorophenyl-dimethyl urea
(DCMU) inhibit electron flow during photosynthesis?
1. P680* → Pheophytin
2. QA → QB
3. QB → Cytb6f complex
4. Cytb6f complex → plastocyanin

81. A major functional difference between the succinyl CoA-synthetase of plant and
animal cell mitochondria is that it
1. does not produce ATP in plant cell.
2. does not produce GTP in plant cell.
3. produces ATP in plants and GTP in animals.
4. produces GTP in plants and ATP in animals.

82. A common symptom of molybdenum deficiency in plants is the accumulation of
nitrate in the cytosol, which results from
1. reduced nitrite reductase activity.
2. reduced nitrate reductase activity.
3. reduced transport of nitrate into the vacuoles.
4. reduced transport of nitrate into the chloroplasts.

83. The Rht mutations in wheat that were pivotal for 'Green Revolution' cause
reduction in plant height due to impairment in
1. gibberellic acid biosynthesis pathway.
2. gibberellic acid signaling pathway.
3. auxin biosynthetic pathway.
4. auxin response pathway.

84. Which of the following phytochrome controlled responses displays red/far-red
reversibility?
1. Very low-fluence responses
2. Low-fluence responses
3. High-irradiance responses
4. Very high-irradiance responses

85. At permanent wilting point, plants cannot regain turgor pressure even if
transpiration stops because
1. water potential of soil (ψw) is less than or equal to osmotic potential (ψS)
of the plant.
2. ψw is higher than ψS .
3. ψw and ψS are unaltered.
4. ψS remains unaltered.

86. Alkaloid production in plants is regulated by a change in the endogenous pool of
1. gibberellins.
2. jasmonates.
3. brassinosteroids.
4. abscisic acid.

87. Flooding and submergence of plants leads to anoxic conditions. Usually, floodtolerant
species alter their developmental programme, resulting in
1. increased activity at the apical meristem.
2. growth retardation of foliage.
3. elongation growth of their stems.
4. increased proliferation of root system.

88. An organism with the genotype AABbCcDD is selfed. The four genes are
independently assorting. What proportion of the progeny will show the genotype
AAbbccDD?
1. 1/4
2. 1/16
3. 1/64
4. 1/256

89. Two fruitflies with mutant eye color were crossed. All progenies obtained from
this cross had wild type eye colour as
1. the mutations are allelic.
2. one mutation is dominant over the other.
3. the mutations are co-dominant.
4. the mutations are in two different genes.

Scientists identify key protein from mitochondria in energy regulation

2010-03-14T03:36:00.000-07:00

Scientists have discovered a new mechanism that governs this pathway and in the process identified a novel potential therapeutic target for controlling fat metabolism.

ScienceDaily (Mar. 14, 2010) — With obesity and obesity-related diseases epidemic in the developed world, a clear understanding of how metabolism is regulated is crucial. One of the key metabolic pathways involves the oxidation of fat. In the current edition of the journal Nature, scientists at the Gladstone Institute of Virology and Immunology report on a new mechanism that governs this pathway and in the process identified a novel potential therapeutic target for controlling fat metabolism.

http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2010/03/100303131528.htm?utm_source=feedburner&utm_medium=feed&utm_campaign=Feed%3A+sciencedaily+%28ScienceDaily%3A+Latest+Science+News%29&utm_content=Google+Reader#

Question paper- IIT-JAM 2008

2009-05-03T06:10:00.000-07:00

Download the 2008 IIT-JAM question paper here----
http://www.scribd.com/share/upload/11419786/26sc8xtfhdajryefa4gh

IIT-JAM questions paper 2006

2009-05-03T06:08:00.000-07:00

to get IIT-JAM questions papers go to this site..

http://www.scribd.com/doc/14874429/IIT-JAM-bt2006

IIT Question Paper - Biotechnology 2005

2009-05-03T06:04:00.000-07:00

You can download the full question paper of IIT-JAM 2005 biotechnology entrance exam by copying the link give below in to your address bar and click "go"
http://www.scribd.com/doc/14874395/IITJAM-bt2005

Sample Questions - PART 13

2009-04-21T00:02:00.001-07:00

Q) Capping occurs when

1. The trascription is complete
2. The trascritption changes from initiation to elongation phase
3. The elongation phase is complete
4. When RNA is in cytoplasm
5. None of the above

Q) The component that act as a DNA mimic in prokaryotic RNA polymerase is

1. Beta component
2. Alpha component
3. Sigma 3.2
4. Sigma 1.1
5. None of the above

Q) Which of the following is not a DNA intercalating agent

1. Ethidium Bromide
2. oxoG
3. Proflavin
4. Acridines
5. Exo 8,9 epoxide of aflatoxin B1

Q) Huntington's disease is a type of
1. Trinucleotide repeat disorder
2. Autosomal recessive disorder
3. Non-Autosomal recessive disorder
4. Non-Autosomal dominant disorder
5. Cardiac disorder

Q) The eukaryotic DNA polymerase respondible for replicating the ribosomal DNA is
1. Pol alpha
2. Pol beta
3. Pol epsilon
4. Pol gamma
5. Pol Delta

Q) The amino acids that are rarely found in alpha helix are
1. Proline and methionine
2. Proline and valine
3. Proline and serine
4. Proline and histidine
5. Alanine and proline

Q) SOS response in prokaryotes repair the DNA damage using
1, Base excision repair
2. Non homologous end joining
3. Mismatch repair
4. Trasletion DNA synthesis
5. Doublestrand break repair

Q) End problem is not seen in
1. Leading strand
2. Lagging strand
3. Linear DNA
4. Circular DNA

Q) Topoisomerases help in
1. Decatenation and catenation
2. Base excision repair
3. Reduce negative supercoiling
4. Recombinational repair
5. Non-homologous end joining

Q) The defect is on a gene that codes DNA helicase causes
1. Werner syndrome
2. Bloom's syndrome
3. Ataxia telangiectasia
4. Hay-Wells syndrome
5. Fibromyalgia

Sample Questions - PART 12

2009-04-19T04:21:00.001-07:00

Q) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true

1. There is no movement of water across isoosmotic solutions

2. Stenohalines includes only osmoconformers

3. Euryhalines can tolerate large osmotic changes in the environment

4. Water moves from a hyperosmotic solution to hypoosmotic solution

5. Both 3 and 4

Q) The only statement true among the following is

1. Fresh water fishes include only osmoregulators

2. Marine water fishes have a problem of gaining large quantities of water

3. Marine water fishes are hypertonic to seawater

4. Fresh water fishes are hypotonic to their surrounding water

5. None of the above

Q) The human urine is

1. Hypoosmotic compared to interstitial fluids

2. Hyperosmotic compared to interstitial fluids

3. Isoosmootic compared to interstitial fluids

4. Made hypoosmotic in cortical nephrons

5. Made hyperosmotic in cortical nephrons

Q) The decending limb loop of Henle

1. Has many aquaporins

2. Is permeable to salts

3. Is impermeable to water

4. Makes urine dilute

5. None of the above

Q) The part in human body impermeable to water is

1. Decending limb of loop of Henle

2. Ascending limb of loop of Henle

3. Glomerulus

4. Bowman's capsule

5. All the above

Q) During an allergic response, Histamin is released from

1.B Lymphocytes

2. T lymphocytes

3. Mast cells

4. Special lymphocyte that also secret IgE

Q) Prostaglandins are biologically active molecules that are
1. monocyclic

2. Bicyclic

3. Tricyclic

4. Polycyclic
5. None of the above

Sample Questions - PART 11

2009-04-18T23:19:00.001-07:00

Q) At the organismal level Tay-Sach syndome is due to

1. Incomplete dominance

2. Codominance

3. Homozygous recessive allele

4. Homozygous dominant allele

5. Heterozygous recessive allele

Q) The ozygen binder in Hemocyanine is

1. Magnesium

2. Copper

3. Cobalt

4. Iron

5. Zinc

Q) What change in the dissociation curve of hemoglobin is produced when there is a decrease in pH in tissues

1. Curve shifts to right side

2. Curve shifts to left side

3. Line parallel to X- axis

4. Line parallel to Y-axis

5. None of the above

Q) There is a production of H+ inside the erythrocytes when the CO2 enters the erythrocyte

H2CO3 = HCO3- + H+

. The Bohr shift is not occuring in RBC as a result of this because

1. H+ is removed back to tissues

2. H+ is taken by hemoglobin

3. H+ is converted to H2O

4. H+ is liberated as Hydrogen gas

5. None of the above

Q) In humans most of the carbon dioxide produced is trasported to lungs as

1. CO2 dissolved in blood

2. CO2 attached to amino end of polypeptide chain of hemoglobin

3. HCO3- in plasma

4. H2CO3 in erythrocytes

5. None of the above

Q) Rate of oxgen consumption per gram of body mass of a mouse and an elephant suggests that

1. As animals increase in size the rate of consumption of oxygen per gram of body mass increases

2. As animals increase in size the rate of consumption of oxygen per gram of body mass decreases

3. Whatever be the size of animal the rate of consumption of oxygen per gram of body mass remains constant

4. None of the above

Q) The mouse color genes exhibits

1. Pleitropy

2. Epistasis

3. Codominance

4.Semidominace

5. None of the above

Sample Questions - PART 10

2009-04-18T05:58:00.001-07:00

Q) Which is true about arteries

1. They carry oxygen containing blood

2. They carry deoxygenated blood

3. They carry blood towards capillaries

4. They carry blood away from capillaries

5. Both 1 and 4

Q) Which of the following is not seen in serum

1. Immunoglobulins

2. Protein

3. Clotting factors

4. Plasma

5. None of the above

Q) The best description of Acclimatization is

1. It is an irreversible change

2. It is similar to adaptation

3. It is a temporary change

4. It contributes to natural selection more than any otjer factor

5. None of the above

Q) As the stroke volume increases the heart rate

1. Increases

2. Decreases

3. Remains the same

4. Increases first then decreases

5. None of the above

Q) Mitochondria is not seen in RBC. This means that

1. RBCs are dead cells

2. They depend upon anaerobic matabolism

3. They donot produce ATP

4. They are attracted more towards ozygen

5. Both 3 and 4

Q) Arthrosclerosis is caused due to the clot in the arteries. This clot is due to

1. HDL

2. Clptting factors in blood

3. LDL

4. Low blood pressure

5. High blood pressure

Q) When the pH of the CSF decreases, the breathing rate

1. Increases

2. Decreases

3. This has no effect

4. Stops

4. None of the above

Q) With increase in age

1. The tidal volume increases

2. The vital capacity increases

3. The residual volume decreases

4. The tidal volume decreases

5. The residual volume increases

Q) The respiration in humans can be considered as

1. Positive pressure ventilation

2. Negative pressure ventilation

3. Both 1 and 2

4. None of the above

5. Positive durinf inhalation and nagative during exhalation

Sample Questions - PART 9

2009-04-17T05:11:00.001-07:00

Q) Which of the following gland secreates a clear mucus that makes the withdrawal an ineffective method of contraception during intercourse

1. Seminal vesicle

2. Leydic cells

3. Bulbourethral gland

4. Pineal gland

5. Seminiferous tubules

Q) How many eggs do a female produce during her life time

1. 1 to 2 millions

2. Around 500

3. Around 1000

4. Around 100

5. None of the above

Q) The primary oocyte is arrested at

1. Metaphase of meiosis 2

2. anaphase of meiosis 1

3. Prophase of meiosis 1

4. Prophase of meiosis 2

5. None of the above

Q) The cytokinesis occuring during meiosis 1 and meiosis 2 in the development of egg in female

1. Is proportional

2. Is unproportional

3. Created polar bodies

4. Both 1 and 3

5. Both 2 and 3

Q) Sildenafil sulfate inhibit

1. Nitric Oxide breakdown

2. Nitric Oxide synthesis

3. Prostaglandins

4. cAMP breakdown

5. None of the above

Sample Questions - PART 8

2009-04-16T06:29:00.000-07:00

Q) The additional amino acid - apart from essential amino acids, that an infant requires essentially is
1. Tyrosine
2. Histidine
3. Glutamate
4. Serine
5. None of the above

Q) A component of Coenzyme A is
1. Pantothenic acid
2. Folic acid
3. Thiamine
4. Phylloquinone
5. Vitamin B12

Q) Which of the following has an antioxidant activity together with vitamin E
1. Magnesium
2. Chlorine
3. Iron
4. Selenium
5. Cobalt

Q) Chief cells produce
1. HCl
2. Pepsin
3. Trypsin
4. Pepsinogen
5. Mucus

Q) Absorption of digested food occrus mainly in
1. Stomach
2. Small intestine
3. Jejunam and illeum
4. Duodenum
5. Colon

Q) Lacteal is a part of
1. Blood
2. Bone
3. Lymph
4. Immune system
5. Endocrine system

Q) The feeling of hunger is triggerd by which of the substance relased by the stomach
1. Leptin
2. Ghrelin
3. Glucagon
4. CCK
5. None of the above

Sample Questions- PART 7

2009-04-16T06:27:00.000-07:00

Q) Compared to smaller organisms, larger organism generally have
1. Larger cells
2. Smaller cells
3. More number of cells
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 2 and 3

Q) In a cell the most efficient import/export is possible when there is a
1. High volume
2. High surface area
3. High volume to surface area
4. High surface area to volume
5. None of the above

Q) What is common in all the epithelial cells
1. They are polarized
2. They are multifunctional
3. They do not have nucleus
4. They have multi layers
5. None of the above

Q) Which is found in middle lamella of plants
1. Cellulose
2. Liginin
3. Chitin
4. Sucrose
5. None of the above

Q) Suberin is found in
1. Leaves
2. Shoot apex
3. Casparian strip
4. Xylem
5. Phloem

Q) Tracheids and vessels only have
1. Symplast pathway
2. Trasmembrane pathway
3. Apoplast pathway
4. Active trasport
5. None of the above

Q) Excessive traspiration in plants occurs when
1. Stomata is closed
2. Stomata is closed and k+ concentration is more in guard cells
3. Stomata is open and H+ concentration is more in guard cells
4. H+ concentration is less in guard cells
5. None of the above

Q) Translocation is
1. Under positive pressure
2. Negative pressure
3. From sink to source
4. Both 1 and 3
5. Both 2 and 3

Q) Homeostasis in animals is said to be in
1. Static equillibrium
2. Dynamic equillibrium
3. Drives some reactions to completion
4. Never in equillibrium
5. None of the above

Q) poikilotherms can be considerd as
1. Ectotherms
2. Endotherms
3. Homeotherms
4.None of the above
5. Warm blooded animals

JNU Sample Question - PART 6

2009-04-15T03:14:00.000-07:00

Q) A perfect flower must have
1. Pistils
2. Stamen
3. Sepals and petals
4. 1 and 2
5. Only sepals

Q) Vasular cambium forms
1. Primary xylem and phloem
2. Secondary vasular tissues
3. Primary roots
4. Both 1 and 3
5. None of the above

Q) The water potential of pure water is
1. Zero
2. Greater than zero
3. Less than zero
4. Can be zero but can never be less than zero
5. None of the above

Q) Mature xylem has the following organells except
1. Nucleus
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplasts
4. Ribosomses
5. None of the above

Q) Sieve tube elements do not have
1. Living cells
2. Nucleus
3. Ribosomes
4.Both 2 and 3
5. None of the above

Q) Collenchyma typically contains
1. Pectin
2. Lignin
3. Cellulose
4. All but not 2
5. All but not 1

Q) Photosynthetically activa chloroplasts are present in
1. All epidermal cells
2. Leaf epidermal cells
3. Guard cells
4. Root epidermal cells
5. None of the above

Q) A cell can expand when the water potentuial in its vacoule is
1. Lower than outside
2. Higher than outside
3. Equal to outside
4. None of the above

Q) Pfr form of phytochrome is
1. Physiologically inactive
2. Formed on exposure to red light
3. Formed on exposure to far-red light
4. Formed only in the seeds
5. None of the above

Q) Long dau plants can be encouraged to flower by interuupting
1. The days with periods of darkness
2, The nights with far-red light
3. The nights with red light
4. The nights with Blue light
5. None of the above

JNU Sample Questions- PART 5

2009-04-15T03:08:00.000-07:00

Q) The plants are thought to be evolved from
1. Charophyte
2. Bryophyte
3. Lymnophyte
4. Pterophyte
5. None of the above

Q) The dominant stage in the life cycle of Bryophyte is
1. Sporophyte
2. Gamatophyte
3. Both
4. Partial gamatophyte
5. None of the above

Q) Pterophyte contains
1. Seedless plants
2. Non-vasular plants
3. Vascular seed plants
4. Eudicot plants
5. None of the above

Q) Which of the following is a dead cell at maturity
1. Guard cells
2. Sieve elements
3 .Tracheids
4. Meristems
5. Both 2 and 4

Q) Inside the ovary the egg is guarded by
1. Egg shell
2. Synergids
3. Micropyle
4. Cotyledons
5. None of the above

Q) Eudicots are
1. True monocots
2. True dicots
3. Neither monocot nor dicot
4. True dicots
5. Ancestor of monocots

Q) Onion can be considered as
1. Modifies root
2. Modified stem
3. Modified leaves
4. Normal stem
5. None of the above

Q) Stolons can be seen in
1. Strawberry
2. Gymnosperms
3. Apples
4. Sunflower
5. All of the above

Q) Pneumatophores can be seen in
1. Woody trees
2. Mangrooves
3. Evergreen trees
4. DIcots
5. All the above

Q) The sperm nuclei fuses with
1. Egg and synergids
2. Egg only
3. Egg and central nuclei
4. Central nuclei only
5. None of the above

Q) After fertilization the ovule developes in to
1. Fruite
2. Endosperm
3. Flower
4. Seed
5. Root cap

Q) The gynoecium is a collective name for
1. Anthers
2. Stames
3. Pistils
4. Carpels
5. None of the above

Q) The ploidy level of endosperm is
1. 1n
2. 2n
3. 3n
4. 4n
5. None of the above

Q) Monocots have
1. Orderd vascular tissues
2. One - pored pollen
3. Net like veins
4. Free swinmming sperms
5. All of the above

JNU Sample Qusetions Part 4

2009-04-13T00:16:00.000-07:00

Q) The essential amino acid(s) are/is
1. Glycine
2. Valine
3. Methionine
4. 1 and 3
6. 2 and 3

Q) Which one of the following statement is incorrect:
1. The ration of four different nucleotides vary from one species to another.
2. The base composition vary with age, nutritional factor or change in environment condition
3. Irrespective of source of DNA, the base compostion of A is equal to T and G to C
4. The DNA extracted from same tissues of different species have same base composition
5. None of the above

Q) The flowers which have a single plane of division to obtain mirrior image halves are called
1. Pelorial flowers
2. Actinomorphic flowers
3. Zygomorphic flowers
4. Heteromorphic flowers
5. None of these

Q) A person ingested methylated spirit.The treatment he receives normally exploites which of the following types of enzymatic reactions
1. Non competitive inhibition
2. Allosteric inhibition
3. Competitive inhibition
4. Allsoteric enhancement
5. Both 3 and 4

Q) TaqMan Probe is used for
1. RT-PCR
2. PCR
3. In vitro hybridization
4. qRT-PCR
5 DIdeoxy chain termination reaction

Q) In amino acid sequencing using ninhydrin, the detection is of
1. Beta amino acid
2. Alpha amino acid
3. N terminal amino acid
4. C terminal amino acid
5. None of the above

Q) Find the mismatched pair
1. Carboxypeptidase A - N-Terminal
2. Trypsin - C terminal
3. Cyanoge Bromide - Recognize Methionine
4. Chymotripsin - Phenyl alanine
5. None of the above

Q) Sanger's Reagent is
1. 1 fluro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
2. 2,4-dichloroaceticacid
3. Sidenafil citrate
4. Phenyl isothiocyanate

Q) Edman degradation detect
1. C terminal amino acid
2. N terminal amino acid
3. Amino acid that has aromatic side chains
4. Aliphatic amino acids
5. None of the above

JNU Sample Questions Part 3

2009-04-12T03:17:00.000-07:00

Q) What was the condition of early atmosphere
1. Oxidizing
2. Reducing
3. Mixed
4. Partially reducing
5. None of these

Q) Given the following processes, Which one of the list does not take place in
mitochondria?
1. DNA synthesis
2. Protein synthesis
3. Fatty acid biosynthesis
4. Beta oxidation of fatty acids
5. None of the above

Q) What is meant by "sapiens" in "Homo sapiens"
1. Errect
2. Walking
3. Wise and intelligent
4. With backbone
5. None of these

Q) Females can have a more number of orgasm than males because:
1. Females have less refractory period
2. Females have less excitement
3. Females have more vasocongetion
4. Femalesa have short orgasm
5. None of hte above

JNU Sample Question Part 2

2009-04-12T03:11:00.000-07:00

Q) The meaning of the greek word HORMAN from which the term HORMONE was adapted is
1. To secreate
2. To respond
3. To inhibit
4. To trasport
5. None of these

Q) The development of paws in mouse is caused by
1. Mutation
2. Apoptosis
3. Electroporation
4. Tissue specific inhibition
5. None of these

Q) Linker DNA connect
1. Nucleosomes
2. Chomatids
3. Two DNA strands
4. Homologous chromosomes
5. None of these

Q) A plasmid can hold up to
1. 100kb nucleotide sequence
2. Less than 100kb but more than 65kb nucleotids
3. 12kb nucleotids
4. 24kb nucleotids
5. None of the above

Q) Antibodies produced against Rh+ antigens in Rh- mothers are
1. IgM
2. IgA
3. IgG
4. IGE
5. Both i and 3

Q) The famous scientist who got the Nobel Prize twice is:
1. Sanger
2. James Watson
3. Stanley
4. James chadwick
5. None of these

Q) Fat digestion start at
1. Mouth
2. Small intestine
3. Stomach 4
. Large intestine
5. None of these

Q) Example for a day neutral plant is:
1. Sugarcane
2. Spinach
3. Rice
4. Crysanthemum
5. None of the above

Q) The factor which control the flowering is:
1. Critical night length
2. Critical day length
3. Critical temperature
4. Both 2 and 3
5. None of these

Q) When a developing plant's stem undergo a stress the plant produces
1. Ethylene
2. ABA
3. Brassinosteriods
4. Gibberilines
5. Cytokinins

Q) When ATP to AMP ratio is lowered
1. PFK is activated
2. PFK is inactivated
3. No change
4. Enolase is inhibited
5. Both 1 and 4

Q) Diphtheria toxin is produced by
1. Clostridium species
2. Coreynebacterium species
3. Staphylococcus apecies
4. Pseudomonas species
5. Toxoplasma species

Q) Viriods contain
1. Only RNA
2. Only DNA
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Only protein
5. None of these

Q) X0 chromosome condition is found in
1. Turner's Syndrome
2. Feminism
3. Downs' syndrome
4. Males only
5. Both 1 and 4

JNU Sample Questions from Endocrine System

2009-04-11T01:58:00.000-07:00

These are the sample questions that have appeared in various entrance examinations conducted by JNU. If anyone need the answer, please leave a comment. Comment also if you know the answers.

Q) The Anterior Pitutory gland is developed from

1. A tissue of mouth that finally detached from mouth
2. A tissue that grew downward from hypothalamus
3. A group of neurons
4. A portoin of Posterior Pitutory gland
5. None of these

Q) Mark the BEST answer: Oxytocin has

1. Negative feedback
2. Positive feedback
3. Substrate inhibition
4. All of the above
5. None of the above

Q) Hormone(s) which is having both tropic and non tropic effect is/are

1. FSH and LH
2. PRL and MSH
3. Only TSH
4. Only GH
5. None of these

Q) Grave's Disease is

1. Hyperthyroidic disorder
2. Hypothyroidic disorder
3 Cause due to accumulation of TSH in blood
4. Caused when Antibodies bind to and activate TSH receptor
5. Both 1 and 4

Q) Catecholemines are

1. Hormones
2. Neurotrasmitters
3 Peptides
4. Both 1 and 2
5 None of these

Q) Glucocorticoid injection through skin exploits its:

1. Antioxidant activity
2. Anti inflamatory activity
3. Vasodialation activity
4. Both 1 and 2
5. None of the above

Q) Accumulation of TSH in iodine deficient individuals' blood causes:

1. Gout
2. Grave's Disease
3. Goiter
4. Anemia
5. None of the above

Q) Imagine that the testes of a developing mouse embryo is removed. The born mouse will be:

1. A female
2. A male
3. The mouse will die before birth
4. A male with female characteretics
5. None of these

Q) Melatonin is produed more during

1. Winter
2. Summer
3. Autumn
4. All the seasons
5. None of the above

Q) The hormone that control suprachiasmatic Nucleus is

1. Calcitonin
2. Melatonin
3. GnRH
4. Triiodotyrosine
5. None of the above

Q) The hormone that stimulates production of glucose from non-carbohydreate precursors is

1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Epinephrin
4. Glucocorticoids
5. Nosne of the above

JNU Questions Part 1

2009-04-10T03:09:00.000-07:00

Q) Which of the following best describes the movement of Tendrills?

1. Geotropism
2. Phototropism
3. Thigmotropism
4. Etiolatioon
5. None of the above

Q) Regarding the affinity of both of the given enzymes to carbon dioxide,Which of the following are/is correct?

1. Rubisco = PEPcase
2. Rubisco <> PEP case
4. Data insufficient

Q) Which of the following is/are non-enzyme proteins?

1. Ascorbic acid
2. Hemoglobin
3. Insulin
4. keratin
5. 1 and 4
6. 3 and 4

Q) Aconitate is

1. Pigment neccesary for calvin cycle
2. Fe-S protein
3. Involved in dehydration and rehydration reactions
4. 2 and 3
5.1 and 3

Q) Which is true about Turner's syndrome

1. Only affects males
2. Affects both males and females
3. Found in Homosexuals
4. Only found in females
5. Both 3 and 4

Q) Nitric Oxide,NO

1. Prevents vasodialation
2. Helps in vasodialation
3. Decrease heart beat
4. Inhibit apotosis
5. None of the above

Q) 2,4-D is
1. Modified adenine
2. Syntehetic IndoleAceticAcid
3. Fertilizer
4. Pharmacologic agent
5. None of these

Q) Which of the following is not an energy currency of the cell?

1. Na= gradient across Plasma membrane
2. H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial Memmbrane
3. Glucose
4. ATP
5. None of these

Q) Cytokinins are

1. Modified adneine
2. Inodoleaceticacid
3. Indolesalisylicacid
4. Steriods
5. None of these

Q) The organ(s) which is/are responsive to glucagon

1. Liver
2. Kidney
3. Liver not kidney
4. Kidney and liver
5. None of the above