Cisco

568A vs. 568B. Which should you use?

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Sun, 9 Dec 2012 16:09:00 +0530

568A vs. 568B. Which should you use?

There are two accepted standards for 8-wire data network jacks (commonly and incorrectly called "RJ-45.")

ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B "Commercial Building Telecommunications Cabling Standard" lists both wiring configurations. T568B is the most prevalent for commercial installations, and was used by AT&T for the original Merlin phone systems. To help you remember, associate "B" with "Bell."

ANSI/TIA/EIA-570-B "Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standards" recommends T568A

If the installation is residential, choose T568A unless other conditions apply (see below). The two inner pairs of 568A are wired the same as a two-line phone jack.
If there is pre-existing voice/data wiring (remodel, moves, adds, changes), duplicate this wiring scheme on any new connection.
If project specifications are available, use the specified wiring configuration.
If components used within the project are internally wired for either T568A or T568B, use that wiring scheme.
Make sure both ends of a cable are wired the same way.

Jack Wiring
Pin #	T568B	T568A
1	White/Orange	White/Green
2	Orange	Green
3	White/Green	White/Orange
4	Blue	Blue
5	White/Blue	White/Blue
6	Green	Orange
7	White/Brown	White/Brown
8	Brown	Brown

Easy way to remember the color order of cat 5 cable

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Sun, 9 Dec 2012 15:48:00 +0530

"White-Orange Orange ... White-Green Blue ... Blue-White Green ... Brown-White Brown...la la la"

Sing it to yourself about a thousand times while terminating....you'll be able to recite it in your sleep...

It worked for me......

Video Blogger Template Installations Guide

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Mon, 23 Jul 2012 19:00:00 +0530

Video Blogger Template Installations Guide

Posted by Free Blogger Template at 12:17 AM | Labels: Templates Instruction

Template Name: Video Blogger Template
By : www.freebloggertemplate.info
Download link: Click here

# HOW TO POST A VIDEO
Video Blogger Template only support video URL from Youtube.
A. Post a video only
Go to Youtube -> find a video -> Copy the url -> paste the url to Blogger post box.

B. Post a video with summary
Use "[starttext]" before and "[endtext]" after summary.

# SETUP TOP MENU NAVIGATION
Go to "Edit HTML" page
Search the codes like below

<div id='page_nav'><!-- page nav html-->

<ul>

<li class='hometab'><a href='/'>Home</a></li>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='About'>About</a>

<ul class='children'>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='Sub Page 1'>Sub Page 1</a></li>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='Sub Page 2'>Sub Page 2</a></li>

</ul>

</li>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='FAQs'>FAQs</a></li>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='Terms'>Terms</a></li>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='Archive Pages'>Archive Pages</a>

<ul class='children'>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='Sub Page in 1'>Sub Page in 1</a></li>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='Sub Page in 2'>Sub Page in 2</a></li>

<li class='page_item'><a href='#' title='Site Map'>Site Map</a></li>

</ul>

</li>

</ul>

</div> <!-- page nav #end -->

Change "#" with your link anchor/url
Change "red text" with your text anchor

# SETUP CATEGORIES MENU NAVIGATION
Go to "Edit HTML" page
Search the codes like below

<div id='main_nav'> <!-- main_nav html -->

<ul>

<li class='cat-item'><a href='/search/label/Entertainment'>Entertainment</a></li>

<li class='cat-item'><a href='/search/label/Funny'>Funny</a></li>

<li class='cat-item'><a href='/search/label/Health'>Health</a></li>

<li class='cat-item'><a href='/search/label/Music'>Music</a></li>

<li class='cat-item'><a href='/search/label/Others'>Others</a></li>

<li class='cat-item'><a href='/search/label/Sports'>Sports</a></li>

<li class='cat-item'><a href='/search/label/Blog'>Blog</a></li>

Change "red text" with your own category

# SETUP SLIDE VIDEO
Go to "Edit HTML" page
Search the codes like below

<li>

<div class='video_section'>

<object height='385' width='640'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/2Y2BEhvS-ck'/><param name='allowFullScreen' value='true'/><param name='allowscriptaccess' value='always'/><embed allowfullscreen='true' allowscriptaccess='always' height='385' src='http://www.youtube.com/v/2Y2BEhvS-ck' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' width='640' wmode='transparent'/></object></div>

<h4> <a href='#' rel='bookmark' title='Inkheart Movie'>Inkheart Movie</a> </h4>

</li>



<li>

<div class='video_section'>

<object height='385' width='640'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/FNQowwwwYa0'/><param name='allowFullScreen' value='true'/><param name='allowscriptaccess' value='always'/><embed allowfullscreen='true' allowscriptaccess='always' height='385' src='http://www.youtube.com/v/FNQowwwwYa0' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' width='640' wmode='transparent'/></object></div>

<h4> <a href='#' rel='bookmark' title='Iron Man 2 Trailer 2 (OFFICIAL)'>Iron Man 2 Trailer 2 (OFFICIAL)</a> </h4>

</li>



<li>

<div class='video_section'>

<object height='385' width='480'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/F9bV_v9b8go'/><param name='allowFullScreen' value='true'/><param name='allowscriptaccess' value='always'/><embed allowfullscreen='true' allowscriptaccess='always' height='385' src='http://www.youtube.com/v/F9bV_v9b8go' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' width='480' wmode='transparent'/></object>

</div>

<h4> <a href='#' rel='bookmark' title='Kicked In The Nuts World Record Holder'>Kicked In The Nuts World Record Holder</a> </h4>

</li>



<li>

<div class='video_section'>

<object height='385' width='640'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/Pki6jbSbXIY'/><param name='allowFullScreen' value='true'/><param name='allowscriptaccess' value='always'/><embed allowfullscreen='true' allowscriptaccess='always' height='385' src='http://www.youtube.com/v/Pki6jbSbXIY' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' width='640' wmode='transparent'/></object>

</div>

<h4> <a href='#' rel='bookmark' title='Lord of the Rings: Fellowship of the ring trailer'>Lord of the Rings: Fellowship of the ring trailer</a> </h4>

</li>



<li>

<div class='video_section'>

<object height='385' width='640'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/sjSG6z_13-Q'/><param name='allowFullScreen' value='true'/><param name='allowscriptaccess' value='always'/><embed allowfullscreen='true' allowscriptaccess='always' height='385' src='http://www.youtube.com/v/sjSG6z_13-Q' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' width='640' wmode='transparent'/></object></div>

<h4> <a href='#' rel='bookmark' title='Miley Cyrus – Cant Be Tamed'>Miley Cyrus - Cant Be Tamed</a> </h4>

</li>

Red text = Code of video

# = url
Green text = Title of video

# RECENT VIDEO WIDGET
Go to "page elements" -> "add a gadget" sidebar -> "HTML/Javascript"
Copy this codes

<script type='text/javascript'>

//<![CDATA[

function showrecentpostswiththumbs(json) {

document.write('<ul class="recent_posts_with_thumbs">');

for (var i = 0; i < numposts; i++) {

var entry = json.feed.entry[i];

var posttitle = entry.title.$t;

var posturl;if (i == json.feed.entry.length) break;

for (var k = 0; k < entry.link.length;k++){

if(entry.link[k].rel=='replies'&&entry.link[k].type=='text/html'){

var commenttext=entry.link[k].title;

var commenturl=entry.link[k].href;

}

if (entry.link[k].rel == 'alternate') {

posturl = entry.link[k].href;break;

}

}

if("content"in entry){

var postcontent=entry.content.$t;

}

var vidid = postcontent.substring(postcontent.indexOf("http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=")+31,postcontent.indexOf("<"));





try {thumburl='http://i2.ytimg.com/vi/'+vidid+'/default.jpg';}catch (error){

thumburl='https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEj0ZmvP5yCKOcX5CfupYovDT8lYe1PloypRi8PzJQX5xEyEDYvLUMQ7OPZpPs88GX4MHfVpujdnTd4FG-1uV54oziwgUGQmo7u5UWk2mgUX37Ulyp2fg57OcOpDCTtTg_9Kr7cToF5tvA/s800/noimagethumb.png';

}

var postdate = entry.published.$t;

var cdyear = postdate.substring(0,4);

var cdmonth = postdate.substring(5,7);

var cdday = postdate.substring(8,10);

var monthnames = new Array();

monthnames[1] = "Jan";monthnames[2] = "Feb";monthnames[3] = "Mar";monthnames[4] = "Apr";monthnames[5] = "May";monthnames[6] = "Jun";monthnames[7] = "Jul";monthnames[8] = "Aug";monthnames[9] = "Sep";monthnames[10] = "Oct";monthnames[11] = "Nov";monthnames[12] = "Dec";

document.write('<li class="clearfix">');





if(showpostthumbnails==true)

document.write('<a href="'+ posturl + '"><img class="recent_thumb" src="'+thumburl+'"/></a>');

document.write('<div class="recent_video_title"><a href="'+posturl+'" target ="_top">'+posttitle+'</a></div><br>');

var textinside = postcontent.substring(postcontent.indexOf("[starttext]")+11,postcontent.indexOf("[endtext]"));

var re = /<\S[^>]*>/g;

postcontent = textinside.replace(re, "");





if (showpostsummary == true) {



if (postcontent.length < numchars) {

document.write('<div class="recent_video_desc">');

document.write(postcontent);

document.write('</div>');}

else {

document.write('<div class="recent_video_desc">');

postcontent = postcontent.substring(0, numchars);

var quoteEnd = postcontent.lastIndexOf(" ");

postcontent = postcontent.substring(0,quoteEnd);

document.write(postcontent + '...');

document.write('</div>');}

}



var towrite='';var flag=0;

document.write('<br><div class="recent_video_footer">');



if(showpostdate==true) {towrite=towrite+monthnames[parseInt(cdmonth,10)]+' '+cdday+' , '+cdyear;flag=1;}



if(showcommentnum==true)

{

if (flag==1) {towrite=towrite+' | ';}

if(commenttext=='1 Comments') commenttext='1 Comment';

if(commenttext=='0 Comments') commenttext='No Comments';

commenttext = '<a href="'+commenturl+'" target ="_top">'+commenttext+'</a>';

towrite=towrite+commenttext;

flag=1;

;

}











document.write(towrite);



document.write('</div></li>');

if(displayseparator==true)

if (i!=(numposts-1))

document.write('<hr size=0.5>');



}document.write('</ul>');







}

//]]>

</script>

<script style="text/javascript">

var numposts = 5;

var showpostthumbnails = true;

var displaymore = true;

var displayseparator = false;

var showcommentnum = true;

var showpostdate = true;

var showpostsummary = false;

var numchars = 50;

</script>

<script src="/feeds/posts/default?orderby=published&alt=json-in-script&callback=showrecentpostswiththumbs"></script>

<div class="clear"/></div>

var numposts = 5; <- you can shange "5" with number of videos you wish to show

Click here for solution of Templates Error or Not Work Properly, slideshow not work, etc

CCNA Interview Questions - Ccna Latest questions

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Tue, 26 Jun 2012 19:49:00 +0530

In 1992 main products of Cisco were Gateway Servers i.e.
AGS – Advanced Gateway Server
MGS – Mid-Range Gateway Server
IGS – Integrated Gateway Server
CGS – Compact Gateway Server
AGS+ - Advanced Gateway Server Plus

Routers are of two types, Modular and Non-Modular
1.Modular
Routers will not have fix interfaces, can be added or removed whenever required.
2.Non-Modular
Routers will have fix interfaces, cannot be added or removed, they are fixed.

CCNA 3 exploration - Final Exam (update - 1)

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Thu, 21 Jun 2012 10:14:00 +0530

1
In a three-layer hierarchical network design, which distribution layer function delineates broadcast domains?
routing between VLANs***
aggregating traffic flows
providing redundant links
reducing the network diameter

2
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses. ***
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.***
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

3
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C ***
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

4
What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch?
automatically detects duplex settings
automatically detects interface speed
automatically detects copper cable type ***
automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

5
Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
It is configured in VTP server mode.***
STP is automatically enabled. ***
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1. ***
The enable password is configured as cisco.

6
While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?
This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.
This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.
This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.
This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch. ***
7
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access. ***
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.

8
What is a possible impact of setting too short an aging time in the MAC address table of a switch?
overly large address table
unnecessary flooding of packets ***
excessive timeouts of static addresses
impaired ability to dynamically learn new addresses
9
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.***
10
An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?
The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch. ***
The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.
The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.
The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.
11
Using the command copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config, an administrator downloaded a saved configuration from a TFTP server to a switch. Why does the administrator not detect any changes in the switch configuration after the download completes?
The command should have been copy startup-config tftp:backup.cfg.
A backup configuration from a TFTP server cannot be copied directly into the startup-config.
The command copy running-config startup-config should be used to save the changes on the switch.
Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect. ****
12
Refer to the exhibit. The teacher host is connected to port Fa0/7 on switch STW. A student has decided to share access to the Internet by attaching a hub and laptop to STW as shown. What will be the result of the student making this connection?
The Fa0/7 port of STW will be shutdown.
The student will gain full access to the Internet.
Both the teacher and student will be able to receive data but only the teacher will be able to send.
The frames from the laptop will be dropped, but the teacher host will maintain connectivity with the network. ***
13
Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.
SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.
SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not. ***
SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.
14
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol. ***
15
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C ***
Cat-D

16
Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?
It is sending and receiving data frames.***
It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
17
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID ***
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address

18
What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?
It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.***
19
Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment?
non-root port
disabled port
designated port ***
non-designated port
20
Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?
BPDU frames ***
multicast frames
broadcast frames
Layer 3 packets
21
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20?
A
B
C
D ***
22
Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?
The port will transition into blocking state.
The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.***
The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.
The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.
23
Which statement describes the use of voice VLANs in Cisco IP telephony?
The voice VLAN carries both tagged and untagged traffic.
The voice VLAN carries untagged traffic having special QoS markings.
The voice VLAN must be configured on the switch port to which the IP phone attaches.***
Data and voice frames are tagged with same VLAN ID between the IP phone and the switch when a voice VLAN is configured.
24
Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer 5. Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-A***
computer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
25
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
only the management VLAN
all VLANs except the extended range VLANs
all VLANs except 1 and 1002-1005
all VLANs ***
26
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. ***
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
27
Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets.***
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.

28
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command.
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs.***
29
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk. ***
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
30
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.***
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated. ***
31
Refer to the exhibit. A company has acquired a new office in a campus environment. Switches in the existing office and the new office are directly connected by a trunk link. The VLANs and IP addressing are setup as shown in the exhibit. The computers in each office are not able to ping each other. What will fix the problem?
Use an access link between S2 and S3.
Connect S2 and S3 to a common router.***
Set the subnet mask in the new office to /24.
Configure the new office default gateway to 172.17.10.1
Change the port assignments in the new office to a different VLAN.
32
Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?
zero
one ***
two
four

33
Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will drop the packet.***
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
34
A network administrator configures a switch port with the command switchport mode dynamic auto. What is the resulting behavior of the switch port?
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to auto.
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to desirable.***
The switch port will be disabled if it is unable to successfully negotiate trunking.
A successful trunk will be established if the remote switch is non-Cisco but the port is configured for trunking.
35
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced. ***
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use. ***
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0. ***
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
36
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be done to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.***
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
37
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28 ***
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

38
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking. ***
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
39
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2. ***
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name ***
41
The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update its own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.)
Reset the VTP counters.
Configure VTP version 1 on the switch.
Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent. ***
Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number.
Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.***
42
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 10 has been configured on the VTP server. Users who are assigned to VLAN 10 are connected as shown in the exhibit. On the basis of the outputs that are provided, which group of users will be able to communicate with the users on VLAN 10 on SW1?
all the users who are connected only to SW2
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW3***
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW4
users on VLAN 10 who are connected to both SW3 and SW4

43
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches. ****
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
44
Refer to the exhibit. The VTP domain has been configured as shown in the exhibit. The network technician accidentally configured the VTP server as a VTP client. After the technician reloaded the switches, all users in the VTP domain started to complain that they lost connectivity to the users on the same VLANs that are connected to other switches. What should be done in the future to prevent losing all VLAN configurations in a VTP domain?
Configure all switches in VTP transparent mode and copy the VLAN configuration into flash.
Configure all switches in the network as VTP clients and copy the VLAN configuration into NVRAM.
Create a new domain and configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.***
In the same domain, configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.
45
Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
revision number***
existing VLANs
operating mode
domain name
pruning mode ***
46
What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range** *
permits increased data rates***
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
47
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID ***
OFDM
WEP
DSSS
48
Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN?
WPA2 ***
cloaking SSIDs
shared WEP key
MAC address filtering
49
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser. ***
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
50
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.***
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

CCNA 3 exploration - Final Exam (update - 2)

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Thu, 21 Jun 2012 10:13:00 +0530

1.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?
AS1 and AS2***
DS1 and DS2 DS1,
DS2, and CS1 AS1,
AS2, DS1, and DS2

2 What advantage does cut-through switching provide?
It enables QoS It forwards frames quickly.***
It provides an analysis of frames.
It allows reduction of traffic by using error checking to drop corrupt frames.

3 Which switch forwarding method should be used on a network that employs frame
classification based on an assigned Quality of Service (QoS) value? cut-through fast-forward fragment-free store-and-forward***
4
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B only hosts A, B, and C***
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
5
Refer to the exhibit. The network consists of four hubs and a switch. The hosts connected to each hub are assigned addresses in the respective VLAN as shown. PC1 on VLAN 1 becomes infected with a virus and initiates a continuous IP broadcast. Which hubs will receive the broadcasts?
Hub A
Hubs A andB
Hubs A and C***
Hubs A, B, C, and D

6 Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
It is configured in VTP server mode.***
STP is automatically enabled.***
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address. All switch ports are assigned toVLAN1.****
The enable password is configured as cisco.

7 What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?
The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.***
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
8
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to Switch1. However, the SSH connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem? The RSA key has been removed.***
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
The transport input command is applied incorrectly.
The domain name has been configured in the wrong configuration mode.

9 What is the benefit of the auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
dynamically assigns a new management VLAN ID
autonegotiates IP address information for initial management connections
allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device types***
places a port immediately in the forwarding state to reduce the time for the spanning tree to reconverge
10
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.****
11
Refer to the exhibit. The teacher host is connected to port Fa0/7 on switch STW. A student has decided to share access to the Internet by attaching a hub and laptop to STW as shown. What will be the result of the student making this connection?
The Fa0/7 port of STW will be shutdown.
The student will gain full access to the Internet.
Both the teacher and student will be able to receive data but only the teacher will be able to send.
The frames from the laptop will be dropped, but the teacher host will maintain connectivity with the network.***

12 Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt. The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.***
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

13 A network administrator enables sticky learning on all access mode interfaces of a Catalyst switch, saves the configuration, then connects hosts to the switch. After the switch operates for several days, the administrator reboots the switch without saving the running configuration. What is the result?
All previously learned MAC addresses are lost.***
The switch reverts to non-sticky dynamic learning.
Connected hosts are no longer able to communicate with the switch.
Previously learned sticky addresses are retained in the switch configuration.

14
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.***

15 What is a result of improperly implementing a network with redundancy at Layer 2?
an increase of unicast and multicast errors at Layer 3
a decrease in the amount of broadcast traffic
end device malfunction because of broadcast storms***
an increase in throughput at all points in the network

16 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.***
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
17
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.-***
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

18

Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1 Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3****
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
19
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A Cat-B Cat-C Cat-D***
20 RSTP is enabled in a switched network that is active and converged. Which switch port type assumes a discarding state on non-root switches? root port edge port alternate port*** designated port
21 In the implementation of PVST+ in a specific VLAN where all switches have default spanning tree priorities, which spanning-tree command setting could be assigned to force one of the Catalyst switches to become and remain the root bridge? root primary-*** priority 8192 priority 2048 spanning-tree mode rapid pvst

22
Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?
The port will transition into blocking state.
The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.***
The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state. The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.

23 While monitoring LAN traffic, a network technician notices an excessive number of broadcasts. Which two steps could be included in the processes that are needed to reduce the number of broadcasts on the network? (Choose two.)
Replace any existing hubs with switches. Add a Layer 3 device to route between networks.*** Subnet the existing IP network to create two networks.***
Increase the backbone speed by three times the current speed. Add additional switches and spread out the number of hosts evenly between them.

24 How does a switch that is configured for 802.1Q trunking handle untagged frames that are received on a trunk port?
The frames are dropped.
The frames are assigned to the native VLAN.***
The frames are assigned to the default VLAN. The frames are assigned to the management VLAN.
25
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.***
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port. Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

26
Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets.***
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.
27
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show interfaces fastEthernet 0/8 switchport command to check the status of the port. What can be concluded from the output? Port Fa0/8 is configured as a trunk with 802.1q encapsulation.
Port Fa0/8 is configured as a trunk in VLAN 1.
Port Fa0/8 is configured in access mode and associated with VLAN 1.***
Port Fa0/8 is configured as a trunk and VLAN 1 is a native VLAN for the trunk.
28
Refer to the exhibit. SW-T has been configured with a single trunking interface. Which VLANs will be allowed across the trunk?
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
All configured VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.***
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the the management and native VLANs will be allowed across the trunk. Only VLANs that are configured on the VTP server in the domain will be allowed across the trunk.
29
Refer to the exhibit. How will switch S2 manage traffic coming from host PC1?
S2 will drop the traffic, unless it is management traffic.
S2 will tag the frame with VLAN ID 99 when it forwards it over the trunk link.
S2 will leave the traffic untagged when it forwards it over a trunk link.***
S2 will tag the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value when it forwards it over the trunk link.

30 What is the purpose of VLAN trunking?
It improves network performance by reducing broadcast traffic. It selects the best path to transmit data in a switched network.
It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs through a single link.***
It avoids spanning tree loops in a switched network.

31 A network administrator implements inter-VLAN routing by configuring subinterfaces on a router. What is one important fact that must be considered?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be issued on each subinterface.
The IP address of each router subinterface must be used as the default gateway for hosts on the corresponding VLAN.***

32
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.***
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
33
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use.***
Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces.***
The shutdown command has been applied to interface Fa0/1. Interface Fa0/1.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.***
An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.
34
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.31 /28
192.168.1.32 /28
192.168.1.52 /28***
192.168.1.63 /28
35
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the problem?
Interface Fa0/0 is missing IP address configuration information.
IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs.***
Each subinterface of Fa0/0 needs separate no shutdown commands.
Routers do not support 892.1Q encapsulation on subinterfaces.
36
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What needs to be done to resolve the problem?
Rename VLAN1.
Connect one more port of S1 to R1. Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as a trunk port.***
Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN.
37
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?

Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.***
38
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs. The connected hosts can only access resources in their own VLAN. What is the most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?
Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC.
Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to its own switch. Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link.***
Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface.
39
Refer to the exhibit. This switch is to be added to the production network. Which two facts about VLANs and VTP operation can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
The network administrator will be able to configure VLANs of local significance on this switch. VLANs can only be added to the VLAN database on this switch by a VTP advertisement.***
All VLANs that are configured on this switch will be sent to all other switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
Adding this switch to the network will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.***
40
Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?
It will be dropped. It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.***
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.

41 In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other switches in the same domain?
client***
root
server
transparent

42 The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update its own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.)
Reset the VTP counters.***
Configure VTP version 1 on the switch.
Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent.
Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number.***
Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.
43
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2. Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.***
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
44
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.***
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
45
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.***
VTP pruning is disabled. VTP v2 is disabled.
46 A wireless LAN access point will convert traffic between which two frame encapsulation types?
802.1 and 802.11
802.3 and 802.11***
802.3 and 802.16
802.5 and 802.16
47 Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID***
OFDM
WEP
DSSS

48 What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
SSID
WPA***

49 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.***
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.

50
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.***
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

CCNA 3 exploration - Final Exam (update - 3)

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Thu, 21 Jun 2012 10:11:00 +0530

1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?
AS1 and AS2***
DS1 and DS2
DS1, DS2, and CS1
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2
2
Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?
fragment-free
fast-forward
integrity-checking
store-and-forward***
3
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. ***
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting. ***
4
What information in an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 2 switch to build its address table?
source IP address
source MAC address***
destination IP address
destination MAC address
5
Which three actions are performed during the boot sequence of a Cisco switch? (Choose three.)
The boot loader uses the self-contained switch operating system to boot the switch.
The boot loader retrieves diagnostics routines via TFTP.
The boot loader performs POST. **
The boot loader is loaded from RAM.
The boot loader initializes the flash file system that is used to boot the system. ***
The boot loader loads the default operating system if the flash-based operating system is corrupt or missing. ***
6
While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?
This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.
This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.
This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.
This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch. ***
7
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer. ***
8
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
force the port to be a part of a single vlan ***

9
What is a possible impact of setting too short an aging time in the MAC address table of a switch?
overly large address table
unnecessary flooding of packets ***
excessive timeouts of static addresses
impaired ability to dynamically learn new addresses

10
Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
Switch port Fa0/24 can only work in VLAN 99.
VLAN 99 was manually added to the VLAN database.
MAC address 0001.637b.b267 was learned from the source address of a frame that was received on switch port Fa0/24.
MAC address 0001.637b.b267 was manually associated with the switch port Fa0/24. /****
11
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of the commands that are shown in the exhibit?
Only clients on VLAN 2 will be able to use DHCP for addressing.
DHCP server responses will only be permitted on interface Fa0/2.***
Only 100 clients are permitted to request DHCP addresses on VLAN 2.
Client requests for DHCP addresses will be filtered out if the requests are not received on interface Fa0/2.
12
Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.
SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.
SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not. ***
SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.
13
Which service should be disabled on a Cisco switch or router to prevent packet sniffers from capturing information about the device?
SSH
VTP
CDP ***
SNMP
14
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol. ***
15
Which statement is correct about STP architecture?
Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology. ***
Spanning Tree Protocol guarantees the shortest path to destination networks.
The switch with the highest priority will be assigned the lowest BID in the root election.
The first step in the spanning-tree election process is to determine the root port.
To select designated ports, the spanning-tree algorithm must determine the longest contiguous path from the root bridge.
16
What identifier in the BPDU creates a unique BID for a switch?
IP address
MAC address ***
bridge priority
VLAN ID
port priority
17
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F ***
18
Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1
Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3 ***
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
19
Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.)
This switch is not the root bridge.***
The Fa0/24 port is administratively down.
STP has detected links that create a loop.***
There is a change in the VTP configuration.
The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.
20
Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment?
non-root port
disabled port
designated port ***
non-designated port

21
Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)
Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)
Common Spanning Tree (CST)
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) ***
Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
22
Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?
The port will transition into blocking state.
The port will transition immediately into forwarding state. ***
The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.
The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.
23
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?
zero
four ***
five
eight
nine
24
What are two characteristics of normal range VLANs? (Choose two.)
not learned by VTP
stored in vlan.dat file ***
designed for service providers
can contain ports used as trunks
identified by a VLAN ID between 1 and 1005 ***
25
How are data frames identified and sent to the correct VLAN when exiting an Ethernet trunk?
Frames are forwarded to the correct VLAN based on the VLAN tag***
Frames are always forwarded to the native VLAN when exiting a trunk.
Frames are forwarded to the correct VLAN based on the source IP address.
Frames are forwarded to the correct VLAN based on information in the MAC address table.
26
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
to make the port a member of VLAN 30 ***
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
27
How does a switch that is configured for 802.1Q trunking handle untagged frames that are received on a trunk port?
The frames are dropped.
The frames are assigned to the native VLAN. ***
The frames are assigned to the default VLAN.
The frames are assigned to the management VLAN.
28
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. ***
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
29
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking ***
VPN
30
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol. ***
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto command.
31
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.***
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.***
32
A network administrator is asked to connect four switches that are each configured with eight VLANs. Routers that have two FastEthernet ports each that support trunking are available. What is the minimum number of routers needed to interconnect traffic from all of the VLANs if trunking is allowed?
1 ***
2
4
8
16
33
Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet. ***
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
34
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment. ***
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.***
The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
35
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.***
36
Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts A and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. ***
Hosts A and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets.
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.
37
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs. The connected hosts can only access resources in their own VLAN. What is the most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?
Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC.
Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to its own switch.
Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link. ***
Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface.
38
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.***
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
39
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2. ***
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name ***
41
What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
to restrict traffic on specified trunk lines ***
to designate switches that do not participate in VTP
to advertise VTP domain information to specified switches only
to reduce the propagation of VTP advertisements in the switched network

42
A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch, but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions? (Choose two.)
Configure an IP address on the new switch.
Configure the existing VTP domain name on the new switch.***
Configure all ports of both switches to access mode.
Configure the new switch as a VTP client. ***
Enable VTP pruning.
43
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.***
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

44
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning five additional VLANs to be shared throughout the VTP domain on S3. What action should the administrator take before creating the additional VLANs?
Create the VLANs on a switch in VTP server mode and allow them to propogate to the other switches in the domain. ***
Modify the configuration revision to 10 to support the additional VLANs.
Enable the VTP pruning mode in order to create the VLANs on S3.
Enable the VTP v2 mode.
45
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.***
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
46
A wireless LAN access point will convert traffic between which two frame encapsulation types?
802.1 and 802.11
802.3 and 802.11 ***
802.3 and 802.16
802.5 and 802.16
47
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID ***
OFDM
WEP
DSSS
48
A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?
probing ***
beaconing
association
authentication
49
Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed. ***
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
50
Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device?
a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N
a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N
a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N
a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it ***

IP Network Numbering

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Wed, 4 Apr 2012 22:31:00 +0530

IP Network Partioning

Computer networks consist of individual segments of network cable. The electrical properties of cabling limit the useful size of any given segment such that even a modestly-sized local-area network (LAN) will require several of them. Gateway devices like routers and bridges connect these segments together although not in a perfectly seamless way... (see below)

Besides partitioning through the use of cable, subdividing of the network can also be done at a higher level. Subnets support virtual network segments that partition traffic flowing through the cable rather than the cables themselves. The subnet configuration often matches the segment layout one-to-one, but subnets can also subdivide a given network segment.

IP Network Numbering

Even without subnetting (explained later), hosts on the Internet or any other IP network are assigned a network number. Network numbering allows a group of hosts (peers) to communicate efficiently with each other. Hosts on the same network may be computers located in the same facility or all computers used by a workgroup, for example. Multi-homed hosts, that contain multiple network adapters, can belong to multiple networks, but each adapter is assigned exactly one network number. Network numbers look very much like IP addresses, but the two should not be confused. Consider for example the host IP address 10.0.0.1, an address commonly used on private networks. Because it is a Class A address, with no subnetting employed, its leftmost byte (eight bits) by default refer to the network address and all other bits remain set at zero. Thus, 10.0.0.0 is the network number corresponding to IP address 10.0.0.1.
The portion of the IP address that does not refer to the network refers instead to the host address - literally, the unique identifier of the host on that network. In the above example, the host address becomes '0.0.0.1' or simply '1'. Also note that a network address becomes a reserved address that should not be assigned to any actual host. Configuring a live host at 10.0.0.0 in the example above could impact communications for all hosts on that network.
The table below illustrates the default numbering scheme for Class A, B, and C networks.

Class	Host address range	Network address	Default mask
A	0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255	x.0.0.0	255.0.0.0
B	128.0.0.0 - 191.255.255.255	x.x.0.0	255.255.0.0
C	192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.255	x.x.x.0	255.255.255.0

In general, a network address uses the leftmost byte of its hosts' addressing if the hosts fall within the Class A range, the leftmost two bytes for hosts in Class B, and the leftmost three bytes for hosts in Class C. This algorithm is applied in practice through the use of a network mask. The above table shows the decimal representation of the default network masks that is commonly used by network operating systems. Note that the decimal value '255' corresponds to one byte that has all bits set to one (11111111).

Benefit of Network Addressing

Network addressing fundamentally organizes hosts into groups. This can improve security (by isolating critical nodes) and can reduce network traffic (by preventing transmissions between nodes that do not need to communicate with each other). Overall, network addressing becomes even more powerful when introducing subnetting and/or supernetting

Wired technologies

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Wed, 4 Apr 2012 22:28:00 +0530

The order of the following wired technologies is, roughly, from slowest to fastest transmission speed.

Twisted pair wire is the most widely used medium for telecommunication. Twisted-pair cabling consist of copper wires that are twisted into pairs. Ordinary telephone wires consist of two insulated copper wires twisted into pairs. Computer networking cabling (wired Ethernet as defined by IEEE 802.3) consists of 4 pairs of copper cabling that can be utilized for both voice and data transmission. The use of two wires twisted together helps to reduce crosstalk and electromagnetic induction. The transmission speed ranges from 2 million bits per second to 10 billion bits per second. Twisted pair cabling comes in two forms: unshielded twisted pair (UTP) and shielded twisted-pair (STP). Each form comes in several category ratings, designed for use in various scenarios.

Coaxial cable is widely used for cable television systems, office buildings, and other work-sites for local area networks. The cables consist of copper or aluminum wire surrounded by an insulating layer (typically a flexible material with a high dielectric constant), which itself is surrounded by a conductive layer. The insulation helps minimize interference and distortion. Transmission speed ranges from 200 million bits per second to more than 500 million bits per second.

ITU-T G.hn technology uses existing home wiring (coaxial cable, phone lines and power lines) to create a high-speed (up to 1 Gigabit/s) local area network.

An optical fiber is a glass fiber. It uses pulses of light to transmit data. Some advantages of optical fibers over metal wires are less transmission loss, immunity from electromagnetic radiation, and very fast tramission speed, up to trillions of bits per second. One can use different colors of lights to increase the number of messages being sent over a fiber optic cable.

Domain Name System - DNS

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Wed, 4 Apr 2012 22:27:00 +0530

Domain Naming and Registration with DNS

Though IP addresses allow computers and routers to identify each other efficiently, humans prefer to work with names rather than numbers. The Domain Name System - DNS - supports the best of both worlds... (see below)

More of this Feature

• IP Address Notation
• IP Address Classes, Broadcast and Multicast
• IP Loopback and Private Addresses, IPv6 Anycast
• DNS - Domain Name System
• IP Network Numbering
• IP Subnetting
• CIDR - Classless Internet Domain Routing

Related Resources

• IP Practice Test
• TCP/IP Resources
• Network Protocol Resources

Elsewhere on the Web

• ICANN

... . DNS allows nodes on the public Internet to be assigned both an IP address and a corresponding name, called a domain name. For DNS to work as designed, these names must be unique worldwide. Hence an entire "cottage industry" has emerged around the purchasing of domain names in the Internet name space.

DNS Name Space

DNS is a hierarchical system. DNS organizes all registered names in a tree structure. At the base or root of the tree are a group of top-level domains including familiar names like com, org, and edu and numerous country-level domains like fi (Finland), ca (Canada), and my (Malaysia). One generally cannot purchase names at this level. However, in a well-publicized and controversial event in 2000, the island nation of Tuvalu agreed to receive a large payment in return for rights to the root domain tv.
Below this level are the second-level registered domains such as about.com. These are domains that organizations can purchase from any of numerous accredited registrars. For nodes in the com, org, and edu domains, the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) oversees registrations.
Below that, local domains like compnetworking.about.com are defined and administered by the overall domain owner. DNS supports additional tree levels as well. The period ('.') always separates each level of the hierarchy in DNS.

DNS Root Level and Other Servers

DNS is also a distributed system. The DNS database contains a list of registered domain names. It further contains a mapping or conversion between each name and one or more IP addresses. However, DNS requires a coordinated effort among many computers (servers); no one computer holds the entire DNS database. Each DNS server maintain just one piece of the overall hierarchy - one level of the tree and then only a subset or zone within that level.
The top level of the DNS hierarchy, also called the root level, is maintained by a set of 13 servers called root name servers. These servers have gained some notoriety for their unique role on the Internet. Maintained by various independent agencies, the servers are uniquely named A, B, C and so on up to M. Ten of these servers reside in the United States, one in Japan, one in London, and one in Stockholm, Sweden.

DNS Resolvers

DNS works in a client/server fashion. DNS servers respond to requests from DNS clients called resolvers. ISPs and other organizations set up local DNS resolvers as well as servers. Most DNS servers also act as resolvers, routing requests up the tree to higher-level DNS servers, and also delegating requests to other servers. DNS servers eventually return the requested mapping (either address-to-name or name-to-address) to the resolver.

DNS and DHCP

DNS was not designed to work with dynamic addressing such as that supported by DHCP. DNS requires that fixed (static) addresses be maintained in the database. Web servers in particular require fixed IP addresses for this reason.

Free Cisco Certification books - cisco boot camp - cisco certification training

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Tue, 3 Apr 2012 12:04:00 +0530

CBT Nuggets Check Point CCSA Certified Security Administrator NGX R65 DVD | 759 MB

Check Point is the global leader in IT security, and Check Point CCSA certification says you’ve got the expertise to handle corporate security needs.

Trainer Bobby Meador’s step-by-step instructions show you how to improve the security of your current Check Point firewall deployment or build a Check Point security solution from the ground up.

This series maps to Check Point’s Certified Security Administrator NGX R65 156-215.65 exam. Passing the test earns you Check Point CCSA certification.

Prerequisites

Suggested prerequisites include an understanding of networking (such as Cisco CCNA or CompTIA Network+), Windows (such as 70-642 MCTS Windows 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring), or Linux (such as CompTIA Linux+).

Check Point Certified Security Administrator contents:

* CCSA Welcome

* Methods of attack

* Firewall Concepts

* Product Installation Part 1

* Product Installation Part 2

* Product Installation Part 3

* Advanced Splat Config I

* Advanced Splat Config II

* NAT

* Security Policy & Rule Base Design

* VOIP Security

* Traffic and System Monitoring (Smart View Tracker)

* Smart View Monitor Review

* Eventia Analyzer and Reporter

* User Mgmt and Authentication I

* User Mgmt and Authentication II

* User Mgmt and Authentication III

* (QOS) Quality of Service

* Web Filtering and Anti virus

* Smart Defense Part 1

* Smart Defense Part 2

* Smart Update/Licensing

* Disaster Recovery/System backup

http://rapidshare.com/files/292272465/CNCPCCSACSANR65.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/292272685/CNCPCCSACSANR65.part2.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/292273319/CNCPCCSACSANR65.part3.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/292272590/CNCPCCSACSANR65.part4.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/292273336/CNCPCCSACSANR65.part5.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/292272556/CNCPCCSACSANR65.part6.rar
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http://rapidshare.com/files/292272462/CNCPCCSACSANR65.part8.rar

Cisco AIO Tutorials LABS

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Tue, 3 Apr 2012 12:02:00 +0530

Most of them are in iso files format, Its not just a video tutorials, those are mostly Labs, it means you open an html file inside that, and you will see 2 parts, one in flash and another in text.
At each lesson you finished, you will get to challange flash where you have to practice things you have learned, its like working on real cisco device.
You'll have the flash SSH shell, and you have to type in the cisco commands, and in case you make a mistake, you'll get wrong alerts and you can then either correct it or need to read and listen to the section again and see the correct answer by clicking the DEMO option, that will show you the entire solution.
by the way, this is original cisco materials that you need to pay $$$$$$ for it, but for keen learners it is for freeee!!

http://rapidshare.com/files/60597302/Cisco_AIO.part01.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/60584606/Cisco_AIO.part02.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/60575330/Cisco_AIO.part03.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/60563480/Cisco_AIO.part04.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/60525175/Cisco_AIO.part05.rar

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Sun, 1 Apr 2012 23:43:00 +0530

CCNA Chapter Answers, CCNA 3 Answers, CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers 2012, final exam ccna 3 answer 2012
http://ping.fm/DHlIM

Download Free Cisco Material

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Sat, 31 Mar 2012 19:46:00 +0530

Download Free Cisco IOS Images

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Sat, 31 Mar 2012 19:42:00 +0530

CCNA 3 Practice Questions 2012

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Wed, 28 Mar 2012 23:50:00 +0530

Q1	IP address range classification	Q11	Cisco IOS -show cdp
Q2	IP host subnet calculation	Q12	Cisco IOS show interface
Q3	OSI data link layer and sub layers	Q13	Ehternet frame types
Q4	Repeaters, bridges, and routers	Q14	IPX access lists
Q5	OSI session layer standards	Q15	IP access lists
Q6	OSI and DoD models	Q16	ISDN reference points
Q7	Cisco IOS banner motd	Q17	VLAN Trunk Protocol
Q8	Routing protocol- administrative distance	Q18	WAN terms Demarc, CSU/DSU, Modem
Q9	LAN technologies	Q19	Cisco IOS command history buffer navigation
Q10	VLAN	Q20	Static VLANs

CCNA 2 Final Exam Answers (1)

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Fri, 23 Mar 2012 15:14:00 +0530

1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
The address is in the wrong subnet.
***192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
The default gateway is incorrect.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.

2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
***It is the metric, which is cost.
It is the administrative distance.

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
***Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.6.0
***Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.7.0
***Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.8.0
Paris(configrouter)# network 192.168.9.0

4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
***tests Layer 2 connectivity
provides a layer of security
operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
***enabled by default on each interface
used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
***provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
***neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
***router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
***OSPF interval timers mismatch
gateway of last resort not redistributed
***interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch
***inconsistent authentication configuration

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
***The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
***Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
***No default route has been configured.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
Router JAX has the wrong autonomoussystem number.
***The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.

9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
***Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.

10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
***prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
***allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
***permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
***S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
The ip subnetzero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
***The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
***The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
***The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
***The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
***network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
***wildcard mask
***area ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
***The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
***DCE
***CSU/DSU
LAN switch
***Modem
hub

17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
***As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
***If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
***The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
***The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
***10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
***192.168.2.0/24

20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
***Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a nexthop address.
Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
D, SWH2
A, B, D
SWH1, SWH2
***B, D
SWH1, A, B
A, B, D, SWH1, SWH2

22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
***The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32
***B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
***Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
***Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
***DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
***ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
***ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
static route to 10.1.0.0/22
RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
***0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
***Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
***The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
***The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
***The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(configrouter)# ospf redistribute defaultroute
Router_B(configrouter)# ospf redistribute defaultroute
***Router_A(configrouter)# defaultinformation originate
Router_B(configrouter)# defaultinformation originate
Router_A(configrouter)# ip ospf updatedefault
Router_B(configrouter)# ip ospf updatedefault

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
***The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
***172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
***S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Perform the POST routine.
Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
Load the runningconfig file from RAM.
***Locate and load the startupconfig file from NVRAM.

35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
***It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
***Only the enable password is encrypted.
Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
198.18.0.0/16
***198.18.48.0/21
198.18.32.0/22
198.18.48.0/23
198.18.49.0/23
198.18.52.0/22

38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
***Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
1
***2
3
4
5
6

40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
***The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10
***172.16.0.0/13
172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24

42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
***limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
***The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
***R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
***The routers must agree on the network type.
***The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
The static route will not work correctly.
***Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
***Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
***Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
***used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

49. What is the first step OSPF and ISIS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
***learn about directly connected networks
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states

50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
***EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
***Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
triggered updates
poison reverse
hold-down timers
***split horizon

53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM loads the bootstrap
RAM stores the operating system
Flash executes diagnostics at boot-up
***NVRAM stores the configuration file
ROM stores the backup configuration file
***POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules

54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
***packet switching
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
***path selection
flow control

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ADC
ABC
***It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
***Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
***They are aware of the complete network topology.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
***They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
***OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not support classless routing.
***EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
***RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

CCNA 2 Final Exam Answers (2)

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Fri, 23 Mar 2012 15:10:00 +0530

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
** from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
** from R3 to 192.168.1.1

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
** It will append the update information to the routing table.
It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
** They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
** They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to loadbalance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
** RIPv2

5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
** It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
** It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
** The command was run on the router.
ABCD is a non CISCO device.
Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
ABCD supports routing capability.
** ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
** R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
**The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
** Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
** No default route has been configured.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
Router A will send the data via the ADE path that is listed in the routing table.
Router A will loadbalance the traffic between ABE and ACE.
** Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
Router A will send the data through ADE and keep ABE and ACE as the backup paths.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2
What is the result of running this command?
** Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
** the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
FastEthernet 0/0
FastEthernet 0/1
** Serial 0/0/0
Serial 0/0/1

13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
** updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
updates for 172.16.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
** The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no autosummary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, RAM
** flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
ROM, flash, TFTP server

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
** Router4

17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
** route poisoning
split horizon
holddown timer
triggered updates

18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
** It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the holddown time, measured in seconds, before the next update.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
**The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
**The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
** a CSU/DSU device
** a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge

21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0
** R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
the Cisco123 password only
the Cisco789 password only
the Cisco001 password only
** the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
** A static route is established.
The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
** It will drop the packet.

25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
** They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
** They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
They use only a hop count metric.
They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.

26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3
** 4
6

27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to reestablish neighbor adjacencies.
** It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
** It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
** 10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
** 192.168.2.0/24

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
** All routes are stable.
** The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.

30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
** The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
The traffic will be loadbalanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.

31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32
** B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1
the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2

33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
** A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
The router is using RIPv2.
The router is not forwarding routing updates.
The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
** The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
It will travel via A, B, and C.
** It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
The traffic will be loadbalanced on all paths.

36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.
** Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
** Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
** If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be loadbalanced on all paths.
If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.

39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
** Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
Check the process ID of both routers.
Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
** Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used.

41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM loads the bootstrap
RAM stores the operating system
Flash executes diagnostics at bootup
** NVRAM stores the configuration file
ROM stores the backup configuration file
** POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules

42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
RIPv1
RIPv2
OSPF
** EIGRP

43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
the same process ID
** the same area ID
** network addresses and wildcard masks
the same router ID
the same loop back address

44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
192.168.135.1
**192.168.142.1
192.168.144.1
192.168.128.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
** the first path that the router learned.
only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
the last path that the router learned.
all four paths.

46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
** It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
** It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
** The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.
The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
Switch the cable with a known working cable.
** Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
Set the encapsulation for the interface.

49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
** R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 2
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
** A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
** The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
** The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
** The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
** The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
** The routers must agree on the network type.
** The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
** R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
** Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

54. Which two situations require the use of a linkstate protocol? (Choose two.)
** Fast convergence of the network is critical.
** The network is very large.
The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network.
The capacity of the router is low.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
** Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
No static route is configured on Router2.
** A routing loop has occurred.
No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
172.16.0.0/24
** 172.16.4.0/22
172.16.4.0/23
172.16.4.0/24

CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers 1

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Fri, 23 Mar 2012 14:38:00 +0530

1. Refer to the exhibit. The Fast Ethernet port Fa0/1 on the switch is configured for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings, and the NIC on the machine is set to 100 Mbps, full-duplex. The log error message shown has been received. What two solutions could fix the problem? (Choose two.)
Configure the switch manually for auto-negotiate speed/duplex and the NIC on the machine for 100 Mbps, half-duplex.
**Configure both sides of the link for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings.
**Manually configure both sides of the link for 100 Mbps, full-duplex.
Manually configure the switch for 100 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.
Manually configure the switch for 1000 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and Host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
**Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Configure ISL encapsulation on both ends of the trunk.

3. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard? (Choose two.)
single-input, single-output
**improved range
requires less equipment
hardware upgrade for compatibility
**increased data rates

4. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
**Configure SW2 as a VTP client.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with no VTP domain password.
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.

5. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
**After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
**If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
Inter-VLAN routing is not functioning because the switch is still in the process of negotiating the trunk link.
**Interfaces gi0/1 and fa0/1 are carrying data from multiple VLANs.
The interfaces shown are shut down.

7. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
**The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which device is the authenticator?
**access point
data server
client
RADIUS server

9. What three radio frequency bands are designated by the ITU-R as unlicensed for industrial, scientific, and medical (ISM) communities and are therefore supported by IEEE 802.11? (Choose three.)
**900 MHz
9 MHz
**2.4 GHz
5.7 GHz
**5 GHz
900 GHz

10. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
**Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
**Select the correct VTP mode and version.
**Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

11. Which three configurations are required to allow remote access to a switch using the telnet command? (Choose three.)
**default gateway
**vty line password
console line password
HTTP server interface authentication
**IP address of the switch on the management VLAN
duplex and speed on the Ethernet port used for the connection

12. What are three benefits of a hiearchical network design model? (Choose three.)
**scalability
higher speed
mobility
**security
**manageability
cost

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added VoIP telephones and a VoIP gateway computer to the existing switch infrastructure, and then created the VLANs. What must be done to converge the network?
Combine all traffic except management traffic to a single VLAN.
Combine all traffic including management traffic to a single VLAN.
Use Layer 3 switching to combine the voice and data traffic at S1.
**The network is already converged.
Implement a common IP addressing scheme for both VoIP phones and PCs.

14. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping Pc3 but cannot ping Pc1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
**S1 port fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
Pc1 IP address is incorrect.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
Router interface fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.1 /26
192.168.1.11 /28
**192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

16. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
**switch F

17. Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with rapid PVST+. Port Gi0/2 on S2 is the root port. A network administrator issues the spanning-tree link-type point-to-point command on port Gi0/1 for switch S2. What is the result of this command?
**If the link between D1 and C1 fails, port Gi0/2 on S2 rapidly transitions to the forwarding state.
PortFast is enabled on Gi0/2 on S2.
Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes a designated port.
Broadcast packets are restricted on the link between S2 and D1.
Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes an edge port.

18. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
**A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
**An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A host attached to port Fa0/3 of the switch can communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/16, but cannot communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/2. What could account for this failure?
Fa0/3 is down.
The trunk link to the router is down.
**The VLAN0010 network address is missing from the routing table.
Fa0/2 has been assigned to the administrative VLAN.
The router does not have a functional routing protocol installed.

20. A network administrator wants to add a new switch to the existing VTP domain. The new switch will have a VLAN that the administrator does not want visible to any other switches. All other VLANs should be visible on all switches, and all VLANs should be visible to the new switch. Which solution meets the requirements with the least administrative effort?
Add the switch in server mode. After all VLANs have propagated to the new switch, change the trunked link to access mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch.
Add the switch in server mode. Add an extended range VLAN to the new switch as the private VLAN.
Add the switch in server mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch. Enable VTP pruning and ensure that no ports are placed in the private VLAN on any other switches.
**Add the switch in client mode. After the existing VLANs have propagated, change the switch to transparent mode. Add the private VLAN.
Add the switch in VTP transparent mode. Manually add all VLANs to the switch.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
all hosts
Host B and the router
**Host C and the router
the router, Host C, and all the hosts connected to Hub1

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
**Standardized trunking protocol is used.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
**The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
**Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default administrative VLAN.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which three port results are correct? (Choose three.)
**S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
**S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
**S1 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Switches C1, D1, D2, and S2 have all been configured with RSTP. S1 and S3 are not capable of rapid PVST+ and are in the default configuration. What three implications does this have for the Layer 2 network? (Choose three.)
Because S1 and S3 are not trunking, they have no spanning-tree instance.
A topology change BPDU from C1 forces the uplinks on S1 and S3 to stop forwarding traffic for twice the forward delay time.
**Port Gi0/1 on D1 and port Gi0/1 on D2 become designated ports.
**Loss of the root port link on S2 causes a rapid transition to non-designated port on S2.
**PortFast can be enabled on all ports on S1 and S3.
Gi0/1 on S1 and Gi0/1 on S3 become designated ports.

25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The SSH version number is wrong.
**SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.

26. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
**802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.

27. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
**This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
**Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

28. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
**It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
**It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

29. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
**A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
**The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
**The hosts are configured on different logical networks.

30. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
**The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

31. How can the SSID for a wireless network connection be verified?
From the Network Connections menu, choose Add Wireless Network.
From the Network Connections menu, choose Properties.
**From the Network Connections menu, choose View Wireless Network.
From the Network Connections menu, choose Support.

32. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
**transparent
nontransparent

33. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across the different switches?
**trunking
STP
VTP
routing

34. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
It is configured in privileged EXEC mode.
It encrypts only line mode passwords.
**As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all currently set passwords formerly displayed in plain text are encrypted.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command in plain text, issue the no service password-encryption command.

35. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
**The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

36. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter limitation is 9.
Convergence is slower as the BPDU travels away from the root.
**BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. How far is the collision propagated?
hub HB1
**switch SW1
switch SW2
router R1
router R2

38. Which method establishes an administrative connection to the wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
**From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

39. Refer to the exhibit. All the VLANs configured on S2 are present on S1 but not S3. All switches are set to VTP server mode and have identical VTP domain names configured. What is the likely problem?
**The connection from S1 to S3 is not trunking.
S3 does not have a management VLAN configured.
The VLAN 99 interface on S3 is in a different subnet than S1 and S2.
S3 was joined to the network with a lower revision number than S1.

40. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network are interconnected via trunk links with VTP pruning enabled on all three switches. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
**VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

41. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
**The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
**The newly inserted switch has a higher VTP server revision number, which caused the VLAN information in the VTP domain to be deleted.
The newly inserted switch has pruning enabled, which causes pruning of all VLANs from the trunk port.
The newly inserted switch received more VLANs from a connected switch than the switch can support.
Switches can exchange VTP information only through an access link.

43. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/0 is configured as an edge port?
SW1 port F0/0 transitions to the learning state.
**SW1 port F0/0 can generate a temporary loop while in the sync state.
SW1 port F0/0 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
SW4 port F0/10 is forced into the blocking state.

44. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
**forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2

45. Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows the switch to provide power to which two types of devices? (Choose two.)
printer
**wireless access points
desktop PC
**IP phones
Scanners

46. Refer to the exhibit. Three new VLANs have been configured to improve the performance of the network. Host A would like to send a frame destined to Host B. Which statement is true about the process of sending the frame?
Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway configured for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to switch SW1 only to switch the traffic to Host B.
**Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to router R1 to route the traffic to the appropriate VLAN.
Host A broadcasts an ARP request to the members of all VLANs. If none of the hosts replies with a corresponding IP address, the frame is dropped.
Because Host A and Host B are connected to the same switch SW1, Host A forwards the frame to Host B directly.

47. Which command finds the next available parameter for the SwitchX# clock command with the fewest keystrokes?
SwitchX# clock?
SwitchX# clock then Tab
SwitchX# clock then Ctrl-P
**SwitchX# clock ?
SwitchX# clock then "help"

48. Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interface
**requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shut command
**can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
**more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces

49. Refer to the exhibit. Two switches, SW1 and SW2, are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A is on the native VLAN. How does untagged traffic coming from Host A traverse the trunk link?
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 tags the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
**The untagged traffic is forwarded as part of the native VLAN.
The untagged traffic is dropped because the trunk forwards only tagged frames.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1p encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

50. Refer to the exhibit. What encryption algorithm does the 802.11i standard employ for data encryption?
PSK
TKIP
WEP
**AES

51. A network administrator is tasked to select hardware to support a large enterprise, switched network. The system requires redundant backplane interconnections between eight high port density switches. Which hardware solution would be appropriate for this enterprise?
modular switches
fixed configuration switches
**stackable switches
uplink capable switches
link aggregated switches

52. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
**Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

53. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
**Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
**The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

54. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
**All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
**All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
**The flash directory contains the IOS image.

55. An access point supports both the 802.11g and 802.11b standards. A device that supports only 802.11b attempts to connect to the access point. What happens to the connection?
The network does not connect unless the user is within line of sight of the access point.
**The access point and all other connected users defer to the 802.11b standard.
The access point always maintains the higher standard and automatically upgrades the 802.11b device to the 802.11g speed.
Each user gets the speed supported by the wireless NIC on their mobile device.

56. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
**Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Trunk mode can be configured on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces only.

57. What two tasks must be performed when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose two.)
Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.
Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
**Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
**Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.
Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.

58. How does an Ethernet switch handle traffic if the shared memory buffers and the port memory buffers are full?
The switch allocates additional buffers in NVRAM.
The switch defragments the frame and stores it in NVRAM.
The switch routes the packet to the destination port.
**The switch drops the traffic.

CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers 2

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Fri, 23 Mar 2012 14:29:00 +0530

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied
to the switch?
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
**Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
**802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
**All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
**SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS

5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
**SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
**trunking
VPN

7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
**S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
**S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
**This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
**This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.

9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
**S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
**Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
**Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
**The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
**forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2

14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
**It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
**It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
**192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
**SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
**A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4
**An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
*computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The SSH version number is wrong.
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
**The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
**Cat-C
Cat-D

21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
**VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
**Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23. Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
**requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
**more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
**can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
**The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
**S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
**S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
**The switch is sending and receiving data frames
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
**Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
**reduced contention for bandwidth
reduced size of the physical layout
**increased fault tolerance of the network
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
**simplification of management and troubleshooting

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
**Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
**A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
**The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
**VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
**Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2

32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
**All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
**The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
**All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
**After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
**If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
**The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
**Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
**Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
**Select the correct VTP mode and version.
**Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
**Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain

37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
**only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
**The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
**This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
**Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
**The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
**The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
**A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
**switch F

42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
**switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4

43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
**BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
**Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
**force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
**Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs

47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
**BSSID
ESSID

48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
**The incoming frames will be dropped
The security violation count will be incremented.

49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
**transparent

50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
**From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
**The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
**provides improved range
**permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

CCNA 3 Final Exam Answers 2011

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Fri, 23 Mar 2012 14:28:00 +0530

1. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS

2. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

3. What is a possible impact of setting too short an aging time in the MAC address table of a switch?
overly large address table
unnecessary flooding of packets
excessive timeouts of static addresses
impaired ability to dynamically learn new addresses

4. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.

5. Using the command copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config, an administrator downloaded a saved configuration from a TFTP server to a switch. Why does the administrator not detect any changes in the switch configuration after the download completes?
The command should have been copy startup-config tftp:backup.cfg.
A backup configuration from a TFTP server cannot be copied directly into the startup-config.
The command copy running-config startup-config should be used to save the changes on the switch.
Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The teacher host is connected to port Fa0/7 on switch STW. A student has decided to share access to the Internet by attaching a hub and laptop to STW as shown. What will be the result of the student making this connection?
The Fa0/7 port of STW will be shutdown.
The student will gain full access to the Internet.
Both the teacher and student will be able to receive data but only the teacher will be able to send.
The frames from the laptop will be dropped, but the teacher host will maintain connectivity with the network.

7. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address

8. Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?
It is sending and receiving data frames.
It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

9. In a three-layer hierarchical network design, which distribution layer function delineates broadcast domains?
routing between VLANs
aggregating traffic flows
providing redundant links
reducing the network diameter

10. Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets.
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.

11. Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?
zero
one
two
four

12. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

13. Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?
The port will transition into blocking state.
The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.
The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.
The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.

15. A network administrator configures a switch port with the command switchport mode dynamic auto. What is the resulting behavior of the switch port?
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to auto.
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to desirable.
The switch port will be disabled if it is unable to successfully negotiate trunking.
A successful trunk will be established if the remote switch is non-Cisco but the port is configured for trunking.

16. Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN?
WPA2
cloaking SSIDs
shared WEP key
MAC address filtering

17. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

18. What is one disadvantage that 802.11a wireless has compared to 802.11g?
Use of the 5GHz band requires much larger antennas.
The OFDM modulation technique results in a slower data rate.
There are fewer non-overlapping channels available to help reduce RF interference.
The use of higher frequencies means that signals are more likely to be obstructed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

20. Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer 5. Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-A
computer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router

21. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will drop the packet.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

22. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?
The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.
The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.
The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

23. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.
SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.
SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

24. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

25. Refer to the exhibit. The VTP domain has been configured as shown in the exhibit. The network technician accidentally configured the VTP server as a VTP client. After the technician reloaded the switches, all users in the VTP domain started to complain that they lost connectivity to the users on the same VLANs that are connected to other switches. What should be done in the future to prevent losing all VLAN configurations in a VTP domain?
Configure all switches in VTP transparent mode and copy the VLAN configuration into flash.
Configure all switches in the network as VTP clients and copy the VLAN configuration into NVRAM.
Create a new domain and configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.
In the same domain, configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.

26. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command.
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs.

27. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 10 has been configured on the VTP server. Users who are assigned to VLAN 10 are connected as shown in the exhibit. On the basis of the outputs that are provided, which group of users will be able to communicate with the users on VLAN 10 on SW1?
all the users who are connected only to SW2
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW3
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW4
users on VLAN 10 who are connected to both SW3 and SW4

28. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

29. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?
It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
revision number
existing VLANs
operating mode
domain name
pruning mode

31. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
It is configured in VTP server mode.
STP is automatically enabled.
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
The enable password is configured as cisco.

33. What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch?
automatically detects duplex settings
automatically detects interface speed
automatically detects copper cable type
automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

34. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

36. The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update its own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.)
Reset the VTP counters.
Configure VTP version 1 on the switch.
Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent.
Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number.
Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.

38. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name

39. Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be done to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.

40. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
only the management VLAN
all VLANs except the extended range VLANs
all VLANs except 1 and 1002-1005
all VLANs

41. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

43. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20?
A
B
C
D

44. Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.

45. Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

46. Refer to the exhibit. A company has acquired a new office in a campus environment. Switches in the existing office and the new office are directly connected by a trunk link. The VLANs and IP addressing are setup as shown in the exhibit. The computers in each office are not able to ping each other. What will fix the problem?
Use an access link between S2 and S3.
Connect S2 and S3 to a common router.
Set the subnet mask in the new office to /24.
Configure the new office default gateway to 172.17.10.1
Change the port assignments in the new office to a different VLAN.

47. Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?
BPDU frames
multicast frames
broadcast frames
Layer 3 packets

48. While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?
This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.
This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.
This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.
This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.

49. Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment?
non-root port
disabled port
designated port
non-designated port

50. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

51. Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been configured with VTP pruning enabled on all switches. If HostA sends a broadcast frame to SW1, which devices will receive the frame?
SW1, SW3, HostF
SW1, HostB, HostC
SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, HostF
SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, all hosts

52. Which statement describes the use of voice VLANs in Cisco IP telephony?
The voice VLAN carries both tagged and untagged traffic.
The voice VLAN carries untagged traffic having special QoS markings.
The voice VLAN must be configured on the switch port to which the IP phone attaches.
Data and voice frames are tagged with same VLAN ID between the IP phone and the switch when a voice VLAN is configured.

CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers 2012

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Tue, 20 Mar 2012 21:37:00 +0530

1. Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames?
DE
BE
CIR
FECN
CBIR

2. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

3. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
SDLC

4. An administrator issues the command confreg 0×2142 at the rommon 1> prompt. What is the effect when this router is rebooted?
Contents in RAM will be erased.
Contents in RAM will be ignored.
Contents in NVRAM will be erased.
Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.

5. Which type of network attack exploits vulnerabilities in the compromised system with the intent of propagating itself across a network?
virus
worm
Trojan horse
man-in-the-middle

6. Which important piece of troubleshooting information can be discovered about a serial interface using the show controllers command?
queuing strategy
serial cable type
interface IP address
encapsulation method

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Computers on the internal network need access to all servers in the external network. The only traffic that is permitted from the external network must be responses to requests that are initiated on the internal network. Which security measure would satisfy this requirement?
a numbered extended ACL
a named standard ACL
a reflexive ACL
a dynamic ACL

9. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

10. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE
DE
CIR
CBIR

11.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem?
The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2.
The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point.
The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end.
A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time.

12. A DHCP server is configured with a block of excluded addresses. What two devices would be assigned static addresses from the excluded address range? (Choose two.)
a protocol analyzer
DNS server for the network
network printer that is used by many different users
a laptop that will get a different address each time it boots up

13.

Refer to the exhibit. WestSW is supposed to send VLAN information to EastSW, but that did not occur. What will force WestSW to send a VLAN update to EastSW?
Change EastSW to be a VTP server.
Reload both WestSW and EastSW at the same time.
Erase the VLAN database on EastSW and reload the switch.
Reset the configuration revision number on EastSW to zero.
Reload EastSW.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?
/19
/20
/21
/22
/23
/24

15. Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?

16.

Refer to the exhibit. In the partial router configuration that is shown, what is the purpose of access list BLOCK_XYZ?
to prevent source IP address spoofing by hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN
to block access by Fa0/0 LAN hosts to all network services beyond the router
to prevent users on the Fa0/0 LAN from opening Telnet sessions on the router
to secure Fa0/0 hosts by allowing only locally sourced traffic into the Fa0/0 LAN

17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that three VLANs created on SW1 do not show in SW3. Based on output from the show vtp status and show running-config commands, what is the cause of the problem in the SW3 configuration?
VTP version 2 is disabled.
The VTP mode is misconfigured.
The configure revision number for VTP does not match.
Trunk mode is not configured on FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?
They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
They support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.

19. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration?
when global DLCIs are in use
when using physical interfaces
when multicasts must be supported
when participating routers are in the same subnet

20. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?
Wi-Fi
satellite
WiMAX
Metro Ethernet

21.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254

22. A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

23. A network technician wants to implement SSH as the means by which a router may be managed remotely. What are two procedures that the technician should use to successfully complete this task? (Choose two.)
Configure the login banner.
Configure authentication.
Define the asymmetrical keys.
Configure the console password.
Enter the service password-encryption command.

24. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

25. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?
PAP uses a two-way handshake.
The password is unique and random.
PAP conducts periodic password challenges.
PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

26. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?
QoS
latency
reliability
confidentiality

27. Which address provides an example of an IPv6 link-local address?
FE80::1324:ABCD
2001:2345:AB12:1935::FEFF
2001:1234:0000:9CA::0876/64
1234:ABCD:5678:EF00:9234:AA22:5527:FC35

28. What major benefit does Cisco HDLC provide that ISO standard HDLC lacks?
flow control
error control
multiprotocol support
cyclic redundancy checks

29. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

30. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
Traffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng network command is not configured.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

32.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

33. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
demarcation point
local loop
cloud

34. Which IP address and wildcard mask would be used in an ACL to block traffic from all hosts on the same subnet as host 192.168.16.43/28?
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.31
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.16 0.0.0.31
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.16
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.15
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.43 0.0.0.16

35. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a "1" in the wildcard mask.
IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a "0" in the wildcard mask.

36. A company has its headquarters office in Dallas and five branch offices located in New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Seattle, and Atlanta. WAN links are used for communications among offices in six sites. In planning the WAN links, the network designer is given two requirements: (1) minimize cost and (2) provide a certain level of WAN link reliability with redundant links. Which topology should the network designer recommend?
star
full mesh
hierarchical
partial mesh

37.

Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet.

38. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter
reduced costs
reduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

39. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP
PPP with CHAP
HDLC with PAP
HDLC with CHAP

40. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
application layer

41. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing

42.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

43. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

44.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

45. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

47.

Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?
The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

48.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two).
Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied.
Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied.
Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted.
Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted.
Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted.

49. While troubleshooting a PPP link that uses PAP authentication, a network administrator notices an incorrectly configured password in the running configuration. The administrator corrects the error by entering the command ppp pap sent-username ROUTER_NAME password NEW_PASSWORD, but the link still does not come up.
Assuming that the rest of the configuration is correct and that the link has no physical layer problems, what should the administrator do?
Save the configuration to NVRAM.
Shut down the interface then re-enable it.
Generate traffic by pinging the remote router.
Use CHAP to ensure compatibility with the remote router.

50. A network administrator determines that falsified routing information is propagating through the network. What action can be used to address this threat?
Update the IOS images.
Change console passwords.
Employ end-user authentication.
Configure routing protocol authentication.

51. What is tunneling?
using digital certificates to ensure that data endpoints are authentic
creating a hash to ensure the integrity of data as it traverses a network
using alternate paths to avoid access control lists and bypass security measures
encapsulating an entire packet within another packet for transmission over a network

52.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to configure PPP with CHAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2. What additional configuration should be included on both routers to complete the task?

CCNA 4 Final Exam V4.0 Answers

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Tue, 20 Mar 2012 21:30:00 +0530

1. What functionality do access control lists provide in the implementation of dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
define which addresses can be translated
define which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
define which addresses are allowed out the router
define which addresses can be accessed from the inside network

2. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Every time the administrator reboots this router, the boot process ends in setup mode. What is a possible problem?
There is insufficient RAM for the IOS to load on this router.
A password recovery process should be done on this router.
The bootstrap version and the version of the IOS are different.
The IOS image is damaged and must be reloaded using tftpdnld.
The configuration register is set to ignore the startup configuration.

4. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE
DE
CIR
CBIR

5.

Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 10.1.1.1". What is the problem?
The 10.1.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
The default router for the 10Network pool is incorrect.
The ip helper-address must be added to Fa0/0 interface.
The pool of addresses for the 10Network pool is incorrect.

6. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
SDLC

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.

8. Compared with IDS systems, what can IPS systems do to provide further protection of computer systems?
detect potential attacks
stop the detected attack from executing
update OS patches for computer systems
scan computer systems for viruses and spyware

9. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?
Wi-Fi
satellite
WiMAX
Metro Ethernet

10. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command?
The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs.
The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.
DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.

12. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?
extended
reflexive
standard
time-based

13. Which two statements are true about IPv6 link local addresses? (Choose two.)
They begin with the 2000::/3 prefix.
They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix.
They are assigned by IANA to an organization.
They must be manually configured by the administrator.
They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.

14. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter
reduced costs
reduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

15.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?
failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled
failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet
a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes
a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

16. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.

17. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
data link
physical

19. Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network?
Inverse ARP
LMI
DLCI
FECN

20. An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent?
cracking
phishing
phreaking
spamming

21.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?
TDM
PPP
HDLC
SLIP

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

23. What is the result of adding the global command service password-encryption to the configuration of a router?
Line passwords are encrypted with type 7 encryption.
Enable passwords are encrypted with type 5 encryption.
All services must provide an encrypted password to function.
Only encrypted messages are allowed for router communication.

24. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer

25. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
demarcation point
demilitarized zone

26. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

28.

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?
/19
/20
/21
/22
/23
/24

29.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
Enable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.

30.

Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?
improper LMI type
interface reset
PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable

31. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?
PAP uses a two-way handshake.
The password is unique and random.
PAP conducts periodic password challenges.
PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

32. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

33. What is tunneling?
using digital certificates to ensure that data endpoints are authentic
creating a hash to ensure the integrity of data as it traverses a network
using alternate paths to avoid access control lists and bypass security measures
encapsulating an entire packet within another packet for transmission over a network

34. Which statement is true about NCP?
Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

35.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?
Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
Configure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

36.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two).
Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied.
Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied.
Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted.
Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted.
Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted.

37. Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames?
DE
BE
CIR
FECN
CBIR

38.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network from reaching the Internet. The access control list also permits traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network. On which interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface S0/0/0, inbound
interface S0/0/0, outbound

39. Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?

Answer: 3nd option

40.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.

41. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

42.

Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?
ATM
VPN
ISDN
Frame Relay
broadband DSL

43. Which three physical network problems should be checked when a bottom-up troubleshooting approach has been chosen to troubleshoot network performance? (Choose three.)
cable connectivity
high collision counts
STP failures and loops
address mapping errors
high CPU utilization rates
excess packets that are filtered by the firewall

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem?
The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2.
The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point.
The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end.
A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time.

45. Which IP address and wildcard mask would be used in an ACL to block traffic from all hosts on the same subnet as host 192.168.16.43/28?
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.31
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.16 0.0.0.31
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.16
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.15
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.43 0.0.0.16

46. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP
PPP with CHAP
HDLC with PAP
HDLC with CHAP

47. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration?
when global DLCIs are in use
when using physical interfaces
when multicasts must be supported
when participating routers are in the same subnet

48. A network technician analyzes the network and notices late collisions. The collisions occur accompanied by jabber that originates from the server. What is the likely cause of the problem?
faulty switch port
web server CPU overload
faulty NIC in the web server
misconfiguration of web server services

49.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333
192.168.1.2:80

50.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

51. When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?
LCP
LMI
DLCI
Inverse ARP

52. A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
The service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

CCNA 3 Final Exam V4.0 AnswersCCNA 3 Final Exam V4.0 Answers

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Tue, 20 Mar 2012 21:23:00 +0530

1. Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN?
WPA2
cloaking SSIDs
shared WEP key
MAC address filtering

2.

Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer 5. Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-A
computer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will drop the packet.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
revision number
existing VLANs
operating mode
domain name
pruning mode

6. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address

7. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?
It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

8. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

9. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name

10.

Refer to the exhibit. A company has acquired a new office in a campus environment. Switches in the existing office and the new office are directly connected by a trunk link. The VLANs and IP addressing are setup as shown in the exhibit. The computers in each office are not able to ping each other. What will fix the problem?
Use an access link between S2 and S3.
Connect S2 and S3 to a common router.
Set the subnet mask in the new office to /24.
Configure the new office default gateway to 172.17.10.1
Change the port assignments in the new office to a different VLAN.

11. What is a possible impact of setting too short an aging time in the MAC address table of a switch?
overly large address table
unnecessary flooding of packets
excessive timeouts of static addresses
impaired ability to dynamically learn new addresses

12.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be done to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.

14. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
only the management VLAN
all VLANs except the extended range VLANs
all VLANs except 1 and 1002-1005
all VLANs

15.

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

16. Using the command copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config, an administrator downloaded a saved configuration from a TFTP server to a switch. Why does the administrator not detect any changes in the switch configuration after the download completes?
The command should have been copy startup-config tftp:backup.cfg.
A backup configuration from a TFTP server cannot be copied directly into the startup-config.
The command copy running-config startup-config should be used to save the changes on the switch.
Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.

17. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

18. Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?
BPDU frames
multicast frames
broadcast frames
Layer 3 packets

19. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?
The port will transition into blocking state.
The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.
The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.
The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command.
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.

23.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

24.

Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been configured with VTP pruning enabled on all switches. If HostA sends a broadcast frame to SW1, which devices will receive the frame?
SW1, SW3, HostF
SW1, HostB, HostC
SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, HostF
SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, all hosts

25.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

26. The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update its own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.)
Reset the VTP counters.
Configure VTP version 1 on the switch.
Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent.
Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number.
Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.

27.

Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets.
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

29. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.
SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.
SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

30.

Refer to the exhibit. The teacher host is connected to port Fa0/7 on switch STW. A student has decided to share access to the Internet by attaching a hub and laptop to STW as shown. What will be the result of the student making this connection?
The Fa0/7 port of STW will be shutdown.
The student will gain full access to the Internet.
Both the teacher and student will be able to receive data but only the teacher will be able to send.
The frames from the laptop will be dropped, but the teacher host will maintain connectivity with the network.

31. A network administrator configures a switch port with the command switchport mode dynamic auto. What is the resulting behavior of the switch port?
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to auto.
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to desirable.
The switch port will be disabled if it is unable to successfully negotiate trunking.
A successful trunk will be established if the remote switch is non-Cisco but the port is configured for trunking.

32. Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment?
non-root port
disabled port
designated port
non-designated port

33.

Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

34.

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 10 has been configured on the VTP server. Users who are assigned to VLAN 10 are connected as shown in the exhibit. On the basis of the outputs that are provided, which group of users will be able to communicate with the users on VLAN 10 on SW1?
all the users who are connected only to SW2
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW3
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW4
users on VLAN 10 who are connected to both SW3 and SW4

35.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

36.

Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.

37.

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20?
A
B
C
D

38.

Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.

39. In a three-layer hierarchical network design, which distribution layer function delineates broadcast domains?
routing between VLANs
aggregating traffic flows
providing redundant links
reducing the network diameter

40. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS

41. What is one disadvantage that 802.11a wireless has compared to 802.11g?
Use of the 5GHz band requires much larger antennas.
The OFDM modulation technique results in a slower data rate.
There are fewer non-overlapping channels available to help reduce RF interference.
The use of higher frequencies means that signals are more likely to be obstructed.

42. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
It is configured in VTP server mode.
STP is automatically enabled.
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
The enable password is configured as cisco.

43.

Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?
It is sending and receiving data frames.
It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

44. While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?
This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.
This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.
This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.
This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.

45. Which statement describes the use of voice VLANs in Cisco IP telephony?
The voice VLAN carries both tagged and untagged traffic.
The voice VLAN carries untagged traffic having special QoS markings.
The voice VLAN must be configured on the switch port to which the IP phone attaches.
Data and voice frames are tagged with same VLAN ID between the IP phone and the switch when a voice VLAN is configured.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?
zero
one
two
four

47.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

48.

Refer to the exhibit. The VTP domain has been configured as shown in the exhibit. The network technician accidentally configured the VTP server as a VTP client. After the technician reloaded the switches, all users in the VTP domain started to complain that they lost connectivity to the users on the same VLANs that are connected to other switches. What should be done in the future to prevent losing all VLAN configurations in a VTP domain?
Configure all switches in VTP transparent mode and copy the VLAN configuration into flash.
Configure all switches in the network as VTP clients and copy the VLAN configuration into NVRAM.
Create a new domain and configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.
In the same domain, configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.

49.

Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

50. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?
The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.
The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.
The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

51.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

52. What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch?
automatically detects duplex settings
automatically detects interface speed
automatically detects copper cable type
automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

Tips to maximize your knowledge

noreply@blogger.com (2012) — Tue, 20 Mar 2012 11:44:00 +0530

Knowledge about customers
Knowledge about effective processes & good/best practice
Knowledge about the competency level & capabilities of the workforce

Hence systems are designed around utilizing knowledge in these ways, depending on how it is most effective to an organization.
The main types of knowledge management systems are-

Creating intranet- an online network within the organization
Creating data warehouses and other ways of storing knowledge from various sources
Creating communities to share knowledge- online or otherwise
Creating decision support systems that compile data analysis and have other different methodologies of decision making
Creating internal expertise mapping by having directories of communities, yellow pages by experts etc
Creating Groupware, which is essentially creating notes using mostly email to share knowledge