Chaitu Informative Blogs

Best Health Tips for Working Professionals (2025 Guide to a Healthy Routine)

2025-11-30T02:59:00.000-08:00

Simple, Practical & Easy-to-Follow Health Routine for Busy Employees

Introduction

In today’s fast-moving work life, most people struggle to maintain good health due to long office hours, stress, deadlines, and irregular eating habits. Whether you work from home or the office, staying healthy is essential for productivity and long-term well-being.

👉You can also read my article on amazing benefits of mint leaves and oil

This guide will provide you with simple, effective, and realistic health tips specifically designed for working professionals who don’t have much time.

1. Start Your Day With a Simple Morning Routine

A good morning routine sets the tone for the entire day.

👉Wake up 30 minutes earlier

You don’t need a 2-hour routine.

Just 30 minutes is enough.

👉Drink warm water

Helps digestion and removes toxins.

👉Do 5–10 minutes of stretching

Relaxes your muscles and reduces stiffness.

👉Spend 2 minutes in deep breathing

Boosts mental clarity and reduces morning stress.

Tip: Avoid checking your phone during the first 10 minutes after waking up.

2. Eat a Healthy & Powerful Breakfast

Skipping breakfast reduces focus and energy levels.

Ideal breakfast options:

Oats or muesli with fruits

Boiled eggs

Dosa + chutney

Idli + sambar

Peanut butter + brown bread

Foods to avoid:

Heavy oily food

Instant noodles

Too much tea/coffee in the morning

3. Keep Yourself Hydrated Throughout the Day

Most working professionals drink very less water, especially in AC rooms.

How to fix it:

Keep a water bottle on your desk

Drink 1 glass every 60–90 minutes

Aim for 2–2.5 liters/day

Add coconut water or lemon water for extra hydration.

👉If you want to improve your immunity, digestive health, check this guide: amazing benefits of wheat grass juice.

4. Avoid Long Sitting Hours (Move Every 45 Minutes)

Sitting for long hours increases:

Back pain

Neck pain

Fatigue

Weight gain

Follow the 45-5 rule:

Sit for 45 minutes → Take a 5-minute walk/stretch

Quick desk exercises:

Shoulder roll

Neck rotation

Wrist rotation

Back stretch

5. Choose Smart Lunch Options

Your lunch determines your afternoon energy level.

Best lunch for office:

Rice + dal + vegetables

Roti + sabzi + curd

Grilled chicken with veggies

Veg pulao with salad

Avoid:

Too much biryani

Fast food

Heavy oily curries

6. Manage Stress With Small Breaks

Don’t wait for weekends to relax.

Effective stress-relief habits:

2 minutes of deep breathing

Listening to soft music

Taking a short walk

Stretching your shoulders

Closing your eyes for 30 seconds

Small breaks reduce burnout and improve focus.

7. Keep Eye Strain Away (Very Important for Office Workers)

Long screen time causes:

Headache

Dry eyes

Blurred vision

Follow the 20-20-20 rule:

Every 20 minutes, look at something 20 feet away for 20 seconds.

Use:

Blue light filter

Anti-glare glasses

Lower brightness at night

8. Choose Healthy Evening Snacks

Avoid samosas, chips, and bakery items.

Better alternatives:

Fruits

Sprouts

Dry fruits

Buttermilk

Green tea

Healthy snacks maintain steady energy levels.

9. Do Light Exercise or Walk Daily

Even 20–30 minutes of movement is enough.

Options:

Evening walk

Cycling

Yoga

Home workout

Skipping

Consistency is more important than intensity.

10. Maintain Good Sleep Routine

Sleep is the best natural medicine.

For better sleep:

Avoid screens 30 minutes before bed

Sleep 7–8 hours

Keep your room cool and dark

Use light dinner (avoid heavy food at night)

Good sleep improves focus, mood, and immunity.

BONUS: Quick Healthy Habits for Working Professionals

Limit tea/coffee to 1–2 cups/day

Avoid late-night work

Reduce sugar intake

Take stairs instead of lift

Don’t skip meals

Keep a balanced diet

Practice gratitude for 1 minute/day

Conclusion

Staying healthy as a working professional doesn’t require extreme diets or gym workouts. Small, consistent habits create big improvements.

Follow this simple routine:

Eat well

Move often

Drink enough water

Sleep properly

Reduce stress

Your body will thank you in the long run.

ISTQB Training Questions and Answers

2024-11-20T23:30:00.000-08:00

Q1. Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluating the testability of the requirements and the system?

Testing implementation and execution
Test Analysis
Test Analysis and Design ✔
Test Planning and control

Q2. What is a Test condition?

An item or event of a component or system that could be verified by one or more test cases ✔
A condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or achieve an objective that must be met or possessed by a system or system component to satisfy a contract, standard, specification, or other formally imposed document.
An approach to testing in which test cases are designed based on test objectives and test conditions derived from requirements.
A set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results, and execution post conditions.

Q3. Which is the IEEE standard for Software Test documentation?

IEEE 829 ✔
IEEE 827
IEEE 828
IEEE 8295

Q4. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

Determining test approach ✔
Evaluating entry criteria
Preparing Test Specifications
Measuring and Analyzing results

Q5. Which of the following is a fundamental test activity?

Test design and Implementation
Test Implementation and Execution
Test Planning and design ✔
Evaluating Test plan

Q6. Which is not an exit criteria measure?

Cost
Time
No of resources ✔
Fault found or coverage

Q7. Defects occur not because of?

Complexity of Infrastructure
Execution of software by changing hardware conditions
System interactions
Changed technologies ✔

Q8. What is true of a Quality system?

It is secure
It meets specified requirements, and customer needs ✔
It costs more than other systems with the same feature
It was delivered on time and budget

Q9. A programmer writes and executes unit tests against code that he has written. Which of the following is a tester mindset that the programmer should adopt to perform unit testing effectively?

Good communication skills
Code coverage
Probe effect
Attention to detail ✔

Q10. Test control is done to compare project progress?

At the initial stage of the project plan
when defining the entry and exit criteria of the project
When defining the entry criteria
throughout the project ✔

Q11. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account:-

i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
i, iv are true and ii is false
i, ii are true and iii, iv are false ✔
ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

Q12. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

i. Determining the scope and risks and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing, test ware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, and interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i, ii, iv are true, and iii is false ✔
b) i, iv are true and ii is false
c) i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
d) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

Q13. Which of the following factors have a SIGNIFICANT influence on the test approach?

i. The SDLC
ii. The number of defects detected in previous projects
iii. The identified product risks
iv. New regulatory requirements forcing formal white-box testing v. The test environment setup

a) i, ii have significant influence
b) i, iii, iv have significant influence ✔
c) ii, iv, v have significant influence
d) iii, v have significant influence

Q14. Consider the following rule: "For every SDLC activity there is a corresponding test activity". In which SDLC models does this rule hold?

a) Only in sequential SDLC models
b) Only in iterative SDLC models
c) Only in iterative and incremental SDLC models
d) In sequential, incremental, and iterative SDLC models ✔

Q15. Which of the following statements BEST describes the acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) approach?

a) in ATDD, acceptance criteria are typically created based on the given/when/then format
b) in ATDD, test cases are mainly created at component testing and are code-oriented
c) in ATDD, tests are created, based on acceptance criteria to drive the development of the related software ✔
d) in ATDD, tests are based on the desired behavior of the software, which makes it easier for team members to understand them

Q16. Which of the following is NOT an example of the shift left approach?

a) Reviewing the user requirements before they are formally accepted by the stakeholders
b) Writing a component test before the corresponding code is written
c) Executing a performance efficiency test for a component during component testing
d) Writing a test script before setting up the configuration management process ✔

Q17. Which types of failures (1-4) fit which test levels (A-D) BEST?

1. Failures in system behavior as it deviates from the user's business needs
2. Failures in communication between components
3. Failures in logic in a module
4. Failures in not correctly implementing business rules

A. Component testing
B. Component integration testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C ✔
b) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A
c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

Q18. Which of the following are the advantages of DevOps?

i. Faster product release and faster time to market
ii. Increases the need for repetitive manual testing
iii. Constant availability of executable software
iv. Reduction in the number of regression tests associated with code refactoring
v. Setting up the test automation framework is inexpensive since everything is automated

a) i, ii, iv are advantages
b) iii, v are advantages
c) i, iii are advantages ✔
d) ii, iv, v are advantages

Q19. You are working as a tester in the team that follows the V-model. Which of the following activities CAN be performed in the initial phases of the SDLC?

a) Dynamic test execution
b) Static testing ✔
c) Test planning ✔
d) Acceptance test execution
e) Maintenance testing

Q20. Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

a) For each test level, there is a corresponding development level
b) For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective
c) For every software test activity, there is a corresponding user activity
d) For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity ✔

Q21. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Component Test-Driven Development
b) Integration Test-Driven Development
c) System Test-Driven Development
d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development ✔

Q22. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?

a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices
b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation
c) End users' understanding of the development and test processes is improved ✔
d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers

Q23. The navigation system software has been updated because it suggests routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?

a) Only confirmation testing
b) Confirmation testing then regression testing ✔
c) Only regression testing
d) Regression testing then confirmation testing

Q24. Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

a) Behavior-Driven Development ✔
b) Test Level Driven Development
c) Function-Driven Development
d) Performance-Driven Development

Q25. Which of the following BEST describes retrospectives?

a) Retrospectives allow team members to identify other team members who did not fully contribute to achieving quality as required by the whole-team approach
b) Retrospectives allow testers to identify successful activities so that these are retained when potential improvements are made in the future ✔
c) Retrospectives are where agile team members are allowed to voice their concerns about management and customers in a blame-free environment
d) Retrospectives give agile team members a forum where they focus on discussing the plan and technical decisions for the next iteration

Q26. Which of the following is an example of a defect that can be found by static testing but NOT by dynamic testing?

a) Lack of usability provided through the user interface
b) Code with no path that reaches it ✔
c) Poor response times for most of the expected users
d) Required features that are not implemented in the code

Q27. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?

a) Managers are aware of which developers are less productive
b) It allows project managers to prioritize their stakeholder interactions
c) It facilitates early communication of potential quality issues ✔
d) End users better understand why the delivery of the work product is delayed

Q28. Given the following task descriptions:

1. The quality characteristics to be evaluated and the exit criteria are selected
2. Everyone has access to the work product
3. Anomalies are identified in the work product
4. Anomalies are discussed And the following review activities

A. Individual review
B. Review initiation
C. Planning
D. Communication and analysis

Which of the following BEST matches the task descriptions and activities?

a) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
b) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
c) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D
d) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D ✔

Q29. Given the following roles in reviews:

1. Scribe
2. Review leader
3. Facilitator
4. Manager

The following responsibilities in reviews:

A. Ensures the effective running of review meetings and the setting up a safe review environment
B. Records review information, such as decisions and new anomalies found during the review meeting
C. Decides what is to be reviewed and provides resources, such as staff and time for the review
D. Takes overall responsibility for the review such as organizing when and where the review will take place

Which of the following BEST matches the roles and responsibilities?

a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C
b) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D
c) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C ✔
d) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

Q30. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of static testing?

a) Having less expensive defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the SDLC ✔
b) Fixing defects found during static testing is generally much less expensive than fixing defects found during dynamic testing
c) Finding coding defects that might not have been found by only performing dynamic testing
d) Detecting gaps and inconsistencies in requirements

Q31. Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent feedback?

a) It improves the test process for future projects
b) It forces customers to prioritize their requirements based on agreed risks
c) It provides a measure for the quality of changes
d) It helps avoid requirements misunderstandings ✔

Q32. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

There is the role of a scribe
The main purpose is to evaluate the quality
The meeting is led by the author of the work product
There is individual preparation
A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?

a) Informal review
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical review ✔
d) Inspection

Q33. Which of these statements is NOT a factor that contributes to successful reviews?

a) Participants should dedicate adequate time to the review
b) Splitting large work products into small parts to make the required effort less intense ✔
c) Participants should avoid behaviors that might indicate boredom, exasperation, or hostility to other participants
d) Failures found should be acknowledged, appreciated, and handled objectively

Q34. Which of the following CANNOT be examined by static testing?

a) Contract
b) Test plan
c) Encrypted code ✔
d) Test charter

Q35. Given the following descriptions of review activities:

1. Detected anomalies are deliberated upon, and determinations are reached regarding their status, ownership, and any further steps needed
2. Issues are recorded, and any needed updates are addressed prior to the acceptance of the work product
3. Reviewers employ techniques to come up with suggestions and questions about the work product and to spot anomalies
4. The objective of the review and its schedule are established to ensure a focused and efficient review
5. Participants are provided with access to the item being reviewed

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence in the review process of the activities that correspond to the descriptions?

a) 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1
b) 4 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2 ✔
c) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
d) 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Q36. Which of the following statements about the value of static testing is CORRECT?

a) The defect types found by static testing are different from the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing ✔
b) Dynamic testing can detect the defect types that can be found by static testing plus some additional defect types
c) Dynamic testing can identify some of the defects that can be found by static testing but not all of them
d) Static testing can identify the defect types that can be found by dynamic testing as well as some extra defect types

Q37. Which participant in the review process is responsible for ensuring that the review meetings run effectively and that everyone at the meetings can voice their opinions freely?

a) Manager
b) Moderator ✔
c) Chairperson
d) Review Leader

Q38. Which one of the following is not a valid use of decision coverage?

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program
Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a Business Process
Checking that all decisions are based on numeric value ✔
Checking that at least 100% decision coverage has been achieved

Q39. Which one of the following statements holds true if a program has 100% decision coverage in a test?

Every output equivalence class has been tested.
Every executable statement is covered.
The “Dead” code has not been covered. ✔
Every input equivalence class has been covered.

Q40. Consider the following code:

If(A AND B)

Print(“Ans1”)

Else if(B AND C)

Print(“Ans2”)

Else if(C AND D)

Print(“Ans3”)

Else

Print(“Ans4”)

Q40a. How many unique test cases are required to completely achieve condition coverage?

3
4
2
6 ✔

Q40b. How many unique test cases are required to completely achieve statement coverage?

3
4
2
6 ✔

Q40c. How many unique test cases are required to completely achieve MCDC coverage?

10
7 ✔
8
9

Q41. Create an Equivalence class and perform BVA on the following scenario.
Test the input Age for a college admission whose minimum age requirement is 18 and the maximum is 60.

Q41a. How many unique test cases are required to completely cover all Equivalence classes?

3 ✔
4
2
5

Q41b. How many unique test cases are required to completely cover all Boundary conditions?

3
4 ✔
6
5

Q42. From the mentioned conditions, which is the most suitable answer to cover all the possible decisions:

Test path 1: A, B, D, E, G ✔
Test path 2: A, B, D, E, F, G ✔
Test path 3: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G

Q43. You perform system testing of an e-commerce web application and are provided with the following requirements:
REQ 05-017. If the total cost of purchases exceeds $100, the customer gets a 5% discount on subsequent purchases. Otherwise, the customer does not receive a discount.
Which test techniques will be MOST helpful in designing test cases based on this requirement?

a) White-box test techniques
b) Black-box test techniques ✔
c) Experience-based test techniques
d) Risk-based test techniques

Q44. You are designing test cases based on the following decision table.

So far you have designed the following test cases:

TC1: 19-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category A
TC2: 65-year-old, unregistered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category B
TC3: 66-year-old, registered man with no experience; expected result: category C
TC4: 65-year-old, registered woman with 4 years of experience; expected result: category D

Which of the following test cases, when added to the existing set of test cases, will increase the decision table coverage?

a) 66-year-old, unregistered man with no experience; expected result: category B
b) 55-year-old, unregistered woman with 2 years of experience; expected result: category A
c) 19-year-old, registered woman with 5 years of experience; expected result: category D ✔
d) No additional test case can increase the already achieved decision table coverage

Q45. Which collaborative user story writing practice enables the team to achieve a collective understanding of what needs to be delivered?

a) Planning poker, so that a team can achieve consensus on the effort needed to implement a user story
b) Reviews, so that a team can detect inconsistencies and contradictions in a user story
c) Iteration planning, so that user stories with the highest business value for a customer can be prioritized for implementation
d) Conversation, so that team members can understand how the software will be used ✔

Q46. You have just started designing test cases for the following user story.

As a customer, I want to be able to filter search results by price range, so that I can find products within my budget more easily. Acceptance criteria:

1. The filter should work for all versions of the application from version 3.0 upwards
2. The filter should allow the customer to set a price range with a minimum and a maximum price
3. The search results should update dynamically as the customer adjusts the price range filter

in all test cases the precondition is as follows: there are only two products available, products A and B. Product A costs $100 and product B costs $110.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

a) Enter the webpage and set a filter to show prices between $90 and $100. Expected result: results show product A only. Set the maximum price to $110. Expected result: results now include both products A and B ✔
b) Enter the webpage. Expected result: the default minimum and maximum prices are $100 and $110 respectively. Add product C to stock, with a price of $120. Refresh the client’s webpage. Expected result: the default maximum price changes to $120
c) Enter the webpage and set a filter to show prices between $90 and $115. Expected result: results show both products A and B. Change currency from USD to EUR. Expected result: the filter range changes correctly to EUR values, according to the current exchange rate
d) Enter the webpage with three different browsers: Edge, Chrome, and Opera. In each browser set filter between $90 and $110. Expected result: results include both products A and B and the results layout is the same in all three browsers.

Q47. You are testing a temperature control system for a horticultural cold storage facility. The system receives the temperature (in full degrees Celsius) as the input. If the temperature is between 0 and 2 degrees inclusive, the system displays the message “temperature OK”. For lower temperatures, the system displays the message "temperature too low" and for higher temperatures, it displays the message “temperature too high”.

Using two-value boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary value coverage?

a) –1, 3
b) 0, 2
c) –1, 0, 2, 3
d) –2, 0, 2, 4 ✔

Q48. How do testers add value to iteration and release planning?

Testers determine the priority of the user stories to be developed
Testers focus only on the functional aspects of the system to be tested
Testers participate in the detailed risk identification and risk assessment of user stories ✔
Testers guarantee the release of high-quality software through early test design during the release planning ✔

Q49. Your team uses the three-point estimation technique to estimate the test effort for a new high-risk feature. The following estimates were made:

Most optimistic estimation: 2 person-hours
Most likely estimation: 11 person-hours
Most pessimistic estimation: 14 person-hours

What is the final estimate?

9 person-hours
14 person-hours
11 person-hours
10 person-hours ✔

Q50. You are testing a mobile application that allows users to find a nearby restaurant based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (i.e., a smaller number means a higher priority), and dependencies:

Which of the following test cases should be executed as the third one?

TC 003
TC 005 ✔
TC 002
TC 001

Q51. Consider the following test categories (1-4) and agile testing quadrants (A-D):

1. Usability testing
2. Component testing
3. Functional testing
4. Reliability testing
A. Agile testing quadrant Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team
B. Agile testing quadrant Q2: business-facing, supporting the development team
C. Agile testing quadrant Q3: business facing, critique the product
D. Agile testing quadrant Q4: technology facing, critique the product

How do the following test categories map onto the agile testing quadrants?

a) 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D
b) 1D, 2A, 3C, 4B
c) 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A
d) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A ✔

Q52. During a risk analysis, the following risk was identified and assessed:

Risk: Response time is too long to generate a report
Risk likelihood: medium; risk impact: high
Response to risk:
An independent test team performs performance testing during system testing
A selected sample of end users performs alpha and beta acceptance testing before the release

What measure is proposed to be taken in response to this analyzed risk?

a) Risk Acceptance
b) Contingency plan
c) Risk mitigation ✔
d) Risk transfer

Q53. Given the following risks:

Ineffective loop implementation causes long system responses
Consumers change their preferences
Flooding of the server room

Patients above a certain age receive inaccurate reports and the following mitigation activities:

Risk acceptance
Performance testing
Using boundary value analysis as the test technique
Risk transfer

Which of the following BEST matches the risks with the mitigation activities?

1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
1B, 2A, 3D, 4C ✔
1C, 2A, 3D, 4B

Q54. Which of the following is a product quality metric?

Mean time to failure
Number of defects found
Requirements coverage
Defect detection percentage ✔

Q55. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?

To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests
To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage must be achieved”
To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form of this report
To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test strategy requires this test level ✔

Q56. What does the test pyramid model show?

That tests may have different priorities
That tests may have different granularity ✔
That tests may require different coverage criteria
That tests may depend on other tests

Q57.Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?

All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version-controlled ✔
All changes in the test environment elements are tracked
All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans
All identified defects have an assigned status

Q58. The team wants to estimate the time needed for one tester to execute four test cases for a software component. The team has gathered the following measures of the effort used to execute a single test case:

Best-case scenario: 1 hour
Worst-case scenario: 8 hours
Most likely scenario: 3 hours

Given that the three-point estimation technique is being used, what is the final estimate of the time needed to execute all four test cases?

a) 14 hours ✔
b) 3.5 hours
c) 16 hours
d) 12 hours

Q59. How can the testing quadrants be beneficial for testing?

They help in test planning by dividing the test process into four stages, corresponding to the four basic test levels: component, integration, system, and acceptance testing
They help in assessing the high-level coverage (e.g., requirements coverage) based on low-level coverage (e.g., code coverage)
They help non-technical stakeholders understand the different types of tests and that some test types are more relevant to certain test levels than others ✔
They help agile teams to develop a communication strategy based on classifying people according to four basic psychological types, and on modelling the relations between them

Q60. For a given risk, its risk level is $1,000 and its risk likelihood is estimated as 50%. What is the risk impact?

$500
$2,000 ✔
$50,000
$200

Q61. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose for a test report?

a) Tracking test progress and identifying areas that require further attention
b) Providing information on the tests executed, their results, and any issues or defects found
c) Providing information about each defect, such as the steps to reproduce it
d) Providing information on testing planned for the next period ✔

Q62. Given the following test tool categories:

i. Collaboration tools
ii. DevOps tools
iii. Management tools
iv. Non-functional testing tools
v. Test design and implementation tools

Tools from which of the categories are MOST likely to facilitate test execution?

a) i, v
b) ii, iv
c) i, iii, v
d) ii, iii, iv ✔

Q63. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a risk of test automation?

The detection of additional high-severity defects
Providing measures that are too complicated for humans to derive
Incompatibility with the development platform ✔
Substantially reduced test execution times

Q64. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

It provides coverage measures that are too complicated for humans to derive
It shares responsibility for the testing with the tool vendor
It removes the need for critical thinking when analyzing test results
It generates test cases from an analysis of the program code ✔

Q65. Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects, and configuration management?

Test execution and coverage tools
Test design and implementation tools
Defect management tools
Test management tools ✔

Q66. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?

The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis
The achievement of increased coverage through a more objective assessment
The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power
The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability ✔

Introduction to Gen Ai Studio with Google Cloud Quiz Questions and Answers

2024-09-01T05:01:00.000-07:00

Introduction to Gen AI

introduction to gen ai studio with google cloud by chaituinfoblogs

Quiz questions with answers

1. Which of the following is the best way to generate more creative or unexpected content by adjusting the model parameters in Generative AI Studio?

Setting the temperature to a high value ✔
Setting the temperature to a low value
Setting the top K to 1
Setting the top P to 25%

2. Which of the following is a type of prompt that allows a large language model to perform a task with only a few examples?

Few-shot prompt ✔
Unsupervised prompt
One-shot prompt
Zero-shot prompt

3. What is a prompt?

A prompt is a short piece of text that is used to guide a large language model to generate content. ✔
A prompt is a long piece of text that explains how a large language model generates text.
A prompt is a piece of text that is used to train a large language model.
A prompt is a piece of text that is used to evaluate a large language model.

4. How does generative AI generate new content?

It learns from a massive amount of existing content. ✔
The training leads to a foundation model that cannot be further tuned with a new dataset.
It is programmed based on predetermined algorithms that can not be altered.
It is a random process.

5. What is Generative AI Studio?

A tool that helps you use Generative Al capabilities in your application. ✔
A type of artificial intelligence that writes emails for you.
A machine learning model that is trained on text only.
A technology that lets you code programming languages without learning them.

6. What action does Google recommend organizations take to ensure that AI is used responsibly?

Seek participation from a diverse range of people ✔
Follow a top-down approach to increase AI adoption
Use a checklist to evaluate responsible AI
Focus on being efficient

7. Which of the following is recommended by Google as most important in establishing AI governance?

Building practices around ethical decision-making ✔
Encouraging people to make decisions based on their own values
Creating decision trees to address common ethical situations
Developing technical tools to evaluate ML models

8. According to Google's AI Principles, bias can enter into the system at only specific points in the ML. lifecycle.

False ✔
True

9. Google's approach to responsible AI is based on which of the following commitments? (Select 4)

It respects privacy. ✔
It's built for everyone. ✔
It's accountable and safe. ✔
It's driven by scientific excellence. ✔
It eliminates team disagreements.
It speeds up product development processes.

10. You want to create a chatbot by using generative AI. Which application should you use?

Generative AI Studio
PALM API
Vertex AI ✔
Bard

11. Which of the following tools can be used to help developers train ML models on their data by using different algorithms?

PaLM API with MakerSuite
Generative AI App Builder
Generative AI Studio ✔
Bard

12. What are some benefits of prompt tuning? (Select 2)

Enables large language models (LLMS) to adapt to a wide range of tasks ✔
Helps large language models (LLMs) generate more accurate responses ✔
Enables large language models (LLMS) to be trained on small amounts of data
Increases large language models (LLMS) production of unbiased responses
Generalizes large language models (LLMs) commands to conduct versatile tasks

13. Prompt tuning is a technique for:

Improving the output quality of large language models. ✔
Making large language models more accurate.
Making large language models more versatile.
Training large language models.

14. Your company has a large language model (LLM) to help employees with their everyday tasks. You want to teach your colleagues about prompt design. Which of the following is a good example of a well-designed prompt?

Translate the following sentence into French: Hello, how are you today? ✔
Can you tell me how long a really long paragraph can be before it's too long?
When does my manager expect me to complete my project?
What is the meaning of life?

15. The performance of large language models (LLMs) generally improves as more data and parameters are added.

True ✔
False

16. Most organizations have the capability to train large language models (LLMS) from scratch.

False ✔
True

17. Which of the following are examples of pre-training for a large language model (LLM)? (Select 3)

Text classification ✔
Document summarization ✔
Financial forecasting
Question answering ✔

18. Which are examples of tasks that Bard code generation can perform? (Select 3)

Debug your lines of source code ✔
Detect emerging security vulnerabilities
Explain your code to you line by line ✔
Translate code from one language to another ✔

19. Your teammate is using Generative AI App Builder to create an app for generating images. Which benefit of Generative AI App Builder most likely led your teammate to choose this approach?

Creating app content without writing code ✔
Access to existing creative works
A built-in forum for developers to ask questions
Monitoring app performance across different platforms

20. You want to organize documents into distinct groups, without predefining the groups. Which type of machine learning model should you use?

Unsupervised learning model ✔
Supervised learning model
Natural language processing (NLP) model
Discriminative deep learning model

21. You are planning a trip to Germany in a few months, You've booked a hotel that includes dinner. You want to email the hotel so they are aware of your food preferences. Using gen AI, you can easily generate an email in German using English prompts Which gen AI training model enables you to do this?

Text-to-text ✔
Text-to-image
Text-to-video
Text-to-3D

22. How does generative AI work?

It uses a neural network to learn from a large dataset. ✔
It uses a generic algorithm to evolve a population of models until it finds one that can generate the desired output.
It uses a rule-based system to generate output based on a set of predefined rules.
It uses the internet to repeat answers for common questions.

23. You want to explain to a colleague how gen AI works. Which of the following would be a good explanation?

Gen AI learns from existing data and then creates new content that is similar to the data it was trained on. ✔
Gen AI determines the relationship between datasets and classifies data according to existing data sets.
Gen AI randomly generates new content without any input from existing data.
Gen AI uses a set of rules to generate new content that is always unique and original.

24. What is machine learning?

Programs or systems that learn from data instead of being explicitly programmed ✔
Artificial intelligence technology that can produce various types of content
Large, general purpose language models
Algorithms used to describe and create new data

25. Which of the following is a potential use of generative AI?

A customer service chatbot ✔
A robot that performs mechanical tasks ✔
Automatic reading of X-rays ✔
Predicting future sales ✔

26. What are some of the challenges of using LLMs? Select three options.

They can be expensive to train. ✔
They can be biased. ✔
After being developed, they only change when they are fed new data.
They can be used to generate harmful content. ✔

27. What are some of the applications of LLMs?

LLMS can be used for many tasks, including: writing, translating, coding, answering questions, summarizing text, and generating non-creative discrete probabilities.
LLMs can be used for many tasks, including: writing, translating, coding, answering questions, summarizing text, and generating creative content. ✔
LLMs can be used for many tasks, including: writing, translating, coding, answering questions, summarizing text, and generating non-creative discrete probabilities, classes, and predictions.
LLMs can be used for many tasks, including: writing, translating, coding, answering questions, summarizing text, and generating non-creative discrete predictions.
LLMs can be used for many tasks, including: writing, translating, coding, answering questions, summarizing text, and generating non-creative discrete classes.

28. What are some of the benefits of using large language models (LLMS)?

LLMs have many benefits, including: (1) they can generate probabilities and human-quality text, (2) they can be used for many tasks, such as text summarization and code generation, (3) they can be trained on massive datasets of text and code, and (4) they are constantly being improved. ✔
LLMs have many benefits, including: (1) they can generate discrete classes and human-quality text, (2) they can be used for many tasks, such as text summarization and code generation, (3) they can be trained on massive datasets of text and code, and (4) they are constantly improving.
LLMs have a number of benefits, including: (1) they can generate non-probabilities and human-quality text, (2) they can be used for many tasks, such as text summarization and code generation, (3) they can be trained on massive datasets of text, image, and code, and (4) they are constantly improving.
LLMs have many benefits, including: (1) they can generate human-quality text, (2) they can be used for a variety of tasks, (3) they can be trained on massive datasets of text and code, and (4) they are constantly improved.

29. What are large language models (LLMs)?

Generative Al is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that only can create new content, such as text, images, audio, and video by learning from new data and then using that knowledge to predict a classification output.
Generative Al is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that only can create new content, such as text, images, audio, and video by learning from new data and then using that knowledge to predict a discrete, supervised learning output.
An LLM is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that can generate human-quality text. LLMs are trained on massive datasets of text and code, and they can be used for many tasks, such as writing, translating, and coding ✔
Generative Al is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that can create new content, such as discrete numbers, classes, and probabilities. It does this by learning from existing data and then using that knowledge to generate new and unique outputs.

30. Why is responsible AI practice important to an organization?

Responsible AI practice can help drive revenue.
Responsible AI practice can improve communication efficiency.
Responsible AI practice can help improve operational efficiency.
Responsible AI practice can help build trust with customers and stakeholders. ✔

31. Organizations are developing their own AI principles that reflect their mission and values. What are the common themes among these principles?

A consistent set of ideas about transparency, fairness, and equity.
A consistent set of ideas about fairness, accountability, and inclusion.
A consistent set of ideas about transparency, fairness, accountability, and privacy. ✔
A consistent set of ideas about transparency, fairness, and diversity.

32. Which of the below is one of Google's 7 AI principles?

AI should create unfair bias.
AI should gather or use information for surveillance.
AI should uphold high standards of operational excellence.
AI should uphold high standards of scientific excellence. ✔

33. Which of these is correct with regard to applying responsible AI practices?

Decisions made at all stages in a project make an impact on responsible AI. ✔
Only decisions made by the project owner at any stage in a project make an impact on responsible AI.
Decisions made at an early stage in a project do not make an impact on responsible AI.
Decisions made at a late stage in a project do not make an impact on responsible AI.

34. What is the name of the machine learning architecture that takes a sequence of words as input and outputs a sequence of words?

Collaborative natural network
Regressive neural networking
Encoder-decoder ✔
Large stream text manipulation

35. What is the purpose of the decoder in an encoder-decoder architecture?

To generate the output sequence from the vector representation ✔
To convert the input sequence into a vector representation
To predict the next word in the output sequence
To learn the relationship between the input and output sequences

36. What is the difference between greedy search and beam search?

Greedy search always selects the word with the lowest probability, whereas beam search considers multiple possible words and selects the one with the lowest combined probability.
Greedy search considers multiple possible words and selects the one with the lowest combined probability, whereas beam search always selects the word with the lowest probability.
Greedy search considers multiple possible words and selects the one with the highest combined probability, whereas beam search always selects the word with the highest probability.
Greedy search always selects the word with the highest probability, whereas beam search considers multiple possible words and selects the one with the highest combined probability. ✔

37. What is the purpose of the encoder in an encoder-decoder architecture?

To predict the next word in the output sequence
To convert the input sequence into a vector representation ✔
To generate the output sequence from the vector representation
To learn the relationship between the input and output sequences

38. What are two ways to generate text from a trained encoder-decoder model at serving time?

Greedy search and beam search ✔
Teacher forcing and attention
Teacher forcing and beam search
Greedy search and attention

39. What is the name of the model that is used to generate text captions for images?

Image classification model
Encoder-decoder model ✔
Bidirectional Encoder Representations from Transformers (BERT) model
Image generation model

40. What is the purpose of the encoder in an encoder-decoder model?

To extract information from the image. ✔
To translate text from one language to another.
To generate text captions for the image.
To answer your questions in an informative way, even if they are open ended, challenging, or strange.

41. What is the purpose of the attention mechanism in an encoder-decoder model?

To allow the decoder to focus on specific parts of the image when generating text captions. ✔
To generate text captions for the image.
To extract information from the image.
To translate text from one language to another.

42. What is the purpose of the decoder in an encoder-decoder model?

To learn the relationship between the input and output data
To extract information from the input data
To store the output data
To generate output data from the information extracted by the encoder ✔

43. What is the name of the dataset the video uses to train the encoder-decoder model?

MNIST dataset
COCO dataset ✔
ImageNet dataset
Fashion-MNIST dataset

44. What is the goal of the image captioning task?

To write different creative text formats, like poems, code, scripts, musical pieces, email, letters, etc.
To translate text from one language to another
To generate text captions for images ✔
To answer your questions in an informative way, even if they are open ended, challenging, or strange.

45. Which process involves a model learning to remove noise from images?

Forward diffusion
Sampling
GANS
Reverse diffusion ✔

46. What is the process of forward diffusion?

Start with a clean image and add noise randomly
Start with a noisy image and remove noise iteratively
Start with a clean image and add noise iteratively ✔
Start with a noisy image and remove noise randomly

47. What is the goal of diffusion models?

To learn the latent structure of a dataset by modeling the way in which data points diffuse through the latent space ✔
To pit two neural networks against each other
To generate images by treating an image as a sequence of vectors
To encode images to a compressed size, then decode back to the original size

48. What is the name of the model family that draws inspiration from physics and thermodynamics?

Variational autoencoders
Diffusion models ✔
Generative adversarial networks
Autoregressive models

49. How does an attention model differ from a traditional model?

Attention models pass a lot more information to the decoder. ✔
The decoder does not use any additional information.
The decoder only uses the final hidden state from the encoder.
The traditional model uses the input embedding directly in the decoder to get more context.

50. What is the name of the machine learning technique that allows a neural network to focus on specific parts of an input sequence?

Convolutional neural network (CNN)
Encoder-decoder
Long Short-Term Memory (LSTM)
Attention mechanism ✔

51. What is the name of the machine learning architecture that can be used to translate text from one language to another?

Convolutional neural network (CNN)
Neural network
Encoder-decoder ✔
Long Short-Term Memory (LSTM)

52. What is the advantage of using the attention mechanism over a traditional recurrent neural network (RNN) encoder-decoder?

The attention mechanism lets the decoder focus on specific parts of the input sequence, which can improve the accuracy of the translation. ✔
The attention mechanism requires less CPU threads than a traditional RNN encoder-decoder.
The attention mechanism is faster than a traditional RNN encoder-decader.
The attention mechanism is more cost-effective than a traditional RNN encoder-decoder.

53. What are the two main steps of the attention mechanism?

Calculating the context vector and generating the attention weights
Calculating the attention weights and generating the context vector ✔
Calculating the context vector and generating the output word
Calculating the attention weights and generating the output word

54. What is the advantage of using the attention mechanism over a traditional sequence-to-sequence model?

The attention mechanism lets the model formulate parallel outputs.
The attention mechanism lets the model focus on specific parts of the input sequence. ✔
The attention mechanism lets the model learn only short term dependencies.
The attention mechanism reduces the computation time of prediction.

55. What is the purpose of the attention weights?

To incrementally apply noise to the input data.
To assign weights to different parts of the input sequence, with the most important parts receiving the highest weights. ✔
To calculate the context vector by averaging words embedding in the context.
To generate the output word based on the input data alone.

56. BERT is a transformer model that was developed by Google in 2018. What is BERT used for?

It is used to diagnose and treat diseases.
It is used to train other machine learning models, such as Recurrent Neural Networks (RNNs) and Long Short-Term Memory (LSTM) networks.
It is used to solve many natural language processing tasks, such as question answering, text classification, and natural language inference. ✔
It is used to generate text, translate languages, and write different kinds of creative content.

57. What is the name of the language modeling technique that excused on Bidirectional Encoder Representations from Transformers (BERT)?

Gated Recurrent Unit (GRU)
Long Short-Term Memory (LSTM)
Transformer ✔
Recurrent Neural Network (RNN)

58. What is a transformer model?

A computer vision model that uses fully connected layers to learn relationships between different parts of an image.
A deep learning model that uses self-attention to learn relationships between different parts of a sequence. ✔
A natural language processing model that uses convolutions to learn relationships between different parts of a sequence.
A machine learning model that uses recurrent neural networks to learn relationships between different parts of a sequence.

59. What kind of transformer model is BERT?

Encoder-decoder model
Decoder-only model
Encoder-only model ✔
Recurrent Neural Network (RNN) encoder-decoder model

60. What is the attention mechanism?

A way of determining the importance of each word in a sentence for the translation of another sentence ✔
A way of identifying the topic of a sentence
A way of predicting the next word in a sentence
A way of determining the similarity between two sentences

61. What are the three different embeddings that are generated from an input sentence in a Transformer model?

Token, segment, and position embeddings ✔
Recurrent, feedforward, and attention embeddings
Convolution, pooling, and recurrent embeddings
Embedding, classification, and next sentence embeddings

62. What does fine-tuning a BERT model mean?

Training the model on a specific task and not updating the pre-trained weights
Training the hyper-parameters of the models on a specific task
Training the model on a specific task by using a large amount of unlabeled data
Training the model and updating the pre-trained weights on a specific task by using labeled data ✔

63. What are the two sublayers of each encoder in a Transformer model?

Recurrent and feedforward
Convolution and pooling
Self-attention and feedforward ✔
Embedding and classification

64. What are the encoder and decoder components of a transformer model?

The encoder ingests an input sequence and produces a sequence of images. The decoder takes in the images from the encoder and produces an output sequence.
The encoder ingests an input sequence and produces a sequence of tokens. The decoder takes in the tokens from the encoder and produces an output sequence.
The encoder ingests an input sequence and produces a sequence of hidden states. The decoder takes in the hidden states from the encoder and produces an output sequence. ✔
The encoder ingests an input sequence and produces a single hidden state. The decoder takes in the hidden state from the encoder and produces an output sequence.

65. What are foundation models in Generative AI?

A foundation model is a large AI model pretrained on a vast quantity of data that was "designed to be adapted" (or fine- tuned) to a wide range of downstream tasks, such as sentiment analysis, image captioning, and object recognition. ✔
A foundation model is a large AI model both post and pre-trained on a vast quantity of data that was "designed to be adapted" (or fine-tuned) to a wide range of downstream tasks, such as sentiment analysis, image captioning, and object recognition.
A foundation model is a large AI model post-trained on a vast quantity of data that was "designed to be adapted" (or fine-tuned) to a wide range of downstream tasks, such as sentiment analysis, image captioning, and object recognition.
A foundation model is a small AI model pretrained on a small quantity of data that was "designed to be adapted" (or fine-tuned) to a wide range of downstream tasks, such as sentiment analysis, image captioning, and object recognition.
A foundation model is a large AI model pretrained on a vast quantity of data that was "designed to be adapted" (or fine-tuned) to a wide range of upstream tasks, such as sentiment analysis, image captioning, and object recognition.

66. What is a prompt?

A prompt is a long piece of text that is given to the large language model as input, and it cannot be used to control the output of the model.
A prompt is a short piece of code that is given to the large language model as input, and it can be used to control the output of the model in many ways.
A prompt is a short piece of text that is given to the large language model as input, and it can be used to control the input of the model in many ways.
A prompt is a short piece of text that is given to the small language model (SLM) as input, and it can be used to control the output of the model in many ways.
A prompt is a short piece of text that is given to the large language model as input, and it can be used to control the output of the model in many ways. ✔

67. What is Generative AI?

Generative AI is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that can only create new content, such as text, images, audio, and video by learning from new data and then using that knowledge to predict a classification output.
Generative AI is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that can create new content, such as text, images, audio, and video. It does this by learning from existing data and then using that knowledge to generate new and unique outputs. ✔
Generative AI is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that can only create new content, such as text, images, audio, and video by learning from new data and then using that knowledge to predict a discrete, supervised learning output.
Generative AI is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that can create new content, such as discrete numbers, classes, and probabilities. It does this by learning from existing data and then using that knowledge to generate new and unique outputs.

68. What is an example of both a generative AI model and a discriminative AI model?

A generative AI model could be trained on a dataset of images of cats and then used to generate new images of cats. A discriminative AI model could be trained on a dataset of images of cats and dogs and then used to classify new images as either cats or dogs.
A generative AI model could be trained on a dataset of images of cats and then used to classify new images of cats. A discriminative AI model could be trained on a dataset of images of cats and dogs and then used to predict new images as either cats or dogs. ✔
A generative AI model could be trained on a dataset of images of cats and then used to generate new images of cats. A discriminative AI model could be trained on a dataset of images of cats and dogs and then used to classify new images as either cats or dogs.
A generative AI model does not need to be trained on a dataset of images of cats and then used to generate new images of cats, because the Images were already generated by using AI. A discriminative AI model could be trained on a dataset of images of cats and dogs and then used to classify new images as either cats or dogs.

69. Hallucinations are words or phrases that are generated by the model that are often nonsensical or grammatically incorrect. What are some factors that can cause hallucinations? Select three options.

The model is not given enough context. ✔
The model is trained on noisy or dirty data. ✔
The model is trained on too much data.
The model is not trained on enough data. ✔

Solution to the Front-End Developer Assessment Test by Media Monks

2024-02-09T23:28:00.000-08:00

Hey everyone! Today, I'll be crafting an HTML page assigned by Media Monks as part of the initial interview assessment process. In this post, you'll discover the key principles behind creating effective HTML pages and explore the essential HTML elements necessary for dynamic webpage construction.

1. Create a simple webpage with dynamic slides moving forward and backward when pressing the buttons. for your reference below I'm providing output screenshots checkout.

Complete Code:

<!DOCTYPE html>

<html>

<head>

</head>

<body>

</div>

</div>

</div>

</div>

</div>

<style>

/*privew button*/

#prev_btn {

height: 25px;

width: 25px;

margin-top: -615px;

margin-left: -200px;

}

/*next button*/

#next_btn {

height: 25px;

width: 25px;

margin-top: -615px;

margin-right: 1070px;

}

/*banner creation*/

.banner {

border:solid black 2px;

width: 300px;

height: 250px;

}

/* logo design*/

#logo {

width: 100px;

height: 40px;

margin-left: 100px;

margin-top: 9px;

margin-bottom: 3px;

}

/*dividing line for images and logo*/

#line {

width: 304px;

height: 150px;

margin-left: -4px;

margin-top: -70px;

}

* {

box-sizing: border-box

}

body{

margin:0

}

/*changing image margins*/

.mySlides {

margin-top: -72px;

display: none

}

/*making image sizes as suitable for banner*/

img {

width: 296px;

height: 186px;

vertical-align: middle;

}

/* Slideshow container */

.slideshow-container {

max-width: 1000px;

position: relative;

margin: auto;

}

/* Next & previous buttons */

.prev, .next {

cursor: pointer;

position: absolute;

top: 50%;

width: auto;

padding: 16px;

margin-top: -22px;

user-select: none;

}

/* Position the "next button" to the right */

.next {

right: 0;

border-radius: 3px 0 0 3px;

}

/* Fading animation */

.fade {

-webkit-animation-name: fade;

-webkit-animation-duration: 1.5s;

animation-name: fade;

animation-duration: 1.5s;

}

@-webkit-keyframes fade {

from {opacity: .4}

to {opacity: 1}

}

@keyframes fade {

from {opacity: .4}

to {opacity: 1}

}

/* On smaller screens, decrease text size */

@media only screen and (max-width: 300px) {

.prev, .next {

width: 100%;

}

</style>

var slideIndex = 1;

showSlides(slideIndex);

function plusSlides(n) {

showSlides(slideIndex += n);

}

function currentSlide(n) {

showSlides(slideIndex = n);

}

function showSlides(n) {

var i;

var slides = document.getElementsByClassName("mySlides");

var dots = document.getElementsByClassName("dot");

if (n > slides.length) {slideIndex = 1}

if (n < 1) {slideIndex = slides.length}

for (i = 0; i < slides.length; i++) {

slides[i].style.display = "none";

}

for (i = 0; i < dots.length; i++) {

dots[i].className = dots[i].className.replace(" active", "");

}

slides[slideIndex-1].style.display = "block";

dots[slideIndex-1].className += " active";

}

</script>

</body>

</html>

Flyflat Junior Operations Associate Assessment Test Answers

2023-11-11T21:17:00.000-08:00

junior operations associate questions

1. An hourly worker whose wage is $15 per hour will be paid how much for an eight-hour shift?

$60

$90

$120 -> Answer

$135

$150

2. which of the following is the smallest value?

1.305

0.5301

0.2

3.15

0.02 -> Answer

3. in one month, a farm produces 1200 pounds of potatoes. in the following month, the amount of potatoes it produces increases by 15% over the previous month. how many potatoes does it produce in the second month?

1280 pounds

1320 pounds

1350 pounds

1380 pounds -> Answer

1450 pounds

4. which of the following boxes should replace the question mark(?)to complete the pattern?

D -> Answer

5. which of the following boxes should replace the question mark(?)to complete the pattern?

C -> Answer

6. which of the following boxes should replace the question mark(?)to complete the pattern?

A -> Answer

7. which of the following boxes should replace the question mark(?)to complete the pattern?

C -> Answer

8. PENCIL is to WRITE as ...

CLOWN is to CIRCUS -> Answer

TYPING is to ESSAY

OVEN is to BAKE

BALLOON is to INFLATE

EXPERIENCE is to EVENT

9. PAPER is to THIN as ...

FLEA is to TINY -> Answer

BINDER is to ORGANIZE

PRINTER is to COPY

RABBIT is to WISHFUL

SPOON is to SULKY

10. PROFICIENT is to PRACTICE as ...

STRONG is to EXERCISE -> Answer

EXPERT is to PREFERENCE

IGNORANT is to DISPUTE

CONCEDE is to PERMIT

INFORMED is to GENEROSITY

11. Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Under her mentor's____________, guided by the mentor's decades of experience, the new employee quickly developed the skills that she needed to excel in her job.

pilferage

suffrage

shortage

umbrage

tutelage -> Answer

12. Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

when trying to inspire others, a(n)_______statement rooted in personal values can be more useful than a generic________.

brackish..spiel

bombastic..diatribe

aimless..slogan

inane..pitch

stirring..platitude -> Answer

13. Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Given his________for eating unhealthy foods, the patient was advised to________his daily caloric intake and to get more exercise.

affection..enhance

penchant..induce

propensity..restrict -> Answer

disinclination..reduce

habit..contain

14. Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

The company needed to find a way to quantify and_____the productivity of its employees in order to decide who deserved raises that year.

correspond

stabilize

mitigate

counteract

measure -> Answer

15. which of the following does not belong?

B -> Answer

16. which of the following does not belong?

C -> Answer

17. which of the following does not belong?

D -> Answer

18. which of the following does not belong?

D -> Answer

19. A restaurant has a special where all appetizers are sold at a discount of 20%. If the regular price of an appetizer is $10, how many appetizers could be bought at the discount price if a customer spent $64?

8 -> Answer

20. 6 is 15% of what number?

40 -> Answer

21. what would be the next group of letters in the following series?

xrfm...xqen...xpdo...xocp?

xnbp -> Answer

xndo

xnbq

xpbp

xpbq

22. Assume the first two statements are true. Is the final statement: 1)True, 2)false, or 3)Uncertain based on the information provided?

All of the members of the baseball team also liked basketball.

Derek liked basketball.

Derek was a member of the baseball team.

True -> Answer

False

Uncertain

23. Assume the first two statements are true. Is the final statement: 1)True, 2)False, or 3)uncertain based on the information provided?

Jay was hired before Barbara.

Chris was hired after Jay.

Barbara was hired before Chris.

True -> Answer

False

Uncertain

24. Assume the first two statements are true. Is the final statement: 1)True, 2)False, or 3)uncertain based on the information provided?

All members of the orchestra attended the concert.

Lisa attended the concert

Lisa was a member of the orchestra.

True -> Answer

False

Uncertain

25. How many of the five items in the left-hand column are exactly the same as the corresponding entry in the right-hand column?

Emory Capital Emery capital

Wu Family Dentistry Wu's Family Dentistry

Howerton Enterprises Howerton Enterprises

Johnson Engineering Johnston Engineering

Sonoma Designs Sonora Designs

1 -> Answer

26. How many of the five items in the left-hand column are exactly the same as the corresponding entry in the right-hand column?

Interstate Oil Co. Interstate Oil Co.

Fillmore Title Co. Fillmore Title Corp.

Premium Brands Premium Brands

GBC Restaurant Group GBC Restaurant Group

Billings Roofing Supply Billings Roofing Supply

4 -> Answer

27. How many of the five items in the left-hand column are exactly the same as the corresponding entry in the right-hand column?

3351 Mclntyre Dr. 3351 Mclntyre Dr.

9872 Aguacate Ct. 9872 Aguacate Ct.

176 N. Fourteenth St. 176 N. Fortieth St.

801 Sycamore Ln. 801 Sycamore Ln.

520 Causeway Blvd. #12 520 Causeway Blvd. #12

4 -> Answer

28. which of the following boxes should replace the question mark(?)to complete the pattern?

E -> Answer

29. which of the following boxes should replace the question mark(?)to complete the pattern?

B -> Answer

30. which of the following boxes should replace the question mark(?)to complete the pattern?

B -> Answer

31. What would be the next number in the following series

2 ... 3 ... 5 ... 8 ... 13 ...?

21 -> Answer

32. A data analyst uses 1.25 megabytes of storage on her computer for each data extraction performed. if she performs 140 data extractions per month, how many megabytes of storage will she need each month?

168

170

174

175 -> Answer

181

33. A company has two production facilities that have production capacities of 100 units per day, and 60 units per day, respectively. how long will it take for both locations to produce a combined total of 2,000 units?

9.5 days

12.5 days -> Answer

14 days

15.5 days

20 days

34. choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

the angry teacher_________the troubled student for his frequent problematic behavior.

touted

castigated -> Answer

exculpated

endorsed

condoned

35. choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

although his minimalistic presentation was not the most______in terms of formatting and data visualization, the information that he provided was groundbreaking and well-received by his audience.

tiresome

elegant -> Answer

indecorous

dubious

formulaic

36. The table below displays the sales figures for a group of realtors over a 2-year period. what was the approximate average sales price for the houses sold by Mrs.Boggs in year 1?

$250,000

$310,000

$333,333

$350,000 -> Answer

$430,000

37. A group of four numbers has an average(arithmetic mean)of 13. The first three numbers are 10,17, and 5. what is the other number?

20 -> Answer

38. A home is purchased for $600,000. the owners have the home reappraised every five years. its value appreciates 10% in the first five years and another 10% in the next five years. what is the value of the home after ten years?

$726,000 -> Answer

$750,000

$792,000

$825,000

$900,000

39. A restaurant buys 1500 eggs per week, at $1.50 per dozen. if the cost per dozen eggs rises to $1.80, how much more will the restaurant have to pay for eggs per week?

$23.25

$35

$32.75

$37.50 -> Answer

$28.50

40. choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE to the word in capital letters.

OBFUSCATE

coordinate

facilitate

demystify -> Answer

bamboozle

enunciate

41. choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE to the word in capital letters.

CARDINAL

primary

trivial -> Answer

key

chief

sloppy

42. INTERESTING is to RIVETING as...

DELIGHTFUL is to OVERPOWERING -> Answer

ETHEREAL is to APPEALING

LEGITIMATE is to COMMONPLACE

RISKY is to PERILOUS

CORPOREAL is to TAME

43. SEQUESTER is to INTEGRATE as...

ALLY is to CABAL

INCORPORATE is to ABSORB

DEBASE is to DIGNIFY

SEQUENCE is to NUMBER

EXCLUDE is to PROHIBIT -> Answer

44. Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Rumors can form at work when people share________claims about their coworkers, which can lead to a(n)________workplace culture.

defiant..wary

flattering..aloof

baseless..hostile -> Answer

egregious..collegial

legitimate..asocial

45. The average(arithmetic mean)of 4 numbers is more than 15 but less than 17.

Which of the following could be the sum of these four numbers?

61 -> Answer

46. For a road trip a car of travelers can take the direct route or the scenic route. The scenic route takes 25% longer than the direct route. The group decides to take the direct route to their destination, and the scenic route on the return trip. If the total travel time to and from the destination is 12 hours, how long did the scenic route take?

6 hours and 2 minutes

6 hours and 40 minutes -> Answer

7 hours

7 hours and 20 minutes

7 hours and 40 minutes

47. What is the average(arithmetic mean)of the following numbers:1,4,8,17, and 32?

8.0

10.3

12.0

12.4 -> Answer

15.5

48. An office supply store sells pencils from five different brands, each with five different colors, and in three different sizes. How many different combinations of brand, color, and size are possible?

75 -> Answer

100

125

49. An investor buys stock in a company and in the twelve months after she invests the value of the stock decreases by 30%. By what amount will the value of the stock need to go up from there in order that the price of the stock will be equal to what the investor first paid for it?

30%

37.5%

42.9% -> Answer

45%

46.7%

50. The chart below shows the sales of the three most popular smoothies at Phoebe's Smoothies. Which smoothie experienced the greatest increase in sales from one year to the next?

Strawberry in Year 2 versus Year 1

Strawberry in year 3 versus Year 2

Mango in Year 3 versus Year 2

Banana in Year 2 versus Year 1

Banana in Year 3 versus Year 2 -> Answer

Also, read:-

Capgemini Interview Questions Pattern with Full Syllabus

Automotive Validation Engineer Interview Questions and Answers

Amazon Associate – Retail Process Interview Questions and Answers

Capgemini Interview Questions Pattern with Full Syllabus

2023-10-25T01:13:00.006-07:00

Important things to know about Capgemini Essay Writing Topics

1) The essay should ideally be of 300-400 words. Less than 300 words are not advisable.

2) It is advisable to write the essay in simple English. Avoid using complex terminology.

3) Make sure there are no grammatical mistakes in your essay.

4) Do not write the essay as 1 paragraph with 300-400 words. Rather divide it into several paragraphs. This gives a structured impression when someone looks at your essay.

6) Try to write the essay in the following structure:

a) Introduction/Definition

b) Body (Focusing on main points)

c) Conclusion (Crisp and clear)

Capgemini Essay Writing Topics (Most asked in recent drives)

Here are a few essay writing topics that have been asked in the Capgemini off-campus/on-campus drives

1) Social media has made it easier to misuse one’s right to freedom of expression.

2) Violent video games affect children negatively.

3) Success comes to those who take risks.

4) People today are more materialistic and less satisfied than previous generations.

5) Do you think progress is always good? Cite examples to support your view.

6) At least one form of physical training should be mandatory across education institutes.

7) Social media has made us less social.

8) The winner stands alone.

9) Do ethics or moral principles change with time? Cite examples to support your view.

Capgemini Essay Writing Topics (Sample answers)

Topic: Social media has made us less social.

Sample Essay:

Has social media made us less social? It indeed had a great influence on us. Given the measure of its impact, it naturally attracted some criticism. While social media has its own cons, it has only helped humans build new relationships in this fast-paced world and stay more connected with it.

Here’s a common argument against social media: People interact with their devices more than they do with people or the environment around them. Thus, social media is making them less social.

Well, Social media has been nothing more than a facilitator. A facilitator for information flow. The amount of information and knowledge one can accumulate through social media is immense. It has erased boundaries and helped communities grow. It has made learning easy and efficient. While the free flow of information might pose some long-term problems, the positives outweigh the negatives.

The distance between people has a huge role in the level of communication between them. It is hard to imagine the scenario if there weren’t any social media. Thanks to social media this distance just got reduced to almost nothing. You can keep up with the lives of people you care for, and always be there for them. Social media made communication easy and efficient. It made communication real-time, just like two people having a conversation.

If a kid is spending a lot of time on his computer, the parents have every right to be concerned. But, chances are the kid is picking up skills relevant to today’s tech world. Having said that, it is also equally important that one develops the necessary people skills. There is definitely a concern around the diminishing art of conversation, that needs to be addressed. Blaming social media is definitely not one of the many possible solutions.

In conclusion, think of it this way. Anything that helps us stay more connected with our friends, family and the outside world isn’t essentially making us less social. Social media is just a tool to stay connected. Nothing more, nothing less.

Capgemini Logical Reasoning Questions – Syllabus

The syllabus for Logical reasoning questions asked in the Logical reasoning section is as below.

Questions on Visual Reasoning
Statements and Conclusions
Data sufficiency
Blood relations
Attention to detail

Topic	Number of questions
Visual Reasoning	3 or 4
Statements and Conclusions	2 or 3
Data sufficiency	3 or 4
Relationships	2 or 3
Attention to detail	3 or 4

Capgemini Logical Reasoning Questions with answers

Capgemini's logical reasoning questions with detailed solutions are given here. If you practice these questions well, then you can easily answer 70% of the Capgemini logical reasoning questions. These questions are the most repeated Capgemini logical reasoning questions asked in previous drives.

Capgemini Logical Reasoning questions – Set 1

Directions for 1 – 5:
1) Look carefully at the sequence of symbols to find the pattern. Select the correct pattern.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Ans: d

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Ans: c

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Ans: a

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Ans: b

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Ans: c

6) Statement: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario for many developing countries in days to come.

Conclusions:

I. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in the future.

II. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide their people a decent quality of life.

a) The only conclusion I follow

b) Only conclusion II follows

c) Either I or II follows

d) Neither I nor II follows

Ans: b

Explanation:
The fact given in I is quite contrary to the given statement. So, I do not follow, II mentions the direct implications of the state discussed in the statement. Thus, II follows.

7) Statement: Any student who does not behave properly while in the school brings a bad name to himself and also to the school.

Conclusions:

I. Such a student should be removed from the school.

II. Stricter discipline does not improve the behavior of the students.

a) The only conclusion I follow

b) Only conclusion II follows

c) Either I or II follows

d) Neither I nor II follows

Ans: d

Explanation:
Clearly, I cannot be deduced from the statement. Also, nothing about discipline is mentioned in the statement. So, neither I nor II follows.

8) Statement: A man must be wise to be a good wrangler. Good wranglers are talkative and boring.

Conclusions:

I. All the wise persons are boring.

II. All the wise persons are wranglers

a) The only conclusion I follow

b) Only conclusion II follows

c) Either I or II follows

d) Neither I nor II follows

Ans: d

Directions: 9-10

In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion that logically follows from the given statements.

9) Statement: A factory worker has five children. No one else in the factory has five children.

Conclusions:

a) All workers in the factory have five children each.

b) Everybody in the factory has children.

c) Some of the factory workers have more than five children.

d) Only one worker in the factory has exactly five children.

Ans: d

10) Statement: All beggars are poor.

Conclusions:

a) If A is a beggar, then A is not rich.

b) If A is not rich, then A is not a beggar.

c) All those who are poor are beggars.

d) If A is rich, then A is not a beggar.

Ans: d

Capgemini Logical Reasoning questions- set 2

11) Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Suresh related to that boy?

A. Brother B. Uncle C. Cousin D. Father

Ans: D

Explanation:
Suresh’s mother’s only son is Suresh himself. So, the boy in the photo is Suresh’s son, i.e. Suresh is the boy’s father.

12) Given, M % N means M is the son of N, M @ N means M is the sister of N, and M $ N means M is the father of N. Which of the following shows the relation that C is the granddaughter of E?

A. C % B $ F $ E B. B $ F $ E % C

C. C @ B % F % E D. E % B $ F $ C

Ans: C

Explanation:
C is the granddaughter of E.

13) ‘Reds’ are ‘blues’, ‘blues’ are ‘whites’, ‘whites’ are ‘yellows’, ‘yellows’ are ‘oranges’, ‘oranges’ are ‘pinks’, then what is the color of the sky?

A. pink B. blue C. white D. yellow

Ans: white

Explanation: Sky is blue, but blues are whites

14) In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the same code?

a) MFEDJJOE

b) EOJDEJFM

c) MFEJDJOE

d)EOJDJEFM

Ans: d

Explanation:
The letters of the word are written in reverse order and except the first and the last letter all other letters are moved one step forward.

15) In a certain code language: ‘dugo hui mul zo’ stands for ‘work is very hard’ ‘hui dugo ba ki’ for ‘Bingo is very smart’; ‘nano mul dugo’ for ‘cake is hard’; and ‘mul ki gu’ for ‘smart and hard’ Which of the following word stand for Bingo?

a) Jalu

b) Dugo

c) Ki

d) Ba

Ans: d

16) If A + B means A is the brother of B; A – B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?

a) M – N x C + F

b) F – C + N x M

c) N + M – F x C

d) M x N – C + F

Ans: d

Explanation:
M x N → M is the father of N
N – C → N is the sister of C and C + F → C is the brother of F.
Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M.

17) B5D means B is the father of D.
B9D means B is the sister of D.
B4D means B is the brother of D.
B3D means B is the wife of D.
Which of the following means F is the mother of K?

a) F3M5K

b) F5M3K

c) F9M4N3K

d) F3M5N3K

Ans: a

Explanation:
F3M → F is the wife of M
M5K → M is the father of K
Therefore, F is the mother of K.

Directions for 18-20:
Attention to detail assesses your ability to quickly spot subtle differences in short text strings. You will be shown two or more short strings of text and be required to quickly determine if they are 100% identical or not. The strings of text can be names of persons or companies, short addresses, numbers, or any other short text string. You will be working under a very strict time limit and are required to work fast but precise.

18) Try to compare the four text strings below, are they 100% identical? If not find the non-identical one.

a) 256 Hickory Heights Drive,

Hanover, 21076

b) 256 Hickory Heights Drive,

c) Hanover, 21876

d) 256 Hickory Heights Drive,

Hanover, 21076

256 Hickory Heights Drive,

Hanover, 21076

Ans: b

Explanation:
No, one of the four addresses reads ‘21876’ instead of ‘21076’. Finding this difference may have been easy for you, but remember that you will be required to answer many of these within a short time.

19) Is column A alike or different than column B?

Column A Column B

Ph #847-728-9676 Ph #847-728-9676

a) Alike

b) Different

Ans: Alike

20) Is column A alike or different than column B?

Column A Column B

Stephen M. Jackson Stephen M. Jackson

a) Alike

b) Different

Ans: Different

Capgemini's syllabus for the Quantitative aptitude sections is as follows.

Profit and Loss
Ratio and Proportion
Averages
Geometry
Data Interpretation
Time, Speed, and Distance
Algebra
Progressions

Topic	Number of questions (most probably)
Profit and Loss	2 or 3
Ratio and Proportion	1 or 2
Averages	2 or 3
Geometry	1 or 2
Data Interpretation	2 or 3
Time, Speed, and Distance	3 or 4
Algebra	1 or 2
Progressions	1 or 2

Capgemini Aptitude Questions – set 1

1) A person gains 10% while buying and 10% while selling by using false weights, so what is his total profit percentage?

(a) 15% (b) 25% (c) 20% (d) 21%

Ans: 21%

Explanation:
Here the 10% is successively increased, so (a+b+ab/100) can be used to find the overall percentage gain. %Profit = (10 + 10 + (10*10)/100) = 21

2) Seema is 5 years older than her brother Mac. The product of their ages is 204 years. What is the age of Mac?

(a) 12 years (b) 8 years (c) 6 years (d) 10 years

Ans: 12 years

Explanation:
Let the age of Mac will be x yrs. Then Seema age =x+5
Acc to question: (x+5)x = 204, by solving this we get x= 12 years.

3) Lalit marks up his goods by 40% and gives a discount of 10%. Apart from this, he uses a faulty balance, which reads 1000 gm for 800 gm. What is his net profit percentage?

(a) 57.5% (b) 57% (c) 61% (d) 62.5%

Ans: 57.5%

Explanation:
Let us assume his CP/1000 gm = Rs 100
The SP/kg (800 gm) = Rs 126
So, his CP/800 gm = Rs 80
So, profit = Rs 46
So, profit percentage = 46/80 x 100 = 57.5%

4) In a bag, there are a certain number of toy blocks with alphabets A, B, C, and D written on them. The ratio of blocks A:B:C:D is in the ratio 4:7:3:1. If the number of ‘A’ blocks is 50 more than the number of ‘C’ blocks, what is the number of ‘B’ blocks?

(a) 120 (b) 350 (c) 240 (d) 210

Ans: 350

Explanation:
Let the number of the blocks A, B, C, and D be 4x, 7x, 3x, and 1x respectively
4x = 3x + 50 → x = 50. So the number of ‘B’ blocks is 7*50 = 350.

5) If 60 ml of water contains 12% chlorine, how much water must be added in order to create an 8% chlorine solution?

(a) 10ml (b) 35ml (c) 20ml (d) 30ml

Ans: 30ml

Explanation:
Let x ml of chlorine be present in water.
Then, 12/100 = x/60 → x = 7.2 ml
Therefore, 7.2 ml is present in 60 ml of water.
In order for this 7.2 ml to constitute 8% of the solution, we need to add extra water. Let this be y ml, then 8/100 of y = 7.2ml → y = 90 ml.
So in order to get 8% chlorine solution, we need to add 90-60 = 30 ml of water.

6) If a : b = 7 : 5 and c : d = 2a : 3b, then ac : bd is :

(a) 14:15 (b) 50:147 (c) 98:75 (d) 15:14

Ans: 98:75

Explanation:
Since a and b are in the ratio 7:5. Then, let a = 7x and b = 5x.
c = 2a = 2 * 7x = 14x and d = 3b = 3 * 5x = 15x.
c : d = 14 : 15 à ac : bd = 14 * 7 : 15 * 5 = 98 : 75

7) The average score of a cricketer for ten matches is 38.9 runs. If the average for the first six matches is 42, then find the average for the last four matches.

(a) 33.25 (b) 33.5 (c) 34.25 (d) 35

Ans: 34.25

Explanation:
Total sum of last 4 matches = (10×38.9)–(6×42)
=389–252=137
Average = 137/4 = 34.25

8) A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230, and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?

(a) 4991 (b) 5467 (c) 5987 (d) 6453

Ans: Rs. 4991

Explanation:
Total sale for 5 months = Rs. (6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562) = Rs. 34009.
Required sale = Rs.[(6500 x 6) – 34009]
= Rs. (39000 – 34009) = Rs. 4991.

9) The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 61. What is the difference between the highest and lowest numbers :

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16

Ans: 8

Explanation:
Let the numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8.
Then [x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8)] / 5 = 61.
Or 5x + 20 = 305 or x = 57.
So, required difference = (57 + 8) – 57 = 8

10) A car travels at a speed of 60 km/h and returns with a speed of 40 km/h, calculate the average speed for the whole journey.

(a) 48 kmph (b) 38 kmph (c) 32 kmph (d) 16 kmph

Ans: 48 kmph

Explanation:
Since equal distances are covered at 60 kmph and 40 kmph, we can apply the formula 2xy/(x+y). Average speed = (2×40×60) / (40 + 60) = 48 kmph

Capgemini Aptitude Questions – set 2

11) A motorboat can travel at 5 km/hr in still water. It traveled 90 km downstream in a river and then returned, taking altogether 100 hours. Find the rate of flow of the river.

(a) 3 kmph (b) 3.5 kmph (c) 2 kmph (d) 4 kmph

Ans: 4 kmph

Explanation:
Speed of boat in still water = x = 5 km/hr.
Let the rate of flow of the river = y km/hr.
Therefore, speed of u/s = 5- y and speed of d / s = 5 + y
Hence, 90/(5+y) + 90/(5-y) = 100 ⇒ y = 4 km/hr.

Directions for questions 12 – 16:
Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.

12) What is the average amount of interest per year that the company had to pay during this period?

(a) 32.43 (b) 33.72 (c) 34.18 (d) 36.66

Ans: 36.66

Explanation:
Average amount of the interest paid by the company during the given period.
= [ 23.4 + 32.5 + 41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4 ]/ 5
= 183.3/ 5 = 36.66

13) The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

(a) 0.1% (b) 0.5% (c) 1.0% (d) 1.25%

Ans: 1.0 %

Explanation:
= [ (3.00 + 2.52 + 3.84 + 3.68 + 3.96) / (288 + 342 + 324 + 336 + 420) ] * 100
= [ 17/ 1710 * 100] %
~ 1%

14) Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2002?

(a) 62% (b) 66% (c) 69% (d) 71%

Ans: 69%

Explanation:
= [ (288 + 98 + 3.00 + 23.4 + 83)/(420 + 142 + 3.96 + 49.4 + 98) ] * 100
= [495.4/713.36 * 100] %
~ 69.45%

15) The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?

(a) 544.44 (b) 501.11 (c) 446.46 (d) 478.87

Ans: 544.44

Explanation:
Total expenditure of the Company during 2000 = (324 + 101 + 3.84 + 41.6 + 74) = 544.44

16) The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?

(a) 4:7 (b) 15:18 (c) 10:13 (d) 5:8

Ans: 10:13

Explanation:
[ (83 + 108 + 74 + 88 + 98) / (98 + 112 + 101 + 133 + 142) ] = [451/ 586] = 1/ 1.3
= 10/13 à 10:13

17) The sum of the third and ninth terms of an A.P. is 8. Find the sum of the first 11 terms of the progression.

(a) 44 (b) 22 (c) 19 (d) None

Ans: 44

Explanation:
The third term t3 = a + 2d
The ninth term t9 = a + 8d
t3 + t9 = 2a + 10d = 8
A sum of the first 11 terms of an AP is given by,
S11 = 11/2 [2a + 10d] = 11/2 * 8 = 44

18) How many numbers between 11 and 90 are divisible by 7?

(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13

Ans: 11

Explanation: The required numbers are 14, 21, 28, … 84
This is an A.P with a = 14, d = (21-14) = 7
Let the number of terms be n, then Tn = 84 à a + (n-1) d = 84
14 + (n-1) * 7 = 84
n = 11

19) The price of 2 sarees and 4 shirts is Rs. 1600. With the same money, one can buy 1 saree and 6 shirts. If one wants to buy 12 shirts, how much shall he have to pay?

(a) Rs. 1200 (b) Rs. 2400 (c) Rs. 4800 (d) None

Ans: Rs. 2400

Explanation:
Let the price of a saree and a shirt be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively.
Then, 2x + 4y = 1600 …. (i) and x + 6y = 1600 …. (ii).
Divide equation (i) by 2, we get the below equation.
=> x + 2y = 800. — (iii)
Now subtract (iii) from (ii)
x + 6y = 1600 (-)
x + 2y = 800
———————
4y = 800
———————
Therefore, y = 200.
Now apply the value of y in (iii)
=> x + 2 x 200 = 800
=> x + 400 = 800
Therefore x = 400
Solving (i) and (ii) we get x = 400, y = 200.
Cost of 12 shirts = Rs. (12 x 200) = Rs. 2400.

20) Simplify:

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 295 (d) 643

Ans: 4
Explanation:
Given expression à (a + b)² – (a – b)² / ab
= 4ab / ab
= 4 (where a = 469, b = 174)

Automotive Validation Engineer Interview Questions and Answers

2023-08-14T05:11:00.004-07:00

validation engineer questions

1. Can you brief about 31 service ID with subfunctions

The RoutineControl (0x31) service in the UDS protocol allows the tester to start, stop, or request the results of a routine on an ECU.

The RoutineControl service is helpful in performing various diagnostic tasks on the ECU, such as:

Erasing fault memory.
Programming or reprogramming ECU memory.
Testing or checking of RAM or ROM memory.
Testing ECU inputs or outputs.
Checking ECU calibration or configuration.
Performing self-tests or functional tests.
Activating or deactivating certain functions or features of the ECU.
Reading or writing calibration or configuration data from or to the ECU.

Preconditions:

The engine should not run (Engine speed)
The vehicle should not be moving (Vehicle speed)
The immobilizer should be unlocked
OEM or supplier-specific condition (vary from OEM to OEM)
Each routine pre-condition would change (based on customer req)
Extended diagnostic session or customer. Specific session

Subfunctions in 31 SID

01 - Start RID

02 - Stop RID

03 - Request RID result

Examples for Diagnostics

starting RID

Tx:- 31 01 F1 10

Rx:- 71 01 F1 10

Explanation:- 31 SD, 01 subfunction, F1 10 example RID, +40 will add to SID for the positive response so 71 will come

stopping RID

Tx:- 31 02 F1 10

Rx:- 71 02 F1 10

request RID result

Tx:- 31 03 F1 10

Rx:- 71 03 F1 10 01

In the request result, we have several states of RID which are

01: routine is running.

02: routine is finished successfully.

03: routine is finished with error(N_OK)

04: routine is stopped

Negative Responses:

without starting any RID, if we try to stop RID we will get NRC 24

Tx: 31 02 F1 10

Rx: 7F 31 24 -> request sequence error

Tx: 31 01 1F 01 -> starting unsupported RID

Rx: 7F 31 31 -> request out of range

Without unlocking the ECU if try to start any RID we will get NRC 33

Tx: 31 01 F1 10

Rx: 7F 31 33 -> security access denied

2. What is the DLL algorithm for the received key value?

The algorithm for calculating the received seed key value using a DLL file would depend on the specific implementation of the DLL file. Without access to the specific DLL file and its implementation, it is not possible to provide a detailed explanation of the algorithm. However, in general, a seed key value calculation algorithm might involve the following steps:

Initialization: Initialize any necessary variables or data structures required for the calculation.

Inputs: Retrieve the necessary inputs and parameters required for the calculation, such as the seed value, the encryption key, and any other data required by the algorithm.

Calculation: Perform the calculation of the seed key value using the inputs and parameters, using a mathematical function or algorithm. The specific details of the calculation would depend on the specific implementation of the DLL file.

Output: Return the calculated seed key value as the algorithm's output.

3. Explain about CAN communication time out?

A Controller Area Network (CAN) timeout will occur when a node in the network does not receive a response from another node within the specified time frame. The time frame is defined by the node's configuration and can be set to a specific value, such as 50ms, 100ms, or more.

A CAN timeout can occur due to several reasons, including:

Communication Failure: A communication failure between nodes can cause a timeout. This can be caused by a faulty cable, a broken node, or an overloaded network.

Bus Congestion: If the bus is congested with too much traffic, messages may be delayed, resulting in a timeout.

Incorrect Configuration: If the time frame for the timeout is set too short, a timeout may occur even if the communication between nodes is working correctly.

Malfunctioning Node: A malfunctioning node, such as a sensor or actuator, can cause a timeout if it does not respond within the specified time frame.

It is essential to detect CAN timeouts and identify the root cause to prevent potential problems and improve the reliability of the system.

3. Can you discuss the various types of ECUs in a vehicle and their functions?

Engine Control Module (ECM) - This ECU is responsible for controlling the engine's performance, including fuel injection, ignition timing, and emissions control.
Transmission Control Module (TCM) - The TCM is responsible for controlling the automatic transmission, including shifting and torque converter lock-up.
ABS Control Module - The ABS control module manages the Anti-Lock Brake System, helping the vehicle maintain stability and control during braking.
Airbag Control Module - The airbag control module manages the deployment of the airbags in the event of a crash.
Body Control Module (BCM) - The BCM controls various body functions, such as power windows, door locks, and lighting.
Chassis Control Module - This ECU manages suspension, steering, and braking systems to improve handling and stability.
Powertrain Control Module (PCM) - The PCM integrates the functions of the ECM and TCM, managing the overall powertrain system.
Telematics Control Unit - This ECU manages the telematics and infotainment systems, including navigation, audio, and communication functions.

4. How to create a panel in the CANoe tool?

Open CANoe software and create a new project or open an existing project.
Go to the "View" menu and select "Panels."
Click on the "New Panel" button.
Enter a name for the panel in the "Name" field.
Select the type of panel you want to create (e.g., Classic, Modern, etc.).
Add the desired widgets, such as buttons, gauges, displays, etc. to the panel.
Configure the properties of each widget as desired.
Save the panel by clicking on the "Save Panel" button.
The panel is now available for use in the project and can be opened from the "View" menu.

5. How to collect the HTML logs from the CANoe tool?

Start CANoe and open the configuration you want to log.
Go to the "Measurement" menu and select "Log Configurations".
In the Log Configuration window, select "Create Log Configuration".
In the "Create Log Configuration" window, enter a name for the log configuration and select "HTML" as the file format.
Select the channels and signals that you want to log. You can also specify the logging rate and the length of the log.
In the "Output" section, specify the location where the log files will be saved.
Click "OK" to close the "Create Log Configuration" window.
Start the measurement by clicking the "Start Measurement" button in the CANoe toolbar.
The HTML log files will be generated and saved in the specified location once the measurement is complete.

6. How to measure ECU switch on and switch off time by using the CANoe tool?

Open the CANoe software and create a new project or open an existing project.
Connect the ECU to the CAN bus network and configure the necessary settings in CANoe, such as the bus parameters and the ECU node properties.
Go to the "Measurement" menu and select "Setup Measurement."
In the "Measurement Setup" dialog box, select the "Time" tab.
In the "Time" tab, select the signals that represent the switch-on and switch-off events for the ECU.
Start the measurement by clicking on the "Start Measurement" button.
Observe the signals in the "Time" tab to determine the switch-on and switch-off times for the ECU.
The switch-on time can be measured as the time between the ECU receiving power and the first relevant signal being transmitted, while the switch-off time can be
measured as the time between the last relevant signal being transmitted and the ECU losing power.

7. Can you explain what is CANOE tool and its purpose?

CANOE (Controller Area Network Analyzer) is a tool used for testing and analyzing communication networks in the automotive industry. It is used to simulate and monitor Controller Area Network (CAN) and other in-vehicle communication networks such as FlexRay and LIN. The purpose of CANOE is to aid in the development, testing, and validation of the communication networks and the electronic control units (ECUs) connected to them, ensuring that the network operates as intended and without any faults or errors. CANOE provides features for message and protocol analysis, network simulation, and data visualization, making it a valuable tool in the automotive development process.

8. What is HIL testing and why is it important in the automotive industry?

HIL testing entails simulating vehicle and environmental inputs for the electronic control unit (ECU) under test, causing it to believe that it is reacting to real-world driving conditions on the open road. The HIL bench contains all of the relevant vehicle components. A simulator presents inputs to actual cameras and radar systems, which in turn send signals to the system under test to see whether it responds correctly to the inputs.

9. What is a bootloader and its functions in ECU?

a bootloader is a specialized software component that plays a crucial role in the management and updating of the ECU's firmware or software. The term "bootloader" is derived from "bootstrap loader," which historically referred to a small program that initiates the loading of a larger program or operating system.

The primary functions of a bootloader in an ECU include:

Firmware Update
Code Integrity and Authentication
Recovery and Redundancy
Communication Interface
Partitioning and Memory Management
Verification and Testing
Configuration and Initialization
Compatibility and Version Control

10. What is the ECU state if no software was installed?

When an ECU has no software, it's like a blank piece of paper with nothing written on it. It doesn't know what to do or how to work because it doesn't have the important instructions it needs. and it doesn't communicate with others and it can't fix or control anything because it doesn't have the right things inside.

11. What is +ve suppress bit or alive bit?

Service ID 3E means Tester Present This SID is used to provide a time delay and to make nondefault sessions alive. In this we have 0x00 and 0x80 are the subfunctions.

whenever the tester is in any session except the default session after 5 seconds that session will expire and the ECU will move to the default session to avoid that we are using 3E SID.

Tx: 3E 00

Rx: 7E 00

8 4 2 1 8 4 2 1

Bits: 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Suppose if we are sending a command like that always we are getting unnecessary +ve response continuously. if we are getting always responses like that BUS load will increase.

so to reduce that BUS load we are doing

8 4 2 1 8 4 2 1

Bits: 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Tx: 3E 80 then ECU will never provide unnecessarily +ve response. so making the 7th bit 1 is called suppress bit.

Automotive Validation Engineer CAPL Interview Questions and Answers

2023-07-24T01:18:00.004-07:00

Interview Questions

automotive validation engineer capl programming questions

CAPL Programming Questions:

1. ECU shall check BS_State == INIT within x sec after DWS is on.

If the condition is not met:

a) ECU shall go to Failure state.

b) ECU shall reset EU_Request to 0.

Answer:

includes

{

}

variables

{

msTimer timer;

}

on timer event Timer

{

// If the timer expires and the condition is not met, go to a Failure state

if (BS_State != INIT)

{

setECUState(Failure);

EU_Request = 0;

}

on signal DWS

{

// If DWS is turned on, start the timer

if (DWS == 1)

{

setTimer(timer, x * 1000); // x is the timeout in seconds

}

Explanation:

The script uses a timer to check if the condition is met within x seconds after DWS is on. When the DWS signal is received and its value is 1 (meaning it's turned on), the script starts the timer with a timeout of x seconds. If the timer expires before the condition is met (i.e., BS_State is not INIT), the script goes to Failure state and resets EU_Request to 0.

Note that you need to define the Failure state and the EU_Request variable somewhere else in your CAPL program. The setECUState() function and the setTimer() function are built-in functions in CAPL.

2. If Event - Press Key 'A' then Send message 0x28 periodically for every 75ms and Event - Press Key 'B' Stop sending a message.

Answer:

includes

{

}

variables

{

message signal_1 msg1;

msTimer t;

}

on key 'A'

{

setTimer(t,75);

}

on timer t

{

msg1.signal_1=0x28;

output(msg1);

setTimer(t,75);

}

on key 'B'

{

cancelTimer(t);

}

3. Write a CAPL program to store each log file.

Answer:

includes

{

}

variables

{

int message_counter = 0;

char filename[100];

}

on message CAN_Std(msg)

{

message_counter++;

sprintf(filename, "message_%d.log",message_counter);

}

4. Write a CAPL program to read the DID value as 1010 and display the value. after that overwrite with another DID value and display the overwritten value?

Answer:

includes

{

}

variables

{

// Declare a variable to store the DID value

word didValue;

}

on preStart

{

// Read and display the initial DID value

didValue = 1010; // Replace this line with your method to read the DID value from the CAN network

write("Initial DID Value: %d", didValue);

// Overwrite the DID value with a new value (e.g., 2020)

didValue = 2020;

// Display the overwritten DID value

write("Overwritten DID Value: %d", didValue);

}

5. Write a CAPL program to unlock the ECU if the tester key value and server key values match the ECU locked.

Answer:

includes

{

}

variables

{

dword tester_key = 0x12345678; // replace with actual tester key value

dword server_key = 0x87654321; // replace with actual server key value

bool is_ecu_unlocked = false; // flag to keep track of ECU unlock status

}

on key_received()

{

dword received_key = this.messageDataLong(0); // get the key value from the message

if (received_key == tester_key && received_key == server_key)

{

// unlock ECU

write("UNLOCK_ECU"); // replace with actual unlock command

is_ecu_unlocked = true; // set flag to indicate ECU is unlocked

write("ECU unlocked"); // log success message

}

else

{

// lock ECU

write("LOCK_ECU"); // replace with actual lock command

is_ecu_unlocked = false; // set flag to indicate ECU is locked

write("ECU locked"); // log failure message

}

on start

{

write("ECU lock status: %d", is_ecu_unlocked); // log initial ECU lock status

}

6. Develop the CAPL script for continuous voltage value once turn on the ECU and once the voltage value is reduced to 1.5 and the LV maintenance coming to the picture closes the lv reaches more than 13.5 then it maintenance lv value mechanism.

Answer:

includes

{

}

variables

{

// Declare variables to store voltage and LV maintenance status

float voltageValue;

byte lvMaintenanceStatus;

}

on start

{

// Initialize variables

voltageValue = 0.0; // Set an initial value for voltage

lvMaintenanceStatus = 0; // 0 = LV Maintenance not active, 1 = LV Maintenance active

}

on message voltageSignal

{

// This event is triggered whenever a new voltage signal is received

// Update the voltageValue with the received value

voltageValue = this.VoltageSignal; // Assuming the signal contains the voltage value in the message

// Check if the voltage is reduced to 1.5

if (voltageValue <= 1.5)

{

// Trigger the LV maintenance mechanism (e.g., by setting the lvMaintenanceStatus to 1)

lvMaintenanceStatus = 1;

}

// Check if the voltage is more than 13.5 and LV maintenance is active

if (voltageValue > 13.5 && lvMaintenanceStatus == 1)

{

// Perform the LV maintenance action (e.g., send a specific CAN message)

// Replace the line below with the appropriate function to send the LV maintenance message

SendLVMaintenanceMessage();

// Reset the LV maintenance status to 0 as the maintenance action is performed

lvMaintenanceStatus = 0;

}

on stop

{

// Perform any necessary cleanup or actions before stopping the script

}

// Function to send the LV maintenance message

void SendLVMaintenanceMessage() {

// Implement the logic to send the LV maintenance message here

// This function will be responsible for sending the CAN message when voltage > 13.5 during LV maintenance

// You need to know the exact CAN message format and its associated CAN ID, DLC, and data bytes

}

Reliance is hiring for Reliance Insurance Agent Role | Apply Now

2023-07-04T01:39:00.000-07:00

reliance is hiring for a general insurance agent role

Job Role: Reliance Insurance Agent

Location: WORK FROM HOME/MOBILE

JOB DESCRIPTION:

What is Reliance General Insurance Partner Program?

Are you seeking opportunities to sell insurance and reap rewarding benefits? Look no further; seize the chance to become a Reliance insurance agent today! At Reliance General Insurance, we provide swift and effortless market access, coupled with enticing rewards. By joining the Reliance General Insurance Partner Program, you become a valuable part of one of the world's largest business conglomerates. With us, you gain access to a diverse range of insurance products, enabling you to reach a wider audience.

The Reliance General Insurance Partner Program opens doors for you to become a General Insurance Agent or a POSP (Point of Sale Person) alongside us. There's no need for any upfront investment or tapping into personal resources to join our extensive network of commission-based insurance agents. Moreover, you have the potential to earn a substantial monthly income. As a Reliance insurance agent, you can conveniently sell various insurance products, including car insurance, two-wheeler insurance, house insurance, health insurance, and travel insurance.

Simply complete the 15-hour training program designed by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and pass the subsequent exam. We also provide additional training to enhance your confidence and proficiency as a commission-based agent. Our user-friendly platform equips you with the necessary tools to become an insurance advisor and generate a stable and lucrative income.

What are the reasons to consider becoming a Reliance insurance agent?

1. As a reliance agent or point of a salesperson (POSP), you'll have the opportunity to work directly with us, Reliance General Insurance, which is recognized as one of the largest insurance companies in the country. With us, you won't have to deal with intermediaries or middlemen.

2. As our insurance sales agent, you will get support 24*7. We employ technology-driven processes to ensure seamless connectivity with our POSPs, enabling constant communication and assistance.

3. As a Reliance General Insurance agent, you will have access to an extensive array of products, including but not limited to home insurance, travel insurance, health insurance, motor insurance, and more. This diverse range of offerings will equip you with a wide selection of products to effectively cater to your client's needs and maximize your sales potential.

4. We are a digital company that offers the convenience of bypassing complex paperwork and eliminating the need for physical document management. This benefits both you and your customers by providing online access to all necessary documents.

5. As our insurance sales agent, you can put your worries to rest regarding any potential delays in policy issuance for your customers. We facilitate online policy issuance, ensuring quick and easy access to policy documents for your customers.

6. As a team, we ensure that our POSPs are promptly attended to, avoiding any queue. You can expect your commission amount to be credited to your account within 15 days from the policy issuance to your customer.

What benefits come with working as an insurance agent?

Work from Home: You have the flexibility to work conveniently from your own home.

No Investment Required: Despite the numerous returns and benefits of being a health insurance agent, there is no need for any financial investment to pursue this career.

No Time-Bound Routine: You have the freedom to select and determine your own working hours.

What are the documents needed to join the partner program?

The documents needed include:

Your photo
Aadhaar copy
PAN card copy
Class 10th mark sheet
Bank account details Canceled cheque or NEFT form photo upload

Eligibility criteria:

Individuals who are at least 18 years old, have completed education up to a minimum of 10th Standard, and possess a valid Aadhaar card and PAN card are eligible.

what can you do:

Through the partner program, you have the opportunity to sell a wide range of general non-life insurance products, including car insurance, two-wheeler insurance, house insurance, health insurance, and travel insurance.

SALARY: AS PER THE COMPANY NORMS

for more details check out the given link

WalkClub App : Walk & Earn Free Money Daily | Verified

2023-06-21T01:34:00.003-07:00

WALK CLUB EVERY STEP COUNTS

WALK CLUB

is a Fitness Application that incentivizes users for their movement.

How to start:

Download the walkclub application officially on the play store now it's available for Android devices.

1. SIGN UP WITH YOUR EMAIL AND PHONE NUMBER.

2. YOU WILL REDIRECT TO GOOGLE PLAY STORE FOR THIS APPLICATION

2. COMPLETE THE VERIFICATION STEPS TO CLAIM YOUR REWARD.

3. Get new shoes to boost your rewards.

Earning Process:

1. After completion of installation you will get a notification for face verification. it's a mandatory process to complete face verification. By following the given instruction you should complete that face verification as shown in the application.

2. After you will reach level 1 shoe. if you want to increase those shoe levels you need to invite more friends to get different levels of shoes.

3. benefit of increasing shoe levels is you will get more points and contribution level. so more points are needed to get more money.

4. in the home page you will find the contribution bar and steps bar percentage will be there those bars indicate your working progress.

5. contribution bar will increase based upon inviting new people to the application and the steps bar will increase when you complete the daily 2000 steps target.

6. daily you need to walk 2000 steps then only you will get points. and these points are called eggs so these points indicate your egg count.

7. these eggs are used to redeem as money in an exchange session. in that exchange session, you will get the value of each egg in Indian rupees so for that you need to do daily 2000 steps. for that, you can also shake your phone then which will increase your points.

How to Withdraw:

1. after getting more eggs you need to sell those eggs in USDT currency. Note: Before selling eggs need to check the current selling value. if you have the highest value then only sell otherwise you will get a few amounts.

2. after selling those eggs into USDT then only you need to withdraw. while withdrawing the amount you need to choose your country's currency. and then give your bank details and do withdraw.

3. after that you will get your amount within one day. note: here some processing fees will be going to deduct.

Earning Ways:

1. in this application Market session is also there here you will find contests in this contests are included with several types of prizes. if you want to join those contests you need to pay some joining fees depending on the contest's prize pool.

2. refer and earn process.

Application Download Link:

Rokid is Hiring for Field Application Engineer Role | Apply Now

2023-06-01T00:40:00.001-07:00

New Job Opportunity from Rokid just recently spotted who are eligible candidates to apply immediately

Role: Field Application Engineer Role
Location: WORK FROM HOME
JOB DESCRIPTION:

This ideal candidate will handle with global issues. The ideal candidate should be able to experience in application development for dedicated Android devices such as video conference devices, dedicated tablet devices, or AR/VR devices is preferred. If you are looking for a place that is fast-paced and fun and has great people to work with, then look no further!

Key Responsibilities:

Provide technical support for software developers, assisting them in developing for Rokid's AR glasses.
Familiarize with and deeply understand the technical details of Rokid's AR products to address technical inquiries from developers.
Collaborate closely with domestic R&D teams, reflecting the needs and issues of developers, to continuously improve our products and services.
Continuously refine and maintain the development and technical documentation of the overseas version, such as user guides and troubleshooting guides, to assist developers in better understanding and using our products.
Participate in the design and development process of the product, supporting the promotion of new products or features in overseas markets.

Education Qualifications:

Bachelor's degree in Computer Science, Electronic Engineering, or a related field, or relevant work experience.
At least 2 years of experience in Android development; experience in AR/VR device development is preferred.
Experience in application development for dedicated Android devices such as video conference devices, dedicated tablet devices, or AR/VR devices is preferred; some understanding of the Android Framework is a plus.
Possess the ability to communicate in local languages abroad, and can communicate fluently in English; proficiency in Chinese is a plus.
Excellent teamwork and communication skills; ability to work effectively in cross-cultural and cross-regional teams.
Ability to quickly understand and learn new technologies and tools, possess strong documentation capabilities, continually document support issues, and continuously improve the problem-solving rate of the documentation.

SKILLS:

Android Framework
Augmented Reality (AR)
Conferences
Electronic Engineering
Engineering
Problem-Solving
Research and Development (R&D)
Technical Documentation
Technical Support
Troubleshooting

About Company:

Rokid Corporation Ltd

Established in 2014, Rokid specializes in the research and product development of Mixed Reality and Artificial Intelligence. With its mission of “leave nobody behind”, Rokid provides an extreme user experience, superior products, and consumer and robust enterprise solutions for developing communities.

Amazon Associate – Retail Process Interview Questions and Answers

2023-05-27T04:58:00.006-07:00

Amazon is Hiring for Associate – Retail Process | Apply Now

amazon associate retail process interview questions and answers

Role: Associate - Retail Process

Education Required: Bachelor's Degree in any discipline (Mandatory)

Location: WORK FROM HOME

SALARY: 30k to 35k

Test Duration: 25 Minutes

After 25 minutes, your test will be auto-submitted

Number of Attempts: Unlimited Attempt

You can login multiple times to finish the test. Once done, please be sure to click "End Test" and Confirm.

Test Structure

Groups Type of Questions No. of Questions

F MCQ 14

P MCQ 2

SC MCQ 2

ED MCQ 3

RC MCQ 3

SA MCQ 3

CR MCQ 3

Choose the option that meaningfully completes the sentence.

1. A butterfly starts life _____________ a caterpillar.

a) like

b) as -> Answer

c) same

d) alike

2. I am suspicious ____________ his true intentions.

a) with

b) of -> Answer

c) in

d) for

3. A mini riot broke ________ as soon as the ice-cream truck arrived.

a) down

b) up

c) out -> Answer

d) off

4. Although he was tired, he ________ working.

a) was going on

b) is going on

c) goes on

d) went on -> Answer

5. It's very difficult to resist temptation because it will ___________ any honest man.

a) work at

b) work up

c) work on -> Answer

d) work in

6. Sales predictions from investors ____________ optimistic.

a) tending

b) tends for

c) tend to be -> Answer

d) tending to

7. Phablets, a cross between a phone and a tablet, _____________ roll since late 2011, as tech-savvy consumers particularly in Ashia _______ data-heavy web page and downloading media content.

a) was on a, devoting more time browsing

b) are on, devoting much time browsing

c) have been on a, devote more time browsing -> Answer

d) had been on a, devote more browsing

8. We __________ the slow car on the highway.

a) past

b) passed -> Answer

9. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making a _________ selection.

a) normal

b) standard

c) moderate

d) judicious -> Answer

10. One of the most hard-working of all animals is the __________

a) ant -> Answer

b) aunt

11. He has just finished reading ____________ chapters of the book.

a) the two first

b) the first two -> Answer

c) two first

d) first two

12. The foundation of all civilizations and societies ____________ collaborate with each other.

a) are abilities with human

b) has humans ability to

c) is the ability of humans to -> Answer

d) with ability about human for

13. When a man has too much of material possessions, the blessing is ____________ and is no longer gratifying

a) taken for granted -> Answer

b) always ready to receive

c) bestowing on others

d) too much money

14. Would you be able to offer __________ help in guiding me through this process?

a) little

b) fewer

c) few

d) some -> Answer

15. Choose the option with the correct punctuation.

a) "How do you expect to repay your loans without a job?" Gulshan asked his son angrily. -> Answer

b) "How do you expect to repay your loans without a job" Gulshan asked his son angrily?

c) "How do you expect to repay your loans without a job"? Gulshan asked his son angrily.

d) "How do you expect to repay your loans without a job?" Gulshan asked his son, angrily.

16. Choose the option with the correct punctuation.

a) "I don't want to go anywhere", he said!

b) "I dont want to go anywhere", he said!

c) "I don't want to go anywhere", he said. -> Answer

d) I dont want to go anywhere he said.

17. Direction: Identify if the underlined part in the below sentence is incorrect. if yes, choose the option which makes the sentence grammatically correct. If no, choose the option that is same as the underlined part.

The political system in our country calls on immediate action.

a) calls on immediate action

b) calls for immediate action -> Answer

c) calls in immediate action

d) calls at immediate action

18. Despite of their differences on matters of principles, they agree on the demand of a hike in salary.

a) Despite of their differences

b) Despite of their differents

c) Despite their differences -> Answer

d) Despite difference

19. Out of the four underlined phrases marked (A), (B), (C), and (D), choose the phrase which is wrong or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.

The agents can talk (A) among them self and (B) compare and share with (C) each other, what they find(D).

a) A -> Answer

b) B

c) C

d) D

20. with the charisma that he's (A) best known for (B) he started, "Myself Suresh Kumar (C) and I am here to change (D) your life"

a) A

b) B

c) C -> Answer

d) D

21. He travelled (A) with boat (B) and arrived (C) at Andaman yesterday. (D)

a) A -> Answer

b) B

c) C

d) D

Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows.

22. If you have any unresolved consumer disputes, do not feel that you are helpless, do not hesitate to assert your rights. Approach the District Consumer Forum for speedy redressal.

The statement has been made by the:

a) State Excise Department

b) Department of Information and Public Relations

c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

d) Department of Consumer Affairs -> Answer

23. The residents of Vijaya Apartments have written a letter to the Municipal Corporation. They have requested the authorities to restore normalcy in the supply of drinking water immediately as the supply at present is just not adequate.

The residents of the society want the water supply to be:

a) normal in temperature.

b) adequate in quality.

c) chlorine-free.

d) sufficient in quantity. -> Answer

24. "For the third time in a row this week, the Indira Gandhi International Airport was put on a red alert today after Air India received an anonymous message that two terrorists laden with explosives were aboard its Mumbai-Delhi-Hong Kong flight." An authority of Indira Gandhi International Airport.

The statement made by the authority claims that:

a) the airport authorities had received an anonymous message. -> Answer

b) the Mumbai-Delhi-Hong Kong flight was hijacked.

c) the airport has been on red alert twice before in the same week.

d) an Air India flight was hijacked.

25. Choose the most logical order of the given sentences to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. Because negotiation had been delayed until the moment, he was at a tremendous disadvantage.

B. Only then did the truth dawn on him.

C. He broke off talks and returned home.

D. My friend was under intense pressure to make concessions.

a) DBAC

b) ACBD

c) ABCD

d) DBCA -> Answer

Direction: Out of the words/phrases given below. the position of 1 is fixed. Choose the most logical order of the remaining words/phrases to construct a coherent sentence.

26. 1. A major effect of beauty

P. that is often unattainable

Q. is that they encourage

R. feelings of inadequacy and

S. present an unrealistic ideal

T. pageants on women

a) TQRSP

b) SRTQP

c) SRPQT -> Answer

d) PTQRS

27. 1. A Central Bank is

P. financial services like

Q. baks and provides important

R. an independent apex monetary authority which regulates

S. string of foreign exchange reserves, monetary policy report.

a) PQRS

b) RQPS -> Answer

c) PRSQ

d) RSPQ

Choose the most appropriate response to the following statement:

28. How would you describe your job at the previous company?

a) It was exciting and annoying.

b) It was tiresome and unrewarding.

c) It was satisfactory and unrewarding.

d) It was tiresome and fulfilling. -> Answer

29. I hope the food I sent was sufficient.

a) Yes, it was delicious.

b) Yes, we all got plenty. -> Answer

c) No, we all got plenty.

d) No, it was delicious.

30. How often do you visit your hometown?

a) As soon as possible.

b) It was a long time ago.

c) I went there last May.

d) Once in every two months. -> Answer

Apply LINK

Brainy App – Complete Surveys and Refer to Earn Money Easily

2023-05-15T22:55:00.003-07:00

Complete simple surveys and tasks to get Paytm cash

Brainy -> The Rayole company has introduced a new application called Brainy, which is designed to improve your photographic memory. By playing this game, you can enhance your ability to recall visual information with greater accuracy and speed. Brainy is an exciting tool that can help you develop an important cognitive skill while having fun.

Brainy App

About Earning Sessions:-

1. Game

2. Task Offer

3. Survey Offer

4. Playtime

5. Invite Friends

1. How to Play Game:-

1) Collect tickets by watching video ads. Tickets are required to play the game.
2) Click over the play game to start the game.
3) Reveal the board and remember the green card position.
4) Flip all and only green cards to win coins.

Leaderboard You can check if you are in the top 50 players on the leaderboard. Leaderboard restarts daily when the countdown timer ends. Just enjoy playing the game and enhancing your photogenic memory

2. Task Offer:-

Task Offer is a platform that provides different online tasks. who can complete various tasks for them. The platform offers a lot of coins, coins are important in the app because these coins are used to convert into money every few hours. if you get more coins then you will gain more money.

3. Survey Offer:-

Survey Offer is an online platform that offers paid surveys to users. Companies use Survey Offers to gather feedback from consumers on their products and services. Users can sign up for free, complete surveys, and earn money or rewards. Survey Offer provides a convenient way for users to earn extra income from the comfort of their own homes. from this platform also we will get more coins depending on the survey's length and quality.

4. Playtime:-

in this session, we need to download applications whichever is shown in the brainy app. Every different app will have a different coin amount so we need to install and run the apps based on different time limits by the coin count.

5. Invite Friends:-

Share your referral link with your friends and on social media.
your friend will get a bonus of ₹ 7.00 for downloading the app using your referral link.
you will also get ₹ 17.50 when your friend withdraws from the application.

My invite code link:- https://6square.page.link/EWJs

More Ways to Earn:-

also, we can earn more coins by following their official pages on social media platforms like Facebook, Instagram, Telegram, etc...

Payment Proof:-

here is my earning proof to check.

Interview Questions and Answers for Data Analyst Position at Agoda Company

2023-04-17T03:42:00.008-07:00

data analyst interview questions from Agoda

Instructions

This assessment consists of 2 tests. You must complete both tests within the assessment.

1. Concepts & Knowledge

The first part of the assessment covers subjects such as Statistics, Data Literacy. Reports & Visualisations. Microsoft Excel and Chart Interpretation.
You will have 25 minutes to complete the 16 questions within the test.
All the questions are multiple-choice There are 5 answer options with one answer which is most correct. Some other answer options may be partially correct ensure you choose the MOST correct answer option.
You will be awarded full marks for each correct answer and 0 marks for each incorrect answer You should therefore attempt to answer every question.

2. SQL

For the SQL test, you will need to write SQL queries which will be validated against a database.
You will have 15 minutes to complete the 2 questions within the test.
You will need to write SQL queries using basic (ANSI) SQL statements. You will be able to execute your queries and view the output.
Your query output will be compared with the expected output for the question. You will be awarded full marks if the output matches the expected output and 0 marks if it doesn't match The outputted column names are not considered only the order of the outputted columns Ensure you read the question thoroughly and provide the output expected.
Once each test has started, as soon as the time has finished your responses will be automatically submitted.
While in the test do not leave the test page. Your actions will be analyzed.
You may reuse the original link to resume the assessment until 17 Apr 2023 at 10:02 am (GMT+07:00).
You will be able to see your results as soon as you complete the assessment.
Agoda will have access to your results and will contact you directly if you progress to the next stage

You will now complete a short pre-assessment survey
Best of luck!

MINIMUM TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS

1. I have checked that have a stable internet connection, e.g. using Google Internet Speed Test
2. I am using an up-to-date version of Safari, Firefox, Chrome, or Edge.
3. I am using a desktop computer or laptop computer. am not attempting the assessment on a mobile or tablet device because the small screen size will prevent me from seeing some details properly.
4. I have a pen paper and calculator available to make notes and do some simple calculations.

I have ensured that my setup meets all the minimum technical requirements.

If you encounter any technical difficulties, please email us here if you need special dispensation for this assessment, please contact Agoda.

PRIVACY

I have read and accept Alooba's Privacy Policy.

CODE OF HONOUR

At Alooba, we are committed to providing a fair experience for everyone. Please read and agree to our Code of Honour

1. I agree that will complete this assessment on my own, without the help of anybody else.

2. I agree not to collude with anyone on this assessment.

3. I agree that will complete this assessment only once.

4. I agree that will not plagiarise anyone's answers.

5. I agree that I will not try to gain any unfair advantages.

6. I agree not to disclose to anyone or make public any of the questions or answers in the assessment.

7. I understand that Alooba monitors all assessments and will flag any suspicious activity with Agoda.

I agree with the code of honor.

1. The following visual, produced by ourworldindata.org, plots the world population along with the annual growth rate of the world population against time, using the latest data from the United Nations Population Division. The visual also includes the UN's latest forecast for population growth, compiling trends seen in subsets of the population that have already experienced rapid growth. Typically, this period of rapid growth is short-lived.

What was the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) between 1700 and 2019?

1. 0.5%

2. 1.4%

3. 0.8%

4. 1.1% -> Answer

5. 0.2%

2. In the following chart, you can see the evolution of imports and exports of cars of an Asian country.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. In 2010 the exports matched the imports.

2. The maximum number of imports has been slightly above 1.5 million during the period.

3. The gap between imports and exports is being reduced. -> Answer

4. In 2015 the difference between imports and exports was close to 250000 units.

5. On average, the country is a net importer; imports are higher than exports.

3. ABC News analyzed some Google Community Mobility Report data during the start of the first Covid-related lockdown in April 2020.

Which types of seasonality seem to be present in the chart?

1. Monthly seasonality

2. None of these

3. Weekly seasonality

4. Daily seasonality

5. All of these -> Answer

4. Suppose you wanted to measure the relationship between someone's height and their weight, as well as between their income and education level.

Which of these is correct?

1. The correlation coefficient between income and education level is normally -1

2. The correlation between someone's height and weight is normally negative

3. If you regressed height on weight, you'd expect the weight coefficient to be positive -> Answer

4. The covariance between someone's height and weight is normally negative

5. The correlation coefficient between income and education level is normally 0

5. you're provided with the report shown.

What is the following?

1. The conversion rate for the whole week

2. The total revenue in Euros assuming a rate of 1USD = 0.95EUR

1. 1: Not possible to calculate with the given data

2: 50M

2. 1: 4.5%

2: 47.5M

3. 1: Not possible to calculate with the given data

2: 47.5M

4. 1: 4.64% -> Answer

2: 50

5. 1: Not possible to calculate with the given data

2: 50

6. Alooba has decided to diversify its range of services and products and launch a premium ice cream brand - Alooba Luxury Ice Creams. The pricing structure for its 3 key flavors (Chocolate, Vanilla, and Strawberry), has been presented in the following visual.

A new client has been identified, however, they desire larger quantities of ice cream than shown in your pricing model. Your manager has told you that you can use linear extrapolation to provide a quote.

What is the correct quote for 200 liters of chocolate and 200 liters of strawberry ice cream, based on this modeling assumption?

1. $1,766.67

2. $1,360.00

3. Insufficient information to perform linear extrapolation -> Answer

4. $1,580.00

5. $1,840.00

7. 20,500 leads were generated in the previous month by a lead-generating platform (X) through multiple sources, out of which 30% of the leads were generated through surveys. The average revenue per lead for X was 245 AUD and the average cost per lead for X was 190 AUD. For leads generated specifically through surveys, both revenue per lead and cost per lead were 12% higher than average values for X.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI) for leads generated through surveys.

ROI is defined as (Revenue from Investment-Cost of Investment)/Cost of Investment

1. 23.2%

2. 17.8% -> Answer

3. 19.0%

4. 24.0%

5. 28.9%

8. A social media website X tracks the active customers on a daily basis.

For all the customers who were active on the website at least once a month, they also calculated the % of customers who were inactive for 2 weeks, and the % of customers who were inactive for 3 weeks. The average of both is considered as the net inactive %.

The table shows the number of customers active on the website for the top 5 countries.

As a marketing analyst for X, identify the country with the highest net inactive %.

1. India

2. Australia

3. USA -> Answer

4. United Kingdom

5. Canada

9. A study on COVID situations in the United States was performed. The author wants to present the death rate per 1000 by state. Hence, the death density was calculated by dividing the total fatalities related to COVID over the population and multiplied by 1000. A map was created as below.

An editor says the map is misleading. Which part of the map is misleading?

1. The font is too thin

2. Missing legend

3. Calculation of the death density

4. Too many decimals

5. Color -> Answer

10. Please see the plot to answer the question.

Which of the following plots is displayed in the figure in the attachment?

1. Linear trend -> Answer

2. A timer series plot

3. A boxplot

4. A histogram

5. A scatterplot

11. Your manager asks you to investigate whether the customers' age influences the cost of the sports shoes they buy. Which of the following can be used to investigate the effect of the customers' age on the cost of shoes purchased?

1. Variance

2. Correlation

3. Regression

4. Covariation -> Answer

5. Autocorrelation

12. A retail company decided to increase promotional signage in one of its stores, Store A, in the month of April. In the remaining stores, the signage remained the same. The average customer basket value (sales per transaction) was tracked in all stores for the year. The following table gives the average customer basket value in January (prior to the change in Store A) and in September (after the change in Store A).

Using the method of difference in differences, what is the estimated signage impact on the average customer basket?

1. $6.35

2. $4.24

3. $14.83

4. -$10.59

5. -$4.24 -> Answer

13. Suppose you measure the height and weight of 25000 university students. You record each student's height in both centimeters and nanometres, and you record their weight in kilograms as well as grams.

Suppose the variance of weight (kg) is 30 and the variance of the height (cm) is 80. What can we say about the standard deviations of those metrics?

1. The standard deviation of weight is 8.9 kg and height is 5.5 cm.

2. The standard deviation of weight is 5.5 kg and of height is 8.9 cm. -> Answer

3. The standard deviation of weight is 900 kg and height is 6400 cm.

4. The standard deviation of weight is 30 kg and the standard deviation of height is 80 cm.

5. We need more information to calculate the standard deviations.

14. You are working in a pet store. The store keeps all the pet's information in one Excel sheet.

Which is the proper function in Excel to find out which ID the pet "Cooper" belongs to?

1. =INDEX(A2:A6,MATCH("Cooper",C2:C6,0)) -> Answer

2. =MATCH(A2:A6,INDEX("Cooper",C2:C6,0))

3. =LOOKUP("Cooper",C:A)

4. =VLOOKUP("Cooper",C:A,1,0)

5. =VLOOKUP("Cooper",A:A,1,0)

15. In this Excel document you have the following formula in the cell G2:

=sumifs (B2:B5, B2: B5, ">20000", C2: C5, ">15%")

What is the result of the formula?

1. 10%

2. 25000

3. 0

4. 30000

5. 15% -> Answer

16. You are working on an Excel worksheet. In the right table, you want to find the corresponding Pet Name to the Pet ID. Such a relationship can be found in the left table. For those Pet IDs that do not exist in the left table, you want to leave the cell blank.

What is the proper function to use in cell F2?

1. =VLOOKUP(E2,A:C,3,0)

2. =ISTEXT(VLOOKUP(E4,A:C,3,0))

3. =IF(ISNA(VLOOKUP(E3,A:C,3,0)),VLOOKUP(E3,A:C,3,0),"")

4. =ISNA(VLOOKUP(E3,A:C,3,0))

5. =IFERROR(VLOOKUP(E2,A:C,3,0),"") -> Answer

SQL

For the SQL test, you will need to write SQL queries which will be validated against a database.

You will have 15 minutes to complete the 2 questions within the test.

Your query output will be compared with the expected output for the question. You will be awarded full marks if the output matches the expected output and 0 marks if it doesn't match The outputted column names are not considered, only the order of the outputted columns Ensure you read the question thoroughly and provide the output expected.

Ensure you execute your query and check the output before submitting. You may execute your queries as many times as needed. The database will be reset to its initial state before each execution.
Your queries will be executed using a database engine that is compliant with the majority of basic SQL syntax. Ensure your queries use ANSI SQL. You cannot use any database-specific functions or syntax.

A few points when writing your queries:

Each question must be answered with a single SQL query
RIGHT JOIN is not supported. Use LEFT JOIN instead.
FULL OUTER JOIN is not supported
TOP is not supported Use LIMIT at the end of the query instead.
The CONCAT function is not supported Use || instead.
Most date functions such as NOW and DATE_FORMAT are not supported Treat dates as text instead.
ILIKE is not supported LIKE is supported, but note that it is case insensitive.
EXTRACT is not supported.
LEFT and SUBSTRING are not supported. Try SUBSTR instead.

Your queries will be automatically saved and will be recorded upon moving to the next question or when the timer runs out.

1. You work as a data analyst for a large supermarket chain called Comprare. You've been presented with 4 important tables from their data warehouse.

The item table, where each row is an item available for purchase from Comprare.
The customer table, where each row is a registered customer. Not all customers are registered; many shop anonymously.
The purchase table, where each row is a purchase (transaction). A purchase will typically involve buying multiple items.
The purchase_item table, where each row is an item bought as part of a purchase.

Which store had the highest number of separate purchases during April 2021?

write an SQL query which returns a single column containing a single value of the store_id.

a) SELECT store_id

FROM purchase_item

INNER JOIN purchase ON purchase_item.purchase_id = purchase.purchase_id

WHERE DATE_TRUNC('month', purchase.purchase_date) = '2021-04-01'

GROUP BY store_id

ORDER BY COUNT(DISTINCT purchase_item.purchase_id) DESC

LIMIT 1;

2. Which customer has bought the most number of unique items?

Write an SQL query which returns the correct answer with three columns in this order. first_name, last_name, item_count, where item_count is the number of unique items that customer has bought.

a) SELECT c.first_name, c.last_name, COUNT(DISTINCT pi.item_id) as item_count

FROM customer c

JOIN purchase p ON c.customer_id = p.customer_id

JOIN purchase_item pi ON p.purchase_id = pi.purchase_id

GROUP BY c.customer_id

ORDER BY item_count DESC

LIMIT 1;

JMAN L1 Assessment Interview Questions and Answers

2023-04-13T00:54:00.004-07:00

JMAN Group - L1 assessment - off_campus - 12/Apr/23

jman interview questions and answers

Please follow the below instructions carefully:

Please upload your resume in .doc / .docx / .pdf format only
Only one attempt is allowed to take the assessment
The maximum time allowed for assessment is 30 minutes
Your assessment should be taken without any breaks
Your assessment will auto-submit in 30 minutes
The assessment contains a combination of Technical and Aptitude questions
Any malpractice identified during the assessment will lead to disqualification

Aptitude

1. A and B can together a task in 40 days. They worked together for 30 days and then B left. A finished the remaining part of the task in the next 22 days. How many days will A take to finish the task alone?

a) 90 days

b) 88 days -> Answer

c) 37 days

d) 48 days

2. A person crossed a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

a) 11.6

b) 3.6

c) 7.2 -> Answer

d) 8.4

3. In how many ways can four books A, B, C, and D be arranged one above the other in a vertical order such that books A and B are never next to each other? (Permutation &Cobination)

a) 9

b) 12 -> Answer

c) 14

d) 18

4. The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years)

a) 8, 20, 28

b) 16, 28, 36 -> Answer

c) 24, 42, 54

d) None of these

5. Two train approach each other at 30 km/hr and 27 km/hr respectively, from two places 342 km apart. After how much time will they meet? (in hours)

a) 9

b) 10

c) 6 -> Answer

d) 5

6. What is the value of c, if 8 is 4% of a and 4 is 8% of b. c equals b/a?

a) 12

b) 0.155

c) 1/4 -> Answer

d) 1/8

7. A boat takes 46 hours to cover 480 km in downstream and 192 km in upstream and takes 52 hours to cover 192 km in downstream and 480 km in upstream. Find the speed of the boat in still water.

a) 14km/hr

b) 16km/hr -> Answer

c) 18km/hr

d) 12km/hr

8. A person's present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be one-half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?

a) 32 years

b) 36 years

c) 40 years -> Answer

d) 48 years

9. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'OPTICAL' be arranged so that the vowels always come together?

a) 7% -> Answer

b) 8%

c) 6%

d) 5%

10. A 60-liter mixture of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to make water 20% in the mixture?

a) 8 Liters

b) 7.5 Liters -> Answer

c) 7 Liters

d) 6.5 Liters

Technical Programming

Find the output for the below JAVA code snippet:

public class Main

{

public static void main(String[] args) {

int a = 5;

int b = 10;

int res = a++ + ++b +b++;

System.out.println(a+" "+b+" "+res);

}

a) 6 11 27 b) Compiler time error c) 5 11 26 d) 6 12 27 -> Answer

2. What is the output of the following Python code

x = 10

y = 50

if x ** 2 > 100 and y < 100 :

print(x, y)

a) 100 500 b) 10 50 c) None -> Answer d) 1 5

3. What will be the output of the following program?

let x = 10;

let y = 20;

let z = 30;

let result = x > y ? x : y > z ? y : z;

console.log(result);

a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 -> Answer d) None of the above

4. What will be the output of the following program?

const arr = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6];

for (const item of arr) {

console.log(arr.pop())

}

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 4, 5, 6 c) 6, 5, 4 -> Answer d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

5. What will be the output of the following program?

public class MyClass {

public static void main(String[] args) {

int a = 10;

System.out.println(++a++);

}

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) Compilation Error -> Answer

6. What will be the output of the following program?

class TestApp {

static int index = 0;

public static void main(String args[]) {

System.out.println(test());

}

int test() {

int index = 1;

return index;

}

a) 0 b) 1 c) Run-time error at line number 6 d) Compile time error -> Answer

7. What will be the output of the following program?

int main()

{

int a = -10, b = 20;

if(a > 0 && b < 0)

a++;

else if(a < 0 && b < 0)

a--;

else if(a < 0 && b > 0)

b--;

else

b--;

printf("%d\n",a + b);

return 0;

}

a) 5 b) 2 -> Answer c) 6 d) 9

8. Find the output of the following code.

public class Solution {

public static void main(String[] args) {

int i;

for(i = 1; i < 6; i++) {

if(i > 3) continue;

}

System.out.println(i);

}

a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 -> Answer d) 3

9. What will be the output of the following code snippet?

const obj1 = { first: 20, second: 30, first: 50 };

console.log(obj1);

a) {first:20, second:30} b) {first:50, second:30} -> Answer c) {first:20, second:30, first:30} d) Syntax error

10. The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T.

CUSTOMER_ID, ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME, ORDER_ID FROM

CUSTOMER_T, ORDER_T;

a) Equi-join b) Natural join c) Outer join d) Cartesian join -> Answer

Important:

· The test has to be taken STRICTLY using a Computer (Mobile devices are not valid)

· Test duration is 30 mins and has an auto timer

· Upon logging in they will have to upload their resume in MS-word or PDF format

· Once the test starts, page refresh or pressing the back button will end the test

· Once the test is ended abruptly, it cannot be given again as the login is valid for once alone

· Autosave function is enabled in the assessments

· Please ensure the candidate DO NOT swap logins and take assessments

Permutations and Combinations with Probability – HSC Extension 1 Maths Revision

2023-03-31T23:28:00.010-07:00

permutations combinations HSC revision extension 1 mathematics

Introduction:

Permutations and combinations are among the most important topics in HSC Extension 1 Mathematics, especially for exam-level probability questions. Many students lose marks due to confusion between permutations and combinations or by applying the wrong formula. In this article, you’ll learn clear concepts, essential formulas, and step-by-step examples to confidently solve permutations, combinations, and probability problems for HSC exams.

Multiplication Rule

If one event can occur in m ways, a second event in n ways, and a third event in r, then the three events can occur in m × n × r ways.

Example: Erin has 5 tops, 6 skirts, and 4 caps from which to choose an outfit. In how many ways can she select one top, one skirt, and one cap?

Solution: Ways = 5 × 6 × 4

Repetition of an Event

If one event with n outcomes occurs r times with repetition allowed, then the number of ordered arrangements is n^r

Example 1 What is the number of arrangements if a die is rolled

(a) 2 times ? 6 × 6 = 6²

(b) 3 times? 6 × 6 × 6 = 6³

(b)r times? 6 × 6 × 6 × ……. = 6^r

Repetition of an Event

Example 2

(a) How many different car number plates are possible with 3 letters followed by 3 digits? Solution: 26 × 26 × 26 × 10 × 10 × 10 = 26³ × 10³

(b) How many of these number plates begin with ABC?

Solution: 1 × 1 × 1 × 10 × 10 × 10 = 10³

Solution:

Factorial Representation

n! = n(n – 1)(n – 2)………..3 × 2 × 1

For example 5! = 5.4.3.2.1 Note 0! = 1

Example a) In how many ways can 6 people be arranged in a row?

Solution: 6.5.4.3.2.1 = 6!

b) How many arrangements are possible if only 3 of them are chosen?

Solution: 6.5.4 = 120

Arrangements or Permutations

Distinctly ordered sets are called arrangements or permutations.

The number of permutations of n objects taken r at a time is given by:

where n = number of objects

r = number of positions

Arrangements or Permutations

Eg 1. A maths debating team consists of 4 speakers.

a) In how many ways can all 4 speakers be arranged in a row for a photo?

Solution: 4.3.2.1 = 4! or ⁴P₄

b) How many ways can the captain and vice-captain be chosen?

Solution: 4.3 = 12 or ⁴P₂

Arrangements or Permutations

Eg 2. A flutter on the horses There is 7 horses in a race.

a) In how many different orders can the horses finish?

Solution: 7.6.5.4.3.2.1 = 7! or ⁷P₇

b) How many trifectas (1st , 2nd and 3rd ) are possible?

Solution: 7.6.5 = 210 or ⁷P₃

Permutations with Restrictions

Eg. In how many ways can 5 boys and 4 girls be arranged on a bench if

a) there are no restrictions?

Solution: 9! Or ⁹P₉

c) boys and girls alternate?

Solution: A boy will be on each end

BGBGBGBGB = 5 x 4 x 4 x 3 x 3 x 2 x 2 x 1 x 1

= 5! x 4! or ⁵P₅ x ⁴P₄

Permutations with Restrictions

Eg. In how many ways can 5 boys and 4 girls be arranged on a bench if

c) boys and girls in separate groups?

Solution : Boys & Girls or Girls & Boys = 5! x 4! + 4! x 5! = 5! x 4! x 2 or ⁵P_5 x⁴P_{4 x 2}

d) Anne and Jim wish to stay together?

Solution : (AJ) _ _ _ _ _ _ _ = 2 x 8! or 2 x ⁸P₈

Arrangements with Repetitions

If we have n elements of which x are alike of one kind, y are alike of another kind, z are alike of another kind,

………… then the number of ordered selections or permutations is given by:

Arrangements with Repetitions

Eg.1 How many different arrangements of the word PARRAMATTA are possible?

Solution: 10 letters but note repetition (4 A’s, 2 R’s, 2 T’s)

A A A A No. of arrangements =

R R = 37 800

T T

Arrangements with Restrictions

Eg 1. How many arrangements of the letters of the word REMAND are possible if:

a) there are no restrictions?

Solution: ⁶P₆ = 720 or 6!

b) they begin with RE?

Solution: R E _ _ _ _ = ⁴P₄ = 24 or 4!

c) they do not begin with RE?

Solution: Total – (b) = 6! – 4! = 696

Arrangements with Restrictions

Eg 1. How many arrangements of the letters of the word REMAND are possible if:

d) they have RE together in order?

Solution: (RE) _ _ _ _ = ⁵P₅ = 120 or 5!

e) they have REM together in any order?

Solution: (REM) _ _ _= 3 P3 × 4 P4 = 144

f) R, E, and M are not to be together?

Solution: Total – (e) = 6! – 144 = 576

Arrangements with Restrictions

Eg 2. There are 6 boys who enter a boat with 8 seats, 4 on each side. In how many ways can

a) they sit anywhere?

Solution: ⁸P₆

b) two boys A and B sit on the port side and another boy W sits on the starboard side?

Solution: A & B = ⁴P₂

W = ⁴P₁

Others = ⁵P₃

Total = ⁴P_2 x⁴P_1 x⁵P₃

Arrangements with Restrictions

Eg 3. From the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

a) how many numbers greater than 4 000 can be formed?

Solution: 5 digits (any) = ⁵P₅

4 digits (must start with digit >= 4) = ³P₁ x ⁴P₃ Total = ⁵P₅ + ³P₁ x ⁴P₃

b) how many 4-digit numbers would be even?

Even (ends with 2, 4 or 6) = _ _ _ ³P₁ = ⁴P₃ x ³P₁

Circular Arrangements

Circular arrangements are permutations in which objects are arranged in a circle. Consider arranging 5 objects (a, b, c, d, e) around a circular table. The arrangements

abcde

bcdea

cdeab

deabc

eabcd

are different in a line, but are identical around a circle

Circular Arrangements

To calculate the number of ways in which n objects can be arranged in a circle, we arbitrarily fix the position of one object, so the remaining (n-1) objects can be arranged as if they were on a straight line in (n-1)! ways.

i.e. the number of arrangements = (n – 1) ! in a circle

Circular Arrangements

Eg 1. At a dinner party, 6 men and 6 women sit at a round table. In how many ways can they sit if:

a) there are no restrictions

Solution: (12 – 1)! = 11!

b) men and women alternate

Solution: (6 – 1)! x 6! = 5! x 6!

Circular Arrangements

Eg 1. At a dinner party, 6 men and 6 women sit at a round table. In how many ways can they sit if:

c) Ted and Carol must sit together

Solution: (TC) & other 10 = 2! x 10!

d) Bob, Ted, and Carol must sit together

Solution: (BTC) & other 9 = 3! x 9!

Circular Arrangements

Eg 1. At a dinner party, 6 men and 6 women sit at a round table. In how many ways can they sit if:

d) Neither Bob nor Carol can sit next to Ted.

Solution: Seat 2 of the other 9 people next to Ted in (9 x 8) ways or ⁹P₂Then sit the remaining 9 people (including Bob and Carol) in 9! ways

Ways = (9 x 8) x 9! or ⁹P_{2 x 9!}

Circular Arrangements

Eg 2. In how many ways can 8 differently colored beads be threaded on a string?

Solution: As the necklace can be turned over, clockwise and anti-clockwise arrangements are the same = (8-1)! ÷ 2 = 7! ÷ 2

Unordered Selections

The number of different combinations (i.e. unordered sets) of r objects from n distinct objects is represented by :

number of permutations

No.of Combinations = -------------------------------

arrangements of r objects

and is denoted by

Combinations

Eg 1. How many ways can a basketball team of 5 players be chosen from 8 players?

Solution: ⁸C₅

Combinations

Eg 2. A committee of 5 people is to be chosen from a group of 6 men and 4 women. How many committees are possible if

a) there are no restrictions?

Solution: ¹⁰C₅

b) one particular person must be chosen for the committee?

Solution: 1 x ⁹C₄

c) one particular woman must be excluded from the committee?

Solution: ⁹C₅

Combinations

Eg 2. A committee of 5 people is to be chosen from a group of 6 men and 4 women. How many committees are possible if:

d) there are to be 3 men and 2 women?

Solution: Men & Women = ⁶C₃ x ⁴C₂

e) there are to be men only?

Solution: ⁶C₅

f) there is to be a majority of women?

Solution: 3 Women & 2 men or 4 women & 1 man = ⁴C₃x ⁶C₂+ ⁴C₄x ⁶C₁

Combinations

Eg 3. In a hand of poker, 5 cards are dealt from a regular pack of 52 cards.

(i) What is the total possible number of hands if there are no restrictions?

Solution: ⁵²C₅

Combinations

Eg 3. In a hand of poker, 5 cards are dealt from a regular pack of 52 cards.

ii) In how many of these hands are there:

a) 4 Kings?

Solution: ⁴C₄ x ⁴⁸C₁ or 1 x 48

b) 2 Clubs and 3 Hearts?

Solution: ¹³C₂ x ¹³C₃

_Combinations

Eg 3. In a hand of poker, 5 cards are dealt from a regular pack of 52 cards.

ii) In how many of these hands are there:

c) all Hearts?

Solution: ¹³C₅

d) all the same color?

Solution: Red or Black ²⁶C₅ + ²⁶C₅ = 2 x ²⁶C₅

_Combinations

Eg 3. In a hand of poker, 5 cards are dealt from a regular pack of 52 cards.

ii) In how many of these hands are there:

e) four of the same kind?

Solution: ⁴C₄ x ⁴⁸C₁ x 13 = 1 x 48 x 13

f) 3 Aces and two Kings?

Solution: ⁴C₃ x ⁴C₂

Further Permutations and Combinations

Eg.1 If 4 Maths books are selected from 6 different Maths books and 3 English books are chosen from 5 different English books, how many ways can the seven books be arranged on a shelf:

a) If there are no restrictions?

Solution: ⁶C₄ x ⁵C₃ x 7!

c) If the 4 Maths books remain together?

Solution: = (MMMM)___

= ⁶P₄ x ⁵C₃ x 4! or (⁶C₄ x 4!) x ⁵C₃ x 4!

Further Permutations and Combinations

Eg.1 If 4 Maths books are selected from 6 different Maths books and 3 English books are chosen from 5 different English books, how many ways can the seven books be arranged on a shelf if:

c) a Maths book is at the beginning of the shelf?

Solution: = M_______

= 6 x ⁵C₃ x ⁵C₃ x 6!

Further Permutations and Combinations

Eg.1 If 4 Maths books are selected from 6 different Maths books and 3 English books are chosen from 5 different English books, how many ways can the seven books be arranged on a shelf if:

d) Maths and English books alternate

Solution: = M E M E M E M

= ⁶P₄ x ⁵P₃

Further Permutations and Combinations

Eg.1 If 4 Maths books are selected from 6 different Maths books and 3 English books are chosen from 5 different English books, how many ways can the seven books be arranged on a shelf if:

e) Maths is at the beginning and an English book is in the middle of the shelf.

Solution: M __ E ___

= 6 x 5 x ⁵C₃ x ⁴C₂ x 5!

Further Permutations and Combinations

Eg 2. (i) How many different 8-letter words are possible using the letters of the word SYLLABUS?

Solution: 2 S's & 2 L's

Words =

= 10 080

Further Permutations and Combinations

SYLLABUS = 10 080 permutations

(ii) If a word is chosen at random, find the probability that the word:

a) contains the two S’s together

Solution: (SS) ______ (Two L's)

Words = 7!/2! = 2520 Prob = 2520/10080 = 1/4

b) begins and ends with L

Solution: L _______ L (Two S's)

Words = 6!/2! = 360 Prob = 360/10080 = 1/28

Conclusion:

Permutations and combinations are scoring topics in HSC Extension 1 Mathematics when the concepts are clear, and formulas are applied correctly. By understanding whether order matters, choosing the right formula, and practising exam-style questions, you can avoid common mistakes and gain confidence in probability problems. Use this guide as a quick revision before exams and focus on step-by-step working to secure full marks.

Finding Peace in a Busy World and Exploring the Benefits of Nature Relaxation

2023-03-17T04:05:00.000-07:00

Nature relaxation is the act of finding peace, calmness, and serenity through observation and immersion in natural surroundings. It is an essential part of our well-being, as it helps us to reconnect with the natural world and improve our mental and physical health.

beautiful nature

In today's fast-paced world, we are constantly bombarded with stressors that affect our daily lives, such as work, technology, and social media. As a result, we often find ourselves feeling anxious, overwhelmed, and mentally exhausted. However, nature relaxation can offer a respite from these stressors, allowing us to relax and unwind in a natural setting.

There are many ways to practice nature relaxation, such as spending time in a park, hiking in the woods, or simply sitting outside in your backyard. The key is to be fully present and immersed in your surroundings, allowing yourself to experience the beauty and tranquility of nature.

One of the most popular ways to practice nature relaxation is through forest bathing, also known as shinrin-yoku. This Japanese practice involves spending time in a forest, immersing yourself in the sights, sounds, and smells of nature. Research has shown that forest bathing can reduce stress, lower blood pressure, and boost immune system function.

women's meditation

Another way to practice nature relaxation is through mindfulness meditation. Mindfulness meditation involves focusing on the present moment and being fully aware of your thoughts, emotions, and sensations. When practicing mindfulness meditation in nature, you can focus on the sights, sounds, and smells of your surroundings, allowing yourself to fully experience the present moment.

In addition to improving mental and physical health, nature relaxation can also have a positive impact on our relationships. Spending time in nature with loved ones can strengthen our bonds and create cherished memories. It can also provide an opportunity for us to disconnect from technology and other distractions, allowing us to focus on the present moment and the people we are with.

In recent years, there has been a surge in interest in nature relaxation as people search for ways to manage stress and improve their overall well-being. Along with this interest, there has been a growing trend among YouTubers to create videos on this topic. These videos often feature stunning footage of natural landscapes, such as mountains, forests, oceans, and waterfalls, and are accompanied by soothing sounds or music.

The rise of these nature relaxation videos can be attributed to several factors. First and foremost, they offer an escape from the stresses of daily life. Many people spend a significant amount of time sitting in front of screens, whether it's for work, school, or entertainment. The constant bombardment of information and stimuli can be overwhelming, leaving people feeling anxious and exhausted. Nature relaxation videos provide a much-needed break from this digital overload, allowing viewers to disconnect and recharge.

about wellness

Another reason for the popularity of these videos is their accessibility. Unlike a trip to the mountains or a day at the beach, nature relaxation videos can be accessed from anywhere with an internet connection. This means that people who live in urban areas or who are unable to travel can still enjoy the benefits of nature. Additionally, these videos are often free to access, making them a cost-effective way to manage stress and anxiety.

One of the most notable examples of this trend is the "slow TV" movement, which originated in Norway and has since spread to other countries. Slow TV involves broadcasting hours-long programs of unedited footage of scenic landscapes or other relaxing scenes, such as a train ride or a knitting competition. These programs are designed to be meditative and calming, and viewers are encouraged to watch them as a form of mindfulness practice. Slow TV has been especially popular in Scandinavia, where the long, dark winters can be especially challenging for mental health.

There are also many individual YouTubers who specialize in nature relaxation content. Some of these creators film their own footage, while others use stock footage or collaborate with other videographers. Some popular channels in this genre include Nature Relaxation Films, The Silent Watcher, and Soothing Relaxation. These channels have millions of subscribers and have become a go-to source for people looking to unwind and destress.

nature relaxation

the rise of nature relaxation videos on YouTube reflects a growing interest in mindfulness and self-care. As people become more aware of the impact of stress on their mental and physical health, they are looking for ways to incorporate relaxation into their daily routines. Whether it's through slow TV, nature walks, or YouTube videos, the trend of nature relaxation is likely to continue as people seek out new ways to find calm and serenity in an increasingly chaotic world.

In conclusion, nature relaxation is an essential part of our well-being, offering a respite from the stressors of modern life and allowing us to reconnect with the natural world. By spending time in nature, we can improve our mental and physical health, strengthen our relationships, and find peace and tranquility in our lives. So, the next time you feel overwhelmed or stressed, take a break and spend some time in nature. Your mind and body will thank you.

Mphasis Logical Reasoning Questions and Answers Part 1

2023-03-04T00:09:00.001-08:00

Mphasis Random Questions Part - 1

Mphasis Logical Reasoning Questions and Answers

1. Decode the word(s)/pattern given in the question.

If CHAIR is coded as HCARI, then SHAME is coded as:

A. IDBSJ

B. IDASJ

C. HSBEM

D. HSAEM -> Answer

2. Read the passage carefully and select the answer option that can be inferred from it.

According to a recent study, in the local municipal elections. The candidate who interacts more with the Resident’s Welfare Associations and wins their trust will get the maximum name recognition in the elections.

A. Local Resident’s Welfare Associations are the most important factor in elections in the city.

B. Maximum name recognition will help a candidate win a higher percentage of votes cast during the election.

C. Resident’s welfare associations exert a lot of influence over the voting population residing in the city.

D. For maximum name recognition a candidate need not spend a lot of money on posters, banners and advertising campaigns.

3. Choose the correct option.

From the given choices select the odd one out.

A. C5H

B. E6L -> Answer

C. M4Q

D. T3W

Explination: c+5=h e+6=k m+4=q t+3=w

4. Choose the correct option.

Complete the series in a logical manner.

CEEGI : JLNP ; QSUW : _________

A. WCMS

B. SXBD

C. XZBD -> Answer

5. Determine the relationship between the first two words and then identify the missing word of the second pair such that it is analogous to the first pair.

INVITE : JOWJUF :: ATTEND :

A. BUUFOE -> Answer

B. BUUGOF

C. CUUFOE

D. CUUGOF

6. Choose the correct option.

From the given choices select the odd one out.

A. PRQ

B. ACB

C. TUV -> Answer

D. QSR

7. Choose the correct option.

A child has strayed from his path while coming home from school. He first goes 3 kms towards south from his school and then moves 5 kms towards east. He again moves 3 kms towards north and then goes 2 kms towards west. How far is his school situated from home?

A. 3 kms -> Answer

B. 1 km

C. 2 kms

D. 8 kms

8. Choose the correct option.

A baby crawls 12 feet towards east and then 4 feet towards south. He then crawls 9 feet towards west. How far is he from his initial position?

A. 2 feet

B. 9 feet

C. 5 feet -> Answer

D. 16 feet

9. Given signs signify something and on that basis, assume the given statements to be true and find which of the two conclusions I and II is/ are definitely true

A+B means A is greater than equal to B

A-B means A is greater than B

A=B means A is not equal to B

A*B means A is less than B

A/B means A is equal to B

Statements

P/Q, Q+R, R-S

Conclusions

I P=Q

II Q*S

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Neither conclusion I nor II is true -> Answer

D. Both conclusions I and II are true

10. In the given alphabetic series, some alphabets are missing. The options comprise the alphabet that should complete the series in a logical manner. Choose the correct option.

_ cb_ca_bacb_ca_bac_d

A. bddddb

B. addbbb

C. addddb -> Answer

D. bbbddd

11. Find the next number in the series.

8,12,24,60, …..

A. 120

B. 180 -> Answer

C. 142

D. 100

12. Choose the correct option.

Rohen is walking towards west. He takes three turns while walking, all at an (internal) angle of 45 degrees towards right, right and left. What direction is he facing now?

A. North-East -> Answer

B. South-East

C. East

D. West

13. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the information given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.

Problem question: What is the area of the top of the table?

Statements:

I)The top of the table is rectangular in shape

II)the length of the top of the table is 35cm

A. Statement I alone is sufficient in answering the problem question

B. Statement II alone is sufficient in answering the problem question

C. Both statements put together are sufficient in answering the problem question

D. Both the statements even put together are not sufficient in answering the problem question

E. Either of the statement is sufficient in answering the problem question -> Answer

14. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the information given in the statement(s) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.

Problem question: Who is Jill’s uncle?

Statements:

I). Jill’s father Bill’s only nephew Jack is Sam’s son.

II). Frank is Jill’s only paternal cousin’s maternal aunt’s only brother-In-Iaw.

A. Statement I alone is sufficient in answering the problem question

B. Statement II alone is sufficient in answering the problem question

C. Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient in answering the problem question

D. Both statements put together are sufficient in answering the problem question -> Answer

E. Both the statements even put together are not sufficient in answering the problem question

15. Choose the option that arranges the given set of words in the ‘most’ meaningful order. The words when put in order should make logical sense according to size, quality, quantity, the occurrence of events, value, appearance, nature, process, etc.

1. Milk

2. Goat

3. Butter

4. Grass

5. Cream

A. 4,2,1,5,3

B. 2,4,1,5,3

C. 4,2,5,3,1 -> Answer

D. 2,4,5,3,1

16. Choose the correct option.

A lady travels 5km towards south, then 4km towards east, then 8 km towards north and then 2 km towards west. In which direction is she from her starting point?

A. North-east

B. South-east

C. South-west

D. south -> Answer

17. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.

European cars have traditionally been smaller and more fuel-efficient than their giant American cousins, but current policy explicitly stresses eco-friendliness. For example, recent British legislation has linked taxation to CO2 emissions with the lowest tax rate of 15 percent on the list price reserved for cars emitting less than 165 gms/km and rising by one percent for each 5gm increase in CO2 levels.

A. The British are unconcerned about the environment and rules have to be imposed upon them for the maintenance of a clean environment

B. The lesser the list price of a car, the greater its fuel efficiency and so lesser the tax on it

C. The more fuel efficient a vehicle is, the more eco-friendly it will be -> Answer

D. Fuel efficiency does not necessarily correlate with eco-friendliness

18. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.

The deep-rooted problem concerning the abuse of illegal drugs such as ganja, heroin, and cocaine today, reminds us of the abuse of alcohol during the 1990s. During that time, consumption of alcohol in the country was rampant despite the prohibition, History repeats itself, but this time with even worse repercussions. With the glorification of drugs in the media, even teenagers are getting influenced and are becoming habitual in the consumption of drugs.

A. Due to the adverse effect of alcohol abuse during prohibition, people steer clear of drug use now -> Answer

B. Alcohol is considered a lesser evil as compared to drugs

C. Media has been responsible for the alcohol and drug addiction that gripped the country

D. Abuse of alcohol was restricted among adults in the 90s

PASSAGE

19. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

I. There are five friends.

II. They are standing in a row facing south.

III. Sarala is to the immediate right of Swati.

IV. Sanju is standing between Sita and Megha.

V. Megha is standing between Sarala and Sanju.

Choose the correct option.

Who is at the extreme right end?

A. Sita

B. Swati

C. Megha

D. Data inadequate -> Answer

PASSAGE

20. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

I. There are five friends.

II. They are standing in a row facing south.

III. Sarala is to the immediate right of Swati.

IV. Sanju is standing between Sita and Megha.

V. Megha is standing between Sarala and Sanju.

Choose the correct option.

Who is to the left of Megha?

A. Sanju

B. Sarala -> Answer

C. Swati

D. None of the above

PASSAGE

21. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

I. There are five friends.

II. They are standing in a row facing south.

III. Sarala is to the immediate right of Swati.

IV. Sanju is standing between Sita and Megha.

V. Megha is standing between Sarala and Sanju.

Choose the correct option.

Who is sitting fourth from the right end?

A. Sanju

B. Sita

C. Sarala

D. Swati -> Answer

22. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

I. There are five friends.

II. They are standing in a row facing south.

III. Sarala is to the immediate right of Swati.

IV. Sanju is standing between Sita and Megha.

V. Megha is standing between Sarala and Sanju.

Choose the correct option.

Who is in the middle?

A. Sarala

B. Sita

C. Megha -> Answer

D. Sanju

PASSAGE

23. The following are the conditions of an organization for recruiting a Sales Manager.

1. The candidate should be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks.

2. The candidate must be above 26 years and not exceed 35 years of age as of 31.12.2012.

3. The candidate should have relevant work experience of at least 1 year in the FMCG sector.

4. The candidate should be able to converse fluently in English, Hindi, and any one regional language.

5. The candidate should be ready to be on probation for 1 year.

However,

a). Candidates who fulfill all conditions except (3.) but are postgraduates from Top B-Schools or have secured 80% or above in post-graduation must be referred to the Associate Vice President.

b). Candidates who fulfill all conditions except (4.) should be referred to the General Manager of the company.

Should the given candidate be recruited? (The case is presented as of 1.1.2012)

A decision has to be taken on the basis of the given conditions. There are two cases based on the same set of conditions. Take a decision for both cases and mark the correct answer for each.

Ragini Nair is a postgraduate with 85% marks and has been working for the past 2 years with two different companies as a sales executive. She has one work experience of 1 year with one of the companies and doesn’t have any lag between resigning from one company and joining the other. She had scored distinction in her graduation. She was born on 16.10.1986. She is ready to work on probation for 1 year and is well-versed in English, Hindi, and Malayalam.

A. Candidate should not be recruited

B. Candidate should be recruited

C. Candidate should be referred to the Associate Vice President -> Answer

D. Candidate should be referred to the General Manager

E. Data insufficient

PASSAGE

24. The following are the conditions of an organization for recruiting a Sales Manager.

6. The candidate should be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks.

7. The candidate must be above 26 years and not exceed 35 years of age as of 31.12.2012.

8. The candidate should have relevant work experience of at least 1 year in the FMCG sector.

9. The candidate should be able to converse fluently in English, Hindi, and any one regional language.

10. The candidate should be ready to be on probation for 1 year.

However,

a). Candidates who fulfill all conditions except (3.) but are postgraduates from Top B-Schools or have secured 80% or above in post-graduation must be referred to the Associate Vice President.

b)Candidates who fulfill all conditions except (4.) should be referred to the General Manager of the company.

Should the given candidate be recruited? (The case is presented as of 1.1.2012)

A decision has to be taken on the basis of the given conditions. There are two cases based on the same set of conditions. Take a decision for both cases and mark the correct answer for each.

Rajneesh is a graduate with 55% marks and has been working for the past 3 years in a sales role but not in any FMCG company. He is a postgraduate and was born on 26.09.1989. He is ready to work on probation for 1 year, and is fluent in Hindi and English but doesn’t know any regional language.

A. Candidate should not be recruited

B. Candidate should be recruited

C. Candidate should be referred to the Associate Vice President -> Answer

D. Candidate should be referred to the General Manager

E. Data insufficient

25. Decode the word(s) / pattern given in the question.

If STICK is coded as RSHBJ, then REPLY is coded as:

A. SFQNX

B. QDOKX -> Answer

C. SFQMZ

D. QDOMX

26. Choose the option that arranges the given set of words in the ‘most’ meaningful order. The words when put in order should make logical sense according to size, quality, quantity, the occurrence of events, value, appearance, nature, process, etc.

1. Community

2. Locality

3. Family

4. Country

5. Person

A. 4,1,2,3,5 -> Answer

B. 4,2,1,3,5

C. 5,3,2,1,4

D. 5,3,4,2,1

27. Choose the correct option.

Choose the odd man out.

A. TRIANGLE

B. SQUARE

C. PENTAGON

D. CIRCLE -> Answer

28. Find the next number in the series.

3, 15, 35, 63, ….

A. 101

B. 121

C. 99 -> Answer

D. 98

27. Choose the correct option

From the given anagrams select the odd one out.

A. RKOC

B. RRIVE -> Answer

C. ADNS

D. LNDA

28. Choose the correct option.

26:37:45:

A. 46

B. 67

C. 57 -> Answer

D. 56

29. Choose the correct option.

Sagar walks 30 meters west and takes a left turn to walk 10 meters, then takes a left turn again and walks 40 meters, and takes another left turn and walks 20 meters. In which direction is he standing now from the starting point?

A. North-East

B. South-East

C. North-West

D. North -> Answer

30. Symbols -, +, *, and / mean the following:

A-B means A is equal to B

A+B means A is 3 more than twice of B

A*B means A is 70 percent of B

A/B means A is less than B

Using these symbols and taking the given statements as true, find out which of the given conclusions is/are definitely true?

Statements:

X +Y, Z * Y, and Z – A

Conclusions:

I.Z/X

II.A/X

A. Only I is true -> Answer

B. Only II is true

C. Both are Correct

D. None of these is true

31. Choose the correct option.

Meera said, “This man is the husband of the granddaughter of my mother”. How is Meera related to the man? (Consider Meera does not have any siblings)

A. Mother

B. Mother-in-law

C. Daughter

D. Daughter-in-law -> Answer

32. Choose the correct option.

D4T:H4P:LR:

A. P4N

B. Q5N

C. P5N

D. Q4N -> Answer

33. Find the next number in the series.

79, 64, 26, 15, …

A. 9 -> Answer

B. 6

C. 10

D. 8

34. Symbols*,/, # and @ mean the following:

A*B means A is greater than B

A/B means A is less than or equal to B.

A #B means A is greater than or equal to B.

A @ B means A is equal to B.

Q) Using these symbols and taking the given statements as true, find out which of the given conclusions is/are definitely true?

Statements:

X@ Y, Y # Z and Z/A

Conclusions:

I.X/A

II.X @ A

A. Only I is true -> Answer

B. Only II is true

C. Both are correct

D. None of these is true

35. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the information given in the statement(s ) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.

Problem Question:

X,y, and z are three distinct integers. Is y the greatest of the three?

Statements:

I). x is less than at least one of the two integers y and z.

II. )z is less than at least one of the two integers x and y.

A. Any one statement alone is sufficient to answer the problem question, but the other statement alone cannot answer the problem question

B. Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient in answering the problem question

C. Both statements put together are sufficient in answering the problem question

D. Both the statements even put together are not sufficient in answering the problem question -> Answer

36. Choose the correct option.

If north is called north-east, north-east is called east, east is called southeast, and so on. What will southeast be called?

A. West

B. North

C. South -> Answer

D. East

37. The question consists of a problem question followed by two statements I and II. Find out if the information given in the statement(s ) is sufficient in finding the solution to the problem.

Problem Question:

Is 200 the average (arithmetic mean) score in the CAT exams?

Statements:

I) . Half of the people who give the CAT exam, score above 200, and half of the people score below 200.

II). The highest CAT score is 400 and the lowest score is 100.

A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the Problem Question.

B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the Problem Question.

C. Either of the statements taken individually is sufficient to answer the problem question.

D. Both statements put together are sufficient to answer the problem question.

E. Both the statements even put together are not sufficient in answering the problem question. -> Answer

38. Choose the option that arranges the given set of words in the ‘most’ meaningful order. The words when put in order should make logical sense according to size, quality, quantity, the occurrence of events, value, appearance, nature, process, etc.

Q)1. Key

2. Door

3. Lock

4. Room

5. Light-on

A. 5,1,2,4,3

B. 4,2,1,5,3 -> Answer

C. 1,2,3,5,4

D. 1,3,2,4,5

39. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.

Skeptics argue that flying saucers and UFOs that are believed to be guided by extraterrestrial beings or aliens are creations of the human imagination. They have demonstrated that a number of photographs that apparently show flying saucers are either phony or misinterpreted images of earthly or natural objects such as airplanes or meteors. However, there are scientists who have also contributed plenty of evidence and asserted that aliens do exist.

A. Lack of credibility of photographic evidence should be taken as proof of the non-existence of aliens.

B. While the existence of flying saucers and UFOs has been denied, the possibility of alien beings is still a reality

C. UFOs and flying saucers, if a reality, are of the same shape and size as airplanes

D. The fact that a number of photographs of flying saucers are fake cannot disprove the existence of aliens and UFOs -> Answer

40. Read the passage carefully and select the statement that can be inferred from it.

There is a huge disparity in the cost of manufacturing farm equipment in Brazil and France. Expenses related to manufacturing farm equipment in Brazil are 15% lesser than those in France. It is also true that even after the imposition of various taxes and duties, it is still economical to import farm equipment from Brazil than manufacture them in France.

A. To conclude whether farm equipment manufactured in Brazil would replace those manufactured in France, the quality of these machines would also need to be considered

B. Demand for farm equipment is highly price sensitive -> Answer

C. The import tax on farm equipment imported from Brazil is less than fifteen percent of the cost of manufacturing machines in France

D. Importing farm machines from Brazil would help France redeploy existing capacity into manufacturing those products that it has a cost advantage in

PASSAGE

41. There are 4 questions based on the same puzzle. Answer the questions based on the given information:

i)X, Y, Z.P, and R are sitting in a row in front of a camera.

ii) X is on the left of the person sitting in the center but is on the right of Y.

iii) Z is on the right of P and R is on the right of Z.

iv) R is the second person from the person sitting in the center.

Choose the correct option.

Who is sitting in the center?

A. P

B. X

C. Y

D. Z -> Answer

PASSAGE

42. Choose the correct option.

Who is sitting in the corner?

A. X

B. P -> Answer

C. Y

D. Z

PASSAGE

43. Choose the correct option.

Which pair is X sitting between?

A. P and Z

B. P and R

C. Y and P -> Answer

D. Y and Z

PASSAGE

44. There are 2 questions based on the same data. Answer the questions based on the given information:

The following are the conditions for selecting a “Management trainee’ for a reputed company. The candidate must:

1. Be a postgraduate in commerce with at least 60% marks or a CA.

2. Not be more than 25 years old and less than 20 years old as of 1.12.2009.

3. Have fluency in English and Hindi.

4. Be in a position to pay Rs. 10000 as a deposit to the company.

5. Give the undertaking to work for at least 5 years for the company.

However

a.) If the candidate fulfills all conditions except (1.) then he/she should be referred to the Managing Director of the Company.

b.) If the candidate fulfills all conditions except (4.) then he/she should be referred to the chairman of the Company.

Should the given candidate be selected? (The case is presented as of 1.12.2009)

Choose the correct option.

23-year-old Suresh is a CA with fluency in Hindi and English. He can pay Rs.8000 as a deposit and will give five years undertaking.

A. Insufficient Data

B. Candidate should not be selected

C. Candidate should be selected

D. Candidate is to be referred to the Managing Director

E. Candidate is to be referred to the chairman -> Answer

45. Choose the correct option.

Rajan is a postgraduate in Commerce with 70% marks. He is fluent in English and Hindi. He is willing to take the 5-year undertaking and is also ready to pay the required deposit. His date of birth is 01.11.1989.

A. Insufficient Data

B. Candidate should not be selected

C. Candidate should be selected

D. Candidate is to be referred to the Managing Director -> Answer

E. candidate is to be referred to the chairman

46. Decode the word(s) / pattern given in the question.

If WORD is coded as 9753, then DOOR is coded as:

A. 3579

B. 3559

C. 9357

D. 3775 -> Answer

47. Choose the option that arranges the given set of words in the ‘most’ meaningful order. The words when put in order should make logical sense according to size, quality, quantity, the occurrence of events, value, appearance, nature, process, etc.

1). Community

2). Locality

3). Family

4). Country

5). Person

A. 4,1,2,3,5 -> Answer

B. 4,2,1,3,5

C. 5,3,2,1,4

D. 5,3,4,2,1

48. Choose the correct option.

From the given choices select the odd one out.

A. BDF -> Answer

B. MQT

C. HKN

D. PTX

49. Choose the correct option.

From the given choices select the odd man out.

A. FU

B. DW

C. CX

D. NR -> Answer

50. Decode the word(s) / pattern given in the question.

If JUDGE is coded as UJDEG, then ORDER is coded as:

A. RODRE

B. REDRO

C. RODER

D. REDOR -> Answer

Amazon Data Associate I, ML Interview Question and Answers

2023-02-10T00:17:00.091-08:00

Each question contains 1 mark

Choose the option that meaningfully completes the sentence.

1. I called the team______to my place to celebrate.

over
about
in
upto

2. The moment I bring________the topic of my vacation, my boss changes the topic.

in
of
down
up

3. Mother's day is celebrated__________the second Sunday of May.

in
at
on
by

4. Although he was tired, he_________working.

was going on
is going on
goes on
went on

5. The teacher advised his students to_______bad company.

give up
leave away
give off
leave out

6. Conservationists in South Africa_________a slightly awkward but highly effective way of moving rhinos in order to protect them from poaching threats.

have been coming up with
has become
have come up with
would have had come to

7. When things go wrong there are issues that have to be addressed and the answers_________

may not be easy
easy to reply
respond directly
understanding the cause

Choose the option that meaningfully completes the sentences I and II.

8. I. Ramesh was_when he talked about women safety at work. II. There was a major car accident that morning just after the__turn at the signal.

good
right
bend
sharp

9. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making a________selection.

normal
standard
moderate
judicious

10. Comets are_________ancient particles of ice and dust, left over from the formation of the solar system.

believed to consist of
consisting of belief
believing to be made
made to believe

11. Homeowners aren't warning up to the idea of installing solar panels on their terraces because_________

the economics do not work up for them
the economics does not work out for them
the economics do not work out for them
the economics are not working for them

12. When a man has too much of material possessions, the blessing is_________and is no longer gratifying.

taken for granted
always ready to receive
bestowing on others
too much money

13. Mr.Tulliver_________tapping the ground curiously here and there with his stick.

sat down on the bench
sit on a bench in a row
bench is in a row
a bench for sitting

14. Choose the option with the correct punctuation.

I asked her if she wanted to go shopping with me.
I asked her "if she wanted to go shopping with me."
I asked her,if she wanted to go shopping with me.
I asked her if she wanted to go shopping with me?

15. Choose the option with the correct punctuation.

Wouldn't you like some tea? Yes, I would like a muffin too.
Wouldn't you like some tea. Yes I would like a muffin too
Wouldn't you like some tea! Yes, I would like a muffin too
Wouldn't you like some tea? Yes, I would like a muffin too?

Direction: Identify if the underlined part in the below sentence is incorrect. if Yes, choose the option which makes the sentence grammatically correct. If No, choose the option that is the same as the underlined part.

16. A leader is expected to remain calm even though he may be angry at his subordinates.

on
with
into
at

17. They needed the candidates to confirm them their interview timings.

confirm them
confirm regarding
confirm in
confirm with them

Out of the four underlined phrases marked(A),(B),(C)and(D), choose the phrase which is wrong or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.

18. With the charisma that he's (A) best known for,(B) he started,"Myself Suresh Kumar(C) and I am here to change(D) your life!"

A
B
C
D

19. Praveen loves music. (A) He was learning(B) Hindustani classical music(C) since he was six.(D)

A
B
C
D

20. Whenever we decide (A) /to carpool,(B) /Namrita is late always,(C) /delaying us as well.(D)

A
B
C
D

Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows.

21. The economic condition in Somalia continues to be critical even after a good harvest season. What can be said about Somalia's economy?

It can be revived with a good harvest.
Even a good harvest could not save it.
A good harvest provided some relief.
They are looking forward to a good harvest.

22. "If you are a software developer looking for a job, we would like to have you as our supervisor." An advertisement by Company ABC. Company ABC is in need for:

an unemployed software developer.
a supervisor.
an unemployed student.
a software developer as their supervisor.

23. If you have any unresolved consumer disputes, do not feel that you are helpless, do not hesitate to assert your rights.Approache the Distinct Consumer Forum for speedy redressal. The statement has been made by the:

State Excise Department
Department of Information and Public Relations
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Department of Consumer Affairs

Direction: Out of the words/phrases given below, the position of 1 is fixed. Choose the most logical order of the remaining words/phrases to construct a coherent sentence.

24. 1.Osmosis is a process by which molecules of
P. a solvent tend to pass through
Q. into a more concentrated one.
R. a less concentrated solution
S. a semipermeable membrane from

PQRS
PSRQ
PSQR
SRPQ

Choose the most logical order of the given sentences to construct a coherent paragraph.

25. A. Everybody knows the presence of water is crucial for the presence of life on our Earth.
B. But what is relatively unknown is that water also exists in other forms.
C. Water undergoes structural changes at the molecular level, which makes it an aggresive solvent at high pressure and temperature.
D. These include water existing in the form of different crystalline structures, at different temperatures and pressures.

ABDC
DCBA
BCAD
CBDA

26. 1. Black swans
P. were once thought
Q. is now known to
R. the species
S. to be sedentary, but
T. be highly nomadic

PQRST
PSRQT
QTRPS
TRQPS

Choose the most appropriate response to the following statement.

27. How is Jason relatd to Hannah?

They both have a degree in management.
Hannah graduated from Texas University.
Their mothers are first cousins.
Jason helps in his father's automobile business.

28. This is the last time you are being let off with a warning.

I will be more careful with my actions.
These has to be more to it.
How soon can that be done?
I can't remember the first time.

29. I'm glad you purchased this dress. It was better than all others.

Yes, I should have bought it.
Yes, we could have found something better.
Yes, I liked the other one too.
Yes, it was indeed the best.

30. "How's it going?" Reema asked. Jane replied:

"It must have reached by now."
"She is travelling by train."
"It went at a tedious pace."
"Fine, How are you doing?"

Also, checkout this posts:

Amazon Tron Associate Interview Question and Answers

Data Entry Specialist Interview Questions and Answers From Turing

Capgemini Logical Reasoning and Essay Questions and Answers Part - 1

The Rising Trend of Layoffs in Today's Business World

2023-02-09T21:40:00.001-08:00

Layoffs in Companies: Understanding the Impact and Finding Solutions

employee fired from a company

Layoffs are a reality for many companies, especially during challenging economic times. A layoff is the termination of employment for a group of employees, usually as a result of the company's need to reduce costs. The impact of layoffs can be devastating for both the employees who lose their jobs and the companies that have to make these difficult decisions.

Why Do Layoffs Happen?

There are many reasons why companies may choose to lay off employees. Some of the most common include declining revenue, shifting business strategies, mergers, and acquisitions, or restructuring to streamline operations. Layoffs can also occur as a result of technology advancements that automate certain job functions, or as a response to changes in the industry or market.

The Impact of Layoffs on Employees

For employees, layoffs can be a traumatic experience that can lead to financial hardship, loss of income, and decreased morale. The loss of a job can cause stress, anxiety, and uncertainty about the future. For those who have been with a company for a long time, the layoff can feel like a personal rejection and a blow to their self-esteem.

employee loses his job

The Impact of Layoffs on Companies

While layoffs may seem like an effective solution for reducing costs in the short term, they can also have negative long-term effects on the company. A layoff can create a negative perception of the company among customers, investors, and the public, which can harm the company's reputation and brand.

In addition, layoffs can lead to a decrease in morale and productivity among the remaining employees, who may feel uncertain about their own job security and less motivated to work. This can lead to increased turnover, decreased innovation, and lower overall performance for the company.

decreasing financial stability

Finding Solutions to Layoffs

While layoffs may be necessary in some cases, there are alternative solutions that companies can consider to reduce costs without sacrificing employees. Some options include:

Reduced work hours: Companies can consider reducing work hours for all employees instead of laying off a portion of the workforce. This can help reduce costs while still providing employees with a stable income.
Early retirement incentives: Companies can offer early retirement incentives to encourage employees to retire earlier than they had planned. This can help reduce the workforce while still providing employees with a financial cushion.
Training and development: Companies can invest in training and development programs to help employees acquire new skills and transition into new roles within the company. This can help employees stay with the company and continue to contribute to its success.
Cost-cutting measures: Companies can also consider other cost-cutting measures, such as reducing expenses for travel, supplies, and other non-essential items.

Surviving layoffs in a corporate company can be challenging, but there are several steps you can take to improve your chances of keeping your job:

Stay informed: Stay up to date on the company's financial health and performance, as well as any rumors or news about layoffs. This information can help you understand the likelihood of layoffs and prepare accordingly.
Focus on your work: Keep your focus on your job and continue to perform well. Make sure you're meeting or exceeding your performance expectations and contributing to the company's success.
Develop new skills: Consider developing new skills or expanding your knowledge in areas that are in high demand. This can make you more valuable to the company and less likely to be affected by layoffs.

improve industrial skills

Network and build relationships: Network with others in your company and build strong relationships with your colleagues and superiors. This can help you stay informed about potential changes and may increase the chances of being retained during layoffs.
Be open to change: Be open to taking on new responsibilities or exploring alternative career paths within the company. This can demonstrate your flexibility and adaptability, which can be attractive to your employer.

Remember, no one can guarantee that they will not be laid off, but by taking these steps you can increase your chances of surviving layoffs in your company.

Also, read these

Conclusion:

Layoffs are a difficult reality for many companies and employees. While layoffs may be necessary in some cases, companies can consider alternative solutions to reduce costs without sacrificing employees. By finding creative solutions to layoffs, companies can minimize the impact on employees and maintain their competitive edge in the long term.

Samsung Galaxy S23 Ultra 5G Features and Specifications

2023-02-05T10:38:00.004-08:00

New Samsung Galaxy S23 series: Price and offers in India, color options

Get a smartphone that can recognize your moods and respond accordingly. The powerful processor and sophisticated camera sensor in the Samsung Galaxy Ultra can handle low light and noise reduction. Quick gaming and video streaming are also made possible by the phone's Snapdragon 8 Gen 2 CPU, which also offers a long battery life to get you through even the busiest days. Launching Expert RAW will also allow you to shoot vibrant, information-rich high-resolution RAW images. Additionally, Dynamic AMOLED 2X provides sharp, crisp details in both bright and dim lighting. Additionally, the refresh rate is automatically optimized using 120 Hz technology to improve gameplay and conserve electricity.

Samsung Galaxy S23 Ultra 5G (Phantom Black, 256 GB) (12 GB RAM)

1. Perfect Photography

The Samsung Galaxy Ultra handles low light conditions and noise reduction because of its potent CPU and advanced camera sensor. To provide an incredibly clean image, even the camera lens suppresses flare.

2. Processor of High Caliber

This phone's Snapdragon 8 Gen 2 engine enables fast gaming and video streaming while still providing an extended battery life to get you through even the busiest days.

3. Sustainable Design

A recyclable paper casing and paper-based protection film are used to package this phone. It is colored with organic dyes and constructed from recycled glass and PET film.

A powerful Battery comes with 5000mah Capacity

4. Strong Battery

This phone's smart 5000 mAh battery enables you to play games and stream late into the night without any restrictions.

5. RAW Expertise at its Best

You only need to run Expert RAW to capture vivid, detail-rich high-resolution RAW images. By manually adjusting the exposure or letting the camera decide, you may capture planets and constellations with clarity when taking an astrophoto.

6. Adaptive Display

Dynamic AMOLED 2X offers clear, vivid details whether the screen is light brightly or poorly. Additionally, to smooth up gaming and save power, the refresh rate is automatically optimized with 120 Hz technology.

7. Incredible S Pen

By including the S Pen, this phone continues the heritage started by the Note. Additionally, it encourages you to cease utilizing notebooks, keeping memos and drawings easy and less wasteful.

Samsung Galaxy Latest One UI

8. One UI Experience

By allowing you to personalize practically every component, such as widgets, notifications, lock screens, and themes, One UI enhances adaptability. Personalizing your phone in this way is easy.

9. Incredible Connectivity

You can get started right away with only a short Wi-Fi transfer or a fast login to your Samsung Account. Moving your apps, photos, texts, and many more from any OS to your new smartphone only takes a few simple steps.

Features and Specifications:

In The Box: Handset, Sim Ejection Pin, USB Cable, Manual, Pen

Model Number: SM-S918BZKCINS

Model Name: Galaxy S23 Ultra 5G

SIM Type: Dual Sim

Hybrid Sim Slot: Yes

Quick Charging: Yes

Display Size: 17.27 cm (6.8 inches)

Resolution: 3088 x 1440 PIxels

Resolution Type: Full HD+

GPU: Qualcomm Adreno 740

Display Type: Full HD+ Dynamic AMOLED 2X

HD Game Support: Yes

Other Display Features: Display Brightness: 500 Nits

Operating System: Android 13

Processor Type: Qualcomm Snapdragon 8 Gen 2

Processor Core: Octa Core

Internal Storage: 256 GB

RAM: 12 GB

Total Memory: 256 GB

Primary Camera: 200MP + 10MP + 12MP + 10MP

Secondary Camera: 12MP Front Camera

Frame Rate: 30 fps

Network Type: 5G, 4G, 3G, 2G

Supported Networks: 5G, 4G LTE, WCDMA, GSM

Audio Jack: Type-C

SIM Size: Nano Sim

User Interface: One UI 5.1 (Based on Android 13)

Graphics PPI: 500 PPI

Sensors: Accelerometer, Barometer, Fingerprint Sensor, Gyro Sensor, Geomagnetic Sensor, Hall Sensor, Light Sensor, Proximity Sensor

Battery Capacity: 5000 mAh

Weight: 233 g

Price & More Details:

Releases on Feb 24, 2023

Samsung Galaxy S23 Ultra 5G comes in Cream, Green, and Phantom Black colors, and Storage is available in 256 GB, 512 GB, and 1 TB

click here to pre-order SAMSUNG Galaxy S23 Ultra 5G (Phantom Black, 256 GB) (12 GB RAM)

Oppo Reno8T 5G A Comprehensive Look at its Features and Specifications

2023-02-03T05:01:00.016-08:00

The Oppo Reno 8T 5G has been officially launched in India, offering consumers a new 5G smartphone option.

oppo reno 8t 5G

The Oppo Reno8T 5G smartphone offers a wealth of features, including a sleek hyperbolic design that weighs just 171 g and is 7.7 mm thin for a comfortable grip. You'll be able to capture stunning photos with its 108 MP Portrait Camera with Premium Microlens, 2 MP Depth Camera, and 32 MP Selfie Camera. With 8 GB of RAM and up to 8 GB of additional RAM, you'll enjoy the seamless performance. Additionally, the phone is equipped with lightning-fast 5G and a Qualcomm Snapdragon 6 nm processor, ensuring smooth multitasking and an enjoyable user experience.

Product Key Highlights:-

1. Sleek Design

The Oppo Reno8T 5G features a stylish and streamlined hyperbolic design with a weight of 171 g and a slender thickness of 7.7 mm, providing a comfortable grip and a sleek look.

2. Dazzling Display

This phone boasts a 120 Hz 3D curved screen for a premium viewing experience, delivering luxurious visuals and a comfortable grip.

3. About Cameras

With its advanced 108 MP Portrait Camera with premium Microlens, 2 MP Depth Camera, and 32 MP Selfie Camera, this phone allows you to take stunning photos that serve as a creative canvas.

4. NonaPixel Plus technology

This phone is equipped with 108 MP ultra-high resolution and NonaPixel Plus technology, enabling you to capture every moment in unparalleled clarity and detail. The NonaPixel Plus technology merges nine pixels into a single large pixel to maximize light absorption.

5. Supercharge Battery

This phone features a powerful 67 W SUPERVOOC battery with fast charging capabilities, eliminating the frustration of slow charging times. With this technology, the phone can fully charge in just 44 minutes, from 0 to 100%

6. Qualcomm Snapdragon

The Oppo Reno8T 5G features lightning-fast 5G connectivity and a Qualcomm Snapdragon 6 nm processor, delivering smooth and efficient performance. Enjoy quick processing for an enhanced user experience.

7. Bigger RAM

The ColorOS 13 system features a Dynamic Computing Engine, which enhances memory allocation and recovery, allowing for smooth and efficient operation. With its 8 GB of RAM and the option to add up to 8 GB more, you can run multiple applications seamlessly and switch between them with ease. Say goodbye to slow performance.

8. Protect your Eyes

The AI Adaptive Eye Protection System, along with the 2160 Hz High-Frequency PWM dimming technique, effectively reduces eye strain. The brightness of the screen is automatically adjusted to match the surrounding lighting conditions, ensuring a comfortable viewing experience.

9. Care about Battery

The 4800 mAh Large Battery of this phone is designed to last, thanks to the Battery Health Engine. It intelligently manages to charge currents and voltage, extending the battery life even with prolonged use. This ensures that the battery continues to perform optimally.

Oppo Reno 8T 5G: Price in India

The Oppo Reno 8T 5G, a mid-range smartphone, will be available for purchase starting February 10, 2023, at a price of ₹29,999. It can be purchased from Flipkart, Oppo Stores, and other retail stores. The phone comes in two color options: Sunrise Gold and Midnight Black.

The manufacturer is offering a discount of up to ₹3,000 in an exchange offer on the purchase of the smartphone. Customers of Kotak Bank, HDFC Bank, Yes Bank, and SBI can also receive a 10% instant discount on the device.

Full Specifications:-

In The Box: Handset, Charger, USB Data Cable, Sim Ejector Tool, Quick Guide, Safety Guide, Protective Case

Model Number: CPH2505

Model Name: Reno8T 5G

SIM Type: Dual Sim

Hybrid Sim Slot: No

Touchscreen: Yes

OTG Compatible: Yes

Quick Charging: Yes

Sound Enhancements: Dirac in Speaker and Earphone Modes, Standalone WCD9370

SAR Value Head: 1.179 W/Kg, Body:0.922 W/Kg

Display Features

Display Size: 17.02 cm (6.7 inches)

Resolution: 2412 x 1080 Pixels

Resolution Type: Full HD+

GPU: Qualcomm Adreno 619

Display Type: Full HD+ 3D Flexible OLED Display

Display Colors: 1.07 Billion

Other Display Features: Screen-to-Body Ratio: 93%, Color Saturation: Cover 100% DCI-P3, Aspect Ratio: 20.1:9, Color Gamut: Vivid Mode: 100% DCI-P3 | Natural Mode: 100% sRGB, Contrast Ratio: 2000000:1, Sunshine Screen, Brightness: 500 nits (Typical), HBM: 800 nits (100%), Peak Local Brightness: 950 nits (1%)

Os & Processor Features

Operating System: Android 13

Processor Type: Qualcomm Snapdragon 695

Processor Core: Octa Core

Primary Clock Speed: 2.2 GHz

Secondary Clock Speed: 1.8 GHz

Operating Frequency: 2G GSM: 850/900/1800/1900 MHz, 3G WCDMA: B1/B2/B4/B5/B6/B8/B19, 4G LTE: B1/B2/B3/B4/B5/B8/B12/B17/B18/B19/B20/B28/B38/B39/B40/B41/B66; 5G NR: n1/n3/n5/n7/n8/n20/n28/n38/n40/n41/n66/n77/n78

Memory & Storage Features

Internal Storage: 128 GB

RAM: 8 GB

Expandable Storage: 1 TB

Supported Memory Card Type: MicroSD

Memory Card Slot Type: Dedicated Slot

Flash Rear: LED Single Light with a Single Color Temperature

HD Recording: Yes

Full HD Recording: Yes

Video Recording: Yes

Video Recording Resolution: Rear Camera: 1080p (at 30 fps), 720p (at 120 fps/ 30 fps) | Front Camera: 1080p (at 30 fps), 720p (at 30 fps)

Digital Zoom: 6X

Frame Rate: 120 fps, 30 fps

Image Editor: Yes

Dual Camera Lens: Primary Camera

Call Features

Video Call Support: Yes

Speaker Phone: Yes

Call Records: Yes

Logs: Yes

Connectivity Features

Network Type: 5G, 4G VOLTE, 4G, 3G, 2G

Supported Networks: 5G, 4G VoLTE, 4G LTE, WCDMA, GSM

Internet Connectivity: 5G, 4G, 3G, Wi-Fi, GPRS, EDGE

GPRS: Yes

Pre-installed Browser: Google Chrome

Bluetooth Support: Yes

Bluetooth Version: v5.1

Wi-Fi: Yes

Wi-Fi Version: 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5), 802.11a/b/g/n, (Supports 2.4 GHz, 5.1 GHz, 5.8 GHz)

Wi-Fi Hotspot: Yes

NFC: Yes

Infrared: No

USB Connectivity: Yes

Audio Jack: Type C

Map Support: Google Maps

GPS Support: Yes

Other Details

Smartphone: Yes

Touchscreen Type: Capacitive

SIM Size: Nano Sim

User Interface: ColorOS 13 (Based on Android 13)

MMS: Yes

SMS: Yes

Graphics: PPI 394 PPI

Sensors: Geomagnetic Sensor, Ambient Light Sensor, Proximity Sensor, Accelerometer, Gravity Sensor, Gyroscope, Pedometer

Battery & Power Features

Battery Capacity: 4800 mAh

Dimensions

Width: 74.3 mm

Height: 162.3 mm

Depth: 7.7 mm

Weight: 171 g

C language MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with answers

2023-01-18T01:35:00.004-08:00

C - Language MCQs for Interviews

c language mcqs

Loops
Goto Label
Break and Continue
Functions

Loops – in C Language:

1. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. while ()

5. printf("In while loop ");

6. printf("After loop\n");

7. }

a) In while loop after loop

b) After loop

c) Compile time error

d) Infinite loop

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

2. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. do

5. printf("In while loop ");

6. while (0);

7. printf("After loop\n");

8. }

a) In while loop

In while loop

after loop

c) After loop

d) Infinite loop

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

3. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. do {

6. i++;

7. printf("In while loop\n");

8. } while (i < 3);

9. }

In while loop

c) Depends on the compiler

d) Compile time error

Answer: a

Explanation: None

4. How many times i value is checked in the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. do {

6. i++;

7. printf("in while loop\n");

8. } while (i < 3);

9. }

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 1

Answer: b

Explanation: None

5. How many times i value is checked in the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. while (i < 3)

6. i++;

7. printf("In while loop\n");

8. }

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 1

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

6. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 2;

5. do

6. {

7. printf("Hi");

8. } while (i < 2)

9. }

a) Compile time error

b) Hi Hi

c) Hi

d) Varies

Answer: a

Explanation: None

7. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. while (++i)

6. {

7. printf("H");

8. }

9. }

a) H

b) H is printed infinite times

c) Compile time error

d) Varies

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

8. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. do

6. {

7. printf("Hello");

8. } while (i != 0);

9. }

a) Nothing

b) H is printed infinite times

c) Hello

d) Run time error

Answer: c

Explanation: None

9. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. char *str = "";

5. do

6. {

7. printf("hello");

8. } while (str);

9. }

a) Nothing

b) Run time error

c) Varies

d) Hello is printed infinite times

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

10. What will be the output of the following C code?

1.#include <stdio.h>

2.void main()

3.{

4. int i = 0;

5. while (i < 10)

6. {

7. i++;

8. printf("hi\n");

9. while (i < 8)

10. {

11. i++;

12. printf("hello\n");

13. }

14. }

15.}

a) Hi is printed 8 times, hello 7 times and then

hi 2 times

b) Hi is printed 10 times, hello 7 times

c) Hi is printed once, hello 7 times

d) Hi is printed once, hello 7 times and then hi

2 times

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

11. What is an example of iteration in C?

a) for

b) while

c) do-while

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

12. How many times while loop condition is tested in the following C code snippets, if i is initialized to 0 in both the cases?

1.while (i < n)

2. i++;

3. ————-

4. do

5. i++;

6. while (i <= n);

a) n, n

b) n, n+1

c) n+1, n

d) n+1, n+1

Answer: d

Explanation: None

13. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. while (i = 0)

6. printf("True\n");

7. printf("False\n");

8. }

a) True (infinite time)

b) True (1 time) False

c) False

d) Compiler dependent

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

14. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. while (i < 5, j < 10)

6. {

7. i++;

8. j++;

9. }

10. printf("%d, %d\n", i, j);

11. }

a) 5, 5

b) 5, 10

c) 10, 10

d) Syntax error

Answer: c

Explanation: None

15. Which loop is most suitable to first perform the operation and then test the condition?

a) for loop

b) while loop

c) do-while loop

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: None

Break and Continue:

1. Which keyword can be used for coming out of recursion?

a) break

b) return

c) exit

d) both break and return

Answer: b

Explanation: None

2. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int a = 0, i = 0, b;

5. for (i = 0;i < 5; i++)

6. {

7. a++;

8. continue;

9. }

10. }

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Answer: d

Explanation: None

3. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int a = 0, i = 0, b;

5. for (i = 0;i < 5; i++)

6. {

7. a++;

8. if (i == 3)

9. break;

10. }

11. }

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

4. The keyword ‘break’ cannot be simply used within _________

a) do-while

b) if-else

c) for

d) while

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

5. Which keyword is used to come out of a loop only for that iteration?

a) break

b) continue

c) return

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: None

6. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. for (i = 0;i < 5; i++)

6. {

7. for (j = 0;j < 4; j++)

8. {

9. if (i > 1)

10. break;

11. }

12. printf("Hi \n");

13. }

14. }

a) Hi is printed 5 times

b) Hi is printed 9 times

c) Hi is printed 7 times

d) Hi is printed 4 times

Answer: a

Explanation: None

7. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. int j = 0;

6. for (i = 0;i < 5; i++)

7. {

8. for (j = 0;j < 4; j++)

9. {

10. if (i > 1)

11. continue;

12. printf("Hi \n");

13. }

14. }

15. }

a) Hi is printed 9 times

b) Hi is printed 8 times

c) Hi is printed 7 times

d) Hi is printed 6 times

Answer: b

Explanation: None

8. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. for (i = 0;i < 5; i++)

6. if (i < 4)

7. {

8. printf("Hello");

9. break;

10. }

11. }

a) Hello is printed 5 times

b) Hello is printed 4 times

c) Hello

d) Hello is printed 3 times

Answer: c

Explanation: None

9. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. if (i == 0)

6. {

7. printf("Hello");

8. continue;

9. }

10. }

a) Hello is printed infinite times

b) Hello

c) Varies

d) Compile time error

Answer: d

Explanation: None

10. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. if (i == 0)

6. {

7. printf("Hello");

8. break;

9. }

10. }

a) Hello is printed infinite times

b) Hello

c) Varies

d) Compile time error

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

11. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. do

6. {

7. i++;

8. if (i == 2)

9. continue;

10. printf("In while loop ");

11. } while (i < 2);

12. printf("%d\n", i);

13. }

a) In while loop 2

b) In while loop in while loop 3

c) In while loop 3

d) Infinite loop

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

12. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. for (i; i < 2; i++){

6. for (j = 0; j < 3; j++){

7. printf("1\n");

8. break;

9. }

10. printf("2\n");

11. }

12. printf("after loop\n");

13. }

after loop

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

13. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. while (i < 2)

6. {

7. if (i == 1)

8. break;

9. i++;

10. if (i == 1)

11. continue;

12. printf("In while loop\n");

13. }

14. printf("After loop\n");

15. }

In while loop

After loop

b) After loop

In while loop

After loop

d) In while loop

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

14. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. char c = 'a';

6. while (i < 2){

7. i++;

8. switch (c) {

9. case 'a':

10. printf("%c ", c);

11. break;

12. break;

13. }

14. }

15. printf("after loop\n");

16. }

a) a after loop

b) a a after loop

c) after loop

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

15. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. printf("before continue ");

5. continue;

6. printf("after continue\n");

7. }

a) Before continue after continue

b) Before continue

c) After continue

d) Compile time error

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

Goto & Labels

1. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. printf("%d ", 1);

5. goto l1;

6. printf("%d ", 2);

7. l1:goto l2;

8. printf("%d ", 3);

9. l2:printf("%d ", 4);

10. }

a) 1 4

b) Compilation error

c) 1 2 4

d) 1 3 4

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

2. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. printf("%d ", 1);

5. l1:l2:

6. printf("%d ", 2);

7. printf("%d\n", 3);

8. }

a) Compilation error

b) 1 2 3

c) 1 2

d) 1 3

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

3. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. printf("%d ", 1);

5. goto l1;

6. printf("%d ", 2);

7. }

8. void foo()

9. {

10. l1 : printf("3 ", 3);

11. }

a) 1 2 3

b) 1 3

c) 1 3 2

d) Compilation error

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

4. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. while (i < 2)

6. {

7. l1 : i++;

8. while (j < 3)

9. {

10. printf("Loop\n");

11. goto l1;

12. }

13. }

14. }

a) Loop Loop

b) Compilation error

c) Loop Loop Loop Loop

d) Infinite Loop

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

5. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. while (l1: i < 2)

6. {

7. i++;

8. while (j < 3)

9. {

10. printf("loop\n");

11. goto l1;

12. }

13. }

14. }

a) loop loop

b) Compilation error

c) loop loop loop loop

d) Infinite loop

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

6. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. l1: while (i < 2)

6. {

7. i++;

8. while (j < 3)

9. {

10. printf("loop\n");

11. goto l1;

12. }

13. }

14. }

a) loop loop

b) compilation error

c) oop loop loop loop

d) infinite loop

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

7. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0;

5. if (i == 0)

6. {

7. goto label;

8. }

9. label: printf("Hello");

10. }

a) Nothing

b) Error

c) Infinite Hello

d) Hello

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

8. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, k;

5. if (i == 0)

6. goto label;

7. for (k = 0;k < 3; k++)

8. {

9. printf("hi\n");

10. label: k = printf("%03d", i);

11. }

12. }

a) 0

b) hi hi hi 0 0 0

c) 0 hi hi hi 0 0 0

d) 0 0 0

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

9. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, k;

5. label: printf("%d", i);

6. if (i == 0)

7. goto label;

8. }

a) 0

b) Infinite 0

c) Nothing

d) Error

Answer: b

Explanation: None

10. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. int i = 5, k;

5. if (i == 0)

6. goto label;

7. label: printf("%d", i);

8. printf("Hey");

9. }

a) 5

b) Hey

c) 5 Hey

d) Nothing

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

11. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. l1: while (i < 2)

6. {

7. i++;

8. while (j < 3)

9. {

10. printf("loop\n");

11. goto l1;

12. }

13. }

14. }

a) loop loop

b) Compile time error

c) loop loop loop loop

d) Infinite loop

Answer: a

Explanation: None

12. goto can be used to jump from main() to within a function.

a) true

b) false

c) depends

d) varies

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

13. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. printf("%d ", 1);

5. goto l1;

6. printf("%d ", 2);

7. l1:goto l2;

8. printf("%d ", 3);

9. l2:printf("%d ", 4);

10. }

a) 1 4

b) Compile time error

c) 1 2 4

d) 1 3 4

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

14. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. printf("%d ", 1);

5. l1:l2:

6. printf("%d ", 2);

7. printf("%d\n", 3);

8. }

a) Compile time error

b) 1 2 3

c) 1 2

d) 1 3

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

15. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. printf("%d ", 1);

5. goto l1;

6. printf("%d ", 2);

7. }

8. void foo()

9. {

10. l1: printf("3 ", 3);

11. }

a) 1 2 3

b) 1 3

c) 1 3 2

d) Compile time error

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

16. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. while (i < 2)

6. {

7. l1: i++;

8. while (j < 3)

9. {

10. printf("loop\n");

11. goto l1;

12. }

13. }

14. }

a) loop loop

b) Compile time error

c) loop loop loop loop

d) Infinite loop

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

17. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. int i = 0, j = 0;

5. while (l1: i < 2)

6. {

7. i++;

8. while (j < 3)

9. {

10. printf("loop\n");

11. goto l1;

12. }

13. }

14. }

a) loop loop

b) Compile time error

c) loop loop loop loop

d) Infinite loop

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

Functions in C Language

1. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. void foo();

5. printf("1 ");

6. foo();

7. }

8. void foo()

9. {

10. printf("2 ");

11. }

a) 1 2

b) Compile time error

c) 1 2 1 2

d) Depends on the compiler

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

2. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. void foo(), f();

5. f();

6. }

7. void foo()

8. {

9. printf("2 ");

10. }

11. void f()

12. {

13. printf("1 ");

14. foo();

15. }

a) Compile time error as foo is local to main

b) 1 2

c) 2 1

d) Compile time error due to declaration of

functions inside main

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

3. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. int main()

3. {

4. void foo();

5. void f()

6. {

7. foo();

8. }

9. f();

10. }

11. void foo()

12. {

13. printf("2 ");

14. }

a) 2 2

b) 2

c) Compile time error

d) Depends on the compiler

Answer: d

Explanation:

Even though the answer is 2, this code will

compile fine only with gcc. GNU C supports

nesting of functions in C as a language extension

whereas standard C compiler doesn’t.

4. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void foo();

3. int main()

4. {

5. void foo();

6. foo();

7. return 0;

8. }

9. void foo()

10. {

11. printf("2 ");

12. }

a) Compile time error

b) 2

c) Depends on the compiler

d) Depends on the standard

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

5. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void foo();

3. int main()

4. {

5. void foo(int);

6. foo(1);

7. return 0;

8. }

9. void foo(int i)

10. {

11. printf("2 ");

12. }

a) 2

b) Compile time error

c) Depends on the compiler

d) Depends on the standard

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

6. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void foo();

3. int main()

4. {

5. void foo(int);

6. foo();

7. return 0;

8. }

9. void foo()

10. {

11. printf("2 ");

12. }

a) 2

b) Compile time error

c) Depends on the compiler

d) Depends on the standard

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

7. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void m()

3. {

4. printf("hi");

5. }

6. void main()

7. {

8. m();

9. }

a) hi

b) Run time error

c) Nothing

d) Varies

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

8. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void m();

3. void n()

4. {

5. m();

6. }

7. void main()

8. {

9. void m()

10. {

11. printf("hi");

12. }

13. }

a) hi

b) Compile time error

c) Nothing

d) Varies

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

9. Functions can return enumeration constants in C?

a) true

b) false

c) depends on the compiler

d) depends on the standard

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

10. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. enum m{JAN, FEB, MAR};

3. enum m foo();

4. int main()

5. {

6. enum m i = foo();

7. printf("%d\n", i);

8. }

9. int foo()

10. {

11. return JAN;

12. }

a) Compile time error

b) 0

c) Depends on the compiler

d) Depends on the standard

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

11. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. m();

5. void m()

6. {

7. printf("hi");

8. }

9. }

a) hi

b) Compile time error

c) Nothing

d) Varies

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

12. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. m();

5. }

6. void m()

7. {

8. printf("hi");

9. m();

10. }

a) Compile time error

b) hi

c) Infinite hi

d) Nothing

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

13. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>

2. void main()

3. {

4. static int x = 3;

5. x++;

6. if (x <= 5)

7. {

8. printf("hi");

9. main();

10. }

11. }

a) Run time error

b) hi

c) Infinite hi

d) hi hi

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

14. Which of the following is the correct format for the declaration of function?

a) return-type function-name(argument type);

b) return-type function-name(argument type){}

c) return-type (argument type)function-name;

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

15. Which of the following function declaration is illegal?

a) int 1bhk(int);

b) int 1bhk(int a);

c) int 2bhk(int*, int []);

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

👉 also, read this TCS Ninja Aptitude Questions and Answers

👉 also, read this Important java programming interview questions for all

TCS Ninja Aptitude Questions and Answers

2023-01-01T05:53:00.001-08:00

TCS NINJA APTITUDE QUESTIONS

TCS Ninja Aptitude test

Q 1. 2/3rd of the balls in a bag is blue, and the rest are pink. if 5/9th of the blue balls and 7/8th of the pink balls are defective, find the total number of balls in the bag given that the number of non-defective balls is 146?

a) 216 b) 649 c) 432✅ d) 578

Solution:- let the total no of balls=x

blue=2x/3

pink=x/3

total no of defective balls = [5/9][2x/3]+[7/8][x/3]

=10x/27 +7x/24

=143x/216

Non - defective balls=x-143x/216=146 (Given)

73x/216 = 146

x= 2(216)

x=432

Q 2. Find no.of ways in which 4 particular person a,b,c,d, and 6 more persons can stand in a queue so that A always stands before B. B always stands before C And C always stands before D.

a)6! b)7!✅ c)1006*6! d)10046!

Solution:- a,b,c,d are grouped ie consider them as one and the remaining as 6. Total 6+1 = 7! Ways

4. There are 10 points on a straight line AB and 8 on another straight line AC none of them being point A. how many triangles can be formed with these points as vertices?

a. 680 b. 720 c. 816 d. 640✅

Solution:- To form a triangle we need 3 points

select 2 points from the 10 points of line AB & 1 from the 8 on AC = (10C2)*(8C1)

select 2 points from the 8 points of line AC & 1 from the 10 on AB=(8C2)*(10C1)

total no. of triangles = (10C2)*(8C1)+ (8C2)*(10C1) = 640

Q 5. From a bag containing 8 green and 5 red balls, three are drawn one after the other. the probability of all three balls beings green if the balls drawn are replaced before the next ball pick and the balls drawn are not replaced, respectively.

a)512/2197,336/2197

b) 512/2197,336/1716✅

c) 336/2197,512/2197

d) 336/1716,512/1716

Solution:- THE PROBABILITIES OF GETTING WITH REPLACEMENT=8/13*8/13*8/13=512/2197

THE PROBABILITIES OF GETTING WITHOUT REPLACEMENT=8/13*7/12*6/11=336/1716

Q 12. A bag contains 8 white balls and 3 blue balls. Another bag contains 7 white and 4 blue balls. What is the probability of getting a blue ball?

a)3/7 b)7/22✅ c)7/25 d)7/15

Solution:- First we have to select a bag and then we will draw a ball.

The probability of selection of both bags is equal =1/2

Now probability of blue ball taken from first bag = ( 1/2) x (3/11) and probability of blue ball taken from second bag = (1/2) x (4/11)

So probability of blue ball = ( 1/2) x (3/11) + (1/2) x (4/11) = 7/22

Q 19. How many 6-digit even numbers can be formed from digits 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 so that the digit should not repeat and the second last digit is even?

a)6480 b)320 c)2160 d)720✅

solution:- Given 6th digit even number, so last digit 2 or 4 or 6-> 3 ways

"5th digit should be even...so there will be 2 ways(rep. not allowed)

so, therefore we get 5*4*3*2*2*3=720 ways

Q 20. There are 5 letters and 5 addressed envelopes. If the letters are put at random in the envelopes, the probability that all the letters may be placed in wrongly addressed envelopes is.

a)119 b)44✅ c)53 d)40

Solution:- If there is one letter and one envelope then no way you can put it wrong(S1).

If there are 2 letters and 2 envelopes then you can put them wrong in 1 way(S2).

If there are 3 letters and 3 envelopes then you can put them wrong in 2 ways(S3).

If there are 4 then you can put them wrong in 9 ways(S4).

If there are 5 then you can put them wrong in 44 ways(S5).

If you observe you can find a pattern.

S3=(S1+S2)*2

S4=(S2+S3)*3

S5=(S3+S4)*4

S6=(S4+S5)*5

In general, Sn=(Sn-2 + Sn-1)*(n-1)

So, if there are 5 letters then S5=(S3+S4)*4=(2+9)*4 = 44

Q 29. In a horse racing competition, there were 18 numbered 1 to 18. The organizers assigned a probability of winning the race to each horse based on the horse's health and

training the probability that horse one would win is 1/7, that 2 would win is 1/8, and that 3 would win is 1/7.Assuming that tie is impossible Find the chance that one of these three will win the race?

a)22/392 b)1/392 c)23/56✅ d)391/392

Solution:- HORSE 1: 1/7 WINNING PROBABILITY

HORSE 2: 1/8 WINNING PROBABILITY

HORSE 3: 1/7 WINNING PROBABILITY

ONE OF THESE WINS THE RACE:

=> 1/7 + 1/8 + 1/7

=> 8/56 +7/56 + 8/56 (TAKING LCM)

=> 23/56

Q 31. How many vehicle registration plate numbers can be formed with digits 1,2,3,4,5(no digits being repeated)if it is given that the registration number can have 1 to 5 digits?

a) 205 b) 100 c) 325✅ d) 105

Solution:- you can have registration plates of 5,4,3,2 or 1 digits

So, it's 5*4*3*2*1 + 5*4*3*2 + 5*4*3 +5*4 + 5

=120 + 120 + 60 + 20 +5 => 325

Q 40. There are 20 people sitting in a circle. In that, there are 18 men and 2 sisters. How many arrangements are possible, in which the two sisters are always separated by a man?

a. 18!*2✅ b. 17! c. 17!*2 d. 12

Solution:- 18!*2 Consider 1 man along with two sisters as one group..so they can be arranged in 17! ways as circular. The one man in between the two sisters can be out of any 18 men..so,17!*18.. and the two sisters can be arranged in 2ways..so 18!*2

Q 41. a number plate can be formed with two alphabets followed by two digits with no repetition. then how many possible combinations can we get?

a) 58500✅ b) 67600 c) 57850 d) 58761

Solution:- no.of alphabets=26 (a-z), no. of digits=10(0-9).

ways of arranging two alphabets without repetition=26*25;

ways of forming two digits without repetition=10*9

no.of combinations of forming the number on the number plate= 26*25*10*9 = 58500

Q 42. The letters in the word "PLACES" are permuted in all possible ways and arranged in alphabetical order. Find the word at the 48 positions.

a)AESPCL b)ALCEPS c)ALSCEP d)AESPLC✅

Solution:- answer = (d) for words AC**** possible ways for arranging * will be 4!=24

now next seq in alphabetical order will be AE**** so...

same way for AE**** possible ways for arranging * will be 4!=24

Thus, the 48th element will be the last element in AE**** which means AE followed by reverse alphabetical order! which is AESPLC

Q 45. In how many ways a team of 11 must be selected a team of 5 men and 11 women such that the team must comprise not more than 3 men.

a) 1565 b) 2256✅ c) 2456 d) 1243

Solution:- A maximum of 3 men can be played which means there can be 0, 1, 2, 3 men in the team.

(5C0×11C11)+(5C1×11C10)+(5C2×11C9)+(5C3×11C8) = 2256

Q 48. Three dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a sum of 13?

a) 19/216 b) 21/216✅ c) 17/216 d) 23/216

Solution:- Just count the number of ways to get 13. We just need to count possibilities for two dice because the third dice value is fixed. For two dice, the sum can be anywhere from 7 to 12 and that would be 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21. So, the probability is 21/216

Q 58. In a staircase, there are 10 steps. A child is attempting to climb the staircase. Each time, she can either make 1 step or 2 steps. In how many different ways can she climb the staircase?

a). 10 b). 21 c). 36 d). None of these.✅

Solution:- she can go by 1 steps-1 way that is choosing 1 two-step in 9 moves:9C1: 9 ways//2 two-steps: choosing 2 two-steps in 8 moves:8C2 = 28 ways// 3 two-steps 7C3 = 35 ways// 4 two-steps// 6C4 = 15 ways// 5 two-steps// 5C5 = 1 way which covers all the 10 stairs.. that means only one way 2 2 2 2 2 = 1 way// Adding all the ways: 1 + 9 + 28 + 35 + 15 + 1 = 89 ways

Q 60. Find the 32nd word in the list where the word MONOS IS permuted in all possible ways and arranged in alphabetical order.

a) OSMON b) OSNOM c) OSMNO d) ONMSO✅

Solution:- Arranging in alphabetical order MNOOS

M_ _ _ _ CAN BE ARRANGED IN 4!/2!=12 WAYS

N_ _ _ _ CAN BE ARRANGED IN 4!/2!=12 WAYS (12+12=24)

O_ _ _ _ CAN BE ARRANGED IN 4! =24 WAYS (12+12+24=48) OUT OF BOUND

OM_ _ _CAN BE ARRANGED IN 3!=6 WAYS(12+12+6=30)(25-30)

ON_ _ _CAN BE ARRANGED IN 3!=6 WAYS(31-36)

ONM _ _CAN BE ARRANGED IN 2!=2 WAYS(31,32)

31ST WORD IS ONMOS

32ND WORD IS ONMSO

Q 61. One card is lost out of 52 cards. two cards are drawn randomly. They are spades. What is the probability that the lost card is also a spade?

a)1/52 b)1/13 c) 1/4 d) 11/50✅

Solution:- (13 - 2) / (52 - 2) = 11 / 50

Q 65. The sum of 5 numbers in AP is 30 and the sum of their squares is 190. Which of the following is the third term?

a)5 b) 6✅ c) 8 d) 9

Solution:- consider the 5 numbers in AP as a-2d,a-d,a,a+d,a+2d;

given,a-2d+a-d+a+a+d+a+2d=30;

5a=30==>a=6 here a is the 3 rd term so.. the third term is 6.

Q 69. how many parallelograms are formed by a set of 4 parallel lines intersecting another set of 7 parallel lines?

a) 125 b)126✅ c) 127 d) 128

Solution:- Let there be 4 horizontal sets of parallel lines and 7 vertical sets of parallel lines. (U can also consider vice-versa) Now, for a parallelogram, u need 2 horizontally parallel and 2 vertically parallel lines ie. we need to choose 2 lines from each set. So the solution will be 7C2*4C2=126

Q 71. a person starts writing all 4 digits numbers. how many times had he written the digit 2?

a) 4200 b) 4700 c) 3700✅ d) 3200

Solution:- 1)when 2 is at unit place =9*10*10*1

2)when 2 is at tenth place=9*10*1*10

3)when 2 is at hundred place=9*1*10*10

4)when 2 is at thousand place=1*10*10*10

so total no. of 2s=900+900+900+1000=3700

Q 75. there are 16 teams divided into 4 groups. Every team from each group will play with each other once. The top 2 teams will go to the next round and so on the top two teams will play the final match. Minimum how many matches will be played in that tournament?

a) 43✅ b) 40 c) 14 d) 50

Solution:- For the first round 4*4C2=24

second round 2*4C2=12

Third round 1*4C2=6

FINAL round =1

TOTAL=43

Or Total no.of ways = (6+6+6+6)+(6+6)+6+1 =36+7 =43

Q 76. According to the question, there is 16 team divided into 4 groups, which means each group has 4 teams every team from each group will play with each other once.

let the first group contains P, Q, R, and S team they can play with themself =4c2 ways =4x3/2x1=6 ways.

similarly, the second group team can play with themself=6ways

parallaly 3rd group, a team can play with themself=6ways

parallaly 4th group 6ways

now, from every group, the top 2 teams are selected. so, a total of 8 teams are selected again they

form two groups each group has 4 teams. they can again arrange.

first group team can play with themself=6ways

2nd group team can play by themself=6ways

From these two groups again selected the top two teams, a total of 4 teams again arrange in 6 different

ways. from this team selected and there 2 teams play the final match eg. 1 way. now, total no.of ways = (6+6+6+6)+(6+6)+6+1=24+12+7=36+7=43

Q 77. Tickets are numbered from 1,2....1100 and one card is drawn randomly what is the probability of having 2 as a digit?

a) 29/110✅ b) 32/110 c) 30/110 d) 22/110

Solution:- For every 100 probability of having 2 as a digit is 19 and 2 is used 20 times for every 100. ( Here 22,122 These digits will be counted as 1 not 2 ) According to the question, there are 10 100's having 19 digits as 2, and 200 to 299 have 100 digits having 2. Hence,((10 *19)+100)/1100=29/110

Q 85. a number plate can be formed with two alphabets followed by two digits with no repetition. then how many possible combinations can we get?

a) 52500 b) 58500✅ c) 56500 d) 56800

Solution:- no.of alphabets=26 (a-z), no.of digits=10(0-9). ways of arranging two alphabets without repetition=26*25; ways of forming two digits without repetition=10*9

no.of combinations of forming the number on the number plate= 26*25*10*9=58500

Q 92. A certain function f satisfies the equation f(x)+2*f(6-x) = x for all real numbers x. The value of f(1) is

a) 2 b) can't determine c) 1 d) 3✅

Solution:- f(1)+2*f(6-1)=1......... (1)

f(5)+2*f(6-5)=5......... (2)

substituting we have (2) in (1) we have: -3f(1)=-9, hence answer f(1)=3

Q 115. How many 6-digit even numbers can be formed from digits 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 so that the digit should not repeat and the second last digit is even?

a)6480 b)320 c)2160 d)720✅

Solution:- Given the 6th digit even number, so the last digit 2 or 4 or 6-> 3 ways "5th digit should be even...so there will be 2 ways(rep. not allowed) so, therefore we get 5*4*3*2*2*3=720 ways

Q 129. A bag contains six sticks of the following lengths 1 cm, 3 cm, 5cm,7 cm, 11 cm, and 13 cm. three sticks are drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that we can form a triangle with those sticks?

a) 11/20 b) 1 c) 1/4✅ d) 2/5

Solution:- A bag contains six sticks of the following lengths 1 cm, 3 cm, 7 cm, 5cm,11 cm, and 13 cm. three sticks are drawn at random from the bag. the probability that we can form a triangle with those sticks total possibilities=6c3=20

now for making a triangle,, the sum of any 2 sides must be greater than 3rd side

so 3 5 7

3 11 13

5 7 11

7 11 13

5 11 13

5/20=1/4

Q 131. how many number x (x being an integer) with 10<=x<=99 are 18 more than sum of their digits?

a)12 b)9 c)18 d)10✅

Solution:- Let the no. be 10y+z. then, 10y+z= y+z+18 => Y=2 So the no. are 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29. Total nos. 10

Q 133. In how many ways can the digit of the number 2233558888 be arranged so that the odd digits are placed in even positions?

a) 900 b) 450✅ c) 225 d) 360

Solution:- odd place combination = 5!/2!*2!=30 even place combination= 6!/2!*4!=15 to total=30*15=450

Q 134. Find the probability that a leap year chosen at random will contain 53 Sundays.

a) 2/7✅ b) 3/7 c) 1/49 d) 1/7

Solution:- In leap year, we have 366 days. 366/7=52Weeks+2days we have already 52 sundays,mondays,etc.

then we have 2 days may be {sunday,monday} , {monday,tuesday} , {tuesday,wednesday},...{saturday,sunday}

we have 2 possible chances out of 7. hence ans:2/7.

Q 140. The figure shows an equilateral triangle on the side of length 5 which is divided into several unit triangles. A valid path is a path from the triangle in the top row to the middle triangle in the bottom row such that the adjacent triangles in our path share a common edge and the path never travels up (from a lower row to a higher row) or revisits a triangle. An example is given below. How many such valid paths are there?

a) 120 b) 16 c) 23 d) 24✅

Solution:- Given side length=5 .....so (n-1)!=(5-1)!=4! ans is 24

Q 153. In how many possible ways can write 3240 as a product of 3 positive integers a,b, and c

a) 450 b) 420✅ c) 350 d) 320

Solution:- 3240=2*2*2*5*3*3*3*3 so, no. of ways=8!/(3!*4!)=420.

Q 157. A manufacturer of chocolates makes 6 different flavors of chocolates. The chocolates are sold in boxes of 10. How many different boxes of chocolates can be made?

(NOTE: A box is considered different from another only if, regardless of the order, the box contains a different number of chocolates of at least one type)

a) 3003✅ b) 10^6 c) 3000 d) 6^10

Solution:- If n similar articles are to be distributed to r persons, x1+x2+x3......+xr=n each person is eligible to take any number of articles then the total ways are n+r-1Cr-1

In this case x 1+x2+x3......x6=10

in such a case the formula for non-negative integral solutions is n+r-1Cr-1

Here n =10 and r=6. So total ways are 10+6-1C6-1 =15C5 =3003

Q 158. 4 men throw a die each simultaneously. Find the probability that at least 2 people get the same number.

a) 5/18 b)13/18✅ c) 1/36 d) ½

Solution:- 13/18

As 1-(probability of not getting same no.)

= 1 - ( (6*5*4*3)/(6*6*6*6))

= 13/18

Q 161. The letters in the word ROADIE are permuted in all possible ways and arranged in alphabetic order. Find the word in the 44th rank.

a) AERIOD b) AERDOI✅ c) AERODI d) AEODRI

Solution- A----- => 5!=120

AD---- => 4!=24

AED--- => 3!=6

AEI--- => 3!=6

AEO--- => 3!=6

24+6+6+6=42

AERDIO => 43th

AERDOI => 44th

Q 171. two dice are thrown. find the probability of getting a multiple of 3 or 4 as the sum.

a) 5/9✅ b) 4/9 c) 2/9 d) 1/9

Solution:- 20/36=5/9

(1,2),(1,3),(1,5),(2,1)(2,2)(2,4)(2,6)(3,1)(3,3)(3,5)(3,6)(4,2)(4,4)(4,5)(5,1)(5,3)(5,4)(6,2)(6,3)(6,6) as its some is multiple of 3 or 4

Q 176. 0>a>b>c>d. Which is largest

a) (b+d)/(a+c)✅ b) (a+d)/(b+c) c) (b+c)/(a+d) d) (c+d)/(a+d)

Solution- given statement is 0>a>b>c>d

that means all the values of a,b,c,d are less than ZERO

so lets consider a=-1 b=-2, c=-3 and d=-4 so that 0>a>b>c>d will satisfy

by solving the options we get the values as follows

a.(b+d)/(a+c)= 1.5

b. 1

c.1

d.1.4

among all of these options, a is the highest so the ans is option a.

Q 180. How many 5’s will be there in the number 121122123...till 356?

a) 51✅ b) 54 c) 50 d) 49

Solution:- 121122123... till 356 121,122,123,124... till 356

121 to 200 => 125,135,145, from 150 to 159 => 11 5's , 165,175,185,195

[from 150 to 159, each no. has 1 no. of 5 except 155, 155 has 2 no. of 5]

total=18 201 to 300 => 205,215,225,235,245, 250 to 259 => 11 5's , 265,275,285,295

=> total=20 301 to 356 => 305,315,325,335,345,350,351,352,353,354,355(2 5's),356

=> total=13 total 5's = 18+20+13 = 51

Q 213. 10 people are there, and they are shaking hands together, how many handshakes are possible, if they are in no pair of cyclic sequences.

a) 45✅ b) 9 c) 12 d) 10

Solution:- 10c2= n!/(n-r)!.r! =10!/8!.2! =10*9/2 =45

(Or)

1st person shakes hand with 9 others=9 handshakes then 2nd person shakes hand with 8 others(ie excluding 1st person)=8 handshakes .... finally 9th person=1 handshake and 10th person=0 handshake so total=9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1=45 handshakes

Q 219. When all possible six-letter arrangements of the letters of the word "MASTER" are sorted in alphabetical order, what will be the 49th word?

a) AREMST✅ b) ARMEST c) AMERST d) ARMSET

Solution:- ARRANGING THE LETTERS IN MASTER ALPHABETICALLY WE GET...

AEMRST

NOW A E _ _ _ _ can be filled in 4! ways

A M _ _ _ _ can be filled in 4! ways

so words upto 4!+4! =48 words are of AE series and am series

So the 49th word can be A R E M S T

Q 223. If ABERSU is sorted in alphabetical order, if 24 sortings are req for ABUSRE, 25 - AEBRSU, 49- ARBESU, den how many for AEUSRB.

a) 45 b) 48✅ c) 47 d) 46

Solution:- AEUSRB

ALPHA OREDER ABERSU

A B _ _ _ _ =4! =24

A E B _ _ _ =3!=6

A E R _ _ _ =3!=6

A E S _ _ _ =3! =6

A E U B _ _ =2! =2

A E U R _ _=2!=2

A E U S B _=1

A E U S R B=1

24+6+6+6+2+2+1+1=48

Q 259. 3 white chips, 7 blue chips, 16 green chips, and 2 chips drawn from the box in succession what is the probability that one is blue and the other is white?

a) 7/50 b) 8/30 c) 7/25 d) 21/25*13✅

Solution:- no.of ways that 2 chips selected from a total of 26 are 26C2=26*25/2=13*25

no.of the ways that 1 white and 1 blue is selected is 3C1*7C1=21

total probability=21/13*25

Also, Read

A good solution for cold and throat infections with persistent coughs

2022-12-27T23:11:00.006-08:00

Ayurveda Solution for Cold and Throat infections

Cough is not a disease. The body's own treatment. The process of excreting waste products. The cough protects the lungs. Antitussive syrups used to relieve coughs act on the central nervous system and suppress the body's natural cough responses. These cause further damage to the lungs. Treatment should focus on the cause rather than the cough, for that than English medicine. Ayurveda gives the hundred percent best results.

cough infections

Dry Cough: This is a cough without expectoration. This is the lung's response to protect against air pollution, cigarette smoke, and some types of viruses.

Cough with sputum: Due to the above reasons, sinus, cold, and dust allergies also damage the lungs and the infection in the lungs increases. Only then will phlegm be produced. Sometimes the phlegm is challenging to come out. Suffocating.

Throat Infection: This problem is due to low immunity. A throat infection starts after drinking a little cold water by mistake. Dry skin affects everyone from children to adults. Cough with sputum is more common in older people. The chemicals in English medicines are used to reduce damage to the nervous system. Causes drowsiness. Moreover, the original reasons do not reduce at all. Also, risks such as TB and lung cancer are prevented from being detected due to long-term use. In such conditions, Ayurveda works like a godsend for you.

doctor consultation

Now let's know about the doctor-like syrup that every household should have. That's happiness. It is not syrup. Liquid. The difference to liquid syrup is that the syrup base contains sugar. Liquid base Just water. It means completely free of chemicals. Everyone from newborns to adults can happily use it without any hesitation. It contains addasaram, tulsi, pippali, cloves, pepper, coriander, amla, ashwagandha, bilva, sayndavalavanam, sirisha, cinnamon, karakkaya, pudina, suddaguggulu, pushkaramula, etc.

Made with 21 herbs. Shake the Happy Breath liquid well every time for dryness. Because all the herbs are at the bottom. Shake well and put two lids of liquid in a quarter glass of hot water and drink it like tea, once every three hours until the cough subsides. Within a day, the infection in your lungs will reduce and the cough will disappear. From small children to one-month-old children, even if they have a cough or cold, they can breathe happily.

Do not shake the bottle for small children. Inside the bottle, water accumulates on top. Children should take one spoonful of that water, mix it with another two or three spoonfuls of hot water, cool it down, and drink it thrice. That's it, any kind of cough or cold should be cured. To reduce phlegm cough: If there is a lot of phlegm, shake it three times, if it is little, shake it well and mix it in two lids and a quarter glass of hot water and drink it.

Since many days If you have phlegm, use happy breath liquid regularly for two to three months. With that, the lungs become clean and powerful. Phlegm is completely reduced.

Throat Infection:: Rainy season, winter throat infection is hell. What a powerful antibiotic Even if it is used, it will not be useful. Such people should use this once. Add one capful of happy breath liquid in a quarter glass of hot water and drink it like tea for two hours Drink it once. You will understand the result just on the first day itself. Also, this liquid gives excellent results for colds, sinuses, and asthma.

Try this happy breath liquid once. You will know what Happy Herbals products are and how they can benefit your family. Especially Happy Breathing Liquid is sure to give you the confidence a doctor has at home.

Happy Herbals

also, check these posts:

How to increase blood percentage in our body

Some common causes of sleep deprivation these days and my advice on how to fall asleep early

Note: we are not doing any paid promotions and also not publishing any products. even I don't know who they are so I saw their posts on social media websites also these products are ayurveda so no side effects that's why I'm suggesting if you feel this good just go and check.

For Orders: www.happyherbals.online

Whatsaap: 9652929294

Chaitu Informative Blogs

Best Health Tips for Working Professionals (2025 Guide to a Healthy Routine)

Introduction

1. Start Your Day With a Simple Morning Routine

2. Eat a Healthy & Powerful Breakfast

3. Keep Yourself Hydrated Throughout the Day

5. Choose Smart Lunch Options

6. Manage Stress With Small Breaks

7. Keep Eye Strain Away (Very Important for Office Workers)

8. Choose Healthy Evening Snacks

9. Do Light Exercise or Walk Daily

10. Maintain Good Sleep Routine

BONUS: Quick Healthy Habits for Working Professionals

Conclusion

ISTQB Training Questions and Answers

Introduction to Gen Ai Studio with Google Cloud Quiz Questions and Answers

Introduction to Gen AI

Quiz questions with answers

Solution to the Front-End Developer Assessment Test by Media Monks

Complete Code:

Flyflat Junior Operations Associate Assessment Test Answers

Capgemini Interview Questions Pattern with Full Syllabus

Important things to know about Capgemini Essay Writing Topics

Capgemini Essay Writing Topics (Most asked in recent drives)

Capgemini Essay Writing Topics (Sample answers)

Capgemini Logical Reasoning Questions – Syllabus

Capgemini Logical Reasoning Questions with answers

Capgemini Logical Reasoning questions – Set 1

Capgemini Logical Reasoning questions- set 2

Capgemini's syllabus for the Quantitative aptitude sections is as follows.

Capgemini Aptitude Questions – set 1

Capgemini Aptitude Questions – set 2

Automotive Validation Engineer Interview Questions and Answers

Automotive Validation Engineer CAPL Interview Questions and Answers

Interview Questions

CAPL Programming Questions:

Reliance is hiring for Reliance Insurance Agent Role | Apply Now

Job Role: Reliance Insurance Agent

Location: WORK FROM HOME/MOBILE

JOB DESCRIPTION:

Eligibility criteria:

what can you do:

SALARY: AS PER THE COMPANY NORMS

WalkClub App : Walk & Earn Free Money Daily | Verified

WALK CLUB EVERY STEP COUNTS

WALK CLUB

How to start:

Rokid is Hiring for Field Application Engineer Role | Apply Now

Role: Field Application Engineer RoleLocation: WORK FROM HOMEJOB DESCRIPTION:

Key Responsibilities:

Education Qualifications:

SKILLS:

About Company:

Amazon Associate – Retail Process Interview Questions and Answers

Amazon is Hiring for Associate – Retail Process | Apply Now

Brainy App – Complete Surveys and Refer to Earn Money Easily

Complete simple surveys and tasks to get Paytm cash

About Earning Sessions:-

1. How to Play Game:-

2. Task Offer:-

3. Survey Offer:-

4. Playtime:-

5. Invite Friends:-

My invite code link:- https://6square.page.link/EWJs

More Ways to Earn:-

Payment Proof:-

Interview Questions and Answers for Data Analyst Position at Agoda Company

Instructions

MINIMUM TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS

PRIVACY

CODE OF HONOUR

SQL

JMAN L1 Assessment Interview Questions and Answers

JMAN Group - L1 assessment - off_campus - 12/Apr/23

Please follow the below instructions carefully:

Aptitude

Technical Programming

Permutations and Combinations with Probability – HSC Extension 1 Maths Revision

permutations combinations HSC revision extension 1 mathematics

Introduction:

Role: Field Application Engineer Role
Location: WORK FROM HOME
JOB DESCRIPTION:

_Combinations

_Combinations

8. I. Ramesh was_when he talked about women safety at work. II. There was a major car accident that morning just after the__turn at the signal.

24. 1.Osmosis is a process by which molecules of
P. a solvent tend to pass through
Q. into a more concentrated one.
R. a less concentrated solution
S. a semipermeable membrane from