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Exam Description Exam Topics
Exam Description
The 650-378 Advanced Borderless Network Field Engineer exam is for individuals involved in implementation and Support of Borderless Network Architecture and Solutions.

To register for this exam, go to http://www.pearsonvue.com/cisco/online/.

Exam Topics
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam.

Describe Borderless Network Solution Overview
Implement Cisco Validated Designs
Design and Implement Borderless Network Security Architecture for Enterprise
Design and Implement Borderless Network Mobility
Design and Implement Borderless Network Cisco medianet
Design and Implement Borderless Network Smart Business Architecture
Design and Implement Borderless Network Energywis

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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version

INTRODUCTION
The CompTIA Security+ Certification is a vendor neutral credential. The CompTIA Security+
exam is an internationally recognized validation of foundation-level security skills and knowledge,
and is used by organizations and security professionals around the globe.

The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and
skills required to identify risk and participate in risk mitigation activities, provide infrastructure,
application, operational and information security, apply security controls to maintain
confidentiality, integrity and availability, identify appropriate technologies and products, and
operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws and regulations.
The CompTIA Security+ Certification is aimed at an IT security professional who has:
 A minimum of 2 years experience in IT administration with a focus on security
 Day to day technical information security experience
 Broad knowledge of security concerns and implementation including the topics in the
domain list below

CompTIA Security+ is ISO 17024 Accredited (Personnel Certification Accreditation) and, as such,
undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA
Security+ objectives reflect the subject areas in this edition of this exam, and result from subject
matter expert workshops and industry-wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge
required of an information security professional with two years of experience.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content.
Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be
construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
The table below lists the domain areas measured by this examination and the approximate extent
to which they are represented in the examination:
Domain % of Examination
1.0 Network Security 21%
2.0 Compliance and Operational Security 18%
3.0 Threats and Vulnerabilities 21%
4.0 Application, Data and Host Security 16%
5.0 Access Control and Identity Management 13%
6.0 Cryptography 11%
Total 100%
**Note: The lists of examples provided in bulleted format below each objective are not exhaustive lists.
Other examples of technologies, processes or tasks pertaining to each objective may also be included on
the exam although not listed or covered in this objectives document.
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 2 of 15
Copyright 2010 by the Computing Technology Industry Association. All rights reserved.
The CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives are subject to change without notice.

1.0 Network Security
1.1 Explain the security function and purpose of network devices and
technologies
ï‚· Firewalls
ï‚· Routers
ï‚· Switches
ï‚· Load Balancers
ï‚· Proxies
ï‚· Web security gateways
ï‚· VPN concentrators
ï‚· NIDS and NIPS (Behavior based, signature based, anomaly based,
heuristic)
ï‚· Protocol analyzers
ï‚· Sniffers
ï‚· Spam filter, all-in-one security appliances
ï‚· Web application firewall vs. network firewall
ï‚· URL filtering, content inspection, malware inspection

1.2 Apply and implement secure network administration principles
ï‚· Rule-based management
ï‚· Firewall rules
ï‚· VLAN management
ï‚· Secure router configuration
ï‚· Access control lists
ï‚· Port Security
ï‚· 802.1x
ï‚· Flood guards
ï‚· Loop protection
ï‚· Implicit deny
ï‚·INTRODUCTION
The CompTIA Security+ Certification is a vendor neutral credential. The CompTIA Security+
exam is an internationally recognized validation of foundation-level security skills and knowledge,
and is used by organizations and security professionals around the globe.

The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and
skills required to identify risk and participate in risk mitigation activities, provide infrastructure,
application, operational and information security, apply security controls to maintain
confidentiality, integrity and availability, identify appropriate technologies and products, and
operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws and regulations.
The CompTIA Security+ Certification is aimed at an IT security professional who has:
 A minimum of 2 years experience in IT administration with a focus on security
 Day to day technical information security experience
 Broad knowledge of security concerns and implementation including the topics in the
domain list below

CompTIA Security+ is ISO 17024 Accredited (Personnel Certification Accreditation) and, as such,
undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA
Security+ objectives reflect the subject areas in this edition of this exam, and result from subject
matter expert workshops and industry-wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge
required of an information security professional with two years of experience.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content.
Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be
construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
The table below lists the domain areas measured by this examination and the approximate extent
to which they are represented in the examination:
Domain % of Examination
1.0 Network Security 21%
2.0 Compliance and Operational Security 18%
3.0 Threats and Vulnerabilities 21%
4.0 Application, Data and Host Security 16%
5.0 Access Control and Identity Management 13%
6.0 Cryptography 11%
Total 100%
**Note: The lists of examples provided in bulleted format below each objective are not exhaustive lists.
Other examples of technologies, processes or tasks pertaining to each objective may also be included on
the exam although not listed or covered in this objectives document.
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 2 of 15
Copyright 2010 by the Computing Technology Industry Association. All rights reserved.
The CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives are subject to change without notice.

1.0 Network Security
1.1 Explain the security function and purpose of network devices and
technologies
ï‚· Firewalls
ï‚· Routers
ï‚· Switches
ï‚· Load Balancers
ï‚· Proxies
ï‚· Web security gateways
ï‚· VPN concentrators
ï‚· NIDS and NIPS (Behavior based, signature based, anomaly based,
heuristic)
ï‚· Protocol analyzers
ï‚· Sniffers
ï‚· Spam filter, all-in-one security appliances
ï‚· Web application firewall vs. network firewall
ï‚· URL filtering, content inspection, malware inspection

1.2 Apply and implement secure network administration principles
ï‚· Rule-based management
ï‚· Firewall rules
ï‚· VLAN management
ï‚· Secure router configuration
ï‚· Access control lists
ï‚· Port Security
ï‚· 802.1x
ï‚· Flood guards
ï‚· Loop protection
ï‚· Implicit deny
ï‚·

Q&A V3.20

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Important Note
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Question: 1
Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser’s trusted root CA?

A. Private key
B. Symmetric key
C. Recovery key
D. Public key

Answer: D

Question: 2
Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server?

A. XTACACS
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+

Answer: C

Question: 3
Where are revoked certificates stored?

A. Recovery agent
B. Registration
C. Key escrow
D. CRL

Answer: D

Question: 4
DRPs should contain which of the following?

A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel
B. Hierarchical list of critical systems
C. Hierarchical access control lists
D. Identification of single points of failure

Answer: B

Question: 5
A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent:

A. password sharing.
B. escalation of privileges.
C. implicit deny.
D. administrative account lockout.

Answer: B

Question: 6
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised?

A. Full disk encryption
B. Common access card
C. Strong password complexity
D. Biometric authentication

Answer: A

Question: 7
Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host enumeration by sweep devices?

A. HTTPS
B. SSH
C. IPv4
D. ICMP

Answer: D

Question: 8
Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack?

A. Memory addressing
B. Directory traversal
C. Initial vector
D. Session cookies

Answer: A

Question: 9
Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended recipient can decrypt the ciphertext?

A. Private
B. Escrow
C. Public
D. Preshared

Answer: C

Question: 10
Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports?

A. VLAN separation
B. Access control
C. Loop protection
D. DMZ

Answer: C

Question: 11
A new enterprise solution is currently being evaluated due to its potential to increase the company’s profit margins. The security administrator has been asked to review its security implications. While evaluating the product, various vulnerability scans were performed. It was determined that the product is not a threat but has the potential to introduce additional vulnerabilities. Which of the following assessment types should the security administrator also take into consideration while evaluating this product?

A. Threat assessment
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Code assessment
D. Risk assessment

Answer: D

Question: 12
Which of the following requires special handling and explicit policies for data retention and data distribution?

A. Personally identifiable information
B. Phishing attacks
C. Zero day exploits
D. Personal electronic devices

Answer: A

Question: 13
Centrally authenticating multiple systems and applications against a federated user database is an example of:

A. smart card.
B. common access card.
C. single sign-on.
D. access control list.

Answer: C

Question: 14
WEP is seen as an unsecure protocol based on its improper use of which of the following?

A. RC6
B. RC4
C. 3DES
D. AES

Answer: B

Question: 15
Which of the following should be performed if a smartphone is lost to ensure no data can be retrieved from it?

A. Device encryption
B. Remote wipe
C. Screen lock
D. GPS tracking

Answer: B

Question: 16
In an 802.11n network, which of the following provides the MOST secure method of both encryption and authorization?

A. WEP with 802.1x
B. WPA Enterprise
C. WPA2-PSK
D. WPA with TKIP

Answer: B

Question: 17
Which of the following methods of access, authentication, and authorization is the MOST secure by default?

A. Kerberos
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP

Answer: A

Question: 18
Which of the following facilitates computing for heavily utilized systems and networks?

A. Remote access
B. Provider cloud
C. VPN concentrator
D. Telephony

Answer: B

Question: 19
With which of the following is RAID MOST concerned?

A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Baselining

Answer: C

Question: 20
Which of the following reduces the likelihood of a single point of failure when a server fails?

A. Clustering
B. Virtualization
C. RAID
D. Cold site

Answer: A

Question: 21
A user downloads a keygen to install pirated software. After running the keygen, system performance is extremely slow and numerous antivirus alerts are displayed. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware?

A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Adware

Answer: C

Question: 22
Which of the following is used in conjunction with PEAP to provide mutual authentication between peers?

A. LEAP
B. MSCHAPv2
C. PPP
D. MSCHAPv1

Answer: B

Question: 23
A targeted email attack sent to the company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is known as which of the following?

A. Whaling
B. Bluesnarfing
C. Vishing
D. Dumpster diving

Answer: A

Question: 24
Which of the following uses TCP port 22 by default?

A. SSL, SCP, and TFTP
B. SSH, SCP, and SFTP
C. HTTPS, SFTP, and TFTP
D. TLS, TELNET, and SCP

Answer: B

Question: 25
Actively monitoring data streams in search of malicious code or behavior is an example of:

A. load balancing.
B. an Internet proxy.
C. URL filtering.
D. content inspection.

Answer: D

Question: 26
A user is no longer able to transfer files to the FTP server. The security administrator has verified the ports are open on the network firewall. Which of the following should the security administrator check?

A. Anti-virus software
B. ACLs
C. Anti-spam software
D. NIDS

Answer: B

Question: 27
A Human Resource manager is assigning access to users in their specific department performing the same job function. This is an example of:

A. role-based access control.
B. rule-based access control.
C. centralized access control.
D. mandatory access control.

Answer: A

Question: 28
Which of the following BEST describes the process of key escrow?

A. Maintains a copy of a user’s public key for the sole purpose of recovering messages if it is lost
B. Maintains a secured copy of a user’s private key to recover the certificate revocation list
C. Maintains a secured copy of a user’s private key for the sole purpose of recovering the key if it is lost
D. Maintains a secured copy of a user’s public key in order to improve network performance

Answer: C

Question: 29
Which of the following network devices would MOST likely be used to detect but not react to suspicious behavior on the network?

A. Firewall
B. NIDS
C. NIPS
D. HIDS

Answer: B

Question: 30
Which of the following is an example of allowing a user to perform a self-service password reset?

A. Password length
B. Password recovery
C. Password complexity
D. Password expiration

Answer: B

Question: 31
Which of the following wireless attacks uses a counterfeit base station with the same SSID name as a nearby intended wireless network?

A. War driving
B. Evil twin
C. Rogue access point
D. War chalking

Answer: B

Question: 32
A security administrator finished taking a forensic image of a computer’s memory. Which of the following should the administrator do to ensure image integrity?

A. Run the image through AES128.
B. Run the image through a symmetric encryption algorithm.
C. Compress the image to a password protected archive.
D. Run the image through SHA256.

Answer: D

Question: 33
Which of the following BEST explains the security benefit of a standardized server image?

A. All current security updates for the operating system will have already been applied.
B. Mandated security configurations have been made to the operating system.
C. Anti-virus software will be installed and current.
D. Operating system license use is easier to track.

Answer: B

Question: 34
Which of the following is the primary purpose of using a digital signature? (Select TWO).

A. Encryption
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Non-repudiation
E. Availability

Answer: B, D

Question: 35
Which of the following must a security administrator do when the private key of a web server has been compromised by an intruder?

A. Submit the public key to the CRL.
B. Use the recovery agent to revoke the key.
C. Submit the private key to the CRL.
D. Issue a new CA.

Answer: A

Question: 36
The security administrator often observes that an employee who entered the datacenter does not match the owner of the PIN that was entered into the keypad. Which of the following would BEST prevent this situation?

A. Multifactor authentication
B. Username and password
C. Mandatory access control
D. Biometrics

Answer: D

Question: 37
A programmer allocates 16 bytes for a string variable, but does not adequately ensure that more than 16 bytes cannot be copied into the variable. This program may be vulnerable to which of the following attacks?

A. Buffer overflow
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Session hijacking
D. Directory traversal

Answer: A

Question: 38
An administrator is updating firmware on routers throughout the company. Where should the administrator document this work?

A. Event Viewer
B. Router’s System Log
C. Change Management System
D. Compliance Review System

Answer: C

Question: 39
The fundamental difference between symmetric and asymmetric key cryptographic systems is that symmetric key cryptography uses:

A. multiple keys for non-repudiation of bulk data.
B. different keys on both ends of the transport medium.
C. bulk encryption for data transmission over fiber.
D. the same key on each end of the transmission medium.

Answer: D

Question: 40
Which of the following allows a user to have a one-time password?

A. Biometrics
B. SSO
C. PIV
D. Tokens

Answer: D

Question: 41
Which of the following allows a security administrator to set device traps?

A. SNMP
B. TLS
C. ICMP
D. SSH

Answer: A

Question: 42
Which of the following is the BEST way to secure data for the purpose of retention?

A. Off-site backup
B. RAID 5 on-site backup
C. On-site clustering
D. Virtualization

Answer: A

Question: 43
In which of the following locations would a forensic analyst look to find a hooked process?

A. BIOS
B. Slack space
C. RAM
D. Rootkit

Answer: C

Question: 44
Several classified mobile devices have been stolen. Which of the following would BEST reduce the data leakage threat?

A. Use GPS tracking to find the devices.
B. Use stronger encryption algorithms.
C. Immediately inform local law enforcement.
D. Remotely sanitize the devices.

Answer: D

Question: 45
Which of the following is an example of requiring users to have a password of 16 characters or more?

A. Password recovery requirements
B. Password complexity requirements
C. Password expiration requirements
D. Password length requirements

Answer: D

Question: 46
Which of the following devices provides storage for RSA or asymmetric keys and may assist in user authentication? (Select TWO).

A. Trusted platform module
B. Hardware security module
C. Facial recognition scanner
D. Full disk encryption
E. Encrypted USB

Answer: A, B

Question: 47
A small company needs to invest in a new expensive database. The company’s budget does not include the purchase of additional servers or personnel. Which of the following solutions would allow the small company to save money on hiring additional personnel and minimize the footprint in their current datacenter?

A. Allow users to telecommute
B. Setup a load balancer
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Software as a Service

Answer: D

Question: 48
A security administrator needs to implement a site-to-site VPN tunnel between the main office and a remote branch. Which of the following protocols should be used for the tunnel?

A. RTP
B. SNMP
C. IPSec
D. 802.1X

Answer: C

Question: 49
When examining HTTP server logs the security administrator notices that the company’s online store crashes after a particular search string is executed by a single external user. Which of the following BEST describes this type of attack?

A. Spim
B. DDoS
C. Spoofing
D. DoS

Answer: D

Question: 50
Which of the following MUST a programmer implement to prevent cross-site scripting?

A. Validate input to remove shell scripts
B. Validate input to remove hypertext
C. Validate input to remove batch files
D. Validate input to remove Java bit code

Answer: B

Question: 51
Which of the following is seen as non-secure based on its ability to only store seven uppercase characters of data making it susceptible to brute force attacks?

A. PAP
B. NTLMv2
C. LANMAN
D. CHAP

Answer: C

Question: 52
Which of the following should be used to help prevent device theft of unused assets?

A. HSM device
B. Locking cabinet
C. Device encryption
D. GPS tracking

Answer: B

Question: 53
Which of the following security practices should occur initially in software development?

A. Secure code review
B. Patch management
C. Fuzzing
D. Penetration tests

Answer: A

Question: 54
Which of the following uses tickets to identify users to the network?

A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos

Answer: D

Question: 55
Which of the following file transfer protocols is an extension of SSH?

A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. SFTP
D. FTPS

Answer: C

Question: 56
Due to sensitive data concerns, a security administrator has enacted a policy preventing the use of flash drives. Additionally, which of the following can the administrator implement to reduce the risk of data leakage?

A. Enact a policy that all work files are to be password protected.
B. Enact a policy banning users from bringing in personal music devices.
C. Provide users with unencrypted storage devices that remain on-site.
D. Disallow users from saving data to any network share.

Answer: B

exam number/code: 642-415
exam name: unified communications archite
exam no. of questions: 58
latest upate:2011-06-07
duration: 90 minutes
passing score: 825

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exam number/code: 642-645
exam name: troubleshooting unified commun
exam no. of questions: 118
latest upate:2011-06-07
duration: 90 minutes
passing score: 825

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exam number/code: 642-654
exam name: waasse – wide area application
exam no. of questions: 99
latest upate:2011-06-07
duration: 90 minutes
passing score: 825

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exam number/code: 646-230
exam name: advanced unified communication
exam no. of questions: 61
latest upate:2011-06-07
duration: 90 minutes
passing score: 825

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exam number/code: 642-566
exam name: security solutions for systems
exam no. of questions: 176
latest upate:2011-06-07
duration: 90 minutes
passing score: 825

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exam number/code: 642-542
exam name: cisco safe implementation exam
exam no. of questions: 237
latest upate:2011-06-07
duration: 90 minutes
passing score: 825

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exam number/code: 642-062
exam name: routing and switching solution
exam no. of questions: 127
latest upate:2011-06-07
duration: 90 minutes
passing score: 825

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