MCQ Biology.com

Botany Exam Questions - Secondary School Teacher Botany

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 01 Oct 2022 13:06:00 +0000

1)In pinus male and female cone occurs on

A)Different plants

B)Same branch of a plant

C)Different branches of the same plant

D)None of the above

Ans Option-C

2)The pollination in Cycas is carried out by the agency of

A)Wind

B)Water

C)Insects

D)Birds

Ans Option-A

3)The causative organism of Red Rust of Tea is

A)Puccinia

B)Cephaleuros

C)Sargassum

D)Ulothrix

Ans Option-B

4)In Paddy fields the fertility can be improved by the addition of

A)Lime

B)Sodium chloride

C)Azolla

D)Rhizobium

Ans Option-C

5)The reserve food of Fungi is

A)Starch

B)Glucose

C)Furctose

D)Glycogen

Ans Option-D

6)Fruit Rot of Caradamom is caused by

A)Phytophthora palmivora

B)Xanthomonas sp.

C)Puccinia graminis

D)Colletotrichum facultatum

Ans Option-A

7)Rogueing is a process of

A)Desructing the infected plants from the field at an early stage

B)Elimination of the alternate hosts from or near the field

C)Spraying pesticides

D)None of the above

Ans Option-A

8)Williamsonia sewardiana belongs to the order

A)Cycadofilicales

B)Bennettiatales

C)Pteridospermales

D)Cycadales

Ans Option-B

9)The spore mother cells in bryophaytes is

A)Diploid

B)Haploid

C)Polyploid

D)None of the above

Ans Option-A

10)Glandular trichomes are seen in

A)Laportea sp.

B)Avicennia sp.

C)Trageainvolucrata

D)All of the above

Ans Option-D

11)Amphicribal vascular bundles are

A)Concentric bundles

B)Xylem surrounded by phloem

C)Phloem surrounded by xylem

D)Both (1) and (2)

Ans Option-D

12)The mounting media should have the following characters

A)Adhesive property

B)Refractive index more or less similar to that of glass

C)Easily dried in the air

D)All the above

Ans Option-D

13)Endosperm in Gymnosperms is

A)Triploid

B)Haploid

C)Pre-fertilization product

D)Both (2) and (3)

Ans Option-D

14)Zonetreme is used to refer

A)The position of aperture on the equator of the pollen grain

B)The aperture is distributed uniformly all over the surface of the pollen grain

C)The aperture is located only at the proximal end

D)None of the above

Ans Option-A

15)Vertical resistance refers to

A)General resistance to all races of pathogen

B)Specific resistance to a sigle race or strain of pathogen

C)Sigle gene resistance

D)Both (2) and (3)

Ans Option-D

16)The head quarters of ICAR- Central Potato Research Institute is located at

A)Ootacamund

B)Shimla

C)Gwalior

D)Shillong

Ans Option-B

17)Convergent evolution refers to

A)Phylogenetically related forms develop similar adaptations

B)Phylogenetically unrelated forms develop similar adaptations

C)Phylogenetically relate forms develop dissimilar adapatations

D)None of the above

Ans Option-B

18)Tetrasporic embryosac development is seen in

A)Polygonum

B)Adoxa

C)Plumbago

D)Both (2) and (3)

Ans Option-D

19)Inferior ovary with nectariferous disc is seen in the family

A)Rubiaceae

B)Apiaceae

C)Myrtaceae

D)Orchidaceae

Ans Option-C

20)Colchicum autmnale belongs to the family

A)Liliaceae

B)Poaeceae

C)Commelinaceae

D)Orchidaceae

Ans Option-A

21)Cane and Rattans belong to the family

A)Araceae

B)Arecaceae

C)Poaceae

D)Zingiberaceae

Ans Option-B

22)Which statement is correct, Pepo can be defined as

(A) Simple fleshy fruit developing from tricarpellarysyncarpous inferior ovary

(B) Characteristic fruit of the gourd family

(D) Simple fleshy fruit developing from tricarpellaryapocarpous half-interior ovary

A)Statement (A) and (B)

B)Statement (B) and (C)

C)Statement (A) and (C)

D)Statement (D)

Ans Option-A

23)Morphology of the useful part of Jute is

A)Seed coat fibre

B)Bast fibre

C)Fibrous Mesocarp

D)Fibrous roots

Ans Option-B

24)The herbal drug "Jeevani" is produced from the plant

A)Acorus calamus

B)Cananga odorata

C)Trichopus zeylanicus

D)Withania somnifera

Ans Option-C

25)The morphology of "Aswagandh" is

A)Stem

B)Root

C)Leaf

D)Fruit

Ans Option-B

26)Sweet Potato belongs to the family

A)Solanaceae

B)Araceae

C)Convolvulaceae

D)Zingiberaceae

Ans Option-C

27)Darjeeling belongs to the phytogeographic zone

A)Western Himalayas

B)Eastern Himalayas

C)Indus plain

D)Gangetic plain

Ans Option-B

28)The Soil commonly seen in Deccan Plateau is

A)Alluvial Soil

B)Laterite Soil

C)Black Soil

D)Red Soil

Ans Option-C

29)Ecesis refers to

A)Successful establishment and colonization of an invading species in a new locality

B)Colonization of a species seen their earlier

C)Arrival of new species to the altered locality

D)All the above

Ans Option-A

30)The average height of Stratosphere from the earths surface is

A)10 km

B)5 km

C)20 km

D)50 km

Ans Cancelled

31)Which among the human chromosome doesn't have nucleolar organiser region?

A)3 and 14

B)22 and 21

C)11 and 12

D)14 and 15

Ans Option-C

32)In a cell culture study on different phases of cell cycle it was found that one phase took around 35% of the total time. Identify the phase

A)M phase

B)G1 phase

C)S phase

D)G2 phase

Ans Option-C

33)From a crime scene the following samples were obtained. Identify the most suitable sample for DNA profiling

A)Platelets

B)Erythrocytes

C)Leucocytes

D)Serum

Ans Option-C

34)In FISH, fluorescent dyes were tagged to probes for identification. Identify such a dye

A)Digoxigenin

B)Ethidium bromide

C)Thiazole orange

D)Homidium bromide

Ans Option-A

35)In eukaryotes during replication DNA polymerase synthesise okazaki fragments. These fragments composed of

A)50-100 nucleotides

B)100-400 nucleotides

C)400-500 nucleotides

D)Around 800 nucleotides

Ans Option-B

36)Next generation amplicon sequencing is an approach to identify

A)Rare variants

B)Genome editing

C)Both (1) and (2)

D)None of these

Ans Option-C

37)The rare blood type Bombay phenotype is due to a mutation of a dominant allele H which leads to homozygosity and gene interaction. This phenotype is due to

A)Dominant epistatis

B)Recessive epistasis

C)Multiple allele

D)Codominance

Ans Option-B

38)Poky Neurospora was identified as a mitochondrial character because

A)Cytochrome a and b are absent

B)Cytochrome c found in excess

C)Slow growth

D)All of these

Ans Option-D

39)Which of these codon, codes for the amino acid proline?

A)CAG

B)CAU

C)CCG

D)CGA

Ans Option-C

40)Consider a population of rats is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. The allele for black colour (B) has an allelic frequency of 0.81, while the allele for white t colour (b) has an allelic frequency of 0.19. Then the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population is

A)4%

B)15%

C)31%

D)66%

Ans Option-C

41)Harlequin chromosomes are used to study

A)Semiconservative replication

B)Crossing over

C)Neither (1) nor (2)

D)Both (1) and (2)

Ans: Option-D

42)Find out the correct statement

A)Standard error increases when standard deviation increases

B)Standard error decreases when sample size increases

C)Neither correct

D)Both (1) and (2) are correct

Ans: Option-D

43)There is a possibility of rotation of angles φ and Ψ of polypeptide chain which is known as dihedral angles. What is the span rotation of these angles according to Rama plot?

A)0 to 90°

B)-90 to 90°

C)-60 to +60°

D)-180 to +180°

Ans: Option-D

44)Which statement is correct for Cerenkov radiation?

A)It is comparable to sonic boom

B)It emits reddish light

C)It is used in therapeutics

D)All the above

Ans :Cancelled

45)Microheterogeneity of immunoglobulin-G is demonstrated by

A)PAC-ELISA

B)SDS-PAGE

C)Isoelectric focusing

D)HPTLC

Ans: Option-C

46)Which statement is not true for GC-MS

A)The carrier gas is Helium of Nitrogen

B)Impossible to recover individual samples

C)Both (1) and (2)

D)Derivatization is mandatory

Ans: Option-D

47)Aromatic amino acids are not synthesised by animals but certain other group synthesise these amino acids by shikimate pathway they, include

A)Bacteria

B)Fungi

C)Algae

D)All of these

Ans Option-D

48)When one molecule of oxygen binds to the ferrous part of each of the four chains of haemoglobin, enhances the further binding of Oxygen. This is explained by

A)Allosteric modulation

B)Non-competitive inhibition

C)Competitive inhibition

D)None of these

Ans: Option-A

49)Rubisco fixes the Carbon and has a turnover rate of 5.5s-1. How long does it take Rubisco to fix one molecule of Carbon dioxide?

A)0.5 seconds

B)0.18 seconds

C)5 seconds

D)1.8 seconds

Ans: Option-B

50)Resistance to the diffusion of 𝐶𝑂2 from outside the leaf to chloroplast occurs at different locations. Which among is the major point of resistance?

A)Boundary layer

B)Stomatal pore

C)Mesophyll

D)Intercellular space

Ans: Option-B

51)It was observed that a gene for a disease resistance was inherited in a recessive fashion. The incidence of resistance in normal population is 1/400 and in the observed area was 1/25. What are the carrier frequencies in the normal population and in the observed area? Assume that the population studied is stable

A)38/400:8/25

B)2/400:2/25

C)19/20:4/25

D)19/400:4/25

Ans: Option-A

52)Which among is a major product of DNA oxidation and its concentration is a measure of oxidative stress?

A)5-Oxo-dG

B)8-Oxo-dG

C)4-Oxo-dG

D)19-Oxo-dG

Ans: Option-B

53)Computers store all data in binary format, if one stores the year 2022 as binary, what will be the exact binary sequence?

A)11111100110

B)11111100010

C)11111000110

D)01100111111

Ans: Option-A

54)Point out the disadvantage of snowball sampling

A)Impossible to determine the sampling error

B)Couldn't discover the characteristics of population

C)Impossible to conduct due to lack of participants

D)Lack of confidentiality of data

Ans: Option-A

55)Protein Data Bank provides the 3D structure of

A)proteins

B)DNA

C) RNA

D)All of these

Ans : Option-D

56)Which statement is true for bus is computing?

A)A hardware

B)A software

C)Hardware as well as software

D)None of these

Ans :Option-C

57)A group of compounds are used in protoplast culture as osmoticum. Identify the one which is not suitable

A)Glucose

B)Sorbitol

C)Sucrose

D)Acarbose

Ans: Option-D

58)Identify the restriction enzyme that have an isocaudomer

A)HpaII

B)BamHI

C)EcoRI

D)PstI

Ans : Option-B

59)Herbicide resistant transgenic plants were developed by incorporating glutathione-S transferase gene. This enzyme detoxifies which herbicide

A)Bromoxynil

B)Atrazine

C)Phosphinothricin

D)None of these

Ans Option-B

60)Identify the true statement

A)DNA transfers between mitochondria and nucleus

B)DNA transfers between chloroplasts and nucleus

C)DNA transfers between mitochondria and chloroplast

D)All the above

Ans: Option-D

61)A DNA sense strands having the sequence

3'-TACCACCCCACATTCCG-5' mutated at 5th position from 5' end with a transition, transcribed an mRNA. How many amino acids will be present in the translated polypeptide with

recurrent amino acids?

A)4 amino acids with 2 recurrent amino acids

B)6 amino acids with 3 recurrent amino acids

C)6 amino acids with 2 recurrent amino acids

D)4 amino acids with 3 recurrent amino acids

Ans: Option-D

62)What is the probability of getting AaBbcc genotype from a cross between AaBbCc × AaBbCc?

A)1/8

B)1/16

C)1/32

D)1/64

Ans: Option-B

63)𝑁2 +8e- + 8H+ +16ATP →2𝑁𝐻3 + 16𝐴𝐷𝑃 + 16𝐴 Π

This equation refers to

A)Ammonification

B)Nitrification

C)Nitrogen fixation

D)Reductive amination

Ans- Option-C

64)The substrate concentration at which reaction attains half of its maximum velocity is called

A)Km

B)Kmax

C)1/2 Vmax

D)[S] 1/2

Ans Option-A

65)Which statement is true for snoRNA

A)Class of small RNA, guide chemical modification of other RNA

B)Small non-coding RNA expressed in animal cells only

C)Long non-coding RNA transcribed from enhancer region of DNA

D)Non-coding RNA involved in RNAi

Ans- Option-A

66)Exometabolomics refers to the

A)Metabolomics of exosphere

B)Metabolic foot printing

C)Exothermal metabolomics

D)Quantitative metabolomics

Ans- Option-B

67)Physiological dormancy of seed can be broken by cold temperature treatment, which commonly ranges from

A)6 to 10ºC

B)1 to 7ºC

C)1 to 2ºC

D)10 to 15ºC

Ans- Option-B

68)Vitamin B5 is essential for which of the following pathway?

A)Gluconeogenesis

B)Glycolysis

C)Fatty acid synthesis

D)Pyruvate Carboxylation

Ans Option-C

69)Which among is a programming command line language popular in bioinformatics

A)Perl

B)Java

C)Bash

D)C++

Ans -Question Cancelled

70)Which statement is true for the phase contrast microscope?

A)Partially coherent illumination is used

B)Coherent illumination is used

C)Collector lens and specialized annulus are not essential

D)None of these

Ans -Option-A

Multiple Choice on Neuroglial Cell Types and Function

noreply@blogger.com (Jazir Haneef) — Wed, 15 Jun 2022 10:05:00 +0000

MCQ on Glial Cell type and function

1. Neuroglial cells are

a) Neuronal cells in CNS

b) Non neuronal cells in CNS* and PNS*

c) Non neuronal cells in CNS only

d) Neuronal cells in CNS only

2. Which among the following is true regarding glial cells?

a) Glial cells have a resting potential

b) Glial cells have an action potential

c) Glial cells have synapses

d) Glial cells are special types of neuronal cells in CNS

3. All are glial cells present in CNS except?

a) Satellite cells

b) Oligodendrocytes

c) Astrocytes

d) Microglia

4. In PNS, neuron myelination is carried out by

a) Ependymal cells

b) Schwann cells

c) Satellite cells

d) Oligodendrocytes

5. Which of the following is involved in regulating ion concentration and providing energy for the neurons?

a) Schwann cells

b) Satellite cells

c) Astrocytes

d) Microglia

6. Which of the following is called as brains immune cells?

a) Schwann cells

b) Ependymal cells

c) Astrocytes

d) Microglia

7. The cells that line spinal cord and the ventricles of the brain is

a) Schwann cells

b) Satellite cells

c) Ependymal cells

d) Microglia

8. Neuron myelination in CNS is carried out by

a) Ependymal cells

b) Schwann cells

c) Satellite cells

d) Oligodendrocytes

9. Cells involved in regulating neurotransmitter levels in PNS is

a) Ependymal cells

b) Schwann cells

c) Satellite cells

d) Oligodendrocytes

10.Synaptic pruning, the process of eating up tagged unwanted synapses is done by

a) Schwann cells

b) Satellite cells

c) Ependymal cells

d) Microglia

CNS* Central Nervous system, PNS* Peripheral nervous system

Answers

1. b) Non neuronal cells in CNS and PNS*

2. a) Glial cells have a resting potential

3. a) Satellite cells

4. b) Schwann cells

5. c) Astrocytes

6. d) Microglia

7. c) Ependymal cells

8. d) Oligodendrocytes

9. c) Satellite cells

10.d) Microglia

Multiple Choice Questions on Biopesticide and Biofertilizers | Microbes in Human Welfare

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 06 Apr 2022 06:18:00 +0000

1. Which vegetable crops use large amounts of nitrogen fertilizer?

A) Leaf

B) Root

C) Fruit

D) All of these

2. The following crop is used in phytoremediation

A) Mustard

B) Wheat

C) Rice

D) Sugarcane

3. Insecticide that remains active in the environment for the longest period of time

A) Organophosphates

B) Chlorinated hydrocarbons

C) Carbonyles

D) None of these

4. Which among the following is not an organophosphates pesticide?

A) Parathion

B) Malathion

C) Methyl parathion

D) DDT

5. Tectona grandis shed leaves during

A) Winter

B) Summer

C) Before flowering

D) After fruiting

6.The nucleopolyhedrovirus viruses (NPV) are widely used as a biopesticide for the control of:

A) Culex larvae

B) Bollworm

C) Aphids

D) Citrus mites

7. Which among the following is a pest of paddy?

A) Cosmopolites sordidus

B) Rhynchophorus ferrugineus

C) Dicladispa armigera

D) Opisina arenosella

8. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soybean crop is

A) Azotobacter

B) Azospirillum

C) Rhizobium

D) Nostoc.

9. Select the mismatch.

A) Rhodospirillum -Mycorrhiza

B) Anabaena -Nitrogen fixer

C) Rhizobium -Alfalfa

D) Frankia-Alnus

10. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is

A) Spirulina

B) Anabaena

C) Frankia

D) Tolypothrix.

11. Which one of the following microbes forms a symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition?

A) Azotobacter

B) Aspergillus

C) Glomus

D) Trichoderma

12. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen-fixing symbiont is found in

A) Alnus

B) Cycas

C) Cicer

D) Pisum.

13. Which one of the following helps in the absorption of phosphorus from the soil by plants?

A) Glomus

B) Rhizobium

C)Frankia

D) Anabaena

14. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?

A) Agrobacterium

B) Rhizobium

C) Nostoc

D) Mycorrhiza

15. The biofertilizers are

A) Anabaena and Azolla

B) Cow dung, manure and farmyard waste

C)quick-growing crop plowed, under the soil

D) Mycorrhiza

Learn more:

Multiple Choice Questions on Bio fertilizers

Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions

MCQ Quiz on Microbes in Human Welfare

Answers:

1. A) Leaf

2. A) Mustard

3. B) Chlorinated hydrocarbons

4. D) DDT

5. B) Summer

6. B) Bollworm

7. C) Dicladispa armigera

8. C) Rhizobium

9. A) Rhodospirillum -Mycorrhiza

10. B) Anabaena

11. C) Glomus

12. B) Cycas

13. A) Glomus

14.A Agrobacterium

15. A) Anabaena and Azolla

MCQ on Animal Cell Culture

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 23 Mar 2022 13:55:00 +0000

1. Viability of cells in animal cell culture can be determined by:

1. Bradford's assay 2. Trypan Blue assay 3. Comet assay 4. MTT assay

a) 2 only

b) 1 & 2 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) 1 & 3 only

2. In animal cell culture the CO2 levels in the incubators are usually maintained at:

a) 2 %

b) 1 %

c) 5 %

d) 10 %

3. The pH indicator in animal cell culture medium is:

a) HEPES

b) Phenol Red

c) FBS

d) L-Glutamine

4. Which of the following is an anchorage-independent cell line?

A) MCF7

B) MDA MB 231

C) K562

D) PC-3

5. Heat inactivation of Foetal Bovine Serum is done at

A) 56⁰C for 30 min

B) 37⁰C for 60 min

C) 56 ⁰C for 10 min

D) 37⁰C for 15 min

6. Application of gene therapy in clinical trials did NOT succeed due to

a) poor integration of a gene in the host genome

b) lack of expression of the a integrated gene in cells

c) degradation of gene inside the cell

d) activation of oncogenes consequent to the integration of the gene

7. For sustainable expression of a transgene in the successive generation of a cell line in culture, the ideal gene transfer can be obtained using

a) lentiviral vector

b) adenoviral vector

c) plasmid DNA containing the transgene

d) only transgenic DNA

8. Which of the following host systems is best suited to express large amounts of glycosylated protein for structural studies?

a) GST fusion protein in E.coli

b) His-tagged protein in E.coli

c) Native protein in baculovirus

d) Native protein in Pseudomonas fluorescens

9. For developing transgenic mice, embryonic stem cells are engineered to express the transgene. These cells are selected by

a) novobiocin.

b) neomycin

c) tetracycline.

d) penicillin

10. To keep them in a totipotent state, embryonic stem cells need to be maintained in a medium supplemented with

a) growth hormone

b) leukemia inhibiting factor

c) nestin

d) insulin

11. Which one of the following techniques is generally used to produce transgenic animals?

a) Processed mRNA containing only exons are introduced into the embryo.

b) Entire foreign nucleus is introduced in the blastocyst-stage enucleated unfertilized egg

c) Desired DNA is microinjected into fertilized eggs followed by implantation of the embryo in a foster mother.

d) c-DNA of the desired gene is introduced into animal embryos and implanted in a foster mother

12. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for propagation and maintenance of mammalian cells in vitro?

a) Transformed cell lines do need an external supply of serum need an to grow.

b) The cells that are obtained directly from the organism is a primary culture.

c) Trypsin is added to cell culture media to maintain cell's health.

d) HEPES buffer is generally used to maintain pH of the culture media.

13. To prepare individual tissue cells from a primary culture, the cell-cell and cell-matrix interaction must be broken. To achieve this would NOT use:

a) EDTA

b) Trypsin

c) Collagenase

d) Separase

14. Which is best method for checking mycoplasma contamination in a mammalian cell line?

a) Southern Hybridization

b) ELISA

c) PCR

d) Western Hybridization

Learn more: MCQ on Animal Biotechnology

Answers

1. c) 2 & 4 only

2. c) 5 %

3. b) Phenol Red

4.c) K562

5. A) 56⁰C for 30 min

6. d) activation of oncogenes consequent to the integration of the gene

7. a) lentiviral vector

8. c) Native protein in baculovirus

9. b) neomycin

10. b) leukemia inhibiting factor

11. c) Desired DNA is microinjected into fertilized eggs followed by implantation of embryo in a foster mother.

12. c) Trypsin is added to cell culture media to maintain cell's health.

13. d) Separase

14. c) PCR

MCQ on Microbial Fermentation

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 22 Mar 2022 14:45:00 +0000

1. The word fermentation is used in biochemistry Microbial technology to denote different phenomena. If the former is called C and the latter is called T. Which of the following statement is true?

a) All C is T but all T is not C

b) All Tis C but C is not T

c) T is always a product ot Genetic engineering while C is not

d) Cis always an aerobic process, while T can be aerobic or anaerobic

2. Which of the following microbial fermentations are anaerobic?

a) Ethanol and acetone-butanol

b) Citric acid and propionic acid

c) Penicillin and vitamin Bi2

d) Streptomycin and rifampicin

3. During the production of alcohol by fermentation using budding yeast, oxygen supply is kept limited. Why?

a) Budding yeasts are obligate anaerobes and cannot tolerate oxygen.

b) Budding yeasts lose mitochondria in the absence of Oxygen.

c) Budding yeasts are facultative anaerobes

d) Alcohol is oxidized further in the presence of oxygen.

4. Novel groups of polyketides can be synthesized in Actinomycetes by

a) gene rearrangement.

b) gene amplification.

c) combinatorial biosynthesis.

d) metabolic engineering.

5. Coliforms are used as indicator organisms of sewage pollution because they

a) are pathogens.

b) ferment lactose.

c) are abundant in human intestines.

d) grow within 24 hours.

6. Enzymes are nowadays used extensively in bioprocessing industries.

Enzymes 1 is used for the treatment of hides to provide a finer texture, in leather processing and the manufacture of glue.

Enzyme 2 is used for clarification of fruit juices.

identify Enzymes 1 and 2

Enzyme 1 Enzyme 2

a) Amylase Pectinase

b) Protease Amylase

c) Protease Pectinase

d) Pectinase Amylase

7. The following table lists some of the enzymes of fungi and bacteria having wide variety of industrial applications, including alcoholic beverages, food, detergents and pharmaceuticals, along with their microbial original

Enzyme Microorganism

A. Amylase E. Azotobacter vinelandii

B. Asparginase F. Serratia marcescens

C. Lipase G. Aspergillus aureus

D. Pectinase H.Aspergillus oryzae

The correct combinations are

(1) A and H

(2) B and G

(3) C and E

(4) D and F

8. Industrial products in which bacteria are employed for production are shown in the following table:

I. List of products II. Microorganims

A. 2,3-Butane diol i) Leuconostoc

B. Dextran ii) Brevibacterium

C. Glutamic acid iii) Bacillus polymyxa

D. Cobalamine iv) Propionibacterium

The correct combinations are

(1) A-ii; B-i; C-i; D - iv

(2) A-i;B-i; C-i; D - iv

(3) A -ii; B-ii; C- iv; D-i

(4) A- i; B- ii; C- iv; D-i

9. Electrons are transferred from reduced c enzymes like NADH, NADPH to pyruvic acid their derivatives during fermentation. Those final electron acceptors are reduced to the end product for example lactic acid, propionic acid, etc. end products depend on the particular microorganisms and the substrate

The organism End product (s)

A. Streptococcus a. Butanediol, formic acid

B. Clostridium b. Lactic acid

C. Salmonella c. Butyric acid and iso propanol

D. Enterobacter d. Succinic acid, acetic acid

The correct match is

1) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d

2) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-c

3) A-b, B- c, C-d, D-a

4) A-c, B-d, C-a, D-b

Learn more: Topic-wise Microbiology MCQ

Answers
1. a) All C is T but all T is not C

2. a) Ethanol and acetone-butanol

3. c) Budding yeasts are facultative anaerobes

4. c) combinatorial biosynthesis.

5. c) are abundant in human intestines.

6. c) Protease Pectinase

7. A and H

8. (1) A-ii; B-i; C-i; D - iv

9. 3) A-b, B- c, C-d, D-a

MCQ on Molecular Evolution

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 21 Mar 2022 10:40:00 +0000

1. Whose name is most closely associated with molecular evolution?

a) Theodosius Dobzhansky

b) Motoo Kimura

c) Frederick Sanger

d) Stephen Jay Gould

2. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the Neutral Theory as proposed by Motoo Kimura?

a) Except for advantageous mutations, most alleles are under neutral selection

b) The rate of evolution for most genes will be equal to the neutral mutation rate

c) Advantageous mutations are exceedingly rare

d) At the level of DNA sequences, genetic drift dominates the evolution

3. Which of the following is a prediction of the neutral theory of molecular evolution that is supported by data?

a) Human and chimps differ more in DNA sequences of pseudogenes than in coding regions of functional genes

b) Human and chimps differ more in DNA sequences of coding regions of functional genes than ot pseduogenes

c) Human have a faster evolution of most of their DNA sequences than chimps

d) The more advanced species have more number of functional genes

4. If the ratio of the number of non-synonymous to synonymous substitutions per site in protein-coding gene is greater than one, it is an evidence of selection that is

a) positive.

b) negative.

c) neutral.

d) random.

5. Similarities in sequence and function of two proteins indicate that they are members of a family that share a Common ancestor. f they are from different species, they are called

a) homologs.

b) orthologs

c) paralogs.

d) proteologs.

6. Mayfair genes (HYPOTHETICAL) consist of a superfamily of transcription factors. They are found in 4 clusters in mammals in 2 clusters in insects;and in a singie ciuster in an ancestor to insects. These data consistent with all of the following explanations EXCEPT: (DEC 2016)

a) Two successive genome duplication event occurred between ancestral organisms and vertebrates

b) the first duplication may have taken place before divergence of vertebrates

c) exon shuffling exclusively produced such cluster

d)whole-genome duplication could lead to such observation.

7. The most commonly used molecular tool for phylogentic analysis involves sequencing of

a) mitochondrial DNA

b) mitochondrial RNA.

c) ribosomal RNA

d) nuclear DNA

8. Which species concept utilizes morphological molecular characters to distinguish between species?

a) Evolutionary

b) Ecological

c) Biological

d) Phylogenetic

9. For which, of the following characters, convergent evolution is most unlikely? following

a) Locomotor organs.

b) Secondary metabolites.

c) Conditionally expressed genes

Biological

10. Evolution of multi-gene family occurs by

a) only gene duplication.

b) both duplication and unequal crossing over

c) random mutations

d) only unequal crossing-over

Learn more: Quiz on Evolution - The origin of Life

Answers:

1. b) Motoo Kimura

2. a) Except for advantageous mutations, most alleles are under neutral selection

3. a) Human and chimps differ more in DNA sequences of pseudogenes than in coding regions of functional genes

4. a) positive.

5. b) orthologs

6. c) exon shuffling exclusively produced such cluster

7. a) mitochondrial DNA / d) nuclear DNA

8. d) Phylogenetic

9. d) base sequence of a gene.

10. b) both duplication and unequal crossing over

MCQ on Ethnobotany | Plant Science MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 18 Mar 2022 15:01:00 +0000

1. The term ‘ethnobotany’ was introduced by

A) Powers

B) Harshberger

C) Gilmour

D) Martin

2. Ethnobotanical records are stored in --------database

A) PLANIMAL
B) SEPASAL

C) NAPRALERT
D) EMBL

3. The total botanical knowledge held by any non-industrial community and which incorporates all utilitarian, ecological and cognitive aspects of both plant use and vegetation management is called

A) ITK , Indigenous Technical Knowledge

B) IAK, Indigenous Agricultural Knowledge

C) TBK, Traditional Botanical Knowledge

D) TEK, Traditional Ecological Knowledge

4. “Jeevani” made by using ethnobotanical lead from the tribe

A) Kani

B) Kurumar

C) Vellan

D) Naikkan

5. Generally the tribal people are non-vegetarians except

A) Todas

B) Kora

C) Paniyan

D) Kurichiyar

6. Which among the following tribal community receives the benefit of the use of Trichopus zeylanicus as per the benefit-sharing system?

A) Kuruchiyar

B) Kaatunaikan

C) Kani

D) Mullukurumba

7. Major component of ‘Jeevani’ is

A) Ocimum basilicum

B) Acorus calamus

C) Trichopus zeylanicus

D) Bacopa monnieri

8. The TBGRI model of benefit-sharing has been associated with which of the following?

I. Kani Tribes II.Trichopus zeylanicus III. Forest Development IV. Ethnomedicine

A) I and II

B) I and III

C) II, III and IV

D) I, II and IV

9. The endemic plant that has been rediscovered after a period of 135 years from a sacred grove of Kerala

A) Madhuca diplostemon

B) Madhuca latifolia

C) Madhuca longifolia

D) Madhuca bourdillonii

10. Find the Minor Forest Products (NWFP) from the list

I. Acacia torta II. Adenanthera pavonina III. Caesalpinia bonduc IV. Aegle marmelos

A) I and III

B) I, II and III

C) I and IV

D) I, II, III and IV

Learn more: MCQ on Economic Botany

Answers:

1. B) Harshberger

2. C) NAPRALERT

3. C) TBK, Traditional Botanical Knowledge

4. A) Kani

5. A) Todas

6. C) Kani

7. C) Trichopus zeylanicus

8. D) I, II and IV

9. A) Madhuca diplostemon

10. D) I, II, III and IV

MCQ on Taxonomy of Classification - Artificial, Natural and Phylogenetic

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 17 Mar 2022 17:07:00 +0000

1. Which among the following system is not a phylogenetic system of classification?

a) Charles Bessey

b) Robert Thorne

c) Engler & Prantl

d) De Candolle

2. Who among the following proposed a phylogenetic system of classification?

a) Carl Linnaeus

b) Bentham and Hooker

c) John Hutchinson

d) Charles Darwin

3. Which among the following is considered a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’

system of classification?

a) Gymnosperms are placed between Monocotyledons and Dicotyledons

b) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons

c) Dicotyledons are placed before Monocotyledons

d) Dicotyledons are placed after Monocotyledons

4. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on

a) morphological features

b) chemical constituents

c) floral characters

d) evolutionary relationships

5. Phenetic classification of organisms is based on

a) observable characteristics of existing organisms

b) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms

c) dendrogram based on DNA characteristics

d) sexual characteristics

6. A system of classification, in which a large number of traits are considered, is

a) natural system

b) phylogenetic system

c) artificial system

d) synthetic system

7. Phylogenetic classification is one that is based on

a) overall similarities

b) utilitarian system

c) habits of plants

d) common evolutionary descent

8. The system of classification used by Linnaeus was

a) natural system

b) artificial system

c) phylogenetic system

d) asexual system

9. Artificial system of classification was first used by

a) Linnaeus

b) De Candolle

c) Bentham and Hooker.

d) Pliny the Elder

10. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is

a) artificial

b) natural

c) phylogenetic

d) numerical.

11 In the system of classification by Bentham & Hooker dicotyledonous plants have been classified as

a) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Monochlamydae

b) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Dichlamydae

c) Archechlamydae, Polypetalae, Monochlamydae

d) None of these

Learn more: MCQ on Plant Physiology

Answers

1. d) De Candolle

2. c) John Hutchinson

3. d) Dicotyledons are placed after Monocotyledons

4. d) evolutionary relationships

5. a) observable characteristics of existing organisms

6. a) natural system

7. d) common evolutionary descent

8. b) artificial system

9. a) Linnaeus

10. (b) natural

11. a) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Monochlamydae

MCQ on Modern Trends in Plant Taxonomy - Numerical Taxonomy

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 17 Mar 2022 11:10:00 +0000

1. A taxonomic system based only on the traits that reflect the order in time in which branches arose in a phylogenetic tree is called

A) Phylogeny

B) Cladistic

C) Classical evolutionary taxonomy

D) Phenetics

2. The lowest ranking taxa in numerical taxonomy is

A) Species

B) Operational taxonomic unit

C) Character states

D) Variety

3. Taxonomy, when it is strengthened by incorporating data from semantides and non-semantides is called

A) Numerical taxonomy

B) Cytotaxonomy

C) Chemotaxonomy

D) Alpha taxonomy

4. Cladistic relationship is expressed in terms of correlation amongst individuals with regard to

A) Phenotypic characters

B) Their evolutionary history

C) Relationship between operational taxonomic unit

D) Their chromosomal behaviour

5. Level of taxonomic study concerned with the biological aspects of taxa, including intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary rates and trends

A) Alpha taxonomy
B) Beta taxonomy

C) Gamma taxonomy
D) Theta taxonomy

6. The principles of Numerical taxonomy were developed by

A) Bentham and Hooker

B) Engler and Prantl

C) Sneath and Sokal

D) Takhtajan and Cronquist

7. Binomial of a plant with no accompanying description is known as

A) Tautonym

B) Nomen nudum

C) Late homonym

D) Later isonym

Learn more: MCQ on Classification

Answers:

1. B) Cladistic

2. B) Operational taxonomic unit

3. C) Chemotaxonomy

4. B) Their evolutionary history

5. C) Gamma taxonomy

6. C) Sneath and Sokal

7. B) Nomen nudum

MCQ on Plant Pathology | Diseases - Plant Defense Mechanisms

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 16 Mar 2022 17:29:00 +0000

1. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is

A) Insect transmitted

B) Soil-transmitted

C) Sap transmitted

D) Root transmitted

2. Blast disease of rice is caused by

A) Piricularia oryzae

B) Pseudomonas oryzae

C) Scleroticum oryzae

D) Helminthosporium oryzae

3. Powdery lesions on the underside of the coffee leaves appear as orange-yellow to

red orange in color known as coffee rust is caused by

A) Hemileia vastatrix

B) Puccinia graminis

C) Cronartium ribicola

D) Uromyces phaseoli

4. Partial or complete loss of virulence in the pathogen is called

A) Abortive parasitism

B) Attenuation

C) Neutralism

D) Susceptibility

5. Phytoalexins are produced

A) During infection

B) During flowering

C) Throughout the lifecycle

D) By seedlings only

Planthopper

6. Root wilt is a serious disease causing havoc in coconut plantations.

A) The disease is caused by Plant hopper and lacewing bug

B )The disease is caused by Phytoplasma, Planthopper and lacewing bug spreads the disease

C) The disease is caused by Phytoplasma Plant hopper spreads the disease

D)Planthopper)The disease is caused by Phytoplasma and spread by wind

7. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called

A) Spot

B) Canker

C) Scorch

D) Die-back

8. Katte disease of cardamom is caused due to

A) Colletotrichum elettariae

B) Phytophthora medii

C) Cardamom mosaic virus

D) Fusarium sp.

9. Red rot of sugar cane is caused by

A) Colletotrichum falcatum

B) Xanthomonas citri

C) Alternaria solani

D) Fusarium oxysporum

10. Late blight of potato is caused by

A) Alternaria solani

B) Phytophthora infestans

C) Pseudomonas solanacearum

D) Albugo bliti

Learn more: Quiz on Plant Pathology

Answers: Quiz on Plant Biotechnology

1. C) Sap transmitted

2.A) Piricularia oryzae

3. A) Hemileia vastatrix

4. B) Attenuation

5. A) During infection

6. B )The disease is caused by Phytoplasma, Planthopper and lacewing bug spreads the disease

7. B) Canker

8. C) Cardamom mosaic virus

9. A) Colletotrichum falcatum

10. B) Phytophthora infestans

MCQ on Linkage | Genetic Linkage - Principles of Inheritance and Variation

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 14 Mar 2022 17:33:00 +0000

1. The term linkage was coined by

A) G Mendel

B) W Sutton

C) T Boveri

D) T H Morgan

2. The mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is

A) Translocation

B) Inversion

C) Crossing over

D) Duplication

3. In sweet peas the genes for flower colour and pollen length were studied. The double heterozygote showed a preponderance of the parental combinations. This could be due to

A) Independant assortment

B) Linkage

C) Crossing over

D) Incomplete Dominance

4) Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in the fruit fly Drosophila is due to

A) repulsion

B) crossing over

C) linkage

D) recombination

5. Which of the experiment is suitable to detect linkage?

A) aaBB x aaBB

B) AaBb x aabb

C) AABB x aabb

D) AAbb x AaBB

6. The first attempt to show linkage in plants was carried out in

A) Oenothera lamarckiana

B) Pisum sativum

C) Lathyrus odoratus

D) Zea mays

7. Two dominant non-allelic genes are 50 map units apart. The linkage is

A) cis type

B) trans type

C) complete

D) absent / incomplete

8. A and B genes are linked. What shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?

A) AABB and aabb

B)AaBb and aabb

C) AABB and aabb

D) None of these

Learn more: MCQ on Inheritance and Variation

Answers

1. D) T H Morgan

2.A) Translocation

3. B) Linkage

4. C) linkage

5. B) AaBb x aabb

6. D) Zea mays

7. D) absent / incomplete

8. B)AaBb and aabb

Multiple Choice Questions on Biotechnology

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 09 Mar 2022 16:18:00 +0000

1. The cDNA library of the organism will be

A) Tissue-specific

B) Growth specific

C) Organ-specific

D) Cell-specific

2. Eco R1 is the restriction enzyme that recognizes the following DNA sequence

GGATCC

CCTAGG

GAATTC

CTTAAG

GCGC

CGCG

TCGA

AGCT

3. Axenic culture is best defined as

A) Cell culture

B) Organ culture

C) Cell culture of microbes

D) Cell culture free from other microbes

4. An analysis of chromosomal DNA by Southern blot technique, involves the following steps

1. Autoradiography 2. Blotting 3. Cleavage 4. Electrophoresis 5. Hybridization

Which of the following sequence of steps best illustrates this technique?

A) 1,2,3,4,5

B) 1,3,2,4,5

C) 3,5,2,4,1

D) 3,4,2,5,1

5. Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1phage and plasmid are common cloning vectors with a range from 1 to 300k. Which of the following is the proper order for these vectors in terms of cloning capacity?

A) Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1 phage, plasmid

B) Cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, P1 phage, plasmid

C) P1 Phage, cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, plasmid

D) Plasmid, cosmid, P1 phage, Bacterial artificial chromosome

6. The DNA sequence cut by Eco RI is

A) GCAT /GCAT

B) GAATTC/GAATTC

C) GAATTC/CTTAAG

D) GAATTG/CTTTAAC

7. Any one of a group of restriction enzymes that recognizes the same nucleotide sequences

A) Isozyme

B) Ribozyme

C) Isoschizomer

D) Isomer

8. In prenatal diagnosis, the polymorphism used to determine genetic disorders is

A) SNPs

B) RFLPs

C) RAPDs

D) SCARs

9. A Drug resistance marker used for the selection of recombinants is

A) NPT II

B) SSP

C) SSR

D) AFLP

10. Which of the following statements are true about R-Plasmids?

I. It is the extrachromosomal genetic material

II. It has genes encoding bacterial toxins

III. It is circular and confer resistance to antibiotics

IV. It can spread fast in bacterial populations

A) I and II

B)I and III

C)II and III

D) I, III and IV

11. You have been tasked with cloning a plant gene in bacterial systems and later its expression in cultured cells. Which type of vector you should select for easy cloning and expression?

A) Phage Vector

B) Cosmid Vector

C) Shuttle Vector

D) YAC

12. Green Fluorescent Protein is isolated from:

A) Photimus pyralis B) Aequorea Victoria C) Pyrococcus furiosus D) Thermus aquaticus

Learn more: Topic-wise Biotechnology MCQ

Answers:

1. A) Tissue-specific

2. B) GAATTC

CTTAAG

3. D) Cell culture free from other microbes

4. D) 3,4,2,5,1

5. D) Plasmid, cosmid, P1 phage, Bacterial artificial chromosome

6. C) GAATTC/CTTAAG

7. C) Isoschizomer

8. A) SNPs

9. A) NPT II

10.D) I, III, and IV

11. C) Shuttle Vector

12. B) Aequorea Victoria

MCQ on BT Cotton | Transgenic Plants - Applications of Biotechnology MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 02 Mar 2022 08:28:00 +0000

1. The prefix of 'Bt 'means:

A) Bigger thread

B) Biotechnology

C) Barium treated

D) Bacillus thuringiensis

2. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are :

A) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests

B) High yield and resistance to bollworms

C) Long fibre and resistance to aphids

D) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests

3. What is true about Bt toxin?

A) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins

B) The inactive protoxin gets converted into an active form in the insect gut

C) Bt protein exists as an active toxin in the Bacillus

D) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication

4. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are :

A) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests

B) High yield and resistance to bollworms

C) Long fibre and resistance to aphids

D) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests

5. The Bt toxin does not kill the Bacillus because the Bt toxin protein exist as inactive--
A) protein
B) protoxins
C) prion
D) particle

6. Cry1 endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against:-

A) Flies

B) Nematodes

C) Boll worms

D) Mosquitoes

7. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals that contain insecticidal protein. This protein :

A) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin

B) binds with epithelial cells of the midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

C) is coded by several genes including the gene cry

D) is activated by the acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest

8. Bt. toxin does not show the harmful effect on human and non-target insects, because:-

A) It is non-toxic to animal and human

B) Its receptors are not present in humans

C) Humans and other animals have resistance against Bt. toxins

D) Acidic nature of stomach and absence of specific receptor on human gut

9. Bacillus thuringiensis strains have been used for designing novel-

A) biofertilizers

B) bio insecticidal plants

C) biomineralization

D) bio metallurgical techniques

Learn more: MCQ on Transgenic Plants

Answers:

1. D) Bacillus thuringiensis

2. B) High yield and resistance to bollworms

3. B) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut

4. B) High yield and resistance to bollworms

5. B) protoxins

6. C) Boll worms

7. B) binds with epithelial cells of the midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

8. D) Acidic nature of stomach and absence of specific receptor on human gut

9.B) bio insecticidal plants

MCQ on Transgenic Plants | Application of Biotechnology MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 01 Mar 2022 10:31:00 +0000

1. Transgenic plants are the ones:-

A) Grown in the artificial medium after hybridization in the field

B) Produced by a somatic embryo in an artificial medium

C) Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell

D) Produced after protoplast fusion in an artificial medium

2. First genetically modified plant produced in 1982 was

A) Transgenic tobacco

B) Transgenic maize

C) Transgenic tomato

D) Transgenic cotton

3. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in

A) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency

B) Pest resistance

C) Herbicide tolerance

D) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

4. A genetically engineered squash called Freedom II carries genes from

A) Cauliflower mosaic virus

B) Zucchini virus

C) Watermelon mosaic virus

D) Both A & B

5. A transgenic food crop that may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing

countries are:-

A) Starlink maize

B) Bt Soybean

C) Golden rice

D) Flavr Savr tomatoes

6. The transgenic plant is developed by anti-sense RNA technology.

A) Golden rice

B) Bt cotton

C) Flavr Savr tomato

D) Both A and C

7. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

A) Bacterial blights

B) Bollworms

C) Nematodes

D) White rusts

8. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice :

A) is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy

B) gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma

C) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones

D) give high yield and is rich in vitamin A

9. The genetically modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for :

A) Enhancing mineral content

B) Drought-resistance

C) Insect-resistance

D) Enhancing shelf life

10. Transgenic Brassica napus has been used for the synthesis of :

A) Heparin

B) Cry Protein

C) polygalacturonase

D) Hirudin

11. Transgenic tobacco plant was developed by the process of RNA interference, was resistant against the infection of

A) Bacteria E coli

B)Algae Scenedesmus

C)Fungi Fusarium

D) Nematode Melodigyne incognita

Learn more: Quiz on Biotechnology

Answers:

1.C) Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell

2. A) Transgenic tobacco

3. A) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency

4. C) Watermelon mosaic virus

5. C) Golden rice

6. C) Flavr Savr tomato

7. C) Nematodes

8. D) give high yield and is rich in vitamin A

9. C) Insect-resistance

10. D) Hirudin

11. B)Algae Scenedesmus

MCQ on Mosses | Bryophytes MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 01 Mar 2022 08:59:00 +0000

1. The most common bryophyte of bogs is --

A) Porella
B) Sphagnum

C) Funaria

D) Marchantia

2. In mosses, meiosis takes place during

A) spore formation
B) gamete formation

C) antheridia and archegonia formation

D) spore germination

3. The peat moss belongs to the order

A) Bryales

B) Andreaeales

C) Sphagnales

D) Anthocerotales

4. The name ''large spored moss is given to----

A) Bryales

B) Andreaea

C) Archidium

D) Polytrichum

5. The name 'granite moss' is given to which bryophyte?

A) Bryales

B) Andreaea

C) Archidium

D) Polytrichum

6. The name 'Lantern moss' is given to which bryophyte?

A) Members of Bryales

B) Members of Andreaeales

C) Archidium

D) Polytrichum

7. The name 'true mosses' is given to which bryophyte?

A) Members of Bryales

B) Members of Andreaeaeales

C) Archidium

D) Polytrichum

8. What is the common name of Tetraphis?

A) Large spored moss

B) four toothed moss

C) true mosses

D) lantern mosses

9. Leptoids are present in

A) Sphagnum

B) Marchantia

C) Anthoceros

D) Polytrichum

10. In mature sporophyte of Andreaea, the function of seta is taken by a body of gametophytic tissue known as ----

A) Elaters

B) Pseudopodium

C) Psuedoelaters

D) columella

11. When moss spores germinate they form

A) Leafy gametophyte directly

B) Capsule directly

C) Protonema, then a leafy gametophyte

D) Protonema which bears archegonia and antheridia

12. In mosses, primary protonema is

A) Haploid and gametophytic
B) Diploid and sporophytic

C) Haploid and sporophytic
D) Diploid and gametophytic

13. Guide cells are the characteristic feature of:

A) Mollecutes

B) Mosses

C) Gymnosperms

D) Angiosperms

14. Which of the following occurs in the sporangia of mosses?

A) Spores germinate into protonemata

B) Sperm cells are produced in rows just beneath the surface of the antheridiophore

C) Sporocytes undergo meiosis to produce spores

D) The zygote develops into a multicellular embryo

15. Buxbaumia aphylla is a classical example of

A) fossil bryophyte

B) symbiotic bryophyte

C) saprophytic bryophyte

D) parasitic bryophyte

Learn more: Quiz on Bryophytes

Answers:

1. B) Sphagnum

2. A) spore formation

3. C) Sphagnales

4. C) Archidium

5. B) Andreaea

6. B) Members of Andreaeales

7. A) Members of Bryales

8. B) four toothed moss

9. D) Polytrichum

10. B) Pseudopodium

11. C) Protonema, then a leafy gametophyte

12. A) Haploid and gametophytic

13. B) Mosses

14. C) Sporocytes undergo meiosis to produce spores

15.C) saprophytic bryophyte

MCQ on Riccia and Marchantia | Bryophytes MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 28 Feb 2022 15:41:00 +0000

1. The simplest known sporophyte among the Bryophyte is seen in

A) Riccia

B) Funaria
C) Marchantia

D)Anthoceros

2. In Marchantia the chloroplast is
A) cup-shaped

B) disc-shaped
C) star-shaped

D) ribbon-shaped

3. In Marchantia the archegonia are situated
A) on the disc

B) below the disc
C) on the sides of the disc

D)in the middle of the disc

4. The nurse cells are present in the sporogonium of
A) Riccia

B) Porella
C) Marchantia

D)Anthoceros

5. The true elaters are found in sporophytes of
A) Riccia

B) Funaria
C) Marchantia

D)Anthoceros

6. A mature archegonium of Riccia is ---shaped

A) cup-shaped

B) flask-shaped
C) barrel-shaped

D) ribbon-shaped

7. A sporophyte of Marchantia is enveloped by

A) one protective sheath

B) two protective sheaths
C) three protective sheaths

D)four protective sheaths

8. Columella is absent in

A) Funaria

B) Anthoceros
C) Riccia

D) All of these

9. Spores are liberated from the sporogonium only by the decay of gametophytes in

A) Funaria

B) Anthoceros
C) Marchantia

D) Riccia

10. A dioecious gametophyte is seen in the case of
A) Funaria

B) Riccia
C) Antoceros

D)Marchantia

11. Which of the following statements about Marchantia sporophytes is true?

A) The capsule is attached directly to the foot without the development of a seta.

B) An operculum forms on the apex of the mature capsule

C) The sporophyte hangs down from the underside of the archegonium.

D) None of the above

12. Air pores of Marchantia are ---shaped
A) cup-shaped

B) flask-shaped
C) barrel-shaped

D) ribbon-shaped

13. Which of these is a recently reported bryophyte from Western ghats?

A) Cololejeunea manilalia

B) Marchantia polymorpha

C) Riccia nilagirica

D) Riccia sahyadrica

14. Which of the following species of Riccia is aquatic?

A) Riccia discolor

B) Riccia fluitans

C) Riccia gangetica

D) Riccia crystallina

15. Gemma cup is found in

A) Funaria

B) Anthoceros
C) Marchantia

D) Riccia

Learn more: Quiz on Bryophytes

1. A) Riccia

2. B) disc-shaped

3. C) on the sides of the disc

4. A) Riccia

5. C) Marchantia

6. B) flask-shaped

7. A) one protective sheath

8. C) Riccia

9.D) Riccia

10. D)Marchantia

11. C) The sporophyte hangs down from the underside of the archegonium.

12. C) barrel-shaped

13. D) Riccia sahyadrica

14. B) Riccia fluitans

15.C) Marchantia

MCQ on Funaria and Anthoceros | Bryophytes MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sun, 27 Feb 2022 18:05:00 +0000

1. Protonema in the life cycle of Funaria is
A) Diploid

B) Haploid
C) Dihaploid

D) Merodiploid

2. Pseudo-elaters are present in:
A) Anthoceros

B) Andreaea

C) Funaria

D) Riccia

3. The spore dispersal mechanism of Funaria?

A) Pseudo elaters

B) elaters
C) Peristomial teeth

D) No special mechanism

4. The presence of pyrenoid in the middle of the chloroplast in a bryophyte, a unique feature, makes it apparently resemble with algae is seen in

A) Funaria

B) Riccia

C) Anthoceros

D) Porella

5. Spore dispersal in moss is made possible by
A) Columella

B) Operculum

C) Peristome teeth

D) None of these

6. In Anthoceros the sporogenous tissue is derived from

A) amphithecium tissue

B) endothecium tissue

C) gametophytic tissue

D) columella tissue

7. Which of the following can produce an embryo during sexual reproduction?
A) Cyathus

B) Funaria
C) Cladophora

D) Peziza

8. The sporophyte contains pseudoelators in

A) Riccia

B) Marchantia

C) Anthoceros

D) Funaria

9. The conducting tissues do not consist Xylem and Phloem tissues in

A) Pinus

B) Cycas

C) Brassica

D) Funaria

10. In the Funaria capsule, the peristome consist of

A) 16 teeth

B) 32 teeth

C) 64 teeth

D) 128 teeth

11. Protonema is found in

A) Riccia

B) Anthoceros

C) Marchantia

D) Funaria

12. Cyanobacteria form a variety of associations with bryophytes ranging from the almost accidental to close symbioses. Name the bryophyte that possesses this property

A) Marchantia

B) Anthoceros

C) Porella

D) Polytrichum

Learn more: Quiz on Bryophytes

Answers:

1.B) Haploid

2. A) Anthoceros

3. C) Peristomial teeth

4. C) Anthoceros

5.C) Peristome teeth

6. B) endothecium tissue

7. B) Funaria

8.C) Anthoceros

9. D) Funaria

10.B) 32 teeth

11.D) Funaria

12.B) Anthoceros

MCQ on Bacteria cell wall, Reproduction and Economic Importance | Microbiology MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 25 Feb 2022 14:42:00 +0000

1. Which of the following is not a domain in the three-domain classification?

A) Eukarya

B) Bacteria

C) Cyanobacteria

D) Archaea

2. Teichoic acids are polysaccharides of glycerol phosphate typically found in

A) Cell walls of gram-positive bacteria

B) Cell walls of gram-negative bacteria

C) Cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria

D) Cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria

3. Deinococcus radiodurans an extremophilic bacterium is able to survive even exposure to massive radiation?

A) Because it that a thick shell which acts as a shield from the radiation

B) Because it has unique repair mechanisms

C) Because its cell wall contains radioactive neutralizing elements

D) Because it has many copies of genes encoding DNA repair

4. What type of replication requires possesses a break in the nucleotide strand to get started

A) Theta replication

B) Rolling cycle replication

C) Linear eukaryotic replication

D) All of these

5. Bacterial cells that lack chromosomes are called

A) Microcells
B) Minicells

C) Maxicells
D) Midicells

6. Which bacteria cause food poisoning

A) Escherichia

B) Penicillium

C) Salmonella

D) Candida

7. Antimicrobial proteins that inhibit the synthesis of outer membrane proteins of gram-negative bacteria

A) Dystrophin

B) Attacins

C) Phytoanticipins

D) Fungistatic

8. Which of the following is not a method of genetic recombination in bacteria?

A) Translocation

B) Transformation

C) Conjugation

D) Transduction

9. The distance between bacterial genes, as determined from interrupted conjugation experiments are measured in units of

A) Recombination

B) Micrometer

C) Minutes

D) Percentage of genophgore

10. Which process of DNA transfer in bacteria require a virus

A) Conjugation

B) Transduction

C) Transformation

D) All of these

11. What components of the bacterial cell wall are attacked by Penicillin?

A) Peptidoglycan

B) Teichoic acid

C) Teichuronic acid

D) Lipopolysaccharide

12. Bacterial cell divides once in every minute. It takes I hour to fill a Petri plate. How much time is taken to fill half of the plate?

A) 59 minutes

B) 49 minutes

C) 30 minutes

D) 29 minutes

Learn more: Quiz on Bacteriophage

Answers

1. C) Cyanobacteria

2. A) Cell walls of gram-positive bacteria (Gram Positive and Gram Negative Bacteria Video)

3. D) Because it has many copies of genes encoding DNA repair

4. B) Rolling cycle replication

5. B) Minicells

6. C) Salmonella

7. B) Attacins

8. A) Translocation

9. C) Minutes

10. B) Transduction

11. A) Peptidoglycan

12.A) 59 minutes

Multiple Choice Questions on Plant Breeding

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 25 Feb 2022 11:46:00 +0000

1. The first artificial plant hybrid was made by

A) Thomas Fairchild

B) De Vries

C) Borlaug

D) M.S.Swaminathan

2. The first man-made cereal ‘Triticale’ has been developed from a cross between

A) Wheat and Oat

B) Wheat and Maize

C) Maize and Rice

D) Wheat and Rye

3. The common bread wheat is called

A) Triticum aestivum

B) Triticum turgidum

C) Triticum monococcum

D) None of these

4. A ‘trisomic’ individual has

A) An extra chromosome

B) One less chromosome

C) Two extra chromosomes

D) One pair of an extra chromosome

5. The common bread wheat is

A) Allotetraploid

B) Allohexaploid

C) Auto tetraploid

D) Diploid

6. Norman Borlaug, the Father of the Green Revolution, revolutionized agriculture by developing new varieties of

A) Wheat B) Rice C) Maize D) Corn

7. The primary Centre of origin of rice is

A) Asia minor centre

B) Central Asia centre

C) Hindustan centre

D) Mediterranean centre

8. If the male plant is diploid and the female plant is tetraploid, the endosperm will be

A) Haploid

B) Pentaploid

C) Triploid

D) Tetraploid

9. In a hexaploid plant 2n=42. The base chromosome number x =

A) 21

B) 7

C) 14

D) 12

10. Colchicine induces polyploidy by

A) Inhibiting cell division

B) Promoting cell division

C) Inhibiting spindle formation

D) Doubling the Chromosome size

11. The quickest method of plant breeding is

a) introduction

b) Selection

c) Hybridisation

d) Mutation Breeding

12. Which one of the following carries dwarf genes with high protein and lysine percentage in wheat.

A) Lerma safed

B) Kalyan

C) Sharbati sonara

D) Sonalika

13. The Hybrid variety cotton was obtained by crossing two different strains of Gossypium hirsutum is

A) Godhavari

B) Varalaxmi

C) Savitri

D) Jayalaxmi

14. BSI is located at

A) Lucknow

B) Mysore

C) Kolkatta

D) Kerala

15. Triticum aestivum is a polyploidy with genomes from

A) Triticum monococum & Aegilopss peltoedus

B) Aegilopss peltoedus & Aegilopsiss quarrosa

C) Aegilopsis squarrosa & Triticum monococum

D) Triticummonococum , Aegilopss peltoedus & Aegilopsiss quarrosa

Learn more: Quiz on Plant Breeding

Answers

1.A) Thomas Fairchild

2. D) Wheat and Rye

3.A) Triticum aestivum

4. A) An extra chromosome

5. B) Allohexaploid

6. A) Wheat

7. C) Hindustan centre

8. B) Pentaploid

9. B) 7

10. C) Inhibiting spindle formation

11. d) Mutation Breeding

12. C) Sharbati sonara

13.A) Godhavari

14.C) Kolkatta

15.D) Triticummonococum , Aegilopss peltoedus & Aegilopsiss quarrosa

MCQ on Biostatistics | Measures of Central Tendency and Measures of Dispersion

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 24 Feb 2022 17:20:00 +0000

1. Who among the following is known as the father of biostatistics

A) Francis Galton

B) Adolphe Queste

C) Neyman

D) William Gosset

2. Mode can be located graphically with the help of

A) Line diagram

B) Bar diagram

C) Histogram

D) Pie diagram

3. Which one is used for comparison between two or more variables

A) Pie chart

B) Bar diagram

C) Line diagram

D) All of these

4. The standard deviation of the data is 6. When each observation is increased by 1, the standard deviation of the new data is

A) 6

B) 8

C) 5

D) 7

5. Student’s t-test was developed

A) As an easy statistical test for students

B) By the students of Oxford University

C) By W.S.Gosset

D) By R.A.Fisher

6. In a frequency distribution, if the mean is less than the mode, and the median is greater than the mean but less than the mode, the distribution is considered to be:

A) Negatively skewed

B) Positively skewed

C) Symmetrical

D) Open-ended

7. Chi-Square (X2) test is used to

A) Measure the degree of deviation of the experimental result from the expected result

B) To test the closeness of observed and expected frequency

C) To test the population variance and sample variance

D) All of the above

8. Percentage frequency distribution is represented by

A) Frequency polygon

B) Ogive representation

C) Pie diagram

D) Frequency table

9. The coefficient of variation is

10. The average fleece weight in a large band of sheep together with its standard deviation was calculated to be 10.3±1.5lb. The statistics for fleece grade was 5.1± 0.7. Which trait is relatively more variable?

A) Fleece weight

B) Fleece grade

C) Both traits

D) None of the traits

Learn more: Quiz on Biostatistics

Answers:

1. A) Francis Galton

2. C) Histogram

3. B) Bar diagram

4. A) 6

5. C) By W.S.Gosset

6. A) Negatively skewed

7. D) All of the above

8. C) Pie diagram

9. A

10. A) Fleece weight

MCQ on Economic Importance of Algae | Plant Science MCQ

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 19 Feb 2022 07:58:00 +0000

1. Which alga is known as sea lettuce?

A) Fucus

B) Caulerpa

C) Ulva

D) Padina

2.Reserve food in Phaeophyceae

A) Volutine

B) Laminarin

C) Starch

D) Floridian starch

3.Harmful Algal bloom’ is the result of accumulation of species of

A) Lemna

B) Pistia

C) Alexandrium

D) Volvox

4. Mannitol is the reserve food material in-------.

A) Brown algae

B) Red algae

C) Green algae

D) Blue-green algae

5. Chlorella will fulfill the need of all vitamins except

A) Ascorbic acid

B) Biotin

C) Plamitic acid

D) Pathonic acid

6. Laminarin is the reserve food material of

A) Chlorophyta

B) Rhodophyta

C) Phaeophyta

D) Cyanophyta

7. An algae that are commonly used for the production of single-cell protein is

A)Arthrospira

B) Spirogyra

C) Nostoc

D) Anabaena

8. Agar-Agar is obtained from

A) Gelidium

B) Polysiphonia

C) Fucus

C) Laminaria

9. Iodine is obtained from

A) Ulothrix

B) Ectocarpus

C) Laminaria

D) Oedogonium

10. Compare the algae/algal product with the most appropriate economic importance associated with it.

p) Coralline algae l. Ice cream/Salad cream

q) Cyanophycean members m. Cosmetics

r) Carragenin n. binding agent on the surface of soil

s) Algin o. liming the soil

A) p-n, q-l, r-m, s-o

B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l

C) p-m, q-n, r-l, s-o

D) p-o, q-n, r-m, s-l

Learn more:Quiz on Algae

Answers:

1. C) Ulva

2. B) Laminarin

3.C) Alexandrium

4. A) Brown algae

5. A) Ascorbic acid

6. C) Phaeophyta

7. A)Arthrospira

8. A) Gelidium

9.C) Laminaria

10. D) p-o, q-n, r-m, s-l

Multiple Choice Questions on Economic Botany - Botanical Name

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 17 Feb 2022 14:43:00 +0000

1. Jute is

A) Corchorus capsularis B) Crotalaria juncea C) Ceiba pentadra D) Calamus rotundus

2. Rose wood belongs to the family

A) Leguminosae B) Verbenaceae C) Liliaceae D) Cruciferae

3. Which one of the following trees yield gum

A) Pinus B) Acacia C) Eucalyptus D) Phyllanthus

4. ‘Senna’ is obtained from the plant

A) Cassia fistula

B) Cassia alata

C) Cassia angustifolia

D) Cassia tora

5. Botanical name of finger millet is

A) Poinsettum americanum
B) Paspalum scorbiculatum

C) Setaria italica
D) Eleucine coracana

6. Which one of the following is the botanical name of oil palm?

A) Olea europea
B) Carthamus tinctorius

C) Elaeis guineensis
D) Cocos nucifera

7.Which of these plants yield an anticancer drug ?

A)Thuja plicata

B)Podocarpus wallichianus

C)Taxus brevifolia

D)Juniperus bermudiana

8. The botanical name for ‘All spice’ is

A) Pimenta dioica
B) Amaranthus cruentus

C) Aloe vera
D) Brassica campestris

9. Vincristine and vinblastine are

A) Phenolics
B) Terpenoids

C) Alkaloids
D) Saponins

10. The rubber obtained from Manihot glaziovii is called

A) Para rubber
B) Panama rubber

C) Ceara rubber
D) India rubber

Learn more

Answers:

1. A) Corchorus capsularis

2. A) Leguminosae

3. B) Acacia

4. C) Cassia angustifolia

5. D) Eleucine coracana

6. C) Elaeis guineensis

7. C)Taxus brevifolia

8. A) Pimenta dioica

9. C) Alkaloids

10. C) Ceara rubber

Multiple Choice Questions on Plant Taxonomy | Plant Family Characteristics

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 16 Feb 2022 16:49:00 +0000

1. Match the following:

List 1 List 2

a) Verticellaster 1. Solanum nigrum

b) Hypanthodium 2. Leucas aspera

c) Coenanthium 3. Dorstenia

d) Rhipidium 4. Ficus

A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d -4

B) a-1, b-2, c -4, d -3

C) a -2, b-4, c -3, d-1

D) a-2, b -3, c -1, d -4

2. Obdiplostemonous stamen is the characteristic feature of the family:

A) Caesalpineaceae

B) Rutaceae

C) Anacardiaceae

D) Apocynaceae

3. Which among the following is an Eponym ?

A) Oryza malampuzhensis

B) Rotala vasudevanii

C) Alternanthera sessilis

D) Narcissus pseudonarcissus

4. Which among the following trait can be considered as a synapomorphy for eudicots ?

A)Two Cotyledons

B)Tricolpate Pollen

C)Reticulate Venation

D)Vascular Bundles arranged in a ring

5. Which of these plants NOT belonging to the family Amaranthaceae (APG) ?

A)Achyranthes

B)Brachylepis

C)Gomphrena

D)Cerastium

6. In the families listed below 2 are closely related by phylogenetic terms.

I. Caryophyllaceae

II. Malvaceae

III. Capparidaceae

IV. Amaranthaceae

Which are they ?

A)II and III

B)III and IV

C)IV and I

D)I and III

7. Which is NOT an accepted Acronym ?

A)K

B)MH

C)TBGT

D)MOU

8. Match the following:

List 1 List 2

a) Cinnamomum verum 1. Simaroubaceae

b) Wateria indica 2. Lythraceae

c) Ailanthus altissima 3. Lauraceae

d) Lawsonia inermis 4. Dipterocarpaceae

A) a-3, b -4, c -1, d -2

B) a -2, b -4, c-1, d-3

C) a-4, b -3, c-1, d-2

D) a -1, b -2, c -3, d-4

9. Inflorescences are distinguished by branching. Identify the characteristic inflorescence in Solanum species:

A) Amentum B) Drepanium C) Bostryx D) Rhipidium

10. Identify the family that shows the characters such as fleshy leaves, hairy or scarious stipulate, unilocular ovary with 2 to many campylotropous ovules on a basal central placenta with 2-5 styled condition

A) Brassicaceae

B) Portulaceaceae
C) Amaranthaceae
D) Polygalaceae

Learn more:

Answers:

1. C) a -2, b-4, c -3, d-1

2. B) Rutaceae

3. B)Rotala vasudevanii

4. B)Tricolpate Pollen

5. D)Cerastium

6. C)IV and I

7. D)MOU

8. A) a-3, b -4, c -1, d -2

9. D) Rhipidium

10. B) Portulaceaceae

MCQ on Biochemistry

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 15 Feb 2022 07:52:00 +0000

1. Sugars that differ only by the stereochemistry at a single carbon (other than the anomeric carbon) are called:

A) Enantiomers

B) Anomers

C) Isomers

D) Epimers

2. Absorption of UV light at 280 nm by purified proteins is due to the amino acids:

A) Methionine and Valine

B) Tryptophan and Tyrosine

C) Histidine and Cysteine

D) Glycine and Lysine

3.Which of the following is NOT a chaperone?

A) Calnexin

B) Hsp70

C) Cadherin

D) Calreticulin

4. The type of isomerism shown by Fumaric acid and Maleic acid are

A) Geometrical isomerism with maleic acid (trans-form) and Fumaric acid (cis-form)

B) Geometrical isomerism with maleic acid (cis form) and Fumaric acid (trans-form)

C) Optical isomerism with maleic acid (L-form) and Fumaric acid (D-form)

D) Optical isomerism with maleic acid (D-form) and Fumaric acid (L-form)

5. The protein structure involving the interaction, orientation and organization of two or more polypeptide chains to form a functional proteins

A)Primary structure

B)Secondary structure

C)Tertiary structure

D)Quaternary structure

6. A solution of pH 4 has been diluted by adding 40 ml of double distilled water to 10 ml of the solution. What will be the pH of the diluted solution?

A)4.5

B) 5.0

C) 3.5

D) 4.0

7.An amino acid with a non polar side chain is

A) Asparagine

B) Alanine

C) Glutamine

D)Serine

8.Which among the following is NOT a fibrillar protein ?

A) Elastin

B) Collagen

C) Myosin

D) Albumin

9. Question45:-The Nobel Prize 2020 winners for Chemistry

A) Louise Gluck, Roger Penrose

B) Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson

C) Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna

D) Reinhard Genzel and Andrea Ghez

10. Which of these enzymes can be found associated with pyrenoids ?

I. Alpha Amylase

II. Rubisco

III. PEP

IV. Citric acid synthase

A) I

B) II

C) I and II

D) All of these

Learn more: Topic wise Biochemistry Questions

Answers:

1. D) Epimers

2. B) Tryptophan and Tyrosine

3. C) Cadherin

4. A) Geometrical isomerism with maleic acid (trans-form) and Fumaric acid (cis-form)

5. D)Quaternary structure

6. A)4.5

7. B) Alanine

8. D) Albumin

9. C) Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna

10. B) II

MCQ on Genetics - Exam Questions

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 15 Feb 2022 06:43:00 +0000

1. Smallest genome size is seen in

a) E.coli b) Helicobacter pylori c) Carsonella ruddii d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

2. Which human chromosome has the highest number of genes?

a) X chromosome b) Chromosome 1 c) Y chromosome d) Chromosome 8

3.The haploid chromosome number of Rice is

a)10 b)11 c)12 d)13

4. Covid 19 genome is

a) Single stranded RNA

b) Double stranded RNA

c) Single stranded DNA

d) Double stranded DNA

5. Mendel, after his experiments with the garden pea, continued his experiments with:

a) Drosophila and Neurospora

b) Honey bee and Neurospora

c) Heiracium and honey bee

d) Drosophila and honey bee

6. Albinism is a congenital human disorder resulting from the lack of the enzyme

a) Catalase

b) Fructokinase

c) Tyrosinase

d) Xanthine oxidase

7. The starting t-RNA of prokaryotes is loaded with

a) Valine

b) Methionine

c) Formylated Methionine

d) Tryptophan

8. Gene-battery model" of gene regulation in eukaryotes is proposed by

a) Jacob and Monod

b) Britten and Davidson

c) Beadle and Tatum

d) Kornberg and Ochoa

9. The enzyme that removes the RNA-primer after DNA replication is

a) DNA polymerase-I

b) DNA polymerase-II

c) Ligase

d) Gyrase

10. DNA replication occurs in

a)𝐺1 phase

b)𝐺2 phase

c)S-phase

d) Interphase

11. A nucleosome is made of

a) DNA

b) Histone

c) Histone wrapped over octameric core of nucleic acid

d) DNA wrapped over octameric core of histone

12. Degeneration of genetic code is attributed to the

a) First member of codon

b) Second member of codon

c) Entire codon

d)Third member of codon

13. In split genes, the coding sequences are called

a)Introns

b)Operons

c)Exons

d)Cistrons

14)Genes which confer antibiotic resistance on bacteria are located on

a)Chromosomal DNA

b)Plasmid

c)RNA

d)Polysome

15. Suggest the number of phenotypes possible in a test cross of AABBCcDD if there is complete dominance

a) Four

b) Six

c) Two

d) Eight

16. Phenotypic and genotypic F2 ratio remains the same in:

a) Intermediate dominance

b) Co dominance

c) Overdominance

d) Dominant epistasis

17.Which among the following is a codominant marker?

a) RAPD

b) AFLP

c) STMS

d) AP PCR

18. In Snapdragon the Red flower colour is incompletely dominant over White with the heterozygous producing Pink flowers. Tall plant is completely dominant over Dwarf. If a cross between two shapdrageons produced Tall Red, Tall Pink, Dwarf Red and Dwarf Pink in the ration 3:3:1:1, predict the genotypes of the parents.

a) TtRR X TtRr

b) TTRr X TtRr

c) Ttrr X TtRr

d) TTrr X TtRr

19. Genomic imprinting is

a) Expression of genes depend on its paternal or maternal inheritance

b) Expression of genes linked with X chromosomes

c) Expression of genes linked with Y chromosomes

d) Expression of extrachromosomal genes

20. Genes with intervening sequences

a) Introns

b) Split genes

c) Exons

d) Pseudo genes

Learn more: Topic wise MCQ on Genetics

Answers:

1. c) Carsonella ruddii

2. b) Chromosome 1

3. c)12

4. a) Single stranded RNA

5. c) Heiracium and honey bee

6. c) Tyrosinase

7. c) Formylated Methionine

8. b) Britten and Davidson

9. a) DNA polymerase-I

10. c)S-phase

11. d) DNA wrapped over octameric core of histone

12.d)Third member of codon

13. c)Exons

14.b)Plasmid

15. c) Two

16. a) Intermediate dominance

17.c) STMS

18. a) TtRR X TtRr

19. a) Expression of genes depend on its paternal or maternal inheritance

20. b) Split genes