Mystique Blogger

Learn very smallest program in C Programming !

2021-08-13T12:08:00.000+05:30

Blog | Technology | #C

Hey Coder, Programmer

If you are interested in Programming languages like C, C++, Python, Kotlin, Java etc..

Then you definitely know about this simplest small program which is used as a basic one in C programming.

First you should know about why we learnt programming.

Smallest C Program :

Int main()

{

Printf(“Welcome to my blog”);

}

Now I explain the small program. According to C Programming there is only one main is there.

Learn very smallest program in C Programming !

For example you may know very well about shopping mall. The Shopping mall consist of 1 Entry way and 1 Exit way likewise,

Every C program must have only one main either it is a small program or big program. If you are beginner in C programming then you must aware about this

Second most important thing is SEMICOLON. The semicolon will terminate the line statement.

Lets take a clear overview of programm

· Only 1 Main

· Terminate with Semicolon

· Standard input output ( STDIO.H)

· # Preprocessor

The another major thing in programming is stdio.h The stdio.h is nothing but a standard input and output it must include in the first line of the program.

After that only initiate with main statement.

The important parameters which is used in C programming are # ( hashtag)

It is called as pre-processor statement. It is used to get the standard input and output. It is pre defined some values or data to the program

Is it healthy to put the rest of your life on hold while healing trauma ?

2021-08-07T10:32:00.001+05:30

Is it healthy to put the rest of your life on hold while healing trauma ?

Blog | Relationship | healing |

Hey Broken heart ,

If you are feeling alone ? you are cheated by someone ? aren’t you move on ? Then you are at the right place to get mind fresh. | healing trauma | healthy life

Is it healthy to put the rest of your life on hold while healing trauma ?

First know one thing “Change alone is permanent” see nothing is permanent , everything is temporary and replaceable .

The only irreplaceable things is “YOU, YOURSELF, YOUR SOUL , AND YOU ARE”. So don’t feel for the person who lost you. You are Gem .

If you are in a relationship, you thought your girl is the most prettiest girl in the world likewise after that you are cheated by your girl then you feel she is the most terrible person in the world, that’s it everything is temporary.

Relationship is cool until your partner cheat you

Once a wise man said “The Hottest love has the coldest End” famous words by Socrates .

How you rise after fall is defined you and it is the fucking comeback which you have given to the ones who cheat you.

What is healing trauma ?

Healing is word which best describes the hurt or wound will get rejuvenation is called healing. One who heals and do healing process known as healer.

Likewise Healing trauma is nothing but a recovery stage of move on. For example , if you want move on from something or someone it may take some time to complete forget the hurt , that stage is called healing trauma, move on etc.

How to lead a healthy life ?

Mental Health is more important than physical health Because, Mental health is directly proportional to Physical health.

You glow different when you care about nothing. Always keep your mind cool and stay fresh. Mental health is defined by mental stress caused by headache, overthing etc. likewise, Physical stress is caused by body pressure, body pain, work load, irregular routine etc.

For girls Menstruation and irregular periods also causes mental stress and majorly affects physical health. To avoid irregular periods some of the common tips mentioned below :

· Eat well

· Avoid junkfoods

· Stay hydrated

· Drink 2.5 litres per day | approximately

· Sleep well

· Gently apply oil to the scalp regularly

· Intake proteins

· Increase immunity power

· Eat Darkchocolates

Is it healthy to put the rest of your life on hold while healing trauma ?

Before we get conclusion about the topic I really want to tell you few things about life. No one knows about when we die , when our life ends.

Life is very short, so always be happy. Life and time never won’t wait for anyone. You only live once. Whatever may happens remember that life has to move on. So always “love what you do” .

My opinion about is it healthy to put the rest of your life on hold while healing trauma is definitely wrong like as of I mentioned above the words are cent percent true and it reflects the reality.

We are all done a major mistake is overcare and get hurt and overfeel and struggle to move on. Being alone is better than surrounded by fake peoples.

Be like solitude king. The solituder is the one who spends time alone, and love to live lonely . This is the very condition of existence.

To become spring, means accepting the risk of winter. Like that To become presence, means accepting the risk of absence. You keep a lot to yourself because its difficult to find people/person who understand

Thanks for Reading !

MA 8151 Engineering Mathematics - I Mcq

2021-06-23T10:41:00.001+05:30

Common to all branches

B.E., Mechanical, Civil, ECE, EEE, CSE, IT, Aeronautical, Petroleum etc

UNIT I DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS

[ANS ARE HIGHLIGHTED]

1.Find domain and range of the function f(x) = √9-x^2

a) 0 ≤ x ≤ 3 ;0 ≤ y ≤ 3

b) -3 ≤ y ≤ 3 ;0 ≤ x ≤ 3

c) -3 ≤ x ≤ 3 ;-3 ≤ y ≤ 3

d) -3 ≤ x ≤ 3 ;0 ≤ y ≤ 3

2.Test the function f(x) = 3x^2+2x-1 is continuous at------------------.

a) x = 0 b) x =1 c) x= 2 d) x = 3

3.Find the critical point of f(x) = x^3+x^2-x

a) x = -1 , 1/3

b) x = -1 , -1/3

c) x = -1 , 1/2

d) x = 1 , 1/3

4.Find the critical value of f(x) = 3x^4-16x^3+18x^2

a) x = 0,1,2

b) x = 0,-1,2

c) x = 0,1,4

d) x = 0,1,3

5.What is the degree of the differential equation 4x^3-6x^2y^3+2y=0 ?

a) 3 b) 5 c) 1 d) 8

6.What is the order of the differential equation, y”+y’-x3y=sinx?

a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) 3

7.Which of the following correctly defines ordinary differential equations?

a) A differential equation in which a dependent variable (say ‘y’) depends on only one

independent variable (say ’x’)

b) A differential equation in which an independent variable (say ‘y’) depends on only one

dependent variable (say ’x’)

c) A differential equation in which a dependent variable (say ‘y’) depends on one or more

independent variables (say ’x’, ’t’ etc.)

d) A differential equation in which an independent variable (say ‘y’) depends on one or more

dependent variables (say ’x’, ’t’ etc.)

8.How many real solution to this function x^3+3x+1 = 0

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

9.Find the slope of the tangent line to the parabola y = 4x-x^2 at (1,3)

a) 3x^2+1 b) 3x^2-3 c) x^2-1 d) 3x^2-1

10.Find the equation of the tangent line to the parabola y = x^2-8x+9 at the point (3,-6)

a) y = 2x b) y = -2x c) y = -x d) y = x

11.Find the critical points to this function y = x^4-4x^3

a) 0,1 b) 0,2 c) 0,3 d) 0,4

UNIT II FUNCTIONS OF SEVERAL VARIABLES

12. Find the stationary values of 3x^2-y^2+x^3

a) (0,0) & (-3,0)

b) (0,0) & (-2,0)

c) (0,0) & (0,-2)

d) (-2,0)

13.Stationary point is a point where function f(x,y) have?

a) fx = 0 b) fy = 0 c) fx = 0 & fy = 0 d) none

14.Expand f(x) = 1⁄x about x = 1.

a) 1 – (x-1) + (x-1)2 – (x-1)3 + ….

b) 1 + (x-1) + (x-1)2 + (x-1)3 + ….

c) 1 + (x-1) – (x-1)2 + (x-1)3 + ….

d) 1 – (x+1) + (x+1)2 – (x+1)3 + ….

15.Find the maximum and minimum of x^2+y^2+6x+12

a) the point (-3,0) is a minimum point

b) the point (-2,0) is a minimum point

c) the point (-3,0) is a maximum point

d) the point (-2,0) is a maximum point

16.The point (0,0) in the domain of f(x, y) = sin(xy) is a point of ___________

a) saddle b) minima c) maxima d) constant

17.Find the minimum value of the function f(x, y) = x2 + y2 +199 over the real domain

a) 12 b) 13 c) 0 d) 199

18.What is the maximum value of the function f(x, y) = 3xy + 4x2y2 in the region?

x=0; y=0; 2x + y = 2

a) 1 b) 0 c) 100 d) 10

19.The jacobian of p,q,r w.r.t x,y,z given p=x+y+z, q=y+z, r=z is ________

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) -1

UNIT III INTEGRAL CALCULUS

20.Evaluate ഽe^-x dx, the upper limit of integration is infinite

a) converges to 1

b) converges to 0

c) divergent

d) none

21.Find the value of ∫x3 Sin(x)dx.

a) x3 Cos(x) + 3x2 Sin(x) + 6xCos(x) – 6Sin(x)

b) – x3 Cos(x) + 3x2 Sin(x) – 6Sin(x)

c) – x3 Cos(x) – 3x2 Sin(x) + 6xCos(x) – 6Sin(x)

d) – x3 Cos(x) + 3x2 Sin(x) + 6xCos(x) – 6Sin(x)

22.Integration of (Sin(x) + Cos(x))ex is______________

a) ex Cos(x)

b) ex Sin(x)

c) ex Tan(x)

d) ex (Sin(x)+Cos(x))

23.Find the value of ∫∫xyex + y dxdy.

a) yey (xex-ex) b) (yey-ey)(xex-ex) c) (yey-ey)xex d) (yey-ey)(xex+ex)

UNIT IV MULTIPLE INTEGRALS

24.Evaluate ഽഽxy dx dy taken over the positive quadrant of the circle x^2+y^2 = a^2

a) a4/8 sq.units

b) a4/4 sq.units

c) a2/8 sq.units

d) a2/2 sq.units

UNIT V DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS

25.Solve (D^2+2D+1)y = 0

a) y = (Ax+B)e^x

b) y = (Ax+B)e^-x

c) y = (x+B)e^-x

d) y = A cos x + B sin x

26.Solve (D^3+D^2+4D+4)y = 0

a) y = Ae^-x + (Bcosx + Csin x )

b) y = ( A cos2x + B sin 2x )

c) y = Ae^-x + (Bcos2x+Csin2x)

d) y = Ae^-x - (Bcos2x+ Csin2x)

27.Solve (D^4-2D^2+1)y = 0

a) y = (Ax+B)e^-x

b) y = (Ax+B) + (Cx+D)e^x

c) y = (Ax+B)e^-x - (Cx+D)e^x

d) y = (Ax+B)e^-x + (Cx+D)e^x

28.Find the particular integral of (D^2+2D+1)y = e^-x x^2

a) P.I = 1/4x^4e^-y

b) P.I = x^4e^-y

c) P.I = 1/24x^4e^y

d) P.I = 1/24x^4 e^-y

29.Convert into differential form of (x^2D^2-xD+4)y = x^2sin(logx)

a) (D^2 - 2D + 4 )y = e^2z

b) (D^2 + 2D + 4 )y = e^2z sinz

c) (D^2 - 2D + 4 )y = e^2zsinz

d) (D^2 - 2D + 4 )y = sin z

30.Find Wronskian from the equation ( D^2 - D)y = e^xcosx

a) W = -e^x

b) W = e^-x

c) W = e^x

d) W = 2e^x

Also read : ME 8594 Dynamics of machines mcq

ME 8595 Thermal Engineering 2 Mcq

OR 0551 Renewable energy sources mcq

ME 8593 Design of machine elements mcq

ME 8501 Metrology and measurements Mcq

ALL THE BEST ! STUDY WELL

GE 8292 Engineering Mechanics Mcq

2021-06-20T14:40:00.000+05:30

Common to Mechanical Engineering and Civil Engineering

GE 8292 Engineering Mechanics | Mcq

Multiple choise questions MCQ

( ans are highlighted )

Unit - 1

1. What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces which are perpendicular to each other? The two forces are 20 units and 30 units respectively.

a) 36 b) 42 c) 25 d) 40

2.A rope is stretched between two rigid walls 40 feet apart. At the midpoint, a load of 100 lbs was placed that caused it to sag 5 feet. Compute the approximate tension in the rope.

a) 206lbs b) 150lbs c) 280lbs d) 240lbs

3.What is the effective component applied on the box that is being pulled by a 30 N force inclined at 30 degrees with horizontal?

a) 36.21 N b) 25.98 N c) 15.32 N d) 20.62 N

4.The magnitude of the resultant of the two vectors is always__________

a) Greater than one of the vector's magnitude

b) smaller than one of the vector's magnitude

c) Depends on the angle between them

d) Axis we choose to calculate the magnitude

5.If two equal vector forces are mutually perpendicular then the resultant force is acting at which angle as compared to one of the vector?

a) 45 degree b) 90 degree c) 180 degree d) 0 degree

6.Which of the following statement is true ?

a) A scalar is any physical quantity that can be completely specified its magnitude

b) A vector is any positive or negative physical quantity that can be completely specified by its magnitude

c) A scalar is any physical quantity that requires both a magnitude and a direction for its complete description

d) A scalar is any physical quantity that can be completely specified by its direction

7.If a vector is multiplied by a scalar ?

a) Then its magnitude is increased by the square root of that scalar’s magnitude

b) Then its magnitude is increased by the square of that scalar’s magnitude

c) Then its magnitude is increased by the amount of that scalar's magnitude

d) You cannot multiply the vector with a scalar

8.All the vectors quantities obey?

a) Parallelogram law of additon

b) Parallelogram law of multiplication

c) Parallelogram law of addition of square root of their magnitudes

d) Parallelogram law of addition of square of their magnitudes

9.A force vector with magnitude R and making an angle α with the x-axis is having its component along x-axis and y-axis as?

a) Rcosine (α) and Rsine(α)

b) Rcosine (180-α) and Rsine(α)

c) Rcosine (180-α) and Rsine(180+α)

d) Rcosine (α) and Rsine(180+α)

10.If A is any vector with Ai + Bj + Ck then what is the y-axis component of the vector?

a) B units b) A units c) C units d) Square root of a sum of squares of the three, i.e. A, B and C

11.What is cosα for force vector F = Ax + By +Cz (Given α, β and γ are the angles made by the vector with x, y and z axis respectively)?

a) B/F

b) C/F

c) A/F

d) 1

12.What is the magnitude of the vector, 12i – 8j – 24k?

a) 18 b) 28 c) 38 d) 48

13.Express the vector in the Cartesian Form, if the angle made by it with y and axis is 60˚ and 45˚ respectively. Also, it makes an angle of α with the x-axis. The magnitude of the force is 200N.

a) 100i – 100j + 141.4k N

b) 100i + 100j + 141.4k N

c) 100i + 100j – 141.4k N

d) 100i – 100j – 141.4k N

14.A force vector is along 4i – 4k direction and has a magnitude 100N and another force vector is along 4i +2j -4k and has a magnitude of 120N. What is the resultant of both forces?

a) 80i + 40j – 80k N

b) 80i – 40j – 80k N

c) 151i + 40j – 80k N

d) 151i + 40j – 151k N

15.What is the magnitude of the resultant force when F1 = 60j + 80k and F2 = 50i – 100j + 100k?

a) 188 unit b) 191 unit c) 181 unit d) 120 unit

Unit - 2

16.What does the moment of the force measure?

a) The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis

b) The moment of inertia of the body about any axis

c) The couple moment produced by the single force acting on the body

d) The total work is done on the body by the force

17.The tendency of rotation of the body along any axis is also called _________

a) Moment of inertia b) Moment of couple c) Torque d) Force

18.The moment axis, force and the perpendicular distance in the moment of the force calculation is lying in____________

a) Two planes perpendicular to each other

b) A single plane in the direction of the force

c) A single plane in the direction of the perpendicular distance

d) A single line in the direction of the force

19.In the calculation of the moment of the force about the axis, the cross product table, i.e. the 3X3 matrix which is made for doing the cross product having 3 rows, contains three elements. Which are they from top to bottom?

a) axis coordinates, point coordinates, and the force coordiates

b) Point coordinates, axis coordinates, and the force coordinates

c) Axis coordinates, force coordinates, and the point coordinates

d) Force coordinates, point coordinates, and the axis coordinates

20.What if the perpendicular distance from the axis is infinity?

a) The rotation is not possible

b) The rotation is possible but the moment generated is very less

c) The force applied will be very much high for even a small rotation

d) No rotation unless the contact is being broken

21.The moment is the cross product of which two vectors?

a) Force and Radius vectors

b) Radius and Force vectors

c) Force and Radius scalars

d) Radius and Force scalars

22.The ___________ forces do not cause the rotation.

a) Non-Concurrent

b) Concurrent

c) Parallel

d) Non-Parallel

23.Which of the following is correct w.r.t the moment (M) of the force (F) acting on the body at a distance L from the axis of the rotation?

a) M=FLsinθ

b) M=FLcosθ

c) M=F.Lsinθ

d) M=FxLsinθ

24.What does Newton's third law states ?

a) The rate of change of momentum is equal to the force applied

b) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

c) The body tends to be rotated if the force is applied tangentially

d) The body is rest until a force is applied

25.The net forces of acting on the body need to be zero. This is also applicable for the simply supported beams. This means that the support reaction is also counted in making the net force zero

a) True

b) False

26.If five forces are acting on the single particle and having an angle of 72˚ between each and are collinear, then:

a) The net force acting on the body is zero

b) The net force acting on the body is horizontal

c) The net force acting on the body is vertical

d) The net force acting on the body is at an angle of 45

27.What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of stationary rigid body?

a) Statics b) Kinetics c) Kinematics d) Dynamics

28.What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together?

a) Natural force b) External force c) Internal force d) Concentrated force

29.If a 12m high tree is being pulled by the tractor, by a rope tied over the top. With the tractor at a linear distance of 12m and 4m away perpendicularly from the tree. If the force applied by the tractor is 2KN then what is the moment caused by the roots of the tree?

a) -16.5i+7.51j KNm

b) -16.5i+5.51j KNm

c) -16.5i+5.51j KNmm

d) -16.5i+7.51j KNm

30.A simply supported beam is 5 meters in length. It carries a uniformly distributed load including its own weight of 300 N/m and a concentrated load of 100 N, 2 meters from the left end. Find the reactions if reaction A is at the left end and reaction B at the right end?

a) Ra = 810 N & Rb = 700 N

b) Ra = 700 N & Rb = 800 N

c) Ra = 810 N & Rb = 780 N

d) Ra = 700 N & Rb =8 10 N

Unit - 3

31.Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height?

a) one-fourth of the total height above base

b) one-third of the total height above base

c) one-half of the total height above base

d) three-eighth of the total height above the base

32.Volume is best given by ___________

a) Product of mass and density

b) Ratio of mass to density

c) Addition of mass and density

d) Subtraction of mass and density

33.If the force vector F acting along the centre of gravity is having its x-axis component being equal to Z N, y-axis component be X N and z-axis component be Y N then vector F is best represented by?

a) Xi + Yj + Zk

b) Yi + Xj + Zk

c) Zi + Yj + Xk

d) Zi + Xj + Yk

34.The centre of gravity is the ratio of ________ to _________

a) The product of centroid and weight to the total weight

b) The addition of centroid and weight to the total weight

c) The subtraction of centroid and weight to the total weight

d) The product of centroid and weight to the total mass

35.The theorem of Pappus and Guldinus is used to find the_____

a) Surface area of the body

b) Surface area of the body of revolution

c) Surface area of the body of linear motion

d) Surface area of the body of rectangular motion

36.When the body which is applied forces come in the stage of the limiting friction then the body over which this theorem is to be applied is termed as to come in ___________ equilibrium ?

a) Unstable

b) Stable

c) Non- stable

d) Improper stable

37.Product of the Volume, ______________________ and the perpendicular distance from axis are being used in the theorem to find the volume of the revolution.

a) Area of generated curve

b) Area of generated radius

c) Area of generated length vector

d) Area of generated area vector

38.The units of moment of inertia of an area are

a) kg m2

b) m4

c) kg/m2

d) m3

39.The units of moment of inertia of mass are

a) kg m2

b) m4

c) kg/m2

d) kg/m

40.Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis through its base, is?

a) bh3/4

b) bh3/8

c) bh3/12

d) bh3/16

41.Pappus and Guldinus theorems is used to determine

a) Area

b) Volume

c) Speed

d) area and volume

42.Unit of product of inertia

a) m

b) m2

c) m3

d) m4

43.The distance used in the Pappus and Guldinus theorems is the distance travelled by ______________

a) Body

b) Body's centroid

c) Body's length vector

d) Body's radius vector

44.The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is

a) g-m2

b) kg-m4

c) m4

d) m2

45.The total of all the weights of small particles adds up to give the total body weight. This weight is the force vector which is being passed by ________

a) Axis of rotation

b) Axis of rolling

c) Centre of Gravity

d) Centre of mass

46.A ______________ body consists of a series of connected “simpler” shaped bodies

a) Composite

b) Non-composite

c) Digital

d) Binary

Unit - 4

47.What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion without reference to the force that causes the motion?

a) Statics

b) kinetics

c) kinematics

d) Dynamics

48.It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time

a) momentum

b) impulse

c) velocity

d) acceleration

49.The SI unit for angular velocity is

a) degrees per second

b) revolutions per second

c) mils per second

d) radians per second

50.The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula

a) mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

b) mass x linear velocity

c) mass moment of inertia x angular velocity

d) mass x angular velocity

51.The total momentum of a system __________, if no external impressed force acts on it.

a) increases

b) decreases

c) remains constant

d) none

52.Work done by an engine in 6 sec is 1000 joules. What is the power generated by the engine in watt?

a) 1600 watt

b) 600 watt

c) 166 watt

d) 600 watt

53.What is the minimum velocity attained by a ball thrown with velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 40o with the horizontal?

a) 15.32 m/s

b) 12.85 m/s

c) 16.78 m/s

d) none

54.The radial component of velocity for a particle moving in circular path is ______

a) constant

b) radius itself

c) variable

d) zero

55.If an elevator travels at constant velocity, the normal reaction R is given as ______

a) m (g +a)

b) m (g - a)

c) mg

d) ma

56.Force of 150 N moves a body in 5 sec along a straight line according to x = t3 - 60t. What is the mass of the moving body?

a) 17.23 kg

b) 15.23 kg

c) 15kg

d) 5kg

57.What is the distance traveled by an electron in first 4 seconds from its initial position, if velocity time relation is given as v = 3t?

a) 12m

b) 15m

c) 20m

d) 24m

58.What is the path equation for a particle having x = 6t and y = 4t2 ?

a) x2 = 6y

b) x2 = 9y

c) y2 = 8x

d) y = 9x

59.Two cars X and Y move on adjacent roads in opposite directions. If velocity of car X and Y is 80 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively, then what will be the relative velocity of car X w.r.t. Y?

a) 70 km/hr

b) 100 km.hr

c) 140 km/hr

d) 150 km/hr

60.What is the initial velocity of an object which travels a distance of 10t2 +15t + 5 along a straight line in time t?

a) -10

b) +10

c) -15

d) +15

61.Which of the following laws derive impulse moment principle?

a) Newton's 3rd law

b) Newton's 2nd law

c) Newton's 1st law

d) all

62.A ball is dropped on a horizontal surface from a height of 15 m. What will be the rebounding height of the ball after striking the surface? (coefficient of restitution = 0.8)

a) 9.6 m

b) 6.5 m

c) 5.6 m

d) Insufficient data

63.According to work energy principle, a particle of mass m when subjected to unbalanced force system, the work done during displacement by all forces is equal to change in ____________ during displacement

a) gravitational energy

b) kinetic energy

c) mechanical energy

d) potential energy

64.Which of the following is represented by the area under force-displacement diagram?

a) Impulse b) momentum c) power d) workdone

65.A ball dropped from a wall of height h travels a distance of 50 m in last two seconds before landing. What is the height of the wall from which the ball was dropped?

a) 120.15m b) 127.37m c) 183.48m d) 200m

66.What is the average resistance required to stop a truck of mass 600 kg in a distance of 30 m, if initial speed is 30 m/sec?

a) 8000 N b) 9 kn c) 9.5 kn d) 9 N

67.A block is displaced by 3 m when a force of 200 N is applied on it on an inclined surface which is at an angle of 50o with the horizontal. What is the work done?

a) 385.67 Nm b) 459.62 Nm c) 933.00 Nm d) Insufficient data

Unit - 5

68.A block sliding down an inclined plane has acceleration _________ the acceleration due to gravity

a) Less than b) greater than c) same as d) none

69.Theory of friction is explained over a block of weight W. Which of the following is the property of the surface on which block is present?

a) Non-rigid b) coloured red c) Having density in negative d) the motion of that block is always horizontal

70.The free body diagram used to explain the theory of dry friction is having ___________ distribution of both the normal forces and frictional surface

a) Uneven b) Even c) Uniform d) Equal

71.There are mainly two types of forces which are being stated in the free body diagram, and they are generally the resultant of various forces which are being acted over the body. Which are they?

a) Normal and Frictional

b) Normal and Vertical

c) Vertical and Frictional

d) Normal and Frictional

72.The normal force exerted by the surface of the wedge is normal to the surface of the ________

a) Base of the wedge

b) Base of the body residing over it

c) Base of the body just neighbour to the wedge

d) Earth's surface

73.What is B in the equation T2 = T1eμB ?

a) Angle of the belt to surface contact in radians

b) Angle of the belt to surface contact in degrees

c) Angle of the belt in radians

d) Angle of the belt in degrees

74.Which formula is used to calculate angle of static friction (Φs)

a) tan-1 μs

b) sin-1 μs

c) cos-1 μs

d) none

75.Which motion has magnitude of static frictional force directly proportional to normal reaction?

a) Actual motion

b) Impending motion

c) both a and b

d) none

76.The ratio of static friction to dynamic friction is always

a) equal to one b) less than one c) greater than one d) none

77.Coulomb friction is the friction between

a) Bodies having relative motion

b) Two dry surfaces

c) Two lubricated surfaces

d) Solids and liquids

78.Coefficient of friction depends upon

a) Area of contact only

b) Nature of surfaces only

c) both a and b

d) none

79.Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called

a) Limiting friction b) kinematic friction c) frictional resistance d) Dynamic friction

80.Static friction is always __________ dynamic friction.

a) equal to b) less than c) greater than d) none

81.A ladder is resting on a rough ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall. The force of friction will act

a) Downward at its upper end

b) Upward at its upper end

c) Zero at its upper end

d) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end

82.On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction will be

a) Downward at its upper end

b) Upward at its upper end

c) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end

d) Zero at its upper end

83.A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall. The force of friction will act

a) Towards the wall at its upper end

b) Away from the wall at its upper end

c) Downward at its upper end

d) Upward at its upper end

84.The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another surface is called

a) Limiting friction

b) Sliding friction

c) Rolling friction

d) Kinematic friction

85.The skidding away of the vehicle on a level circular path can be avoided if the force of friction between the wheels and the ground is __________ the centrifugal force.

a) Less than b) Greater than c) equal to d) none

Also read : ME 8594 Dynamics of machines Mcq

ME 8595 Thermal Engineering 2 Mcq

OR 0551 Renewable Energy sources Mcq

ME 8593 Design of machine elements Mcq

ME 8501 Metrology and Measurements Mcq

Important Tips to find work as a Freelancer

2021-06-18T11:15:00.002+05:30

Some Important tips to find work as a Freelancer

If you want to earn money online. Some of the earning platform in online are Blogging, Youtubing, Content writing, Social media marketing,Adsense etc. and the finest method of one is Freelancer. Freelancer earn money by using their skills in a right way

What is Freelancing/Freelancer ?

Freelancing is nothing but a work as an independant company compared than other employees. Freelancer are Self employed and they can work from anywhere . These work is called freelancing. One who do freelancing is known as freelancer. If you want to become a succesful freelancer you must have mastered in any one of those skill. Some of the basic skill you need to work in a basic freelancer is such as Data entry, Logo design, Poster preparation etc..

How to make a Freelancer account :

1) Click sign up Freelancer.com by using your mail id

2) By signing up you must agree the Terms and conditions and click accept

3) Then you have to choose your username

4) Select your account type

if you want to hire then choose that type else choose work option

5) After completing the registration process you need to verify your email address and update the account details to move on further

6) The setup process is completed

Functions of Freelancer :

Freelancer is an Australian freelance marketplace website. It allows employers to post jobs that freelancers can then bid to complete. The employers post the jobs and the freelancing employees bid the project/jobs for certain amount.

The winning bid requires a good proposal towards the employer. You have to complete the job in an stipulated time period, after completion of project the employee create an invoice for that project and the employer will awarded the stipend/cash/reward etc. if you want high pay then you need to have high skills

The employers rated your profile and given reviews towards your work . Getting good reviews will make you to become a freelancer beginner level to Pro freelancer

Tips to find work as a Freelancer :

1) Setup your complete profile

2) Attach portfolio

3) showcase your skills

4) Choose the right niche and you need to choose a single niche in beginner level

5) Learn analytics

6) get engage with the client

7) start and get practice

Why Freelancer :

1) 0% brokerage commision free

2) Registration free

3) Flexible to use

LEARN AND THEN EARN !

If you are intrested in blogging

Read our article at Blogging is a right way for earning money online

ME 8593 Design of Machine Elements Mcq

2021-06-13T08:17:00.001+05:30

Mechanical Engineering

ME 8593 | Design of Machine Elements Mcq

1.The basic series of preferred numbers are

a) R5,R10,R20, & R80

2.The increase in local stresses at points of rapid change in crosssection or discontinuities is called

a) strength

b) toughness

c) stress concentration

d) stress distribution

3.Hooke's law holds good upto

a) breaking point b) yield point c) elastic limit d) plastic limit

4.Stress varying from zero to a maximum value of same nature is

a) repeated stress b) reversed stress c) fluctuating stress d) alternating stress

5.The property of the material to absorb energy and to resist shock and impact loads

a) creep b) toughness c) hardness d) resilience

6.The degree to which the theoretical effect of stress concentration is actually reached is

a) sensitivity b) notch sensitivity c) factor of safety d) endurance limit

7.Ratio of shear stress to shear strain is called

a) bulk modulus b) poisson ratio c) modulus of rigidity d) modulus of elasticity

8.Speed at which the shaft runs which makes the axis of shaft to be infinite is known as

a) maximum speed b) critical speed c) minimum speed d) optimum speed

9. ------------are used to convert rotary motion into reciprocating motion

a) piston b) shafts c) crankshafts d) fuels

10.Material used for making hub or flange or muff in couplings is

a) mild steel b) nickel c) steel d) cast iron

11.------------is defined as the distance from a point on one thread to the corresponding on the adjacent

thread in the same axis plane

a) pitch b) addendum c) crest d) peak

12.For plates of thickness less than 6mm,the ends of overlapping plates can be directly welded at the edges called

a) lap joint b) butt joint c) edge joint d) tee joint

13.The ratio of mean diameter to the coil to wire diameter

a) stiffness b) spring indes c) waahls factor d) free length

14.-------------is that the helical compression spring behaves like a column and bends at a comparative

small load when the length of the spring is more than 4times the mean coil diameter

a) buckling b) surging c) nipping d) camber

15.What are the methods of reducing stress concentration

a) Avoiding sharp corners and giving sharp edges

b) providing fillets and undercuting shoulders

c) increasing load and reducing fatique

d) increasing thickness and area

16.Hardness is the ability of material to

a) resist scratching and indentation

b) resist deformation under loading

c) absorb energy

d) draw into a wire

17.Coulomb ,Tresca and Guest’s theory of failure is applicable to

a) ductile materials b) elastic materials c) brittle materials d) plastic materials

18.When a part is subjected to a constant stress at hig htemperature for a long period of time, it will

undergoas low and permanent deformation called

a) fatique b) testing of strength c) toughness d) creep

19.Maximizing a desired quantity and minimizing an undesired one is called

a) peaking b) optimization c) improvisation d) design

20.In a curved beam of symmetrical section where will be the maximum stress

a) inner fibre b) outer fibre c) centroidal axis d) neutral axis

21.------------theory states that failure occurs when the maximum strain in the member equals the tensile yield strain

a) St venant b) rankine c) gerber d) von - mises henky

22.------------are used to convert rotary motion into reciprocating motion

a) piston b) shaft c) crankshaft d) fuels

23.Material used for making hub or flange or muff in couplings is

a) mild steel b) nickel c) steel d) cast iron

24.Which of the following screw thread is stronger than other threads?

a) Square threads b) trapezoidal threads c) buttress threads d) V threads

25.Speed at which the shaft runs which makes the axis of shaft to be infinite is known as

a) maximum speed b) critical speed c) minimum speed d) optimum speed

26.Cold working

a) increases fatique strength b) has no influence on fatique strength c) decreases fatique strength d) none

27.------is a piece having same thickness ,and provides a larger bearing surface for the cotter to slide

on ,due to the increased holding power

a) screw b) gib c) nut d) cotter

28.In order to find the endurance limit, the rotating beam specimen is subjected to

a)repeated stress b) reversed stress c) fluctuating stress d) maximum stress

29.The ratio of mean diameter to the coil to wire diameter

a) stiffness b) spring indes c) waahls factor d) free length

30.A ------- spring consists of flat bars of varying lengths clamped together and supported at both ends,

thus acting as a simply supported beam.

a) helical b) conical c) leaf d) belleville

31. -------- is defined as the ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of oil

a) kinematic viscosity b) viscosity c) density d) thickness

32.If the length of journal is equal to its diameter it is called as ------ journal bearing

a) rectangular b) circular c) short d) square

33.A flat bar 32mm wide and 12mm thick is loaded by a steady tensile load of 85kN. The material is mild steel with yield

point stress of 315N per sqmm. Find the factor of safety based on the yield point

a) 2 b) 1.42 c) 2.3 d) 1.76

34.The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten rolled into plates is called.

a) malleability b) ductility c) elasticity d) relibility

35.Which material cannot be used to manufacture shafts?

a) plain carbon steels b) cast iron c) both a and b d) none

36.Which type of key consists of two square tapered keys placed 90o apart?

a) tangent key b) kennedy key c) saddle key d) woodruffkey

37.In S-N diagram, the graph plotted between fatigue strength and number of stress cycles becomes horizontal for which

type of materials?

a) ferrous materials b) non-ferrous materials c) both a and b d) none

38.Two shafts A and B are made of the same material .The diameter of shaft A is twice as that of shaft B.The power

transmitted by the shaft A will be__________of shaft B.

a) twice b) four times c) 6times d) 8times

39.Which is correct statement ?

a) A member made of steel will generally be more rigid than a member of equal load carrying ability made of cast

iron

b) A member made of cast iron will generally be more rigid than a member of equal load carrying ability made of steel

c) both will be equally rigid

d) all the above

40.Couplings are used

a) To transmit power between misalignment of shafts

b) to protect against overload

c) to connect two shafts in order to get long shafts

d) all the above

41.Which of the following statements is/are false for an axle?

a) It is used to support rotating machine elements

b) it can transmit torque

c) it is subjected to axial force

d) all the above

42.Which of the following threads have greater pitch and lead angle for a given nominal diameter when compared with

each other?

a) Coarse threads b) fine threads c) both a and b d) none

43.Which type of stress is induced in a screw thread?

a) torsional shear stress b) buckling load c) bearing pressure d) all of the above

44.What does the designation M 16x2 indicate?

a) I.S.O Metric fine thread

b) I.S.O Metric coarse thread

c) B.S.F Metric coarse thread

d) B.S.F Metric fine thread

45.Which type of screw fasteners are threaded through out its length?

a) cap screws b) set screws c) studs d) tap bolt

46.Which type of joint is used if plate thickness is less than 5mm?

a) single v butt weld

b) single u butt weld

c) square butt weld

d) double u butt weld \

47.Calculate weld throat thickness for the parallel fillet weld shown below, if allowable shear stress is 80MPa and tensile

load of 300kN is acting on it

a) 2.6 mm b) 9.56 mm c) 9.86 mm d) 8.36 mm

48.Which among the following is a knuckle joint

a) tension link in bridge structure b) foundation bolt c) both a and b d) none

49.Calculate weld size if weld throat thickness for the fillet weld is 8.2mm

a) 10 mm b) 14.20 mm c) 16.4 mm d) 12mm

50.When helical compression spring is subjected to axial compressive force, the type of stress induced in the spring wire

a) tensile stress b) compressive stress c) bending stress d) shear stress

51.The maximum shear stress in spring wire is induced at

a) inner surface of the coil b) outer surface of the coil c) central surface of the coil d) end coil

52.Two springs of stiffness k1 and k2 are connected in parallel, the combined stiffness of the connection is given by,

a) k1 k1 / k1 + k1

b) k1 k1 / k1 - k1

c) k1+k1

d) k1+k1/ k1 k1

53.If the wire diameter of a closely coiled helical spring subjected to compressive load is increased from 1cm to2cm,

other parameters remaining same,the deflection will decrease by a factor

a) 16 b) 8 c) 4 d) 2

54.When helical spring is cut into two equal halves ,stiffness of each of the resulting spring will be,

a) unaltered b) double c) one half d) one forth

55.The coefficient of fluctuation of speed of fly wheel is,

a) ratio of maximum and minimum speeds during the cycle

b) ratio of maximum fluctuating speed to the mean speed

c) ratio of mean speed to maximum fluctuation of speed during the cycle

d) sum of maximum fluctuation speed and mean speed

56.The cross section of the fly wheel arm (orspokes) is,

a) I section b) rectangular c) elliptical d) circular

57.A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8kg m2 fluctuates by 30rpm for a fluctuation of energy of 1936joules.The mean

speed of the fly wheel (inrpm) is

a) 600 b) 900 c) 968 d) 2940

58.The ratio of length of stroke to cylinder bore (l/D) in IC engines is usually

a) 1/2 b) 5 c) 1.5 d) 1/4

59.The bolts for the cap of big end of connecting rod are subjected to

a) only gas force b) only inertia force c) only side force d) all the above

60.In case of partial bearing ,the angle of contact of the bushing with the journal is

a) 270* b) 180* c) less than 180* d) 360*

61.Boundary lubricated bearing is

a) thick film bearing b) thin film bearing c) hydrodynamic bearing d) hydrostatic bearing

62.The property of bearing material to allow foreign particle to get absorbed on the surface of the lining is called

a) embeddability b) conformability c) viscosity d) endurance limit stress

63.In Petroff’s equation, it is assumed that the lubricant film is

a) converging b) diverging c) uniform d) converging diverging

64.Starting friction is low in

a) hydrostatic lubrication b) hydrodynamic lubrication c) mixed semi fluid lubrication d) boundary lubrication

65.In radial bearings ,the load acts

a) along the axis of rotation b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation c) paralled to the axis of rotation d) inclined to the axis of rotation

66.A bearing number XX10 indicates that the bearing is having

a) bore diameter of 10mm b) bore diamter of 100mm c) bore diamter of 50mm d) outer diameter of 100mm

67.Stress induced in the balls or rollers of rolling contact bearing is

a) torsional shear stress b) tensile stress c) crushing stress d) contact stress

68.The catalogue life of the bearing is

a) minimum life that 90% of the bearing will reach or exceed

b) maximum life for 90% of the bearings

c) average life

d) median life

69.The medium series bearing have …...... higher load carrying capacity than light series bearing of the same bore

diameter

a) 30 to 40% b) 20 to 30% c) 40 to 50% d) 10 to 20%

Also read : OR 0551 Renewable energy sources mcq

ME 8595 Thermal Engineering 2 mcq

ME 8594 Dynamics of machines mcq

ME 8501 Metrology and measurements mcq

OR 0551 Renewable Energy Sources Mcq

2021-06-11T07:33:00.000+05:30

COMMON TO CIVIL & MECHANICAL ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT

OR 0551 Renewable Energy Sources

Multiple choice question(Mcq)

1.Which of the following is renewable resources

a) wind b) tides c) geothermal heat d) all of the above

2.Which of the following country generate all their electricity using renewable energy?

a) Iceland b) England c) usa d) china

3.Renewable energy often displaces conventional fuel in which of the following area

a) space heating b) transportation c) electricity generation d) all of the above

4.The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) was formed in

a) 2008 b) 2009 c) 2010 d) 2011

5.Which of the following is Non renewable resources

a) wind b) coal c) wave d) all of the above

6.Which of the following is Primary Resources

a) oil b) biomass c) natural gas d) all of the above

7.Which of the following is Conventional Energy Resources

a) fossil fuel b) hydraulic energy c) nuclear energy d) all of the above

8.Environmental Impact of solar energy

a) land use and habitat loss b) water use c) both a and b d) none

9.Instrument for the measurement of direct radiation flux

a) pyrheliometer b) pyranometer c) sunshine decoder d) all of the above

10.Instrument for the measurement of direct and diffuse radiation

a) pyrheliometer b) pyranometer c) sunshine decoder d) all

11.The duration of bright sunshine in a day is measured by

a) pyrheliometer b) pyranometer c) sunshine decoder d) all

12.TMY means

a) typical meterological year b) typical monological year c) typical measurement year d) none

13.A liquid flat plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position, facing _____ if located in the northern hemisphere.

a) west b) north c) south d) east

14.The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by

a) putting a selective coating on plate b) evacuating the space above the absorber plate c) both a and b d) none

15.The efficiency of various types of collectors ______ with _______ temperature

a) increaes,decreases b) decreasing,increasing c) remains same, increasing d) constant,constant

16.Maximum efficiency is obtained in

a) flat plate collector b) evacuated tube collector c) line focussing collector d) paraboloid dish collector

17.Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?

a) flat plate collector b) line focussing c) paraboloid dish collector d) all of the above

18.The hour angle is equivalent to

a) 10* per hr b) 15* per hr c) 20* per hr d) 25* per hr

19.The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on a horizontal surface is called the

a) radiation shape factor b) tilt factor c) slope d) none

20.The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is given by

a) hourly beam radiation +hourly dissufe radiation b) hourly beam radiation - hourly diffuse radiation c) hourly beam raditaion/hourly diffuse radiation d) hourly diffuse radiation/hourly beam radiation

21.Beam radiations are measured with

a) anemometer b) pyrheliometer c) sunshine recorder d) all

22.Surface azimuth angle varies from

a) 0 to 90* b) -90 to 90 c) 0 to 180* d) -180 to 180

23.The value of Solar Constant is

a) 1347 w/m2 b) 1357 w/m2 c) 1367 w/m2 d) 1377 w/m2

24.The complement of zenith angle is

a) solar attitude angle b) surface azimuth angle c) solar azimuth angle d) slope

25.Types of solar energy storage methods

a) thermal b) sorption c) chemical d) all of the above

26.Methods of Thermal energy storage systems

a) SHS b) LHS c) stratified storage d) all the above

27.Raising the Temperature of solid or liquid by using its heat capacity is known as

a) LHS b) SHS c) stratified storage d) all the above

28.Change in Phase of Solid or Liquid is known as

a) LHS b) SHS c) stratified storage d) all

29.Advantage of Stratified heat storage

a) energy efficiency b) optimum process c) reliable material d) all

30.Different zones of solar pond

a) fresh water b) gradient zone c) salt saturated d) all

31.Applications of solar pond

a) Desalination b) salt water c) salt saturated d) all

32.Components of PV system

a) solar cell array b) load leveler c) storage system d) all

33.Solar heating techniques are

a) solar water heater b) solar cooker c) solar space heating d) all

34.Solar cooling techniques are

a) vapour absorption b) vapour adsorption c) steam absorption d) steam adsorption

35.Different types of Homo junction PV cells

a) amorphous silicon b) poly crystalline silicon c) single crystal silicon d) all

36.The process of converting poly crystalline to the single crystal silicon is called

a) crystal growing b) crystal structure c) crystal polymers d) none

37.Following country met more than 40% of its electricity demand from wind energy

a) Denmark b) Portugal c) Ireland d) spain

38.In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant

a) deserts b) offshore c) low altitude sites d) all

39.Bio-diesel is produced from oils or fats using

a) fermentation b) transesterification c) distillation d) none

40.Biomass can be converted to

a) methane gas b) ethanol c) bio diesel d) all

41.Which type of windmill has better performance?

a) verticle type windmills b) darrieus type machine c) magnus effect d) horizontal type windmills

42.At what type of location vibrations are more in the wind turbine?

a) downwind location b) upwind location c) windward d) leeward

43.What does WECS stands for?

a) wind energy conversion system b) wind engine control system c) wind energy combined system d) wind engine comparison system

44.What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?

a) turbine b) generators c) yaw motor d) blades

45.This is called a bio gas ?

a) bio butanol b) bio diesel c) bieethanol d) biomethane

46.Production of bio ethanol is through fermentation of ________ and starch components

a) alchohol b) sugar c) milk d) acid

47.In bio methane, the percentage of carbon dioxide is

a) 55-60 b) 35-45 c) 30-40 d) 32-43

48.The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the production of

a) metal articles b) biofuels c) biomass d) synthetic fuels

49.The difference, in temperature between the core of the planet and its surface, is known as

a) geothermal coefficient b) geothermal gradient c) geothermal constant d) none

50.Tidal energy utilizes

a) kinetic energy of water b) potential energy of water c) both a and b d) none

51.List some geothermal fluids

a) hot water b) hot brine c) both a and b d) none

52.Classify Geothermal electric power plants

a) according to geothermal energy sources b) according to thermodynamic cycle c) both a and b

d) none

53.In geothermal power plants waste water is

a) discharged back to earth b) discharged into the sea c) recirculated after cooling in cooling towers d) evaporated in ponds

54.Types of OTEC cycles

a) open cycle b) closed cycle c) both a and b d) none

55.If the tides range is maximum, It is called

a) spring tides b) low tides c) both a and b d) none

56.Types of turbines used in tidal power stations

a) bulb turbine b) rim turbine c) tubular turbine d) all

57.OTEC stands for

a) oil and thermal energy conversion b) ocean thermal energy convention c) ocean thermal energy conversion d) oil and thermal energy convention

58.DEC Systems follow which of the following effects

a) seebeck effect b) peltier effect c) joule effect d) all

59.A device uses hydrogen and oxygen to create an electric current is known as

a) fuel cell b) biomass c) both a and b d) none

60.What are the working fluids in closed cycle OTEC

a) ammonia b) freon c) butane d) all the above

Is Biriyani overrated or Not ?

2021-06-09T11:15:00.001+05:30

BIRIYANI | FEAST | OVERRATED ?

BIRIYANI, the name itself says its an Feast. In our culture simply Food is an emotion. before we get a conclusion of biriyani is overrated or not? little bit explore about the things of biriyani . The origin of Biriyani is came from Islam of indian sub continent. In History shows Mughal Emperors were invented biriyani for royal kitchen and Feast Biriyani is very popular among indians. The biriyani is nothing about a mixed rice dish and it is made with spicy ingredients such as meat and in addition of eggs, vegetables, mushroom etc..

There are various types of biriyani there such as Lucknow biriyani, bombay biriyani, Sindhi biriyani, Thalassey biriyani, hydrebad biriyani, ambur biriyani, dindigal biriyani, kashmiri biriyani, tehare biriyani, fish biriyani, egg biriyani, prawn biriyani, seeragasamba rice biriyani, mushroom biriyani, vegetable biriyani . some of the common known names of biriyani are Mutton and Chicken biriyani.

Compared with other dishes an aromatic and rich flavor, it is a wholesome and full packed feast meal. Varying the Region the taste may be varied . The biriyani is usually made in basmathi rice or seeragasamba rice for rich taste. Biriyani is a high calorific meal which ranges between 400-500 cal.

Making :

Biriyani is cooked with different types of methods. The most well known method is Dum . The Dum biriyani is cooked under a furnace of slow fire . It is slow cooked but the taste will remains good, that's why many of them prefer Dum biriyani. during the cooking the dum biriyani, the food is sealed tightly. first of all the raw elements were maked such as Spicy things, prepared masala, chilly powder, and roasted onions etc for spicy taste and then rice is poured and then sealed to cook the meal. this is called as Dum biriyani

Biriyani vs Other dishes :

My opinion about this and view on biriyani is its and overrated one eventhough it is a wholesome meal which gives all elements to satisfy. In case comparing biriyani with Chicken gravy or mutton gravy , Fish curry etc.. everything has a unique taste has its own way , but every Jungle has a one KING LION . I thought you are all get my point, never mind

Don't compare with one over another, not only in food i said don't compare with others in any matters, because everything has a unique style and attitude.

if you not yet tasted the sea food and taste it once you may get addicted to this thats the matter, if you try anything new and it be likeable you surely get an addiction.

Food is not an comparable thing . its an enjoyable thing and its an one kind of emotion. we may talk a lot about food food food but where it all came from ? FARMERS , they are the only source to produce the rice to eat. we may live without internet, mobile, car, electricity and we can't live without food

biriyani or curd rice , anything is like a heaven when we are hungry . Hunger is a disease which no one have a medicine for that..

SUPPORT FARMERS ! SUPPORT AGRICULTURE !

THANK YOU..

Why Engineers are unemployed in India ?

2021-06-07T20:49:00.003+05:30

Engineers | Unemployed | College | Career

There are more than 4000 engineering colleges in india in the year 2021 . According to the survey every year india produces 1million engineering graduates .

In engineering upto 55 branches are there . some of the well known courses in engineering are Mechanical Engineering , Civil, Computer science, Electronics and communication . The rare courses which students prefer are Petroleum Engineering, Leather technology etc.. The king of engineering is known as Mechanical Engineering., it is not only Royal, also the evergreen batch of engineering. The most important thing in engineering is if you want to become a good engineer you must have strong knowledge in Physics and Mathematics .

Engineering admission process

The engineering admission process has 2 modes . they are Counselling mode and Management quota.

The counselling mode compress the many sub process such as fill the application earlier and based on our HSC mark they generate a ranking list for attending the counselling and certificate verification process. After complete this steps successfull then choose the college with college code at the time of counselling and walk through directly to lock your seat and pay the initial fee to get registration .

The top colleges prefer GATE exam score for admission in higher education and some colleges prefer TANCET score for meet the eligible criteria . Another one is a management quota , this is a meritless admission. If you enough money you will get a seat in finite college too on donation basis.

If you enter the college through counselling mode your college fees is on average of around 1lakh rupees only .

Placement and Career

The Engineering colleges offer CAMPUS INTERVIEW and PLACEMENT DRIVE for students . It has several purification process. You may need to attend and pass several rounds to appear in HR interview

The interview process consists of Aptitude , Logical reasoning, Technical, Group discussion and HR Round. If you are well talented in all of these surely you will get a job in Campus interview. Before that your project should speaks . you aware about your project and explain it to the recruiter clearly

Unemployed Engineers

First of all why unemployement occurs. Unemployement occurs just because of lack of industries in india. India is a developing country. every year over 1million engineers produce by 4000 engineering colleges but only 20% get a job in core industries . others will move on to the BPO, and other such jobs .The unemployement is the most dangerous disease of the nation . This unemployement shows that engineers are educated fools. Engineering is a 4years duration of professional course

Nowadays Education is business that the major problem of unemployment. skilled engineers and quality engineers are very less. Our engineering education system produces labors not engineers that leads to unemployment . There are lot of job opportunities are there, we just improve ourself to get qualified . Everyone will have a B.E., Engineering degree but it doesn't matter. Engineering degree is just a entry pass for science field . Its like a ticket for science field . you must undergo hands on training and proper technical knowledge for getting placed in a reputed company.

Finally conclude about this topic is Engineers are unemployed but not unemployment occurs. there are lot of job opportunities are there. You must improve yourself to get qualified.

LEARN ENGINEERING AND UNDERSTAND ENGINEERING

ENGINEER | WRITER

ME 8595 Thermal Engineering 2 Mcq

2021-06-03T14:01:00.138+05:30

Mechanical Engineering

ME 8595 | Thermal Engineering 2 Mcq

[Answers are highlighted]

1. A steam nozzle is a duct of

a)Constant Cross Section b)Decreasing Cross Section c)Increasing Cross Section d)Bothb&c

2.A steam nozzle converts pressure energy into

a)Hydraulic Energy b)Kinetic Energy c)Potential Energy d)Pneumatic Energy

3.Dry saturated steam has dryness fraction

a)less than1 b)greater than1 c)less than zero d)equal to 1

4.For an isentropic flow,the entropy across nozzle sections are

a)directly proportional b)inversely proportional c)constant d)None

5.Superheated steam has dryness fraction

a)equal to1 b)greater than 1 c)less than 1 d)less than zero

6.Supersaturated flow is a l so called as

a)metastable flow b)isentropic flow c)superheated flow d)None

7.Supersaturation causes specific volume and entropy to

a)decrease b)maintainstability c)increase d)None

8.In a C D nozzle,flow up to throat is___________and flow after throat is___________

a)subsonic&subsonic b)supersonic&subsonic c)supersonic&supersonic d)subsonic&supersonic

9.Pure water has dryness fraction

a)lessthan1 b)equalto1 c)greaterthan1 d)equaltozero

10.Metastable flow will_____________the dryness fraction of steam

a)decrease b)increase c)notchange d)None

11.Nozzle is used in which application?

a)Rockets b)Steam Turbines c)FlowMeasurement d)a&b

12.In a one-dimensional flow, the fluid velocity will______________across crosssection.

a)increase from centre b)remainconstant c)decreasefrom center d)acceleraterandomly

13.Steam flows through a nozzle at a massflowrateof m=0.1 kg/s with a heatloss of 5kW.The enthalpies at inlet and exit are

2500kJ/kg and 2350kJ/kg, respectively. Assuming negligible velocity at inlet (C1=0),the velocity (C2) of steam (inm/s)at the

nozzle exit is

a)457.214m/sec

b)447.214m/sec

c)547.214m/sec

d)557.214m/sec.

14.In a steam nozzle, the steam expands from 4 bar to1 bar.The initial

velocity is 60m/s and initial temperature is 200degreeC. Determine the exit

velocity if the nozzle efficiency is 92%.

a)684.98m/sec

b)712.98m/sec

c)654.98m/sec

d)734.98m/sec

15.Find the nozzle efficiency if the actual enthalpy drop is 2257KJ/Kg and isentropic enthalpy drop is 2527Kj/Kg and the frictional losses is

a)83.915%

b)89.315%

c)87.315%

d)83.715%

16.The critical pressure ratio of a super-heated steam(n=1.3) in a nozzle is

a)0.578

b)0.587

c)0.546

d)0.564

17.If the exit diameter of the divergent portion of the nozzle is 80mm ,throat diameter is 20mm and the length of the divergent portion is 200mm.what is the angle of divergent portion.

a)25.7degree

b)16.7degree

c)10.3degree

d)15degree

18.If the area at the inlet of the nozzle is 0.1sq.metre, the velocity is 60m/sec and the specific volume is 0.187cubic.metre/kg, then the mass flow rateis

a)35.08kg/sec

b)37.08kg/sec

c)32.08kg/sec

d)36.08kg/sec

19.Steam at a pressure of 10.5 bar and 0.95 dry is expanded through a convergent divergen tnozzle. The pressure of steam leaving the nozzle is 0.85bar .(i)Findthevelocityofsteam atthroat

a)547.214m/sec

b)457.214m/sec

c)557.214m/sec

d)447.214m/sec.

20.If the actual enthalpy drop is 4000kJ/kg and isentropic enthalpy drop is 5000kJ/kg, what is the coefficient of velocity?

a)0.8944

b)0.9844

c)0.8644

d)0.6844

21.Steam at 30bar & 350degreeC is supplied to a nozzle, the exit pressure is maintained at 4bar. Determine the degree of under cooling if the flow is supersaturated

a)20.4degreec

b)18.4degreec

c)28.4degreec

d)25.4degreec

22.Steam at 40bar & 400degreec is supplied to a nozzle, the exit pressure is maintained at 6bar. Determine the degree of supersaturation

a)0.97

b)0.78

c)0.87

d)0.79

23.Blow off cock is used to

a)supply water to boiler b)remove water from boiler c)remove impurities from boiler d)remove high pressure steam

24.Super heater is a device used to heat

a)water entering boiler b)steam leaving boiler c)steam leaving turbine d)air entering furnace

25.Steam trap is used to remove

a)remove steam from condensing water b)remove water from steam c)remove dust from emissions d)None

26.Which one of the following is a green house gas?

a)Nox b)Sox c)CO2 d)CO

27.A steam boiler is an equipment used to

a)produce heat energy b)produce high pressure steam c)produce high velocity steam d)produce coal

28.A fire tube boiler is one in which flame hot gases travel

a)outside the tube b)across the tube c)away from the tube d)inside the tube

29.Economizer is a device used to pre heat

a)air entering furnace b)water entering boiler c)steam entering turbine d)None

30.Moisture content in coal is determined by

a) Ultimate Analysis b)Proximate Analysis c)MoistureAnalysis d)ThermalAnalysis

31.A water tube boiler is one in which flame hot gases travels

a)across the tube b)inside the tube c)outside the tube d)Both a&c

32.Air pre heater is a device used to heat air using

a)High temperature steam b)High pressure steam c)Hot flue gases d)Any

33.Soot removers are fitted in_______________to remove soot particles

a)Economizer b)Airpreheater c)Superheater d)Regenerator

34.Natural Gas is a______________type of fuel

a)Renewable b)Non-renewable c)Low calorific value d)Low quality

35.If the mass of water evaporated is 230kg/hr and the mass of fuel burnt is 0.00556kg/sec, then the actual evaporation rate is

a)12.5kg/kgoffuel

b)10.5kg/kgoffuel

c)11.5kg/kgoffuel

d)9kg/kgoffuel

36.In a steam boiler ,the actual evaporation is 10.5kg/kg of fuel and the factor of evaporation is 1.15 and the equivalent evaporation equals

a)12.125kg/kgoffuel

b)11.075kg/kgoffuel

c)12.15kg/kgoffuel

d)12.075kg/kgoffuel

37.If the actual evaporation rate is 10kg/kg of fuel,enthalpy of steam generated is 2500kJ/kg, feed water enthalpy is 200kJ/kg and the calorific value is 35600KJ/kg then the boiler efficiency is

a)78.4%

b)64.6%

c)81%

d)75.3%

38.The amount of heat evolved when unit mass or unit volume of a fuel is burnt completely in excess supply of oxygen and the biproducts of combustion is all wed to escape in the atmosphere is

a)Net Calorific value

b)Calorificvalue

c)GrossCalorificvalue

d)HigherCalorificvalue

39.The name of gas which is absorbed pyrogallic acid by in an Orsat apparatus is

a)carbondioxide

b)Carbonmonooxide

c)oxygen

d)Nitrogen

40.If the mass of the dry steam is 20kg and the mass of water particles are1 kg then the dryness fraction is

a)0.943

b)0.978

c)0.967

d)0.952

41.The temperature of water entering the economizer is 30degreec ,the temperature of water leaving the economizer is 130 degree c ,the actual evaporation rate is 11kg/kg of fuel and the calorific value of fuel is 34600kJ/kg then the percentage of heat utilized in economizer is

a)15.45%

b)17.45%

c)10.45%

d)12.45%

42.Which of the following statement is wrong

a) Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler.

b) Watertubeboilersareinternallyfired.

c) La-montboilerisalowpressurewatertubeboiler.

d) alloftheabove

43.The boiler power may be defined as

a) the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace

b) the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt

c) the amount of water evaporated from and at 100degreeC into dry and saturated steam

d) the evaporation of 15.653kg of water per hour from and at 100degreeC

44.The function of a safety valve is

a)to blow offsteam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the workingpressure

b)to indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer

c)to measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler

d)none of the above

45.Pelton wheel turbine is a

a)constant speed turbine b)reaction turbine c)impulse turbine d)reversible turbine

46.In a steam turbine ,steam ____________in nozzle

a)compresses b)expands c)remains constant d)just flows

47.The heat absorbed by water to raise its temperature upto 100degree Celsius is called

a)Sensible heat b)Latent heat c)Residual heat d)None

48.Water is converted into steam by adding heat energy at

a)constant volume b)constant pressure c)constant temperature d)constant area

49.Reaction turbines has

a)Buckets b)Stator&Rotor c)Diffuser d)Combustion Chamber

50.The need for super heating in steam power plant is

a)to improve steam quality b)To avoid condensation in turbine c)To avoid corrosion of turbine blades d)All the above

51.Mollier steam chart is drawn between

a)Pressure and enthalpy b)enthalpy and entropy c)entropy and pressure d)enthalpy and temperature

52.The SI unit of entropy is

a)KJ/m.K b)KJ/Kg c)KJ/Kg.K d)KJ/m2

53.A turbine is a device used to convert pressure energy into

a)Potential energy b)Heat energy c)Mechanical Energy d)Electrical Energy

54.In a steam turbine ,the velocity of steam _____________through the rotor

a)decreases b)increases c)remains constant d)Botha&b

55.In an impulse turbine,the blades are

a)symmetrical b)increasing area patterned c)decreasing area patterned d)asymmetrical

56.The heat absorbed by 100degreeCelsius water to form water vapour at 100degreeCelsius is called

a)Sensible heat b)Latent heat c)Residual heat d)None

57.Steam at 300kPa and 500 degreeC (h=3486.0kJ/kg) enters a steam turbine and exits at atmospheric pressure and 350degreeC (h=3175.8kJ/kg). Heat losses in turbine are 50 kW and the mass flow rate is 0.25 kg/s.Determine the power output of the turbine if kinetic energy losses are negligible.

a)31.55KW

b)20.7KW

c)27.55kW

d)35.55kW

58.The Rate au turbine belongs to the category of

(a)Pressure compounded turbine

(b)reaction turbine

(c)Velocity compounded turbine

(d)radial flow turbine

59.A steam turbine receives steam steadily at 10bar with an enthalpy of 3000kJ/kg and discharges at 1bar with an enthalpy of 2700kJ/kg. The work output is 250kJ/kg. The changes in kinetic and potential energies are negligible.The heat transfer from the turbine casing to the surroundings is equal to

(a)0kJ

(b)50kJ

(d)250kJ

60.Given, Vb=Bladespeed, V=Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade, alpha = Nozzle angle. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when

a)Vb=0.5Vcosα

b)Vb=Vcosα

c)Vb=0.5V^2cosα

d) Vb=V^2cosα

61.For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2m and as peed of 3000 rpm, the blade speed is

a)354.159m/sec

b)319.154m/sec

c)314.159m/sec

d)359.154m/sec

62.A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade ti pat__________to the direction of the blade motion.

a)60degree

b)30degree

c)45degree

d)90degree

63.In a De-Laval nozzle expanding super heated steam from 10 bar to 0.1bar,the pressure at the minimum cross-section(i.e. pressure at throat, p2) will be

a)3.3bar

b)5.46bar

c)8.33bar

d)7.64bar

64.In are action turbine,when steam flows through the fixed blades,

a)pressure increases while velocity decreases

b)pressure decreases while velocity increases

c)pressure and velocity both decreases

d)pressure and velocity both increases

65.The process of draining steam from the turbine,at certain points during its expansion and using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then supply in gi to the boiler is known as

a)regenerative heating

b)reheating

c)intercooling

d)superheating

66.In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is 537m/s and the blade velocity is 454m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be

a)260

b)302

c)210

d)282

67.In a Topping System Cogeneration plant____________is produced first.

a)HeatEnergy b)Mechanical Energy d)Pressure Energy d)Electrical Energy

68.The advantage of having cogeneration plant is

a)Self reliability b)Grid Stability c)Both a&b d)None

69.Application of heat pipe

a)Chip cooling b)Super heating c)Flow measurement d)Pressure regulation

70.Wetting fluids have contact angles between

a)30 and 60 degrees b)60 and 90degrees c)0and90degrees d)90and180degrees

71.In a Bottoming System Co generation plant____________is produced first.

a)Heat Energy b)Mechanical Energy d)Pressure Energy d)Electrical Energy

72.Factors to be considered during establishing cogeneration system are

a)Steam power ratio b)Type of Process c)Fuel availability d)All theabove

73.Wick is a component used in

a)Heat pipe b)Heat Engine c)Heat pump d)Refrigeration system

74.Non-Wetting fluids have contact angles between

a)30and60degrees b)60and90degrees c)0and90degrees d)90and180degrees

75.Cogeneration is simultaneous production of electrical energy and

a)Mechanical Energy b)Thermal Energy c)Potential Energy d)Kinetic Energy

76.Cogeneration system is used in

a)Sugar industries b)Textile industries c)Refineries d)All the above

77.Heat pipe is a device which has_________and_____________at both ends

a)Compressor and Condenser b)Condenser and Evaporator c)Evaporator and Expansion Valve d)Expansion Valve and Condenser

78.Thermosyphon needs_____________to work

a)Pressure difference b)Gravity c)Heat pump d)Compressor

79.The cogeneration plant efficiency nCO if WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work ,heat input, heat output respectively is given by?

a)nCO=(WT+Qi)/QH

b)nCO=(WT–Qi)/QH

c)nCO=(WT+QH)/Qi

d)nCO=(WT+QH)/Qi

80.The electricity fraction of total energy output if W1 and Q1 represents the turbine work and heat output is given by?

a)W1/(W1+Q1)

b)W1/(W1–Q1)

c)W1/(W1Q1)

d)W1/Q1

81.In terms of cost per MW compared to condensing sets of the same power, the back pressure turbines are?

a)more expensive

b)cheaper

c)costly

d)none of the mentioned

82.Which of the following statements is not correct?

a.A topping cycle plant generates electricity or mechanical power first.

b.A bottoming cycle plant generates heat first.

c.A bottoming cycle plant generates electricity or mechanical power first.

d.Both a and b

83.In a glass industry, exhaust gas from the glass melting furnace is used for power generation by installing steam boiler and turbine.Then the type of co-generation is called as:

a)gas turbine

b)diesel generator

c)topping cycle

d)bottom cycle

84.Air compress or alone consumes about-------of the energy generated in a gas turbine

b) a)20-30%

c) b)30-40%

d) c)40-50%

e) d)50-60%

85.The evaporation ratio of a coal-fired boiler is 4.Steam enthalpy is 640kCal/kg; feed water temperature is 55degreeC, Calorific Value of coal is 4000kCal/kg.The boiler efficiency is

a)49%

b)82%

c)58.5%

d)70%

86.Which of the following fuel needs maximum amount of excess air for complete

combustion?

a)Furnace oil

b)Natural gas

c)Pulverised coal

d)Wood

87.In an oil fired heat treatment furnace,which of the following is not required to determine

its efficiency by direct method?

a)Weightofinputmaterial

b)Oxygenpercentageinfluegas

c)Fuelconsumption

d)Calorificvalueoffuel

88.With respect to properties of steam

a)The sensible heat decreases as the pressure increases

b)The latent heat increases as the pressure increases

c)The specific volume increases as the pressure increases

d)The specific volume decreases as the pressure increases

89.Refrigeration is the process of producing and maintaining temperature

a)greater than room temperature b)equal to room temperature c)less than room temperature d)none

90.The output refriger an to f expansion valve is

a)low pressure vapour b)high pressure vapour c)low pressure liquid d)high pressure liquid

91.Pump ,generator ,and absorber are used in____________refrigeration system

a)Vapour compression b)VapourAbsorption c)Air d)Thermoelectric

92.Which one of the following is not a refrigerant?

a)Air b)Water c)Ammonia d)LPG

93.Which component is not available in vapour absorption refrigeration system?

a)Compressor b)Condenser c)Expansion Valve d)Evaporator

94.The output refrigerant from compressor is

a)super heated vapour b)saturated liquid c)low pressure liquid d)None

95.Thermo-electric cooling system uses_________effect to produce temperature differences.

a)Joule b)Seeback c)Peltier d)Newton

96.Air has____% of nitrogen by Mass

a)77 b)78 c)79 d)81

97.1Ton of refrigeration is equal to

a)3.5KJ/min b)3.5KJ/sec c)3.5KJ/Hr d)3.5J/sec

98.Which refrigeration system has highest COP?

a)Air refrigeration system b)Vapour Compression Refrigeration system c)Vapour Absorption Refrigeration System d) Thermoelectric Refrigeration System

99.The output refrigerant of condenser is

a)saturated liquid b)super heated vapour c)low pressure vapour d)low pressure liquid

100.Air has____%of nitrogen by Volume

a)77 b)78 c)79 d)81

Also read : OR 0551 Renewable Energy Sources Mcq

ME 8594 Dynamics of Machines Mcq

2021-06-02T21:38:00.005+05:30

Mechanical Engineering

Dynamics of Machines

Multiple choices Question

Unit 1 - Force Analysis

1. 1. When the crank is at the inner dead centre, in a horizontal reciprocating steam engine, then the velocity of the piston will be

(a) zero

(b) minimum

2. 2.The acceleration of the piston in a reciprocating steam engine is given by

where ω = Angular velocity of the crank,

r = Radius of the crank,

θ = Angle turned by the crank from inner dead centre, and

n = Ratio of length of connecting rod to crank radius.

Ans : (D)

1. 3. A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by two masses placed at a fixed distance apart. The two masses form an equivalent dynamical system, if

(a) the sum of two masses is equal to the total mass of the body

(b) the centre of gravity of the two masses coincides with that of the body

(c) the sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their centre of gravity is equal to the mass moment of inertia of the body

(d) all of the above

1. 4. The essential condition of placing the two masses, so that the system becomes dynamically equivalent is

(a) l1 .l2 = kG2

(b) l1 .l2 = kG

(d) l2 = kG

where l1 and l2 = Distance of two masses from the centre of gravity of the body, and

kG = Radius of gyration of the body.

2. 5. In an engine, the work done by inertia forces in a cycle is

(a) positive

(b) zero

(d) none of these

1. 6.The maximum fluctuation of energy is the

(a) sum of maximum and minimum energies

(b) difference between the maximum and minimum energies

(d) ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle

2. 7..In a turning moment diagram, the variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque line is called

(a) fluctuation of energy

(b) maximum fluctuation of energy

(d) none of the above

3. 8. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is called

(a) fluctuation of speed

(b) maximum fluctuation of speed

(c) coefficient of fluctuation of speed

(d) none of these

4. 9. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of energy to the, ......... is called coefficient of fluctuation of energy.

(a) minimum fluctuation of energy

(b) work done per cycle

1. 10. The maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is equal to

Ans : (D)

11. Force which does not act on the connecting rod is ______
a) Weight of connecting rod
b) Inertia force of connecting rod
c) Radial force
d) Coriolis force

12. Inertia forces on the reciprocating parts acts along the line of stroke.
a) True
b) False

13. When mass of the reciprocating parts is neglected then the inertia force is _____
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) 0
d) Not defined

14. For a steam engine, the following data is given:
Piston diameter = 0.24 m, length of stroke = 0.6 m, length of connecting rod = 1.5 m, mass of reciprocating parts = 300 kg, mass of connecting rod = 250 kg; speed of rotation = 125 r.p.m ; centre of gravity of connecting rod from crank pin = 0.5 m ; Kg of the connecting rod about an axis through the centre of gravity = 0.65 m
calculate inertia force at θ=30 degrees from IDC.
a) 19000 N
b) 19064 N
c) 19032 N
d) 20064 N

15. Piston diameter = 0.24 m, length of stroke = 0.6 m, length of connecting rod = 1.5 m, mass of reciprocating parts = 300 kg, mass of connecting rod = 250 kg; speed of rotation = 125 r.p.m; centre of gravity of connecting rod from crank pin = 0.5 m ; Kg of the connecting rod about an axis through the centre of gravity = 0.65 m
Find the equivalent length L of a simple pendulum swung about an axis.
a) 1.35 m
b) 1.42 m
c) 1.48 m
d) 1.50 m

16. From the data given:
Piston diameter = 0.24 m, length of stroke = 0.6 m, length of connecting rod = 1.5 m, mass of reciprocating parts = 300 kg, mass of connecting rod = 250 kg; speed of rotation = 125 r.p.m ; centre of gravity of connecting rod from crank pin = 0.5 m ; Kg of the connecting rod about an axis through the centre of gravity = 0.65 m
Find the correcting couple in N-m?
a) 52.7
b) 49.5
c) 59.5
d)56.5

17. Piston diameter = 0.24 m, length of stroke = 0.6 m, length of connecting rod = 1.5 m, mass of reciprocating parts = 300 kg, mass of connecting rod = 250 kg; speed of rotation = 125 r.p.m; centre of gravity of connecting rod from crank pin = 0.5 m ; Kg of the connecting rod about an axis through the centre of gravity = 0.65 m
Find angular acceleration of connecting rod in rad/s2.
a) 16.782
b) 17.824
c) 15.142
d) 17.161

18. Torque due to weight of the connecting rod affects the torque due to connecting rod.
a) True

b) False

19.In the figure given below, the quantity represented by the arrow is known as ___________

a) Maximum Torque
b) Minimum Torque
c) Maximum Force
d) Mean resisting torque

20. Turning moment is maximum when the crank angle is 90 degrees.
a) True
b) False

21.The curve abc in figure below is known as _________

a) Instroke

b) Outstroke
c) Positive couple
d) Negative couple

22. The curve cde in figure below is known as _________

a) Instroke
b) Outstroke
c) Positive couple

d) Negative couple

23. When engine torque is more than mean resisting torque, then the flywheel _______

a) Has uniform velocity

b) Has 0 velocity

c) Has acceleration

d) Has retardation

24. When engine torque is less than mean resisting torque, then the flywheel _______

b) Has 0 velocity

c) Has acceleration

d) Has retardation

25. Area of the turning moment diagram represents _______

a) Work done

b) Work done per revolution

c) Power generated

d) Power generated per revolution

26. In actual practice, engine is assumed to work against the mean resisting torque.

a) True

b) False

27. In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is

a) positive throughout

b) negative throughout

c) positive during major portion of the stroke

d) negative during major portion of the stroke

28. The maximum fluctuation of energy is the

a) difference between the maximum and minimum energies

b) sum of the maximum and minimum energies

c) variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque to the

d) ratio of the mean resisting torque to the workdone per cycle

29. The co-efficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio of maximum energy to the minimum energy.

a) True

b) False

30. Which of the following statement is wrong?

a) The difference between the maximum and minimum energies is called maximum fluctuation of energy.
b) The co-efficient of fluctuation of speed is the ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed.
c) The variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque line is known as fluctuation of energy.
d) None of the mentioned

31. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the workdone per cycle is called

a) fluctuation of energy

b) maximum fluctuation of energy

c) coefficient of fluctuation of speed

d) none of the mentioned

32. Maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is equal to

a) Iω(ω1 – ω2)

b) Iω2CS

c) 2ECS

d) all of the mentioned

33. A flywheel is fitted to the crankshaft of an engine having W as the amount of indicated work per revolution and permissible limits of coefficient of fluctuation of energy and speed as CE and CS respectively. The kinetic energy of the flywheel is given by

a) 2WCE/CS

b) WCE/2CS

c) WCE/CS

d) WCS/2CE

34. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel whose mean radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the latter at the same speed will be

a) four times the first one

b) same as the first one

c) one fourth of the first one

d) one and a half times the first one

35. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is called

a) fluctuation of energy

b) maximum fluctuation of energy

c) coefficient of fluctuation of speed

d) none of the mentioned

36. The flywheel of a machine having weight of 4500 N and radius of gyration of 2 m has cyclic fluctuation of speed from 125 r.p.m to 120 r.p.m. Assuming g = 10m/s2, the maximum fluctuation of energy is

a) 12822 N-m

b) 24200 N-m

c) 14822 N-m

d) 12100 N-m

37. A circular solid disc of uniform thickness 20 mm, radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg, is used as a flywheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in Joules is

a) 395

b) 790

c) 1580

d) 3160

38. For a certain engine having an average speed of 1200 rpm, a flywheel approximated as a solid disc, is required for keeping the fluctuation of speed within 2% about the average speed. The fluctuation of kinetic energy per cycle is found to be 2 kJ. What is the least possible mass of the flywheel if its diameter is not to exceed 1 m ?

a) 40 kg

b) 51 kg

c) 62 kg

d) 73 kg

Unit 2 - Balancing

1. The balancing of rotating and reciprocating parts of an engine is necessary when it runs at

(a) slow speed

(b) medium speed

(c) high speed

2. A disturbing mass m1 attached to a rotating shaft may be balanced by a single mass m2 attached in the same plane of rotation as that of m1 such that

(a) m1.r2 = m2.r1

(b) m1.r1 = m2.r2

3. For static balancing of a shaft,

(a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero

(b) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero

(d) none of the above

4. For dynamic balancing of a shaft,

(a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero

(b) the net couple due to dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of the above

5. In order to have a complete balance of the several revolving masses in different planes

(a) the resultant force must be zero

(b) the resultant couple must be zero

(c) both the resultant force and couple must be zero

(d) none of the above

6. The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank with the line of stroke is

(a) 0°

(b) 90°

(c) 180°

(d) 360°

7. The partial balancing means

(a) balancing partially the revolving masses

(b) balancing partially the reciprocating masses

(d) all of the above

8. In order to facilitate the starting of locomotive in any position, the cranks of a locomotive, with two cylinders, are placed at . . . . . . to each other.

(a) 45°

(b) 90°

(d) 180°

9. In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank radius is kept very large in order to

(a) minimise the effect of primary forces

(b) minimise the effect of secondary forces

(d) start the locomotive quickly

10. If c be the fraction of the reciprocating parts of mass m to be balanced per cylinder of a steam locomotive with crank radius r, angular speed ω, distance between centre lines of two cylinders a, then the magnitude of the maximum swaying couple is given b

Ans : (B)

11. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the crank to the line of stroke ( θ ) is equal to

(a) 45° and 135°

(b) 90° and 135°

(d) 45° and 225°

12. The tractive force is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the crank to the line of stroke ( θ ) is equal to

(a) 90° and 225°

(b) 135° and 180°

(d) 135° and 315°

13. The swaying couple is due to the

(a) primary unbalanced force

(b) secondary unbalanced force

(d) partial balancing

14. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along the perpendicular to the line of stroke, is known as

(a ) tractive force

(b) swaying couple

(c) hammer blow

(d) none of these

15. The effect of hammer blow in a locomotive can be reduced by

(a) decreasing the speed

(b) using two or three pairs of wheels coupled together

(d) both (a) and (b)

16. Multi-cylinder engines are desirable because

(a) only balancing problems are reduced

(b) only flywheel size is reduced

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of these

17. When the primary direct crank of a reciprocating engine makes an angle θ with the line of stroke, then the secondary direct crank will make an angle of . . . . . with the line of stroke.

(a) θ /2

(b) θ

(c)2θ

(d)4θ

18. Secondary forces in reciprocating mass on engine frame are

(a) of same frequency as of primary forces

(b) twice the frequency as of primary forces

(d) none of the above

19. The secondary unbalanced force produced by the reciprocating parts of a certain cylinder of a given engine with crank radius r and connecting rod length l can be considered as equal to primary unbalanced force produced by the same weight having

(a) an equivalent crank radius r2/4l and rotating at twice the speed of the engine

(b) r2/4l as equivalent crank radius and rotating at engine speed

(d) none of the above

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) In any engine, 100% of the reciprocating masses can be balanced dynamically

(b) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is higher than the value of the primary force

(c) In the case of balancing of multi mass rotating systems, dynamic balancing can be directly started without static balancing done to the system

(d) none of the above.

21. Which of the following statements are associated with complete dynamic balancing of rotating systems?

1. Resultant couple due to all inertia forces is zero.

2. Support reactions due to forces are zero but not due to couples.

3. The system is automatically statically balanced.

4. Centre of masses of the system lies on the axis of rotation.

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 1, 2, and 3 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

22. Which of the following statements is correct about the balancing of a mechanical system?

a) If it is under static balance, then there will be dynamic balance also

b) If it is under dynamic balance, then there will be static balance also

c) Both static as well as dynamic balance have to be achieved separately

d) None of the mentioned

23. The magnitude of swaying couple due to partial balance of the primary unbalancing force in locomotive is

a) inversely proportional to the reciprocating mass

b) directly proportional to the square of the distance between the centre lines of the two cylinders

c) inversely proportional to the distance between the centerlines of the two cylinders

d) directly proportional to the distance between the centerlines of the two cylinders

24. In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank radius is kept very large in order to

a) minimize the effect of primary forces

b) minimize the effect of secondary forces

c) have perfect balancing

d) start the locomotive conveniently

25. In case of partial balancing of locomotives, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force perpendicular to the line of stroke is called hammer blow and this has to be limited by proper choice of the balancing mass and its radial position.

a) True

b) False

26. Multi-cylinder engines are desirable because

a) only balancing problems are reduced

b) only flywheel size is reduced

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the mentioned

27. When the primary direct crank of a reciprocating engine makes an angle θ with the line of stroke, then the secondary direct crank will make an angle of . . . . . with the line of stroke.

a) θ /2

b) θ

c) 2 θ

d) 4 θ

28. Secondary forces in reciprocating mass on engine frame are

a) of same frequency as of primary forces

b) twice the frequency as of primary forces

c) four times the frequency as of primary forces

d) none of the mentioned

29. From the given data, find the balancing mass in Kg if r=0.2m required in the same plane.Masses = 200kg, 300kg, 240 kg, 260Kg, corresponding radii = 0.2m, 0.15m, 0.25m and 0.3m.

Angles between consecutive masses = 45, 75 and 135 degrees.

a) 116

b) 58

c) 232

d) 140

30. 2. Graphical method gives the best results.

a) True

b) False

Unit 3 - Free Vibration

1. 1. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said to have

(a) free vibration

(b) forced vibration

(c) damped vibration

2. 2..Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves

(a) perpendicular to its axis

(b) parallel to its axis

3. 3.When a body is subjected to transverse vibrations, the stress induced in a body will be

(a) shear stress

(b) tensile stress

4. 4. The natural frequency (in Hz) of free longitudinal vibrations is equal to

Ans : (D)

5. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

(a) diameter of the disc

(b) span of the shaft

(d) all of these

2. 6. The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is

If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be

(a) over damped

(b) under damped

3. 7. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to

Ans : (B)

1. 8.The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the static force, is known as

(a) damping factor

(b) damping coefficient

(d) magnification factor

2. 9. In vibration isolation system, if / n ωω is less than 2 , then for all values of the damping factor, the transmissibility will be

(a) less than unity

(b) equal to unity

(d) zero

where ω = Circular frequency of the system in rad/s, and

ωn = Natural circular frequency of vibration of the system in rad/s. 10.

3. 10. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 1, then the phase difference between the transmitted force and the disturbing force is

(a) 0°

(b) 90°

(c) 180°

(d) 270°

11. In the figure given below, the points N1 and N2 are known as_______

a) Nodes
b) Elastic points
c) Inelastic points
d) Breaking points

12. In a three rotor system, free torsional vibration cannot occur if there is only one node.
a) True
b) False

13. In which of the following condition torsional vibration will not take place, considering 3 rotors A, B and C. A is rotating in clockwise direction.
a) B in clockwise C in anticlockwise
b) C in clockwise B in anticlockwise
c) B and C in clockwise
d) B and C in anticlockwise

14. For occurrence of free torsional vibration in a three rotor system which of the condition is necessary?
a) Rotors moving in same direction
b) Rotors having same frequency
c) Rotors having different frequency
d) Rotors rotate in the same sense

15.the given figure, considering left end has one rotor, If the mass moment of inertia of the shaft till node N1 is increased to four times, then what will be the effect on free torsional vibrations of a rotor at left end of N1?

a) Increases 4 times
b) Increases 2 times
c) Decreases 4 times
d) Decreases 2 times

16.In the given figure if N1 is the node then N1Q acts as which of the following system?

a) Single rotor system
b) Two rotor system
c) Three rotor system
d) Four rotor system

16. Keeping the mass moment of inertia of left end and the right end shafts in a three rotor system same, if the length of one shaft is doubled what should be the effect on the length of other shaft?

b) Halved

c) Constant

d) Increased to 4 times

17. Free torsional vibrations will occur in a three rotor system only if all rotors have same frequency.

b) False

18 What is the total number of nodes formed in a three rotor system if the rotors at one of the ends and the one in the middle rotate in the same direction?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

19.For a three rotor system in the figure given below, the length of one shaft(P) is twice the other(Q), then what is the relation between the Mass moment of inertia of the shafts.

a) 2I(P) = I(Q)
b) I(P) = 2I(Q)
c) I(P) = I(Q)
d) 2I(P) = 3I(Q)

20. In a three rotor system, for the middle rotor, if the stiffness of both the length either side of the rotor is increased to two times what will be the effect on total stiffness of the middle rotor?

a) Remains constant

b) Decreases by two times

c) Increases by two times

d) Increases by 4 times

21. From the following data, calculate the equivalent length of shaft in m.

d₁=0.095m, d₂=0.06m, d₃=0.05m

a) 8.95

b) 7.95

c) 6.95

d) 5.95

22. In a system with different shaft parameters, the longest shaft is taken for calculations.

a) True

b) False

23. From the following data, calculate natural frequency of free torsional vibrations in Hz.

l₁=0.6m, l₂=0.5m, l₃=0.4m

d₁=0.095m, d₂=0.06m, d₃=0.05m

Ma = 900 Kg, Mb = 700 Kg

ka = 0.85m, kb = 0.55m

C = 80 GN/m²

a) 3.37

b) 7.95

c) 6.95

d) 5.95

24. From the following data, calculate the location of node from the left end of shaft (l₁).

l₁=0.6m, l₂=0.5m, l₃=0.4m

d₁=0.095m, d₂=0.06m, d₃=0.05m

Ma = 900 Kg, Mb = 700 Kg

ka = 0.85m, kb = 0.55m

a) 0.855m

b) 0.795m

c) 0.695m

d) 0.595m

25. For a vibration system having different shaft parameters, calculate which of the following cannot be the diameter of the equivalent shaft if the diameters of shafts in m are: 0.05, 0.06, 0.07.

a) 0.05

b) 0.06

c) 0.07

d) 0.08

26. A single cylinder oil engine works with a three rotor system, the shaft length is 2.5m and 70mm in diameter, the middle rotor is at a distance 1.5m from one end. Calculate the free torsional vibration frequency for a single node system in Hz if the mass moment of inertia of rotors in Kg-m² are: 0.15, 0.3 and 0.09. C=84 kN/mm²

a) 171

b) 181

c) 191

d) 201

27. A single cylinder oil engine works with a three rotor system, the shaft length is 2.5m and 70mm in diameter, the middle rotor is at a distance 1.5m from one end. Calculate the free torsional vibration frequency for a two node system in Hz if the mass moment of inertia of rotors in Kg-m² are: 0.15, 0.3 and 0.09. C=84 kN/mm²

a) 257

b) 281

c) 197

d) 277

28. Frequency is independent of the no. of nodes.

a) True

b) False

29. The ratio of the actual damping coefficient (c) to the critical damping coefficient (cc ) is known as _________

a) Damping factor

b) Damping coefficient

c) Resistive factor

d) Resistive coefficient

30. Calculate critical damping coefficient in Ns/m from the following data.

mass = 200Kg

ω = 20rad/s

a) 25,132

b) 26,132

c) 27,132

d) Not possible

31. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N/m/s from the following data:

mass = 100Kg

ω = 40rad/s

a) 25,132

b) 26,132

c) 27,132

d) 28,132

32. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N/m/s from the following data:

mass = 100Kg

ω = 10rad/s

a) 5,132

b) 6,283

c) 7,132

d) 8,132

33. Calculate damping ratio from the following data:

mass = 200Kg

ω = 20rad/s

damping coefficient = 800 N/m/s

a) 0.03

b) 0.04

c) 0.05

d) 0.06

34. Calculate damping ratio from the following data:

mass = 200Kg

ω = 20rad/s

damping coefficient = 1000 N/m/s

a) 0.03

b) 0.04

c) 0.05

d) 0.06

35. Unit of damping factor is N/m/s.

a) True

b) False

36. Magnification factor is the ratio of the maximum displacement due to forced vibrations to the deflection due to _______

a) Static force

b) Dynamic force

c) Torsion

d) Compression

37. Maximum displacement due to forced vibration is dependent on deflection due to static force.

a) True

b) False

38. In which of the cases the factor c = 0?

a) When there is damping

b) No damping

c) Resonance

d) c is never 0

39. A body of mass 20 kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 20mm under this load. Calculate the frequency of free vibrations in Hz.

a) 3.5

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

40. If the mass increases, then the frequency of the free vibrations increases.

a) True

b) False

Unit 4 - Forced Vibration

1. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said to have

b) forced vibration

c) damped vibration

d) none of the mentioned

2. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves

b) parallel to its axis

c) in a circle about its axis

d) none of the mentioned

3. When a body is subjected to transverse vibrations, the stress induced in a body will be

a) shear stress

b) tensile stress

c) compressive stress

d) none of the mentione

4. The natural frequency (in Hz) of free longitudinal vibrations is equal to

b) 1/2π√g/δ

c) 0.4985/δ

d) all of the mentioned

5. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

b) span of the shaft

c) eccentricity

d) all of the mentioned

6. The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous damping is

d2x/dt2 + c/m X dx/dt + s/m X x = 0

If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be

a) over damped

b) under damped

c) critically damped

d) none of the mentioned

7. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to

a) x1/x2

b) log (x1/x2)

c) loge (x1/x2)

d) log (x1.x2

8. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the static force, is known as

a) damping factor

b) damping coefficient

c) logarithmic decrement

d) magnification factor

9. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn is less than √2 , then for all values of the damping factor, the transmissibility will be

a) less than unity

b) equal to unity

c) greater than unity

d) zero

where ω = Circular frequency of the system in rad/s, and

ωn = Natural circular frequency of vibration of the system in rad/s.

10. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 1, then the phase difference between the transmitted force and the disturbing force is

a) 0°

b) 90°

c) 180°

d) 270°

11. The ratio of the actual damping coefficient (c) to the critical damping coefficient (cc ) is known as _________

b) Damping coefficient

c) Resistive factor

d) Resistive coefficient

12. Calculate critical damping coefficient in Ns/m from the following data.

ω = 20rad/s

a) 25,132

b) 26,132

c) 27,132

d) Not possible

13. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N/m/s from the following data:

ω = 40rad/s

a) 25,132

b) 26,132

c) 27,132

d) 28,132

14. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N/m/s from the following data:

ω = 10rad/s

a) 5,132

b) 6,283

c) 7,132

d) 8,132

15. Calculate damping ratio from the following data:

ω = 20rad/s

damping coefficient = 800 N/m/s

a) 0.03

b) 0.04

c) 0.05

d) 0.06

16. Calculate damping ratio from the following data:

ω = 20rad/s

damping coefficient = 1000 N/m/s

a) 0.03

b) 0.04

c) 0.05

d) 0.06

17. Unit of damping factor is N/m/s.

b) False

18. Magnification factor is the ratio of the maximum displacement due to forced vibrations to the deflection due to _______

b) Dynamic force

c) Torsion

d) Compression

19. Maximum displacement due to forced vibration is dependent on deflection due to static force.

b) False

20. In which of the cases the factor c = 0?

b) No damping

c) Resonance

d) c is never 0

21. A body of mass 20 kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 20mm under this load. Calculate the frequency of free vibrations in Hz.

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

22. If the mass increases, then the frequency of the free vibrations increases.

b) False

23. Which of the following systems produce a vibration in the foundation?

b) Balanced machine

c) Coupled machine

d) Uncoupled machine

24. When a periodic disturbing force is applied to a machine, the force is transmitted to the foundation by the means of spring.

b) False

25. Which of the following is correct regarding isolation factor?

b) Has Newton as its unit

c) Has joule as its Unit

d) Has Hz as its unit

26. Which of the following is a type of transmitted force to the foundation?

b) Undamping force

c) Tensile force

d) Torsional force

27. If the damper is not provided and the system is in resonance, which of the following is the correct isolation factor?

b) 1/2

c) 1/4

d) Infinity

28. If isolation factor is negative, then what is the phase difference between transmitted and disturbing force?

b) 90°

c) 450°

d) 360°

29. Which of the following is true regarding Ɛ>1?

b) Transmitted force is less than applied force

c) Spring force is less than applied force

d) Damping force is less than applied force

30. Isolation factor is twice the transmissibility ratio.

b) False

Unit 5 - Mechanism for control

1. 1. The height of a Watt’s governor (in metres) in equal to

(a) 8.95/N2

(b) 89.5/N2

(c) 895/N2

(d) 8950/N2

where N = Speed of the arm and ball about the spindle axis.

2. 2. The ratio of the height of a Porter governor (when the length of arms and links are equal) to the height of a Watt’s governor is

Ans :(C)

1. 3. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed

(a) increases

(b) decreases

2. 4. A Hartnell governor is a

(a) pendulum type governor

(b) spring loaded governor

(d) inertia governor

3. 5. Which of the following governor is used to drive a gramophone ?

(a) Watt governor

(b) Porter governor

(c) Pickering governor

(d) Hartnell governor

4. 6. Which of the following is a spring controlled governor?

(a) Hartnell

(b) Hartung

(d) all of these

5. 7. For two governors A and B, the lift of sleeve of governor A is more than that of governor B, for a given fractional change in speed. It indicates that

(a) governor A is more sensitive than governor B

(b) governor B is more sensitive than governor A

(d) none of the above

6. 8. The sensitiveness of a governor is given by

Ans: (B)

1. 9. In a Hartnell governor, if a spring of greater stiffness is used, then the governor will be

(a) more sensitive

(b) less sensitive

2. 10. A governor is said to be hunting, if the speed of the engine

(a) remains constant at the mean speed

(b) is above the mean speed

(d) fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed.

3. 11. A hunting governor is

(a) more stable

(b) less sensitive

(c) more sensitive

(d) none of these

4. 12. Isochronism in a governor is desirable when

(a) the engine operates at low speeds

(b) the engine operates at high speeds

(d) one speed is desired under one load

5. 13. The power of a governor is equal to

Ans: (D)

1. 14. When the relation between the controlling force (FC ) and radius of rotation (r) for a spring controlled governor is FC = a.r + b, then the governor will be

(a) stable

(b) unstable

2. 15. For a governor, if FC is the controlling force, r is the radius of rotation of the balls, the stability of the governor will be ensured when

Ans: (A)

1. 16.A disc is spinning with an angular velocity ω rad/s about the axis of spin. The couple applied to the disc causing precession will be

Ans :(D)

1. 17. A disc spinning on its axis at 20 rad/s will undergo precession when a torque 100 N-m is applied about an axis normal to it at an angular speed, if mass moment of inertia of the disc is the 1 kg-m2

(a) 2 rad/s

(b) 5 rad/s

(d) 20 rad/s

2. 18. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be

(a) to raise the nose and dip the tail

(b) to dip the nose and raise the tail

(d) to dip the nose and tail

3. 19. The air screw of an aeroplane is rotating clockwise when looking from the front. If it makes a left turn, the gyroscopic effect will

(a) tend to depress the nose and raise the tail

(b) tend to raise the nose and depress the tail

(d) none of the above

4. 20.The rotor of a ship rotates in clockwise direction when viewed from the stern and the ship takes a left turn. The effect of the gyroscopic couple acting on it will be

(a) to raise the bow and stern

(b) to lower the bow and stern

(c) to raise the bow and lower the stern

(d) to lower the bow and raise the stern

5. 21. When the pitching of a ship is upward, the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be

(a) to move the ship towards port side

(b) to move the ship towards star-board

(d) to raise the stern and lower the bow

6. 22. In an automobile, if the vehicle makes a left turn, the gyroscopic torque

(a) increases the forces on the outer wheels

(b) decreases the forces on the outer wheels

(d) none of the above

7. 23. A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a curved path. If the engine rotates in the same direction as that of wheels, then due to the centrifugal forces

(a) the reaction on the inner wheels increases and on the outer wheels decreases

(b) the reaction on the outer wheels increases and on the inner wheels decreases

(d) the reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels decreases

24. It is required to lift water at the top of a high building at the rate of 50 litres/min. Assuming the losses due to friction equivalent to 5 m and those due to leakage equal to 5 m head of water, efficiency of pump 90%, decide the kilowatt capacity of motor required to drive the pump.
a) 0.102 kW
b) 0.202 kW
c) 0.302 kW
d) 0.402 kW

25. A power screw is rotated at constant angular speed of 1.5 revolutions/sec by applying a steady torque of 1.5Nm. How much work is done per revolution? What is the power required?
a) 141.36 W
b) 241.36 W
c) 341.36 W
d) 441.36 W

26. Power is transmitted by an electric motor to a machine by using a belt drive. The tensions on the tight and slack side of the belt are 2200 N and 1000 N respectively and diameter of the pulley is 600 mm. If speed of the motor is 1500 r.p.m, find the power transmitted.
a) 46.548 kW
b) 56.548 kW
c) 66.548 kW
d) 76.548 kW

27. The flywheel of an engine has a mass of 200 kg and radius of gyration equal to 1 m. The average torque on the flywheel is 1200 Nm. Find the angular acceleration of flywheel and the angular speed after 10 seconds starting from rest.
a) 3 rad/s
b) 4 rad/s
c) 5 rad/s
d) 6 rad/s

28. Calculate the moment of inertia and radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass 10 kg and diameter 6.5m about its centroidal axis.
a) 2.055 m
b) 3.055 m
c) 4.055 m
d) 5.055 m

29. Calculate the work done per minute by a punch tool making 20 working strokes per min when a 30 mm diametre hole is punched in 5 mm thick plate with ultimate shear strength og 450 Mpa in each stroke.
a) 10.69 kNm
b) 20.69 kNm
c) 30.69 kNm
d) 40.69 kNm

30. In latitude 25.0 S, SA (spin axis) of a FG (free gyro) is in position S40E and horizontal. Find the tilt after 6 hours.
a) 61.16 up
b) 61.16 down
c) 51.15 up
d) none of the mentioned

31. The steering of a ship means
a) movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about transverse axis
b) turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right r left, while it moves forward
c) rolling of a complete ship sideways
d) none of the mentioned

32. When the pitching of a ship is upward, the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be
a) to move the ship towards starboard
b) to move the ship towards port side
c) to raise the bow and lower the stern
d) to raise the stern and lower the bow

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2021-06-01T13:51:00.003+05:30

Mechanical Engineering

ME8501 - Metrology and Measurement | MCQ

Important Part A Q & A (Multiple choices based)

Unit 1: Basics of Metrology

1. The various applications of legal metrology includes:-

a) Industrial Measurement b) Commercial Transactions

c) Public Health and Human Safety d) All of them ANS : (D)

2. The difference between maximum value and minimum value of the

instrument is termed as

a) Sensitivity b) Reliability c) Range d) Repeatability ANS : (C)

3. _____are simple to manufacture with low cost and enables easy,

quick measurement

a) Line Standard b) End Standard

c) Principle Standard d) Working Standard ANS : (A)

4. Type of error which occurs as the results of the absolute error and the value

of comparison used for the calculation of absolute error is:

a) Calibration error b) Complementary error c) Loading error

d) Relative error ANS : (D)

5. Metrology dealing with the technique of measuring small variations of a

continuous nature is termed as

a) Fundamental Metrology b) Dynamic Metrology

c) Legal Metrology d) Scientific Metrology ANS : (B)

6. If the temperature is 280C outside and a temperature sensor reads 280C, then

the sensor is said to be

a) Precise b) Imperfect c) Accurate d) requires service ANS : (C)

7. A deflection type weighing scale with a 30 cm scale span will have

when compared to a weighing scale with a 15 cm scale span

a) Higher readability b) lower readability c) same readability d) Zero readability ANS : (A)

8. Error due to temperature and error due to friction are categorized as

a) Static error b) Instrumental Error c) Observational error d) Minute

Error ANS : (B)

9. Sensitivity of a measuring instrument is calculated as:-

a) Infinitesimal change of Output signal / Infinitesimal change of Input signal

b) Infinitesimal change of Input signal / Infinitesimal change of Output signal

c) Magnitude of output Signal

d) Magnitude of input Signal ANS : (A)

10. A thermometer is calibrated from 2000C to 3000C. If its accuracy is specified

within + 0.25%, What will be its maximum static error?

a) 2500C b) + 0.500C c) 3500C d) + 0.250C ANS : (D)

11. Standards in the form of blocks or bars with two faces or ends which are at a

defined distance apart are termed as

a) Line Standard b) Principle Standard

c) End Standard d) Working Standard ANS : (C)

12. Percentage of true value is

a) (Measured Value – True Value) / Measured Value

b) (Measured Value – True Value) / True Value

c) (True Value – Measured Value) / True Value

d) (True Value – Measured Value) / Measured Value ANS : (B)

13. Which of the following is not a line standard?

a) Yard

b) Meter

c) Precision scale

d) Length bar ANS : (D)

14. Which of the following is incorrect about line standard?

a) These are legal standards

b) A round recess, half inch away from the ends is cut at both ends

c) Slope at the ends is zero

d) Points of supports are called ‘Airy’ points ANS : (B)

15. Which of the following option is correct about given statements related to

end standards?

Statement 1: It is possible to transfer line standard to end standard.

Statement 2: Size of end bars varies from 5 mm to 100 mm only.

a) T, F

b) F, F

c) T, T

d) F, T ANS : (A)

16. Which of the following is incorrect about end standards?

a) End of micrometer anvil is the end standard

b) It is difficult to form 2 parallel surfaces at the end of a bar

c) Slip gauges were made of more length than legal line standard

d) It is difficult to heat treat the ends ANS : (C)

17. Which of the option is correct about given statements factors affecting

standards?

Statement 1: A uniform temperature is important in metrology labs.

Statement 2: Ambient temperature may change by convection, conduction and

radiation.

a) Only statement 1 is correct

b) Only statement 2 is correct

c) Both the statements are correct

d) Both the statements are false ANS : (C)

18. What is the full form of TEI?

a) Total error index

b) Total expansion index

c) Thermal expansion instrument

d) Thermal error index ANS : (D)

19. Which of the following option is not suitable for environmental conditions in

labs?

a) Wet dust particles decrease insulation resistance

b) Dry dust increase surface resistivity

c) A negative air pressure should be maintained in labs

d) Electrostatic precipitators used to collect dust particles ANS : (C)

20. Which of the following is incorrect about the metre (line standard)?

a) It is inoxidisable

b) Kept at 10oC

c) Supported by two rollers

d) Have a web type section ANS : (B)

Unit 2: Linear and Angular Measurement

1. A 250 mm sine bar is to be set to an angle of 3505’6”. Find the height of the

gauge blocks required using set of gauge blocks:-

a) 65.03 mm b) 175.065 mm c) 191.04 mm d) 15.05 cm ANS : (B)

2. Uses of angle dekkor includes:-

a) measuring the angle of a component b) checking the slope angle of a Vblock

c) measuring the angle of taper guage d) All of the above ANS : (D)

3. Unique feature of the electrical and electronic comparator includes:-

a) It is cheaper than mechanical comparator

b) Pointer is heavy and less sensitive to vibration

c) Very High Magnification and less number of moving parts

d) External power supply is not required to actuate the motor ANS : (C)

4. A limit guage is not a t . They are just used as t .t

a) measuring guage, inspecting guage b) inspecting guage, measuring guage

c) measuring guage, comparators d) calibration instrument, inspection

instrument ANS : (A)

5. A 100 mm sine bar is used to measure the taper angle of the specimen and

guage block was 5.055 mm. What will be the taper angle?

a) 2053’ b) 3041’ c) 1066’ d) 5033’ ANS : (A)

6. Applications of bevel protactor includes:-

a) checking the angle of V block b) measuring the angle of the

component

c) checking the inside beveled face of a ground surface d) All of the above ANS : (D)

7. The minimum value that can be measured using any measuring instrument is

called as of that particular instrument

a) Main scale reading b) Vernier scale reading c) Least count d) Zero

coincidence ANS : (C)

8. Factors to be considered for selecting the materials to manufacture slip

gauges includes:-

a) Availability of material, cost of material and material durability

b) High hardness, temperature stability and corrosion resistance

c) High quality finish, material recyclability and wear properties

d) Ease of availability, thermal properties and friction characteristics ANS : (B)

9. Sine bar is used to measure the

a) taper of horizontal surfaces b) taper of vertical surfaces

c) taper of cylindrical surfaces d) taper of drilled and bored holes ANS : (B)

10. Optical flat is an linear measuring instrument belonging to the category of

a) high resolution devices (less than microns)

b) low resolution devices (upto 0.25 mm)

c) medium resolution devices ( upto 0.0025 mm)

d) high resolution devices (greater than microns) ANS : (A)

11. Wear allowance in guage design is:-

a) 5% of work tolerance b) 10% of work tolerance

c) 10 – 20% of guage tolerance d) both (a) and (c) ANS : (D)

12. The difference between the basic sizes of mating parts is termed as

a) Tolerance b) Zero Line c) Allowance d) Form tolerance ANS : (C)

13. Which of the following is correct about the hardness of angle plates?

a) Minimum hardness of 100 HB

b) Minimum hardness of 180 HB

c) Maximum hardness of 180 HB

d) Maximum hardness of 100 HB ANS : (B)

14. Which of the following grade of a hole is mostly used for non-circular fits?

a) H5

b) H6

c) H7

d) H9 ANS : (D)

15. Which of the following is not true for fixed gauges?

a) Independent of availability of power supply

b) These are not expensive

c) Chances of human errors are more

d) Provide uniform reference standard ANS : (C)

16. Which of the following option is incorrect with respect to angle gauges?

a) Sine bar is better than angle gauges

b) Angle gauges are made of high carbon high chromium steel

c) Angle gauges can measure the angle from 0 to 360 degrees

d) They are available in two sets of 13 and 16 gauges ANS : (A)

17. How much extra thickness is added to tang thickness in tanged plug gauge?

a) 0.1 mm

b) 0.05 mm

c) 0.01 mm

d) 0.5 mm ANS : (C)

18. ‘Go limit’ applied to which limit condition?

a) Maximum material limit

b) Minimum material limit

c) Lower limit of shaft and upper limit of hole

d) Moderate material limit ANS : (A)

19. What is the use of ratchet stop in micrometer?

a) Prevent motion of spindle

b) Maintain uniform measuring pressure

c) Provide measuring surface

d) Forms measuring tip ANS : (B)

20. Which of the following is not a common basic form of slip gauge?

a) Rectangular

b) Square with centre hole

c) Square without centre hole

d) Parallelogram ANS : (D)

21. How many grades or classes of slip gauges are present?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 6

d) 4 ANS : (B)

22. What is the approximate size of slip gauges?

a) 30mm long and 10mm wide

b) 45mm long and 15mm wide

c) 20mm long and 5mm wide

d) 25mm long and 10mm wide ANS : (A)

23. Which of the following is not a slip gauge accessory?

a) Measuring jaws

b) Holder

c) Rod clamp

d) Base ANS : (C)

24.Which of the following is incorrect about bench micrometer?

a) Anvil retractor device

b) High precision micrometer head

c) Non-adjustable work table

d) Interchangeable dial indicator ANS : (C)

25. Which of the following is incorrect for vernier height gauge?

a) Both the surfaces of measuring jaw should be at 45o to the base

b) These gauges can be used for scribing purposes

c) Removable clamps are used

d) Surface plate is used as datum surface for measurements ANS : (A)

Unit 3: Advances in Metrology

1. Advantages of employing lasers in metrology applications includes:-

a) High precision, fast data acquisition, non contact measurement

b) Cost effective, improved technology, more moving parts

c) More wear and tear, cheaper, greater longevity

d) Accurate, Slow and steady, Higher durability ANS : (A)

2. ____is a device or surface that reflects light back to its source with

a minimum scattering of light and also reflects the beam parallel to incident

beam

a) Laser micrometer b) Beam splitter c) Trigger Probe d) Retro – reflector ANS : (D)

3. The different stages involved in the machine vision based measurement are:-

a) Image capture, Image digitalization, Image rotation and Image Enhancement

b) 1D Vision System, 2D Vision System and 3D Vision System

c) Image formation, Image processing, Image analysis and Interpretation

d) All of the above ANS : (C)

4. Alignment of test piece is not necessary in:-

a) Conventional Metrology b) Coordinate Metrology c) Legal Metrology

d) Dimensional Metrology ANS : (B)

5. ____is defined as a line where all elements of a line are collinear

a) Flatness b) Straightness c) Out of roudness d) Eccentricity ANS : (B)

6. Various types of CMM includes:-

a) Cantilever type, Bridge type, Column type and Gantry Type

b) Vertical type, Cross Hang type, Arm Type and 3600 type

c) Circular type, Bridge type, Beam Type and Gantry type

d) Horizontal Arm type, Radial type, Overhanging type and Flat type ANS : (A)

7. Advantages of using laser interferometer in straightness testing are:-

a) low signal to noise ratio, high accuracy and greater resolution

b) High linearity, High resolution c) easy to use, compact

d) Both (b) and (c) ANS : (D)

8. Krypton Ion lasers and Semiconductor lasers belongs to the category of

a) Optically pumped solid state lasers b) Liquid lasers

c) Gas lasers d) Dye lasers ANS : (C)

9. Determination of size, form, location and orientation in one setup using one

reference system is employed in

a) Industrial Metrology b) Coordinate Metrology

c) Fundamental Metrology d) Conventional Metrology ANS : (B)

10. are optical instruments for measuring flatness, determining

length of slip gauges by direct reference to light wavelength

a) Beam Splitter b) Optical Comparator c) Interferometer d) Machine

Vision ANS : (C)

11. Drawbacks of Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM) includes:-

a) Probe run out, Prone perpendicularity errors

b) Longer setup and recording time, increased cost of fixturing & maintenance cost

c) Imperfect alignments w.r.t table and probe, errors in the digital system

d) both (a) and (c) ANS : (D)

12._____ is the minimum distance between two planes within which all

points on a surface lie.

a) Flatness b) Straightness c) Out of roudness d) Eccentricity ANS : (A)

13. What is the use of an interference microscope?

a) Measure depth of scratches

b) Measure width of crack

c) Develop a permanent visual record

d) Only illuminate the cracks ANS : (A)

14. For what distance, videoscopes are used with CCD probes for electronic

transmission?

a) Less than 15 m

b) More than 15 m

c) Less than 10 m

d) More than 10 m ANS : (B)

15. Which of the following is not true about metrology lasers used in laser

inspection?

a) These are high-power instruments

b) Used for rapid non-contact gauging of delicate parts

c) Have low optical cross-talk

d) Wide dynamic range ANS : (A)

16. Which technique is not suitable to measure large diameter parts or large

gaps?

a) Diffraction pattern technique

b) Scanning laser technique

c) Photodiode array imaging

d) Laser triangulation sensor ANS : (A)

17. Which of the following is true about resolution in two frequency laser

interferometer?

a) Straightness resolution – 90 nm

b) Angular resolution – 3 arc seconds

c) Flatness resolution – 2 nm

d) Linear resolution – 1 nm ANS : (D)

18. Which application is ideally suited for two frequency laser interferometer?

a) Pitch and yaw measurement

b) Hole diameters

c) Thickness measurement

d) Measurement of edge locations ANS : (A)

19. Which technique from given laser inspection techniques is useful for

measuring the diameter of hot steel bars?

a) Laser scanning gauge

b) Frequency laser interferometer

c) Laser triangulation sensors

d) Photodiode array imaging ANS : (A)

20. What precise movement does CMM have?

a) Precise movement in x coordinate

b) Precise movement in x and y coordinates

c) Precise movement in y and z coordinates

d) Precise movement in x, y and z coordinates ANS : (D)

21. Which type of CMM is most suited for large heavy workpieces?

a) Cantilever type

b) Bridge type

c) Horizontal boring mill type

d) Floating bridge type ANS : (C)

22. What is the cause of translational errors in CMM?

a) Error in scale division

b) Error in straightness

c) Twisting error

d) Roll error ANS : (B)

23. Which of the following is true for trigger type probe system used in

computer controlled CMM?

a) Bucking mechanism is a 2 point bearing

b) Current coordinate position stored when circuit is close

c) Contacts of point bearing arranged at 90 degree

d) Contacts of point bearing act as electrical micro switches ANS : (D)

24. To what degree the edges of optical flats are bevelled?

a) 30o

b) 45o

c) 60o

d) 90o ANS : (B)

25. Which light is preferred if three dimensional features are being inspected?

a) Front lighting

b) Side lighting

c) Backlighting

d) Any lighting is suited ANS : (B)

Unit 4: Form Measurement

1. Amount of tooth space between mating gears at the pitch circle diameter is

termed as:-

a) Helix angle b) Undulation c) Backlash d) Module ANS : (C)

2. What is the helix angle of M 50X3 2 – start thread?

a) 2011’ b) 30 c) 15.40 d) 450 ANS : (A)

3. Methods used for evaluating the surface finish includes:-

a) Peak to valley height method b) Average roughness method

c) base tangent method d) Both (a) and (b) ANS : (D)

4. The two corrections applied for the measurement of the effective diameter

are:-

a) Thread Correction and Rake Correction

b) Rake Correction and Compression Correction

c) Pitch Correction and Thread Correction

d) Rake Correction and Profile Correction ANS : (B)

5. In auto collimator, the instrument is placed at a distance of

from the surface to be tested

a) 3 metres b) 0.75 mm c) 0.5 m to 0.75 m d) 1m to 2 m ANS : (C)

6. The various methods employed for measuring pitch diameter includes:-

a) Pitch Measuring machine b) Tool maker’s microscope c) Screw pitch guage

d) All of the above ANS : (D)

7. The outside diameter of a gear is 110 mm and the number of teeth is 20. What

is the module of the gear?

a) 6 mm b) 2 mm c) 4 mm d) 10 mm ANS : (A)

8. The maximum wavelength considered for the measurement of surface

roughness is known as:-

a) Waviness b) Cut – off length c) Secondary texture d) Material ratio ANS : (B)

9. refers to the condition of a hole or shaft when the maximum

material is left on i.e., high limit of a shaft and low limit of a hole

a) Maximum metal condition b) Maximum metal condition

c) Least metal condition d) Backlash ANS : (A)

10.What is the span length over 5 teeth of gear having 45 teeth, module 4 mm

and pressure angle 200?

a) 20 mm b) 67.46 mm c) 12.72 mm d) 31.77 mm ANS : (B)

11. The various stylus probe instruments used for surface finish measurement:-

a) Parkinson gear tester b) Tool maker’s microscope

c) Screw pitch guage d) None of the above ANS : (D)

12. Lead is distance a screw thread advances in one turn & is mathematically

expressed as

a) Pitch circle diameter / No of teeth b) No of teeth X Pitch circle diameter

c) No of starts X Pitch d) No of starts / Pitch ANS : (C)

13. What is the load condition when a relative alignment of machine parts and

accuracy of control devices measured?

a) No load condition

b) Half load condition

c) Full load condition

d) One-fourth load condition ANS : (A)

14. In what direction the parallelism of the main spindle to saddle movement is

checked?

a) Vertical direction

b) Horizontal direction

c) Both vertical and horizontal direction

d) At an angle ANS : (C)

15. What is profile error?

a) The minimum distance of any point on the profile of tooth form and normal to the

design profile when the two coincide at the reference circle

b) The minimum distance of any point on the profile of tooth form and parallel to the

design profile when the two coincide at the reference circle

c) The maximum distance of any point on the profile of tooth form and parallel to the

design profile when the two coincide at the reference circle

d) The maximum distance of any point on the profile of tooth form and normal

to the design profile when the two coincide at the reference circle ANS : (D)

16. What is undulation?

a) Departure of the actual tooth surface from design surface

b) Departure of the virtual tooth surface from design surface

c) Departure of the design surface from actual tooth surface

d) Departure of the design surface from virtual tooth surface ANS : (A)

17. What is the effect of improper alignment of each tooth?

a) Tooth thickness increases

b) Face width decreases

c) Load will not distributed evenly

d) Pitch of teeth reduced ANS : (C)

18. Which of the following element is not determined by analytical inspection?

a) Profile

b) Composite vibrations

c) Spacing

d) Pitch ANS : (B)

19. Which of the following is the correct mathematical formula for module?

a) D/N

b) D/2N

c) 2D/N

d) 4D/N ANS : (A)

20. How many variables are taken into consideration for the calculation of

effective diameter tolerance?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4 ANS : (C)

21. What is the relation between close fit and free fit?

a) Close fit tolerance is one third of free fit

b) Close fit tolerance is one half of free fit

c) Close fit tolerance is two thirds of free fit

d) Close fit tolerance is three fourths of free fit ANS : (C)

22. How many types of tolerances are there in screw thread gauge tolerance?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 5

d) 4 ANS : (B)

23. What is the correct way to write pitch diameter combination of thread size

20mm and pitch 2.5mm?

a) M 20:2.5

b) M {20,2.5}

c) M 20×2.5

d) M 20-2.5 ANS : (C)

24. What is the importance of the valley in any irregular surface?

a) Reduce metal to metal contact

b) Retain film of lubricating oil

c) Reduce stress concentration

d) Improve surface texture ANS : (B)

25. Which of the following is true about Tomlinson surface meter?

a) It is a mechanical instrument

b) It is an electrical instrument

c) It is a mechanical cum optical instrument

d) It is an optical instrument ANS : (C)

Unit 5: Measurement of Power, Flow and Temperature

1. _____is an electro mechanical transducer that converts load / force

acting on it into an analog electrical signal

a) Load cell b) Pendulum scale c) Dynamometer d) Pressductor ANS : (A)

2. Unique features of orifice meter includes:-

a) loss of head is low, no wear & tear

b) Easy installation & replacement, less space required, low initial cost

c) less chances of corrosion, clogging due to solid particles is low

d) All of the above ANS : (B)

3. Laws of thermocouples includes:-

a) Law of intermediate temperatures b) Law of intermediate materials

c) Law of microstructure d) Both (a) and (b) ANS : (D)

4. The semi conductor device which has a negative temperature coefficient of

resistance is:-

a) Pressductor b) Dynamometer c) Thermistor d) Transducer ANS : (C)

5. Bourdon tube is a simple tube, which expands when it is exposed to______ .

This expansion is the measure of_____

a) Pressure, force b) Pressure, pressure c) Force, Pressure d) Force,

force ANS : (B)

6. Applications of ultrasonic flow meter includes:-

a) Shock wave interaction

b) Measurement of flow between blades of turbines

c) Remote sensing of wind velocities

d) both (b) and (c) ANS : (D)

7. Electromagnetic radiation emitted by a body as a result of its temperature is

termed as

a) Thermal radiation b) Magnetic radiation c) X-ray radiation d) Gamma

radiation ANS : (A)

8. Transformation of the kinetic energy of a liquid into potential energy is in the

form a static head in

a) Ultrasonic flow meter b) Transducer c) Pitot tube d) Dynamometer ANS : (C)

9. Examples of Inertial type of flow meters includes:-

a) Venturimeter b) Orifice meter c) Pitot tube d) All of the above ANS : (D)

10. RTDs act similar to a and it converts the temperature to

by the measurement of resistance.

a) Electrical transducer, temperature signals

b) Electrical transducer, voltage signals

c) Theromocouple, temperature signals d) Theromocouple, voltage signals ANS : (B)

11. List of commonly used materials for the thermocouple are:-

a) Alumel, Copper, Platinum, Rhodium

b) Aluminium, Copper, Magnesium, Gold

c) Gold, Silver, Ceramics, Titanium

d) Tungsten, Diamond, Stainless steel, Gold ANS : (A)

12.The device used for high velocity flow measurement where erosion or

cavitation could damage an orifice plate is called as

a) Venturimeter b) Thermocouple c) Flow nozzle d) Orifice meter ANS : (C)

13. What is the general instrument cut off for majority engineering work?

a) 0.08 mm

b) 0.8 mm

c) 0.1 cm

d) 0.5 mm ANS : (B)

14. Instrument which is designed to eliminate the personal element of feel when

setting a measuring instrument is called

A. Fiducial indicator

B. Zero setting device

C. Auxiliary measuring instrument

D. Measuring standard ANS : (A)

15. What is the upper limit that is commonly accepted for waviness

measurement?

a) 10mm

b) 20mm

c) 25mm

d) 15mm ANS : (C)

16. In _____________ velocity of fluid is constant on every point at a specific

time.

a) Steady flow

b) Rotational flow

c) Non steady flow

d) None of the mentioned ANS : (A)

17. Bernoulli’s theorem is applicable for fluid path with moderate frictional

force.

a) True c) partially true

b) False d) partially false ANS : (B)

18. _____________ measures velocity at a point of fluid in a stream.

a) Venturi meter

b) pH meter

c) Pitot-Static tubes

d) None of the mentioned ANS : (C)

19. Which of the following represents the correct relation between flow rate and

area of pipe?

a) Direct proportionality

b) Inverse proportionality

c) Equal

d) None of the mentioned ANS : (A)

20. Output of a bimetallic element will be __________________

a) Strain

b) Pressure

c) Displacement

d) Voltage ANS : (C)

21. In liquid in steel bulb thermometer, which liquid can be used for measuring

temperature up to 60000C?

a) Mercury

b) Ether

c) Water

d) None of the mentioned ANS : (A)

22. Which of the following is used as indication instrument in a liquid expansion

system?

a) Bellows

b) Bourdon tube

c) Ammeter

d) Thermometer ANS : (B)

23. Which of the following is true for bimetallic type thermometer?

a) Two metals have same temperature coefficients

b) Two metals have different temperature coefficient

c) One metal is cooled always

d) None of the mentioned ANS : (B)

24. Ratio of net amount of heat received and stored in the body for certain time

interval is known as _________________

a) Temperature

b) Thermal coefficient

c) Thermal storage capacity

d) None of the mentioned ANS : (C)

25. Heat transfer coefficient of a material with length l is _________

a) K/l

b) l/K

c) 1/K

d) Kl ANS : (A)

Also read : ME 8593 Design of mechine elements Mcq

OR 0551 Renewable energy sources Mcq

ME 8595 Thermal Engineering 2 Mcq

ME 8594 Dynamics of machines Mcq

Which is a good place to photograph the sunrise ?

2021-05-31T21:04:00.002+05:30

SUNRISE scenerio is the most beautifull thing which photographers capture . before i start this i will share some camp memories .during my school days we often go an picnic or camp for an adventure.

On the year 2015 we planned to visit kanyakumari for sunrise view point and other some tourist places like padmanabapuram palace etc.. we stayed in that place over 3days. Eagerly woke up before sunrise time around 4.45 am .and visited the sunrise view point near the sea.

one of the best moment which i have ever seen .It will looks like a sun arise from the sea level .I captured the live moment with the lens, after that we would traveled to many other places in kanyakumari. but I'm damn sure sunrise view point is must watchable one. I surely say that the good place to photograph the sunrise is Kanyakumari. it also a best place to capture the sunset too...

By the way the above mentioned picture is not taken at Kanyakumari. It is capture by me near chennai area.. In photography, the golden hour is the period of daytime shortly after sunrise or before sunset.

during which daylight is redder and softer than when the sun is higher in the sky. The golden hour is also sometimes called the "magic hour"

One of the toughest thing in photography is patience .

One who have more patience in life may will become a good photographer ..

Photography is the only thing which captures the best live moments and make it as memories .

Picture by Author

Location : Chennai

Students Mental health during Covid19

2021-05-31T11:57:00.155+05:30

Covid crisis | Mental health | Stiudent

This 1.5 years of lockdown ruined students career more .The mental health of students was more worser than that of normal routine . Everything was goes perfect till march 2020. The first COVID 19 case reports in india on the very first beginning of 2020 . The whole india shocks but no one aware of that virus that time . it starts gradually increasing . Schools and colleges declared holiday from march14 . On March 24th our honourable prime minister announces Nation wide lockdown for 14days. No one aware about the virus Covid19 . many people was don't follow the lockdown restrictions and roamed everywhere. After that the virus becomes uncontrollable and then lockdown extended every 14days finally it was almost over in december2020. eventhough it was couldnt lead to normal routine

Many of them lost their lived and loved ones . Everyone was affects physicall, mentally , financially... this pandemic shows that all are same EVERY PEOPLE ARE EQUAL . health is wealth . The entire period of lockdown students pursue their education in online mode . schools and colleges was choose online class platform to host and conducting classes . Students was not gain any technical knowledge throughout the period , only theoritical knowledge was teached. it could be a major drawback one who planned to do higher studies . Our Economy was affected more because there is no import and export .Companies were closed on that time. only IT sector continue their job in work from home manner

Many of the Mechanical engineering employees lost their job and suffered more. The NGO organisation was helped the needy people more on covid19 crisis. Humanity wins lets come to the point of student mental health in covid19

As a student i may narrate my story of college life . I started Engineering on 2018 , during the 4th sem of second year this pandemic happen. I happily goes college regularly and enjoy with my friends and always fear about exams and roaming in college . thats one type of enjoyments on those days . It is always memorable moments . suddenly this bloody virus happens and shattered many things . literally i was get depressed for so many silly things after that only i realized what is important and what i do essentially. Mental health is important .

Mental health is directly proportional to physical health . Expect less and accept more.

Now we are in 2021 the covid19 have changes its mutant rapidly and we are in second lockdown too.. but this time we have vaccine so little bit hope gained. Explore more on internet and learn more.. this is a competitive world, you must make it as yourself worthable .

STAY HOME ! STAY SAFE !

THANKS FOR READING

Why I Start Engage with Blogging ?

2021-05-30T11:56:00.008+05:30

Blogger | Engage with blogging

Hi everyone!

I'm the Author of Mystique Blogger site .I'm an overthinker and I had ideas and discussion going on in my mind then i create a blog for expressing myself. [ Mystique Blogger] | Blogging

I'm a solitude lover(who spend time alone) so sharing my inner thoughts with you makes me bliss . I had a confusion blogger , Wordpress , which one is better for smooth blogging. Many of them suggested blogger for me , because blogger is for beginners so i choose blogger and then create Blog in the address of bloggermystique.blogspot.com . I currently don't have a idea of buy a domain . i would like to post many articles and contents and then developed my blog after that getting adsense approval and may purchase the domain for cost, never mind..

The best thing about blogging is you may express your feelings and thoughts through words infinitely and you get paid too when your blog is become popular. The most important thing in blogging is Don't encourage AUTO BLOGGING and don't theft or copy others content . Post your unique and creative content and make your blog as unique one to get paid ..

In modern days, reading books and writing are very less in technological world but the blogger , wordpress encourage the writers to create such things.. its a good thing but unfortunately im the one who know about this in my age 21 and i felt more for that .

don't spend time with temporary peoples . make yourself as important and learn more explore more ..

I prefer this name Mystique Blogger in terms it refer it as reveal the mystery things unknown facts and break the myths

This blog is all about expressing myself and sharing tech news , Education , Photography and foodie things etc..

Basically i love script writing and content writing too.. that's why i expose those skill by blogging and make my time well utilize.. I engage with blogging for spend more time with me and improve myself..

Thank you! to all those readers who loved my post [Mystique Blogger] and connect to my blog , Happy sharing and be engage with me for more!...

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