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Vocational Science and Calculation Practice Exam Test 2

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 11 Jul 2020 20:30:00 +0530

Harmful radiation emitted by the sun is ?

A.	Ultra-violet
B.	Radio-waves
C.	visible
D.	infra-red

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

ultraviolet (UV) radiation. This type of energy is so harmful to our heath that the United States Department of Health and Human Services and the World Health Organization declared it a carcinogen, especially of the skin (it cannot penetrate deep within the body's tissues and organs).

The resistance of employees in an organization against flexibility, growth and diversificationcan be overcome by developing:-?

A.	Entrepreneurship
B.	Managerial Domain
C.	Intrapreneurship
D.	Administrative Domain

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

Intrapreneurship is like acting as an entrepreneur within the organization. Intrapreneurship is a step towards entrepreneurship. It focuses on self motivation and resolving a specific issues which ultimately helps in achieving the major goals. It focuses on minor goals and hence helps to achieve the entrepreneurship goals in long run.

Select the odd one out.

A.	River
B.	Valley
C.	Ocean
D.	sea

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

Because others are family of water but valley is not.

Select the value of (x) 2 , 6 , 14 , 30 , x , 126.

A.	56
B.	46
C.	66
D.	62

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

Series is becoming like this:2*2+2=6,6*2+2=14,14*2+2=30 so the next is 30*2+2=62.

Select the odd one out.

A.	Jogging
B.	Running
C.	Sprinting
D.	Jumping

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Select the odd one out?

A.	Barley
B.	wheat
C.	Rice
D.	Pea

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Which one of the following should consider in economy while conducting environmental analysis?

A.	Chennel of distribution
B.	GNP
C.	Unemployment
D.	Disposable Income

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Select the odd one out. ?

A.	Hot
B.	Warm
C.	Humid
D.	Cold

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Select the odd one out?

A.	Pen
B.	Pencil
C.	Brush
D.	Sharpener

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

10.

Which one of the following is a barrier to new product creation and development?

A.	Opportunity parameter
B.	Opportunity cost
C.	Trial and error
D.	Interpreneurship culture

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Dear Guys! we try to explain all things in the description box section. but if you have any query regarding to any questions then you can write in the comment section.
or you can join my whatsapp group using this link: https://chat.whatsapp.com/JfVAHPJBs3w5Gk66kzESPP

Please write your comment about this multiple type questions. your comments are very valuable for me! so please write about this through comment sections!
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Vocational Science and Calculation Practice Exam Test 1

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 10 Jul 2020 19:17:00 +0530

All Communication events have a ?

A.	Source
B.	Start
C.	Resource
D.	End

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

The Energy which is not derived from the sun is ?

A.	Geo-Thermal Energy
B.	Nuclear Energy
C.	Fossil Fuels
D.	Bio mass

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

Fossil fuels are made from the anaerobic decomposition of remains of phytoplanktons and zooplanktons. These phytoplanktons and zooplanktons are photosynthesizing microorganisms, which used to capture light energy sun.
Geo-thermal energy is the energy, which is generated and stored in the earth. 20 % of the geo-thermal energy has originated during formation of the planet and 80% from radioactive decay of materials. Hence, geo-thermal energy is not derived from sun. Therefore, option C is correct.

Reading comprehension means understanding a _______ text.

A.	Usual
B.	Audio
C.	Written
D.	oral

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Which two work enviornments should be good for spawning the new enterprises?.

A.	Finance and R&D
B.	Finance and marketing
C.	Marketing and IT
D.	Marketing and R&D

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

The two work environment which will be good for spawning the new enterprises are finance and research and development as they aim at developing the conduct of business in all dimensions which includes all sectors of the business environment as well.

An on-line commercial site such as Amazon.com is an example of a(n) ________ .

A.	single-user database application
B.	multiuser database application
C.	e-commerce database application
D.	data mining database application

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

For the success of business plan, the goals should be:-?

A.	Specific
B.	Imaginary
C.	Limitless
D.	Generalized

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

What is a target market?

A.	A group of customers a venture reaches by accident
B.	All consumers who purchase the venture's product
C.	A chain of discount stores
D.	A specific group of potential customers toward which a venture aims its marketing plan

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Fuel formed under the earth's surface by the decomposition of organic matter is called?

A.	Biogas
B.	Fossil fuel
C.	Under ground fuel
D.	Organic fuel

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Choose and write the correct option. Knife: Chopper:: Scissors: ?

A.	Cutter
B.	Blanket
C.	Cloth
D.	Float

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

10.

Choose and write the correct option. U, O, I, ?, A .

A.	E
B.	G
C.	D
D.	F

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Dear Guys! we try to explain all things in the description box section. but if you have any query regarding to any questions then you can write in the comment section.

or you can join my whatsapp group using this link: https://chat.whatsapp.com/JfVAHPJBs3w5Gk66kzESPP

Please write your comment about this multiple type questions. your comments are very valuable for me! so please write about this through comment sections!
Thankyou!

ITI COPA Course के बारे में संपूर्ण जानकारी |

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 8 Jul 2020 17:21:00 +0530

आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI - COPA)

What is ITI-COPA Course?

आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI-COPA) एक वर्षीय पाठ्यक्रम है जो की शिल्पकार प्रशिक्षण योजना (सीटीएस) के अंतर्गत प्रशिक्षण महानिदेशालय, कौशल विकास एवं उद्यमिता मंत्रालय के द्वारा संचालित है. इस पाठ्यक्रम में प्रवेश हेतु छात्रों को 10 + 2 पैटर्न की 10 वीं कक्षा की परीक्षा उत्तीर्ण में होना चाहिए। आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI-COPA) पाठ्यक्रम सैद्धांतिक ज्ञान (Trade Theory) एवं व्यवहारिक कौशल (Trade Practical) के साथ ही रोजगार कौशल (Employability Skills) प्रदान करता है । प्रशिक्षण कार्यक्रम पास करने के बाद प्रशिक्षु को NCVT द्वारा नेशनल ट्रेड सर्टिफिकेट (NTC) दिया जाता है जिसे दुनिया भर में मान्यता प्राप्त है।आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI-COPA) पाठ्यक्रम आपको कंप्यूटर फंडामेंटल, बेसिक हार्डवेयर, पीसी और अन्य संबंधित उपकरणों के रखरखाव, एमएस ऑफिस, प्रेजेंटेशन और ग्राफिक पैकेज, डेटाबेस मैनेजमेंट, फाइनेंसियल एकाउंटिंग / टैली, नेटवर्किंग, इंटरनेट ब्राउजिंग और ई-मेल, वेब डिजाईन, विजुअल बेसिक फॉर एप्लीकेशन एवं जावा स्क्रिप्ट आदि में कौशल विकास हेतु उपयोगी है।आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI-COPA) पाठ्यक्रम के अंतर्गत निम्न टॉपिक्स का सैद्धांतिक एवं व्यवहारिक कौशल प्रदाय किया जाता है। सिलेबस को निम्नानुसार विभाजित किया गया है।

Trade Theory

Introduction to Computers and Windows Operating System

Computer Hardware basics and Software Installation

Introduction to DOS Command Line Interface & Linux Operating System.

Word Processing

Spread Sheet Application

Image editing, Creating presentations & Using Open Office

Database Management Systems

Networking Concepts

Internet Concepts

Web Design Concepts

Java Script

Introduction to VBA, Features and Applications

Smart Accounting

E Commerce

Cyber Security

Trade Practical

Computer components and Windows Operating System

Computer Hardware basics and Software Installation

Familiarization with DOS CLI & Linux Operating Systems.

Using Word Processing Software

Using Spread Sheet Application

Image editing, Creating presentations & Using Open Office

Database Management

Configuring and Using Networks

Internet Concepts

Designing Static Web Pages

Java Script

Programming with VBA

Using Accounting Software

E Commerce

Typing practice

Project Work

Employability Skills

Behavioural Skills

English Literacy

Communication Skills

IT Literacy

Entrepreneurship

Maintaining Efficiency at Workplace

Occupational Safety, Health and Environment Education

Essential Skills for Success

Labour Welfare Legislation

Quality Management

Preparation to the World of Work

Customer Interaction/Service

उन्नति के अवसर (Career Progression)

Career After ITI (COPA)

• आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI-COPA) ट्रेड में राष्ट्रीय शिक्षुता प्रमाणपत्र (National Apprentice Certificate) के लिए अग्रणी उद्योगों / संगठनों में शिक्षुता प्रशिक्षण (Apprentice Training) कर सकते हैं। यह प्रशिक्षण रेलवे, भारत हेवी इलेक्ट्रिकल्स लिमिटेड, हिंदुस्तान एयरोनॉटिक्स लिमिटेड एवं अन्य सार्वजानिक उपक्रमों में प्राप्त किया जा सकता है। इस हेतु https://apprenticeshipindia.org/ पोर्टल पर जानकारी प्राप्त की जा सकती है।
• आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI-COPA) ट्रेड उत्तीर्ण करने के पश्चात उच्च शिक्षा हेतु पॉलिटेक्निक कॉलेज में सम्बन्धित इंजीनियरिंग पाठ्यक्रम में लेटरल एंट्री के तहत द्वितीय वर्ष में प्रवेश ले सकते हैं।
• आईटीआई में प्रशिक्षक / प्रशिक्षण अधिकारी बनने के लिए आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI-COPA) ट्रेड में शिल्प प्रशिक्षक प्रशिक्षण योजना (Craftsmen Instructor Training Scheme) में प्रवेश ले सकते हैं।

रोजगार विकल्प

Scope in Private Sector

फ्टवेयर कंपनियों में सहायक प्रोग्रामर।

कम्प्यूटर संस्थानों या स्कूलों में लैब सहायक।

साइबर कैफे में इंटरनेट ऑपरेटर।

कार्यालयों में कंप्यूटर ऑपरेटर

हार्डवेयर और सॉफ्टवेयर कंपनियों में तकनीशियन

टैली ऑपरेटर

डीटीपी ऑपरेटर

स्व-रोजगार (साइबर कैफे/डीटीपी केंद्र/कंप्यूटर शॉप /डाटा प्रोसेसिंग)

प्रवेश हेतु संस्था खोजने के लिए क्लिक करें

इस पोस्ट से सम्बंधित यदि आपको और अधिक जानकारी चाहिए तो आप कमेंट में पूँछ सकते हैं |

या फिर हमारे whatsapp ग्रुप के लिंक पर click करके हमे join कर सकते हैं |

https://chat.whatsapp.com/JfVAHPJBs3w5Gk66kzESPP

धन्यवाद !

Introduction to Networks (Version 7.00) – Final Exam Answers Full

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 2 Jul 2020 12:37:00 +0530

1. What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

neighbor solicitations
echo requests
neighbor advertisements
echo replies
router solicitations
router advertisements

2. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

FEC0::/10
FDEE::/7
FE80::/10
FF00::/8

Explain:
Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

3. What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

4. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?

256
512
1024
4096

5. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
172.168.10.99
CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
172.168.10.65
BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA

Explain:
When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

6. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

cut-through
store-and-forward
fast-forward
fragment-free

7. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.
Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.
Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.

8. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the packet to a remote network.

9. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

10. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)

error detection
frame delimiting
accessing the media
data encapsulation
logical addressing

11. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

netstat -s
route print
show ip route
netstat -r
tracert

Explain:
On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat –s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

12. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)

directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks
placing data on the network medium
carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts
providing dedicated end-to-end connections
providing end devices with a unique network identifier

13. Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)

Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S.
If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.
The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.
The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.
If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S.

14. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.
It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.
It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

Explain: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.

15. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
to enable the switch to be managed remotely
to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.

16. What characteristic describes identity theft?

the use of stolen credentials to access private data
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

17. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)

18. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

the network domain of the destination host
the IP address of the default gateway
the MAC address of the destination host
the MAC address of the default gateway

19. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.
The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

Explanation: Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.

20. Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.)

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)

10.18.10.200/28
10.18.10.208/28
10.18.10.240/27
10.18.10.200/27
10.18.10.224/27
10.18.10.224/28

Explanation: Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the center network. Because 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

255.255.255.192
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224

Explanation: The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.

23. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:

Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252

Explain:
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks.

24. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

25. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

IP addresses
interface descriptions
MAC addresses
next-hop addresses
Layer 1 statuses
speed and duplex settings

Explanation: The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.

26. A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

ping
nslookup
tracert
ipconfig /displaydns

27. A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.
Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.
Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.
Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.

28. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
twisting the wires together into pairs
terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.

29. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

extensive cabling
mobility options
packet collision
interference
security
coverage area

Explanation: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.

30. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)

31. Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

virus
worm
phishing
spam

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.

32. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

Explain:
The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

33.Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200

34. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

strengthening of a signal by a networking device
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
time for a signal to reach its destination
loss of signal strength as distance increases

35. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

36. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

TCP
IP
UDP
POP
DNS
Ethernet

37. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

automation
accounting
authentication
authorization

After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

38. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)

message size
message encoding
connector specifications
media selection
delivery options
end-device installation

39. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
operates independently of the network media
retransmits packets if errors occur
re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
guarantees delivery of packets

Explain:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.

40. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees. What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

security
quality of service
scalability
powerline networking
integrity
fault tolerance

41. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

improper termination
low-quality shielding in cable
installing cables in conduit
low-quality cable or connectors
loss of light over long distances

42. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.64/29

Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

43. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

This host does not have a default gateway configured.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

Explain:
The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

44. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.
Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
Perform the capture on different network segments.
Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.

Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.

45. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?

All router interfaces will be automatically activated.
The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.
It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.

46. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

application
network
data link
session
presentation
transport

Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

47. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network
open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0
open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0

Explanation: When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).

48. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

49. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

50. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224

51. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)

Neighbor Solicitation
Destination Unreachable
Host Confirmation
Time Exceeded
Router Advertisement
Route Redirection

52. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

DHCP
SMTP
DNS
HTTP

53. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.

Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.

54. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

tracert
ipconfig
netstat
nslookup

Explain:
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.

55. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

Explanation: The data link layer is actually divided into two sublayers:

+ Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. It places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.
+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer defines the media access processes performed by the hardware. It provides data link layer addressing and delimiting of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium and the type of data link layer protocol in use.

56. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway .

57. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

Explanation: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

58. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)

59. A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?

DoS
access
reconnaissance
Trojan horse

60. What service is provided by HTTP?

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

61. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

FTP
DHCP
Telnet
SSH

62. What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)

Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets.
The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.
The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.
A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.
All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.

63. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
arp -a
tracert
ping
ipconfig
nslookup
telnet

64. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

analyze the destination IP address
switch the packet to the directly connected interface
look up the next-hop address for the packet
discard the traffic after consulting the route table

65. What characteristic describes antispyware?

applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

66. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

Telnet
AUX
SSH
Console

67. What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)

Implement a VPN.
Implement network firewalls.
Implement RAID.
Implement strong passwords.
Update the operating system and other application software.
Install and update antivirus software.

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.

68. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?

brute-force attack
Trojan horse
DoS
buffer overflow

Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.

69. Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model. (Not all options are used.)

70. Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

User Datagram Protocol field
transport layer error check field
flow control field
frame check sequence field
error correction process field

71. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.248
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192

72. What service is provided by POP3?

Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

73. What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)

antispyware
virtual private networks
intrusion prevention systems
strong passwords
antivirus software

74. What characteristic describes antivirus software?

applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

75. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.
It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.

76. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

DNS
DHCP
SMTP
TFTP

77. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

Configure DNS on the router.
Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
Configure the IP domain name on the router.
Generate the SSH keys.
Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.

78. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection

79. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?

all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link
all IPv6 DHCP servers
all IPv6 enabled devices across the network
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link

80. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

subnet ID
subnet mask
broadcast address
global routing prefix
interface ID

81. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

82. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
Exit global configuration mode.
Power cycle the device.
Reboot the device.
Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .

83. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

token passing
CSMA/CA
priority ordering
CSMA/CD

84. What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media

85. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
to end communication when data transmission is complete
to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward
to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data

86. What characteristic describes spyware?

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
the use of stolen credentials to access private data

87. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

store-and-forward switching
borderless switching
ingress port buffering
cut-through switching

88. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

The default gateway is not operational.
The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.
The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.

89. What service is provided by FTP?

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

90. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

DNS server
source port number
HTTP server
source MAC address
default gateway

91. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.
NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.
NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.
NAT improves packet handling.
NAT causes routing tables to include more information.

92. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224

93. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.

Explain:
When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.

94. What service is provided by BOOTP?

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

95. What characteristic describes adware?

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

96. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

97. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.

98. Which information does the show startup-config command display?

the IOS image copied into RAM
the bootstrap program in the ROM
the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

Explain:
The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file located in RAM.

99. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

Two physical interfaces have been configured.
The switch can be remotely managed.
One device is attached to a physical interface.
Passwords have been configured on the switch.
Two devices are attached to the switch.
The default SVI has been configured.

Explain:
Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.

100. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)

101. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

2001:DA48::/64
2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64
2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
2001::/64

102. Match the firewall function to the type of threat protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are used.)

packet filtering – prevents access based on IP or MAC address
URL filtering – prevents access to websites
network address translator – (none)
stateful packet inspection – prevents unsolicited incoming sessions
application filtering – prevents access by port number

Explain:Firewall products come packaged in various forms. These products use different techniques for determining what will be permitted or denied access to a network. They include the following:

+ Packet filtering – Prevents or allows access based on IP or MAC addresses
+ Application filtering – Prevents or allows access by specific application types based on port numbers
+ URL filtering – Prevents or allows access to websites based on specific URLs or keywords
+ Stateful packet inspection (SPI) – Incoming packets must be legitimate responses to requests from internal hosts. Unsolicited packets are blocked unless permitted specifically. SPI can also include the capability to recognize and filter out specific types of attacks, such as denial of service (DoS)

103. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

syslog records and messages
the network performance baseline
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files

104. What characteristic describes a VPN?

software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

105. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

106. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

255.255.255.192
255.255.255.252
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224

107. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

A company can monopolize the market.
The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
It encourages competition and promotes choices.

Explain:
A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

108. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.240
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224

109. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

cost per meter (foot)
cable lengths
connector color
pinouts
connector types
tensile strength of plastic insulator

110. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
The wrong type of connector is being used.
The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

Explanation: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.

111. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.)

112. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

IMAP
FTP
SSH
Telnet

113. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

default window size
connectionless communication
port numbering
3-way handshake
ability to to carry digitized voice
use of checksum

Explain:
Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

114. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?

Header Length
Differentiated Services
Time-to-Live
Fragment Offset

115. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

FTP
LDAP
SLP
SNMP

116. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?

attached Ethernet cable
IP address
MAC address
RJ-45 port
TCP/IP protocol stack

117. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.192
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

118. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
when the RTT value reaches zero
when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

Explain:
When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source.

119. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1

Explain:
Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)

120. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

only host D
only router R1
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts B and C
only hosts B, C, and router R1

Explain:
Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.

121. Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)

video
web
file transfer
voice
peer to peer

122. Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?

ZigBee
LoRaWAN
5G
Wi-Fi

123. Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork?

application
network access
internet
transport

Explain:
The OSI model network layer corresponds directly to the internet layer of the TCP/IP model and is used to describe protocols that address and route messages through an internetwork.

124. Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?

DNS
email
file
web

Explain:
A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host names. Some DNS record types include the following:

A – an end device IPv4 address
NS – an authoritative name server
AAAA – an end device IPv6 address
MX – a mail exchange record

125. What are proprietary protocols?

protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware
protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation
a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

Explain:
Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.

126. What service is provided by DNS?

Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

127. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?

DNS
DHCP
SMTP
POP3

128. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

show ip interface brief
ping
show interfaces
ipconfig

129. A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?

client-based
master-slave
point-to-point
peer-to-peer (P2P)

Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.

130. What characteristic describes a virus?

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
malicious software or code running on an end device

131. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

financial transactions, web page, audio conference
audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
audio conference, web page, financial transactions

132. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)

133. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

only application and Internet layers
only Internet and network access layers
only application, Internet, and network access layers
application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

Explanation: The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet, and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the layers of the model and across the network to the file server.

134. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame before forwarding, and checks its CRC and frame length. A cut-through switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field, thus presenting less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame can begin to be forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may transmit a corrupt or runt frame. All forwarding methods require a Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames.

135. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

R1: S0/0/0
R2: S0/0/1
R1: G0/0
R2: S0/0/0

136. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

137. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network.

Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128 /25, which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.0 /26, which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.96 /27, which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.80/30, which yields 4 host addresses.

138. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown?

interface: 192.168.1.67 — 0xa
internet address physical address type
192.168.1.254 64-0f-29-0d-36-91 dynamic
.
.
.
interface: 10.82.253.91 —- 0x10

DHCP
ARP
DNS
ICMP

139. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

crosstalk
extended length of cabling
RFI
EMI
signal attenuation

140. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

141. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication?

integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media

142. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

DNS
NetBIOS (NetBT)
POP3
IMAP

143. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

144. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

malicious software or code running on an end device
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

145. What service is provided by HTTPS?

Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

146. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination MAC address of the technician PC.
The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application.*
The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.
The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.

Explanation:
The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous communication from multiple applications through the Internet.

147. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.128

148. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

Question

Answer

Explanation:
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.

149. What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

the use of stolen credentials to access private data
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

150. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols

151. What service is provided by SMTP?

Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send email to other servers.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

152. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

153. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

Question
Answer

154. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?

155. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication between nodes

156. Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

LC conector

SC conector

BNC

RJ 11

True Answer:

RJ 45 (true answer)

157. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

SSH
SMB/CIFS
HTTPS
SLP

158. What characteristic describes an IPS?

a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

159. What service is provided by DHCP?
Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary devices.

160. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware

161. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame

162. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper

163. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication between nodes

CCNA1 v7 – ITN – Modules 16 – 17: Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 1 Jul 2020 12:30:00 +0530

Match each weakness with an example. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 001
Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 002
Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?
- malware that was written to look like a video game
- malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
- malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched
- malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target
What is the difference between a virus and a worm?
- Viruses self-replicate but worms do not.
- Worms self-replicate but viruses do not.
- Worms require a host file but viruses do not.
- Viruses hide in legitimate programs but worms do not.
Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two end points?
- denial-of-service
- man-in-the-middle attack
- extraction of security parameters
- username enumeration
Which type of attack involves an adversary attempting to gather information about a network to identify vulnerabilities?
- reconnaissance
- DoS
- dictionary
- man-in-the-middle
Match the description to the type of firewall filtering. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 003
What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 01
- to require users to prove who they are
- to determine which resources a user can access
- to keep track of the actions of a user
- to provide challenge and response questions
Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
- stateful packet inspection
- URL filtering
- application filtering
- packet filtering
When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?
- exec-timeout 30
- service password-encryption
- banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
- login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order does not matter. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 004
What feature of SSH makes it more secure than Telnet for a device management connection?
- confidentiality with IPsec
- stronger password requirement
- random one-time port connection
- login information and data encryption
What is the advantage of using SSH over Telnet?
- SSH is easier to use.
- SSH operates faster than Telnet.
- SSH provides secure communications to access hosts.
- SSH supports authentication for a connection request.
What is the role of an IPS?
- detecting and blocking of attacks in real time
- connecting global threat information to Cisco network security devices
- authenticating and validating traffic
- filtering of nefarious websites
A user is redesigning a network for a small company and wants to ensure security at a reasonable price. The user deploys a new application-aware firewall with intrusion detection capabilities on the ISP connection. The user installs a second firewall to separate the company network from the public network. Additionally, the user installs an IPS on the internal network of the company. What approach is the user implementing?
- attack based
- risk based
- structured
- layered
What is an accurate description of redundancy?
- configuring a router with a complete MAC address database to ensure that all frames can be forwarded to the correct destination
- configuring a switch with proper security to ensure that all traffic forwarded through an interface is filtered
- designing a network to use multiple virtual devices to ensure that all traffic uses the best path through the internetwork
- designing a network to use multiple paths between switches to ensure there is no single point of failure
A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network services is the network administrator trying to accommodate? (Choose two.)
- voice
- video
- instant messaging
- FTP
- SNMP
What is the purpose of a small company using a protocol analyzer utility to capture network traffic on the network segments where the company is considering a network upgrade?
- to identify the source and destination of local network traffic
- to capture the Internet connection bandwidth requirement
- to document and analyze network traffic requirements on each network segment
- to establish a baseline for security analysis after the network is upgraded
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 02
- Connectivity to the remote device was successful.
- A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
- A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
- The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.
Which method is used to send a ping message specifying the source address for the ping?
- Issue the ping command from within interface configuration mode.
- Issue the ping command without specifying a destination IP address.
- Issue the ping command without extended commands.
- Issue the ping command after shutting down un-needed interfaces.
A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?
- a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
- a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
- an increase in host-to-host ping response times
- a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output
Which statement is true about Cisco IOS ping indicators?
- ‘!’ indicates that the ping was unsuccessful and that the device may have issues finding a DNS server.
- ‘U’ may indicate that a router along the path did not contain a route to the destination address and that the ping was unsuccessful.
- ‘.’ indicates that the ping was successful but the response time was longer than normal.
- A combination of ‘.’ and ‘!’ indicates that a router along the path did not have a route to the destination address and responded with an ICMP unreachable message.
A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?
- The NIC in the PC is bad.
- The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled.
- The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down.
- Nothing can be determined for sure at this point.
A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?
- It forces the trace to use IPv6.
- It limits the trace to only 6 hops.
- It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.
- It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.
Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
- to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
- to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
- to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
- to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?
- The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.
- The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.
- The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.
- The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a non-directly connected network.
A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues among interconnected Cisco routers and switches. Which command should the engineer use to find the IP address information, host name, and IOS version of neighboring network devices?
- show version
- show ip route
- show interfaces
- show cdp neighbors detail
What information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show version command?
- the routing protocol version that is enabled
- the value of the configuration register
- the operational status of serial interfaces
- the administrative distance used to reach networks
Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?
- debug all
- logging synchronous
- show running-config
- terminal monitor
Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?
- terminal monitor
- logging console
- logging buffered
- logging synchronous
By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network administrator identified a network issue after a conversation with the user. What is the next step that the administrator should take?
- Verify full system functionality.
- Test the theory to determine cause.
- Establish a theory of probable causes.
- Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue.
Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?
- netstat
- tracert
- nslookup
- ipconfig
An employee complains that a Windows PC cannot connect to the Internet. A network technician issues the ipconfig command on the PC and is shown an IP address of 169.254.10.3. Which two conclusions can be drawn? (Choose two.)
- The PC cannot contact a DHCP server.
- The DNS server address is misconfigured.
- The default gateway address is not configured.
- The PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
- The enterprise network is misconfigured for dynamic routing.
Refer to the exhibit. Host H3 is having trouble communicating with host H1. The network administrator suspects a problem exists with the H3 workstation and wants to prove that there is no problem with the R2 configuration. What tool could the network administrator use on router R2 to prove that communication exists to host H1 from the interface on R2, which is the interface that H3 uses when communicating with remote networks?

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 03
- traceroute
- show cdp neighbors
- Telnet
- an extended ping
Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?

CCNA1 v7 ITN – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers 03
- Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.
- H3 is not connected properly to the network.
- Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.
- Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.
- Something is causing a time delay between the networks.
Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network?
- DHCP
- Telnet
- DNS
- traceroute
Which command can an administrator execute to determine what interface a router will use to reach remote networks?
- show arp
- show interfaces
- show ip route
- show protocols
On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring executive timeouts? (Choose two.)
- Fast Ethernet interfaces
- console ports
- serial interfaces
- vty ports
- loopback interfaces
When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)
- Set the user privilege levels.
- Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.
- Configure the correct IP domain name.
- Configure role-based CLI access.
- Create a valid local username and password database.
- Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated.
What is considered the most effective way to mitigate a worm attack?
- Change system passwords every 30 days.
- Ensure that all systems have the most current virus definitions.
- Ensure that AAA is configured in the network.
- Download security updates from the operating system vendor and patch all vulnerable systems.
Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?
- Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
- Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
- Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
- Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
A technician is to document the current configurations of all network devices in a college, including those in off-site buildings. Which protocol would be best to use to securely access the network devices?
- FTP
- HTTP
- SSH
- Telnet
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which command has to be configured on the router to complete the SSH configuration?
- service password-encryption
- transport input ssh
- enable secret class
- ip domain-name cisco.com
An administrator decides to use “WhatAreyouwaiting4” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
- It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
- It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
- It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
- It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
- It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
An administrator decides to use “5$7*4#033!” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
- It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
- It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
- It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
An administrator decides to use “12345678!” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is weak because it uses a series of numbers or letters.
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
An administrator decides to use “admin” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
- It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
An administrator decides to use “Feb121978” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is weak because it uses easily found personal information.
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
An administrator decides to use “password” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is weak because it is a commonly used password.
- It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
An administrator decides to use “RobErT” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
- It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
An administrator decides to use “Elizabeth” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
- It is weak because it uses easily found personal information.
- It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
- It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
- It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify the IP addresses of all interfaces on a router. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- show ip interface brief
- nslookup
- ipconfig getifaddr en0
- show ip route
Students who are connected to the same switch are having slower than normal response times. The administrator suspects a duplex setting issue. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- show interfaces
- ipconfig getifaddr en0
- copy running-config startup-config
- show ip nat translations
A user wants to know the IP address of the PC. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- ipconfig
- copy running-config startup-config
- show interfaces
- show ip nat translations
A student wants to save a router configuration to NVRAM. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- copy running-config startup-config
- show interfaces
- show ip nat translations
- show ip route
A support technician needs to know the IP address of the wireless interface on a MAC. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- ipconfig getifaddr en0
- copy running-config startup-config
- show interfaces
- show ip nat translations
A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify all of the IPv6 interface addresses on a router. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- show ipv6 interface
- show interfaces
- show ip nat translations
- show ip route
A teacher is having difficulties connecting his PC to the classroom network. He needs to verify that a default gateway is configured correctly. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- ipconfig
- copy running-config startup-config
- show interfaces
- show ip nat translations
Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- show running-config
- show interfaces
- copy running-config startup-config
- show ip nat translations
An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues and needs to determine the IP address of a website. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- nslookup
- show ipv6 route
- show ipv6 interface
- copy startup-config running-config
Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
- show running-config
- show ipv6 route
- show ipv6 interface
- copy startup-config running-config

Modules 16 – 17: Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers (Additional)

1. Which component is designed to protect against unauthorized communications to and from a computer?

security center
port scanner
antimalware
antivirus
firewall

2. Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30 seconds if there are 2 failed login attempts within 10 seconds?

RouterA(config)# login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30
RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10
RouterA(config)# login block-for 2 attempts 30 within 10
RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 10 within 2

3. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions

4. What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and fping?

access attack
reconnaissance attack
denial of service attack
worm attack

5. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet for remotely managing a router?

encryption
TCP usage
authorization
connections via multiple VTY lines

6. What is one of the most effective security tools available for protecting users from external threats?

firewalls
router that run AAA services
patch servers
password encryption techniques

7. Which type of network threat is intended to prevent authorized users from accessing resources?

DoS attacks
access attacks
reconnaissance attacks
trust exploitation

8. Which three services are provided by the AAA framework? (Choose three.)

accounting
automation
authorization
authentication
autobalancing
autoconfiguration

9. Which malicious code attack is self-contained and tries to exploit a specific vulnerability in a system being attacked?

virus
worm
Trojan horse
social engineering

10. Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?

configuration
environmental
electrical
maintenance

11. What does the term vulnerability mean?

a weakness that makes a target susceptible to an attack
a computer that contains sensitive information
a method of attack to exploit a target
a known target or victim machine
a potential threat that a hacker creates

12. What three configuration steps must be performed to implement SSH access to a router? (Choose three.)

a password on the console line
an IP domain name
a user account
an enable mode password
a unique hostname
an encrypted password

13. What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

discovery and mapping of systems
unauthorized manipulation of data
disabling network systems or services
denying access to resources by legitimate users

14. For security reasons a network administrator needs to ensure that local computers cannot ping each other. Which settings can accomplish this task?

smartcard settings
firewall settings
MAC address settings
file system settings

15. A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?

out-of-band access to a switch through the use of a virtual terminal with password authentication
remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup connection
on-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected PC and a console cable
remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session
direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation program

16. Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?

Internet router
firewall
low port density switch
redundancy

17. A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?

devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces
devices that have support for network monitoring
redundant devices
devices with support for modularity

18. What type of traffic would most likely have the highest priority through the network?

FTP
instant messaging
voice
SNMP

19. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command, when issued on a Windows PC, will display the path to the remote host?

trace 10.1.1.5
traceroute 10.1.1.5
tracert 10.1.1.5
ping 10.1.1.5

20. A user is unable to reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?

default gateway
DHCP
DNS
TCP/IP protocol stack

21. Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?

memory buffers
vty lines
Syslog server
console line

22. Which element of scaling a network involves identifying the physical and logical topologies?

traffic analysis
network documentation
device inventory
cost analysis

23. What mechanism can be implemented in a small network to help minimize network latency for real-time streaming applications?

QoS
PoE
AAA
ICMP

24. Which process failed if a computer cannot access the internet and received an IP address of 169.254.142.5?

IP
DNS
DHCP
HTTP

25. A small company has only one router as the exit point to its ISP. Which solution could be adopted to maintain connectivity if the router itself, or its connection to the ISP, fails?

Activate another router interface that is connected to the ISP, so the traffic can flow through it.
Have a second router that is connected to another ISP.
Purchase a second least-cost link from another ISP to connect to this router.
Add more interfaces to the router that is connected to the internal network.

26. When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

when the traffic is at peak in the network
when there is a sudden drop in traffic
at the lowest point of traffic in the network
at regular intervals over a period of time

27. Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)

email
web
FTP
voice
video

28. A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?

show interfaces
show running-config
show ip interface brief
show mac-address-table

29. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity.
To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.
CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.
Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

30. What factor should be considered in the design of a small network when devices are being chosen?

cost of devices
redundancy
traffic analysis
ISP

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 14 – 15: Network Application Communications Exam Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 30 Jun 2020 12:01:00 +0530

1. Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP at the transport layer?

The client sets the window size for the session.
The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake.
The client randomly selects a source port number.
The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.

2. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?

UDP ACK flag
TCP 3-way handshake
UDP sequence number
TCP port number

3. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?

0 to 255
0 to 1023
256 – 1023
1024 – 49151

4. What is a socket?

the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address
the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number
the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers
the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

5. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?

1 segment
10 segments
100 segments
1000 segments

Explanation: With a window of 1000 bytes, the destination host accepts segments until all 1000 bytes of data have been received. Then the destination host sends an acknowledgment.

6. Which factor determines TCP window size?

the amount of data to be transmitted
the number of services included in the TCP segment
the amount of data the destination can process at one time
the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time

Explanation: Window is the number of bytes that the sender will send prior to expecting an acknowledgement from the destination device. The initial window is agreed upon during the session startup via the three-way handshake between source and destination. It is determined by how much data the destination device of a TCP session is able to accept and process at one time.

7. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?

It just sends the datagrams.
It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.

Explanation: When a client has UDP datagrams to send, it just sends the datagrams.

8. Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three.)

Window Size
Length
Source Port
Acknowledgment Number
Checksum
Sequence Number

Explanation: A UDP header consists of only the Source Port, Destination Port, Length, and Checksum fields. Sequence Number, Acknowledgment Number, and Window Size are TCP header fields.

9. What are two roles of the transport layer in data communication on a network? (Choose two.)

identifying the proper application for each communication stream
tracking the individual communication between applications on the source and destination hosts
providing frame delimiting to identify bits making up a frame
performing a cyclic redundancy check on the frame for errors
providing the interface between applications and the underlying network over which messages are transmitted

Explanation: The transport layer has several responsibilities. The primary responsibilities include the following:

Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the source and destination hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the use of port numbers

10. What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments?

port numbers
sequence numbers
acknowledgment numbers
fragment numbers

Explanation: At the transport layer, TCP uses the sequence numbers in the header of each TCP segment to reassemble the segments into the correct order.

11. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure communication and connectivity with a remote network device?

timing and synchronization
destination and source port numbers
destination and source physical addresses
destination and source logical network addresses

12. Which two characteristics are associated with UDP sessions? (Choose two.)

Destination devices receive traffic with minimal delay.
Transmitted data segments are tracked.
Destination devices reassemble messages and pass them to an application.
Received data is unacknowledged.
Unacknowledged data packets are retransmitted.

Explanation:

TCP:

Provides tracking of transmitted data segments
Destination devices will acknowledge received data.
Source devices will retransmit unacknowledged data.

UDP

Destination devices will not acknowledge received data
Headers use very little overhead and cause minimal delay.

13. A client application needs to terminate a TCP communication session with a server. Place the termination process steps in the order that they will occur. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: In order to terminate a TCP session, the client sends to the server a segment with the FIN flag set. The server acknowledges the client by sending a segment with the ACK flag set. The server sends a FIN to the client to terminate the server to client session. The client acknowledges the termination by sending a segment with the ACK flag set.

14. Which flag in the TCP header is used in response to a received FIN in order to terminate connectivity between two network devices?

Explanation: In a TCP session, when a device has no more data to send, it will send a segment with the FIN flag set. The connected device that receives the segment will respond with an ACK to acknowledge that segment. The device that sent the ACK will then send a FIN message to close the connection it has with the other device. The sending of the FIN should be followed with the receipt of an ACK from the other device.

15. Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server communication and TCP for server-to-server communication?

HTTP
FTP
DNS
SMTP

Explanation: Some applications may use both TCP and UDP. DNS uses UDP when clients send requests to a DNS server, and TCP when two DNS serves directly communicate.

16. What is a characteristic of UDP?

UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.
Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.
UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.
UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.

Explanation: UDP has no way to reorder the datagrams into their transmission order, so UDP simply reassembles the data in the order it was received and forwards it to the application.

17. What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific application?

registered port
private port
dynamic port
source port

Explanation: Registered ports (numbers 1024 to 49151) are assigned by IANA to a requesting entity to use with specific processes or applications. These processes are primarily individual applications that a user has chosen to install, rather than common applications that would receive a well-known port number. For example, Cisco has registered port 1985 for its Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) process.

18. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

SMTP
FTP
SNMP
HTTP
TFTP
DHCP

Explanation: Some protocols require the reliable data transport that is provided by TCP. In addition, these protocols do not have real time communication requirements and can tolerate some data loss while minimizing protocol overhead. Examples of these protocols are SMTP, FTP, and HTTP.

19. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol that provides the basic transport layer functions. It has much lower overhead than TCP because it is not connection-oriented and does not offer the sophisticated retransmission, sequencing, and flow control mechanisms that provide reliability.

20. Which two fields are included in the TCP header but not in the UDP header? (Choose two.)

window
checksum
source port
destination port
sequence number

Explanation: The sequence number and window fields are included in the TCP header but not in the UDP header.

21. Which field in the TCP header indicates the status of the three-way handshake process?

window
reserved
checksum
control bits

Explanation: The value in the control bits field of theTCP header indicates the progress and status of the connection.

22. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

to ensure the fastest possible download speed
because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
because HTTP requires reliable delivery

Explanation: When a host requests a web page, transmission reliability and completeness must be guaranteed. Therefore, HTTP uses TCP as its transport layer protocol.

23. Which two types of applications are best suited for UDP? (Choose two.)

applications that need data flow control
applications that require reliable delivery
applications that handle reliability themselves
applications that need the reordering of segments
applications that can tolerate some data loss, but require little or no delay

24. How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?

Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication.
Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.
If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.
Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.

Explanation: Both UDP and TCP use port numbers to provide a unique identifier for each conversation. Source port numbers are randomly generated and are used to track different conversations. Destination port numbers identify specific services by using either a default port number for the service or a port number that is assigned manually by a system administrator.

25. In what two situations would UDP be better than TCP as the preferred transport protocol? (Choose two.)

when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
when a faster delivery mechanism is needed
when delivery overhead is not an issue
when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
when destination port numbers are dynamic

Explanation: UDP is a very simple transport layer protocol that does not guarantee delivery. Devices on both ends of the conversation are not required to keep track of the conversation. UDP is used as the transport protocol for applications that need a speedy, best-effort delivery.

26. What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)

meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any
multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or applications on the same network
identifying the applications and services on the client and server that should handle transmitted data
directing packets towards the destination network
formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination devices
conducting error detection of the contents in frames

Explanation: The transport layer has several responsibilities. Some of the primary responsibilities include the following:
Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the source and destination hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the use of port numbers
Multiplexing the communications of multiple users or applications over a single network
Managing the reliability requirements of applications

27. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.

Explanation: When a host configured to use DHCP powers up on a network it sends a DHCPDISCOVER message. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF is the L2 broadcast address. A DHCP server replies with a unicast DHCPOFFER message back to the host.

28. Which two protocols may devices use in the application process that sends email? (Choose two.)

HTTP
SMTP
POP
IMAP
DNS
POP3

Explanation: POP, POP3, and IMAP are protocols that are used to retrieve email from servers. SMTP is the default protocol that is used to send email. DNS may be used by the sender email server to find the address of the destination email server.

29. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?

Different SMB message types have a different format.
Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

Explanation: The Server Message Block protocol is a protocol for file, printer, and directory sharing. Clients establish a long term connection to servers and when the connection is active, the resources can be accessed. Every SMB message has the same format. The use of SMB differs from FTP mainly in the length of the sessions. SMB messages can authenticate sessions.

30. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?

to request an HTML page from a web server
to send error information from a web server to a web client
to upload content to a web server from a web client
to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110

31. Which OSI layer provides the interface between the applications used to communicate and the underlying network over which messages are transmitted?

application
presentation
session
transport

32. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?

peer-to-peer
master-slave
client/server
point-to-point

Explanation: In the client/server network model, a network device assumes the role of server in order to provide a particular service such as file transfer and storage. In the client/server network model, a dedicated server does not have to be used, but if one is present, the network model being used is the client/server model. In contrast, a peer-to-peer network does not have a dedicated server.

33. What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?

Both models have dedicated servers.
Both models support devices in server and client roles.
Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.
Both models are used only in the wired network environment.

Explanation: In both the client/server and peer-to-peer network models, clients and servers exist. In peer-to-peer networks, no dedicated server exists, but a device can assume the server role to provide information to a device serving in the client role.

34. In what networking model would eDonkey, eMule, BitTorrent, Bitcoin, and LionShare be used?

peer-to-peer
client-based
master-slave
point-to-point

Explanation: In a peer-to-peer networking model, data is exchanged between two network devices without the use of a dedicated server. Peer-to-peer applications such as Shareaz, eDonkey, and Bitcoin allow one network device to assume the role of server, while one or more other network devices assume the role of client using the peer-to-peer application.

35. What is a common protocol that is used with peer-to-peer applications such as WireShare, Bearshare, and Shareaza?

Ethernet
Gnutella
POP
SMTP

Explanation: The Gnutella protocol is used when one user shares an entire file with another user. A person would load a Gnutella-based application such as gtk-gnutella or WireShare and use that application to locate and access resources shared by others.

36. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?

wireless networking
social networking without the Internet
network printing using a print server
resource sharing without a dedicated server

Explanation: The peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model allows data, printer, and resource sharing without a dedicated server.

37. The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what three layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

physical
session
network
presentation
data link
transport
application

Explanation: The network access layer of the TCP/IP model performs the same functions as the physical and data link layers of the OSI model. The internetwork layer equates to the network layer of the OSI model. The transport layers are the same in both models. The application layer of the TCP/IP model represents the session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.

38. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?

A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.
A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.

Explanation: When a user types a domain name of a website into the address bar of a web browser, a workstation needs to send a DNS request to the DNS server for the name resolution process. This request is a client/server model application. The eMule application is P2P. Sharing a printer on a workstation is a peer-to-peer network. Using ARP is just a broadcast message sent by a host.

39. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data?

internetwork
session
presentation
application
network access

Explanation: The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of three layers of the OSI model – application, presentation, and session. The application layer of the TCP/IP model is the layer that provides the interface between the applications, is responsible for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data, and is used to create and maintain dialogs between source and destination applications.

40. What is an advantage of SMB over FTP?

Only with SMB can data transfers occur in both directions.
Only SMB establishes two simultaneous connections with the client, making the data transfer faster.
SMB is more reliable than FTP because SMB uses TCP and FTP uses UDP.
SMB clients can establish a long-term connection to the server.

41. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its ISP. The services that are required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)

FTP
HTTP
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
SMTP

Explanation: The ISP uses the HTTP protocol in conjunction with hosting web pages, the FTP protocol with file transfers, and SMTP with e-mail. DNS is used to translate domain names to IP addresses. SNMP is used for network management traffic. DHCP ic commonly used to manage IP addressing.

42. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

DNS
DHCP
SMTP
HTTP
POP3

Explanation: The GET command is a client request for data from a web server. A PUT command uploads resources and content, such as images, to a web server. A POST command uploads data files to a web server.

43. What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?

the FQDN of the alias used to identify a service
the IP address for an FQDN entry
the domain name mapped to mail exchange servers
the IP address of an authoritative name server

Explanation: MX, or mail exchange messages, are used to map a domain name to several mail exchange servers that all belong to the same domain.

44. Which three protocols operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

ARP
TCP
UDP
FTP
POP3
DHCP

Explanation: FTP, DHCP, and POP3 are application layer protocols. TCP and UDP are transport layer protocols. ARP is a network layer protocol.

45. Which protocol is used by a client to communicate securely with a web server?

SMTP
SMB
IMAP
HTTPS

Explanation: HTTPS is a secure form of HTTP used to access web content hosted by a web server.

46. Which applications or services allow hosts to act as client and server at the same time?

client/server applications
email applications
P2P applications
authentication services

Explanation: P2P applications allow the clients to behave as servers if needed. When using authentication services, email exchange, and client/server applications, one host acts as server and the other acts as client at all times.

47. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

scalability
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

Explanation: Peer-to-peer networks have decentralized resources because every computer can serve as both a server and a client. One computer might assume the role of server for one transaction while acting as a client for another transaction. Peer-to-peer networks can share resources among network devices without the use of a dedicated server.

48. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

Explanation: The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

49. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

physical layer
session layer
transport layer
application layer
presentation layer
data link layer

Explanation: The three upper layers of the OSI model, the session, presentation, and application layers, provide application services similar to those provided by the TCP/IP model application layer. Lower layers of the OSI model are more concerned with data flow.

50. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of 6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received two packets of data from the PC?

3001
6001
4500
6000

51. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of 6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received three packets of data from the PC?

4501
6001
6000
4500

52. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of 6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received four packets of data from the PC?

6001
3001
1501
1500

60. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting TFTP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

61. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting FTP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

62. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting SSH service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

63. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting HTTP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

64. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting POP3 service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

65. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting telnet service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

67. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting SNMP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

68. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting SMTP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

69. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting HTTPS service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?

Complete Knowledge About CTI/CITS Course

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 9 Jun 2020 11:57:00 +0530

हम आज आपको इस पोस्ट में बताएंगे कि CTI/CITS Course क्या होता है. दोस्तों अब इसका नाम CTI से बदलकर CITS कर दिया गया है तो आज हम आपको इस पोस्ट में पूरी जानकारी देंगे. कि CITS क्या होती है इसको करने के बाद आपको कौन सी जॉब मिलती है इसको करने के लिए आपको पहले क्या पढ़ाई करनी पड़ती है. और आपको इस में एडमिशन ले के लिए क्या करना पड़ता है आप इसको कितने दिन में पूरा करते हैं. यह सभी बातें मैं आज आपको इस पोस्ट में पूरी और विस्तार से बताऊंगा तो आप भी अगर CTI करना चाहते हैं या करने की सोच रहे हैं. तो यह आपके हॉट काम की है. ताकि आपको आगे जाकर किसी भी तरह की दिक्कत ना हो ।

CTI/ CITSक्या होता है

CITS /CTI Kya Hoti Hai ? सबसे पहले हम बात करते हैं. आखिरकार CITS होता क्या है. CITS की फुल CRAFT INSTRUCTOR TRAINING Schem है.यानी इसमें एक तरह का टीचर प्रशिक्षण दिया जाता है. जो कि इस को पूरा करने के बाद कोई भी एक टीचर के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त कर लेता है.

CTI/CITS को कौन-कौन कर सकते हैं

CTI को ITI पास स्टूडेंट ITC पास स्टूडेंट या पॉलिटेक्निक डिप्लोमा या b-tech किया हुआ छात्र कर सकता है. लेकिन इसमें कुछ नियम होते हैं. नियम कुछ ट्रेड से जुड़े हुए होते हैं और उनमें यह देखा जाता है कि आपने कौन सी ट्रेड से आईटीआई या पॉलिटेक्निकल पास की है. इसमें इलेक्ट्रीशियन, वायरमैन, फिटर, टर्नर, मशीनिस्ट, मोटर मकैनिक तो इन ट्रेड से जितने भी स्टूडेंट डिप्लोमा प्राप्त करते हैं. तो वह स्टूडेंट आसानी से CTI कर सकते हैं.

इसका कोर्स प्रोग्राम कितने दिन का होता है

आइए अब हम बात करते हैं. CTI के प्रोग्राम के बारे में यह कितने साल का होता है. और यह कितने प्रकार से किया जाता है. CTI कोर्स 1 साल का होता है. और यह है तीन-तीन महीने के चार भागों में बांटा जाता है. इसका पहला भाग में ट्रेड टेक्नोलॉजी के अंतर्गत आता है. जोकि शुरू के 3 महीने होते हैं इसके अंदर आपको कंपैरिजन, बेसिक कंपोनेंट्स ऑफ ट्रेड प्रैक्टिस एंड थ्योरी आदि के बारे में बताया जाता है.ट्रेड टेक्नोलॉजी के दूसरे भाग में आपको वह भी 3 महीने का होता है. और इसमें आपको कंपैरिजन एडवांस कंपोनेंट्स ऑफ ट्रेड प्रैक्टिस एंड थ्योरी के बारे में बताया जाता है.

तीसरा पार्ट इसका ट्रेनिंग मेट्रोलॉजी का होता है. जैसा की हमने आपको उपर भी बताया इसके चार पार्ट होते हैं.और यह 1 साल का कोर्स होता है. और इसके चारों पार्ट 3 दिन महीने होते हैं. तो इसके तीसरे पार्ट में आपको कंपैरिजन प्रिंसिपल ऑफ टीचिंग के बारे में बताया जाता है.

फिर अंत में इसका चौथा पार्ट आता है. यह भी 3 महीने का होता है और यह इसका नाम इंजीनियरिंग टेक्नोलॉजी होता है. इसमें आपको मुख्य रुप से कंपैरिजन वर्कशॉप कैलकुलेशन और साइंस एंड इंजीनियरिंग ड्राइंग के बारे में बताया जाता है 045 इसके तो इसके ये चार पार्ट होते हैं. जो कि 1 साल के CTI कोर्स प्रोग्राम के अंतर्गत आते हैं. और इनमें हमने आपको जो चीज बताई है. वह सभी चीजें करवाई जाती है.

इसके लिए फॉर्म को अप्लाई करें

यदि आप CTI कोर्स करना चाहते हैं. तो इसके लिए आपको सबसे पहले कौन सी जगह पर CTI कोर्स करना है. या करना चाहते हैं. यह चुनना होगा. उसके बाद यदि आप इस में एडमिशन लेना चाहते हैं. तो सबसे पहले आपको एक ऑनलाइन फॉर्म अप्लाई करना पड़ता है.

इसीलिए आप इनकी ऑफिशियल वेबसाइट के ऊपर जाकर फॉर्म को अप्लाई कर सकते हैं. और ज्यादा जानकारी के लिए आप इनकी किसी संस्थान के ऊपर जाकर भी पता कर सकते हैं. या आप जिस कॉलेज से यह कोर्स करना चाहते हैं. वहां से आप इसके बारे में पता कर सकते हैं. और अपना फॉर्म अप्लाई कर सकते हैं. इसके बारे में इन की वेबसाइट के ऊपर भी आपको बहुत सी जानकारी मिल जाएगी कब से फार्म अप्लाई किए जाते हैं. और समाचार पत्र में भी आप आसानी से देख सकते हैं. यह और यह लगभग जून, सितंबर, दिसंबर और फिर मार्च में आता है. तो इन 4 महीनों में यह फार्म अप्लाई कर सकते हैं.या आप किसी दुकान के ऊपर जाकर भी फार्म को अप्लाई कर सकते हैं और यदि आपको फॉर्म अप्लाई करना आता है. तो आप अपने घर पर भी इसके बाप को अप्लाई कर सकते हैं इसके लिए आप अपने सभी डाक्यूमेंट्स को तैयार रखें जैसे आधार कार्ड, पैन कार्ड, बैंक की कॉपी की फोटो स्टेट, आपके ITI के आपकी, दसवीं की मार्कशीट इस तरह की कुछ जरूरी और महत्वपूर्ण दस्तावेज आपको अपने पास रखने होंगे उसके बाद आप फार्म को अप्लाई कर सकते हैं.

यह भी जानना बहुत ही जरूरी है कि इसके सेशन कब शुरू होते हैं तो नीचे हम आपको बताएंगे जिसे सेशन कब कब शुरू किए जाते हैं. कि इसका सेशन साल में एक या दो बार ही शुरू किया जाता है. इसका सेशन साल में चार बार शुरू किया जाता है. उसका पहला सेशन 1 अगस्त को शुरू किया जाता है. उसके बाद इसका दूसरा सेशन 1 नवंबर को शुरू किया जाता है. इसका तीसरा स्टेशन 1 फरवरी को शुरू किया जाता है और इसका चौथा और अंतिम फैशन 1 मई को शुरू किया जाता है.

CTI कोर्स कब कब कर सकते हैं

अब बातें करते हैं कि आपके पास क्या-क्या चीजे होनी चाहिए जिसके बाद आप CTIकोर्स कर सकते हैं. तो सबसे पहले हम आपको बता देते कि यदि आपने ITI पास की है. तो आप यह डिप्लोमा कर सकते हैं. इसके लिए आपको ITI पास होना जरूरी है. और आपके पास नेशनल ट्रेनिंग सर्टिफिकेट बोला जाता है. यह आपके पास होना बहुत ही जरूरी है. और यदि आप ITI पास है. और आपके पास यह सर्टिफिकेट नहीं है. तो आपके पास ITI पास होने के बाद नेशनल अप्रेंटिस सर्टिफिकेट होना बहुत ही जरूरी है.यदि आपने अप्रेंटिस कर ली है. तो उसके बाद भी आप इसके लिए अप्लाई कर सकते हैं. यदि आपने कहीं से डिप्लोमा किया है. या पॉलिटेक्निकल की है.तो भी आप इस में एडमिशन लेने के लिए अप्लाई कर सकते हैं.यदि आपने किसी भी गवर्नमेंट ITI या प्राइवेट ITI के अंदर अध्यापक के पद पर कार्य किया है. तो भी आप इसके अंदर दाखिला ले सकते हैं.आपके लिए यह भी जानना बहुत ही जरूरी है कि आपकी आयु कितनी वर्ष होनी चाहिए जब आप यह कोर्स करते हैं.नीचे हम आपको बताएंगे कि आपकी कितनी वर्ष आयु होनी चाहिए जब आप इस डिप्लोमा को करते हैं

आपकी आयु कितनी होनी चाहिए

जब भी आप CTI के बाद या पॉलिटेक्निकल के बाद CTI डिप्लोमा करने के लिए अप्लाई करते हैं तो उस समय आपकी आयु 18 से 40 वर्ष की आयु तक कभी भी इस कोर्स को कर सकते हैं.

CTI के बाद आप कहां पर जॉब कर सकते हैं

जैसा कि इसका नाम आपको पता ही है. Central Training Institute For Instructors है. तो इस कोर्स को करने के बाद आप को किसी भी सरकारी या प्राइवेट ITI में अध्यापक के पद पर कार्य करने के काबिल हो जाते हैं तो यदि गवर्नमेंट ITI में अध्यापक पद के लिए जॉब निकलती है तो आप उसमें अप्लाई कर सकते हैं और यदि आप को जॉब मिल जाती है तो आपकी सैलरी नॉर्मल 30 हजार से ऊपर रखी जाती है और यदि आप को सरकारी ITI में जॉब नहीं मिल पाती है तो आप यदि किसी प्राइवेट ITI में अध्यापक का कार्य करते हैं तो भी आपको 10 से ₹12000 मिल जाएंगे और उसके बाद जैसे-जैसे आपका एक्सपीरियंस होगा उसके हिसाब से आप की सैलरी में बढ़ोतरी कर दी जाएगी

और यदि आप को अध्यापक के पद पर जॉब नहीं मिल पाती है. तो आप रेलवे डिपार्टमेंट में भी जॉब के लिए अप्लाई कर सकते हैं. और यदि आपको वहां भी जॉब नहीं मिल पाती है. तो आप किसी प्राइवेट कंपनी में भी आईटीआई डिप्लोमा के आधार पर जॉब पा सकते हैं यानी सबसे पहले आपके लिए ITI करना जरूरी होता है. या आपको पॉलिटेक्निक करना जरूरी होता है.तो अब आप समझ गए होंगे कि CTI डिप्लोमा क्या होता है और यह किस तरह से किया जाता है.

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Introduction to Networks :Communicating Between Networks Exam

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 11 May 2020 09:53:00 +0530

1. Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its destination?

source IP address
destination IP address
source data-link address
destination data-link address

2. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.
The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

3. A router receives a packet from the Gigabit 0/0 interface and determines that the packet needs to be forwarded out the Gigabit 0/1 interface. What will the router do next?

route the packet out the Gigabit 0/1 interface
create a new Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be sent to the destination
look into the ARP cache to determine the destination IP address
look into the routing table to determine if the destination network is in the routing table

4. Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?

126.0.0.1
127.0.0.0
126.0.0.0
127.0.0.1

5. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?

The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
The computer has an invalid IP address.
The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
The computer has an invalid default gateway address.

6. Which statement describes a feature of the IP protocol?

IP encapsulation is modified based on network media.
IP relies on Layer 2 protocols for transmission error control.
MAC addresses are used during the IP packet encapsulation.
IP relies on upper layer services to handle situations of missing or out-of-order packets.

Explanation: IP protocol is a connection-less protocol, considered unreliable in terms of end-to-end delivery. It does not provide error control in the cases where receiving packets are out-of-order or in cases of missing packets. It relies on upper layer services, such as TCP, to resolve these issues.

7. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?

Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks.
Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.
The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.
The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.

8. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

9. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

performing error detection
routing packets toward the destination
encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer
placement of frames on the media
collision detection

Explanation: The OSI network layer provides several services to allow communication between devices:

addressing
encapsulation
routing
de-encapsulation

Error detection, placing frames on the media, and collision detection are all functions of the data ink layer.

10. Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch with a default gateway address?

Hosts that are connected to the switch can use the switch default gateway address to forward packets to a remote destination.
A switch must have a default gateway to be accessible by Telnet and SSH.
The default gateway address is used to forward packets originating from the switch to remote networks.
It provides a next-hop address for all traffic that flows through the switch.

Explanation: A default gateway address allows a switch to forward packets that originate on the switch to remote networks. A default gateway address on a switch does not provide Layer 3 routing for PCs that are connected on that switch. A switch can still be accessible from Telnet as long as the source of the Telnet connection is on the local network.

11. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

connectionless
media dependent
user data segmentation
reliable end-to-end delivery

Explanation: Internet Protocol (IP) is a network layer protocol that does not require initial exchange of control information to establish an end-to-end connection before packets are forwarded. Thus, IP is connectionless and does not provide reliable end-to-end delivery by itself. IP is media independent. User data segmentation is a service provided at the transport layer.

12. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?

Time-to-Live
Sequence Number
Acknowledgment Number
Differentiated Services

Explanation: The value of the Time-to-Live (TTL) field in the IPv4 header is used to limit the lifetime of a packet. The sending host sets the initial TTL value; which is decreased by one each time the packet is processed by a router. If the TTL field decrements to zero, the router discards the packet and sends an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Time Exceeded message to the source IP address. The Differentiated Services (DS) field is used to determine the priority of each packet. Sequence Number and Acknowledgment Number are two fields in the TCP header.

13. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?

smaller-sized header
little requirement for processing checksums
smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses
efficient packet handling

Explanation: The IPv6 simplified header offers several advantages over IPv4:

Better routing efficiency and efficient packet handling for performance and forwarding-rate scalability
No requirement for processing checksums
Simplified and more efficient extension header mechanisms (as opposed to the IPv4 Options field)
A Flow Label field for per-flow processing with no need to open the transport inner packet to identify the various traffic flows

14. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?

Protocol
Identification
Version
Differentiated Services

Explanation: It is the Protocol field in the IP header that identifies the upper-layer protocol the packet is carrying. The Version field identifies the IP version. The Differential Services field is used for setting packet priority. The Identification field is used to reorder fragmented packets.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

Explanation: Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.

16. What information does the loopback test provide?

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
The device has end-to-end connectivity.
DHCP is working correctly.
The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
The device has the correct IP address on the network.

17. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

directly-connected routes
local routes
remote routes
C and L source routes

18. How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?

They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote default route.
They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the packet delivery.
They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address and pass this information to the default gateway.
They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.

19. When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming audio and video, which field in the IPv6 header can be used to inform the routers and switches to maintain the same path for the packets in the same conversation?

Next Header
Flow Label
Traffic Class
Differentiated Services

Explanation: The Flow Label in IPv6 header is a 20-bit field that provides a special service for real-time applications. This field can be used to inform routers and switches to maintain the same path for the packet flow so that packets will not be reordered.

20. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?

ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network.
ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network.
ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.
ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network.

21. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.
The destination address is unknown to the switch.
The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.

Explanation: A switch will flood a frame out of every port, except the one that the frame was received from, under two circumstances. Either the frame has the broadcast address as the destination address, or the destination address is unknown to the switch.

22. Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?

They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network.
They are received and processed by every device on the local network.
They are dropped by all switches on the local network.
They are received and processed only by the target device.

Explanation: One of the negative issues with ARP requests is that they are sent as a broadcast. This means all devices on the local link must receive and process the request.

23. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
the physical address of the destination host

Explanation: The purpose of an ARP request is to find the MAC address of the destination host on an Ethernet LAN. The ARP process sends a Layer 2 broadcast to all devices on the Ethernet LAN. The frame contains the IP address of the destination and the broadcast MAC address, FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. The host with the IP address that matches the IP address in the ARP request will reply with a unicast frame that includes the MAC address of the host. Thus the original sending host will obtain the destination IP and MAC address pair to continue the encapsulation process for data transmission.

24. A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after this command is issued?

The ARP cache is cleared.
The current content of the ARP cache is displayed.
The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed.
The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface.

Explanation: Issuing the arp –d * command on a PC will clear the ARP cache content. This is helpful when a network technician wants to ensure the cache is populated with updated information.

25. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

The switch will discard the frame.
The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

Explanation: The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because the switch does not know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the frame to all the switch ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.

26. Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address resolution?

anycast
broadcast
echo reply
echo request
neighbor solicitation
neighbor advertisement

Explanation: IPv6 does not use ARP. Instead, ICMPv6 neighbor discovery is used by sending neighbor solicitation and neighbor advertisement messages.

27. What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?

to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses
to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address
to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests

28. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

the MAC address of S1
the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1
the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
the MAC address of S2
the MAC address of File_server1

29. Where are IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings maintained on a host computer?

neighbor table
ARP cache
routing table
MAC address table

30. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?

source MAC address
source IP address
destination MAC address
Ethernet type
destination IP address

Explanation: The Layer 2 device, such as a switch, uses the destination MAC address to determine which path (interface or port) should be used to send the data onward to the destination device.

31. Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.)

32. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

Reboot the device.
Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
Exit global configuration mode.
Power cycle the device.
Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.

Explanation: While at the privileged mode prompt such as Router#, type exit,press Enter, and the banner message appears. Power cycling a network device that has had the banner motd command issued will also display the banner message, but this is not a quick way to test the configuration.

33. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: Both the console and AUX ports can be used to directly connect to a Cisco network device for management purposes. However, it is more common to use the console port. The AUX port is more often used for remote access via a dial up connection. SSH and Telnet are both remote access methods that depend on an active network connection. SSH uses a stronger password authentication than Telnet uses and also uses encryption on transmitted data.

34. Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: There are three major phases to the bootup process of a Cisco router:

Perform the POST and load the bootstrap program.
Locate and load the Cisco IOS software.
Locate and load the startup configuration file

If a startup configuration file cannot be located, the router will enter setup mode by displaying the setup mode prompt.

35. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered in R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered in R1# mode. The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in R1(config-if)# mode. The service password-encryption command is entered in global configuration mode.

36. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

to store the routing table
to retain contents when power is removed
to store the startup configuration file
to contain the running configuration file
to store the ARP table

Explanation: NVRAM is permanent memory storage, so the startup configuration file is preserved even if the router loses power.

37. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.
Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
The POST process has detected hardware failure.

38. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.

39. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

Explanation: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

40. Refer to the exhibit. A user PC has successfully transmitted packets to www.cisco.com. Which IP address does the user PC target in order to forward its data off the local network?

172.24.255.17
172.24.1.22
172.20.0.254
172.24.255.4
172.20.1.18

41. Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that mode. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: The enable command is entered at the R1> prompt. The login command is entered at the R1(config-line)# prompt. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered at the R1# prompt. The interface fastethernet 0/0 command is entered at the R1(config)# prompt.

42. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)

interface fastethernet 0/0
line vty 0 4
line console 0
enable secret cisco
login
password cisco

Explanation: The three commands needed to password protect the console port are as follows:

line console 0
password cisco
login

The interface fastethernet 0/0 command is commonly used to access the configuration mode used to apply specific parameters such as the IP address to the Fa0/0 port. The line vty 0 4 command is used to access the configuration mode for Telnet. The0and 4 parameters specify ports 0 through 4, or a maximum of five simultaneous Telnet connections. The enable secret command is used to apply a password used on the router to access the privileged mode.

43. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

44. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet forwarding
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection
flow control

Explanation: A router accepts a packet and accesses its routing table to determine the appropriate exit interface based on the destination address. The router then forwards the packet out of that interface.

45. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?

The contents of ROM will change.
The contents of RAM will change.
The contents of NVRAM will change.
The contents of flash will change.

Explanation: The command copy running-config startup-config copies the running-configuration file from RAM into NVRAM and saves it as the startup-configuration file. Since NVRAM is none-volatile memory it will be able to retain the configuration details when the router is powered off.

46. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

Explanation: When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the same network, it can forward the message directly. However, when a host needs to send a message to a remote network, it must use the router, also known as the default gateway. This is because the data link frame address of the remote destination host cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet has to be sent to the router (default gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its destination. Therefore, if the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same network, but not with hosts on remote networks.

47. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)

Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.

Explanation: Large numbers of ARP broadcast messages could cause momentary data communications delays. Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent to intercept network traffic. ARP requests and replies cause entries to be made into the ARP table, not the MAC address table. ARP table overflows are very unlikely. Manually configuring static ARP associations is a way to prevent, not facilitate, ARP poisoning and MAC address spoofing. Multiple ARP replies resulting in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of connected nodes and are associated with the relevant switch port are required for normal switch frame forwarding operations. It is not an ARP caused network problem.

48. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10 Communicating Between Networks Exam

Modules 8 - 10 Communicating Between Networks Packet Tracer file

1 file(s) 235.82 KB

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Which interfaces in each router are active and operational?

R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R2: G0/0 and S0/0/0

R1: G0/1 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/0 and S0/0/1

R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/0

R1: G0/0 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/1

Explanation: The command to use for this activity is show ip interface brief in each router. The active and operational interfaces are represented by the value “up” in the “Status” and “Protocol” columns. The interfaces in R1 with these characteristics are G0/0 and S0/0/0. In R2 they are G0/1 and S0/0/0.

49. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to identify the next level protocol?

protocol
destination IPv4 address
source IPv4 address
TTL

50. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains an 8-bit binary value used to determine the priority of each packet?

differentiated services
destination IPv4 address
source IPv4 address
protocol

51. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 32-bit binary value associated with an interface on the sending device?

source IPv4 address
destination IPv4 address
protocol
TTL

52. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?

header checksum
source IPv4 address
protocol
TTL

53.

RTR1(config)# interface gi0/1
RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Marketing LAN
RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.15.17 255.255.255.0
RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown
RTR1(config-if)# interface gi0/0
RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Payroll LAN
RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.14.148 255.255.255.0
RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown
RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.14.15.254 255.255.255.0
RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown
RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
RTR1(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.39 255.255.255.0
RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown
RTR1(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Payroll LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

10.27.14.148
10.27.14.1
10.14.15.254
203.0.113.39
10.27.15.17

54. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address?

destination IPv4 address
protocol
TTL
header checksum

55. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to limit the lifetime of a packet?

TTL
source IPv4 address
protocol
header checksum

56. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 4-bit binary value set to 0100?

version
source IPv4 address
protocol
TTL

57. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to identify the next level protocol?

protocol
version
differentiated services
header checksum

58. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 4-bit binary value set to 0100?

version
differentiated services
header checksum
TTL

59. What property of ARP causes cached IP-to-MAC mappings to remain in memory longer?

Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.
The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch.

60. What property of ARP allows MAC addresses of frequently used servers to be fixed in the ARP table?

A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.
Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch.

61. What property of ARP allows MAC addresses of frequently used servers to be fixed in the ARP table?

A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.
The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch.

62. What property of ARP allows hosts on a LAN to send traffic to remote networks?

Local hosts learn the MAC address of the default gateway.
The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch.

63.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

192.168.235.234
192.168.235.1
10.234.235.254
203.0.113.3
192.168.234.114

64. What property of ARP forces all Ethernet NICs to process an ARP request?

The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.

65. What property of ARP causes a reply only to the source sending an ARP request?

The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.

66. What property of ARP causes the request to be flooded out all ports of a switch except for the port receiving the ARP request?

The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.

67. What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass the data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?

The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.

68. What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass the data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?

The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch.

69.

Main(config)# interface gi0/1
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Service LAN
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.29.157.156 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Engineering LAN
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.29.156.36 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Main(config-if)# ip address 10.156.157.254 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
Main(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.177 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Service LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

172.29.157.156
172.29.157.1
10.156.157.254
198.51.100.177
172.29.156.36

70.

BldgA(config)# interface gi0/1
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Medical LAN
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.191.189 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# interface gi0/0
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Client LAN
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.190.70 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 10.190.191.254 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.213 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Medical LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

192.168.191.189
192.168.191.1
10.190.191.254
198.51.100.213
192.168.190.70

71.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.225.223 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.224.103 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.224.225.254 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.246 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# end

192.168.225.223
192.168.225.1
10.224.225.254
203.0.113.246
192.168.224.103

72.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.118.63.65 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.118.62.196 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.62.63.254 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 209.165.200.87 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Manager LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

10.118.62.196
10.118.62.1
10.62.63.254
209.165.200.87
10.118.63.65

73.

HQ(config)# interface gi0/1
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Branch LAN
HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.19.99.99 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# interface gi0/0
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Store LAN
HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.19.98.230 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
HQ(config-if)# ip address 10.98.99.254 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
HQ(config-if)# ip address 209.165.200.120 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Store LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

172.19.98.230
172.19.98.1
10.98.99.254
209.165.200.120
172.19.99.99

74.

HQ(config)# interface gi0/1
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Branch LAN
HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.133.132 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# interface gi0/0
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Store LAN
HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.132.13 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
HQ(config-if)# ip address 10.132.133.254 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
HQ(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.156 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# end

172.20.132.13
172.20.132.1
10.132.133.254
198.51.100.156
172.20.133.132

75.

Main(config)# interface gi0/1
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Service LAN
Main(config-if)# ip address 192.168.167.166 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Engineering LAN
Main(config-if)# ip address 192.168.166.46 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Main(config-if)# ip address 10.166.167.254 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
Main(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.189 255.255.255.0
Main(config-if)# no shutdown
Main(config-if)# end

192.168.167.166
192.168.167.1
10.166.167.254
198.51.100.189
192.168.166.46

76.

BldgA(config)# interface gi0/1
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Medical LAN
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.201.200 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# interface gi0/0
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Client LAN
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.200.80 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 10.200.201.254 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
BldgA(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.222 255.255.255.0
BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# end

192.168.201.200
192.168.201.1
10.200.201.254
203.0.113.222
192.168.200.80

Women NSTI Patna

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 16 Apr 2020 10:45:00 +0530

Overview of NSTI(W) Patna:

Address of NSTI Patna:

WITI Campus ,
Dighaghat,
Patna-800011

Contact of NSTI(W) Patna:

0612-22567333

Email Address of NSTI Patna:

nstiw-patna@dgt.gov.in

Web Address of NSTI Patna:

http://www.nstiwpatna.ac.in/

CTI Chennai

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 8 Apr 2020 10:06:00 +0530

Overview Of CTI Chennai

NSTI (erstwhile ATI) Chennai, a premier institute established in 1968 by Government of India, New Delhi with the assistance from United Nations Development Programme ( UNDP ) / International Labour Organisation ( ILO ) to impart training and updating the skills of Engineers / Supervisors / Technicians / Executives of Industrial personnel & faculties of educational institutions through courses of short duration conducted in modules and Tailor made courses as per the specific needs of their Industries / Govt Estt./PSUs/Technical/Institutions.

The courses are conducted for higher skill upgradation through intensive skill oriented training by using the latest version of equipment and machinery as used in industry.

Contact Address of NSTI Chennai:

Shri K.Srinivasa Rao The Regional Director

NATIONAL SKILL TRAINING INSTITUTE,

(erstwhile Advanced Training Institute)

DGT, MSDE, Govt. of India,

CTI Campus, Guindy

Chennai - 600 032

Tamilnadu, India.

Web Address of ATI Chennai:

http://www.atichennai.org.in/

Location Map Of ATI Chennai:

Some Important Link 🔗 of NSTI Chennai:

Classroom in NSTI Chennai:

Hostel in ATI chennai:

CITS/CTS- Room rent Rs. 100/- per month/ candidate.CITS- sharing Accommodation with in 126 rooms.AVTS (short Term Programs) - Room rent Rs 100/- per day per candidateAVTS-100 moderately furnished single rooms with attached bath are availableMen and Women have separate hostels.Family accommodation not available.Boarding (meals) facility available on payment basis.Well connected by local buses.

Trade in NSTI chennai:

Short Term Course in ATI Chennai:

Campus of CTI chennai:

Fees Structure of NSTI Chennai:

Hostel Life in NSTI Chennai:

Complete process of online CISCO Exam

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 20 Mar 2020 06:09:00 +0530

डियर ट्रेनीज इस पोस्ट को पढ़कर आप सिस्को के एग्जाम प्रोसेस को आसानी से जान पाएंगे ,आप इसे स्टेप बाय स्टेप फालो करें जिससे आप आसानी से एग्जाम दें सके

सबसे पहले आपको नीचे दिए गए लिंक पर क्लिक करना है |

https://www.netacad.com/

इस साइट पर जाने के बाद आपको नीचे दिए गए इमेज के जैसा स्क्रीन दिखाई देगा । जिस पर राइट साइड में आपको लॉगिन पर क्लिक करना है।

लॉगइन पर क्लिक करने के उपरांत आपको अपना वही ईमेल डालना है जिसे आप रजिस्ट्रेशन के टाइम यूज किया था इसके बाद नेक्स्ट बटन पर क्लिक करके आगे बढ़े।

अपना पासवर्ड एंटर करें यदि आप पासवर्ड भूल गए हैं तो फॉरगेट पासवर्ड पर क्लिक करें अन्यथा साइन इन बटन पर क्लिक करके आगे बढ़ जाएं|

अब आपके सामने नीचे दिए गए चित्र के अनुसार आपका डैशबोर्ड ओपन हो जाएगा जिसमें आपको एनएसटीआई कानपुर लिखा हुआ दिखाई देगा जिसका कोड नंबर IOT 001 होगा।आप नीचे दिए गए चित्र के अनुसार लांच कोर्स पर क्लिक कीजिए।

लांच कोर्स पर क्लिक करने के बाद आपको राइट साइड में एक मीनू बार दिखाई देगा जिसमें असाइनमेंट पर क्लिक करना है नीचे चित्र में आप देख सकते हैं|

असाइनमेंट पर क्लिक करने के बाद आपको फीडबैक का फॉर्म भरना है जो आपका फाइनल एग्जाम नहीं है कृपया ध्यान दें बिना फीडबैक फॉर्म भरे आप फाइनल एग्जाम नहीं दे सकते हैं आता आप इसे नीचे दिए गए चित्र के अनुसार पूरा फीडबैक फॉर्म भरे आपको इसमें मन के अनुसार जो अच्छा लगे भर सकते हैं ।

इसे सबमिट करने के बाद आप नीचे दिए गए चित्र के अनुसार फिर से असाइनमेंट पर क्लिक कीजिएगा |

फिर से असाइनमेंट पर क्लिक करने के उपरांत आपको इस तरह का पेज दिखाई देगा जो आपके फाइनल एग्जाम का लिंक है इस पर क्लिक करने के बाद आपके सामने एक नई विंडो ओपन होगी जिसमें स्टार्ट और एंड टाइम लिखा होगा तथा एग्जाम ड्यूरेशन भी मेंशन होगा अब आप कंटिन्यू बटन पर क्लिक करके आगे बढ़े यह आपका फाइनल एग्जाम है आप इसे सावधानीपूर्वक पूरा करें

यदि आपको एग्जाम देने में कोई कठिनाई आती है तो कमेंट बॉक्स में लिखें या आप मुझे ईमेल kr सकते हैं | मैं आपकी पूरी मदद करूंगा |
Email: ramkamalyaadav[at]gmail.com

धन्यवाद!

CTI College list

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 19 Mar 2020 11:34:00 +0530

LIST OF CENTRAL INSTITUTES [NSTIS/NSTI(W)]

SI.no	State Name	Name of Unit	Address of the Institute	Website address
1	Jammu	NSTI(W) Jammu	Bhour,Chatha Road,,Neer Teen Palace,P.O Bhour,Dis
2	Maharashtra	NSTI Mumbai	RDSDE,V.N.Purav Marg,,Mumbai-400022	http://nstimumbai.dgt.gov.in/
3	Uttar Prades	NSTI Kanpur	NSTI Kanpur,,208022	https://www.nstikanpur.org/
4	Uttrakhand	NSTI Haldwani	Tehri Pulia Nainital Road,,Haldwani,PO Kathgodam,,
5	Uttrakhand	NSTI Dehradun	Greenpark Niranjanpur,,Dehradun-248171,Uttrakh	http://nstidehradun.dgt.gov.in/
6	Telangana	NSTI(W) Hyderab	NSTIW,vidhya nagar,,shivam road,,Hyderabad	http://atiepihyderabad.gov.in/
7	Jharkhand	NSTI Jamshedpur	NSTI (FTI),Jamahedpur
8	Punjab	NSTI Ludhiana	Gill Road,,Ludhiana	https://atiludhiana.in/
9	West Bengal	NSTI Howrah	NSTI Kolkata,,Dasnagar,,Howrah-711105	http://atihowrah.org.in/
10	Telangana	NSTI Hyderabad(V	NSTI Vidyanagar campus,,shivam road,,Hyderabad	http://atiepihyderabad.gov.in/
11	Rajasthan	NSTI(W) Jaipur	Opposite KV No 03,,Jhalana Doongri,,Jaipur 302017	http://rvtijaipur.nic.in/
12	Rajasthan	NSTI Jodhpur	Heavy industrial area,,near saras dairy,, jodhpur-34
13	Goa	NSTI(W) Goa	Head of Office NSTIW ,,Goa ITI campus ,,COE Buildin
14	Meghalaya	NSTI(W) Tura	NSTI(W), Tura,,Meghalaya	http://rvtitura.gov.in/
15	Punjab	NSTI(W) Patiala	WITI Campus Neelpur,,Rajpura,,Distt:- Patiala
16	Uttar Prades	NSTI(W) Noida	D -1,Sector 1 ,,Noida	http://nstiwnoida.ac.in/
17	Tripura	NSTI(W) Agartala	NSTI For Women PN Complex,, Gurkhabasti Agartala	http://www.nstiwagartalagov.in/
18	Tamil Nadu	NSTI(W) Trichy	NSTI(W),,COE Building,, Govt.ITI Campus,,Thiruver	http://nstiwtrichy.dgt.gov.in/
19	Uttar Prades	NSTI(W) Allahaba	6,new katra road,, Allahabad
20	Tamil Nadu	NSTI Chennai	10, Alandur Road,, CTI Campus,,Guindy,,Chennai-32	http://www.atichennai.org.in/void/
21	Maharashtra	NSTI(W) Mumbai	Kashinath Dhuru Marg,,Agar Bazar,,Dadar(West),,M	http://rvtimumbai.ac.in/
22	Karnataka	NSTI Bengaluru	Fti Campus,,Beside ESIC Hospital-peenya,,Outer Rin	http://nstibengaluru.in/frontend/h
23	Odisha	NSTI Bhubaneshw	5th Floor Dharmapada,Bhavan,(NSIC-IMDC Building
24	Telangana	NSTI Hyderabad (	Uppal Road,,Ramanthapur,,Hyderabad,,Pin - 50001	http://atihyderabad.ap.nic.in/
25	West Bengal	NSTI(W) Kolkata	NSTI(W),,CP-16, Sector-V,,Salt Lake,, Kolkata-70009	http://www.nstiwkolkatagov.in/
26	Bihar	NSTI(W) Patna	WITI Campus ,,Dighaghat,,Patna-800011	http://www.nstiwpatna.ac.in/
27	Haryana	NSTI(W) Panipat	Near N F L,,G T Road,,Panipat	http://nstipanipatgov.in/
28	Karnataka	NSTI(W) Bengalur	NSTI for Women
29	Madhya Pra	NSTI(W) Indore	NSTI(W),,Sukhliya Road,,Nanda Nagar	http://nstiwindore.dgt.gov.in/
30	Himachal Pr	NSTI(W) Shimla	SIEMAT Building,,Adjacent to DIET,Campus	https://rvtishimla.gov.in/
31	Kerala	NSTI(W) Trivandr	National Skill Training,Institute for Women,,Opp: Blo	http://nstiwtrivandrum.dgt.gov.in/
32	Gujarat	NSTI(W) Vadodar	Shanti Nagar,,b/h Tarsali ITI,,Tarsali,,vadodara-3900	http://nstiwvadodara.dgt.gov.in/in
33	Kerala	NSTI Calicut	Govinda Puram,, Kozhikode	http://nsticalicut.dgt.gov.in/

POT True and false type Question and Answer

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 17 Mar 2020 11:14:00 +0530

Hi Friend it is not the exam type question its given here for your exercise purpose only.
Content Source: Internet

Pot Exercise 1

POT Exercise Questions

POT True and False

Hey guys please ! comment your answer! if you have any doubt the write in the comment section!

Thankyou!

If you want to buy POT/TM book the you click on below image!

Cisco IOT Introduction Answer list

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 12 Mar 2020 09:46:00 +0530

How is data that has been collected through sources such as web pages, audio, or tweets categorized?unstructured data

Match the term with the definition. (Not all options are used.)

Hadoop - a comprehensive ecosystem...

distributed processing - breaks large volumes of data...

fog computing - an architecture that utilizes...

cloud services - a collection of data centers...

What limits the types of different objects that can become intelligent sensors on the Internet of Things?

our imagination

Which technology is a subset of AI that uses statistical techniques to enable computers to "learn" from collected data?

True or False? With artificial intelligence, smart devices can modify processes and settings on the fly in response to changes on the network.

true

Which technology is used as a visual programming tool to create a program by connecting colored blocks?

Blockly

Which character is used within a search engine to gather data efficiently by placing the character before and after the name of a particular person?

quotation mark (")

Which two types of institutions do malicious web pages often look like? (Choose two.)

bank

financial

True or False? Comma-separated values (CSV), JSON, and XML are all tools that can be used to manipulate structured data.

true

What is an open-source physical computing platform that can take input from a variety of switches or sensors to control physical objects?

Arduino

Which type of network consists of wired computers in a college classroom?

LAN

What is the largest network in existence?

the internet

What are three benefits of cloud computing? (Choose three.)

It eliminates or reduces the need for onsite IT equipment, maintenance, and management.

It enables access to organizational data anywhere and at any time.

It streamlines the IT operations of an organization by subscribing only to needed services.

What are the two areas of physical security within a data center?

outside

inside

What is the core component of Intent-Based Networking?

artificial intelligence

Match the logic structure to the function.

allow the code to make decisions - if-then

execute a block of code while a condition is true - while

repeat the execution of a specific block of code for a specific number of times - for

What are two characteristics of the Python programming language? (Choose two.)

It runs without conversion to machine-language.

The code is easy to read.

Which two data types would be classified as personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

Facebook photographs

vehicle identification number

Which two skills help with IoT prototyping? (Choose two.)

programming

design

What are two requirements to connect a smart device to a home wireless network? (Choose two.)

IP addressing

SSID

What is a key feature of the assurance element of the intent-based networking model?

end-to-end verification of network-wide behavior

A company requires using a secure encrypted internet connection when connecting to the corporate network from outside the company. Which technology should be used when employees travel and use a laptop?

VPN

Which security best practice involves defining company rules, job duties, and expectations?

developing a security policy

What are three attributes of data that would indicate that it may be big data? (Choose three.)

variety

volume

velocity

Which technology has the intelligence that is demonstrated by machines in a way that mimics human cognitive functions?

What is the purpose of data analytics?

to gain new insights from data

Mined data can be visualized through the use of charts. Select two criteria that can be used to determine the best chart selection. (Choose two.)

number of variables to be shown

items requiring comparison

What device provides auto discovery services for smart devices that are connected to the network?

home gateway

Which type of network is the connection between a Bluetooth headset and a vehicle?

PAN

Change will have to occur in the corporate network in order to prepare for the Internet of Things. Which type of testing would a company do to demonstrate the benefits of networking a new "thing" that was not on the network before?

prototyping

What are two features of automation? (Choose two.)

a process that eventually eliminates the need for human intervention

a process that is self-driven

What are two things that all digital devices need in order to work? (Choose two.)

computer program

data

What is used to provide IoT sensors with access to the network?

a microcontroller

What is the purpose of Packet Tracer?

to simulate and visualize one or more networks

Which statement describes global variables in programming languages?

They can be used within any function of a program.

Enjoy And write your comment below its very valuable for me! So please, write us.

Cisco cyber security final exam answer key

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 3 Mar 2020 01:30:00 +0530

Which statement describes cybersecurity?
- It is a framework for security policy development.
- It is a standard-based model for developing firewall technologies to fight against cybercriminals.
- It is the name of a comprehensive security application for end users to protect workstations from being attacked.
- It is an ongoing effort to protect Internet-connected systems and the data associated with those systems from unauthorized use or harm.
Cybersecurity is the ongoing effort to protect Internet-connected network systems and all of the data associated with the systems from unauthorized use or harm.
What are two objectives of ensuring data integrity? (Choose two.)
- Data is available all the time.
- Data is unaltered during transit.
- Access to the data is authenticated.
- Data is not changed by unauthorized entities.
- Data is encrypted while in transit and when stored on disks.
The objectives for data integrity include data not being altered during transit and not being changed by unauthorized entities. Authentication and encryption are methods to ensure confidentiality. Data being available all the time is the goal of availability.
A web server administrator is configuring access settings to require users to authenticate first before accessing certain web pages. Which requirement of information security is addressed through the configuration?
- integrity
- scalability
- availability
- confidentiality
Confidentiality ensures that data is accessed only by authorized individuals. Authentication will help verify the identity of the individuals.
A company is experiencing overwhelming visits to a main web server. The IT department is developing a plan to add a couple more web servers for load balancing and redundancy. Which requirement of information security is addressed by implementing the plan?
- integrity
- scalability
- availability
- confidentiality
Availability ensures that network services are accessible and performing well under all conditions. By load balancing the traffic destined to the main web servers, in times of a huge volume of visits the systems will be well managed and serviced.
An employee does something as a company representative with the knowledge of that company and this action is deemed illegal. The company would be legally responsible for this action.
True or False?
- True
- False
This is a bit of a grey area and would also depend on local laws. In many cases, if the employee did something with the knowledge or approval of the company, then the legal responsibility would probably be with the company not the employee. In some areas or situations, both the company and employee could be held legally responsible.
What is the main purpose of cyberwarfare?
- to protect cloud-based data centers
- to gain advantage over adversaries
- to develop advanced network devices
- to simulate possible war scenarios among nations
Cyberwarfare is Internet-based conflict that involves the penetration of the networks and computer systems of other nations. The main purpose of cyberwarfare is to gain advantage over adversaries, whether they are nations or competitors.
When describing malware, what is a difference between a virus and a worm?
- A virus focuses on gaining privileged access to a device, whereas a worm does not.
- A virus can be used to deliver advertisements without user consent, whereas a worm cannot.
- A virus replicates itself by attaching to another file, whereas a worm can replicate itself independently.
- A virus can be used to launch a DoS attack (but not a DDoS), but a worm can be used to launch both DoS and DDoS attacks.
Malware can be classified as follows:

– Virus (self replicates by attaching to another program or file)
– Worm (replicates independently of another program)
– Trojan Horse (masquerades as a legitimate file or program)
– Rootkit (gains privileged access to a machine while concealing itself)
– Spyware (collects information from a target system)
– Adware (delivers advertisements with or without consent)
– Bot (waits for commands from the hacker)
– Ransomware (holds a computer system or data captive until payment is received)
What type of attack uses zombies?
- Trojan horse
- DDoS
- SEO poisoning
- spear phishing
The hacker infects multiple machines (zombies), creating a botnet. Zombies launch the distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack.
The IT department is reporting that a company web server is receiving an abnormally high number of web page requests from different locations simultaneously. Which type of security attack is occurring?
- adware
- DDoS
- phishing
- social engineering
- spyware
Phishing, spyware, and social engineering are security attacks that collect network and user information. Adware consists, typically, of annoying popup windows. Unlike a DDoS attack, none of these attacks generate large amounts of data traffic that can restrict access to network services.
What is the best approach to prevent a compromised IoT device from maliciously accessing data and devices on a local network?
- Install a software firewall on every network device.
- Place all IoT devices that have access to the Internet on an isolated network.
- Disconnect all IoT devices from the Internet.
- Set the security settings of workstation web browsers to a higher level.
The best approach to protect a data network from a possibly compromised IoT device is to place all IoT devices on an isolated network that only has access to the Internet.
What is the best method to avoid getting spyware on a machine?
- Install the latest operating system updates.
- Install the latest web browser updates.
- Install the latest antivirus updates.
- Install software only from trusted websites.
The best method to avoid getting spyware on a user machine is to download software only from trusted websites.
What are two security implementations that use biometrics? (Choose two.)
- voice recognition
- fob
- phone
- fingerprint
- credit card
Biometric authentication can be used through the use of a fingerprint, palm print, and facial or voice recognition.
Which technology creates a security token that allows a user to log in to a desired web application using credentials from a social media website?
- password manager
- Open Authorization
- in-private browsing mode
- VPN service
Open Authorization is an open standard protocol that allows end users to access third party applications without exposing their user passwords.
A medical office employee sends emails to patients about recent patient visits to the facility. What information would put the privacy of the patients at risk if it was included in the email?
- patient records
- first and last name
- contact information
- next appointment
An email message is transmitted in plain text and can be read by anyone who has access to the data while it is en route to a destination. Patient records include confidential or sensitive information that should be transmitted in a secure manner.
Which two tools used for incident detection can be used to detect anomalous behavior, to detect command and control traffic, and to detect infected hosts? (Choose two.)
- intrusion detection system
- Honeypot
- NetFlow
- Nmap
- a reverse proxy server
Although each of these tools is useful for securing networks and detecting vulnerabilities, only an IDS and NetFlow logging can be used to detect anomalous behavior, command and control traffic, and infected hosts.
For what purpose would a network administrator use the Nmap tool?
- detection and identification of open ports
- protection of the private IP addresses of internal hosts
- identification of specific network anomalies
- collection and analysis of security alerts and logs
Nmap allows an administrator to perform port scanning to probe computers and the network for open ports. This helps the administrator verify that network security policies are in place.
Which stage of the kill chain used by attackers focuses on the identification and selection of targets?
- delivery
- exploitation
- weaponization
- reconnaissance
It is the first stage, reconnaissance, of the the kill chain that focuses on the identification and selection of targets.
What is an example of the a Cyber Kill Chain?
- a group of botnets
- a planned process of cyberattack
- a series of worms based on the same core code
- a combination of virus, worm, and Trojan Horse
The Cyber Kill Chain describes the phases of a progressive cyberattack operation. The phases include the following:
- Reconnaissance
- Weaponization
- Delivery
- Exploitation
- Installation
- Command and control
- Actions on objectives
In general, these phases are carried out in sequence. However, during an attack, several phases can be carried out simultaneously, especially if multiple attackers or groups are involved.
What tool is used to lure an attacker so that an administrator can capture, log, and analyze the behavior of the attack?
- Netflow
- IDS
- Nmap
- honeypot
A honeypot is a tool set up by an administrator to lure an attacker so that the behavior of the attacker can be analyzed. This information can help the administrator identify weaknesses and build a stronger defense.
What is one main function of the Cisco Security Incident Response Team?
- to design polymorphic malware
- to design next generation routers and switches that are less prone to cyberattacks
- to provide standards for new encryption techniques
- to ensure company, system, and data preservation
The time between a cyberattack and the time it takes to discover the attack is the time when hackers can get into a network and steal data. An important goal of the CSIRT is to ensure company, system, and data preservation through timely investigations into security incidents.
What action will an IDS take upon detection of malicious traffic?
- block or deny all traffic
- drop only packets identified as malicious
- create a network alert and log the detection
- reroute malicious traffic to a honeypot
An IDS, or intrusion detection system, is a device that can scan packets and compare them to a set of rules or attack signatures. If the packets match attack signatures, then the IDS can create an alert and log the detections.

Multiple type questions from Relational model and normalization

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 27 Feb 2020 14:47:00 +0530

Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute B, but not the same value of attribute C. Therefore, it is true that:

A.	A → B.
B.	A → C.
C.	A → (B,C).
D.	(B,C) → A.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

The different classes of relations created by the technique for preventing modification anomalies are called:

A.	normal forms.
B.	referential integrity constraints.
C.	functional dependencies.
D.	None of the above is correct.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies:

A.	second normal form.
B.	third normal form.
C.	fourth normal form.
D.	domain/key normal form.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Row is synonymous with the term:

A.	record.
B.	relation.
C.	column.
D.	field.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

The primary key is selected from the:

A.	composite keys.
B.	determinants.
C.	candidate keys.
D.	foreign keys.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?

A.	Key
B.	Determinant
C.	Tuple
D.	Relation

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):

A.	transitive dependency.
B.	insertion anomaly.
C.	referential integrity constraint.
D.	normal form.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

A relation is considered a:

A.	Column.
B.	one-dimensional table.
C.	two-dimensional table.
D.	three-dimensional table.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

In the relational model, relationships between relations or tables are created by using:

A.	composite keys.
B.	determinants.
C.	candidate keys.
D.	foreign keys.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

10.

A functional dependency is a relationship between or among:

A.	tables.
B.	rows.
C.	relations.
D.	attributes.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

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Step by Step Guide for Cisco registration process

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 27 Feb 2020 02:06:00 +0530

नोट: यह रजिस्ट्रेशन केवल उन्ही छात्रों के लिए मान्य होगा जो सत्र -2019-20 से NSTI कानपुर संस्था में पढ़ रहे है Please! अन्य लोग रजिस्टर ना करें |

सबसे पहले आप नीचे दिए गए लिंक पर क्लिक करके उसे ओपन कर ले |

Click me for Cisco registration!

https://www.netacad.com/portal/web/self-enroll/c/course-978236

आपको नीचे नीचे दिए इमेज की तरह का पेज दिखाई देगा जिस पर एनएसटीआई कानपुर लिखा हुआ होगा।
आप इसमें अपना प्रथम और अंतिम नाम तथा ईमेल ध्यानपूर्वक सावधानी से भर ले कृपया सबमिट बटन पर क्लिक करने से पहले अपनी सारी डिटेल्स दोबारा जांच लें।

Registration

सबमिट बटन पर क्लिक करने के बात आपके स्क्रीन पर कुछ इस तरह का दिखाई देगा साथ ही आपके ईमेल पर एक लिंक नेटवर्क एकेडमी के नाम से भेजा जाएगा।

नीचे दिए गए चित्र अनुसार आपको लिंक पर क्लिक करना है|

जिसके उपरांत कुछ इस तरह का पेज खुलेगा जिसमें आपका ई-मेल तथा पूरा नाम पहले से भरा हुआ रहेगा आपको अपना पासवर्ड क्रिएट करना होगा अपना पासवर्ड कम से कम 8 अक्षरों का जरूर बनाएं तथा उस पासवर्ड को कहीं सुरक्षित नोट कर लें यही पासवर्ड आपको लॉगिन में मदद करेगा।

कैप्चा भरने के बाद आप रजिस्टर बटन पर क्लिक करें अब आपका सिस्को पर रजिस्ट्रेशन पूर्ण रूप से हो चुका है आपको सिस्को के द्वारा एक ईमेल प्राप्त हुआ है जो सक्सेसफुली रजिस्ट्रेशन का है।

आप नीचे दिए गए लिंक पर क्लिक करके सिस्को आईडी पर साइन इन कर सकते हैं यूजरनेम आपका ईमेल और पासवर्ड आपने जो बनाया है|

Click me for Sign in

यह पोस्ट आपको कैसा लगा आप हमें नीचे दिए गए कमेंट सेक्शन के माध्यम से जरूर बताए यदि आपको रजिस्टर करने में कोई प्रॉब्लम होती है तो उसे भी लिखें मैं पूरी तरह से आप की मदद करूंगा |

धन्यवाद!

10 Multiple Choice type questions of Introduction to database

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Tue, 25 Feb 2020 23:43:00 +0530

The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database system?

A.	Database application and the database
B.	Data and the database
C.	The user and the database application
D.	Database application and SQL

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Which of the following products was an early implementation of the relational model developed by E.F. Codd of IBM?

A.	IDMS
B.	DB2
C.	dBase-II
D.	R:base

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

The following are components of a database except ________ .

A.	user data
B.	metadata
C.	reports
D.	indexes

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a(n) ________ .

A.	single-user database application
B.	multiuser database application
C.	e-commerce database application
D.	data mining database application

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

An on-line commercial site such as Amazon.com is an example of a(n) ________ .

A.	single-user database application
B.	multiuser database application
C.	e-commerce database application
D.	data mining database application

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC DBMS?

A.	IDMS
B.	Oracle
C.	dBase-II
D.	R:base

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

SQL stands for ________ .

A.	Structured Query Language
B.	Sequential Query Language
C.	Structured Question Language
D.	Sequential Question Language

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Because it contains a description of its own structure, a database is considered to be ________ .

A.	described
B.	metadata compatible
C.	self-describing
D.	an application program

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .

A.	creating and processing forms
B.	creating databases
C.	processing data
D.	administrating databases

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

10.

An Enterprise Resource Planning application is an example of a(n) ________ .

A.	single-user database application
B.	multiuser database application
C.	e-commerce database application
D.	data mining database application

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

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Short term course started in IOT at CTI kanpur

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 24 Feb 2020 12:42:00 +0530

IOT concept

What is IOT?

The Internet of things is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines that are provided with unique identifiers and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

How IOT Works?

An IoT system consists of sensors/devices which “talk” to the cloud through some kind of connectivity. Once the data gets to the cloud, software processes it and then might decide to perform an action, such as sending an alert or automatically adjusting the sensors/devices without the need for the user.

what is the future of IOT?

In a span of ten years, from 2020 to 2030, IOT devices will grow from 75 billion to more than 100 billion, and the improvement from 4G to 5G in terms to grow IOT is most important. Today's 4G network can support up to 5500 to 6000 NB-IOT devices on a single cell.

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Cyber security Short term Course started at NSTI kanpur

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Mon, 24 Feb 2020 12:38:00 +0530

Model

In now Days Data security is must important things of any persons or organizations. But Security Threats is a big matter, So NSTI Kanpur Started a New short term Courses Cyber Security And Internet of things. Now These Courses are Available for trainees which are currently pursuing Courses in NSTI kanpur. (CERTIFICATION BY CISCO).

What is Cyber Security?

Computer security, cyber security or information technology security is the protection of computer systems and networks from the theft of or damage to their hardware, software, or electronic data, as well as from the disruption or misdirection of the services they provide.

How is cyber security used?

Today, people use the Internet to advertise and sell products in various forms, communicate with their customers and retailers, and perform financial transactions. Due to this, hackers and cyber criminals use the internet as a tool to spread malware and carry out cyber attacks.

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Cisco signs MoU with Directorate General of Training to enable digital learning for NSTI students and trainers

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Sat, 22 Feb 2020 23:13:00 +0530

Mou

Cisco and the Directorate General of Training aim at taking this digital learning initiative to more than 20,000 trainers and trainees..

Cisco has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the Directorate General of Training (DGT) to bring the benefits of digital technology to six National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs), which is in alignment with the Country Digital Acceleration (CDA) program.

The agreement was signed between Rajesh Aggarwal, director general (training), additional secretary, ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship (MSDE) and Sameer Garde, president, Cisco India and SAARC in the presence of Dr. Mahendra Nath Pandey, ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship (MSDE), on 30 September 2019, at the Launch of Apprenticeship Pakhawara event in New Delhi.

Under this initiative, NSTIs in Bengaluru, Chennai, Kolkata, Mumbai, Noida, and Kanpur will be equipped with Cisco Connected Classroom solution, which utilizes Cisco’s Collaboration solutions like TelePresence and Webex, to offer a digital learning experience to the students and faculty of NSTIs, says a press release.

The platform is aimed at providing NSTIs with access to new learning experiences like virtual field trips and specialized skill modules, guest lecturers, as well as industry-connect and mentorship programs irrespective of geographical location. Additionally, interested trainers and trainees across all ITIs will have access to new educational resources through the Bharat Skills portal, an e-learning platform, using their smartphones and other connected devices.

Commenting on the initiative, Dr. Mahendra Nath Pandey, MSDE said: “Through this partnership, we are aiming to impact thousands of students by enabling the sharing of study materials, lectures, and other training resources. This deployment will help us increase collaboration, optimize our resources, and streamline administration, as well as help students learn at their own pace across all ITIs. We are happy to partner with Cisco to explore the possibility of digitization in education and hope to reach more students and teachers soon.”

“We aim to strive ahead in this technological age by ensuring that the nation’s youth is skilled digitally along with traditional vocational skills to help them adapt to the new-age technology and ensure industry readiness. Over the past year DGT has collaborated with many industry leaders to digitally revolutionize the vocational training system in India”, said Rajesh Aggarwal, director general, DGT, about this new partnership.

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Pdf book for Electrician

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Fri, 21 Feb 2020 11:53:00 +0530

Book for Electrician

We are working make it Better for your learning. We will update new pdf books and notes as soon as possible. If you have any idea or suggestion for this that makes it better then you can contact me through Contact us section..

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Pdf Book for Sewing Technology

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 20 Feb 2020 12:13:00 +0530

pdf book for Sewing Trade

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Pdf Book for Turner Trade

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Wed, 19 Feb 2020 12:05:00 +0530

Pdf books for Turner trade

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Pdf Book for Dress Making

noreply@blogger.com (Unknown) — Thu, 13 Feb 2020 12:02:00 +0530

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Vocational Science and Calculation Practice Exam Test 2

Vocational Science and Calculation Practice Exam Test 1

ITI COPA Course के बारे में संपूर्ण जानकारी |

आईटीआई - कम्प्यूटर ऑपरेटर एंड प्रोग्रामिंग असिस्टेंट (ITI - COPA)

What is ITI-COPA Course?

उन्नति के अवसर (Career Progression)

Career After ITI (COPA)

रोजगार विकल्प

Scope in Private Sector

फ्टवेयर कंपनियों में सहायक प्रोग्रामर। कम्प्यूटर संस्थानों या स्कूलों में लैब सहायक।

साइबर कैफे में इंटरनेट ऑपरेटर।

कार्यालयों में कंप्यूटर ऑपरेटर

हार्डवेयर और सॉफ्टवेयर कंपनियों में तकनीशियन

टैली ऑपरेटर

डीटीपी ऑपरेटर

Introduction to Networks (Version 7.00) – Final Exam Answers Full

CCNA1 v7 – ITN – Modules 16 – 17: Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers

Match each weakness with an example. (Not all options are used.)

Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are used.)

Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?

What is the difference between a virus and a worm?

Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two end points?

Which type of attack involves an adversary attempting to gather information about a network to identify vulnerabilities?

Match the description to the type of firewall filtering. (Not all options are used.)

What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?

When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order does not matter. (Not all options are used.)

What feature of SSH makes it more secure than Telnet for a device management connection?

What is the advantage of using SSH over Telnet?

What is the role of an IPS?

What is an accurate description of redundancy?

A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network services is the network administrator trying to accommodate? (Choose two.)

What is the purpose of a small company using a protocol analyzer utility to capture network traffic on the network segments where the company is considering a network upgrade?

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

Which method is used to send a ping message specifying the source address for the ping?

A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?

Which statement is true about Cisco IOS ping indicators?​

A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?

A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?

Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?

A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues among interconnected Cisco routers and switches. Which command should the engineer use to find the IP address information, host name, and IOS version of neighboring network devices?

What information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show version command?

Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?

Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?

By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network administrator identified a network issue after a conversation with the user. What is the next step that the administrator should take?

Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?

An employee complains that a Windows PC cannot connect to the Internet. A network technician issues the ipconfig command on the PC and is shown an IP address of 169.254.10.3. Which two conclusions can be drawn? (Choose two.)

Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network?

Which command can an administrator execute to determine what interface a router will use to reach remote networks?

On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring executive timeouts? (Choose two.)

When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)

What is considered the most effective way to mitigate a worm attack?

Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

A technician is to document the current configurations of all network devices in a college, including those in off-site buildings. Which protocol would be best to use to securely access the network devices?

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which command has to be configured on the router to complete the SSH configuration?

An administrator decides to use “WhatAreyouwaiting4” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “5$7*4#033!” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “12345678!” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “admin” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “Feb121978” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “password” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “RobErT” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

An administrator decides to use “Elizabeth” as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?

A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify the IP addresses of all interfaces on a router. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

Students who are connected to the same switch are having slower than normal response times. The administrator suspects a duplex setting issue. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

A user wants to know the IP address of the PC. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

A student wants to save a router configuration to NVRAM. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

A support technician needs to know the IP address of the wireless interface on a MAC. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify all of the IPv6 interface addresses on a router. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

A teacher is having difficulties connecting his PC to the classroom network. He needs to verify that a default gateway is configured correctly. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues and needs to determine the IP address of a website. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

Modules 16 – 17: Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers (Additional)

फ्टवेयर कंपनियों में सहायक प्रोग्रामर।

कम्प्यूटर संस्थानों या स्कूलों में लैब सहायक।

Which statement is true about Cisco IOS ping indicators?

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